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ATIT
Sample Paper

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Model Question Paper

ATIT
INSTRUCTIONS

1. There are 120 questions in The Admission Test for IcfaiUniversity Technology (ATIT)
2013, and the allotted time is 120 minutes.

Section Subject No. of Questions Time

I English 30 (1-30) 30 Minutes
II Mathematics 30 (31-60) 30 Minutes
III Physics 30 (61-90) 30 Minutes
IV Chemistry 30 (91-120) 30 Minutes
Total 120 120 Minutes

2. Each question has four options (a, b, c and d). The candidates are required to choose the
correct option.
3. Usage of any type of calculators and cell phones is strictly prohibited.
4. Any kind of malpractice will disqualify the candidate from ATIT.

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Section I

Subject : ENGLISH
Time : 30 Minutes
Questions : 30 (Serial No. 01-30)

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Section I
English

I. Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by four options. Choose the
option which is the closest synonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in
mind the finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.

1. IDIOSYNCRASY
(a) Disgrace (b) Esteem (c) Eccentricity (d) Rebellion
2. APLOMB
(a) Composure (b) Aspiration (c) Fluency (d) Revolt
3. MUTILATE
(a) Injure (b) Contaminate (c) Mollify (d) Reconcile
4. CEREMONIOUS
(a) Peccable (b) Floppy (c) Pompous (d) Lavish
5. DESPOTIC
(a) Outspoken (b) Simple (c) Quick (d) Tyrannical
6. WOE
(a) Bliss (b) Sadness (c) Patience (d) Knowledge
II. Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by four options. Choose the
option which is the closest antonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in
mind the finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.

7. BANALITY
(a) Originality (b) Preciseness (c) Specialty (d) Selfishness
8. CURRENCY
(a) Bankruptcy (b) Insolvency (c) Obsolescence (d) Complacence
9. FIASCO
(a) Fun (b) Success (c) Disparity (d) Succession
10. FICTITIOUS
(a) Natural (b) Real (c) Inferior (d) Blunt
11. LAMENT
(a) Spin (b) Defeat (c) Rejoice (d) Suppress
12. QUASH
(a) Postpone (b) Equate (c) Support (d) Validate

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III. Directions: Complete the following sentences by selecting a suitable word from the given
options.

13. Money is not like cars or cups of tea, because one cannot test-drive or _________ it.
(a) Taste (b) Boil (c) Heat (d) Inhale
14. Nehru stressed the need for ‘self discipline, hard work and team spirit’ among the people for
_________ of the national development of socialistic pattern of society.
(a) Suppression (b) Expression (c) Fulfillment (d) Symbolism
15. For millions of patients with terminal illnesses, pain is an everyday _________.
(a) Reality (b) Surety (c) Frequency (d) Supposition
16. If emotions and feelings are not permitted as inputs in the thinking process, they will _______
in the background and affect all the thinking in a hidden way.
(a) Shroud (b) Lurk (c) Fulminate (d) Prowl
IV. Directions: Four alternatives are provided for each of the following questions. Select the
most acceptable and appropriate of the four options. In considering the alternatives, pay
close attention to grammar as well as clarity and precision.

17. (a) Patients should not fly if they should have a heart attack in the past two weeks.
(b) Patients should not fly if they might have a heart attack in the past two weeks.
(c) Patients should not fly if they could have had a heart attack in the past two weeks.
(d) Patients should not fly if they have had a heart attack in the past two weeks.
18. (a) Nearly a quarter of the world’s land mammal species are at a risk through extinction.
(b) Nearly a quarter of the world’s land mammal species are at a risk of extinction.
(c) Nearly a quarter of the world’s land mammal species are at a risk with extinction.
(d) Nearly a quarter of the world’s land mammal species are at a risk for extinction.
19. (a) The more carbohydrates we eat the more efficiently our body uses them.
(b) The more carbohydrates we eat the most efficiently our body uses them.
(c) The more carbohydrates we eat more efficiently our body uses them.
(d) More carbohydrates we eat the more efficiently our body uses them.
20. (a) Americans love the idea of that democracy should look like and argue all the time about
what democracy is.
(b) Americans love the idea of democracy and democracy should look like and argue all the
time about what it has to be.
(c) That Americans love the idea of democracy and argue all the time about what that
democracy should look like.
(d) Americans love the idea of democracy and argue all the time about what that democracy
should look like.

