1.

Assuming that you are in the vi editor in command mode ,which of the following
Commands will abort the current editing session.
a. Q
b. W
c. ZZ
d. q!

2. Which of the following objects enables users to select the information to be included
in a report or document at run time ?
a. Metric
b. Attribute
c. Prompt
d. Fact

3. In Transformation alternate drill-down paths/alternate hierarchies must have the a

Convergence level that is
a. Unique
b. Ordered
c. Open
d. Set

4. Which of the following views can you use to display reports.

a. Grid
b. Graph
c. Grid and graph
d. None of the above

5. What is inode?(checkbox)
a. File owner identifier
b. File Type
c. File access permissions
d. File reading

6. After you run a report,what report manipulation enables you to view data at levels
Other than the original level of the report?
a. Drilling
b. Advance sorting
c. Data pivoting
d. Outline mode

7. Business objects does not support multi data sources.

a. True
b. False

8. Which of the following features in unix may be used for inter process
communication?(checkbox)
a. Pipes
b. Files
c. Semaphores
d. Signals

9. Which of the following are advantage of data marts?(choose three)

a. Optium model for dw construction
 b. Unlimited scope
c. Typical single subject area and fewer dimensions.
d. Provide integrated view of business information
e. Quick impact on bottom the problems

10. Which of the following is correct about operational system?(select 3)

a. Normalized design
b. Historical integrity
c. Minimal redundancy
d. Constantly updated
e. Managed redundancy

11. Splitting project into tasks and estimate time and resources required to complete
Each task called as project scheduling.
a. True
b. False

12. Which of the following are properties of data mart?(checkbox)

a. limited for use of department
b. Expensive
c. Difficult to manage
d. It is more detailed
e. Easy to design

13. Which of these is a Class III ODS

a. Synchronization of updates occurs overnight
b. Update into the ODS from the dw are used
c. Update of data from operational system

14. Subject for data mining?

a. Expert system technology
b. Data visualization
c. Technology limited to specific data types such…
d. Parallel architecture

15. Some of the ideas to be thought of while developing an EDW?(chkbox)

a. Nature of business
b. Must have an EDMA to integrate increment
c. Longer start up time
d. Time and cost involved
e. The level of dependencies b/w various…

16. The following are not the tasks of data warehousing(choose two)
a. Long database transactions
b. Sacking up data
c. Managing schema objects
d. Application development
e. Managing user and security

17. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
a. Regression testing
b. Re testing
 c. Adhoc testing
d. Sanity testing

18. Which of the following objects provides descriptive information from the data warehousing that can be displayed on a
report?
a. Fact
b. Attribute
c. Hierarchy

19. A spelling error on the user interface screen what severity does this issue deserve.
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. None of the above

20. ________ means under what test environment (h/w, s/w set up) the application will run smoothly.
a. Test bed
b. Checkpoint
c. Code walk through
d. Checklist

21. Which of the following is not the properties of operational data?(chkbox)

a. Application oriented
b. Run repetitively and non-reflectively
c. Run heuristically
d. Nonredundancy
e. Large amount of data used in a process.

22. Defects generally fall into the following categories?

a. Wrong
b. Missing
c. Extra
d. All the above

23. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving s/w product is called?
a. Confirmation management
b. Confederation management
c. Configuration management
d. Comparability management

24. A data warehousing ls of the characteristic. (Checkbox)

a. store summarized data
b. used for strategic decision
c. used for tactical details
d. used for managerial level
 Software Testing Quiz Questions and answers

1) The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
a) Test Matrix
b) Checklist
c) Test bed

d) Traceablity Matrix

2) Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
a) Regression Testing

b) ReTesting
c) Ad hoc Testing
d) Sanity Testing

3) Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the stability of a process.

a) True
b) False

4) To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not.
It is a static process
a) Validation

b) Verification
c) Quality Assurance
d) Quality Control

5) To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a
Dynamic process.

a) Validation
b) Verification
c) Quality Assurance
d) Quality Control

6) Staff development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be
developed.

a) True
b) False
7) It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hieraecy
a) TIM (Testing Improving Model)

b) TMM (Testing Maturity Model)

c) TQM(Total Quality Management)

8) A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand

a) Usability Testing
b) Security Testing
c) Unit testing
d) Block Box Testing

9) The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement Specification’s) is called as
a) Delivery Document

b) Baseline Document
c) Checklist

10) What are the Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) Integration Testing

c) System Testing and Acceptance Testing.

d) All the above

11) Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost

a) True
b) False

12) A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also
called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
a) Pareto Analysis

b) Cause-and-Effect Diagram
13) It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product.
It is a system of management activities,
It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
a) Validation
b) Verification

c) Quality Assurance
d) Quality Control

14) Variance from product specifications is called?

a) Report
b) Requirement

c) Defect

15) Verification is

a) Process based
b) Product based

16) White box testing is not called as___________

a) Glass box testing

b) Closed box testing

c) OPen box testing

d) Clear box testing

17) Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency
using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as

a) Pareto Analysis
b) Cause and Effect Diagram

c) SWOT Analysis
d) Pie Charts

18) Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?

a) Full Regression Testing

b) Unit Regression

c) Regional Regression
d) Retesting
19) Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC )

a) True
b) False

20) The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
a) Unit Testing

b) Blackbox testing

c) White box Testing

d) Regression testing

21) Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures
to be used.

a) True

b) False

22)This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or
external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It
is called as
a) White Box Testing

b) Grey Box Testing

c) Black Box Testing

d) Open Box Testing

23) Phase Definition. It will come under

a) CMM Level 1

b) CMM Level 2
c) None

24) Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as

a) adHoc Testing
b) Unit Testing

c) Regression testing
d) Functional testing.
25) Acceptance testing is known as

a) Beta Testing
b) Greybox testing
c) Test Automation
d) White box testing

26) Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?

a) Full Regression Testing

b) Unit Regression
c) Regional Regression

d) Retesting

27) Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?

a) Black Box testing

b) White Box testing

28) It measures the quality of a product

It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It is a corrective process,
It applies for particular product & Deals with the product.
a) Validation

b) Verification
c) Quality Assurance

d) Quality Control

29) What are the Types of Integration Testing?

a) Big Bang Testing
b) Bottom Up Testing
c) Top Down Testing

d) All the above

30) Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.

a) True
b) False
31) A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
a) Process metric

b) Product Metric
c) Test metrics

32) Which is non-functional software testing?

a) Unit Testing
b) Block box testing

c) Performance Testing
d) Regression testing

33) The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called
as?
a) Delivery Process
b) Testing Process

c) Software Process

34) Executing the same test case on a modified build called as

a) Regression Testing
b) Retesting
c) Ad hoc Testing

d) Sanity Testing

35) Which is Black-Box Testing method?

a) equivalence partitioning
b) code coverage
c) fault injection

36) Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.

a) True
b) False

37) Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous

groups(strata).

a) True
b) False
38) Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.

Is the above statement correct?

a) Yes

b) No

39) Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.

Is the above statement correct?

a) Yes
b) No

40) Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

a) Severity

b) Priority
c) Fix ability
d) Traceability

41) Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and verify that it
satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and actual results.

a) True
b) False

42) Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made?
a) Full Regression Testing

b) Unit Regression

c) Regional Regression
d) Retesting.

43) An Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to the defects found
in customer tests, Status of test activities against the plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
a) Process Metric
b) Product Metric

c) Test Metric

44) Alpha testing will be done at,

a) User's site

b) Developers' site
45) SPICE Means

a) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination

b) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination.
c) Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination.
d) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination

46) Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,

Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
a) SDLC

b) STLC
c) SQLC

d) BLC

47) It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices
that allow organizations to improve their testing processes.

a) TIM (Testing Improving Model)

b) TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
c) TQM(Total Quality Management)

48) Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called?
a) Confirmation Management
b) Confederation Mangement

c) Configuration Management
d) Compartability Management

49) Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths

a) True
b) False

50) This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test data from the
program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least once. It is called as
a) Block box Testing

b) White box Testing

c) Grey Box Testing
d) Closed Box Testing
51) This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system?

a) Usability Testing
b) User Acceptance Testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta Testing.

52) Defects generally fall into the following categories?

a) WRONG

b) MISSING
c) EXTRA

d) All the above

53) What is correct Software Process Cycle?

a) Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)

b) Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
c) Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)

54) Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be running on can handle
projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test is conducted jointly by developers, testers,
DBA’s and network associates after the system Testing called as

a) Functional Testing

b) Stress/Load Testing
c) Recovery Testing

d) Integration Testing

55) Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and
effort required

a) True
b) False

56) Beta testing will be done by

a) Developer

b) User

c) Tester
57) Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation

a) True
b) False

58) Integration, It will come under

a) CMM Level 1

b) CMM Level 3
c) CMM Level 2
d) None

59) Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.

a) True
b) False

60) Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting
development activities itself

a) Water falls model

b) Spiral Model

c) V-model
d) Linear model

61) A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed in
developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as

a) Process metric
b) Product Metric
c) Test metrics

62) Check Sheet(Checklist) is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because it differentiates
between two extremes.

a) True
b) False

63) Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for Automation
testing.
a) False

b) True
64) Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used in a project.

a) False

b) True

65) How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

a) Severity
b) Priority
c) Fix ability
d) Traceability

66) Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.

a) True
b) False

67) The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected by new
changes

a) Recursive testing
b) Whitebox testing

c) Unit testing

d) Regression testing

68) Management and Measurement, It will come under

a) CMM Level 1
b) CMM Level 3

c) CMM Level 4
d) CMM Level 2

69) AdHoc testing is a part of

a) Unit Testing
b) Regression Tesing

c) Exploratory Testing
d) Performance Testing

70) Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF) + Cost of Quality.

a) True
b) False
71) ------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up) the application will run
smoothly

a) Test Bed

b) Checkpoint
c) Code Walk through
d) Checklist

72) TQM represents

a) Tool Quality Management

b) Test Quality Manager

c) Total Quality Management

d) Total Quality Manager

73) Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
a) CMM Level 2

b) CMM Level 3
c) CMM Level 4

d) CMM Level5

74) Unit Testing will be done by

a) Testers
b) End Users
c) Customer

d) Developers

75) Beta testing will be done at

a) User place
b) Developers place

76) A Plan to overcome the risk called as

a) Migration Plan
b) Master plan
c) Maintenance plan

d) Mitigation Plan
77) Splitting project into tasks and estimate time and resources required to complete each task called as
Project Scheduling

