[Link].

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AP GRAMA/WARD SACHIVALAYAM GRAND TEST – 3

GROUP B
MARKS : 150 No. of Questions: 150 Time : 150 Minutes (-)tive marks: 0.25

1. The speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/h. A boat goes 7. What was the respective ratio between the number of
72 km and back to its starting point in 18 hours. Find the candidate who qualified in the exam from state - R in the
speed of stream? year 2008 and the number of candidates who qualified

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(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr in the exam from state - P in the year 2004?
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 6 km/hr (a) 11:10 (b) 9:11 (c) 11:7 (d) 11:9

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2. Rs. 500 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that Rs. 8. If 40 per cent of the candidates who qualified in the
16 more 2/5 of A’s share, Rs. 70 less than 3/4 of B’s exam from state- P in the year 2009 were females then
share, and Rs. 4 less than 3/5 of C’s share are equal. Find what was the sum of number of male candidates who
B’s share. qualified from State - P in the year 2009 and the total

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(a) Rs. 300 (b) Rs. 400(c) Rs. 100 (d) Rs. 200 number of candidates who qualified in the exam from
3. A reduction of 20% in the price of Rice enables a state - Q in the year 2009?

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Purchase to obtain 8kg more Rice for Rs. 160. Then the (a) 1,11,000 (b) 1,01,000 (c) 93,000
price per kg before reduction was (d) 1,21,000
(a) 5 per kg (b) 6 per kg 9. If “S” denotes “multiplied by”, “V” denotes “subtracted
(c) 7 per kg (d) 8 per kg from”, “M” denotes “added to” and “L” denotes
1
ca “divided by”, then 7 V 42 M 56 L 8 S 5 = ?
4. A man can row at a speed of 4 2 km/hr in still water. If
he takes 2 times as long to row a distance upstream as to (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 0
row the same distance in downstream, then, the speed of 10. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the
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stream (in km/hr) is answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 2.5
5. The area of a rhombus having one side 10 cm and one
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diagonal 12 cm is
(a) 48 cm2 (b) 96 cm2 (c) 144 cm2 (d) 192 cm2
Directions (6-8): Study the following graphs carefully to
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answer the questions that follow.

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Number of Candidates (in thousands) who qualified in

an exam in three different states in six different years
90 State-P 85
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State-Q
80 (a) (b) (c) (d)
State-R 70
70 65 11. Mohan, Ritika, Janvi, Priya and Riya are friends. Janvi
60 65
60 60 runs faster than Ritika but slower than Priya. Mohan is
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55 55 the slowest runner and Riya runs faster than Priya. Who
50 45
40 45 runs the fastest among the five?
40 35 40 40
(a) Priya (b) Riya (c) Ritika (d) Mohan
30
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30 30 12. The diagram represents the likes of children in a society.

25
20 20
10
0
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

6. Total number of candidates who qualified in the exam The difference between children who like leopard to
in the year 2004 and 2005 together from state Q was those who like tiger is
approximately what percentage of total number of (a) 50 (b) 35 (c) 30 (d) 5
candidates who qualified in the exam from all the states
together in the year 2008?
(a) 61 (b) 65 (c) 79 (d) 52

[Link]
13. Which answer figure will complete the [Link]
pattern in the (a) Sikkim (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) Odisha
question figure? 22. How many sustainable development goals are there
(a) 17 (b) 26 (c) 16 (d) 15
23. It is more comfortable to wear white cloths in summer
because
(a) they reflect heat falling on them.
(b) they radiate heat tansferred from the body.
(c) they absorb perspiration.
(d) they are soothing to the eye
24. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is
a) Always upright b) May be upright or invented
c) Always inverted d) None of the above
(a) (b) (c) (d) 25. An ecosystem must have continuous external source
Directions (Q. No. 14) : In the following questions a blank of

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has been given in a sentence. And it is followed by four a) minerals b) energy c) food d) All of the above
26. In which place people revolted against English against
options namely a, b, c and d. One of the options fills up the
their forest policies in 1879

