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1. Threshold is the

[Link] of that portion of runway suitable for landing

[Link] with a taxi track where aircrafts hold before cleared to enter runway

[Link] of the runway where aircrafts line up

2. During aircraft refueling, unauthorized persons are not allowed within a distance of

a. 25m

b. 15m

c. 30m

3. In Public transport aircraft, Flight Navigator is required if the flight is to be made for a great circle distance of
______ NM in absence of any radio aids

a. More than 600 Nm

b. More than 1000 Nm

c. 550 Nm over featureless terrain

4. Non-Scheduled aircraft away from its base can fly without a fresh certificate of release provided

a. One week have not elapsed

b. The aircraft has not been flown for over 15 hrs

c. Three days have not elapsed

d. 4 day have not elapsed.

5. Routes with „W‟ designator means

a. Routes in Western sector

b. Domestic Routes

c. WAAS routes

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6. Aerodrome Met Minima is laid down by

a. Airport Authority of India

b. Operator and authorized by DGCA

c. Govt. Met officer for the particular Aerodrome

7. Aircraft should give position reports

a. Every half hour when flying in control airspace

b. Immediately after crossing a reporting point when flying en route

c. Only while crossing FIR

8. During fuelling operations, smoking shall not be permitted within

a. 15m

b. 25m

c. 30m

9. Series of green flashes to aircraft on ground from tower

a. Taxi clear of landing area

b. Clear to taxi

c. Clear for take-off

d. Return to atarting point.

10. Incident should be notified to DGCA

a. Immediately by any means of communication available

b. 24 hrs within the time the incident was confirmed

c. 48 hrs

11. Red flag hoisted over a control tower means

a. Nothing to the Pilot

b. Air display in progress

c. Only fixed wing flying in progress

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12. If any person carries arms and explosive in the aircraft in contravention of the aircraft rules, he shall be
punished with

a. Rigorous imprisonment for 12 months

b. Imprisonment for two years and liable for fine up to Rs. 1000

c. Imprisonment for three months and fine up to Rs. 750

13. Track separation between aircraft using VOR should be at least

a. 30˚ beyond 10 Nm from the VOR

b. 10˚ beyond 30 Nm from the VOR

c. 15˚ at a distance of 15 Nm from the VOR

14. The change in average TAS between reporting points from the TAS filed in the flight plan has to be reported
to the ATC if it changes by more than _______ of the TAS

a. 10 % or 5 kt

b. 3 % or 5 kt

c. 5 % or 10 kt

15. Before joining an ATS route the, the Pilot should obtain the require permission from the ATS unit _______

a. 10 min prior to joining the track

b. 30 min prior to joining the track

c. At the time of joining

16. The objective of preventing collision between the aircraft is accomplished by

a. Alerting Services

b. Flight Information Service

c. Air Traffic control service

17. For operators who have not establish their minima in respect of aerodromes where ATCS is provided , the
prescribed visibility minima for non- precision approach procedure is

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a. 3-7 Km

b. 1500 m

c. 5 km

18. Incase of displaced threshold, the runway edge light between the beginning of the runway and displaced
threshold shall

a. Be fixed light showing variable white light

b. Show red light in the direction of approach

c. Show amber light in the direction of approach

19. Aircrafts are forbidden to operate within a distance of ______ from the international border

a. 20 Nm

b. 15 Nm

c. 15 Km

20. In India, airspace within ATS route segment and outside the ATS route segment and controlled airspace are
classified as respectively

a. D & F

b. B & C

c. A & C

21. The area within radius of 10 Km from Mathura Oil Refinery is

a. Prohibited Area

b. Restricted Area

c. Advisory area

22. The Certificate of air worthiness of aircraft shall deemed to be suspended when an aircraft

a. Is involved in a serious violation of Aircraft rules specified in the aircraft rules

b. Is involved in accident/incident

c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provision of Aircraft Rules

23. To bring into India, the dead body of a person dying of cholera

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a. Is not permitted

b. Is permitted, provided the healthy officer of aerodrome of the landing informed.

c. Is permitted, provided the body in is a properly sealed wooden box.

d. Is permitted, provided the the dead body is enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of sine or tin,
enclosed in a wooden box,

24. The vertical separation of two aircraft flying on reciprocal tracks, above flight level 290 ft is:

a. Two aircraft can not be a reciprocal tracks

b. 4000 ft.

c. 1000 ft.

d. 2000 ft.

25. The wreckage of an aircraft crashed on runway.

a. Can not be shitted at all.

b. Can not be shitted after taking photograph of the original position of the aircraft.

c. Can not be shitted the the extend to allow movements of aircraft on that runway.

d. Can be distributed only to extricate persons dead or alive.

26. An aircraft can be detained under section.

a. SC of the aircraft Act 1934.

b. SA

c. SB

d. B

27. ATIS broadcast are made.

a. As and when deemed fit.

b. Continuously.

c. Every half hour.

d. Every hour.

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28. The minimum fuel & oil to be carried by scheduled jet engine transport aircraft when an alternative
aerodrome is fled in the flight plan will have to carry

a. The flight to destination station with provision to carry instrument approach and a missed approach
and fuel and the flight to destination to make an approach and land at the alternative aerodrome
excluding the requirement for meeting contingencies.

b. The flight destination designate and fuel for the flight from destination to alternate aerodrome.

c. The flight to destination station with provision for holding for 45 minutes at 1500 ft and make an
approach to land and the fuel required for flight from planned destination aerodrome to alternate
aerodrome.

29. The operational flight plan shall be.

a. On an arbitrary routing routing decided by the dispatchers

b. On an route desired by the pilot in command

c. Based on the shorted point to point routing.

d. In accordance with published routing procedures in AIP.

30. The notified category of safety services of a station „A‟ is Cat VII NOTAM was raised by the station stating
that the safety services category is presently Cat V a dispatcher will

a. Dispatch the flight with the precipitation the change in category has no relevance for the
operation.

b. Study the suitability of the airport for the plant operation of the flight and brief crew. Accordingly.

c. File the copy of the NOTAM in the briefing holder of the flight crew.

d. Brief the Pilot above of the chanced category.

31. All flights must observe IFR : Irrespective of prevailing met condition when operating:

a. FL 200 and above.

b. FL 150 and above

c. FL 100 and above

32. For extending FDTL, the approving authority should be

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a. Operator

b. Airports Authority of India

c. DGCA

d. Ministry of Civil Aviation

33. The maximum numbers of hours/landings can be done for domestic/neighboring countries operation

a. 7/6 or 8/5

b. 11/3 or 12/2

c. 6/3 or 5/4

34. Cosmic radiation report should be given if the aircraft flies over

a. FL 460

b. FL 490

c. FL 550

35. Flight duty time can be extended by

a. 3 Hours.

b. 8 Hours.

c. 4 Hours.

d. 6 Hours.

36. Draft amendments to Indian Aircraft Rules 1937 will be notified drought

a. CAR

b. AIC

c. AIP supplement.

d. NOTAM.

37. Journey log books are to be maintained in respect of

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a. Only private aircraft.

b. Public transport aircraft.

c. Aerial work aircraft.

d. All aircraft.

38. The validity of Instrument Rating of an STPL holder is

a. 18 months.

b. 24 months.

c. 6 months.

d. 12 months.

39. The holder of the pilot

a. All examination prescribed flat the issue of license

b. Test of skill.

c. Air Regulation and meteorology.

d. Air Regulation and test of skill.

40. A flight navigator shall be carried by a public transport aircraft not the flight is conditioned landing over
great circle distance of

a. 600 Nm when the distance between to consecutive Nav aids within 30 Nm of the route is 600 Nm of
more

b. 600 Nm when the distance between to consecutive Nav aids within 60 Nm of the route in 600 Nm of
more

c. 500 Nm when the distance between to consecutive Nav aids within 50 Nm of the route in 500 Nm of
more

41. Deviation from International Standard and Recommended practices are to be prohibited in

a. NOTAM

b. AIP

c. AIC

d. CAR

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42. International Standards on Aircraft operation are specified is

a. Annexure 1

b. Annexure 2

c. Annexure 6

d. Annexure 11

43. The holder of a senior commercial Pilots License can act as a pilot in command of an aircraft of all up
weight 20000 Kg. and carry passenger provided his total experience will not be less than:

a. 250 Hours.

b. 2500 Hours.

c. 750 Hours.

d. 1250 Hours.

44. An unauthorized person crossing the runway was killed by a landing aircraft does this accident an

a. Extraneous situation

b. incident

c. Accident.

45. Validity of medical fitness of a CPL holder aged 45 years is

a. 3 months.

b. 6 months.

c. 24 months.

d. 12 months.

46. An ALTP holder aged 61 years and fit as per medical standard is employ as a pilot by a private airline can
the pilot fly the private airlines aircraft.

a. Yes

b. No

c. Not on regular basis

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47. The carriage of crackers requires authorization from

a. The Govt of the State in which the aerodrome the located

b. The Govt of India.

c. The Operators.

d. The Director General of Postal Services.

48. The airworthiness standards of a witness airways aircraft on a flight between Mumbai and Delhi are as per
the standard of the Govt of India.

a. True

b. False

49. Flight manual is a manual associated with

a. Instructions outlining the responsibilities of operations personal pertaining to the conduct of

operations

b. Instructions for computation of fuel and oil for the flight.

c. Certificate of airworthiness.

d. Instructions on route navigation of the aircraft.

50. An Air-prox incident which took place at Patna and submitted to the operations at Delhi shall be
forwarded to

a. Airport Director IA division, AAI Delhi.

b. Regional controller of Air Safety Bombay.

c. Regional controller of Air Safety Delhi.

d. Regional controller of Air Safety Calcutta.