a) True
b) False
 Chapter 2
Major Business Initiatives
True/False Questions
T F 1. The distribution chain is simply the path followed from the distributor of a product or service to the
end consumer.
Answer: False Level: Hard Page: 62
T F 2. An alliance partner is a company you do business with on a regular basis in a cooperative fashion,
usually facilitated by IT systems.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 78
T F 3. A supply chain management system automates inventory tracking but still requires that information
be transferred manually.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 62
T F 4. Logistics refers to the set of processes that plans for and controls the efficient and effective
transportation and storage of supplies from suppliers to customers.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 63
T F 5. A software provider provides software over the Internet for a company to use.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 66
T F 6. Customer relationship management systems are remarkably successful when compared to other
information systems. Over 90% of installations are considered successful.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 70
T F 7. Business intelligence helps you make effective, important, often strategic decisions about your
business.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 72
T F 8. A business intelligence system supports the illegal gathering of confidential information from your
competitors.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 72
T F 9. Most organizations rarely use teams.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 77
T F 10. Virtual team members are typically located in the same geographic areas.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 77
T F 11. Collaboration systems are designed to support the sharing and flow of information between
companies.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 78
T F 12. Presence awareness software is based on e-mail.
Answer: False Level: Medium Page: 80
T F 13. Transportation logic is the process that plans for and controls the efficient and effective
transportation and storage of supplies from suppliers to customers.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 63
T F 14. Revenue and profit are optimized by a well-designed supply chain management.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 64
T F 15. Supply chain management includes fulfillment.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 64
T F 16. Upper level executives do not need to understand the importance of supply chain management.
Answer: False Level: Easy Page: 65
T F 17. Business intelligence is knowledge about your customers, your competitors, your partners, your
competitive environment, and your own internal operations.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 72
T F 18. Business intelligence comes from information.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 72
T F 19. A data mart is a subset of a data warehouse in which only a focused portion of the data warehouse
information is kept.
Answer: True Level: Easy Page: 73
T F 20. Data warehouses support only OLTP.
Answer: False Level: Medium Page: 73
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 31
T F 21. A data warehouse is a logical collection of information – gathered from many different
operational databases – used to create business intelligence that supports business analysis activities and
decision-making tasks.
Answer: True Level: Medium Page: 73
T F 22. Customer relationship management is just another software package.
Answer: False Level: Medium Page: 68
T F 23. Customer relationship management systems often fail because company goals are too broad.
Answer: True Level: Medium Page: 71
T F 24. Generic strategies often lead to customer relationship management successes.
Answer: False Level: Medium Page: 74
T F 25. Customer relationship management should be completely based upon software—there are no
other components to consider.
Answer: False Level: Medium Page: 68
T F 26. Back office and front office systems are both part of intraoffice communications and management
systems.
Answer: False Level: Hard Page: 71
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Which term describes a company you do business with on a regular basis in a cooperative fashion,
usually facilitated by IT systems?
A) Alliance partner
B) Information partnership
C) Distribution chain
D) B2B
Answer: A Level: Easy Page: 78
28. Which term describes an approach that produces or delivers a product or service just at the time the
customer wants it?
A) Just-in-time
B) Supply chain
C) Distribution chain
D) Value chain
Answer: A Level: Easy Page: 63
Test Bank, Chapter 2 32
29. Just-in-time is an approach that produces or delivers a product or service just at the time the:
A) Supplier wants it
B) Distributor wants it
C) Customer wants it
D) Seller wants it
Answer: C Level: Easy Page: 63
30. Collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR) is a concept that encourages and
facilitates collaborative processes between:
A) Members of a value chain
B) Members of a supply chain
C) Members of a distribution chain
D) None of the above
Answer: B Level: Medium Page: 65
31. Which term describes a concept that encourages and facilitates collaborative processes between
members of a supply chain?
A) Collaborative planning, focusing, and reordering (CPFR)
B) Collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR)
C) Collaborative planning, forecasting, and reordering (CPFR)
D) Collaborative planning, focusing, and replenishment (CPFR)
Answer: B Level: Medium Page: 65
32. Which system below is used to maximize the amount of revenue that an airline generates on each
flight?
A) Collaborative filtering system
B) Yield management system
C) Disintermediation system
D) CPFR system
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 84
33. Which of the following tracks inventory and information among business processes and across
companies?
A) supply chain management
B) power supply
C) customer relationship management
D) integrated supply management
Answer: A Level: Easy Page: 62
34. What does an application service provider do?
A) provides software over the intranet
B) provides hardware over the internet
C) provides computer equipment
D) none of the above
Answer: A Level: Medium Page: 66
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 33
35. Which of the following systems can be used to gain insights into the needs, wants, and behaviors of
customers?
A) sales force automation systems
B) customer relationship management systems
C) transaction processing systems
D) collaborative systems
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 68
36. Which of the following systems can perform sales lead tracking, contact management, and market
analysis?
A) sales force automation systems
B) customer relationship management systems
C) transaction processing systems
D) collaborative systems
Answer: A Level: Medium Page: 68
37. Which of the following are reasons that customer relationship management systems may fail?
A) company's goals are too broad
B) strategies are too generic
C) implementations are often too software-centric
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 71
38. Which systems are typically used to support customers or sales?
A) back office systems
B) front office systems
C) side office systems
D) information sales systems
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 71
39. Which systems are typically used to fulfill and support customer orders?
A) back office systems
B) front office systems
C) side office systems
D) information sales systems
Answer: A Level: Easy Page: 71
40. Business intelligence includes knowledge about all but which of the following?
A) customers
B) competitors
C) business partners
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 72
Test Bank, Chapter 2 34
41. What is the objective of a business intelligence system?
A) gathering confidential information from competitors
B) improving the timeliness and quality of decisions
C) improving the timeliness and quality of input for decision making
D) all of the above
Answer: C Level: Medium Page: 72
42. Business intelligence focused on external competition is:
A) smart
B) external business intelligence
C) competitive intelligence
D) illegal
Answer: C Level: Easy Page: 72
43. Which of the following is a logical collection of data gathered from many databases and used to create
business intelligence?
A) competitive intelligence system
B) artificial intelligence
C) external intelligence gathering 'bots
D) data warehouse
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 73
44. A ____________ is a subset of a data warehouse.
A) database
B) data storeroom
C) data set
D) data mart
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 73
45. Data warehouses are queried using?
A) data-mining tools
B) picks and shovels
C) database management systems
D) data marts
Answer: A Level: Medium Page: 74
46. What displays key information gathered from several sources on a screen in a format tailored to the
needs and wants of an individual?
A) display format
B) web page
C) digital display
D) digital dashboard
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 76
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 35
47. What is the environment in which virtual teams work?
A) virtual world
B) virtual reality
C) integrated virtual teamwork environment
D) integrated collaboration environment
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 77
48. A virtual team is made up of people:
A) located in different geographic locations
B) whose work is supported by an artificial intelligence superstructure
C) an imaginary team used for specific tasks only
D) a short-term team or task force normally used to develop virtual reality environments
Answer: A Level: Medium Page: 77
49. Software designed to improve the performance of teams by supporting the sharing and flow of
information is called a:
A) social network system
B) group decision support system
C) team system
D) collaboration system
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 78
50. All of the steps required for a business process put together are called;
A) business process
B) steps
C) document management system
D) workflow
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 78
51. Which system automates and manages the steps in a business process?
A) business process management system
B) document management system
C) workflow system
D) automatic workflow system
Answer: C Level: Easy Page: 78
52. Which system manages a document through all stages of its life cycle?
A) business process management system
B) document management system
C) workflow system
D) automatic workflow system
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 78
Test Bank, Chapter 2 36
53. Which of the following is an IT system that supports the capture, organization, and dissemination of
knowledge?
A) business process management system
B) knowledge management system
C) workflow system
D) automatic workflow system
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 78
54. Which of the following is an IT system that links you to people you know, and from there, to people
your contacts know/
A) social network system
B) knowledge management system
C) workflow system
D) automatic workflow system
Answer: A Level: Medium Page: 78
55. Which of the following indicates whether someone is available?
A) e-mail
B) workflow system
C) automatic personnel system
D) presence awareness
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 80
56. Which of the following permits users to communicate in real time and share files without a central
server?
A) presence awareness
B) peer-to-peer collaboration software
C) yield management system
D) automatic workflow system
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 80
57. The process that plans for and controls the efficient and effective transportation and storage of
supplies from suppliers to customers is called:
A) transportation
B) logic
C) logistics
D) transportation logic
Answer: C Level: Easy Page: 63
58. Which of the following are optimized by a well-designed supply chain management?
A) production
B) logistics
C) revenue and profit
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 64
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 37
59. Supply chain management includes all but which of the following?
A) fulfillment
B) revenue and profit
C) spend
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 64
60. Which of the following is not a challenge to supply chain management?
A) upper level executives must understand the importance
B) the need to work closely with customers and suppliers
C) innovative integration of internal and external IT systems
D) all of the above are challenges for supply chain management
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 65
61. What is the goal of a customer relationship management system?
A) to gain customers
B) to eliminate negative interactions with customers
C) to eliminate the need for customers
D) none of the above
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 68
62. Where does business intelligence come from?
A) Information technology
B) Information
C) Customer knowledge
D) Competitor knowledge
Answer: B Level: Medium Page: 72
63. What is business intelligence knowledge about?
A) Customers
B) Competitors
C) Partners
D) All of the above
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 72
64. Which of the following tools is used to help an organization build and use business intelligence?
A) Data warehouse
B) Data-mining tools
C) Database management systems
D) All of the above
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 73
Test Bank, Chapter 2 38
65. What is a subset of a data warehouse in which only a focused portion of the data warehouse
information is kept?
A) Data mining tool
B) Data mart
C) Data warehouse
D) None of the above
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 73
66. Which of the following describes a data warehouse?
A) Collection of information
B) Information gathered from many different knowledge workers
C) Used to support transactional processing
D) All of the above
Answer: A Level: Medium Page: 73
67. Customer relationship management systems often include functions such as:
A) sales force automation
B) customer service and support
C) Marketing campaign management and analysis
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 68
68. Sales force automation systems perform the following tasks, except:
A) contact management
B) sales lead tracking
C) demand forecasting
D) order management
Answer: C Level: Hard Page: 69
69. Which of the following are parts of IT support for customer relationship management?
A) front office systems
B) back office systems
C) all of the above
D) none of the above
Answer: C Level: Hard Page: 71
70. Business intelligence helps knowledge workers understand:
A) capabilities of the firm
B) state of the art, trends, and future directions in the markets
C) applicable technological, demographic, economic, political, social, and regulatory environments
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Hard Page: 72
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 39
71. What is the name of the organization for people that specialize in competitive intelligence?
A) Society for Competitive Intelligence Professionals
B) Competitive Intelligence Quarterly
C) Society of Business Intelligence
D) Competitive Intelligence Association
Answer: A Level: Hard Page: 72
72. Business intelligence systems provide managers with which of the following?
A) information and knowledge
B) at the right time
C) in the right place
D) all of the above
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 74
73. According to this text, which of the following is not required for business intelligence systems to have
an impact on business?
A) focus on using information to deal with an important issue
B) provide the ability to customize BI information for each knowledge worker
C) build discipline and precision into the decision-making process
D) provide excellent data
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 75
74. Which of the following displays data for individual knowledge workers?
A) computer monitor
B) collaboration system
C) digital dashboard
D) PDA
Answer: C Level: Medium Page: 76
75. Which type of team works in different locations?
A) collaboration teams
B) virtual teams
C) unrelated teams
D) distributed teams
Answer: B Level: Easy Page: 77
76. Which system would be used to locate a contact person from another company?
A) knowledge management system
B) collaboration system
C) workflow system
D) social network system
Answer: D Level: Easy Page: 78
Test Bank, Chapter 2 40
77. Which of the following is not a challenge to success with integrated collaboration environments?
A) People don't understand how important their knowledge is and so do not contribute it
B) People believe that knowledge is power, so they are reluctant to share their knowledge
C) People do not have time to submit knowledge
D) Many people are unable to quantify their knowledge.
Answer: D Level: Medium Page: 79
78. Which of the following integrated collaboration environment providers does not include presence
awareness?
A) IBM/Lotus
B) Netware
C) Microsoft
D) Novel
Answer: B Level: Hard Page: 80
Fill in the Blank Questions
79. ________ is an approach that produces or delivers a product or service just at the time the customer
wants it.
Answer: Just-in-time Level: Easy Page: 63
80. ___________ is a concept that encourages and facilitates collaborative processes between members of
a supply chain.
Answer: Collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR) Level: Easy Page: 65
81. ____________ tracks inventory and information among business processes and across companies.
Answer: Supply chain management Level: Easy Page: 62
82. A supply chain management system automates the tracking of ____________ and information among
business processes and across companies.
Answer: Inventory Level: Easy Page: 62
83. Coordinating ____________ to insure that supplies reach the correct destination at lowest possible
cost is critical to supply chain management.
Answer: Logistics Level: Hard Page: 64
84. A(n) ____________ helps companies understand customer needs so that they can serve them better.
Answer: customer relationship management system Level: Medium Page: 68
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 41
85. A(n) ____________ tracks all steps in the sales process.
Answer: Sales force automation system Level: Easy Page: 68
86. A(n) ____________ is used to fulfill and support customer orders.
Answer: Back office system Level: Easy Page: 71
87. A(n) ____________ serves as the primary interface for customers and the sales process.
Answer: Front office system Level: Easy Page: 71
88. ____________ is knowledge about your customers, competitors, business partners, competitive
environment, and your own internal operations.
Answer: Business intelligence Level: Easy Page: 72
89. Competitive intelligence is business intelligence focused on ____________ competition.
Answer: External Level: Easy Page: 72
90. A(n) ____________ is a logical collection of information used to create business intelligence.
Answer: Data warehouse Level: Medium Page: 73
91. A(n) ____________ is a subset of a data ____________.
Answer: Data mart, Warehouse Level: Medium Page: 73
92. A(n) ____________ is used to query information from a data warehouse.
Answer: Data-mining tool Level: Medium Page: 74
93. A(n) ____________ displays data extracted from a business intelligence system on a computer screen
in a format customized to an individual knowledge worker.
Answer: Digital dashboard Level: Hard Page: 76
94. A company must complete all steps in the ____________ to complete a business process.
Answer: Workflow Level: Easy Page: 78
95. A(n) ____________ facilitates the automation and management of business processes.
Answer: Workflow system Level: Medium Page: 78
96. Many companies, such as banks, maintain copies of your documents for many years. A(n)
____________ system could be used to track these.
Answer: Document management Level: Medium Page: 79
Test Bank, Chapter 2 42
97. A(n) ____________ supports the capture, organization, and dissemination of knowledge.
Answer: Knowledge management system Level: Easy Page: 78
98. A(n) ____________ links you to people you know, and from there, to people your contacts know.
Answer: Social network system Level: Hard Page: 78
99. ____________ permits users to communicate in real time and share files without a central server.
Answer: Peer-to-peer collaboration software Level: Easy Page: 80
100. A(n) ____________ is a special kind of DSS to help maximize the amount of revenue an airline
generates on each flight.
Answer: Yield management system Level: Medium Page: 84
101. ____________ refers to ensuring the right quantity of parts for production or products for sale arrive
at the right time.
Answer: Fulfillment Level: Easy Page: 64
102. ____________ refers to keeping the costs of transportation as low as possible consistent with safe
and reliable delivery.
Answer: Logistics Level: Easy Page: 64
103. ____________ refers to ensuring that production lines function smoothly because high quality parts
are available as needed.
Answer: Production Level: Easy Page: 64
104. ____________ refers to ensuring that no sales are lost because sales are empty.
Answer: Revenue and profit Level: Easy Page: 64
105. ____________ refers to keeping the cost of purchased parts and products at acceptable levels.
Answer: Spend Level: Easy Page: 64
106. ____________ is a total business objective which encompasses many different aspects of a business
including software, hardware, services, support, and strategic business goals.
Answer: Customer relationship management Level: Medium Page: 68
Haag/Cummings, Information Systems Essentials 43
In which approach of data warehousing, the transaction data is partitioned into facts
1. Normalized approach
2. Operational approach
3. Dimensional approach
4. None of these
One of the techniques of implementing the OLAP engine is a ‘Specialized SQL server’. This
server
exhibits the following properties:
1. It assumes that the data warehouse is in a multidimensional model and is implemented in a
relational DBMS
2. It facilitates OLAP operations in SQL, when the data warehouse organized as relational
tables
3. It facilitates OLAP operations in SQL
4. It facilitates SQL queries for the data warehouse that is physically organized as a
multidimensional
model
B-Tree is used as an index to provide access to records
1. Without scanning the entire table
2. By scanning the entire table
3. By scanning the entire meta data
4. None of these
An operational system is which of the following?
1. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data
2. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data.
3. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data.
4. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data.
In a traditional MIS system, there is an almost _______ sequence of queries.
1. exponential
2. quadratic
3. none of these
4. linear
Data warehouse bus matrix is a combination of
1. Dimensions and facts
2. Facts and data marts
3. Dimensions and data marts
4. Dimensions and detailed facts
Naturally Evolving architecture occurred when an organization had a _______ approach to
handling
the whole process of hardware and software architecture.
1. None of these
2. Good
3. Relaxed
4. Not Relaxed
The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse is:
1. Queryable change data
2. Logged change dat
3. Cooperative change data
4. Snapshot change data
The performance in a MOLAP cube comes from the __________ look-up time for the array data
structure.
1. O(3)
2. O(0)
3. O(1)
4. O(2)
The active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?
1. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
2. Near real-time updates
3. All of these
4. At least one data mart
A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?
1. Dimension
2. All of these
3. Fact
4. Helper
A data warehouse is said to contain a ‘subject-oriented’ collection of data because
1. It is a generalization of ‘object-oriented’ approach
2. It is built for a specific application
3. It cannot support multiple objects
4. Its contents have a common theme
Which of the following is not the managing issue in the modeling process?
1. Ensure that the transaction edit flat is used for analysis
2. Document each candidate data source
3. Walk through business scenarios
4. Do regions report to zones
The ‘Pivot’ is an OLAP operation which:
1. Is a visualization operation, rotating the axes for alternative presentation
2. Integrates several dimensions
3. Is not a visualization operation
4. Two consecutive slice operations in two different dimensions
Data transformation includes which of the following?
1. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
2. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
3. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
4. Separating data from one source into various sources of data
Taken jointly, the extract programs or naturally evolving systems formed a spider web, also
known as
1. Online Systems Architecture
2. Distributed Systems Architecture
3. Legacy Systems Architecture
4. Intranet Systems Architecture
What is true of the multidimensional model?
1. It typically requires less disk storage
2. Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult
3. Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
4. It typically requires more disk storage
The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:
1. Expert system technology
2. Data visualization
3. Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types
4. Parallel architecture
Which of the following statement is true?
1. The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
2. The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data
3. All of these
4. The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
Fact tables are
1. Partially demoralized
2. Completely normalized
3. Partially normalized
4. Completely demoralized
_______ is an application of information and data.
1. Education
2. Power
3. Intelligence
4. Knowledge
Why aggregate is used in dimensional model of data warehouse?
1. To store data in one operational system
2. To take the dimension and change its granularity
3. All of these
4. To retrieve data from an operational system
The extract process is which of the following?
1. Capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems
2. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems
3. Capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems
4. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems
The growth of master files and magnetic tapes exploded around the mid- _______.
1. 1980s
2. 1970s
3. 1950s
4. 1960s
The content of a data warehouse is said to be ‘non-volatile’, because
1. Its life-span is very long
2. It is a read-only data
3. It disappears when the system is switched off
4. It remains the same even after the system crashes
A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
1. To create a new data warehouse
2. To confirm that data exists
3. To analyze data for expected relationships
4. To explain some observed event or condition
Which of the following is the most important when deciding on the data structure of a data mart?
1. XML data exchange standards
2. Data access tools to be used
3. Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) tool to be used
4. Metadata naming conventions

‘ROLAP’ is preferred over ‘MOLAP’ when

1. The multidimensional model does not support query optimization.
2. The data warehouse is in relational tables, but no slice and dice operations are required.
3. A data warehouse contains many fact tables and many dimension tables
4. A data warehouse and relational database are separable
Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection, data
transformation,
data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
1. ETL process
2. KDD process
3. MDX process
4. KTL process
‘Roll-up’ is an OLAP operation:
Which switches from the details to the aggregate
level along many dimensions
Which switches from the details to the aggregate
level within a classification hierarchy
Easy Hard
Question Insights »
At which level we can create dimensional models?
1. Detailed models level
2. Implementation level
3. Architecture models level
4. Business requirements level
We want to add the following capability to Table2: for each type of account in each region, also
show the dollar
amount besides the number of customers. This adds to Table2:
1. Other row(s)
2. Another measure for each cell
3. Other column(s)
4. Another dimension
Which one manages both current and historic transactions?
1. OLTP
2. Spread sheet
3. OLAP
4. XML
Transient data is which of the following?
1. Data that are never deleted once they have been added
2. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added
3. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the records to
be
eliminated
4. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records to be
eliminated
Dimension data within a warehouse exhibits one of the following properties
1. Dimension data is the information that is used to analyze the elemental transactions
2. It contains historical data
3. Dimension data consists of the minor part of the warehouse
4. The aggregated information is actually dimension

A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?
1. Many-to-many
2. One-to-many
3. One-to-one
4. All of these
A data warehouse is an ‘integrated’ collection of data because
1. It is a relational database
2. It is a collection of data of derived from multiple sources
3. It contains summarized data
4. It is a collection of data of different types
The users of data warehouse are knowledge workers in other words they are _________ in the
organization.
1. Database Administrator
2. Decision maker
3. DWH Analyst
4. Manager
We want to add the following capabilities to Table2: show the data for 3 age groups (20-39, 40-
60, over 60), 3
revenue groups (less than $10,000, $10,000-$30,000, over $30,000) and add a new type of
account: Money
market. The total number of measures will be:
1. 4
2. Between 10 and 30 (boundaries included)
3. Between 40 and 60 (boundaries included)
4. More than 100
A data warehouse is said to contain a ‘time-varying’ collection of data because
1. It contains historical data
2. Its contents vary automatically with time
3. Its life-span is very limited
4. Its content has explicit time-stamp
Analytical processing uses ____________ , instead of record level access.
1. Single-level hierarchy
2. None of the Given
3. Single-level aggregates
4. multi-level aggregates
Multi-dimensional databases (MDDs) typically use ___________ formats to store pre-
summarized cube
structures.
1. SQL
2. Non- proprietary file
3. Object oriented
4. proprietary file
Among the following, which is NOT the objective of clustering?
1. To initiate hypothesis about the data
2. It facilitates OLAP operations
3. To cover natural groupings
4. To find consistent and valid organizations of the data

A data warehouse is which of the following?