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blank. Choose the appropriate option. (a) Rekapalli (b) Nadigudem
14. ___________ lunch we had at your marriage was (c) Chinturu (d) Sileru
superb. 27. Which organization took active part in organizing

n.
(a) a (b) the (c) an (d) No article Bipin Chandra Pal’s tour of Rajahmundry
Direction (Q. no. 15) : In the following question a idiom is (a) Balabharati Samithi (b) Surabharathi Samithi
given. And it is followed by four options namely a, b, c and (c) Youngmen’s association

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(d) Rajahmundry Students association
d. One of the options gives the meaning of the idiom. Choose
28. Which Newspaper strongly supported the Home Rule
the appropriate option. ca Movement in Andhra
15. To grease the palm (a) Andhra Matha (b) Bharata Matha
(a) To bribe (b) To reject (c) Teja (d) Desha Matha
(c) To maintain (d) To hold 29. Who among the following visited the Palnadu area in
July 1921 to study the situation arising out of agitation
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Direction (Q. No. 16) : In the following a paragraph has
against forest laws
been jumbled. After keeping it in order attempt the
(a) Vedam Venkatachari (b) Ramadas Pantulu
appropriate option that makes sense and keep the paragraph (c) Unnava Lakshminarayana (d) Swamy Sitaram
in a proper order.
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30. In the elections held to the Madras Legislative

16. (A) He borrowed some money from his neighbor for me Assembly in 1920, how many seats were won by the
(B) However, he promised to get the money I needed justice party
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(C) Since I had no money with me, I decided to borrow (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66
31. Who among the following wrote the Novel
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from my friend
‘Asamarthuni Jeevitha Yatra’
(D) The electricity bill had to be paid immediately
(a) N.G. Ranga (b) Sri Sri
(E) But, he had no money with him to lend me (c) K. Linga Raju (d) T. Gopichand
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(a) c d a b e (b) c e b a d 32. In which year the socialist party established its Andhra
(c) a b c d e (d) d c e b a Branch
17. The ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award’ is India’s highest award (a) 1930 (b) 1931 (c) 1932 (d) 1934
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in which of the following fileds? 33. Which Telugu Newspaper commented “unless there is
(a) Sport (b) Business (c) Science (d) Cinema a separate government there is no protection for Telugu
18. Chandrayaan-2, India’s second mission to the Moon will People’s Culture”
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be launched by the launch vehicle_________ (a) Desha Bhasha (b) Lokamanjari

(a) PSLV-XL (b) GSLV-II (c) Desabhimani (d) Shasirekha
(c) GSLV-Mk III (d) RLV-TD 34. Who among the following opposed separate state for
19. With which country did India hold high-level talks in Andhras once he became Chief Minister of Madras
July 2019 to elevate bilateral cooperation in the field of State in 1932
space, including assistance in India’s ‘Gaganyaan’ (a) P. Ramarayanin Garu (b) P. Subbarayan
mission? (c) K.V. Reddy Naidu (d) Bobbili Raja
(a) Japan (b) Russia (c) China (d) Indonesia 35. In which place in 1935, the second Rayalaseema
20. ‘Game Changer’ is the autobiography of which of the Mahasabha passed a resolution opposing separate
following cricketers? Andhra State
(a) Shane Watson (b) Shahid Afridi (a) Kadapa (b) Kurnool
(c) Lasith Malinga (d) Chris Gayle (c) Tirupathi (d) Anantapur
21. Longest serving Chief Minister of any state Pawan
Kumar Chamling lost after 25 years. He was the Chief
Minister of which state?
[Link]
36. The agreement between Andhra and Rayalaseema [Link]
42. Which of the following articles of the Indian
leaders was made in 1937 at the residence of constitution explain about the citizenship?
Kasinathuni Nageshwar Rao known as Sribagh pact. (a) Articles 5 to 8 (b) Articles 6 to 8
Where is Sribagh (c) Articles 4 to 8 (d) Articles 3 to 8
(a) Vijayawada (b) Guntur 43. Which of the following is not the supreme court’s
(c) Madras (d) Bangalore evolution?
37. In 1948 which Commission, in its report opined that (a) Basic structure (b) Public interest litigation
creation of linguistic states is a threat to unity and
(c) Removal of hand cuffs
integrity of the country
(a) J.V.P. Report (b) Dhar Commission (d) Exemptions to fundamental rights
(c) Krishnamachary Commission 44. Which of the following groups of countries is arranged
(d) Wanchoo Commission in descending order of area?
38. The doctrine of “Paramountcy” is a legal principle: (a) Russia, Canada, China, U.S.A.
(a) To reconcile conflicting laws where both central (b) Russia, U.S.A., Canada, China