51. Track separation ensures

a. Vertical and departing aircraft.

b. Time separation between aircraft

c. Lateral separation between aircraft.

d. Longitudinal separation

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52. Approach control service is provided to traffic

a. Arriving and departing aircraft.

b. Operating in the maneuver area.

c. Operating in the movement area.

d. On IFR flight plan cruising across through controlled airspace.

53. ILS category – 2 is an ILS procedure which provides for approach to a height above touch down of not less
than

a. 100 feet and RVR not less than 200 meters.

b. Without a division height minimum with RVR not less than 350 meters

c. 200 feet and RVR not less than 1500 feet.

d. 100 feet and RVR not less than 350 meters.

54. The validity of ADC is

a. 30 minutes for ETD for all flight

b. 30 minutes for ETD for all flight

c. 45 minutes for ETD for VFR flight

d. 60 minutes for ETD for IFR flights.

55. EAT is determine by

a. The approach controllers

b. Pilot in command

c. The AME

d. The flight dispatcher

56. An aircraft maintaining FL 390 estimating cross reporting point X at 0210 wishes to descent to F310. The
aircraft is to cross a reciprocal track estimated over X at 0300 maintaining F330 the earliest time by which
the descending aircraft to reach F310 will be.

a. 0240.

b. 0230.

c. 0250.

d. 0225.

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57. The field minima for RW 27 ILS approach of a station is Visibility 1300M, RVR 1200m. The actual whether at the
time of arrival of an aircraft is wind 270/10 Visibility 700 RVR 1100 clouds. BKN 3000 SCT 4000 TEMP 23DP 21QNH
1009 TREND NO SIG can the aircraft initiate an ILS approach and descend to DA?

a. Negative.

b. Affirmative.

58. An aircraft „A‟ on a track of 0300 reported crossing point X at 0412 at F 370, Another at 370 aircraft „B‟ on a
track of 1000 can cross the same crossing point earlier than:

a. 0470.

b. 0420.

c. 0422.

d. 0412.

59. The controlled airspace in India is categorized under.

a. Cat A.

b. Cat F.

c. Cat C.

d. Cat D.

60. Obstacle clearance altitude is:

a. An altitude up to which minimum terrain clearance as required in the establishment of obstacle

clearance criteria is ensured.

b. An altitude up to which an aircraft can descent in a circling approach.

c. An altitude up to which an aircraft can descent in a precision approach.

61. A test flight can carry passenger provided no charges are claimed from the passenger.

a. Negative.

b. Affirmative.

62. The aerodrome at Calico is not declared suitable for night operations. If the sunrise is at 0550, the earliest
time by which an aircraft operation at the station can take place is

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a. 0605

b. 0535

c. 0550

d. 0520

63. A danger area is CHENNAI FIR shall have designation as

a. VAD

b. VEP

c. VOD

d. VIP.

64. A flight Engineer has to be carried on board aircraft if

a. There is enough room in the cockpit

b. Demanded by the engineer‟s association

c. Prescribed by the Certificate of airworthiness

65. An Indian Airlines Aircraft is given under dry lease to IAF, The aircraft comes under

a. State Aircraft

b. Military Aircraft

c. Unclassified Aircraft

66. ADC is required for

a. Foreign flights

b. Non scheduled flights

c. All flights

67. ETA of a flight at Delhi is 0427, The Aircraft is no 1 in approach sequence and it takes 8 mines to complete
the approach. The EAT given to the aircraft will be

a. 0432

b. 0427

c. 0435

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68. In category D airspace, ATC will provide separation between

a. Separation between IFR flights and traffic information on VFR flights

b. IFR flight and IFR/VFR

c. IFR flights and IFR/VFR and VFR/VFR

69. For knowing, the current watch hours, you should look into

a. AIC

b. CAR

c. NOTAM

d. AIP

70. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident after

a. being cleared by DGCA

b. being cleared by medical authority

c. being cleared by ATS authority

d. being cleared by owner of aircraft

71. The minimum number of cabin attendant to be carried on board a public transport aircraft depend on

a. The discretion of PIC

b. The discretion of the operation company

c. Seating capacity of the aircraft

d. Number of passenger onboard

72. Aeronautical Information of temporary nature and direct operational significance is notified by means of

a. AIC

b. AIP

c. NOTAM

73. Horizontal separation for aircraft at same level and same track by time is

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a. 30 mts

b. 20 mts

c. 15 mts

d. 10 mts

74. An aircraft which is maneuvering area of aerodrome shall comply with

a. Visual flight rules

b. Instrument flight rules

c. General rules

75. Some of the function of flight dispatch are

a. Crew briefing, Crew rostering, Fuelling

b. Flight Planning, loading passenger

c. Flight Clearance, carrying out test flight

d. Flight planning, ATC clearance, monitoring flights

76. Integrated aeronautical information package consist of

a. NOTAMS, preflight information bulletin

b. AIC

c. AIP

d. All of the above

77. Airspace classification over India are

a. D, F and G

b. D, F and E

c. D, C and G

d. B , C and G

78. Duty time of a trainee flight is

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a. Is not counted for calculating the FDTL

b. Is not applicable for Flight Club aircrafts

c. Is counted for calculating the FDTL

79. A Pilot involved in an accident should not fly

a. Until he is permitted by DGCA

b. May fly if his flying proficiency is not in question

c. May fly as a Co-Pilot

80. If an aircraft force lands at uncontrolled aerodrome

a. It must not take off till permission is obtain from DGCA

b. It may take off if no passenger has sustained any injury

c. It may takeoff if the force landing was not due to any factor affecting the operational safety of the
aircraft

81. A flight plan should be amended or a new submitted if a scheduled flight is delayed beyond

a. Two hour

b. One hour

c. 3o minutes

82. Rules governing public health are known as

a. Aircraft Rules 1937

b. Aircraft Rules 1994

c. Aircraft Rules 1954

d. Aircraft Rules 1976

83. A supersonic flight can;-

a. Can operate over the territory of India without speed restriction

b. Over fly India at FL450 at speed of MACH 2

c. Can operate over India at true flight MACH number less than one

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84. A pilot can fly any aircraft if

a. It has been registered and bears its nationality and registration marks and the name and residence
of owner affixed there on

b. The aircraft should be cleared by central government in writing

c. It has been registered by the manufacturer and cleared by aerodrome controller

d. It bears its nationality and registration markings

85. Emergency flight procedures are contained in

a. Route guides

b. AIP issued by DGCA

c. Jeppeson Guide

d. Operational Manual

86. The holder of pilot license may fly as pilot an aircraft of type which is not included in his license.

a. Within 5 nm radius of any aerodrome assigned.

b. Within general flying area of 5 nm & radius from a controlled aerodrome.

c. Anywhere with the prior approval from the ATC.

d. Within Indian territory for the purpose of qualifying for the inclusion of such type.

87. Air routes with „W‟ designators means.

a. World wide rules.

b. Domestic routes.

c. Routes in the western sector.

88. Aerodrome Met Minima is:

a. Laid down AAI.

b. Laid down by operator.

c. Laid down by the manufacture and is indicated in the manufacture operations manual.

89. For the operations who have not established then aerodrome operating minima the applicable minima is
respect of visibility for an aerodrome where precision approach CAT – 1 is available is:

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a. 3.7 km

b. 2.7 km

c. 1500 m

d. 5000 m

90. The area around with in a radius of 10 kms from Mathura refinery is;

a. Danger area

b. Restricted area

c. Prohibited area

d. Flight can be over flown

91. The certificate of airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft.

a. In involved in a serious violation of the rules specified in the aircraft rules.

b. In modifying or repaired without the consent of the DGCA.

c. In involved in an accident / incident.

92. An aircraft can be detained under section.

a. 8.

b. 8C of the Aircraft Act 1934.

c. 8B.

d. 8A.

93. An incident should be notifies to DGCA with in.

a. Immediately by means of any available communication.

b. 12 hrs.

c. 48 hrs.

d. 24 hrs.

94. Flight controlled aerodrome a VFR flight shall not operators the ceiling is less than.

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a. 2500 ft.

b. 1000 ft.

c. 1500 ft.

95. Flight by aircraft is prohibited over Mathura Hills, Bombay, with in radius.

a. 1 mile.

b. 2 miles.

c. 5 km.

d. 2 nm, from the tower of silence.

96. When flying outside controlled airspace of 5000 feet a VFR flight shall be conducted with a flight visibility not
less than.

a. 8 km.

b. 3 km.

c. 5 km.

97. The Tokyo convention Act 1975 extends to:

a. To all aircraft.

b. Whole of India.

c. To Indians registered aircrafts engaged in international flying.

98. Control is established at confluence of ATS route in vicinity of one or move aerodrome.

a. Airway control area.

b. Aerodrome traffic area.

c. Terminal Control area.

d. Control zone.

99. The change in average TAS between reporting points from TAS files in the flight plan to be informed to ATC
in it changes by more than ………. Of filed TAS:

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a. ± 20%

b. ± 7%

c. ± 5%

d. 10%

100. Threshold is:

a. The beginning of runway where aircraft line up for take off.

b. The beginning of that position of runway suitable for landing.

c. The intersection with a taxi track where aircraft hold position before beginning cleared to enter
runway.

101. The objective of preventing collisions between the aircraft is accomplished by

a. Air Traffic Control Service.

b. Flight information Service.

c. Alerting Service.

102. When a LIGHT aircraft in landing behind a HEAVY aircraft wake turbulence separation minima Applied
should be:

a. 3 mins.

b. 1 mins.

c. 2 mins.