1. Can be update by end user
2. Organized around important subject areas
3. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
4. Contain only current data
The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?
1. At least one data mart
2. Both at least one data mart and near real-time updates
3. None of these
4. Near real-time updates
____________is changing the view of the data.
1. Dice only
2. Slice and Dice both
3. None of these
4. Slice noly
What is ‘MOLAP’?
1. MOLAP is a ROLAP with a supporting multidimensional model.
2. MOLAP is an OLAP engine for (i) relational models and (ii) multidimensional OLAP
operations
3. MOLAP is an OLAP engine for (i) Multidimensional models and (ii) supports
multidimensional
OLAP operations
4. MOLAP is an OLAP engine for (i) multidimensional models and (ii) SQL based OLAP
operations
What is reconciled data?
1. Data that has been selected and formatted for end-user support applications.
2. Data stored in the various operational systems throughout the organization.
3. Data stored in one operational system in the organization.
4. Current data intended to be the single source for all decision support systems
The need to synchronize data upon update is called
1. Data Imitation
2. Data Coherency
3. Data Manipulation
4. Data Replication
The ‘Dice’ operation is concerned with :
1. Multiple runs of slice
2. Two consecutive slice operations in two differ ent dimensions
3. Selecting certain cells of more than one dimension
4. Slice on more than one
The ‘Slice’ operation deals with :
1. Selecting the cells of any one dimension of data cube
2. Selecting all but one dimension of the data cube.
3. Merging the cells of all but one dimension
4. Merging the cells along one dimension
Suppose the amount of data recorded in an organization is doubled every year. This increase is
__________.
1. Quadratic
2. Linear
3. Logarithmic
4. Exponential

Which of the following statements is not true about refreshing a data warehouse:
1. Updates to dimension tables may occur at different times than the fact table
2. None of these
3. It is a process of managing timing differences between the updating of data sources and the
related data
warehouse objects
4. The data warehouse administrator has more control over the load time lag than the valid time
lag
Data warehousing and on-line analytical processing (OLAP) are _______ elements of decision
support system.
1. None of the given
2. Unusual
3. Essential
4. Optional
What is ‘ROLAP’?
1. ROLAP is an OLAP engine for (i) Multidimensional models and (ii) SQL queries, but does
not support
‘slice’ and ‘dice’ operations
2. ROLAP is an OLAP engine for (i) relational model and (ii) SQL based OLAP operations
3. ROLAP is a set of relational operations equivalent to OLAP operations
4. ROLAP is an OLAP engine for (i) multidimensional models and (ii) SQL based OLAP
operations
Which of the following is the collection of data objects that are similar to one another within the
same group?
1. Data source
2. Cluster
3. Grid
4. Table
Which of the following is not related to dimension table attributes?
1. Verbose
2. Descriptive
3. Complete
4. Equally unavailable
In a 3-tier architecture of the data warehouse, the OLAP engine is related to:
1. The Second layer of the architecture
2. The fourth layer of the architecture
3. The first layer of the architecture
4. The third layer of the architecture
Which of the following employees data mining techniques to analyze the intent of a user query,
provided
additional generalized or associated information relevant to the query?
1. Iceberg query method
2. Data analyzer
3. Query parser
4. Intelligent query answering
Choose the correct answer:
1. Data mining and data warehousing are the same
2. Data warehousing is the application of data mining.
3. Data mining is the application of data warehousing
4. Data mining and data warehousing are totally unrelated

The process of removing the deficiencies and loopholes in the data is called as
1. Extracting of data
2. Loading of data
3. Compression of data
4. Cleaning up of data
In order to populate the data warehouse, which of the following set of operations are
appropriate?
1. Query and update
2. Refresh and load
3. Insert and delete
4. Create and edit.
The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:
1. Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic
times
2. The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
3. A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
4. Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the operational
databases
The divide&conquer cube partitioning approach helps alleviate the __________ limitations of
MOLAP
implementation.
1. Maintainability
2. Scalability
3. Security
4. Flexibility
What is a data mart?
1. It is the access layer of the data warehouse environment that is used to get data out to the
users
2. It is the process of extracting data
3. It is the collection of data in data warehouse
4. It is the process of extracting patterns from large data sets
Attempt to find a function which models the data with the least error is known as
1. None of these
2. Association rule
3. Clustering
4. Regression
The value at the intersection of the row labeled "India" and the column "Savings" in Table2
should be:
1. 800,000
2. 200,000
3. 500,000
4. 300,000
A ‘Drill-down’ operation is concerned with:
1. Which splits cells of any one dimension based on the characteristics of the dimension?
2. Which merges cells of any one dimension based on the characteristics of the dimension
3. Which splits cells of two dimensions
4. Which merges cells of two dimensions

A ‘Data mart’:
1. Is a stand-alone of a data warehouse, by itself, of a department of the enterprise
2. Is a place where data are dumped without any restrictions .
3. Is the analysis unit of the overall architecture of a warehouse
4. Is an essential component in the sense that every data warehouse necessarily has several
data
marts
The load and index is which of the following?
1. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
2. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
3. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse
4. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse
A ‘virtual house’ is essentially:
1. It is the operational database but provides warehouse facilities through a middleware
2. It is the conceptual view of the relational and transactional database
3. A traditional relational database providing a multidimensional view through a
middleware and it
is different from the enterprise’s operational database
4. It is the materialized view of the operational and transactional database
Choose the most correct answer::
1. Fact Constellation schema contains denormalized Dimension table
2. Snowflake schema contains normalized Dimension table
3. Star schema contains normalized Dimension table
4. Snowflake schema contains denormalized Dimension table.
What is data scrubbing?
1. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
2. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
3. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse
4. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse
Choose the most correct answer:
1. Snowflake schema contains two Fact tables
2. Fact Constellation schema contains two Fact tables
3. Star and snowflake schema contains two Fact tables.
4. Star schema contains two Fact tables
A data warehouse is built as a separate repository of data, different from the operational data of
an enterprise
because
1. It contains data derived from multiple sources
2. A data warehouse cannot afford to allow corrupted data within it
3. It is necessary to keep the operational data free of any warehouse operations
4. A data warehouse contains summarized data whereas the operational database contains
transactional data
________ gives total view of an organization.
1. Database
2. OLAP
3. Data Warehouse
4. OLTP

Data Warehouse provides the best support for analysis while OLAP carries out the _________
task.
1. Analysis
2. Whole
3. Mandatory
4. Prediction
Relational databases allow you to navigate the data in ____________ that is appropriate using
the primary,
foreign key structure within the data model.
1. None of these
2. Any Direction
3. Only One Direction
4. Two Direction
In _________ system, the contents change with time.
1. ATM
2. DSS
3. OLTP
4. OLAP
Q.1) Which of the following statements best describes the Micro Strategy Metadata?
A. It stores all of the information that you want to analyze from your various business systems.
B. It contains the definition of reports as well as all of the objects that are included in
reports.
C. It records data about your business
B
Q.2) Which of the following objects provides descriptive information from the data warehouse that can
be
displayed on a report?
A. Fact
B. Attribute
C. Hierarchy
B
Q.3) Which of the following objects enables users to select the information to be included in a report or
document at run time?
A. Metric
B. Attribute
C. Prompt
D. Fact
c
Q.4) All reports in MicroStrategy are made up of a filter and the following object:
A. Hierarchies
B. Fact
C. Template
c
Q.5) This folder contains reports, documents, and other objects that are accessible to you and other
users.
A. My Subscriptions
B. History List
C. Shared Reports
D. My Reports
c
Q.6) Which of the following statements about prompts is true?
A. Documents cannot be prompted
B. A prompt may have a default answer already selected when you first view it.
C. All prompts are displayed the same way.
B
Q.7) This type of report or document already has all of the content defined at run time.
A. Static
B. Predefined
C. Prompted
A
Q.8) Which type of prompt display option enables users to enter a single value? (For example, number,
text, or
date).
A. Pull Down
B. Text Box
C. Option Button
D. Check Box
B
Q.9) Which of the following views can you use to display reports?
A. Grid
B. Graph
C. Grid and Graph
D. All of the above
D
Q.10) After you run a report, what report manipulation enables you to view data at levels other than the
original
level of the report?
A. Drilling
B. Advanced Sorting
C. Data Pivoting
D. Outline Mode
A
Q.11) This functionality enables a report to be divided into separate pages for viewing purposes based
on an
object, such as an attribute or metric.
A. Outline Mode
B. Banding
C. Drilling
D. Page-by
D
Q.12) While viewing a document, which of the following statements about the grouping feature is true?
A. Grouping in documents is similar to the page-by axis in reports
B. You can change the order of the data elements in the Grouping field.
C. You can add additional data elements to the Grouping field.
A
Q.13) Which of the following statements about sorting report data is false?
A. Quick sort enables you to sort by one row or column at a time
B. You can perform an advanced sort using the sort buttons
C. Advanced sort enables you to sort sequentially by up to three rows or columns at a time.
B
Q.14) Which of the following is not a method for performing drilling on a report?
A. Clicking on a hyperlinked attribute element name
B. Right-clicking and using the Drill menu
C. Dragging an attribute to the Drill panel
D. Using the Drill panel
C
Q.15) In MicroStrategy Web, a document can be displayed in which of the following view modes?
A. Dynamic
B. Interactive
C. Static
D. Simplified
B
Q.16) You have a report that shows weekly regional performance based on sales. For any region that
generated
less than $50,000 in sales, the report displays its sales value in bold type and red font color. This type of
display is called:
A. Autostyle
B. Banding
C. Thresholds
D. Number formatting
C
Q.17) Which of the following statements about the Quick Switch feature in documents is true?
A. You use Quick Switch to switch from one document to another in the View Mode
B. You use Quick Switch for changing the display of a grid to a graph and vice versa in a
document
C. You use Quick Switch for converting a graph into a Flash widget
D. All of the above
B
Q.18) In a document, you can use a selector to perform which of the following manipulations?
A. Flip through panels in a panel stack
B. Select attribute elements to display in a grid or a graph
C. Select metrics to display in a grid or a graph
D. All of the above
D
Q.19) After running a prompted report, you are interested in selecting different prompt answers; what
feature will
enable you to carry out this task?
A. Clicking the Undo button
B. Clicking the Re-prompt button
C. Clicking the Rerun button
B
Q.20) Which of the following statements about subscriptions in Micro Strategy Web is true?
A. Subscriptions are useful for reports or documents that you routinely execute at
specific times or for
ones that take longer to process
B. When you subscribe to a report or document, you are requesting that the administrator execute the
report or document based on a schedule that you select
C. You can create your own schedules and then use them to subscribe to reports and documents
A
Q.21) Which folder allows you to access reports or documents that ran automatically using schedules?
A. My Subscriptions
B. History List
C. My Reports
D. Shared Reports
B
Q.22) To which of the following applications can you export report results?
A. PDF
B. Microsoft Word
C. Microsoft Access
D. All of the above
A
Q.23) Which of the following features would you use to make all of your reports display results with the
same
formatting?
A. Banding
B. Autostyle
C. Sorting
B
Q.24) Which of the following statements about using Outline Mode to display reports is true?
A. It requires Micro Strategy OLAP Services
B. It enables an indented, hierarchical display of report results
C. To use Outline mode, a report must be sorted first
B
Q.25)
Which of the following statements about thresholds is true?
A. Thresholds are visual indicators that certain conditions exist in data
B. In Micro Strategy Web, you first define the conditions and then format metric values to display in
specific ways when those conditions are met
C. You do not have the option to toggle thresholds on and off
A
Q.26) If you run a report that originally shows sales data at the country level, what report manipulation
can you
perform to view sales data at the state level?
A. Data Pivoting
B. Drilling
C. Banding
D. Outline Mode
B
Q.27) Which of the following statements about viewing documents in Interactive Mode is true?
A. By using a selector, you can determine what data is displayed in grid or graph reports
in the document
or which panel of a panel stack is displayed
B. By using the Quick Switch button, you can quickly switch from one document to another
C. You cannot view the document in Full Screen Mode
A
Q.28) Which of the following statements about view filters is true?
A. View filters limit the actual data that is brought back from the data warehouse
B. View filters can be saved and reused on other reports
C. You can only create view filters based on attributes and metrics in the Report Objects
window
(Answer)
C
Q.29) Which of the following statements about reports in Micro Strategy Web is true?
A. A report consists of a template, which defines the format and layout, and a filter,
which determines
the data that is included in the result
B. A report cannot have an empty filter
C. You cannot create multiple views of the report
A
Q.30) With Micro Strategy OLAP Services, which of the following scenarios requires new SQL to be
generated for a
report?
A. You add a metric from the Report Objects window to the template
B. You remove an attribute from the Report Objects window
C. You create a view filter on an attribute in the Report Objects window
D. You create a metric using two metrics that are in the Report Objects window
B
Q.31) Which of the following statements about derived metrics is false?
A. They are built using existing metrics already in the Report Objects window
B. You can save them and re-use them on other reports
C. Derived metric funtionality is available only if you have MicroStrategy OLAP Services
B
Q.32) This special type of derived metric allows you to create percent to total and rank calculations
based on
existing metrics in the report.
A. Nested metric
B. Shortcut metric
C. Complex metric
D. Simple metric
B
Q.33) Which of the following statements about data pivoting is true?
A. Metrics can be moved only to the rows or columns, not the page-by field
B. Pivoting enables you to quickly and easily rearrange data so that you can view it from
multiple
perspectives
C. Data pivoting requires MicroStrategy OLAP Services
B
Q.34) What report manipulation involves moving individual attributes or metrics from rows to columns
or columns
to rows or the page-by field?
A. Sorting
B. Data pivoting
C. Swap rows and columns
D. Exporting
B
Q.35) Which of the following statements about advanced drilling on reports in MicroStrategy Web is
true?
A. Advanced drills enable you to drill to any attribute in any hierarchy
B. Advanced drills can only be performed using the Drill menu
C. Advanced drills can only be performed using the Drill panel
A
Q.36) This feature enables you to easily select the data you want to keep for further analysis and then
removes the
rest of the data from the report display.
A. Data pivoting
B. Filter on Selections
C. Swap rows and columns
D. Advanced drilling
B
Q.37) Which of the following statements about view filters is true?
A. A view filter is used to display only a subset of the full result set
B. You can create view filters based on any project object, not just report objects
C. View filters can contain only one condition
A
Q.38) Which of the following statements about adding totals to a report is true?
A. You can define subtotals, which calculate totals at various attribute levels in a report
B. You can create your own custom subtotals and use them on a report
C. You can either show the grand total or subtotals but not both on a report
A
Q.39) Which of the following statements about saving prompted reports is false?
A. You can save the report as static or prompted
B. You can choose to keep either the filter or the template as prompted, or both
C. You cannot keep your current answers as the default answers
B
Q.40) Which of the following statements about adding reports and documents to the History List is
false?
A. You can subscribe to reports and documents and then use the History List to retrieve the results
B. You cannot add them from the wait page as they are executing
C. You can add them when you are viewing the result
B
Q.41) You have a report with a large result set. As you scroll down the report, the row and column
headers are no
longer visible. What feature can you use to ensure that the row and column headers are always visible
as
you scroll through the report?
A. Resize row and column headers
B. Enable banding
C. Lock row and column headers
C
Q.42) Which of the following statements about MicroStrategy OLAP Services is true?
A. It enables you to create metrics inside a report that you can use in other reports
B. It enables you to include attributes and metrics in the Report Objects window without
displaying
them on the template
C. It enables you to drill to any object in your project without generating new SQL
B
Q.43) Which of the following statements about predesigned reports in Micro Strategy Web is false?
A. They enable you to create your own reports using prompts
B. They cannot have a report filter
C. The Report Wizard provides a quick and easy way of creating your own report by selecting from
predefined templates and filters
D. The Report Builder provides a more detailed means for creating your own report. It enables you to
select the individual attributes and metrics for the template and to choose the objects and operators
that you want to use for the filter qualification
B
Q.44) Which Document Display Mode allows you to view the document results only and provides the
best
performance.
A. Flash mode
B. Express mode
C. Interactive mode
B
Q.45) Which feature of Micro Strategy is this statement referring to: This feature is the repository for
storing all of
the information that you want to analyze from disparate source systems.
A. Source Systems
B. Metadata Database
C. Data Warehouse
D. ETL Process
C
Q.46) Which one of these objects is NOT a schema object?
A. Metric
B. Attribute
C. Fact
D. Hierarchy
A
Q.47) Which of the following statements is true with regard to report creation for a Web
Reporter/Analyst?
A. This user can create reports from a Predesigned Report and a Prompted Predesigned
Report
B. This user can create reports from a Predesigned Report, Prompted Predesigned Report and from
scratch
C. Can create a Document
A
Q.48) If you want to customize your print settings, which of the following components would you use?
A. Preferences
B. My Reports
C. My Subscriptions
A
Q.49) You can only create Derived Elements on a report that is based on a published Intelligent Cube.
A. True
B. False
A
Q.50) Which formats can you export reports to?
A. Excel (with or without formatting)
B. CSV (file format recognized by Excel)
C. HTML
D. Plain text
E. All of the above
E
Sno Question Text Choice1 Choice2 Choice3 Choice4 Choice5
1 In requirements TRUE FALSE
validation the
requirements model is
reviewed to ensure its
technical feasibility.
State True/False
2 Software engineering Reliable Cost Effective Reliable and None Of Above
aims at developing Software Software cost effective
Software
3 Software Engineering Better Error free s/w Reusable Quality
approach is used to performance of software software
achieve h/w product
4 The best way to send them to use a checklist have the examine the
conduct a the design of questions to customer look system model
requirements team and examine each over the for errors
validation review is to see if they have requirement requirements
any concerns
5 Project risk factor is Water fall Spiral Prototype All of the above
considered in
6 Management of People Product Process All of the above
software
development is
dependent upon
7 Milestones are used Know the cost Know the Know the user None of the
to of the project status of the expectations above
project
8 The review is one of Inspection Walkthrough Testing All of the above
the methods of V&V.
The other methods
are
9 Which of the Inherent in Neither Something to Probability of
following is not Risk every project intrinsically fear but not loss
characteristic good not bad something to
manage
10 The Prototype is a Working Mini model of Mini model of None of the
model of existing system processed above
existing system system
11 Which is not the Plan how and Prepare the Prepare Plan resources
responsibility of by whom each acceptance resource plan for providing
customer/ user of the acceptance plan information on
software activity will be which to base
performed acceptance
decisions
12 Software Engineering IEEE Bauer Boehm Charles Babbage
is the systematic
approach to the
development,
operation,
maintenance and
retirement of
software. This
definition is given
by_________
13 Software engineering TRUE FALSE
umbrella activities are
only applied during
the initial phases of
software
development projects.
State True or False
14 Which of the items Process Manufacturing Methods Tools
listed below is not one
of the software
engineering layers
15 A stakeholder is TRUE FALSE
anyone who will
purchase the
completed software
system under
development. State
True/False
16 Major component of The probability The potential The potential A and C.
Risk Analysis are that the loss is very loss or impact
negative event high associated
will occur with the event
17 Change cannot be TRUE FALSE
easily accommodated
in most software
systems, unless the
system was designed
with change in mind.
State True/False
18 Which phase is not Coding Design Specifications Installation &
available in s/w life Maintenance
cycle
19 The work products size of the size of the software stakeholders
produced during product being budget process being needs
requirement built used
elicitation will vary
20 The term module in Functions Procedures Sub programs All of the above
the design phase
refers to
21 Which of the The modern Mainly used at The primary All the above
following is the version of systems output of the
correct definition for flowchart specification system design
DFD stages phase
22 In system design, we Hardware Software Parallel No hardware
do following design after design after hardware and design needed
software hardware software
design
23 In object oriented attributes and operations and attributes, None of above
design of software , names only names only name and
objects have operations
24 Informational data structured Modularity Concurrency
cohesion is a abstraction programming
realization of
25 Software is a product TRUE FALSE
and can be
manufactured using
the same technologies
used for other
engineering artifacts.
State True or False
26 Object-oriented TRUE FALSE
analysis techniques
can be used to
identify and refine
user task
objects and actions
without any need to
refer to the user
voice. State
True/False
27 Which of these size maintainability simplicity modularity b,c and d
criteria are useful in
assessing the
effectiveness of a
particular
design notation
28 Which of these is a decision table process flowchart ER diagram
graphical notation for diagram
depicting procedural
detail
29 Which of the Objects inherit Classes are an object can classes are
following comments the properties defined based belong to two always different
about object oriented of class on the classes
design of software, is attributes of
not true objects
30 The entity relationship depicts indicates depicts indicates how
diagram relationships system functions that data are
between data reactions to transform the transformed by
objects external events data flow the system
31 The data flow diagram TRUE FALSE
must be augmented
by descriptive text in
order to
describe the
functional
requirements for a
software product.
State True/False
32 Which is not a Water fall Spiral Prototype Capability
software life cycle Maturity
model Model
33 If requirements are Water fall Spiral Prototype None
understandable, easy,
defined, which model
is best suited
34 If requirements are Water fall Spiral Prototype RAD
frequently changing,
which model is best
suited
35 A data model consists Data Object The attributes Relationship All of the above
of the following that describe that connect
information data object data object to
one another
36 The incremental A good A reasonable The best A revolutionary
model of software approach approach approach to model that is
development is when a when use for not used for
working core requirements projects with commercial
product is are well large products
required defined development
quickly teams.
37 The prototyping The best A risky model A useful A reasonable
model of software approach to that rarely approach approach when
development is use for projects produces a when a requirements
with large meaningful customer are well defined
development product cannot define
teams requirements
clearly
38 Which of following is Dataflow Class diagram Activity State diagram
not a UML diagram diagram diagram
used creating a
system analysis
model
39 Control flow diagrams needed to required for all used in place useful for both a and d
are model event systems. of data flow modeling real-
driven systems. diagrams. time systems.
40 The object Data flow Flow chart Entity All of the above
relationship pair of diagram relationship
data model is diagram
represented
graphically by using
41 Using software To decrease To meet To decrease To increase all of them
process improvement development schedule the defect rate profitability
model will help a time
company
42 Data structure data design architectural procedural interface design
suitable for the design design
application is
discussed in ?
43 Process models are eliminate the make do not waste emphasize
described as agile need for extensive use development maneuverability
because they cumbersome of prototype time on and adaptability
documentation creation planning
activities
44 Software processes TRUE FALSE
can be constructed
out of pre-existing
software patterns to
best meet the needs
of a software project.
State True or False
45 The following s/w Incremental Component Concurrent All of the above
process model can be model assembly development
represented model
schematically as a
series of major
technical activities
and there associated
sate
46 Which one is the most Quality Risk Performance Efficiency
important feature of management Management Management management
spiral model
47 To produce a good Complex Efficient Rigorous None
quality product,
process should be
48 If Quality Control and Both are QA is a higher QC is a higher QA is done by
Quality Assurance are literally the activity in the activity in the the client and
compared same management management QC is done by
Hierarchy Hierarchy the software
vendor
49 Who is essentially Customer QA Manager Development
responsible for the Manager
quality of a product
50 What is used to Process metrics Product Software None of the
measure the metrics Quality metrics above
characteristics of the
documentation and
code
51 What are the qualities Reusability Portability Inter All The Above
of a good s/w Operability
52 A key concept of are delivered have are thoroughly have complete
quality control is that on time and measurable tested before documentation
all work products under budget specifications delivery to the
for process customer
outputs
53 Software safety is a affect the may result prevent may cause an
quality assurance reliability of a from user profitable entire system to
activity that focuses software input errors marketing of fail
on hazards that component the final
product
54 What exactly Baseline A single A quantitative A test or None of the
means software measure of the analysis above
product that current level conducted
may or may of after an
not fully performance application is
support a moved into
business production
function
55 What is configuration overall management the in object-
management in management of the identification oriented
software engineering of the design of configurable of the programming,
the system components in configuration the
a system of a system at management of
discreet points objects that
in time to control the
control configuration of
changes to the some other
configuration function(s) in
the system
56 Which of the change control version control reporting statistical
following tasks is not quality control
part of software
configuration
management?
57 Which of these are documentation software tools test data executable all of the above
valid software programs
configuration items?
58 The primary purpose evaluate the make sure that allow revision none of the
of configuration status performance of change of project above
reporting is to software information is schedules and
developers and communicated cost estimates
organizations to all affected by project
parties managers
59 variant entity item version
A new __________ is
defined when major
changes have been
made to one or more
configuration objects.
60 In software quality TRUE FALSE
assurance work there
is no difference
between software
verification and
software validation.
State True/False
61 People who perform TRUE FALSE
software quality
assurance must look
at the software from
the customer's
perspective.
62 Variation control in process product resources all of the
the context of applied quality expended above
software engineering attributes
involves controlling
variation in the
63 The goal of quality TRUE FALSE
assurance is to
provide management
with the data needed
to determine which
software engineers
are producing the
most defects.
64 TRUE FALSE