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government and provincial governments have the (c) Russia, Canada, U.S.A., China
power to create laws in relation to the same matter (d) Russia, China, U.S.A., Canada
45. Sierra Nevada is the name of

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(b) To explain the law making authority of the
government (a) An animal of America
(b) A disease found in America
(c) To provide law making authority to the central (c) A fruit found in America
government

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(d) A mountain in America
(d) To explain law making authority of the country 46. Which of the following is not a coal filed?
39. With regard to officers of all India services, choose the (a) Raniganj (b) Umaria (c) Mosabani (d) Korba

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correct answer from the following 47. The Radcliffe Line is the international border between
(a) A member of an all India Service can be dismissed (a) India and Pakistan (b) India and China
or removed only by the Union government
ca (c) Indian and Bangladesh (d) India and Nepal
48. What is Durand Line?
(b) A member of an all India service can be dismissed (a) Boundary line between Afghanistan and Pakistan
or removed by the state government also if he/se is (b) Boundary line between India and Pakistan
serving under that state (c) Boundary line between India and China
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(c) In India, state government employees administer (d) Boundary line between India and Burma
state laws only 49. Which of the following will never get the vertical rays
(d) Union government administer union laws through of the sun?
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its departments only (a) Srinagar (b) Mumbai

(c) Chennai (d) Thiruvananthapuram
40. Regarding the amendment of the constitution all
50. What is Durand Line?
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following statements are correct, except

(a) Boundary line between Afghanistan and Pakistan
(a) According to Article 368, parliament of India can
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(b) Boundary line between India and Pakistan

amend any part of the constitution (c) Boundary line between India and China
(b) Article 2 of the constitution empowered the (d) Boundary line between India and Burma
parliament of India to admit new states into the Union 51. Handles are connected to the link by
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(c) With reference to Article 2 or 3, the amendment of (a) flexible joint (b) rigid joint
the provisions of FIRST and FOURTH schedule shall (c) ball and socket joint (d) swivel joint
not be deemed to be an amendment of the constitution 52. Correct length of a 50 m tape, weighing 1.2 kg when a
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for the purpose of Article 368 pull of 12 kg is applied at the ends and is freely
suspended is
(d) The territories of the units of the federation may be
(a) 49.98m (b) 49.96 m (c) 50.02m (d) 50.04
altered or re-distributed by the parliament without
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53. Convention for a telegraphic line is

intimation to the states
(a)    
41. Whit regards to fundamental rights, all statements (b) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
below are correct, except (c) ∎ ∎ ∎
(a) Article 15 is for citizens only (d)
(b) The right reserved for citizens are denied to the 54. If bearing of AB = 40°, bearing of BC = 300°, then
aliens ∠ABC =
(c) Aliens are divided into friendly aliens and enemy (a) 80° (b) 100° (c) 260° (d) 180°
55. In Fig, if bearing of AB is 190°, bearing of DE
aliens
(d) Indian constitution shows no difference between
friendly aliens and enemy aliens

(a) 40° (b) 140° (c) 240° (d) 340°

[Link]
56. The variation of magnetic declination within [Link]
a day is 68. Area of the section in Fig. is
called
(a) diurnal variation (b) irregular variation
(c) annual variation (d) secular variation
57. An instrumental error in compass survey is because of
(a) inaccurate levelling (b) variation in declination
(c) no counter weight provision to counteract dip
(d) local attraction due to bare current carrying
conductors.
58. An example for a level surface is
(a) surface of earth (b) surface of sea
(c) surface of a reservoir (d) surface of a still lake
59. Level line and horizontal line are (a) b(h1 + h2) + h(b + nh1 + nh2)
(a) the same for longer distances (b) 2b(h1 + h2) + 2h(s1 + s2)