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V. Directions: In the following questions, each sentence is divided into three parts (a), (b) and
(c). Find out which part of the sentence contains an error. If there is no error, mark your
answer as (d).
21. The drama had / so many humorous scenes /
(a) (b)
that it was hard possible to keep a straight face. No error
(c) (d)
22. Despite their best efforts,/ they could not convince/
(a) (b)
the members by changing their decision. No error
(c) (d)
23. Teachers today are increasingly afraid / for being victimized /
(a) (b)
by laws that protect the children. No error
(c) (d)
24. Scarcely had the game started / then the rain / came pouring down. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25. By the time / he had won his commission, the senior officer/
(a) (b)
had start seeking employment elsewhere. No error
(c) (d)
VI. Directions: The given passage is followed by questions based on its content. Read the
passage and choose the best answer.
The control of fire was the first and perhaps the greatest of humanity’s step towards a life-
enhancing technology. To early man, fire was a divine gift randomly delivered in the form of
lightning, forest fire or burning lava. Unable to make flame for themselves, the earliest people
probably stored fire by keeping slow-burning logs alight or by carrying charcoal in parts.
How and where man learnt how to produce flame at will is unknown. It was probably a secondary
invention, accidentally made during tool-making operations with wood or stone. Studies of
primitive societies suggest that the earliest method of making fire was through friction. European
peasants would insert a wooden drill in a round hole and rotate it briskly between their palms. This
process could be speeded up by wrapping a cord around the drill and pulling on each end.
The ancient Greeks used lenses or concave mirrors to concentrate the sun’s rays and burning
glasses were also used by Mexican Aztecs and the Chinese. Percussion methods of fire lighting date
to Paleolithic times, when the Stone Age toolmakers discovered that chipping flints produced
sparks. The technique became more efficient after the discovery of iron, about five thousand years
ago.
In Arctic North America, the Eskimos produced a slow-burning spark by striking quartz against
iron pyrites, a compound that contains sulphur. The Chinese lit fire by striking porcelain with
bamboo. In Europe, the combination of steel, flint and tinder remained the main method of fire-

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lighting until the mid-nineteenth century.

26. According to the passage, what was the first and the greatest of humanity’s step towards a
life-enhancing technology?
(a) Making of fire (b) The control of fire
(c) Invention of tools (d) The discovery of iron
27. How did the primitive societies view fire?
(a) As a lightning (b) As a blessing
(c) As a heavenly gift (d) As a burning lava
28. It is estimated that the earliest method of making fire was through
(a) Rotation (b) Drilling (c) Chipping (d) Friction
29. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
(a) Bamboo cannot be used for producing fire
(b) The Chinese produced fire by striking porcelain with bamboo
(c) Eskimos produced fire with bamboo
(d) The original method of making fire was through drilling
30. Choose the synonym of ‘primitive’ as used in the passage.
(a) Ancient (b) Expensive (c) Innovative (d) Perilous

END OF SECTION I

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Section II
Subject : MATHEMATICS
Time : 30 Minutes
Questions : 30 (Serial No. 31-60)

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Section II
Mathematics
Directions: Each question given below has a problem and four alternatives. You have to choose
the best answer from the alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).

31. The domain of the function f (x ) = 1 ! 1 ! 1 ! x 2 is

(a) {x | x < 1} (b) {x | x > –1} (c) [0, 1] (d) [–1, 1]
32. If a set A has m elements and B has n elements, then the number of functions from A to B is
(a) n m (b) 2mn (c) m n (d) 2m + n
33. Let A = {f} and B = P(P(A)), the power set of the power set of A. Then B is
(a) f (b) {f} (c) {{f}} (d) None of these

34. ( )( )(
If w is a non real cube root of unity, then the expression (1 ! ") 1 ! "2 1 + "4 1 ! "8 ) is
equal to
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2
x+2 1
35. The number of integral solutions of > is
x2 +1 2
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) Infinite
36. For any m ¥ n matrix A and a fixed k, if a matrix K satisfies KA = kA, then K is a
(a) Transpose of A (b) Diagonal matrix
(c) Symmetric matrix (d) Skew Symmetric matrix
37. The system of equations 2x – y + z = 0; x – 2y + z = 0; lx – y + 2z = 0 has infinite number of
nontrivial solutions if l is
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) –5 (d) 2
x 2 5
38. The sum of two non integral roots of 3 x 3 = 0 is
5 4 x

