Head And Neck Anatomy

Midterm Exam - Version 1

1. Which bone forms the anterior portion of the cranium and contributes to the roof of the
orbit?
A. Occipital
B. Parietal
C. Frontal
D. Sphenoid
2. How many bones form the human skull in total?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 21
D. 22
3. Which bone is the only movable bone of the skull?
A. Maxilla
B. Vomer
C. Mandible
D. Nasal
4. Which foramen is located on the anterior surface of the maxilla, below the orbit?
A. Mental foramen
B. Infraorbital foramen
C. Mandibular foramen
D. Greater palatine foramen
5. What is the function of the zygomatic arch?
A. Supports the nasal septum
B. Protects the brain
C. Origin of the masseter muscle
D. Houses the optic nerve
6. Which of the following bones contributes to the formation of the hard palate?
A. Sphenoid and ethmoid
B. Maxilla and palatine
C. Zygomatic and vomer
D. Temporal and maxilla
7. The hypophyseal fossa, which houses the pituitary gland, is part of which structure?
A. Crista galli
B. Sella turcica
C. Foramen magnum
D. Jugular foramen
8. Which cranial nerve exits the skull via the stylomastoid foramen?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN XII
9. What passes through the foramen ovale?
A. Optic nerve
B. Mandibular nerve (CN V3)
C. Facial nerve
D. Maxillary artery
10. Which cranial suture unites the parietal bones with the frontal bone?
A. Lambdoid suture
B. Sagittal suture
C. Squamous suture
D. Coronal suture
11. Which of the following best describes the pterion?
A. Site where the occipital condyles articulate with C1
B. Junction of frontal, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal bones
C. Part of the sphenoid bone forming the pituitary fossa
D. Attachment point for the temporalis muscle
12. Which bony projection serves as an attachment site for the temporalis muscle?
A. Coronoid process
B. Mastoid process
C. Styloid process
D. Condylar process
13. Which structure is found in the posterior cranial fossa?
A. Foramen rotundum
B. Cribriform plate
C. Internal acoustic meatus
D. Optic canal
14. Damage to the cribriform plate may result in:
A. Vision loss
B. Facial paralysis
C. Anosmia (loss of smell)
D. Difficulty chewing
15. The maxillary sinus is difficult to drain because:
A. Its opening is located inferiorly
B. It is divided into multiple compartments
C. Its opening is located superiorly
D. It has no communication with the nasal cavity
16. A patient sustains a blow to the temple region and loses consciousness shortly after.
Imaging shows an epidural hematoma. What anatomical landmark is likely fractured?
A. Bregma
B. Pterion
C. Lambda
D. Vertex
17. During TMJ surgery, which foramen located near the neck of the mandible should be
avoided to prevent nerve damage?
A. Foramen rotundum
B. Stylomastoid foramen
 C. Jugular foramen
D. Foramen spinosum
18. A dentist injects anesthesia near the mandibular foramen. Which nerve is being targeted?
A. Lingual nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. Mental nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
19. A patient presents with loss of facial expression on one side. Examination reveals a skull
base fracture. Which of the following bones is most likely involved?
A. Parietal
B. Temporal
C. Vomer
D. Palatine
20. Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression?
A. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B. Facial nerve (CN VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D. Accessory nerve (CN XI)
21. Which branch of the trigeminal nerve supplies the maxillary teeth?
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. Facial nerve
22. What is the sensory function of CN V1 (ophthalmic division)?
A. Lower face
B. Cheek and upper teeth
C. Forehead and cornea
D. Tongue and pharynx
23. Which foramen does the mandibular nerve (V3) pass through?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen rotundum
 C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Jugular foramen
24. The chorda tympani is a branch of which nerve?
A. Maxillary nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
25. Which trigeminal division carries both sensory and motor fibers?
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. None
26. What is the main motor function of CN V3?
A. Facial expressions
B. Eye movement
C. Mastication
D. Salivation
27. Which nerve provides taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
A. Lingual nerve
B. Chorda tympani (CN VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. CN XII
28. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve division?
A. CN V1
B. CN V2
C. CN V3
D. CN VII
29. What is the parasympathetic function of the facial nerve?
A. Pupil constriction
B. Tear and saliva production
 C. Increase heart rate
D. Constrict blood vessels in the face
30. A dental patient complains of sharp pain on the right side of the face, triggered by touch.
This is characteristic of which condition?
A. Bell’s palsy
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. TMJ dysfunction
31. Which layer of the scalp allows free movement over the skull and is a potential space for
infection?
A. Skin
B. Connective tissue
C. Loose areolar tissue
D. Pericranium
32. Which muscle elevates the eyebrows and causes wrinkling of the forehead?
A. Orbicularis oculi
B. Orbicularis oris
C. Buccinator
D. Frontal belly of occipitofrontalis
33. The facial nerve is primarily responsible for:
A. Sensory innervation of the scalp
B. Motor innervation of facial muscles
C. Taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue
D. Vision
34. The scalp extends posteriorly up to which landmark?
A. Mastoid process
B. Superior nuchal line
C. External occipital protuberance
D. Cervical spine
35. Which artery is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery and supplies the anterior
scalp?