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(b) both straight lines h +h
(c) b(h1 + h2) + ( 1 2 )(s1 + s2)
2
(c) never the same b 1
(d) same for smaller lengths (d) 2
(h 1 + h 2) + 2
h(s 1 + h2)

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60. A change point is 69. When the first object is to be focused, the scale is set to
(a) the very first station 0° 00' 00" and then
(b) the last station (a) the upper screw is fixed, lower screw released, the

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(c) the intermediate station where F. S. and B. S. are object sighted, lower screw fixed and lower tangent
taken screw operated.
(d) the station after which the instrument is shifted (b) both the clamp screw fixed, top tangent screw

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61. The correct position of holding staff is operated
(a) held vertical (c) bottom clamp screw fixed, top screw released, object
(b) held vertically and swung to left and right and the ca sighted and upper tangent screw operated
least reading is recorded (d) object is exactly bisected by operating both the upper
(c) held vertically and swung towards and away from the and lower tangent screws whichever is convenient.
person holding and the highest reading is recorded 70. Tacheometry is best suited
(d) held vertically and swung towards and away by the (a) where chaining is impossible
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person holding it and the least reading is recorded (b) for populous areas
62. In a survey it was recorded that  Rise = 0, then (c) in broken grounds
(a) the ground is sloping (d) for extremely accurate survey
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(b) it is continuously rising 71. The size of drawing drawn to scale 2:1 will be ______
(c) it is continuously falling the actual size
(d) the survey had many invert readings. (a) same as (b) Twice of
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63. Due to curvature of earth the object (c) Half of (d) None of these
72. The gear tooth profile in the form of
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(a) looks higher than it is (b) looks lower than it is

(c) locks as it is (d) looks curved. (a) Spherical (b) Parabola
64. Contour lines (c) Spiral (d) Involute
(a) end abruptly (b) cross each other 73. A line drawn with a long section short dash and another
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(c) are uniformly spaced (d) close somewhere long long section is a _______
65. When internal angles are to be subtended by a theodolite (a) hidden feature
survey for closed traverse (b) centre of circle
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(a) traverse should run clockwise (c) centre axis of a hidden cylinder
(b) traverse should go counter clockwise (d) centre of radius
(c) traverse may go either way 74. If a plane is parallel to plane of projection, it appears as
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(d) exterior angles are measured when the traverse goes _____
anti-clockwise. (a) True size (b) as a line or edge
66. In a transit theodolite error due to eccentricity of (c) Foreshortened (d) as an oblique surface
verniers is counteracted by 75. Size of A2 paper is [all dimensions in mm]
(a) reading both the verniers (a) 841 × 1189 (b) 594 × 841
(b) reading different parts of main scale (c) 420 × 594 (d) 210 × 297
(c) reading right and left faces 76. To draw smooth curves of any nature, drafting
(d) taking both right swing and left swing readings. instrument used is
67. For a level section area of a trapezoidal cut when base (a) mini drafter (b) templates
width is ‘2b’, side slopes are 1V:nH and vertical depth (c) French curve (d) eraser shield
is h, is 77. Number of orientation mark generally contained by a
(a) (b + nh)h (b) (b + 2nh)h drawing sheet is
(c) (2b + nh)h (d) (b + nh) × 2h (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

[Link]
78. Which following publications made [Link]
BIS includes
standard techniques for line conventions and lettering in
detail ____ 92. represents
(a) SP 46 (b) BIS 9609 (a) check value (b) safety value
(c) ASMEY 14.217 (d) ISO 9000 (c) fire hydrant (d) none
79. Which of the following would be considered a primitive
in a 3D solid modeling system?
(a) cylinder (b) square (c) rhombus (d) spline 93. represents
80. When a circle passes through three given points, its (a) change of pipe size (b) change house line
center lies at the intersection of (c) residential building line (d) none
(a) the perpendicular bisector of the longest lien and the
perpendicular line drawn from the end of the shortest 94. represents
line (a) stop value (b) safety value
(b) the perpendicular bisector of the smallest line and the (c) sluice value (d) both a & c