(a) 5 (b) –5 (c) –18 (d) 16

39. ABCD is a convex quadrilateral. 3, 4, 5 and 6 points are marked on the sides AB, BC, CD
and DA respectively. The number of triangles with vertices on different sides is
(a) 270 (b) 220 (c) 282 (d) 342

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!30
" 1 #
40. The term independent of a in the expansion of $1 + a + % is
& a !1 '
(a) 30 C20 (b) 0 (c) 30 C10 (d) 20
C10

41. The minimum of 4x + 41 ! x , x ΠR, is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 8
!1 n " 100
42. Let f (n ) = # + where [x] denotes the integral part of x. Then value of ! f (n ) is
% 2 100 $& n =1

(a) 50 (b) 51 (c) 1 (d) 25

n log3 8
! 1 " ! 1 "
43. The last term in the binomial expansion of $ 3 2 # % is # 3 $ . Then the 5th term
& 2' % 3. 9 &
from the beginning is
10 1 10
(a) C6 (b) 2.10 C4 (c) . C4 (d) 5 C4
2
44. The number of real solutions of the equation log 0.5 x = x is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 3

45. The number of values of ‘a’ for which (a 2

) ( )
! 3a + 2 x 2 + a 2 ! 5a + 6 x + a 2 ! 4 = 0 is an
identity in x is
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
2 2 2
46. If x, y, z are real and distinct, then f (x, y, z ) = x + 4y + 9z ! 6yz ! 3zx ! 2xy is always

(a) Non-negative (b) Non-positive (c) Zero (d) Complex

47. The common root(s) of the equations x 3 + 2x 2 + 2x + 1 = 0 and 1 + x130 + x1988 = 0 (where w
is a non real cube root of unity) is/are
(a) w and !2 (b) !3 (c) –1 (d) ! " !2
x2
"0 cos t 2dt
48. lim x !0 is
x sin x
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) ∞

49. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then lim n !"
[x ]+ [2x ]+ ... + [nx ] is
n2
(a) 0 (b) x (c) x/2 (d) x 2

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x 1
50. Let f (t ) = ! t sin dt . Then the number of points of discontinuity of the function f(x) in the
0 t
open interval (0, p) is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Infinite
x 1
51. If !0 f (t )dt = x + !x t f (t ) dt , then the value f(1) is
(a) 1/2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 1/4
52. The area of the region bounded by the pair of lines y = |x – 1| and y = 3 – |x| is
(a) 3 unit2 (b) 4 unit2 (c) 6 unit2 (d) 2 unit2

53. ! ( )
1 + x 2 d x 2 is equal to
3/ 2
2 1+ x(2
) 2 3/ 2 2 3/ 2 2 1
(a)
3 x
+c (b)
3
(
1+ x2 ) +c (c)
3
(
x 1+ x2 ) +c (d)
3 1+ x2 3/ 2
+c
( )
( !$ #1 + 1 "%
54. ) $ x x %'
Let f (x ) = + xe& for x * 0 , then f(x) is
)0 for x = 0
,
(a) Continuous for all x but not differentiable at x = 0
(b) Neither differentiable nor continuous at x = 0
(c) Discontinuous everywhere
(d) Continuous and differentiable for all x
55. The polar coordinates of the vertices of a triangle are (0, 0), (3, p/2) and (3, p/6). Then the
triangle is
(a) Right angled (b) Isosceles
(c) Equilateral (d) Right-angled isosceles
56. If the point (a, a) falls between the lines |x + y| = 2, then
(a) |a| = 2 (b) |a| = 1 (c) |a| < 1 (d) |a| < 0.5
57. The circle x 2 + y 2 + 2!x = 0 , λ Œ R, touches the parabola y 2 = 4x externally. Then
(a) λ > 0 (b) λ < 0 (c) λ > 1 (d) λ < 1
58. The number of integral values of λ for which x 2 + y 2 + !x + (1 " ! ) y + 5 = 0 is the equation of
a circle whose radius cannot exceed 5, is
(a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 16 (d) 12

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x +1 y !1 z
59. The image of the origin in the line = = is
2 3 3
! 11 3 " ! 5 3" ! 5 3" ! 11 3"
(a) $$ #1, , % (b) $$ 3, # , % (c) $$ #3, , # % (d) $$1, # , # %
& 2 2 %' & 2 2 %' & 2 2 %' & 2 2 %'

60. The shortest distance between the lines x – y = 0 = 2x + z and x + y – 2 = 0 = 3x – y + z – 1 is

1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
2 2 2 2

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Section III

Subject : PHYSICS
Time : 30 Minutes
Questions : 30 (Serial No.61 - 90)

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Section III
Physics
Directions Each question given below has four alternatives. You have to choose the best answer
from the alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).