The purpose of
software reviews is to
uncover errors in
work products so they
can be removed
before moving on to
the next phase of
development.
65 The ability to track TRUE FALSE
relationships and
changes to
configuration objects
is one of the most
important features of
the SCM repository.
66 A basic configuration program data unit of a software all of the above
object is a structure information component
__________ created
by a software
engineer during some
phase of the software
development process.
67 When software quality development senior testing
configuration assurance team managers specialists
management is a group
formal activity, the
software
configuration audit is
conducted by the
68 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False.
A use case can result
into more than one
scenario.

69 Test conditions can be TRUE FALSE

valid or invalid (State
True or False)

70 Alternate flows can be TRUE FALSE

tested by themselves
(State Frue or false)
71 Test scenarios have to Business rules Functional Non functional All of the above None of the
be written with the standards standards listed options
consideration of ?
72 Test Secnarios have TRUE FALSE
case specific data
assigned to them
(State True or False)
73 Test data preparation Test Scenario Test Test Execution Test condition
data is done during identification Development process defining process
_________ ? process process
74 An input field takes 0,1960,1995 1960, 1995, 1959, 1960, 0, 1959, 1960, 1959, 1960,
the birth year of the 1996 1961, 1994, 1961, 1994, 1994, 1995
user ranging from 1995, 1996 1995, 1996
1960 to 1995. The
boundary values for
testing this field are?
75 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False.

Testers should be
involved in reviewing
documents as soon as
drafts are available in
the development
cycle.
76 A procedure used to Requirement Test Planning Test Design Test Execution Test Design
derive and or select Analysis and Execution
test cases is called?

77 Testing during the Examining the Reading drafts Integration 1 and 3 None of the
design stage involves? design of the planning Testing above
documents documents

78 State whether true or TRUE FALSE

false. Informal review
is done after formal
review.
79 Review report is Self review Informal Formal review All of the above None of the
created in which type review above
of review?

80 For a given set of 2 4 6 8 None of the

boundaries, how above
many boundary values
are possible?
81 We derive _________ Test Scenario Test condition Test case All of the above None of the
by using the test above
design techniques
82 Which of the Test scenario Test case Test scenario Test case Test cases are
following statements involves the includes the define the includes the developed
is/are true? expected method of setup to steps to from Test
results. how the test perform the execute. conditions.
would be tests
performed.
83 Which is the correct A. Build the A. Review the A. Build the A. Build the None of the
order to be followed compiled code code compiled code compiled code above
for a Build Verification into software into software into software
Process? B. Build the
B. Add the compiled code B. Add the B. Add the
release notes into software release notes release notes

C. Perform C. Perform C. Perform C. Perform

Smoke/ Sanity Smoke/ Sanity Smoke/ Sanity Smoke/ Sanity
Test Test Test Test

D. Test D. Test D. Rebuild the D. Test

Execution Execution compiled code Execution
after bug
fixing E. Rebuild the
compiled code
E. Update the after defect
release notes fixing

F. Perform F. Update the

Smoke/ Sanity release notes
Test
G. Perform
G. Perform Smoke/ Sanity
Test Execution Test
if Smoke/
Sanity test is a H. Perform Test
pass Execution if
Smoke/ Sanity
test is a pass
84 The conditions that Pre condition Post condition Triggers Exceptions
need to be verified by
the tester after the
activity is performed
are called _________?

85 A defect is found after Open, Fixed, Reopen, Fixed, Defferred, Reopen, Fixed
retest. What are all Reopen, Closed Closed Open, Fixed,
the possible stages Reopen,
this defect may Closed
undergo?
86 What are the action Update status Log defect Retest Execute next
items if an application of the defect test step of
does not behave as same test case
expected?
87 Which is not a major Develop and Logging the Verifying that Checking test 3 and 4
task of test prioritizing test outcome of the test logs against the
implementation and cases, creating test execution environment exit criteria
execution? test data, and recording has been set specified in test
writing test the identities up correctly planning
procedures and and versions of
optionally, the software
preparing test under test, test
harness and tools and
writing testware
automated test
scripts
88 What are the Rejected Open Deferred Fixed Closed
subsequent states
that a new defect can
undergo?

89 State whether True or TRUE FALSE

False. Triage meeting
is done before fixing
the defect.

90 State whether True or True FALSE

False. Developer has
to ensure that the pre
requisite of each test
case are met.

91 State whether True or TRUE FALSE

False. Release notes
are prepared by
developer/
development team.
92 Which of the below is Buil d Test data Test case Defect Tracking Retesting of
not an activity verification setup execution defects
involved in Test process
execution process?

93 Match the following. A - 1, B - 2, C - A - 2, B - 3, C - A - 3, B - 2, C - A - 3, B - 1, C - 2 A - 2, B - 1, C -

3 1 1 3
A) Self review B)
Formal review C)
Informal review

1. Conducted by one
or more peers in the
team

2. Conducted by one
or more reviewers or
SME

3. Conducted by the
author himself
 94 Review of Test case Checklist Self review Peer review Author Reviewer
Artifact is done with
the help of?
95 What are the possible Misunderstood Defective code Less Developers Lack of domain
causes for ending up requirements knowledge on tend to neglect knowledge
into 0.1 % defective development test approach
application? language to the
developed
product.
96 In causal analysis Reason Cause Test Approach Requirement Failures
which attributes gathering
among below assist in
analyzing the effect?

97 Software testing Usage of Use of proper Proper causal Requirement None of the
ensures which of the design test approach analysis satisfaction and above
below? architecture usage of best
design
architecture

98 State whether true or TRUE FALSE

false. Selenium tools
helps to develop
Automated test
scripts
99 Test environment Test Scenario Test Execution Test Design Test None of the
check up is part of Development above
_________ .
100 State whether true or TRUE FALSE
false. QC is used for
logging the outcome
of the test execution.

101 Which of the Requirement Requirement Requirement Requirement None of the

following map the Analysis - Test Analysis - Test Analysis - Test Analysis - Test above
corresponding phases Planning Design Planning Planning
from SDLC with STLC.
Design and Design and Design and Design and Code
Code - Test Code - Test Code - Test - Unit Testing
Design Planning Design
Testing -
Testing - Testing - Testing - Unit Component
Component Component Testing Integration
Integration Integration testing and
testing and testing and System testing
System testing System testing
102 Which of the Helps in Helps prevent Helps to Helps to None of the
statements is identifying the defects provide a identify above
applicable to software defects reliable completeness
testing? system of the software
103 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False. Iterative model
is an example of a
methodology used for
software
development.
104 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False.
Each SDLC model
follows the same life
cycle in order to
ensure success in the
process of software
development

105 Which statements are Includes Integration System test Acceptance System testing
applicable to V verification on test plan is plan is testing is the is done after
model? right arm and prepared prepared last phase integration
validation on based on based on user testing
left arm of the detailed design requirements
V shape phase
106 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False. Test Design is
done after
requirement analysis
and before test
execution
107 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False. Test Design
involves the activity of
prioritizing the test
cases

108 State whether True or TRUE FALSE

False. Test Design
process involves only
Test development
process

109 State whether True or TRUE FALSE

False.
Unit testing is done -
To test the smallest
piece of code
Is done on source
code
110 State whether True or TRUE FALSE
False. Regression test
cases are identified in
Test development
process
111 Which statements are Done after Allows ease of Helps in Functions to Used to create
applicable to Test Requirement review by identifying bridge the a clear and
Scenarios? elicitation developers defects requirement simple flow of
analysis and a complex
test system
development
112 Which statement is These are These are These are These are None of the
correct with regards required to be required to be required to be required to be above
to Pre Condition? set for verified by verified by set for planning
performing the tester after the developer the activity to
activity to activity is after the achieve the goal
achieve the performed activity is
goal performed

113 Which statement is These are These are These are These are None of the
correct with regards required to be required to be required to be required to be above
to Post Condition? set for verified by verified by set for planning
performing the tester after developer the activity to
activity to the activity is after the achieve the goal
achieve the performed activity is
goal performed
114 Which of the Identify test Identify input Combine Combine on None of the
following is not a step conditions variables, scenarios with split test cases above
involved to arrive at a different test conditions for different
test case? options for the flows
input variables

115 The process of Test Scenario Test Case Test Test Execution None of the
creating complete set Development above
of test cases is called?

116 State whether True or TRUE FALSE

False.
While writing Test
scenarios we can
replace requirement
ID with use case
name.
 Question Text Choice1 Choice2 Choice3 Choice4 Choice5
In requirements validation the TRUE FALSE
requirements model is reviewed to
ensure its technical feasibility. State
True/False
Software Reliable Software Cost Effective Reliable and cost None Of Above
engineering aims at Software effective Software
developing
Software Better performance Error free s/w Reusable software Quality software
Engineering of h/w product
approach is used to
achieve
The best way to send them to the use a checklist of have the customer examine the system
conduct a design team and see questions to look over the model for errors
requirements if they have any examine each requirements
validation review is concerns requirement
to
Project risk factor is Water fall Spiral Prototype All of the above
considered in
Management of People Product Process All of the above
software
development is
dependent upon
Milestones are used Know the cost of the Know the status of Know the user None of the above
to project the project expectations
The review is one of Inspection Walkthrough Testing All of the above
the methods of
V&V. The other
methods are
Which of the Inherent in every Neither intrinsically Something to fear Probability of loss
following is not Risk project good not bad but not something
characteristic to manage
The Prototype is a Working model of Mini model of Mini model of None of the above
existing system existing system processed system
Which is not the Plan how and by Prepare the Prepare resource Plan resources for
responsibility of whom each acceptance plan plan providing
customer/ user of acceptance activity information on
the software will be performed which to base
acceptance
decisions
Software IEEE Bauer Boehm Charles Babbage
Engineering is the
systematic approach
to the development,
operation,
maintenance and
retirement of
software. This
definition is given
by_________
 Choice Choice Choice Choice Choice Gra Gr Gra Gr Gr
Questi 1 2 3 4 5
on
Text
Match A - 1, B A - 2, B A - 3, B A - 3, B A - 2, B 0 0 1 0 0
the - 2, C - - 3, C - - 2, C - - 1, C - - 1, C -
followi 3 1 1 2 3
ng.
A) Self
review
B)
Formal
review
C)
Inform
al
review
1.
Condu
cted by
Review Checkli Self Peer Author Review 1 0 0 0 0
of Test st review review er
case
Artifac
t is
What Misun Defecti Less Develo Lack of 1 1 0 1 1
are the dersto ve knowle pers domai
possibl od code dge on tend to n
e require develo neglect knowle
causes ments pment test dge
for langua approa
ending ge ch to
up into the
0.1 % develo
defecti ped
ve
applica
tion?
In Reason Cause Test Requir Failure 1 1 0 0 0
causal Approa ement s
analysi ch gatheri
s ng
which
attribu
tes
Softwa Usage Use of Proper Requir None 0 0 0 1 0
re of proper causal ement of the
testing design test analysi satisfa above
ensure archite approa s ction
s cture ch and
which usage
of the of best
below? design
archite
cture
State whether true TRUE FALSE 1 0
or false. Selenium
Test Test Test Test Test None 0 1 0 0 0
enviro Scenari Executi Design Develo of the
nment o on pment above
check
up is
part of
______
___ .
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UNIX Questions
Chapter-1 – Introduction and Overview
Chapter:Level-1
1. Which of the following acts as an interface between user and
hardware:
1) Compiler Software
2) Operating System Software
3) Application Software
4) RDBMS
2. One of the following is NOT the function of operating system
1) command interpretation
2) Peripheral device management
3) Process management
4) Document Formatting
3. An example of single user operating system is:
1) MS Windows98
2) MS Windows 2000 server
3) MS DOS
4) UNIX
4. One of the following is NOT a multi-user Operating System
1) MS Windows 2000 server
2) HP-UX
3) PC DOS
4) Solaris
5 Which of the language is not supported by UNIX system.(choose one)
1) C
2) BASIC
3) Ada
4) VC++