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perpendicular line drawn from the end of the longest line
(c) the perpendicular bisectors of the lines that connect 95. represents
the points (a) urinal bowl (b) floor trap

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(d) the tangents drawn through each point (c) drinking fountain (d) none
81. When two graphic entities are at a constant distance
apart along the length is commonly referred as ______
96. represents

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(a) concentricity (b) parallelism
(c) perpendicularity (d) chordality (a) Laundry sink (b) Washing fountain
82. The two recommended system of placing the (c) Cleaner’s sink (d) none

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dimensions are
(a) unidirectional and aligned systems 97. Represents
(b) upright and inclined systems (a) Ledge cock (b) One-way cock
(c) One way cock side inlet (d) None
(c) linear and oblique systems
ca
(d) linear and inclined systems
83. When (1) visible outlines (2) hidden lines 98. represents
(3) projection lines (4) centre lines overlap, the (a) Microphone Outlet (b) Loudspeaker Outlet
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recommended sequence of priority is (c) siren (d) horn
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-2-4-3 (c) 2-1-3-4 (d) 2-1-4-3
84. Long-dashed dotted narrow line is used to represent 99. represents
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(a) line of symmetry (b) center lines (a) Tree (b) Tripod (c) Aerial (d) Antena
(c) pitch circle of gears and holes (d) All the above
85. The included angle of a pentagon is 100. represents
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(a) 68° (b) 72° (c) 108° (d) 112° (a) Bell Connected to fire alarm
86. Unit of R. F is _____ (b) LED bulb (c) Umbrella (d) None
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(a) Cubic Centimeter (b) Square Centimeter 101. The soil investigation method using the penetrometers
(c) Centimeter (d) None of these belongs to the category of
87. Scale of chord is used to measure (a) open excavation (b) borings
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(a) length of chord (b) arc length of chord (c) sub-surface soundings (d) geophysical
(c) angle of chord (d) all of these 102. The relationship between the ultimate bearing capacity
88. If the length of drawing is greater than the actual length qf, the net ultimate bearing capacity qnf and the depth of
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of object then the drawing will be footing D is (r being the unit weight of the soil)
(a) Full size drawing (b) Reduced drawing (a) qnf = qf + D (b) qf = qnf + D
(c) Enlarged drawing (d) None (c) qnf = qf - D (d) qf = qnf - D
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89. Which of the following scale is used for converting 103. Osmosis is
miles into kilometers. (a) an electrical process where fine grained cohesive
(a) diagonal scale (b) comparative scale soils are drained using electricity
(c) direct vernier scale (d) retrograde vernier scale (b) a method of chemical stabilisation
90. In the diagonal scale, the word diagonal: is used because (c) a method of determine the depth to water table
it is most suitable for the measurement of (d) a method of shoring
(a) diameter of a circle (b) diagonal of a square 104. The approximate bearing capacity of a sound rock
(c) side of a pentagon (d) all of these without any defects may be taken as
(a) 5 to 10 t/m2 (b) 10 to 15 t/m2
2
(c) 100 to 200 t/m (d) 300 to 350 t/m2
91. Represents 105. A pile, which by itself does not carry any load but
(a) fire cock (b) air vent (c) sprinkler (d) church improves the bearing capacity of the soil is called
(a) sheet pile (b) friction pile
(c) bearing pile (d) compaction pile

[Link]
106. A cast-in-situ concrete pile with one or [Link]
more enlarged 121. A row of arches in continuation is called
bulbs on its stem is called (a) multiple arch (b) arch line
(a) vibro pile (b) franki pile (c) arcade (d) conclave
(c) under reamed pie (d) simplex pile 122. The lower half of the arch between the crown and the
107. The distance between the flanges of the beams in any skew-back is known as
tier of a grillage foundation should be equal to (a) haunch (b) spandril (c) rise (d) soffit
(a) half the flange width 123. A star in which all the steps are winders is
(b) flange with (a) circular stair (b) helical stair
(c) one and a half times the flange width or 30 cm (c) bifurcated stair (d) spiral stair
whichever is less 124. Dog-legged stair is a
(d) minimum of 60 cm. (a) half-turn stair (b) quarter-turn stair
108. The maximum permissible total settlement in the case (c) three-quarter turn stair (d) continuous stair
of foundations on clayee soils is generally about 125. Expansion joints in masonry walls are provided if
(a) 50 mm (b) 100 mm (c) 150 mm (d) 200 mm length exceeds