61. A vernier caliper has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with 19 on the main
scale. The leastcount of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The main scale divisions are of length
equal to
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 1 mm (c) 2 mm (d) 0.25 mm
62. A boy throws up balls in the air in such a way that when the first ball is at its maximum
height, he throws the second ball. If the balls are thrown with a time difference of 1 second,
then the height attained by the balls is
(a) 19.6 m (b) 9.8 m (c) 4.9 m (d) 2.45 m
–1
63. One of the rectangular components of a velocity of 100 km h is 50 3 km h–1. The other
rectangular component is
(a) 50 3 km h–1 (b) 50 km h–1 (c) 50 2 km h–1 (d) 25 km h–1
64. In a game of tug of war, two opposing teams are pulling the rope with equal but opposite
forces of 1000 N at each end of the rope so that a condition of equilibrium exists. What is the
tension in the rope?
(a) 2000 N (b) 1000 N (c) Zero (d) 6400 N
65. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its central axis with angular
velocity ! . Four point objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of the
two perpendicular diameters; the angular velocity of the ring now is
M M M + 4m M ! 4m
(a) .! (b) .! (c) .! (d) ."
M+m M + 4m M M + 4m
3
66. A body is thrown up from the surface of the earth with a velocity equal to of the escape
4
velocity. Assume that the radius of the earth is R, the height attained by the body is
19R 9R 7R 11R
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 7 9 7
67. The binding energy of a hydrogen molecule is 4.75 eV. The energy required to dissociate
0.05% of hydrogen gas at NTP occupying a volume of 5.6 litres is approximately
(a) 20 J (b) 30 J (c) 40 J (d) 60 J
68. A particle oscillates such that its motion is represented by a = – kx, where ‘a’ is the
acceleration, ‘x’ is displacement and ‘k’ a constant. The period of oscillation is
2! 2!
(a) 2 ! k (b) (c) (d) 2pk
k k

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69. Two identical samples of a gas expand so that the volume is doubled. The first sample
undergoes an isothermal expansion while the second is expanded adiabatically. The final
pressure
(a) In the first sample is greater (b) In the second sample is greater
(c) Is equal in both the samples (d) Cannot be determined
70. The radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to
(a) Temperature on ideal gas scale
(b) Fourth root of temperature on Kelvin’s scale
(c) Fourth power of temperature on Kelvin’s scale
(d) Square of temperature on Kelvin’s scale
71. Charge of +q, 2q, +q and –q are placed in the corners of a square. Calculate the electric field
at the intersection of the diagonals of the square when q is 5/3 × 10–9 C and each side is
10 cm.
(a) 2.1 × 103 Vm–1 (b) 9.1 × 10–2 Vm–1 (c) 1.8 × 104 Vm–1 (d) 0.9 × 104 Vm–1
72. The resistance of a wire is R ohm. What will be the new resistance if it is stretched uniformly
to n times its original length?
R R
(a) nR (b) (c) n2R (d) 2
n n
73. Three identical charges each of +q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side
d cm. The force on a positive charge +2q at the centroid of the triangle will be
3q 7q 9q
(a) Zero (b) 2
(c) 2
(d)
4!"0 d 4!"0 d 4!"0 d 2
74. A parallel plate capacitor is filled with a dielectric whose dielectric constant is 5 and has a
dielectric strength of 20 ¥ 106 Vm–1. If the capacitance of this capacitor is 8.0 ¥ 10–2 �F and if
it can withstand a potential difference of 5000 V, the minimum plate area of the capacitor is
(a) 0.45 m2 (b) 0.62 m2 (c) 0.54 m2 (d) 0.24 m2
75. Four wires each of resistance 1 ohm are connected in the form of a square. The equivalent
resistance of the square when current enters at one corner and leaves at a diagonally opposite
corner will be
(a) 1 � (b) 2 � (c) 4 � (d) 8 �
76. A certain compact disc player draws a current of 350 mA at 6.0 V. The power required to
operate the player in watts is
(a) 2.1 (b) 58.3 (c) 122.5 (d) 150.0
77. Interference fringes from sodium light ( ! = 5890 Å) in a double slit experiment have an
angular width of 0.20°. To increase the fringe width by 10%, new wavelength should be
(a) 5896 Å (b) 7321 Å (c) 6300 Å (d) 6479 Å
78. The radius of curvature of convex surface of a thin planoconvex lens is 15 cm and the
refractive index of its material is 1.6. The power of the lens will be
(a) +1 D (b) –2 D (c) +3 D (d) +4 D