6 An executing instance of a program is called:

1) Task
2) Process
3) Job
4) Program
7. A user gives a command to search for specific files as a background
process and edit a 'C' program file using vi editor. This is an example of:
1) Multiprogramming
2) Multitasking
3) Time sharing
4) Multithreading
8. User interface in UNIX is:
1) shell
2) Kernel
3) Utility
4) Korn shell
9. POSIX stands for:
1) Portable Operating System Interface
2) Portable Open System Interface
3) Portable Open System Interface for UNIX
4) Portable Operating System interface for XENIX
10. One of the following is NOT a UNIX flavor:
1) SCO
2) Fedora
3) SunOS
4) HP-UX
REMARK: Page no 8, part of courseware
11. One of the following flavors of UNIX is discontinued:
1) Solaris
2) SCO Open Server
3) AIX
4) IRIX
REMARK: Page no 8, part of courseware
12. Which One of the following is NOT true?
1) UNIX and LINUX are both freely distributed
2) UNIX and LINUX are multi-user Operating systems
3) LINUX uses UNIX as a reference model
4) LINUX and UNIX support the Bourne shell
13. The default shell in UNIX is:
1) Bourne
2) Bash
3) Korn
4) C
14. Which part of the UNIX operating system directly interacts with
Hardware
1) Shell
2) Kernel
3) Utility
4) Application
15. Which of the following acts as an interface between shell and
Hardware
1) Kernel
2) Shell
3) Application
4) Utility
16. Which of the following acts as an interface between user and kernel
1) Shell
2) Kernel
3) Application
4) Utility
17. The heart of UNIX operating system is:
1) Shell
2) Kernel
3) Utilities
4) Applications
18. Kernel is:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Application software
4) Compiler software
19. UNIX is case sensitive and space sensitive
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
20. The inverted tree file structure was first introduced in MS DOS
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
21. While installing UNIX, one of the following directory is a MUST
1) root(/)
2) usr
3) user
4) home
22. UNIX insists the user to have the hierarchical system
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
23. The logical way of grouping files of same type and storing in a
particular location is achieved through the concept of:
1) Directory
2) Group
3) Alias
4) History
24. All the user commands are stored in the directory:
1) /bin
2) /usr
3) /etc
4) /tmp
25. All commands that are reserved for the administrator is stored in:
1) /bin
2) /usr
3) /etc
4) /tmp
26. The temporary results of commands are stored in:
1) /tmp
2) /temp
3) temp
4) /usr
27. All library files are stored in:
1) /lib
2) /usr/lib
3) /library
4) /root/lib
28. The system administrator in UNIX is referred by the default user
name:
1) root
2) sa
3) administrator
4) sysadmin
29. One of the following is NOT a type of user in UNIX
1) user
2) group
3) others
4) Power user
30. One of the following is a strong authentication for client/server
applications by using secret-key cryptography:
1) Kerberos
2) IPV6
3) Clustering
4) RTOS
REMARK: Page no 16, part of courseware
During the courseware evaluation comparison of UNIX with Linux had been asked
to include. Accordingly there are a few questions related to it.
31. The increasing number of networks through expansion of internet is
getting addressed through:
1) IPV4
2) IPV6
3) IPV5
4) IPV3
REMARK: Page no 16, part of courseware
During the courseware evaluation comparison of UNIX with Linux had been asked
to include. Accordingly there are a few questions related to it.
32. A server which can be used to provide dynamic IP addresses to the
machines in a network is referred as:
1) DNS server
2) DHCP server
3) WINS server
4) Proxy server
REMARK: Page no 17, part of courseware
During the courseware evaluation comparison of UNIX with Linux had been asked
to include. Accordingly there are a few questions related to it.
33. A shell is a:
1) Process
2) User interface
3) A way to interact with the hardware through kernel using
commands/utilities
4) All the above
34. To logout of UNIX the key combination is:
1) ctrl + d
2) ctrl + c
3) ctrl + z
4) Alt + d
Chapter1 -Level-2
1. Whenever an application is invoked by the user, it is necessary to check
whether the system has got enough memory to load the application. This is the
function of:
1) Compiler software
2) Application software
3) Operating System software
4) None of the above
2. A user invokes a word document and selects the option File -->
Print. Redirecting the print job to the specific printer selected is
the function of:
1) Application
2) Operating system
3) The selected print device
4) All the above
3. A user working with a spreadsheet application selects the option
File --> Save. The user saves the file in C:\myfiles. Ensuring that
the file is saved only on good clusters is done by:
1) The Operating system
2) The spreadsheet application
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) None of the above
4. A UNIX system administrator wants to take up the back up all files
everyday at 10:00pm. At the same time there are other users who
gives commands from various terminals. Allocating CPU time for
various tasks is done by using:
1) Multitasking
2) Time sharing
3) Multiprocessing
4) Multiprogramming
5. UNIX Operating system can be installed in different hardware platforms and
accordingly there are different flavors like HP-UX, Solaris and AIX. This
feature of UNIX refers to :
1) Portability
2) Machine independence
3) Scalability
4) Interoperability
6. The UNIX Operating system hides the machine architecture from the
user making it easier to write application that can run on macros,
minis and mainframes. This feature refers to:
1) Portability
2) Machine-independence
3) Platform independence
4) Interoperability
7. The collective name of a family of related standards specified by IEEE to
define the Application Programming Interface (API) for software compatible
with variants of the UNIX OS is:
1) IEEE
2) POSIX
3) ETHERNET
4) DOD
8. One of the following is NOT a variant of LINUX
1) Red hat
2) Fedora
3) Mandrake
4) SCO
9. When a user is editing a file using vi editor, he wants to search
for all ordinary files starting with 's' without interfering the
ongoing task. This is possible by:
1) Background processing
2) Foreground processing
3) multiprocessing
4) multithreading
10. Utilities can be added to UNIX
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
11. The Kernel of UNIX is exactly same as that of LINUX
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
12. A user created a file using the command:
cat>myfile
The file created would be:
1) Directory file
2) Ordinary file
3) Special file
4) None of the above
13. A file proj1a.c is created by user1 who belongs to group PROJ1)
The file needs to be shared with another group PROJ2 alone. This is
possible by:
1) Giving necessary permissions to group PROJ2
2) Giving necessary permissions to others
3) Giving necessary permissions to root
4) Giving necessary permissions to PROJ2 and others
14. A user needs to give read permission for a file proj1a.c which is
available in the directory Myproject to all users. This is achieved by:
1) Providing only read permission to the directory 'Myproject'
2) providing read and execute permission to the directory 'Myproject'
3) Providing read,write and execute permission to the directory 'Myproject'
4) Providing execute permission to the directory 'Myproject'
15. Groups of similar servers that have similar function and share
responsibility of providing system and application services for mission
critical applications is achieved through:
1) Clustering
2) RAID
3) Mirroring
4) Disk duplexing
16 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the shell
1) command interpretation
2) Pipes and filters
3) Background processing
4) Storage management
Chapter-2: UNIX Commands
Chapter 2:Level I
1) The command to know about the current directory is:
1) pwd
2) cwd
3) cd
4) cd ..
2) The command to go back to home directory from any directory is :
1) cd HOME
2) cd
3) cd..
4) cd ..
3) The command to go back to the parent directory from any directory is:
1) cd
2) cd ..
3) cd..
4) cd ~
4) The directory given to a user soon after login is referred as:
1) Working Directory
2) User directory
3) Home directory
4) Present directory
5) A user wants to change to the directory bin available under root using absolute path. The
command is:
1) cd /bin
2) cd bin
3) cd /root/bin
4) cd root/bin
6) A user wants to display all files including hidden files from the current directory. The command
is:
1) ls
2) ls -h
3) ls -a
4) ls -l
7) The output of 'ls -l' command gives a line 'Total 160'. The value 160 refers to:
1) Total number of inodes
2) Total number of blocks
3) Total number of files
4) Total number of directories
8) A user wants to display long listing of all files and its subdirectories including the hidden files
recursively from the current directory. The command is:
1) ls -a
2) ls -la
3) ls -laR
4) ls -lar
9) FAP stands for :
1) File All Permission
2) File Access Permission
3) Fix All Permission
4) Final Access Permission
10) The File Access Permission (FAP) starts with a '-'(Hyphen) for a file ‘prg1) c’. This shows that
prg1) c is an:
1) Ordinary file
2) Directory file
3) character special file
4) Block special file
11) The File Access Permission (FAP) for a file is '-rwxr-x---'. This shows that :
1) user has read, write and execute permission
2) user has read and execute permission
3) user has no permission
4) user has read and write permission
12) A file is created using 'cat>myfile'. Later the user again issued the command 'cat>myfile'. This
will result in:
1) Displaying an error since the file is already created
2) Overwriting the existing file 'myfile' with new content
3) Appending the new content to the existing file 'myfile'
4) creating two files with one file automatically marked as 'copy of'
13) A user created a file 'prg1)c' using the command 'cat>prg1)c'. Later the user issued the command
'cat >> prg1)c' and typed a few lines. This will result in:
1) Error
2) The exising file will be overwritten
3) The new lines will be appended to the existing file prg1)c
4) The new lines will be added in the beginning of the file prg1)c
14) A user issued the command 'cat 0<prg1)c'. This will:
1) Create the file prg1)c
2) Display the content of the file prg1)c
3) Displays error
4) Overwrites the contents of the file prg1)c
15) Which of the following is NOT a valid file descriptor in UNIX
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
16) The standard error device is:
1) A user defined file
2) Monitor
3) A system defined file
4) None of the above
17) The command 'cat prg2)c 2>err' will :
1) Display the error on the monitor and stores the same in the file 'err'
2) Redirect the errors, if any, to the file 'err'
3) Redirect the content of the file to the file 'err'
4) Redirect the content and error to the file 'err'
18) A user issues the command 'cat prg1)c prg2)c'. This will:
1) Display an error
2) Display the content of both prg1)c and prg2)c
3) Display the content of only prg1)c
4) Display the content of only prg2)c
19) Which command is used to delete an empty directory in UNIX system?
1) rm
2) rmdir
3) rm -r
4) rm -i
20) To delete a directory, which contains other subdirectories and files with user confirmation, the
command is:
1) rmdir
2) rm -r
3) rm -i
4) rm -ri
21) A create a directory, the command in UNIX is:
1) md
2) MKDIR
3) mkdir
4) Mkdir
22) To delete all ordinary files which starts with a number from the current directory, the command
is:
1) rm #*
2) rm [0-9]*
3) rmdir [0-9]*
4) rm ?*
23) To display the name of all ordinary files that starts with an uppercase vowel, second character
being a number followed by any character, the command is:
1) cat [AEIOU][0-9]*
2) ls [AEIOU][0-9]*
3) ls [A-U][0-9]*
4) cat [A-U][0-9]*
24) Administrator wants to delete all files from the tmp directory under root. What is the command:
1) rmdir /tmp
2) rm /tmp/*
3) rmdir /tmp/*
4) del /tmp
25) Command used to copy files in UNIX is:
1) cp
2) CP
3) copy
4) copycon
26) To copy all files which starts with an alphabet(lowercase or uppercase),second character being a
number followed by any character to the parent directory of the current directory, the command is:
1) cp [a-z][A-Z][0-9]* ..
2) cp [azAZ][09]* ..
3) cp [AZaz][0-9]* ..
4) cp [a-Z][09]* .
27) Which command is used to display the current date and time in UNIX system?
1) now
2) datetime
3) date
4) sysdate
28) Which command is used to find the users, who have currently log on?
1) whoami
2) who
3) WHO
4) who am i
29) To rename a file, the command in UNIX is:
1) ren
2) mv
3) rname
4) md
30) A user user1 has logged on and at present he is in '/home/user1'. There is a subdirectory called
'Cfiles'. The user issues the following command: 'mv * Cfiles'. This will result in:
1) renaming all files to cfiles
2) moving all files from current directory to /home/user1/Cfiles
3) command results in an error
4) Copying all files from current directory to Cfiles
31) A user wants to give execute permission to a file called shell1 to the user. Which of the following
command is true:
1) chmod u+x shell1
2) chmod 100 shell1
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) chmod 700 shell1
32) A user wants to give read, write and execute permission to user, read and execute to others as
resultant permissions irrespective of the existing permissions for a file called myshell1) This is
achieved by:
1) chmod u+rwx g+rx myshell1
2) chmod 750 myshell1
3) chmod ug+rx myshell1
4) chmod ugo+rwx myshell1
33) A user issues the command 'chmod ugo-rx myshell1'. The File Access Permission (FAP) for this
file will be:
1) --w--w--w-
2) ----------
3) Cannot be determined
4) --w--w-rwx
34) A user issues the command 'chmod 770 myshell1'. The File Access Permission (FAP) for this file
will be:
1) -rwxrwx---
2) -rwxrwxrwx
3) -------rwx
4) Cannot be determined
35) A command that takes input from standard input file and gives output to standard output file is
called:
1) Pipe
2) Filter
3) Semaphore
4) Named pipes
36) A feature of unix that allows output of a command is treated as an input to the subsequent
command is :
1) Semaphore
2) Pipe
3) Filter
4) Background processing
37) Which of the following characters is used to represent ordinary files for the first character of the
File Access Permission list?
1). |
2) -
3) *
4) ?
38) You need to delete all the files in the directory Projplan, which is in your home directory. You
are currently in your home directory. Which of the following commands will you use to delete the
files?
1) cp Projplan\*.*
2) ls Projplan\*.*
3) mv Projplan\*.*
4) rm Projplan\*.*

39) You want to copy all files whose names begin with the character ‘l’, followed only by a digit,
from the Prof directory to the Pers directory. The Prof and Pers directories are in
your home directory, Pat. You are currently in your home directory. Which of the following
commands will you use?
Replicate edits in similar sentences
1) cp Prof\l* Pers
2) cp Prof\*[0-9] Pers
3) cp Prof\?[0-9] Pers
4) cp Prof\l[0-9] Pers

40) You have issued a command to display the contents of your home directory. You have used
redirection to send the output of the command to a file. Which of the following filters will you use to
count the number of files in your home directory?
1) grep
2) wc
3) cut
4) tr

41) You want to display all the files in your home directory that have the extension bp. Which of the
following expressions will you use with the grep filter?
1) grep “.bp$”
2) grep “^.bp”
3) grep “.[bp]”
4) grep “\.bp”

42) ftp command is used to link files from one directory to another.
1) True
2) False

43) You need to view only the files that begin with the character ‘s’ followed by four characters.
Which of the following will you use?
1) ls s????
2) cat s????
3) ls s*
4) cat s*

44) Which of the following commands will you use to send the output of a command to the standard
output file and to save the data in a disk file?
1) cat
2) ls
3) mput
4) cd
45) Which of the following commands is used to display messages on the screen?
1) echo
2) cat
3) ls
4) pwd

46) Which keyword is used to assign values to positioned parameters?

1) declare
2) set
3) no need of any keyword
4) there is no feature exist for assign the values

REMARK: Debugging Shell Script, Page no: 78

47) Which filter command translate one set of character to another?
1) tr
2) changech
3) ter
4) tar

48) Which command is used to change file’s ownership?

1) chmod
2) chown
3) touch
4) chgrp

49) Which command is used to provide information about the currently the processes, including the
Process Identification Number (PID).
1) process
2) ps
3) prs
4) pid

50) Which one of the following is NOT a filter command?

1) grep
2) pg
3) wc
4) sh

51) What minimum permission must a directory have for a user to both enter the directory and list its
contents?
1) read only
2) execute only
3) write and read
4) execute and read

52) Which of the following commands searches the contents of files for a specific string?
1) find
2) grep

3) search
4) whereis

53) You want to repeat the last command you entered. How would you do this?
1) #
2) !!
3) #l
4) ##

54) You want to view a listing of previously entered commands. What command would you use?
1) hist
2) histfile
3) showbuff
4) history

Remarks: part of lab session

55) What command can be used to show all variables?
1) set
2) varlist
3) show var
4) show

Remarks: part of lab session

56) You need to display all files in the current directory that start with a "a" and end with a "v",
regardless of their length or use of delimiters. Choose the best answer.
1) ls a*v
2) ls a.v
3) ls a-v
4) ls [a-v]
57) What command will show the first 10 lines of a file by default?
1) head
2) cat
3) nl
4) tail

Remarks: part of lab session

58) What command will show the last 10 lines of a file by default?
1) tail
2) head
3) cat
4) prstat

Remarks: part of lab session

59) What command will easily convert tabs in files to spaces?
1) convert
2) expand
3) tr
4) sed

Remarks: part of lab session

60) What symbol can be placed at the end of a line to indicate that the command continues on the
next line in vi editor?
1) /
2) \
3) ;
4) |

61) The ______ command is typically used to search files for a specified string.
1) search
2) grep
3) tr
4) ls

62) What utility would use to remove/display columns from each line of a file?
1) pwd
2) col
3) cut
4) tail

63) Which of the following commands will show the file access permissions for the file "test.txt ?
1) ls -p test.txt
2) ls test.txt -p
3) ls -l test.txt
4) ls test.txt

64) Which of the following statements is invalid ?

1) expr $a + $b
2) expr $a * $b
3) expr $a - $b
4) expr $a + $b - $c

65) Which permission is required if you have to access a directory

1) Write
2) Read
3) Execute
4) Combination of Read & Execute

Remarks: part of Lab session

66) The _________ command will remove all the files in the current directory.
1) rm
2) rm *.*
3) rm *
4) rm -a

67) The _______ command sets the screen to reverse video.

1) tput rmso
2) tput smso
3) tput -r
4) tput reverse

Remarks: part of courseware

68) Which of the following commands is invalid?
1) mv filename dirname
2) mv dirname dirname
3) mv filename filename
4) mv dirname filename

69) The cd command when executed without any argument, will :

1) return an error message.
2) change user's current directory to his HOME directory.

3) prompt for a pathname.

4) return the pathname of user's current directory.