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109. The safety of the structure can be disturbed by (a) 10 m (b) 25 m (c) 40 m (d) 50 m
(a) lowering or rising of water table 126. Leaping weir is provided only in
(b) excavations in the immediate vicinity of the structure (a) conservancy system (b) separate system

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(c) mining or tunneling operations in the neighbourhood (c) partly separate system (d) combined system
(d) any of the above 127. A sanitary sewer is expected to run
110. To improve the bearing capacity of the foundation, the 2
(a) full (b) half full (c) 3 full (d) 90% full

n.
cement grouting may be used if the foundation consists
128. Ovoid sewers are best suited for
of
(a) separate system
(a) clay (b) compacted sand (c) gravel (d) rock

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(b) combined system
111. When two or more individual column footings are
(c) combined system with very wide fluctuations
joined by a beam, it is called
(d) outfall sewer
(a) strip footing (b) step footing
129. The working chamber of a manhole, along the direction
(c) combined footing (d) strap footing
ca of flow should have a minimum length of
112. The piles used in the construction of coffer dams
(a) 0.6m (b) 0.9m (c) 1.2m (d) 2.4m
(a) bearing piles (b) sheet piles
130. A siphon spillway is an arrangement to
(c) friction piles (d) compaction piles.
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(a) divert DWF into open drain
113. A projected stone in masonry wall provided to serve as
(b) divert excessive DWF into open drain
a support to joist or truss is known as
(c) divert excessive storm water into open drain
(a) cornice (b) corbel (c) coping (d) cramp
(d) divert excessive combined flow into open drain
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114. The portion of a brick which is cut at one corner such

131. The factor deciding the length of a grit chamber is
that at one end its width is half of that of a full brick is
(a) detention period (b) horizontal velocity of flow
called
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(c) settling velocity (d) surface loading

(a) king closer (b) queen closer
132. Anti-syphonage pipe need not be provided in
(c) beveled closer (d) mitred closer
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(a) single-storeyed buildings

115. A groove provided on the underside of projecting
(b) multi-storeyed buildings
elements such as cornices, copings such that rain water
(c) residential flats
can be discharged clear of the wall surface is called
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(d) industrial buildings

(a) corbel (b) throating (c) hearting (d) weathering
133. Any trap is intended to trap
116. The safe compressive strength of ashlar masonry of
(a) water (b) sewage of sullage
granite stone in 1:6 cement mortar may be taken as
(c) any liquid waste (d) fuel gases
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(a) 100 t/m2 (b) 130 t/m2 (c) 160 t/m2 (d) 190 t/m2
134. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in a butt
117. A bonding in which all courses are laid as stretchers is
riveted joint is
known as
(a) 12D (b) 8D (c) 4.5D (d) 3.5D
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(a) Flemish bond (b) Header bond

135. The ratio of the permissible bearing stress of hand
(c) Stretcher bond (d) English bond
driven rivets to the yield stress of mild steel is
118. An arrangement for supporting an unsafe structure
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.67 (d) 0.87
temporarily, till it is rendered safe or dismantled, is
136. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to
known as
(a) shearing strength of the rivets
(a) scaffolding (b) hauling (c) shoring (d) jacking
(b) bearing strength of the rivets
119. In flat slab floor, the flared portion of the column just
(c) tearing strength of the plates
below the slab is called
(d) least of (a), (b) and (c)
(a) capital (b) pedestal (c) pilaster (d) cleat
120. The advantage of R. C. C lintel is that
(a) the sunshade can be cast monolithic along with lintel
(b) there is no limitation on span
(c) they are strong and fire resistant
(d) all the above