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79. The work function of aluminum is 4.2 eV. If two photons each of energy 3.5 eV strike an
electron of aluminum, then emission of photoelectron
(a) Will be possible (b) Depends on the smoothness of the surface
(c) Will not be possible (d) Both (a) and (b)
80. If E is the kinetic energy and m the mass of a moving particle with velocity v, the De-Broglie
wavelength associated with the particle is
hv hEv h
(a) 2mEv (b) (c) (d)
E 2m 2mE
81. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000 Å is incident on a surface of area 4 cm2. If the
intensity of light is 150 m W/m2, then the rate at which photons strike the target is
(a) 3 × 1010 s–1 (b) 3 × 1013 s–1 (c) 7 × 1015 s–1 (d) 6 × 1019 s–1
82. Half-life of a radioactive material is 1 day. If the starting material has a mass of 16 mg, the
amount of material that will remain after 4 days is
(a) 12 mg (b) 8 mg (c) 4 mg (d) 1 mg
83. Nuclear reactor in which Uranium-235 is used as fuel, uses 2 kg of Uranium-235 in 30 days.
Then the power output of the reactor will be (given that the energy released per fission is
185 MeV)
(a) 43.5 MW (b) 58.5 MW (c) 69.6 MW (d) 73.1 MeV
84. When a P-N junction is forward biased, potential barrier
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains constant (d) Cannot be determined
85. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material,
connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and 2/3, then
the ratio of the currents passing through the wires will be
(a) 3 (b) 1/3 (c) 8/9 (d) 2
86. The resistance of the series combination of two resistances is S. When they are joined in
parallel, the total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the minimum possible value of n is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
87. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain
unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 4L (b) 2L (c) L/2 (d) L/4
88. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity
5 radians per second. If the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10–4 T,
then the emf developed between the two ends of the conductor is
(a) 5 �V (b) 50 V (c) 5 mV (d) 50 mV
89. The time period of a satellite of the earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and
the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become
(a) 20 hours (b) 10 hours (c) 80 hours (d) 40 hours

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90. Consider the following two statements.

A. Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.
B. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero.
Then
(a) A implies B and B implies A
(b) A does not imply B and B does not imply A
(c) A implies B but B does not imply A
(d) A does not imply B but B implies A

END OF SECTION III

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Section IV

Subject : CHEMISTRY
Time : 30 Minutes
Questions : 30 (Serial No.91-120)

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Section IV
Chemistry
Directions: Each question given below has four alternatives. You have to choose the best answer
from the alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).

91. The position of Na+ ions in NaCl structure are

(a) Corners of the cube (b) Body centre of the cube
(c) Edge centres of the cube (d) Both (b) and (c)
92. A matchbox exhibits
(a) Cubic geometry (b) Monoclinic geometry
(c) Tetragonal geometry (d) Orthorhombic geometry
93. The electrical conductivity of semiconductors
(a) Increases with temperature (b) Decreases with temperature
(c) Remains constant on heating (d) None of the above
94. A sample of a given mass of a gas at a constant temperature occupied 95 cm3 under pressure
of 9.962 ¥ 104 Nm–2. At the same temperature, its volume at a pressure of 10.13 ¥ 104 Nm–2 is
(a) 190 cm3 (b) 93 cm3 (c) 46.5 cm3 (d) 47.5 cm3
95. The following equilibria are given below.
ˆˆ† 2NH3; K1
N2 + 3H2 ‡ˆˆ
ˆˆ† 2NO; K2
N2 + O2 ‡ˆˆ
ˆˆ† H2O; K3
H2 + ½ O2 ‡ˆˆ
ˆˆ† 2NO + 3H2O in terms of K1,
The equilibrium constant of the reaction 2NH3 + 5/2 O2 ‡ˆˆ
K2 and K3 is
(a) K1K2/K3 (b) K1K32/K2 (c) K2K33/K1 (d) K1K2K3
96. ˆˆ† H2 + I2 is 0.25, the equilibrium constant
If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI ‡ˆˆ
ˆˆ† 2HI would be
of the reaction H2 + I2 ‡ˆˆ