70) The ______ variables contains the number of arguments specified in a command.
1) $1
2) $$
3) $*
4) $#

71) Which of the following variables stores the name of the last executed command ?
1) $0
2) $!
3) $#
4) $$

72. Which is NOT a part of UNIX Architecture?

1) Kernel
2) File System
3) Shell
4) Registry System

73) The file descriptor ____ is assigned to the standard input file?
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3

74) The file descriptor ____ is assigned to the standard output file?
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
75) The file descriptor ____ is assigned to the standard error file?
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3

76) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat < test1
a) < implies input redirection from the named file.
b) < implies output redirection from the named file
c) < implies error redirection from the named file
d) Syntax error

77) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat 0< test1
a) 0 implies input redirection from the named file.
b) 0 implies output redirection from the named file
c) 0 implies error redirection from the named file
d) Syntax error

78) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat test1 > test2
a) > implies input redirection from the named file.
b) > implies output redirection from the named file
c) > implies error redirection from the named file
d) Syntax error

79) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat test1 >> test2
a) >> implies input redirection from the named file with append mode.
b) >> implies output redirection from the named file with append mode
c) >> implies error redirection from the named file with append mode
d) Non of the above

80) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat test1 1> test2
a) 1> implies input redirection from the named file with append mode.
b) 1> implies output redirection from the named file with append mode
c) 1> implies error redirection from the named file with append mode
d) Non of the above

81) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat test1 2> test2
a) 2> implies input redirection from the named file
b) 2> implies output redirection from the named file
c) 2> implies error redirection from the named file
d) Non of the above

82) Find the appropriate answer of the following command?

$ cat test1 2>> test2
e) 2>> implies input redirection from the named file with append mode.
f) 2>> implies output redirection from the named file with append mode
g) 2>> implies error redirection from the named file with append mode
h) Non of the above

83) The grep filter can be used without specified a regular expression
a. True
b. False

84) Filename is optional in the grep command

a) true
b) false

85) Which option of the grep command prints each line matching the pattern along with its line
number?
a) –n
b) –c
c) –v
d) –nv

86) Which option of the grep command prints only a count of the lines that match a pattern?
a) –n
b) –c
c) –v
d) –nv

87) Which option of the grep command print out all those lines that do not match the pattern
specified by the regular expression?
a) –n
b) –c
c) –v
d) -nv

88) What is the true about the following command?

grep “New[abc]”
a) matches any one of a set of characters
b) matches any combination of characters
c) matched all the characters
d) returns those files end with abc

89) What is the true about the following command?

grep “New[a-c]”
a) matches any one of a range of characters
b) matches any combination of characters
c) matched all the characters
d) returns those files end with abc

90) What is the true about the following command?

grep “^New[a-c]”
a) pattern following it must occur at the beginning of each line
b) pattern following it must not orrur at the beginning of each line
c) pattern must contain any character in the set specified
d) patern must not contain any character in the set specified.

91) What is the true about the following command?

grep “New[^a-c]”
a) pattern following it must occur at the beginning of each line
b) pattern following it must not orrur at the beginning of each line
c) pattern must contain any character in the set specified
d) patern must not contain any character in the set specified.

92) What is the true about the following command?

grep “New[abc]$”
a) pattern preceding it must occur at the beginning of each line
b) pattern preceding it must occur at the end of each line
c) pattern preceding it must not occur at the beginning of each line
d) pattern preceding it must not occur at the end of each line

93) What is the true about the following command?

grep “New.[abc]”
a) matches any character
b) matches any one character
c) matches all the character
d) matches only file name with extension

94) What is the true about the following command?

grep “New\.\[abc\]”
a) ignore the special character
b) ignore those character not contain abc
c) ignore those character not contain either a or b or c
d) wrong statement

95) ________ command is used in UNIX to view contents of data in a screenful at a time?
a) more
b) page
c) pg
d) ls

96) ________ option of wc command display the number of lines

1) –n
2) –l
3) –c
4) –w
97) ________ option of wc command display the number of words
a) –n
b) –l
c) –c
d) –w

98) ________ option of wc command display the number of characters?

a) –n
b) –l
c) –c
d) –w

99) The tr filter can be used to translate from one set of character to another
a) true
b) false

100) Which option of tr command is used to specify squeezing of several occurrences of character
into one character?
1) –o
2) –c
3) –s
4) –z
101)Which option of cut filter display the column specified?
1) –c
2) –f
3) –d
4) -s
102)Which option of cut filter display the character?
1) –c
2) –f
3) –d
4) –s
103) Which option of cut filter display the column delimiter?
a) –c
b) –f
c) –d
d) –s

104)The _________ is the standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error
destination for most UNIX command.
a) shell
b) telnet
c) terminal
d) GNOME

105) __________ command is used to evaluate arithmetic expressions.

a) expr
b) eprx
c) xper
d) rpxe

106)________ command is used to locate a file in a directory and its subdirectory.

a) ls
b) find
c) search
d) grep

107)_______ command followed by the screen coordinates , positions the cursor on the specified row
and column?
a) tput cup
b) tput smso
c) tput rmso
d) tput blink

108)_______ command is used to set the screen to reverse video?

1) tput cup
2) tput smso
3) tput rmso
2) tput blink
109) _______ command is used to set the screen to reverse video?
1) tput cup
2) tput smso
3) tput rmso
4) tput blink
110) _______ command is used to set the screen to normal video?
1) tput cup
2) tput smso
3) tput rmso
4) tput blink
111) _______ command is used to set the screen to blink the output?
a) tput cup
b) tput smso
c) tput rmso
d) tput blink

112) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display the month of the year
in digits?
1) %m
2) %M
3) %Month
4) %mon
113) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display Day of the month in
digits?
1) %d
2) %D
3) %dd
4) %day
114) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display year in last 2 digits?
1) %y
2) %yy
3) %year
4) %YY
115) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display Date as mm/dd/yy
format?
1) %m/%d/%y
2) %mm/%dd/%yy
3) %
4) Non of the above
116) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display Hour in the format of
00 to 23?
1) %h
2) %H
3) %hh
4) %HH
117) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display minutes in the format
of 00 to 59?
a) %m
b) %mm
c) %
d) Non of the above

118)Which of the following options of date command can be used to display seconds in the format of
00 to 59?
a) %s
b) %S
c) %ss
d) %SS

119) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display time as HH:MM:SS?
a) %T
b) %M
c) %S
d) %T:%M:%S

120) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display abbreviated weekday?
a) %a
b) %w
c) %day
d) %dow

121) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display abbreviated month?
a) %m
b) %h
c) %mon
d) %month

122) Which of the following options of date command can be used to display time in AM/PM
notation?
a) %AM
b) %PM
c) %AM/PM
d) %r

123) In vi editor, which command is used to append after current character?

1) a
2) A
3) i
4) I
124) In vi editor, which command is used to append at the end of the line?
1) a
2) A
3) i
4) I
125) In vi editor, which command is used to insert before current character?
1) a
2) A
3) i
4) I
126) What option is used with the useradd command to specify the user's home directory?
1) -d
2) -h
3) -u
4) -a
127)What does the following command do?
cat ‘$TEST’
1) Displays a bash syntax error message.
2) Displays the contents of the file named $TEST if it exists.
3)Waits for the user to enter text and then echos the text back.
4)Displays the contents of the file named inside the back quotes.
128) _______ command is used to display in a big character?
1) banner
2) batc
3) bigscr
4) scr
129)Which of the following command is used to find the known problems and suggested
improvements?
a) BUG
b) BUGS
c) DEBUG
d) DEBUGS

130) Which of the following command is used to find the things to be carefull about when using the
command?
a) WARNINGS
b) ERROR
c) DEBUGS
d) DESCRIPTION

Chapter 2:Level 2
1) You have stored the reservation details of a flight in the file, Flightdet. This file contains details
such as the name of the passenger, class of travel, seat number, and reservation status. You want to
display the number of passengers for each class of the flight in the file, Classdet. Which of the
following commands will you use to display the total number of passengers travelling in first class?
a. cat Flightdet | grep “first” | wc -l
b. echo Flightdet | wc -c
c. echo Flightdet | grep “first” | wc -l
d. cat Flightdet | tr “first” | wc -c

2) You want to display the names of the files having the execute permission and created by a user,
Peter. You have logged in as Peter. The file name is stored in the variable, fname. Which of the
following test expressions will you use to check for the files?
a) test –G $fname –a –e $fname
b) test –O $fname –a –e $fname
c) test –O $fname –a –x $fname
d) test –G $fname –a –x $fname

Remarks: part of courseware, page no: 77

3) You have created a file, Stock, that contains the details of an inventory. The file contains the
names of products, product codes, and available stocks. You want to display the details of all
products whose available stock level is less than 50. Which of the following commands will you use?
a) cat Stock | grep “[^0-49]”
b) cat Stock | grep “\[0-49\]”
c) cat Stock | grep “^[0-49]”
d) cat Stock | grep “[0-49]”

4)You have a directory named Sales in your current directory. This contains files relating to all sales
transactions, details of customers, sales targets and plans, and details of sales personnel. For the
purpose of easier organization of files, you have decided to create subdirectories within the Sales
directory. You need to move all the files that end with the characters ‘rep’ in the Sales directory to
the subdirectory, Sales_Rep. Which of the following will you use to move the files from the Sales
directory to the Sales_Rep directory?
a) cp Sales\*rep Sales\Sales_Rep
b) rm Sales\*rep Sales\Sales_Rep
c) mv Sales\*rep Sales\Sales_Rep
d) mv Sales\?rep Sales\Sales_Rep

5. A user wants the script name1 to process the contents of the file "name2", then redirect the output
to the program name3) Which if the following shell commands will do this?
a) name1 | name2 > name3
b) name1 < name2 | name3
c) name1 > name2 | name 3
d) name1 | name2 < name3

6. Which of the following commands is used to set default file permissions for any newly created
file?
a) mask

b) umask
c) fmask

d) createMask

7. To change all lower case characters in a file to upper case.

Assume that the source file exist, pick only the correct command.
a) tr 'a-z' 'A-Z' file
b) tr `[a-z]` `[A-Z]` > file
c) tr "a-z" "A-Z" file
d) tr 'a-z' 'A-Z' < file
8. Which of the following commands will duplicate the contents of the /A directory in the existing
and empty /B directory?
a) mv /A/* /B
b) mv /A/ /B
c) mv /A /B
d) mv /A/* .

9. Which of the following will copy file1)txt to file2)txt? Choose The most correct answer.
a) cat file1)txt > file2)txt
b) cat file1)txt | file2)txt
c) cp file1)txt > file2)txt
d) cpio < file1)txt > file2)txt

10. Which of the following will copy file1)txt to file2)txt? Choose the correct answer.
a) cat file1)txt | file2)txt
b) cp file1)txt > file2)txt
c) cp file1)txt file2)txt
d) cpio < file1)txt > file2)txt

Remark: Answers are different, that’s the reason I have specified this questions.
11. $ ps –u | less
What is the true about the following command?
1) The –u option tells ps to provide detailed information about each process.
2) The –u option to list the processes of all users on the system rather then just those of the current
users.
3) The –u adds to the list processes that have no controlling terminal.
4) None of the above

12. $ ps –a | less
What is the true about the following command?
1) The –a option tells ps to provide detailed information about each process.
2)The –a option to list the processes of all users on the system rather then just those of the
current users.
3)The –a adds to the list processes that have no controlling terminal.
4)None of the above
13. $ ps –x | less
What is the true about the following command?
1) The –x option tells ps to provide detailed information about each process.
2)The –x option to list the processes of all users on the system rather then just those of the current
users.
3)The –x adds to the list processes that have no controlling terminal.
4)None of the above
14) What is the result of the following command?
# cat 'echo "$SMISRA
a) A syntax error
b) The value of $SMISRA
c) cat followed by the value of $ SMISRA
d) echo followed by the value of $ SMISRA

15. Consider the following output.

$ ps –ef
a. The –e option generates a list of information about every process currently running.
b. The –f option generates a listing that contains fewer items of information for each process.

Which statement is true?

1) Both are true
2) Both are false
3) Option a is true but b is false
4) Option b is true but a is false

16. What will the command "cd ~smisra do?

a) Changes directory to the user smisra's home directory
b) Changes to a directory named smisra in the current user's home directory
c) Changes to directory /etc/smisra
d) Produces a syntax error

17. You issue a command:

$ 1st filename <Enter>
After pressing an enter key you got the following error:
1st: not found
Which corresponding command issues the above error message?
1) ls
2) 1st
3) cat
4) Non of the above

Remarks: page no: 62

18. While using Shell variable, the user cannot control the behavior of the shell.
1) True
2) False

19. A user needs to search a file for lines that contain the asterisk (*) character. Which grep search
command will accomplish this?
a) grep <\*> textfile
b) grep '*' textfile
c) grep \"*" textfile
d) grep \<*\> textfile

20. Which command will output the exit status of the previous command (a 1 or a 0)?
a) echo $?
b) echo $1
c) echo $EXIT
d) exitstatus

21) Arrange the following in a proper order the way shell interprets.
a. Loads into the memory
b. Executes it
c. Reads the command
d. Searches for and locates the file with that name in the directories containing commands.

1) a,b,c,d
2) c,d,a,b
3) d,c,b,a
4) b,a,d,c

22) After executing the following command line, what will be the contents of the file myout.txt?
echo \”smisra\”> myout.txt
a) smisra

b) “smisra”
c) smisra

d) the file is empty

23. If you want to give several UNIX commands in a row without returning to vi editing in between,
which command is used to create a shell?
1) sh
2) ex
3) ssh
4) exe

24. Statement A. Single tasking operating system can only perform one job at a time.
Statement B. UNIC operating system will simultaneously perform multiple task for a single user.
1) Statement A is True, Statement B is False
2) Statement A is False, Statement B is True
3) Statement A is True, Statement B is True
4) Statement A is False, Statement B is False

25. What does the command “ln test misra” typically do?
a) It will create a symbolic link from test to misra.
b) It will create a hard link from misra to test.
c) It will create a symbolic link from misra to test.
d) It will create a copy of the file test in misra.

26. Your unmask is set to 002) If you create a new file, what will the permission of the new file be?
a) –rw-rw-r--
b) rwxrwx-w-
c) ------w-
d) rwxrwxr-x

27. What dose the command cd~foo do?

a) It will take you to the ~foo directory.
b) It will create the foo directory and change to it
c) It will take you to the home directory of the user “foo”
d) It will change to the foo directory in your home directory

28. Which of the following commands will return the number of files having a string "what" in their
filename, in the current directory ?
a) ls | grep "what" | wc -l
b) ls | grep -n "what"
c) ls |`grep "what" `| wc -l
d) ls what* | grep -c

29. What does the following command do find / -name "core" -exec rm {} \;
a) It removes all files with the name core in the current directory
b) It removes all files with the name core in the root directory and all its sub directories
c) It first displays all files with the name core and later deletes it.
d) It first deletes all files with the name core and then displays their names

30. Which command displays the number of files in a directory ?

a) ls -l | wc -c
b) ls | wc -l
c) ls -i | wc
d) ls -w

31) Which of the following command will create a link to file2 with file1
1) link file1 file2
2) ln file1=file2
3) ln file1 file2
4) link file1=file2
32) Which of the following commands is executed as a background process ?
1) sort -n catalog
2) date&
3) rm file*
4) awk
33) In order to remove a directory along with its sub-directories the command is _______
1) rmdir dirname
2) del dirname
3) rm -r dirname
4) rmdir -r dirname
34) What will be the output of the following command?
$ tr “[a-z]” “[A-Z]”
All Dogs will go to Heaven
a) All Dogs will go to Heaven
b) ALL DOGS WILL GO TO HEAVEN
c) all dogs will go to heaven
d) ERROR

35. What will be the output of the following command?

$ tr “[A-Z]” “[a-z]”
All Dogs will go to Heaven
1) All Dogs will go to Heaven
2) ALL DOGS WILL GO TO HEAVEN
3) all dogs will go to heaven
4) ERROR
36. What will be the output of the following command?
$ who > tempme
$ tr –s “ “ tempme
1) The command will generate error
2) The command will return all the users and their information with each column separator
with a single space.
3) The command will return all the user and their information with all the column separator with no
space.
4) The command will make separate between temp and me
37. Which of the following is not the rule for password?
a) cannot be less then 6 or more then 14 character
b) can be less then 6 but not more then 14 characters
c) can contain any character in the keyboard character set
d) must contain at least 2 alphabet character and 1 number values

Remarks: part of lab session

38. You know that the info utility provides easier to understand documentation but you have never
used it. How can you access a tutorial on using info?
a) man info
b) info
c) info info
d) info help

39. You wish to find the man page that discusses how to change a password. You type man password
but you get the message that no manual entry for password exists.
Which command will find the appropriate page?
1) man -C password
2) man -k password
3) man -c password
4) man -q password
40. You want to find how to set the manpath variable so you type man man. What would you type
while displaying the page to find the location where manpath is discussed?
grep manpath
find manpath
/manpath
locate manpath
41) You want to review the man page on the files used to control host access, however, when you
enter man hosts_access you get the man page for routines used to programmatically manipulate
access.
What is the problem?
1) The page you are looking for does not exist on your system.
2) The page you are looking for resides in a directory that is searched later.
3) You typed the name of the page incorrectly.
4) The installation of man pages on your system is corrupt.
42. Suppose you are editing a file and want to read set of phone numbers from a file called phone in
alphabetical order, which command you will you?
1) :r !sort phone

2) :r !sort –a phone
3) :r !phone sort

4) :r !phone sort -a

43. In UNIX system vi editor is a screen editor

1) True
2) False

44. What is the command to display all file names, which do NOT starts with 7 followed by any
character.
1) ls [789]*
2) ls 7*
3) ls 777
4) ls [^0-9]*
45. Comments which are required to be ignored by the shell can be included by prefixing them with
/*…….*/
1) True
2) False

46. Which of the following commands makes /usr/using executable by everyone but only writable by
its owner?
a) chmod 557 /usr/using
b) chmod o +rwx, a+rx /usr/using
c) chown 557 /usr/using
d) chmod 755 /usr/using

47. What will be the output of the following statements?

$ who > temp1 <Enter>
$ tr –s “ “ temp1 > temp2 <Enter>
$ cut –d “ “ –f temp2 <Enter>
1) The output of who command is written to a file temp1, tr –s has been used to make the
column separator in the file, temp1, a single space. Finally, cut command has been used to
extract only the names of the users who are logged in.
2) The output of who command is written to a file temp2, tr –s has been used to make the column
separator in the file, temp2, a single space. Finally, cut command has been used to extract only the
names of the users who are logged in.
3) The output of who command is written to a file temp1, tr –s has been used to make the column
separator in the file, temp2, a single space. Finally, cut command has been used to extract only the
names of the users who are logged in.
4) The above output will raise error, that saying: temp2 file does not exist.