 A. Supratrochlear
B. Supraorbital
C. Superficial temporal
D. Occipital
36. Which muscle prevents food accumulation in the oral vestibule and assists in blowing
and whistling?
A. Zygomaticus major
B. Mentalis
C. Buccinator
D. Platysma
37. Which nerve supplies the posterior belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle?
A. Greater occipital nerve
B. Posterior auricular nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Temporal branch of the facial nerve
38. Which part of the orbicularis oculi muscle is responsible for gentle eyelid closure (e.g.,
blinking)?
A. Lacrimal part
B. Orbital part
C. Palpebral part
D. Zygomatic part
39. The auriculotemporal nerve is a branch of which division of the trigeminal nerve?
A. V1 (Ophthalmic)
B. V2 (Maxillary)
C. V3 (Mandibular)
D. Facial nerve
40. Which muscle is innervated by the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve?
A. Zygomaticus major
B. Frontalis
C. Mentalis
D. Levator labii superioris
41. Which scalp layer is highly vascular and responsible for profuse bleeding during scalp
injuries?
A. Skin
B. Connective tissue (dense)
C. Loose areolar tissue
D. Pericranium
42. Why do facial lacerations tend to gape and bleed heavily?
A. Due to strong deep fascia
B. Due to lack of blood supply
C. Due to highly vascularized skin and absence of deep fascia
D. Due to rigid underlying bone
43. A patient has a facial laceration near the angle of the mandible. Which sensory nerve is
likely responsible for this area?
A. Mental nerve
B. Great auricular nerve
C. Zygomaticofacial nerve
D. Buccal nerve
44. During parotid gland surgery, which branch of the facial nerve is most at risk and may
result in loss of forehead movement?
A. Zygomatic
B. Buccal
C. Temporal
D. Cervical
45. An infection in the loose areolar layer of the scalp can spread to the cranial cavity via
which of the following?
A. Lymphatics
B. Emissary veins
C. Dural sinuses
D. Subgaleal arteries
46. Which nerve must be anesthetized for performing a dental filling in a mandibular molar?
A. Buccal nerve
 B. Lingual nerve
C. Inferior alveolar nerve
D. Mental nerve
47. For extracting a maxillary first molar, which nerves should be blocked to ensure effective
anesthesia?
A. Posterior superior alveolar and greater palatine nerves
B. Infraorbital and nasopalatine nerves
C. Inferior alveolar and lingual nerves
D. Buccal and mental nerves
48. The main arterial supply to the maxillary teeth is derived from which artery?
A. Facial artery
B. Lingual artery
C. Superior alveolar branches of the maxillary artery
D. Inferior alveolar artery
49. Which structure transmits nerves and vessels into the anterior hard palate near the central
incisors?
A. Greater palatine foramen
B. Incisive fossa
C. Lesser palatine foramen
D. Foramen cecum
50. Pain from inflammation of the mandibular molar pulp is carried via which nerve?
A. Infraorbital nerve
B. Buccal nerve
C. Inferior alveolar nerve
D. Greater palatine nerve
51. A patient with periodontitis affecting the palatal gingiva of maxillary premolars has
inflammation of which nerve’s distribution?
A. Nasopalatine nerve
B. Buccal nerve
C. Lingual nerve
D. Greater palatine nerve
52. To anesthetize the palatal mucosa behind the maxillary incisors, which nerve must be
blocked?
A. Greater palatine nerve
B. Nasopalatine nerve
C. Mental nerve
D. Infraorbital nerve
53. The most common cause of pulpitis is:
A. Trauma from occlusion
B. Exposure to heat or cold
C. Dental caries
D. Periapical abscess
54. Which region of the oral cavity is most likely to drain into the submental lymph nodes?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Upper lip
C. Apex of the tongue
D. Soft palate
55. Which nerve provides general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
A. Chorda tympani
B. Lingual nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
56. Loss of taste from the anterior tongue due to nerve injury occurs when which nerve is
damaged proximal to its junction with the lingual nerve?
A. Chorda tympani
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Hypoglossal
D. Inferior alveolar
57. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X)?
A. Tensor veli palatini
B. Palatoglossus
 C. Genioglossus
D. Mylohyoid
58. The palatine tonsils are located between which two structures?
A. Uvula and soft palate
B. Tongue and pharyngeal wall
C. Palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches
D. Mylohyoid and genioglossus
59. During surgical removal of the soft palate mass, care must be taken to avoid injury to
which sensory nerves?
A. Glossopharyngeal and vagus
B. Nasopalatine and infraorbital
C. Greater and lesser palatine nerves
D. Lingual and hypoglossal
60. Filiform papillae differ from other lingual papillae in that they:
A. Contain taste buds
B. Are located only at the posterior tongue
C. Are the least numerous
D. Are touch-sensitive and lack taste buds