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

97. When NaNO3 is heated in a closed vessel, oxygen is liberated and NaNO2 is left behind. At
equilibrium,
(a) Addition of NaNO2 favours reverse reaction
(b) Addition of NaNO3 favours forward reaction
(c) Increasing temperature favours forward reaction
(d) All statements are correct

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98. ˆˆ† 3A + 2B equilibrium is

The effect of increasing the pressure on the following 2A + 3B ‡ˆˆ
that
(a) Forward reaction is favoured (b) Backward reaction is favoured
(c) Neither reaction is favoured (d) Both the reactions are favoured
99. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X– and HX. The Ka for HX is 10–8.
The pH of the buffer is
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) 14
100. The solubility product of AgI at 25°C is 1.0 ¥ 10 mol L . The solubility of AgI in 10–4 N
–16 2 –2

solution of KI at 25°C is approximately (in mol L–1)

(a) 1.0 × 10–12 (b) 1.0 × 10–10 (c) 1.0 × 10–8 (d) 1.0 × 10–16
101. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its
(a) Internal energy increases (b) Enthalpy decreases
(c) Enthalpy remains unaffected (d) Enthalpy reduces to zero
102. Values of heats of formation for SiO2 and MgO are –48.4 and –34.7 kJ respectively. The heat
of the reaction 2Mg + SiO2 Æ 2MgO + Si is
(a) 21.16 kJ (b) –21.00kJ (c) –13.62 kJ (d) 13.6 kJ
103. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures
(a) ∆G and ∆H should be negative (b) ∆H = ∆G = 0
(c) ∆G and ∆H should be positive (d) ∆H < ∆G
104. 75% of a reaction of the first order was completed in 32 minutes. When was its half-life
completed?
(a) 8 minutes (b) 16 minutes (c) 10 minutes (d) 7.5 minutes
105. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?
(a) High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
(b) Coagulation is reversible
(c) Viscosity and surface tension are about the same as for water
(d) The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it maybe positive,
negative or even zero
106. The molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte
(a) Increases on dilution (b) Does not change considerably on dilution
(c) Decreases on dilution (d) Depends on density
107. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mg2+ (b) Ti3+ (c) V3+ (d) Fe2+

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108. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are
respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which of the following can have the highest second ionization
enthalpy?
(a) V (b) Cr (c) Mn (d) Fe
109. The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order
(a) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO (b) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
(c) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO (d) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
110. On adding KI to a solution of CuSO4
(a) Cupric oxide is precipitated
(b) Metallic copper is precipitated
(c) Cuprous iodide is precipitated with the liberation of iodine
(d) No change takes place
111. Addition of high proportions of manganese makes steel useful in making rails of railroads,
because manganese
(a) Gives hardness to steel
(b) Helps in the formation of oxides of iron
(c) Can deform the steel
(d) Can show the highest oxidation state of +7
112. The radius of La3+ (atomic number of La is 57) is 1.06 Å. Which of the following values will
be the closest to the radius of Lu3+ (atomic number of Lu is 71)?
(a) 1.60 Å (b) 1.40 Å (c) 1.06 Å (d) 0.85 Å
113. X + H2SO4 Æ Y a colorless gas with irritating smell
Y + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 Æ Green solution
X and Y are
(a) SO32–, SO2 (b) Cl–, HCl (c) S2–, H2S (d) CO32–, CO2
114. An aqueous solution of FeSO4.Al2(SO4)3 and chrome alum is heated with excess of Na2O2
and filtered. The materials obtained are
(a) A colourless filtrate and a green residue (b) A yellow filtrate and a green residue
(c) A yellow filtrate and a brown residue (d) A green filtrate and a brown residue
115. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Friedel-Craft alkylation
(c) Clemmensen reduction (d) BVZ reaction
116. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Nucleophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic substitution (d) Electrophilic substitution