48. What would the following line accomplish if run as root?

chown –R bert /home/bert/*
a) Nothing, this command is invalid.

b) It would rovoke bert’s ownership of all files in /home/bert to bert.

c) It would change user ownership of all files in /home/bert to bert.

d) It would set ownership of all files and subdirectories in /home/bert to bert

49. Which of the following commands would display the lines containing capital letters form the file
“turkey.txt”?
a) cat turkey.txt|wc -|

b) grep –n [A-Z] turkey.txt

c) cat turkey.txt | wc –w [A-Z]

d) grep –v [A-Z] < turkey.txt

50. What is the output of the following commands?

$ ls > myfile
$ pg myfile
1) List of files and directories are stored in to the myfile, then myfile is used as input by pg
command.
2) List of directories are stored in to the myfile, then myfile is used as input by pg command.
3) List of files and directories are stored in to the myfile, then myfile is used as output by pg
command.
4) List of directories are stored in to the myfile, then myfile is used as output by pg command.

51) What is the disadvantage of using the command kill –9 ?

a) A core dump file will be created.
b) It affects the entire process group.
c) It makes excessive use of system resources.
d) The affected process is unable to clean up before exiting.

52) When the kill command is given with only the PID number of the process to kill (as in ‘kill
1234’), this crresponds to which type of kill signal?
a) 2 (SIGINT)
b) 1 (SIGHUP)
c) 9 (SIGKILL)
d) 15 (SIGTERM)

53) Which of the following would copy the file file1 to file2?
a) cp file1 | file2
b) cat file1 | file2
c) cat file1 > file2
d) copy file1 | file2

54. Which keyword is used to put a job in the Background process?

1) @

2) &
3) %

4) ||

55. You need to find all references in your system documentation to the word “copy”.
Which of the following will best accomplish this task?
1) man copy
2) which copy
3) locate copy
4) grep “copy” /usr/man/*
56. Which of the following commands can be used to view kernel messages?
1) less dmesg
2) less /var/log/boot.log
3) cat /proc/kernel |less
4) cat /proc/dmesg
Remark: part of courseware, page number:41
57. Which of the following is NOT the File Access Permission (FAP) refer to the permissions
associated with file?
5) File Owner
6) Group Owner
7) Other Users
8) Administrators

58. The wildcard matches exactly one occurrence of any character.

1) True
2) False

59. What is the output of the following command? (All are part of answers, choose the best answer)
$cat chap*.*
3) This command display all files starting with chap and containing any sequence of characters
(or no characters), followed by a dot, followed by any sequence of characters (or no characters)
4) This command display all files starting with chap and followed by a dot, followed by any
sequence of characters (or no characters)
5) This command display all files starting with chap and containing any sequence of characters (or no
characters), followed by a dot.
6) None of the above, return error.

60. Which of the following command is used to create a link file from existing file ?
(choose the best answer)
a) ln
b) vi
c) mv
d) cp
Chapter-2:Level 3
1) You have files related to the sales targets of each quarter in the directory Saletarg. You have
created directories for each quarter, such as Q1saletarg, Q2saletarg, Q3saletarg, and Q4saletarg,
under the Saletarg directory. You need to organize the files under the respective directories. The file
naming convention followed in your organization stipulates that the quarter name is followed by the
file name. You are currently in the Saletarg directory. Which of the following commands will you
use to move quarter one files from the Saletarg directory to the Q1saletarg directory?
a) mv Q[1]* Q1saletarg
b) mv Q[0-9]* Q1saletarg
c) mv Q[1-4]? Q1saletarg
d) mv Q[1] Q1saletarg

2) You have the project evaluation report and all project related documents in the directory, Proj005.
The Proj005 directory is in your home directory. You want to copy all the files in this directory to the
directory, Projtemp. You need to create the directory, Projtemp and then copy the files. You are
currently logged in your home directory. Which of the following commands will you use?
a) cp Proj005 Projtemp
b) ls Proj005 Projtemp
c) cp –r Proj005 Projtemp
d) ls –l Proj005 Projtemp

3) You want to display all the lines in a file, Proj_det, which begin with the word Proj followed by
any three digits. Which of the following will you use?
a) grep “^Proj[0-9][0-9][0-9]” Proj_det
b) grep –c “^Proj[0-9][0-9][0-9]” Proj_det
c) grep “Proj[^0-9][^0-9][^0-9]” Proj_det
d) grep “Proj[0-9][0-9][0-9]” Proj_det

4) You have stored the reservation details of a flight in the file, Flightdet. This file contains details
such as the name of the passenger, class of travel, seat number, and reservation status. You want to
display the number of passengers for each class of the flight in the file, Classdet. Which of the
following commands will you use to display the total number of passengers travelling in first class?
a) cat Flightdet | grep “first” | wc -l
b) echo Flightdet | wc -c
c) echo Flightdet | grep “first” | wc -l
d) cat Flightdet | tr “first” | wc -c
5. Which directory, the UNIX system allows users to create files, which not allows deleting the files
other then owners.
1) /home
2) /tmp
3) /var
4) /usr

6. Which directory, the UNIX system allows users to create files, which not allows deleting the files
other then owners.
a. /home
b. /tmp
c. /var/tmp
d. /usr

7. If the Process Identification Numbers (PID) of a frozen or crashed program is found to 1125, then
which command can be used to terminate the process?
1) kill 9 1125
2) kill 1125
3) kill 1125 9
4) kill 9

8. You need to have all the output from the executable myprog written to a text log named file1)out.
This program must not send any output to the console. Which of the commands listed will
accomplish this?
1) myprog > file1)out 2>&1
2) myprog > file1)out 1>&2
3) myprog > file1)out 1> /dev/null
4) myprog 1&2> file1)out

9. Which keyword is used to put a job in the Foreground process?

9) @
10) &
11) %
12) ||

10. What does the command "foo < bar | foobar" do?
foo reads bar as stdin, pipes output to foobar
foo and bar are fed to foobar as stdin
foo's output is sent to bar, output is written to foobar
None of the above
11) You want to move all files in /dir1 to /dir2 that begin with a and end with v. What is the correct
command to do this?
a) mv /dir1/a*v /dir2
b) mv -r /dir1/a.v /dir2
c) move /dir1/a?v /dir2
d) ls a*v | cp /dir2

12) Predict the output of the following command?

# command > file.out 2>&1
a) Sends the stdout of cmd to file.out
b) Sends the stdout and stderr of cmd to file.out
c) Sends the stderr to the bit bucket and stdout of cmd to file.out
d) None of the above

13) You need to alter the permissions on the directory /home/mrking and all it's contents to match the
following permissions.
drwxr--r--
Which of these commands with options and arguments will accomplish this? Choose two.
a) chmod 0744 /home/mrking -R
b) chmod 744 /home/mrking/*
c) chmod -R /home/mrking
d) chmod u+rwx,g+r,o+r /home/mrking

14) You need to alter the permissions on the directory /home/mrking and all it's contents to match the
following permissions.
drwxr--r--
Which of these commands with options and arguments will accomplish this? Choose two.
a) chmod /home/mrking -R
b) chmod 744 /home/mrking/*
c) chmod -R u=rwx,g=r,o=r /home/mrking
d) chmod u+rwx,g+r,o+r /home/mrking

15.Venkata Subramanya Rama Reddy is a Web Site developer, He frequently need to up load his
web pages and graphic files in his web site. He wants to sends (upload) a single file called
penpencil.gif to the remote machine. Which command he must use?
PORT
binary
put
transfer
16. You run the following commands:
[user@prompt]$ nice –n 1 program1
[user@prompt]$ nice –n 5 program2
[user@prompt]$ nice –n 10 program3
Which of the program started will have the highest priority?
program1
program2
program3
Non of the above
17. Which command removes all subdirectories in /tmp?
del /tmp/*
m –rf /tmp
rm –Ra /tmp/*
rm –r /tmp/*
18. Statement A: Grep filter searches a file for a particular pattern of characters, and display all the
line that contain that pattern.
Statement B: The file name is must in the grep command
Statement A is True and B is False
Statement A is False and B is true
Both Statements are True
Both Statements are False
19. You want to search the file myfile for all occurrences of string containing at least five characters,
where character number 2 and 5 are ‘a’ and character number 3 is NOT ‘b’. Which command would
you use?
grep a*^b*a myfile
grep .a[^b].a myfile
grep .[a].*.[a] myfile
grep .a*^b..a myfile
20. Which of the following commands will give read and write permissions to the file owner and
execute permission to the group owner for the file "test.exe" ?
chmod u+rw g+x test.exe
chmod +rwx, +xg test.exe
chmod (rw)u, (x)g test.exe
chmod u+rw,g+x test.exe
Chapter-3: VI Editor
Chapter 3:Level 1
1) Which of the following is a program used to accept input from the standard input, process it, and
send the output to the standard output file?
Environment variables
vi Editor
Filter
Pipe
2) An employee file contains the addresses and phone numbers of all employees. Which of the
following commands will you use to view the contents of the file and edit it?
vi
cat
ls
cp
3) You have created a script file, daily_sales, to generate the daily sales report. You have assigned
the execute permission for the file. Which of the following will you use to execute the file?
ls daily_sales
cat daily_sales
echo daily_sales
daily_sales
4) Which of the following commands can be used to go to the 25th line of a file in vi?
:25
25G
G25
g25
5. Select the ways of exiting and saving a vi session.
:wq
:w
:ZZ
:exit
6. Select all the ways of exiting and saving a vi session.
:w
:ZZ
Shift ZZ
:x
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
7. Select all the ways of exiting and saving a vi session.
:w
:ZZ
:x
:exit
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
8. After starting vi to edit an existing text file, you press ‘A’ (shift +1). This will let you:
Insert text at the end of the current file.
Insert text at the end of the current line.
Insert text after your current cursor position.
Insert text at the end of the file.
9. After starting vi to edit an existing text file, you press ‘a’. This will let you:
a) Insert text at the end of the current file.
b) Insert text at the end of the current sentence.
c) Insert text after your current cursor position.
d) Insert text at the end of the file.

10. You are writing text in vi. Now you want to save your changes and exit.
Which inputs will accomplish this?
1) esc XX
2) ctrl :w!
3) esc zz
4) esc :wq
11) In the vi editor, you accidentally pressed ' x ', while you were in the command mode. Which of
the following key should be pressed to put deleted text before cursor?
a) P
b) U
c) Ctrl z
d) X

12) In the vi editor, which command is used to delete a word?

a) dw
b) dd
c) cw
d) cc

13) In the vi editor, which command is used to delete a line?

a) dw
b) dd
c) cw
d) cc

14) In vi editor which command is used to change a word?

a) dw
b) dd
c) cw
d) cc

15. In vi editor, which command Is used to change a line?

a) dw
b) dd
c) cw
d) cc

Remarks: part of Lab exercise

16. In vi editor, which command is used to delete a character before current cursor position?
a) d
b) D
c) X
d) x

Remarks: part of Lab exercise

17. In vi editor, which command is used to join lines
a) Join
b) J
c) JJ
d) LL

Remarks: part of Lab exercise

18. In vi editor, which command is used to undo last changes?
a) u
b) U
c) Ctrl & z
d) Z

Remarks: part of Lab exercise

19. In vi editor, which command is used to restore last changes?
a) u
b) U
c) Ctrl & z
d) Z

Remarks: part of Lab exercise

20. in vi editor, which command is used to repeat last changes?
a) r
b) R
c) Period (.)
d) *

Remarks: page number: 53

21) In vi editor which command is used to copy the current line?
a) y
b) !y
c) yy
d) YY

22) In vi editor which command is used to copy n number of line?

a) ny
b) nY
c) nyy
d) nYY

23) In vi editor, which command is used to paste yanked lines after the current cursor position?
a) p
b) P
c) pp
d) PP

24) In vi editor, which command is used to paste yanked lines before the current cursor position?
a) p
b) P
c) pp
d) PP

25. In vi editor, which command is used to scroll down half screen?

1) ^d
2) ^D
3) ^u
4)^U
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
26. . In vi editor, which command is used to scroll up half screen?
1) ^d
2) ^D
3) ^u
4)^U
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
27. In vi editor, which command is used page forward?
1) ^F
2) ^D
3) ^B
4)^U
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
28. In vi editor, which command is used page forward?
1) ^F
2) ^D
3) ^B
4)^U
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
29. In vi editor, which command is used to move the cursor one line down?
1) j
2) k
3) h
4) l
30. In vi editor, which command is used to move the cursor one line up?
1) j
2) k
3) h
4) l
Chapter-3:Level 2
1) You have created the Annual Sales Report. The details are stored in the file, salesrep. You make
some modifications to the report in vi editor. Which of the following key combinations will you use
to save the file after making the modifications?
a) <Esc> dd
b) <Esc> a
c) <Esc> r
d) <Esc>:wq

2) Which keystrokes will move the cursor 3 lines down and 4 characters to the right?
a) 3j4l
b) 3k4m
c) 3h4j
d) 3l4k

3) You want to save vi changes to the file myfile with :w!, but vi complains it can not write to the
file.
Therefore, you want to check the write permissions on the file. To do this without leaving vi, you
type:
a) :!ls –l myfile
b) :\ls –l myfile
c) esc :ls –l myfile
d) :?ls –l myfile

Remarks: part of Lab exercise

4) In vi editor, which command is used the cursor to move to next word?
1) w
2) b
3) e
4) I
5. In vi editor, which command is used the cursor to move to previous word?
1) w
2) b
3) e
4) I
Remarks: part of Lab exercise
6. In vi editor, which command is used the cursor to end of the word?
1) w
2) b
3) e
4) I
7. In vi editor, which command is used to replace current character with character x?
1) rx
2) r
3) Rx
4) RX
8. 31) In vi editor, which command is used to move next character?
1) j
2) k
3) h
4) l
9. In vi editor, which command is used to move previous character?
1) j
2) k
3) h
4) l
10. Which command is used to find previous line containing pattern ?
1) /pattern
2) \pattern
3) ?pattern
4) /?pattern

Remarks: part of Lab exercise/courseware

Chapter 3:Level 3
1) You want to save vi changes to the file myfile with :w!, but vi complains it can not write to the
file. Therefore, you want to check the write permissions on the file. To do this without leaving vi,
you type:
1) :!ls –l myfile
2) :\ls –l myfile
3) esc :ls –l myfile
4) :?ls –l myfile

2) Which of the following could be used to load kernel modules for a 2)4)x kernel?
1) vi/proc/modules
2) rmmod
3) kmod
4) depmod
3) When starting vi with the file nohup.out, which of the following will enable onscreen numbers?
1) vi +/set num nohup.out
2) vi +"se nu" nohup.out
3) vi /+"set number" nohup.out
4) vi +":set num" nohup.out

4) How can you enable onscreen (non-printing) numbers in a vi session?