103. Aeronautical information is temporary nature and of direct operational significance is notified be means
of.

a. NOTAM.

b. AIP.

c. AIC.

104. Information on unservicabilities of aeronautical facilities likely to last more than two hours is contained in
NOTAM of:

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a. G series.

b. B Series.

c. A Series.

105. Air Defence clearance shall be valid:

a. Irrespective of delay in departure.

b. From aerodrome of departure upto destination irrespective of number of ADIZ it is transiting through.

c. In one ADIZ only.

106. ATS routes available exclusively for use by domestic operations are with.

a. Whisky designators.

b. Romeo designators.

c. Bravo designators.

107. The minimum rest period for flight crew in a day shall be:

a. 8 hrs irrespective of the flight time.

b. Twice the flight time performed.

c. 24 hrs from the last landing time.

d. 16 hrs.

108. Any there information to be provided under section 3 for position Reporting at compulsory Met reporting
are:

a. Aircraft icing spot winds, clouds above.

b. Air temperature, visibility, cabin temperature.

c. Turbulence, aircraft icing, Air temperature.

109. ATC provides the following services.

a. Advice.

b. Search & Rescue.

c. Control.

d. All the above.

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110. A cockpit voice Recorder must in use from:

a. From the time the captain starts talking recording flight in the cockpit.

b. The time Radio in switched on for communication.

c. The time engines are started for flight to switching off after landing.

d. From of take off run to and of landing run.

111. Which of the following has collision risk

a. Red light on port.

b. Red on star board.

c. Green light on your star board.

d. White on star board.

112. The highest point on the aerodrome area to:

a. Aerodrome Reference point (ARP).

b. Center Circle of Runway.

c. Threshold elevation.

d. Apron elevation.

113. Special VFR flights cannot be authorized by ATC is ground visibility is less than

a. 0.8 nm.

b. 1.0 nm.

c. 1.5 nm.

d. 1.5 km.

114. The area around with in a radius of 10 kms from Mathura Refinery is:

a. Danger area.

b. Restricted area.

c. Prohibited area.

d. Flight can be over flown.

115. The certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft:

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a. Is involved in an accident / incident.

b. Is involved in a serious violation of the rules specified in the aircraft rules.

c. Is modified or repaired with out the constant of the DGCA.

116. In which class of airspace all flights are subjects to air traffic control services:

a. A & C.

b. B Only.

c. C Only.

d. D.

117. To bring into India, dead body of a person who has died of cholera:

a. Is permitted, provided the body is in a properly sealed wooden box.

b. Is permitted, provided the dead body is enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc or Tin,
enclosed in a wooden box.

c. Is permitted, provided the health officer of aerodrome of landing is informed.

d. Is not permitted.

118. The vertical separation of two aircrafts flying on reciprocal tracks, above flight level 290 is.

a. 2000 ft.

b. 4000 ft

c. 1000 ft.

d. Two aircraft can not be a reciprocal track.

119. The wreckage of an aircraft crashed on runways:

a. Can be disturbed only to extricate person‟s dead pr alive.

b. Can be shifted after taking photographs of the original position of the aircraft.

c. Can be shifted to the extant to allow movements of aircraft on that runway.

d. Cannot be shifted at all.

120. During the fuelling operations smoking shall not be permitted with in:

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a. 15 mats.

b. 25 mts.

c. 30 mts.

d. 50 mts.

121. An incident should be notified to DGCA with in:

a. Immediately by mean of any available communication.

b. 12 hrs.

c. 24 hrs. of the time it has taken place.

d. Within 48 hrs.

122. The star board Navigation light of an aircraft is visible through:

a. 140o from straight ahead to left.

b. 140o from straight ahead to right.

c. 110o from straight ahead to left.

d. 110o from straight ahead to right.

123. At controlled aerodrome a VFR flight shall not operate the ceiling is less than:

a. 2500 ft.

b. 1500 ft.

c. 1000 ft.

124. ATS unit which controls aircraft in control area:

a. Aerodrome control.

b. Radar control.

c. Approach control.

d. Area control.

125. Safe separation time per light or medium aircraft to take off behind heavy aircraft light aircraft behind a
medium aircraft:

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a. 1 mins.

b. 2 mins.

c. 3 mins.

d. 5 mins.

126. In mountainous area the minima altitude for an IFR flight shall be:

a. 2000 ft above obstacle with is 8 km.

b. 2000 ft above obstacle with is 5 km.

c. 1000 ft above obstacle with is 8 km.

127. If an aircraft in flight observe shells fired, it means

a. It is a crashed site

b. The aircraft is entering a restricted area

c. The Aircraft is violating international airspace

128. At flight plan should be amended at a new one submitted is a scheduled flight is delayed beyond.

a. One hour.

b. Two hours.

c. 30 minutes.

129. Throughout the the Indian FIRs semi – circular system of cursing shall be used at and above.

a. FL 290.

b. FL 150.

c. FL 180.

d. FL 250.

130. No prisoner shall be taken abroad or carried on an aircraft except.

a. When accompanied by an armed guard.

b. With permission in writing from the DGCA.

c. With permission in writing from the District Magistrate.

d. With permission in writing from state Government.

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131. An aircraft in flight singling to an aerodrome that it is compelled to land does so using.

a. A continuous green or green flashes or a green pyrotechnic light.

b. White pyrotechnic lights or switching or an off navigation light, or switching on and off landing lights
or white flashes.

c. A red pyrotechnic light or red flare.

d. Red and green pyrotechnic light alternatively.

132. If the passenger arrives at Bombay Airport from any foreign country affected with yellow fever, the
period of incubation is:

a. Six days.

b. Fourteen days.

c. Eight days.

133. The holder of PPL cannot fly IFR unless

a. Specifically permitted by DGCA

b. Specifically permitted by control tower

c. He has instrument rating

d. He has R/T on board.

134. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of …………. degrees

a. 70

b. 140

c. 110

d. 220

135. A prohibited area means an area over which

a. Flight within 2 miles is prohibited.

b. Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited

c. Low flying a prohibited

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d. Only instrument flying practice can be done

136. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown;

a. At any time

b. During hours of night

c. Without permission of aerodrome officer

d. Without permission from the DGCA.

137. The holder of a private pilot‟s license can fly any aircraft

a. Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs.

b. Provided its all up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. And the pilot has completed at least 40
hours of flying time.

c. Provided the owner has no objection.

d. Which is endorsed on his license.

138. For the issue of Private Pilot‟s License, the total flight time required is

a. 100 hours out of which 40 hours will be solo.

b. 40 hours out of which 20 hours will be solo

c. 20 hours out of which 10 hours will be solo

d. 5 hours within preceding 12 months

139 An aircraft should be refueled;

a. Inside a hanger

b. Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions

c. In the open

d. Wherever adequate facility exists

140. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:

a. Seating capacity of the aircraft

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b. Number of passengers on board the aircraft.

c. All-up weight of the aircraft.

d. No charges if free passengers are carried.

141. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:

a. Provided the owner has no objective.

b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.

c. Without restriction if no passengers are carried.

d. Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits.

142. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

a. If the sale deed is not yet completed.

b. For purpose of test flight only prior to purchase

c. If it is used for Govt. Work.

d. If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.

143. Who ever will fully flies an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any property
shall be punishable with

a. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to one
thousand rupees or with both.

b. Imprisonment upto three months and fine up to Rs. 1000/- or both

c. Imprisonment up to three months and fine upto Rs. 500/- or both

d. Imprisonment up to two years and fine upto Rs. 1000/- or both

144 The minimum age for issue of CPL is --------- yrs.

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a. 17

b. 18

c. 19

d. 20

145 The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:

a. 6 hrs before commencement of flight.

b. 12 hrs before commencement of flight

c. 24 hrs before commencement of flight

d. 36 hrs before commencement of flight

146 photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from

a. Aerodrome office

b. DGCA

c. Central Govt.

d. Indian Air force

147 A PPL holder can fly an aircraft at night provided he has completed

a. 10 landings & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 6 months.

b. 5 landings & 5 T/O at nigh within preceding 6 months

c. 5 landings & 5 T/O at night within preceding 12 months.

d. 10 landings & T/O at night within preceding 12 months

148 If PPL holder is 30 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of ……… yrs.

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a. One

b. 10

c. Two

d. 4

149 While refueling is in progress, on naked light be brought within ……….. mts.

a. 35

b. 30

c. 100

d. 15

150 An a/c flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by

a. State Govt.

b. Municipal Corporation

c. Owner of the property over which it is flying

d. Cannot be sued.

151 ICAO stands for

a. International Convention on Air Organisation.

b. International Civil Aviation Organisation

c. International Civil Airport Organisation

d. Indian Civil Aircraft Organisation

152. A person can bring upto India human remains of a person died of plague

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a. If enclosed in a wooden box

b. If enclosed in a shell of zinc

c. If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission is obtained from proper
authority.

d. Cannot bring them

153. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a. May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.

b. May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of the
aircraft.

c. Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.

154. Aircraft intending to fly in formation

a. Cannot fly.

b. Can fly during daytime

c. Can fly with permission for DGCA

d. Can fly with prior arrangement.

155. The “Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft:

a. Is involved in an accident/incident

b. Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.

c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.

d. In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.

156. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is

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a. One pilot

b. Two pilots

c. As specified in if certificate of the Airworthiness.

d. The flight instructor along with private pilot.

157. If navigational lights fail at night then:

a. Land as soon as possible without endangering the safety of the aircraft.

b. Fly to destination

c. Return to departure aerodrome.

d. Continue flying

158. Aircraft met with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be remove

a. For smooth flow of air traffic.

b. For removing a dead body or injured person

c. After taking photographs.

d. Both (a) and (b) are correct

159. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if;

a. Packed in a wooden box

b. Cannot be brought

c. Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell, joints sealed, shell enclosed in a
teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust impregnated with
carbolic powder.

d. Permitted by the DGCA.