[Link]
 [Link]
137. Number of rivets required in a joint is equal to 145. Super elevation + lateral friction should not be greater
load than
(a) shear strength of a rivet
load
(b)
rivet value
load
(c) bearing strength of a rivet
load
(d)
tearing strength of plate
138. Bearing stiffeners are provided in plate girders to
(a) eliminate web buckling
(b) transfer concentrated loads V2 V2 V2 V2
(c) prevent excessive buckling (a) 127R (b) 225R (c) 7.4R (d) 14.28R
(d) eliminate local buckling 146. A pavement is classified as flexible pavement or rigid
139. The maximum deflection permitted in the beam of jack pavement based on its
arch is (a) Wearing course (b) Base course

m
span span span span
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Sub-base (d) Sub-grade
300 350 400 480
140. The sag tie in a truss is mainly used to reduce 147. Base course of a WBM road consists of

co
(a) tension (b) compression (a) 120 to 180 mm stone placed on their ends upwards
(c) moment and deflection (d) weight of the truss (b) 120 to 180 mm stone placed on their ends upwards
141. The economic range of spacing of roof trusses is + 50 mm stone Macadan + Water
1 1 1 1 (c) 120 to 180 mm stone placed on their ends upwards +

n.
(a) to of span (b) to of span
2 3 2 4 50 mm stone Macadan + Water + 2 layers of metal each
1 1 1 1
(c) 4 to 6 of span (d) 3 to 5 of span 150 thick

tio
142. Sag rods in a roof truss are used for connecting (d) 120 to 180 mm stone placed on their ends upwards
(a) principal rafters (b) purlins + 50 mm stone Macadan + Water + 2 layers of metal
(c) main ties (d) all the above each 150 thick + Rolled + Screenings applied.
143. A structural element used to support a vertical cladding 148. Soil stabilizer is used for
is called
ca (a) improving properties of low cost roads
(a) cleat (b) runner (c) ferrule (d) diaphragm (b) improving skid resistance of a surface
144. Right of way in the figure below is (c) growing vegetation on the side slopes of
du
embankment
(d) flattening of slope providing drainage and
prevention of rock slides.
149. The prepared bed of ground to receive ballast is called
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(a) packing (b) boxing

(c) embankment or cutting (d) formation
h

150. An ideal sleeper in many ways is

(a) wooden sleeper (b) steel sleeper
ks

(c) cast iron sleeper (d) concrete sleeper

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
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AP GRAMA/WARD SACHIVALAYAM GRAND TEST –3ANSWER KEY
GROUP B

1 a 21 a 41 d 61 d 81 b 101 c 121 c 141 d

2 d 22 a 42 a 62 c 82 a 102 b 122 a 142 b
3 a 23 a 43 d 63 b 83 b 103 a 123 d 143 b
4 b 24 a 44 c 64 d 84 d 104 d 124 a 144 d
5 b 25 b 45 d 65 b 85 c 105 d 125 c 145 a
6 d 26 c 46 c 66 a 86 d 106 c 126 c 146 b
7 c 27 a 47 a 67 c 87 c 107 c 127 c 147 b

m
8 a 28 d 48 a 68 d 88 c 108 b 128 c 148 a
9 d 29 c 49 a 69 a 89 b 109 d 129 c 149 d

co
10 c 30 a 50 a 70 c 90 d 110 d 130 c 150 a
11 b 31 d 51 d 71 b 91 a 111 d 131 b
12 b 32 d 52 a 72 d 92 b 112 b 132 a

n.
13 c 33 c 53 d 73 c 93 a 113 b 133 d
14 b 34 d 54 a 74 a 94 d 114 a 134 c
15 a 35 a 55 b 75 c 95 a 115 b 135 c

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16 d 36 c 56 a 76 c 96 c 116 c 136 d
17 d 37 b 57 c 77 b 97 a 117 c 137 b

at
18 c 38 a 58 d 78 a 98 b 118 c 138 d
19 b 39 a 59 d 79 a 99 c 119 a 139 d
20 b 40 d 60 c c 80 c 100 a 120 d 140 c
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