1) :set num
2) :se nu
3) :set -o number
4) :set +o num

5. Which command used to find character x on current line after current cursor position?
1) fx
2) Fx
3) tx
4) Tx

6. Which command used to find character x on current line before current cursor position?
fx
Fx
tx
Tx
7. Which command is used to find next line containing pattern ?
/pattern
\pattern
?pattern
/?pattern
8) A user wants to set vi environmental settings each time when vi is invoked. This can be done by
using the following file:
.exrc
.profile
.bash_profile
.hash_profile
9) A user wants to copy 3 lines from a file prg1)c to another file prg2)c. This can be done efficiently
using:
Use 3yy in prg1)c and in prg2)c use p
using named buffer
using 3dd in prg1)c and in prg2)c use p
using %yy in prg1)c and in prg2)c use 3p
10. Assume that you have a file called my_wip_ccp.txt, which contain 177 lines. You want to filter
the line number 127 to 137.
Which command you will use?
:! sort 127..137
:! sort 127,137
:127..137 ! sort
:127,137 ! sort
Chapter-4: UNIX Shell
Chapter1:Level 1
1) Which of the following command is used to declare a global variable?
echo
read
export
env
2. You want to change your primary shell prompt to your user name, Jack. Which of the following
commands will you use to achieve this?
1) PATH=“Jack”
2) PS1=“Jack”
3) PS2=“Jack”
4) echo $SHELL

3. What is the output of the following command?

$ PS1=”$BANGLORED$”
1. Syntex error
2. Will change the prompt to $BANGLORED$
3. Will change the prompt to $$
4. Will change the prompt to BANGLORED
4) Which command is used to execute script files in UNIX system?
1. Exec followed by filename
2. sh followed by filename
3. shh followed by filename
4. ex followed by filename

5. A shell script can be executed by directly invoking its name at a $ prompt.

1. True
2. False

6. Once the execution permission is granted then the shell script can be executed by directly invoking
its name at a $ prompt.
1) True
2) False
7. What is the output of the following command after pressing enter key?
$ echo “All Cats will go to Hell”
1.
2. Display the enclosed text on the screen
3. Keeps the cursor on the same line on the screen after displaying the argument
4. Display the additional blank line after the argument
5. Display the enclosed text on the screen and then sound the system bell

8. What is the output of the following command after pressing enter key?
$ echo “All Cats will go to Hell \007”
1. Display the enclosed text on the screen
2. Keeps the cursor on the same line on the screen after displaying the argument
3. Display the additional blank line after the argument
4. Display the enclosed text on the screen and then sound the system bell

Remark: the Question/answers are correct, page number:67

9. What is the output of the following command after pressing enter key?
$ echo “All Cats will go to Hell \c”
1. Display the enclosed text on the screen
2. Keeps the cursor on the same line on the screen after displaying the argument
3. Display the additional blank line after the argument
4. Display the enclosed text on the screen and then sound the system bell

Remark: the Question/answers are correct, page number:67

10. What is the output of the following command after pressing enter key?
$ echo “All Cats will go to Hell \n”
1. Display the enclosed text on the screen
2. Keeps the cursor on the same line on the screen after displaying the argument
3. Display the additional blank line after the argument
4. Display the enclosed text on the screen and then sound the system bell

Remark: the Question/answers are correct, page number:67

11) What is the output of the following command after pressing enter key?
$ echo “\n All Cats will go to Hell \n”
1. Display the enclosed text on the screen
2. Keeps the cursor on the same line on the screen after displaying the argument
3. Display the additional blank line before and after the argument
4. Display the enclosed text on the screen and then sound the system bell

12) In a shell program there must be no space on either side of assignment operator
true
false
13) What is the output of the following command after pressing enter key?
$ x=$today
1. display current date
2. display current date and time
3. Display error
4. Does not display anything

14) _______ command is used to test the values of variables.

expr
test
set
sh
15. What is the output of the following?
test “$var1”=”$var2”
1. True if string var1 and var2 are identical
2. True if strings are not identical
3. True if var11 is greater then var2
4. True if var1 is less then var2

16. What is the error of the following command?

test =”cat”
1. test: argument expected
2. test: syntax error
3. test: fatal error
4. test: required at least 2 arguments

17. Which option is used to specify AND operator in UNIX?

1. AND

2. –a
3. &

4. –n

18. Which option is used to specify OR operator in UNIX?

1. OR
2. –a

3. ||
4. –o

19. Which is NOT system variable in UNIX system?

1. HOME
2. LOGNAME
3. PS1
4. USERNAME

20. Which command is used to stop execution of shell script and return to the $ prompt.
a) quit
b) exit
c) logout
d) return
21) the _________ construct evaluates the values of variable and compares it with each values
specified?
a) if……..fi
b) case……..esac
c) do…….while
d) while……do…….done

22) _______ command is used to resume execution at the top of the while loop?
a) exit
b) break
c) stop
d) continue

23) Which test command option used to test file exist and is ordinary
a) test –f filename
b) test –d filename
c) test –r filename
d) test –w filename

24) Which test command option used to test file exist and is directory
a) test –f filename
b) test –d filename
c) test –r filename
d) test –w filename

25. Which test command option used to test file exist and is readable
a) test –f filename
b) test –d filename
c) test –r filename
d) test –w filename

26. Which test command option used to test file exist and is writeable
a) test –f filename
b) test –d filename
c) test –r filename
d) test –w filename

27. Which test command option used to test file exist and is executable
a) test –f filename
b) test –d filename
c) test –x filename
d) test –w filename

28. Which test command option used to test file exist and is ordinary
a) test –f filename
b) test –d filename
c) test –r filename
d) test –s filename

29. Every user in UNIX system has an associated directory called home directory and can be
assigning a value to which environmental variable?
a) HOME
b) $home
c) PWD
d) PATH

30. Which variable contain a list of all full path-names of directories that are to be searcher for an
executable program.
1. PS1
2. HOME
3. PATH
4. Any variable

31) the PS1 variable can be set to new value only at the UNIX command line and not within a shell
script.
1. True
2. False

32) Which of the following file executed as soon as the user logs in to the UNIX system?
a) .file
b) .profile
c) $file
d) $profile

33) Which of the following command is used to terminate the background process?
a) By pressing Del key
b) kill
c) PS1
d) Terminate

34) Which of the following command is used to terminate the foreground process?
a) By pressing Del key
b) kill
c) PS1
d) Terminate

35. Which of the following command is used to terminate the foreground process?
a) By pressing Ctrl & d
b) kill
c) PS1
d) Terminate

36. Which of the following arithmetic test operator is used for Equal to meaning?
a) –eq
b) –ne
c) –qt
d) –qe

37. Which of the following arithmetic test operator is used for Not Equal to meaning?
a) –eq
b) –ne
c) –qt
d) –qe

38. Which of the following arithmetic test operator is used for Greater than meaning?
a) –eq
b) –ne
c) –gt
d) –qe

39. Which of the following arithmetic test operator is used for Greater than and equal to meaning?
a) –eq
b) –ne
c) –gt
d) –ge
40. Which of the following arithmetic test operator is used for less then meaning?
a) –lt
b) –ne
c) –qt
d) –qe

41) Which of the following arithmetic test operator is used for Less than and equal to meaning?
a) –lt
b) –ne
c) –le
d) –qe

42) What minimum permissions must a user have in order to run a shell script?
read
write
browse on the directory
users cannot run shell scripts
44) Hidden files in UNIX always begin with _________
1) dot (.)
2) –
3) *
4) ~
Chapter-4: Level 2
1) Consider the following statements:
Statement A: Variables in shell scripts do not have any associated data type.
Statement B: A variable created at a shell prompt will remain in existence until the shell is
terminated.
Which of the following is true about the above statements?
1. Statement A is true, and statement B is false.
2. Statement A is false, and statement B is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

2) You have created a shell script to view the contents of the file, Customers and store the names of
all customers whose availed credit amounts have exceeded Rs.50, 000. The names of all such
customers will be stored in the file, Creditdet. You do not want any
errors while executing the script to interrupt your work. Which of the following will you implement
to store the errors in the file, Errordet?
a) Filters
b) Redirection
c) Pipe
d) Command substitution

3) When executing a command that produces output to the screen, you get an exit code of 0. Choose
the best description of what has happened
a) The program executed properly
b) The program encountered an error
c) The program requires more input
d) The program has returned standard input

4) Consider the following script ctr=1 while test $ctr -lt 10 do ctr=`expr $ctr+1` done
a) It displays 1 to 10
b) It executes the loop ten times and comes out without displaying anything
c) It is an infinite loop
d) It will not enter the loop at all

5. What is the output of the following Shell script

x=`cat /etc/passwd | tr -s " " | cut -d":" -f1` echo $x
a) This will display the list of user names from the password file

b) This will display all the user-id's of all users from the password file.
c) This will display the names of home directories of all users

d) This will display all details of all users

6. Consider the following statements:

Statement A: Variables in shell scripts must have to be explicitly declared.
Statement B: A variable can be created without a value by leaving the right-hand side of the
assignment operator blank.
Which of the following is true about the above statements?
Options
1. Statement A is true, and statement B is false.

2. Statement A is false, and statement B is true.

3. Both statements are true.

4. Both statements are false.

7. Consider the following shell script
ctr=`ls *.c | wc –l`
What is the value of ctr?
a) Nothing
b) Contains a count of number of the current directory whose names end in .c
c) Contains a count of number of files in the current directory whose names end in .c
d) Contains a count of number of files in the current directory

8. Consider the following variable declaration

Val=25
What is the type of values Val is containing?
a) Val is containing a number 25
b) Val is containing a character 2 and 5
c) Val does not contain any value, because there is no red keyword
d) Error

Remarks: This question is not ambiguous; always UNIX treats any value as a test only.
9. Consider the following script
$ var1=2.5
$ expr $var1 + 5
What is the result of the above statement?
a) Works fine

b) Error in 1st line

c) Error in 2nd line

d) No error but No result

10. Consider the following script

$ var1=2.5
$ expr $var1 + 5
What is the result of the above statement?
1)7.5
2)7
3)8
4)Syntax error
13. What is the output of the following command?
$ echo $[HOME]
1) will display the full path of the current directory
2) will display all the path of all the users
3) will display only the path of UNIX root.
4) Syntex error

12) How many cron fields are there for specifying the time to execute a cron job?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

13) All device in UNIX implemented in files.

true
false
14) A directory can have more then 2 links
1) true
2)false
15) While executing a shell script with command line parameters, command is stored in:
a) $0
b) $*
c) $1
d) $#

16) While executing a shell script with command line parameters, number of arguments
are stored in:
1) $0
2) $1
3) $#
4) $*
17) While executing a shell script with command line parameters, the first argument1
is stored in:
$1
$0
$*
$#
18) What would be the output of the following:
a=5
b=10
echo $a + $b
15
10+5
Error
105
19. What would be the output of the following shell script when the user enters 0(zero)
echo “Enter a number”
read num
if test $num –gt 0
then echo “Number is positive”
else
echo “Number is negative”
fi
1. Number is positive
2. Number is negative
3. Gives an error
4. Either (1) or (2)

20) what would be the output after executing the following statements:
a=5
b=10
c=`expr $a + $b`
echo $c
1) 10
2) 5
3) 10+5
4) 15

21) After login, a user issued the following set of commands

a=10
echo $a
sh
echo $a
what would be the output:
1. 10
2. 0
3. Error
4. No output

22) After login, a user issued the following set of commands

a=10
echo $a
export a
sh
echo $a
what would be the output:
1) 10
2) 0
3) Error
4) No output

23) A user issued the following command:

a=10
The same user created a shell script by name myshell with the following assignment
a=100
The user executed the shell using sh myshell and issued the following command
Echo $a.
What would be the value of a?
1) 10
2) 100
3) Unknown
4) Gives an error

24) A user issued the following command:

a=10
The same user created a shell by name myshell with the following assignment
a=100
The user executed the shell using . myshell (dot myshell) and issued the following command
Echo $a.
What would be the value of a?
a) 10
b) 100
c) Unknown
d) Gives an error

25) Given below is the content in a shell script ‘dispalph’.

for alph in [a-z]
do
echo $alph
done
What would be the output
a) Alphabet a to z
b) [a-z]
c) Albhabet a to z with each character in a separate line
d) Displays both uppercase and lowercase alphabets

26) The logical operator for ‘and’ in UNIX is:

a) a
b) –a

c) &&
d) ||

27) A user issued the following command in UNIX

find / -type f -name “p*” 1>Myfiles 2>errfile &
The & symbol given at the end, instruct unix to:
a) Execute the command in the foreground
b) Execute the command in the background
c) Command is ignored
d) Increase the priority of this command

28) If a user wants to increase the number of command line arguments through a script, which of the
following command can be used:
a) set
b) shift
c) env
d) unshift

29) The following lines are from a shell script by name ‘myfiles’
for myfiles in `ls`
do
echo $myfiles
done
The output will be:
a) ls
b) Display all files from the current directory
c) Display only ordinary files from current directory
d) Display only directory files from the current directory

30) Consider the following shell script

a=1
while test $a –le 10
do
echo $a
done
What is the line of code that needs to be given after echo $a, to ensure that the shell script prints
number 1 to 10
a) a=a+1
b) a=expr $a + 1
c) a=`expr $a + 1`(Grave accent is use4)
d) a=’expr $a + 1’(single quotes use4)

31) A user wants to check all processes that are specific to a user ‘user1’. What would be the
command
a) ps –U user1
b) ps –u user1
c) ps –e user1
d) ps –a user1

32) ‘The variables declared in child shell is known to the parent’

a) True
b) False

33) ‘A user can change from one shell to another shell’

a) True
b) False

34) Which of the following construct is not supported by UNIX

a) if…then.. else… fi
b) if …else…fi
c) if … then … else if ….. then ……else … fi fi
d) if … then ….elif …..then ……..else ….. fi

35) Following is a part of the shell script

echo “Enter a character”
read alph
case $alph in -------------(1)
[a-z] )echo “You entered lower case” -------------(2)
[A-Z] ) echo “You entered upper case” ------------(3)
*) echo “You entered a character except an alphabet” -------------(4)
esac -----------(5)
Which line of codes needs to be corrected:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 and 5

36) A user modifies his .profile file and he wants to make the modifications in effect without logging
out. How is this achieved
a) Issue the command . .profile(dot .profile)
b) Issue the command sh .profile
c) Give execute permission and issue the command .profile
d) User needs to logout to reflect the same

37) The administrator wants to restrict certain directories to a particular user as and when he login.
This can be done by using making modifications in :
1. /etc directory
2. . profile file
3. /bin directory
4. /etc and /bin directory

Chapter-4:Level 3
1) You need to create a shell script to display the project status of different projects. The project
status of each project is stored in a different file. The name of a project file is preceded by the
respective project code. All project status files are stored in the Project directory. You need to display
the contents of a project file based on the project code entered by a user. Which of the following shell
scripts will you use?
Enter/type: See MS and use the term accordingly globally.
1. echo “Enter project code”

read Pcode
ls Project | grep “Pcode*” | echo
2. echo “Enter project code”

read Pcode
ls Project | grep “$Pcode*” | cat
3. echo “Enter project code”

read Pcode
cat Project | grep “$Pcode*” | echo
4. echo “Enter project code”

read Pcode
cat Project | grep “Pcode*” | cat
2) You need to create a script to accept a student code and marks and display the grade obtained by a
student. Students who have obtained 90 percent or more are given an A grade. Students whose marks
are less than 90 percent and 70 percent or more are given B grade, and students whose mark are less
than 70 percent and 50 percent or more are given C grade. Students who have obtained less than 50
percent have failed the test. Which of the following shell scripts will you use?
1) echo –n “Enter student code: ”
read code
echo –n “Enter student mark: ”
read mark
case ${mark} in
-ge 90 –a –le 100)
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: A”;;
-lt 90 –a –ge 70)
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”;;
-lt 70 –a –ge 50)
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: C”;;
-lt 50 –a –ge 0)
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “The student has failed”;;
*)
echo “You have entered wrong data”;;
esac
2) echo –n “Enter student code: ”
read code
echo –n “Enter student mark: ”
read mark
if test ${mark} –ge 90 –a ${mark} –le 100
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: A”
elif test ${mark} –ge 70 –a ${mark} –lt 90
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”
elif test ${mark} –ge 50 –a ${mark} –lt 70
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”
elif test ${mark} –ge 0 –a ${mark} –lt 50
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”
else
echo “You have entered wrong data”
fi
3) echo –n “Enter student code: ”
read code
echo –n “Enter student mark: ”
read mark
case test $mark in
-ge 90 –a –le 100)
echo “Student code: ” $code;;
echo “Student grade: A”;;
-lt 90 –a –ge 70)
echo “Student code: ” $code;;
echo “Student grade: B”;;
-lt 70 –a –ge 50)
echo “Student code: ” $code;;
echo “Student grade: C”;;
-lt 50 –a –ge 0)
echo “Student code: ” $code;;
echo “The student has failed”;;
esac
4) echo –n “Enter student code: ”
read code
echo –n “Enter student mark: ”
read mark
if test ${mark} >= 90 –a <= 100
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: A”
fi
elif test ${mark} >= 70 –a < 90
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”
fi
elif test ${mark} >= 50 –a < 70
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”
fi
elif test ${mark} >= 0 –a < 50
then
echo “Student code: ” $code
echo “Student grade: B”
fi
else
echo “You have entered wrong data”
fi
3) You have to create a shell script to accept the first and second semester marks of students and to
display their average marks. Which of the following scripts will you use?
1). echo “Enter student id”
read studid
echo “Enter sem1 mark”
read sem1
echo “Enter sem2 mark”
read sem2
tot=`expr sem1 + sem2`
avg=`expr tot / 2`
echo “Student id is ” studid
echo “Average mark is ” avg
2) echo “Enter student id”
read studid
echo “Enter sem1 mark”
read sem1
echo “Enter sem2 mark”
read sem2
tot=expr $sem1 + $sem2
avg=expr $tot / 2
echo “Student id is ” $studid
echo “Average mark is ” $avg
3) echo “Enter student id”
read studid
echo “Enter sem1 mark”
read sem1
echo “Enter sem2 mark”
read sem2
tot=`$sem1 + $sem2`
avg=`$tot / 2`
echo “Student id is ” $studid
echo “Average mark is ” $avg
4) echo “Enter student id”
read studid
echo “Enter sem1 mark”
read sem1
echo “Enter sem2 mark”
read sem2
tot=`expr $sem1 + $sem2`
avg=`expr $tot / 2`
echo “Student id is ” $studid
echo “Average mark is ” $avg
4) Before you start creating directories on a newly created file system, what should you do?
a) check the base system's umask setting
b) check the base system's CMOS setting
c) check the base system's init stage setting
d) check the base system's process ID setting

5. What BASH environment variable will prevent you from overwriting a file with a “>” or “>>”?
a) set-o safe
b) set-o noglob
c) set-o noclobber
d) set-o append

6. Which two files in a user’s home directory are used to customize the bash environment?
1. bash and .bashrc
2. bashrc and-bash_conf
3. bashrc and bashprofile
4. .bashrc and .bash_profile
7. What program do you use to suspend a printer queue?
5) lpr
6) lpq
7) lpc
8) lpd

8. Shell variables are case sensitive.

1) true
2) false
9. expr can handle only integers 2where bc can handle both integers as well as floats.
5) true
6) false