160. FDTL for 2 crew international flights is ______ hrs and _______ landing.

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a. 10 hrs and 3 landings.

b. Three hrs and 9 landings.

c. 9 hrs and 3 landings.

d. 8 hrs and 3 landings.

161. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is _______ hrs

a. 200

b. 900

c. 1200

d. 1000

162. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC‟s action
is:

a. To land immediately.

b. To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.

c. To inform DGCA.

d. To inform doctor on board.

163. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of

a. Aerodrome

b. Local District Magistrate.

c. Operator.

d. DGCA

164. Mathura Refinery is a

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a. Danger Area

b. Restricted area

c. Prohibited area

d. Terminal area.

165. A flight which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over:

a. Populated areas

b. Indian Air Space

c. Europe

d. High seas

166. The incubation period of relapsing fever is ______ days

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 10

167. Incubation period of yellow fever is ______ days

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 9

168. No authorized person must be presented within ______ mts of a/c while refueling is on:

a. 15

b. 30

c. 50

d. 10
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169. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ________ NM and no Nav aid is present with in
______ Nm of route

a. 300 NM. 600 NM

b. 600 NM. 60 NM

c. 600 NM. 30 NM

d. 300 NM. 60 NM

170. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC‟s is ____%

a. 50

b. 80

c. 60

d. 100

171 An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in ________ hrs.

a. 12

b. 24

c. 48

d. 60

172. An Air miss incidence report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in ______ days

a. 2

b. 4

c. 7

d. 10

173. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than _____ years after completion.

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a. 1

b. 3

c. 5

d. 2

174. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in _____ NM of International Border.

a. 15 km

b. 5 NM

c. 10 NM

d. 15 NM

175. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers number of cabin attendants required is
_______

a. 6

b. 5

c. 4

d. 7

176. Incubation period for typhus is _______ days

a. 7

b. 5

c. 10

d. 14

177. Penalty for flying over prohibited areas is:

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a. Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months

b. Fine upto Rs. 1000

c. Imprisonment for a term up to 3 months, or with fine up to Rs. 1000 or both.

d. Imprisonment up to 2 months or fine up to Rs. 500 or will both.

178. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery

a. With in a radius of 1 NM

b. With in a radius of 10 km

c. With in a radius of 20 kn

d. With in a radius of 10 Nms

179. The route navigation charges are on the basis of

a. AUW

b. Length of aircraft

c. No. of Nav Aids used

d. No. of passengers

180. The aircraft rules 1937 can be amended by

a. DGCA

b. Govt of India

c. CAR

d. AIP

181. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable which exceeds ______ lts

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a. 1000

b. 900

c. 1500

d. 500

182. The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in the year

a. 1934

b. 1937

c. 1994

d. 1954

183. In class A airspace

a. all flights are permitted.

b. only VFR flights are permitted.

c. only IFR flights are permitted.

d. SPL VFR flights are permitted.

184. In class D airspace

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control

b. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR flights

c. VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights

d. all are correct

185. Route guides are required to be carried in

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a. all aircraft

b. all private aircraft

c. aircraft involved in scheduled transport services

d. all aircraft engaged in aerial work

186. ADC clearance is required to be obtained

a. on a cross country flight

b. for all aircraft operating within ADIZ

c. When returning to base on the same day

d. It is not required when returning to base on the same day

187. Pilots log book is to be preserved for

a. 5 years from the date of starting the log book

b. 5 years from the date of last entry

c. 3 yrs from the date of last entry

d. 10 yrs from the date of last entry

188. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate

a. area not fit for the use of aircraft

b. gliding in progress

c. take permission before landing

d. prohibited area

189. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for

a. 2 years

b. 1 year

c. 1 year if age is less than 40 years

d. 2 years if the age is less than 40 years

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190. Letter „W‟ in ATS Route designator indicates:

a. Domestic routes

b. International routes

c. Regional routes

d. None of the above

191. Position report is required to be given when

a. crossing an FIR

b. over a compulsory reporting point

c. if so required by ATC

d. all are correct

192. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a. Aeradio

b. AIP

c. Notams

d. AIRACs

193. The highest point on the landing area is called

a. Aerodrome elevation

b. Runway elevation

c. ARP – Aerodrome Reference Point

d. Threshold elevation

194. Anti-collision light is a light

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a. Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower

b. A red light on the port wing of the aircraft

c. A red light visible 30 deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all
directions

d. The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights

195. Operational Manual is

a. Prepared by the manufacturer and authorized by operator

b. Prepared by the DGCA and authorized operator

c. Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer

d. Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA

196. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter reads 12000 it.
The commander will reports his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of

a. 12000 Altitude

b. F 120

c. 12000 a.g.l.

d. 12000 amsl

197. An aircraft is following a track of 179o (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels available to the pilot
are

a. 50, 70, 90, 150, 170, 190, 210, 230, 250, 270, 290,

b. 55, 75, 95, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275, 295

c. 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 160, 180, 200, 220, 240, 260, 280,

d. 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275

198. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means

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a. Do not land for the time being

b. Landing Prohibited

c. Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only

d. Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the Maneuvering
area.

199. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the DGCA for an airport
for Non Precession approach is:

a. 1500

b. 1500 meters

c. 5 Nm

d. 3.7 km.

200. Above F 290, the minimum vertical separation between IFR flt tracks in areas other than RVSM area is

a. 500

b. 1000

c. 2000

d. 4000

201. Aerodrome operation minima is given by

a. DGCA

b. Operator

c. Operator & is approved by DGCA

d. India Met Department

202. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for _______

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a. 1 yr

b. 6 months

c. 2 yrs

d. 5 yrs.

203. Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks in RVSM
area is

a. 1000 feet upto F410

b. 2000 feet upto F410

c. 4000 feet upto F460

d. 5000 feet upto F460

204. The wreekage of crashed aircraft on R/W can be removed to

a. extricate dead animals & persons

b. extricated animals & persons, dead or alive

c. permit movement of other aircraft

d. All of the above are correct

205. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again

a. with the permission of DGCA

b. without the permission of controller of Aerodrome

c. with the permission of nearest aerodrome control tower

d. Matter is to be reported to DGCA as an incident

206. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft is

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a. 2 minutes

b. 3 minutes

c. 5 minutes

d. None of the above

207. All flights above _______ flight level are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather conditions

a. F 280

b. F 150

c. F 140

d. F 100

208. The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called a.
Alerting service

b. Flight information service

c. Air traffic control service

d. Air traffic Advisory service

209. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

a. AIP

b. AIC

c. NOTAM

d. AIRAC

210. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is

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a. 460

b. 450

c. 440

d. 400

211. The duty time of the trainee pilot

a. is calculated as per the FDTL

b. is not affected by FDTL

c. is the time calculated from take off to landing

d. is from “ chokes off” time to “ chokes on” time

212. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for endorsement on his
licence

a. With in 5 nm of an aerodrome

b. With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome

c. Any where

d. Cannot fly

213. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

a. 100 hrs PIC 50 hrs as Co pilot

b. 100 hrs PIC 30 hrs as Co pilot

c. 120 hrs PIC 20 hrs as Co pilot

d. 120 hrs PIC 10 hrs as Co pilot

214. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with in a
distance of

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a. 15 meters

b. 30 meters

c. 43 meters

d. 45 meters

215. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 6000 feet

a. Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome

b. Beyond 2 nm of perimeter of aerodrome

c. Beyond 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome

d. Beyond perimeter of aerodrome

216. The FDR has record of operation of preceding

a. 25 hours

b. 20 hours.

c. 15 hours.

d. 10 hours.

217. The CVR has the capability of recording information

a. One hour or more

b. At least 30 minutes

c. At least 15 mins

d. There is no minimum limit

218. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to

a. Monitor the performance of the aircraft

b. help an accident investigation

c. Both are correct

d. Non of the above

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219. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to

a. Monitor the performance of the aircraft

b. Help an accident investigation

c. Both are correct

d. Non of the above

220. The most effective way to use eyes at night is

a. Focus only at dim lights at a distance

b. Flutter eyes rapidly

c. Scan slowly to center off vision

d. Focus only on bright lights.

221. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and / or met report is called

a. Met report

b. Position report

c. Air report

d. All of the above

222. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference, On SSR you should to set

a. mode a code 7500

b. mode A code 7600

c. mode A code 7700

d. mode C code 7500

223. ADC is not required

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a. Local flying area up to 2000

b. Within 5 nm of an aerodrome up to 1000

c. Aerodrome Traffic zone up to 1000

d. Below 5000‟ AMSL anywhere

224. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

a. Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence

b. Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above

c. Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence

d. ETA Destination

225. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than

a. one hour

b. 30 minutes

c. 15 mins

d. 5 mins

226. The designators of world wide ATS routes are in which colour

a. White

b. Red & Green

c. Red, Green, Blue & Amber

d. Red, Green, Blue Amber & White

227. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy aircraft is

a. 2 minutes.

b. 3 minutes

c. 5 minutes

d. not required.
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228. The air report contains following items

a. Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing

b. Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature

c. Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing

d. All are correct

229. An aircraft can fly over a danger area

a. If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active

b. With the permission of ATC

c. Out side the stipulated time

d. Cannot fly at all

230. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

a. Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet

b. Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet

c. Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet

d. Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet

231. A series of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means

a. aircraft is flying over danger area

b. aircraft is flying over prohibited area

c. aircraft is flying over restricted area

d. All of the above are correct

232. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in IMC It should fly according to

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a. Semicircular system

b. Quadrantal system

c. IFR levels

d. QNH Setting

233. AIP India is published by

a. DGCA

b. AAI

c. Civil Aviation Ministry

d. ICAO

234. AIP consists of

a. 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD)

b. 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET)

c. 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, CONN, ATC)

d. 2 parts (GEN, AD)

235. Regular amendments of the AIP will be

a. Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year

b. Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July, and Oct. month of each year.

c. Once every year in the month of April of each year.

d. On as required basis

236. In aircraft operating an international flight, over flying Indian territory is subjected to

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a. Current Indian regulation to civil aviation

b. Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the states of its registry

c. Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the nation of the commander of the flight

d. ICAO Regulations

237. Which of the following regulation is not subjected to an Aircraft flying over Indian territory

a. The Aircraft Act: 1934, the Aircraft Rules: 1937, the Anti-Hijacking Act: 1982

b. The India Aircraft rules: 1920, the aircraft ( Public health) rules: 1954, the Tokyo convention Act:
1975

c. Indian civil laws

d. Carriage of dangerous good rules 2003

238. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in possession of valid
yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:

a. Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of the passenger

b. No action required

c. Inform Airlines office after landing

d. Inform health authorities of the place of departure

239. Sunrise time of an Airport in calculated for an altitude of the Sun

a. 60 below the horizon

b. 00 at the horizon

c. 80 below the horizon

d. 120 below the horizon

240. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India

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a. Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas

b. Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control areas.

c. Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs/ATS rute

d. Class G Airspace is applicable to airspace other than D,E and F

241. Which of following countries are not covered by Indian satellite Aided SAR programme

a. Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius and Seychelles

b. Bhutan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanamar

c. Oman, Pakistan and U.A.E.

d. Srilanka, Nepal andThailand

242. Base leg is reported by the aircraft

a. On completion of the turn on to Base leg

b. On commencement of the turn on to Base leg

c. On abeam position, the upwind of the rwy

d. At the end of downward

243. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at _________ from the approach end of the rwy

a. 8 NMs

b. 4 NMs

c. 10 NMs

d. 2 NMs

244. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported as

a. An accident

b. An incident

c. Not reportable

d. An Air Report
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245. A pilot should never cross a

a. Stop bar which is switched off

b. Stop bar which is lighted

c. A taxy holding position marking

d. An intermediate holding position marking

246. FDTL for training flights does not restrict

a. Flight Time

b. Flight Duty Time

c. Number of landings

d. All of the above

247. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach to land will be

a. Same as day

b. Descend will be steep

c. Speed will be more

d. Landing distance will be more

248. Decision Altitude is applicable for

a. Non Precision Approaches

b. PAPI Approaches

c. Precision Approaches

d. All of the above

249. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of

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a. DGCA

b. Controller of Aerodrome

c. Director General of Prisons

d. Police Commissioner

250. Flight time/ flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to

a. Pilots only

b. Pilots and cabin crews only

c. P-i-C and Co-Pilot only

d. all flight crew personnel

251. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:

a. Dizziness

b. Fear

c. Hot and Cold Sensations

d. Disorientation

252. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in

a. AIRAC

b. AICs

c. AIP

d. ICAO Annexures

253. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into

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a. AIRAC

b. AICs

c. AIP

d. Notams

254. „ATIS‟ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

a. ATS information

b. ATS and Met information

c. Navigation Information

d. Traffic Information

255. Flight Mannual is to be carried by

a. All aircraft

b. Scheduled aircraft only

c. If C of a states so

d. All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft

256. An aircraft is on a track of 0300 (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F 370. Other aircraft at F
370 on a track of 1000 (M) can cross the same point not earlier than

a. 0422 hrs

b. 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster

c. 0427 hrs

d. 0402 hrs

257. An ac at F 390 is estimating to cross a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F 310. There is reciprocal
traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300 hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the descending aircraft
should reach F 310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?

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a. 0215 hrs.

b. 0220 hrs.

c. 0225 hrs.

d. 0250 hrs.

258 OCA is used for determination of

a. MDA

b. DA

c. Both MDA and DA

d. None of the above

259. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

a. 0090 and 270 true

b. 0900 and 2700 true

c. 0900 and 2700 magnetic

d. 0900 and 2700 compass

260. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines the pilot

a. may continue taxiing

b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

d. continue taxiing if runway is vacant

261. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately

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a. 0080 and 260 true

b. 0800 and 2600 true

c. 0080 and 2600 magnetic

d. 0080 and 26o0 compass

262. What is the purpose of the runway/ runway hold position sign?

a. Denotes enterance to runway from a taxiway

b. Denotes and protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway

c. Denotes intersecting runways

d. Denotes intersecting taxiways

263. An airport‟s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a. there are obstructions on the airport

b. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is belfow basic VFR weather minimum

c. the Air traffic Control is not in operation

d. runway is blocked

264. Wingtip valves are created only when an aircraft is

a. opta high airspeeds

b. heavily speed

c. develop lift

d. taxiing

265. Wing tip valves created by large aircraft tend to

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a. sink below it aircraft generating turbulence

b. rise in traffic pattern

c. fireinfort takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway

d. risetow dy engines of the aircraft

266. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

a. Inward, upward, and around each tip

b. Inward, upward and counterclockwise

c. Outward, upward and around each tip

d. Outward, upward and away from each tip

267. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the
hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

a. rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path

b. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport

c. Sink into the flightpath of aircraft generating the turbulence

d. Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions

268. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

a. light dirty and fast

b. heavy dirty and fast

c. heavy clean and slow

d. light clean and slow

269. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

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a. light entry headwind

b. light entry tail wind

c. string head wind

d. string tail wind

270. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the
aircraft

a. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft

b. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

c. below are upwind from the heavy aircraft

d. above are downwind from the heavy aircraft

271. When land up behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

a. above the large aircraft‟s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft …….. down
point

b. below the large aircraft‟s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft‟s
touchdown point

c. above there are aircraft‟s final approach path and landing before the large aircrafts touch
down point.

272. ………. Behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for

a. final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown

b. to one side of its final approach flightpath

c. its final approach flightpath

d. approach and land

273. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

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a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left

b. The other aircraft is flying away from you

c. The other aircraft is approaching to the right

d. The other aircraft is coming head on

274. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude, What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft

a. The other aircraft is flying away from you

b. The other ……. Is crossing to the left

c. The other …….. is crossing to the right

d. The other…….. is approaching headon

275. During ……….. you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude ……… is the
general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a. The is crossing to the left

b. The is flying away from you

c. The is approaching head-on

d. The is crossing to the right

276. The ………… method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during ………is to use

a. ………… concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-0‟ clock positions

b. ………………. regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10- degree sector

c. ……………… scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

d. ………………..objects for 30 secs.

277. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night that hours is
to use

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a. concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-0‟ clock positions

b. regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degrees sector

c. scanning small sectors and utilizing officenter viewing

d. objects for 30 secs

278. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft

a. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

b. The rose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

c. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

d. The ……… nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft

279. Pric… starting each maneuver, pilots should

a. check altitude, airspeed, and heading

b. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

c. announcae their intentions to the nearest ATC

d. tighean seat belt

280. Most midair collision accidents occur during

a. hazy day

b. clear day

c. cloudy nights

d. dark nights

281. After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contract ground control?

a. When advised by the tower to do so

b. Prior to turning off the runway

c. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area

d. On final approach
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282. If constructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 09, the pilot may proceed

a. Via taxiwess and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 09

b. to the next …………. Runway where further clearance is required

c. Via taxiways and across runways to Runway 09, where an immediate takeoff may be in

d. via taxi to runways 09 up to line up point

283. Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of

a. 800 hpa

b. 700 hpa

c. 620 hpa

d. 1000 hpa

284. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information
concerning

a. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an

obstruction

b. non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion

c. non-control information in selected high- activity terminal areas

d. to warn pilots about conflicting traffic

285. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling,
the light will be

a. flashing red

b. steady red

c. alternating red and green

d. steady white
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286. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

a. Flashing green

b. Steady green

c. Flashing white

d. Steady Red

287. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal
to

a. hold position

b. extreme caution

c. not land the airport is unsafe

d. Return to Apron

288. If the aircraft‟s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

a. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

b. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings

c. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport

d. Rock wings

289. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz

b. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

c. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz

d. 118.1 and 123.0 MHz

290. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

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a. The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation

b. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport

c. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport

d. QFE

291. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the
altimeter?

a. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level

b. The elevation of the departure area

c. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

d. QNE

292. 620 hpa absolute pressure is equal to

a. 10,000

b. 13,000

c. 15,000

d. 25,000

293. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under IFR at night for a propeller driven aircraft?

a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions

b. Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal
cruising speed.

c. Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to fly after that for 45
minutes

d. On as required basis

294. Taking simple medicine like „aspirin‟ prior to flight

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a. is safe

b. may slightly effect co-ordination

c. may reduce blood circulation

d. may seriously impair judgement

295. What is lowest altitude permitted for aerobatic flight?

a. 1,000 feet AGL

b. 1,500 feet AGL

c. 2,000 feet AGL

d. 6,000 feet AGL

296. No person may operate an aircraft in flight when

a. flight visibility is less than 5 kms

b. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement below 1000

c. less than 2,500 feet AGL

d. Less than 3,000 AGL

297. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of
the

a. pilot in command

b. owner or operator

c. mechanic who performs the work

d. Chief Engineer

298. Which statement best defines hypoxia?

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a. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

b. An abnormal increase in the volume of air

c. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles

d. Illusions during daytime

299. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as

a. hyperventilation

b. aerosinusitis

c. aerotitis

d. hypoxia

300. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear

b. The excessive consumption of alcohol

c. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen

d. Lack of sleep

301. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

a. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane

b. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud

c. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation

d. flying without looking at instruments

302. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

a. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear

b. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude

c. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments

d. adequate rest is not taken prior to flight

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303. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to
overcome the effect is to

a. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications

b. concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations

c. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate

d. ignore instruments and go by visual indications

304. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various
sensory organs is defined as

a. spatial disorientation

b. hyperventilation

c. hypoxia

d. stress

305. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

a. shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel

b. having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs

c. leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft

d. breathing into a bag

306. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

a. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

b. Concentration on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area

c. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

d. Scan through the corner of the eyes

307. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

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a. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity

b. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily

c. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

d. Objects appear to be closer than their actual distance

308. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

a. Do not stress eyes after sunset until ready for flight

b. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

c. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

d. Avoid any light atleast 30 mins before the flight.

309. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight

a. Look only at far away, dim lights

b. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing

c. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds

d. Scan fast to avoid direct viewing

310. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

a. look to the side of the object and scan slowly

b. scan the visual field very rapidly

c. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly

d. look for anti collision lights

311. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

a. tightness across the forehead

b. loss of muscular power

c. an increased sense of well-being

d. lack of oxygen in blood stream

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312. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

a. altitude increases

b. altitude decreases

c. air pressure increases

d. above 10,000 ft.

313. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual
Flight Rules (VFR)

a. Continual flight into instrument conditions

b. Getting behind the aircraft

c. Duck-under syndrome

d. Continual flight into good weather conditions

314. What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

a. Structural failure

b. Mechanical malfunction

c. Human error

d. Special disorientation

315. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions

a. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain

b. Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream

c. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles

d. Lack of Hemoglobin in blood

316. What causes hypoxia

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a. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

b. An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitude

c. A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure

d. Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the atmosphere

317. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases

a. The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased

b. The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased

c. Oxygen partial pressure is decreased

d. The percentage of CO2

318. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning

a. Rapid shallow breathing

b. Pain & cramping of the hands & feet

c. Dizziness

d. Laziness

319. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on the function of body

a. Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases

b. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision making ability

c. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee

d. Alcohol has no effect if taken more than 6 hrs before flight

320. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?

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a. Tingling of the hands & feet

b. Increased vision keenness

c. Decreased breathing rate

d. Euphoria

321. What would most likely occur in hyperventilation

a. A stressful situation causing anxiety

b. The excessive consumption of alcohol

c. An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen

d. Dizziness

322. Scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute

a. Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat

b. 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat

c. Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is
unnecessary

d. Continuously looking outside

323. Small amounts of alcohol in the system

a. may affect decision making abilities

b. will not affect judgment

c. will not have effect at sea level

d. can be cured by meditation

324. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance

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a. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed

b. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed

c. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is increasing in size
rapidly

d. Non of the above

325. When using earth‟s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other aircraft most
concern would be for aircraft

a. Above the horizon & increasing in size

b. On the horizon with little relative movement

c. on the horizon & increasing in size

d. On the horizon & decreasing in size

326. When making an approach on narrow than usual runway without VASI assistance, the pilot should be
aware that the approach

a. Altitude may be higher than it appears

b. Approach altitude may be lower than it appears

c. May result in leveling off too high & landing hard

d. May result in an overshooting approach

327. When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow pilot should be
aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be

a. High

b. Low

c. Shallow

d. Normal

328. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is

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a. Closer to the runway than it actually is

b. Farther from the runway than actually is

c. The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility

d. High on approach

329. A sudden penetration of fog can give an illusion of

a. Pitching up

b. Pitching down

c. Leveling off

d. Descending

330. Rain on the wind screen can cause what illusion

a. No illusion

b. Lower than usual

c. Higher than usual

d. Normal approach

331. The FDTL may be extended by

a. DGCA

b. Operator

c. PIC

d. Central Govt.

332. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is

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a. 4 hrs.

b. 2 hrs.

c. 6 hrs.

d. 8 hrs.

333. The definition a “ reporting point” is “ specified geographical location …..”

a. at which the position of the aircraft must be reported?

b. in relation to which the position of the aircraft must be reported?

c. at which the position of the aircraft can be reported?

d. in relation to which the position of the aircraft can be reported?

334. The visibility reqd. when flying at ( or) below 3000 in a controlled airspace

a. 5 kms

b. 8 kms

c. 10 kms

d. 3 kms

335. The lateral separation reqd. if an A/C is holding at a level

a. 10 NMs

b. 10 mins

c. 5 mins

d. 20 Nms

336. Threshold lights are

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a. Red

b. Green

c. Yellow

d. Alternate Red & Green

337. The 3rd section of an air report contains

a. ETA

b. Met Info

c. ATS Info

d. Position Info

338. Crossing of an ATS route should be at angle of

a. 600

b. 900

c. 450

d. 300

339. Information about facilities on an aerodrome is found in

a. AICs

b. NOTAMs

c. AIRAC

d. AIP

340. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable, which exceeds

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a. 1000 lts

b. 900 lts

c. 1500 lts

d. 500 lts

341. Control Zone is from

a. Surface of earth to a specified upper limit

b. 5000 to unlimited

c. Atleast 700

d. None of the above

342. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day

a. Switching on/off Nav lights

b. Rocking Wings

c. Flickering Anti-collision lights

d. Flying low

343. Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above

a. 1500 kg

b. 15000 kg.

c. 5700 kgs

d. all ac rudder

344. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by

a. 5 mins

b. 3 mins

c. 10 mins

d. 2 mins
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345. Night flying hours can be logged between _______ mins after sunset to ________ mins before sunrise

a. 20 mins

b. 45 mins

c. 1 hrs

d. 15 mins

346. Runway direction is measured from

a. Truth North

b. Compass North

c. Magnetic North

d. North Pole

347. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across throat indicates

A. Stop.

b. Cut Engines

c. Continue straight

d. Turn Off

348. If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000 outside controlled airspace then it will fly at ______

a. Altitude

b. RVSM levels

c. climb / cruise level

d. Above minimum flight altitude

349. Red pyrotechnical light to A/C in flight indicates

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a. Not with standing any previous instruction, do not land for the time being

b. Proceed to alternate

c. Keep circling

d. Total refusal to land

350. The Min. Separation above F 290 is:

a. 2000‟

b. 3000‟

c. 4000‟

d. 5000‟

351. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is

a. 15 NMs

b. 15 Mins

c. 20 NMs

d. 5 Mins

352. Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of _____ hrs.

a. 3 hrs.

b. 24 hrs

c. 25 hrs

d. 12 hrs

353. The alert phase starts when an A/C cleared to land fails to land within _______ of estimated time of
landing

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a. 3 mins

b. 2 mins

c. 5 mins

d. 10 mins

354. No smoking shall be permitted within ______ mtrs of A/C (or) fueling equipment

a. 15 mtrs

b. 10 mts

c. 30 mts.

d. 50 mts.

355. What is defined as “A unit established to provide flight information and alerting service”?

a. Air Traffic Service Unit

b. Aeronautical Service

c. Area Control Service

d. Flight Information Centre

356. In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR traffic, but relies
on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from all other traffic?

a. Class B

b. Class C

c. Class D

d. Class E

357. The aerodrome reference code is referred to in Annex 14 and other ICAO documents. What is the
purpose of the code?

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a. To describe the rescue and firefighting facilities at the aerodrome

b. To describe the expected weather factor at the aerodrome

c. To describe the type of aircraft the aerodrome is intented to serve

d. To describe the length of the primary runway at the aerodrome

358. To which of the following must the pilot of a helicopter give way if it is on a converging course with him
and there is a risk of collision?

a. A balloon only

b. A glider or a ballon

c. A glider, a balloon or an airship

d. A glider, a balloon, an airship or an aeroplane towing a glider

359. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

a. A white capital T land along the stem towards the crosspiece

b. An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast

c. A white or orange capital T land along the stem towards the crospiece

d. An orange wedge shape in 3dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge

360. How would you regonise an aiming point marking on a runway?

a. 2 Thick yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.

b. 2 Thick white lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.

c. 2 pairs of yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.

d. 2 pairs yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.

361. On a normal aerodrome, what colour should apron safety lines be painted?

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a. White

b. Yellow

c. Any colour which contrasts with surface

d. Any Colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings

362. What colour are (i) taxiway edge lights and (ii) runway edge lights?

a. i) yellow ii) white

b. i) green ii) white

c. i) blue ii) white

d. i) green ii) yellow

363. What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument approach
glideslope? Inboard means closer to the runway.

a. 3 white lights inboard of 1 red light

b. 3 red lights inboard of 1 white light

c. 1 white lights inboard of 1 red light

d. 1 red lights inboard of 3 white light

364. How can a pilot determine from a distance that an aerodrome sign contains mandatory instructions?

a. The writing will be red on a white background

b. The writing will be white on a red background

c. The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes

d. The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa

365. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

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a. With yellow and black marker boards

b. with red and white marker boards

c. With a white cross on the surface

d. With white chevrons on the surface

366. The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of collision.
Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?

a. Maintain heading speed, and altitude

b. Maintain heading, and altitude only

c. Maintain altitude speed only

d. Maintain heading and speed only

367. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation accident?

a. An engine distingrees but causes no further damage

b. A wingtip is broken …. In a collision

c. One passenger is stability by another

d. A passenger suffers second degree burns from a loose gallery kettle

368. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered a serious incident?

a. An engine disntegu …………. And prevents flap retraction

b. A passenger is take ……. With an infectious disease

c. The pilot takes av…………..to prevent a near collision

d. A crew member falls…………and breaks his leg

369. Which of the following currences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation accident?

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a. An extinguished ………….damages the engine oil system

b. One pilot is incapa ……… by food poisoning for 36 hours

c. An undercarriage …….. replacement after a heavy landing

d. An aborted take off 6 years

370. ICAO annex 2 lists the …. Of the Air. Where do they apply?

a. Over the high sea……..

b. Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of the state being over flown

c. Over the territory of signatory nations only

d. Everywhere

371. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in Class G airspeed at
a speed fo 120 knots and in sight of the surface?

a. 8000 meters

b. 5000 meters

c. 1500 meters

d. There is no min…

372. If pilot sees the symbol „X‟ during SAR operations, how can he tell the survivor that he understands the
message?

a. Fly low past the symbol turn away sharply

b. Rock wings

c. Fly in circle arounded symbol

d. Fly low past the climb steeply

373. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in Class D
airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?