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117. CH3COCH3 can be converted to CH3CH2CH3 by the action of

(a) HIO3 (b) HI (c) HNO3 (d) H3PO3
118. Butyramide is boiled with aqueous NaOH, then the reaction mixture is acidified with HCl.
The products obtained are
(a) CH3 CH2CH2COO– + NH3 (b) CH3 CH2CH2COO– + NH4+ + Cl–
(c) CH3 CH2CH2COONa + NH3 (d) CH3 CH2CH2COOH + Na+ + Cl–
119. Quicklime and slaked lime are, respectively
(a) CaCO3 and Ca(OH)2 (b) CaO and Ca(OH)2
(c) Ca(OH)2 and CaO (d) CaO and CaCO3

120. Which of the following structures represents the best resonance form for the following
compound?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

END OF SECTION IV

END OF QUESTION PAPER

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ANSWE
[Link] SUBJECT [Link] SUBJECT ANSWER [Link] SUBJECT ANSWER [Link] SUBJECT ANSWER
R

ENGLISH
1 C 31 MATHEMATICS D 61 PHYSICS C 91 CHEMISTRY D

2 ENGLISH A 32 MATHEMATICS A 62 PHYSICS C 92 CHEMISTRY D

3 ENGLISH A 33 MATHEMATICS D 63 PHYSICS B 93 CHEMISTRY A

4 ENGLISH C 34 MATHEMATICS B 64 PHYSICS B 94 CHEMISTRY B

5 ENGLISH D 35 MATHEMATICS C 65 PHYSICS B 95 CHEMISTRY C

6 ENGLISH B 36 MATHEMATICS B 66 PHYSICS B 96 CHEMISTRY A

7 ENGLISH A 37 MATHEMATICS C 67 PHYSICS D 97 CHEMISTRY D

8 ENGLISH C 38 MATHEMATICS B 68 PHYSICS B 98 CHEMISTRY C

9 ENGLISH B 39 MATHEMATICS D 69 PHYSICS A 99 CHEMISTRY B

10 ENGLISH B 40 MATHEMATICS B 70 PHYSICS C 100 CHEMISTRY A

11 ENGLISH C 41 MATHEMATICS B 71 PHYSICS D 101 CHEMISTRY C

12 ENGLISH D 42 MATHEMATICS B 72 PHYSICS D 102 CHEMISTRY B

13 ENGLISH A 43 MATHEMATICS A 73 PHYSICS A 103 CHEMISTRY A

14 ENGLISH C 44 MATHEMATICS A 74 PHYSICS A 104 CHEMISTRY B

15 ENGLISH A 45 MATHEMATICS C 75 PHYSICS B 105 CHEMISTRY C

16 ENGLISH B 46 MATHEMATICS A 76 PHYSICS A 106 CHEMISTRY B

17 ENGLISH D 47 MATHEMATICS A 77 PHYSICS D 107 CHEMISTRY D

18 ENGLISH B 48 MATHEMATICS A 78 PHYSICS D 108 CHEMISTRY B

19 ENGLISH A 49 MATHEMATICS C 79 PHYSICS C 109 CHEMISTRY C

20 ENGLISH D 50 MATHEMATICS A 80 PHYSICS D 110 CHEMISTRY C

21 ENGLISH C 51 MATHEMATICS A 81 PHYSICS B 111 CHEMISTRY A

22 ENGLISH C 52 MATHEMATICS B 82 PHYSICS D 112 CHEMISTRY B

23 ENGLISH B 53 MATHEMATICS B 83 PHYSICS B 113 CHEMISTRY A

24 ENGLISH B 54 MATHEMATICS A 84 PHYSICS A 114 CHEMISTRY C

25 ENGLISH C 55 MATHEMATICS C 85 PHYSICS A 115 CHEMISTRY B

26 ENGLISH B 56 MATHEMATICS C 86 PHYSICS A 116 CHEMISTRY B

27 ENGLISH C 57 MATHEMATICS A 87 PHYSICS C 117 CHEMISTRY B

28 ENGLISH D 58 MATHEMATICS C 88 PHYSICS B 118 CHEMISTRY D

29 ENGLISH B 59 MATHEMATICS C 89 PHYSICS D 119 CHEMISTRY B

30 ENGLISH A 60 MATHEMATICS B 90 PHYSICS D 120 CHEMISTRY D

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