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a. 1500 meters

b. 1800 meters

c. no minimum start…………vided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters

d. no minimum s ………………vided the aircraft is in sight of the surface

374. What is correctly de …………..“A situation where in apprension exits as to the safety of an aircraft and
its occupants?

a. The emergency phase

b. The uncertainty phase

c. The alert phase

d. The distress phase

375. What mode A transpmeans an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?

a. 7000

b. 7500

c. 7600

d. 7700

376. If navigation lights ……….of the pilot is

a. To continue to destin….

b. land at nearest aerodrome

c. Switch on obstruction lights

d. land at alternate

377. UTC means

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a. Universal Time Check

b. coordinated Universal Time

c. united Time Check

d. None of the above

378. IFR flight shall not be ………………. If the weather at destination and alternate is

a. Above minima

b.

c. below minima

d. IMC prevails

379. An A/C descending …………. The transition layer will report its height in

a. Flight levels

b. AM

c.

d. AGL

380. Publicity material ……………from an A/C if it has the permission of

a. DM/Commissioner ….

b. DGCA

c. Aerodrome officer

d. ICAO

381. If PIC of an a/c fly ……………… red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270 0 then the
action of pilot

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a. Turn Right

b. No. a

c. Turn left

d. Give way

382. Anti collision light …….. lights

a. Steady Red

b. Ro……

c. Flashing Red

d. Red & White

383. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

a. Gliders shall give way to helicopters

b. Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters

c. Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes

d. Gliders shall give way to balloons

384. When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall

a. back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off

b. taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance

c. taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.

d. complete the pre-take-off check before taxing onto the runway and taking off.

385. The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and /or imminent danger requiring immediate
assistance is

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a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN

c. SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY

d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY

386. Estimated elapsed time A to B 1 hr 15 minutes

Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes

Estimated elapsed time B to C 1 hr 20 minutes

Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “ Elapsed Time” BOX OF VFR flight plan?

a. 3 hrs 50 minutes

b. 3 hrs 20 minutes

c. 3 hrs 05 minutes

d. 2 hrs 35 minutes

Qus. No. 387 to 393 – If you see an aircraft light on a relative bearing given below, action by you will be

387- Red 250 deg a

388- Red 060 deg c

389- Green 290 deg d

390- White 340 deg c

391- Red and Green 000 deg c

392- Green & red 030 deg d

393- Green 340 deg d, c

a. No risk

b. Turn Port

c. Turn Starboard

d. Maintain heading
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394. Prohibited area around Malabar hill is _______

a. 1 NM

b. 1 Mile

c. 5 NMs

d. 1 Km

395. Incubation period of yellow fever is____ days

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 10

396. Separation between Medium A/C taking off behind heavy A/C (or) Light A/C taking off behind Medium
A/C is ____ min

a. 02 mins

b. 5 mins

c. 3 mins

d. 1 min

397. Longitudinal separation between two A/C on same track is ________ mins

a. 10

b. 15

c. 20

d. 5

398. A/C incident should be notified with in ______ hrs

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a. 24 hrs

b. 12 hrs

c. 48 hrs

d. 36 hrs

399. Indian Airspace comes under _______ class of airspace

a. A&B

b. D&E

c. A, B, C & D

d. D, E, F & G

400. No unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C, while refueling is on

a. 15 mts

b. 30 mts

c. 50 mts

d. 10 mts

401. An aircraft must fly ______ Nm away from International Border

a. !0 NMs

b. 15 NMs

c. 20 NMs

d. 25 NMs

402. VOR Track separation is _______

a. 150 at 30 NMs.

b. 150 at 20 NMs.

c. 150 at 15 NMs.

d. 150 at 10 NMs.
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403. Separation above F 290 is _______ upto F 410 _____ areas

a. 1000‟

b. 3000‟

c. 2000‟

d. 4000‟

404. FL 145 can be used:

a. by eastbound aircraft on IFR plan

b. by westbound aircraft on VFR plan

c. by eastbound aircraft on VFR plan

d. None of the above

405. In VMC the vertical distance from cloud base is

a. 1000‟

b. 2000‟

c. 500‟

d. 1.5 kms

406. Position report shall be made after every ______ in IMC, where no standard reporting points exist.

a. 15 Mins

b. 20 Mins

c. 30 Mins

d. 60 Mins

407. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by ______ minutes.

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a. 10 mins

b. 15 mins

c. 30 mins

d. 60 mins

408. In India separation between 1FR and IFR are provided in ______ class of Airspace

a. D

b. A&B

c. D&F

d. D, E f & G

409. TMA means

a. Terminal Maintenance Area

b. The main Apron

c. Terminal Control Area

d. None of the above

410. Displaced threshold lights will be in _____ colour

a. Red

b. Blue

c. Green

d. Yellow

411. Minimum obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain for an IFR light is

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a. 1000 in 5 Kms

b. 2000 in 8 Kms

c. 2000 in 5 kms

d. 1500

412. ______ Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan

a. S

b. N

c. ZZ

d. NS

413. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ______ NM and NAV-aid is present with in ___
Nm of route

a. 600 Nm/30 Nm

b. 300 Nm/30 Nms

c. 600 Nm/60 Nm

d. 300 Nm/60 Nm

414. The _____ % of co-pilot flying is counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC

a. 50%

b. 80%

c. 60%

d. 100%

415. 12 stripes of threshold markings indicate a rw width of

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a. 30 m

b. 45 m

c. 60 m

d. 24 m

416. 4 Pairs of touch down zone markings indicate landing distance available

a. 900 m

b. 1200 to 1500 m

c. 1500 m to 2399

d. 2400 m or more

417. The visibility minima for take off, it the aerodrome is not equipped with radio nav aid is ___km.

a. 8 kms.

b. 10 kms.

c. 5 kms.

d. 3.7 kms

418. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in

a. 12 hrs

b. 24 hrs

c. 48 hrs

d. 60 hrs

419. A signal made by radio-telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting of the group „XXX‟ in
Morse code indicates

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a. Distress

b. urgency

c. Radio failure

d. Priority

420. Taxiway Centre line lights shall be of the following colour

a. White

b. Red

c. Blue

d. Green

421. An Air-miss incident report made by radio ( or) telephone must be confirmed with in ___ days

a. 2

b. 4

c. 7

d. 10

422. A person holding ______ shall fly „ Aerial work Aircraft‟

a. PPL

b. CPL/ATLP

c. IR

d. Multi Engine Rating

423. „Flight by night means a flight performed between the period of

a. to 20 mins before sunrise from 20 mins after sunset

b. 15 mins before sunrise to 15 mins after sunset

c. 45 mins before sunrise to 45 mins after sunset

d. 60 mins before sunrise

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424 „RPL‟ shall be used for _______ flights only.

a. VFR Flts

b. Domestice flights

c. IFR Flts

d. International Flight

425. „Rockets (or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an aircraft indicate
_______

a. Urgency

b. Priority

c. Distress

d. Over flying danger area

426. Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence?

a. Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.

b. Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.

c. Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.

d. Response (a), (b), (c) are correct.

427. Wake turbulence is produced by

a. heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.

b. Turbo-jet powered aircraft only.

c. Fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.

d. all fixed and rotary wing aircraft.

428. A helicopter in forward flight produces hazardous vortices

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a. Which rise above the helicopter.

b. Similar to wing tip vortices.

c. Which remains at the same level as the helicopter.

d. ahead of the helicopter

429. Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by

a. red flags

b. horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals

c. a white or yellow X

d. white dumb- bells.

430. Runway direction designator is

a. QDM

b. QDR

c. QTE

d. QNH

431. Runway threshold lights are

a. Unidirectional red lights

b. Omni directional yellow lights

c. Unidirectional green lights

d. Omni directional blue lights

432. Anti collision light is reqd. for A/C whose AUW exceeds

a. 1500 Kg

b. 5700 Kg

c. 10,000 Kg

d. 57,000 Kg
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433. If a passenger falls sick on board an A/C and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC‟s action
is

a. To land immediately

b. To inform health officer of destination aerodrome atleast two hrs before landing

c. To inform doctor on board

d. off load passenger

434. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of

a. Aerodrome officer

b. Local District Magistrate

c. Operator

d. DGCA

435. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 2700 with its red light than PIC‟s action is

a. Turn right

b. Turn left

c. Maintain heading and Speed

d. Give way

436. An aircraft is crossing at right angle from left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is

a. Yellow

b. Red

c. Green

d. White

437. If an aircraft in circuit has R/T failure then the visual indication by pilot is

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a. Rock ailerons

b. Circle over aerodrome

c. Rock wings

d. land

438. Runway direction is measured from

a. True North

b. Compass North

c. Magnetic North

d. North Pole

439. Survivors on land requiring assistance indicate it to A/C in air by

a. W

b. X

c. Y

d. V

440. Survivors on ground sighted by aircraft in air will indicate the same to them by

a. Flying low

b. Ciraling

c. Rocking wings

d. Steep trun

441. Emergency VHF frequency is

a. 118.6 MHz

b. 122.7 Mhz

c. 121.5 MHz

d. 127.0 MHz
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442. Either arm or hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm down ward indicates

a. Slow down

b. Cut Engine

c. Start engine

d. Stop

443. Minimum transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is

a. 4000‟ AMSL

b. 4000 AGI

c. 300- above ground level

d. 3000 AMSL

444. Semi-circular system of cruising level is upto

a. F 450

b. F 460

c. F 480

d. F 490

445. DME separation between A C on same track same level and in same direction is

a. 10 NM

b. 20 NM

c. 15 NM

d. 5 NM

446. White crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at ______ angles to the route

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a. 700

b. 1100

c. 900

d. 450

447. Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is

a. 10 mins

b. 15 mins

c. 20 mins

d. 5 mins

448. Separation between climbing A/C, which is one crossing track of another A/C is

a. 10 mins

b. 15 mins

c. 5 mins

d. 20 mins

449. ATC will inform FIC/ACC when A/C does not land within ________ minutes of ETA

a. 30 Mins

b. 10 mins

c. 5 Mins

d. 20 mins

450. If apprehension exists as to the safety of A/C and its occupants then it is called as

a. Distress phase

b. Uncertainty phase

c. Alert phase

d. None of the above

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451. With in controlled airspace below 3000 feet visibility reqd for VFR is

a. 3000 mts

b. 5000 mts

c. 3700 mts.

d. 1500 mts

452. Route Navigation charges are based on

a. Length of ac

b. Number of passengers

c. All up weight of ac

d. nav-aids enroute

453. Operator should maintain CVR records for

a. 30 mins

b. 1 hr

c. 2 hrs.

d. 3 hrs.

454. On X- country flight where reporting points are not available then reporting shall be made after every
_______ min in VMC

a. 15 mins

b. 30 mins

c. 45 mins

d. 60 mins

455. you are descending from F-200 to 12000 over Delhi 13000‟ will be reported as ______

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a. Altitude

b. F 130

c. AMSL

d. AGL

456. Information about aerodromes is contained in __________ document.

a. Annex 2

b. Annex 11

c. Annex 14

d. Doc 4444

457. Total numbers of RC centers in India are

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 7

458. Third section of „Air Report‟ contains

a. ATC information

b. Position reports

c. Met information

d. route information

459. 2700 comes in _______ quadrant.

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a. second

b. third

c. first

d. fourth

460. Approach Control Service is provided with in

a. CTA

b. CTR

c. CTZ

d. TMA

461. The visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is equipped with VOR is ______ km

a. 5 Kms.

b. 3.7 Kms.

c. 1.5 Kms.

d. 3 Kms.

462. Mathura Refinery is a _______ area

a. Danger Area

b. Restricted Area

c. Prohibited Area

d. Terminal

463. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for “straight in” approach Because of low ceiling
and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the vicinity.
Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility

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a. of the pilot

b. of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction.

c. of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance

d. shared equally by the pilot and the controller

464. The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft encountering them
to

a. go out of control

b. continue descent even when maximum power is applied

c. sustain structural damages

d. experience any of the above situations.

465. Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins

a. before rotation

b. with rotation

c. after becoming airborne

d. with full power application.

466. Which statement concerning vortices caused by helicopters is correct?

a. Helicopter vortices are generally weak and dissipatc rapidly

b. The size of the helicopter has little bearing on the intensity of the vortices

c. Helicopter vortices are less intense than the vortices of an aeroplane of the same weight.

d. Wind does not influence the movement of vortices generated by a helicopter in hovering flight.

467. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

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a. normally referred to as the ramp or apron

b. which includes the apron taxiways and runways

c. used when taxiing to and from the parking area

d. used for taxiing taking off and landing.

468. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

a. Gliders shall give way to helicopters

b. Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters

c. Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes

d. Helicopters shall give way to gliders

469. Two aircraft are on approach to land, the following aircraft shall

a. climb

b. descend

c. alter heading to the right

d. alter heading to the left.

470. Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the

a. Phrase “With the numbers”

b. Phase “ATIS received”

c. Phase “With the information”

d. ATIS phonic identifier.

471. A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “CLEARED TO LAND TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION”
The pilot should

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a. land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely accomplish
the turn.

b. Complete a touch and go if it is not possible to accomplish the turn.

c. land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety

d. land and do a 1800 and taxi back to clear the runway at the required.

472. What should be including along with the call sign of the aircraft and time to indicate cancellation of a
distress message?

a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED, OUT

b. MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, SILENCE, FINISHED, OUT

c. MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYCAYCANCELLED.

d. ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, EMERGENCY OVER.

473 When filling a VFR flight plan with an intermediate stop, the total elapsed time to be entered is the total

a. elapsed time for all legs including the duration of the intermediate stop.

b. elapsed time for all legs, plus the intermediate stop, plus 45 minutes.

c. flight time for all legs.

d. elapsed time to the first landing plus intermediate stops.

474. An ATC clearance

a. is the same as an ATC instruction.

b. is in effect advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or acknowledgement by
the PIC.

c. requires compliance when accepted by PIC

d. must be complied with when received by the PIC

475. If all or part of an ATC clearance is unacceptable a pilot should

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a. comply as best as possible under the circumstances

b. refuse the clearance without giving a reason for refusal.

c. acknowledge the clearance and read back only the acceptable parts

d. refuse the clearance and inform ATC of the pilots intensions

476. An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above F 290 on a track of 290 deg M shall be flown at

a. F 295, F 315, F 335, F 355.

b. F 320, F 360, F 400, F 440.

c. F 310, F 350, F 390, F 430.

d. F 300, F 340, F 380, F 420.

477. An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would by flying within

a. a Control Zone

b. an Aerodrome Traffic Zone

c. a Terminal Control Area.

d. an airway.

478. A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively:

IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND

a. airport unsafe, do not land taxi clear of landing area in use

b. give way to other aircraft and continue circling stop

c. do not land for time being return to starting point on airport

d. you are in prohibited area, alter course stop

479. A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively

IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND

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a. cleared to land cleared to taxi

b. return for landing cleared to taxi

c. return for landing cleared for take off

d. cleared to land cleared for take off

480. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000‟ msl and below 10,000 MSL

a. Provided flight visibility is 1500 m.

b. Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.

c. Provided flight visibility is 5000 m.

d. Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.

481. A prohibited area means an area over which

a. Flight within 2 miles is prohibited

b. Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.

c. Low flying is prohibited.

d. Only instrument flying practice can be done.

482. An aircraft should be refueled:

a. Inside a hanger

b. Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.

c. In the open

d. Wherever adequate facility exists.

483. The minimum age for issue of CPL is:

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a. 17 yrs.

b. 18 yrs.

c. 19 yrs.

d. 20 yrs.

484. If CPL holder is 40 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of

a. One yrs

b. 5 yrs

c. Two yrs.

d. 3 yrs.

485. ICAO stands for:

a. International Convention on Air Organisation.

b. International Civil Aviation Organisation.

c. International Civil Airport Organisation.

d. Indian Civil Aircraft Organisation.

486. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a. May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.

b. May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of the
aircraft.

c. Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA

d. Must take off after clearance from nearly aerodrome officer

487. An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the way of
the other aircraft by:

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a. Decreasing its speed.

b. Increasing its speed.

c. By altering the heading to the right

d. by alerting the heading to the left.

488. A special VFR flight may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone, provided the aircraft is
equipped with a functional radio receiver and the pilot has agreed to guard the appropriate
frequency, when the ground visibility is not less than:

a. 5 kms.

b. 3 kms.

c. 1.5 kms

d. 1.87 kms.

489. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is

a. One pilot

b. Two pilots

c. As specified in it‟s certificate of the Airworthiness.

d. The flight instructor along with private pilot.

490. Within a control zone, the air traffic control is provided by

a. Area control

b. Aerodrome Control.

c. Approach Control.

d. Flight Information control.

491. Vertical separation between a/c on reciprocal hdg above F 290 is

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a. 2000 ft.

b. 1000 ft.

c. 4000 ft.

d. 3000 ft.

492. Anti-collision light is required for a/c whose AUW exceeds

a. 1500 kg.

b. 5700 kg.

c. 10000 kg.

d. 14,000 kg.

493. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is

a. 200 hrs.

b. 900 hrs.

c. 1200 hrs.

d. 1000 hrs.

494. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270 with its red light then PIC‟s action is

a. Turn right

b. Turn left

c. Maintain heading and speed.

d. Give way

495. Either arm or hand level with shoulder, had across throat, palm down ward indicates:

a. Slow down

b. Cut engines

c. Start engines

d. Stop.
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496. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at _ angles to the rout

a. 700

b. 1100

c. 900

d. 450

497. If annrehension exists as to the safety of a/c and its occupants then it called as

a. Distress phase

b. uncertainty phase

c. Alert phase

d. None of the above.

498. An aircraft should not cross behind a jet aircraft, less than

a. 100‟

b. 200‟

c. 150‟

d. 300‟

499. A flight, which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over

a. Populated areas

b. Indian Air Space

c. Europe

d. High seas

500. Incubation period of Chicken Pox is

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a. 14 days

b. 7 days

c. 8 days

d. 9 days

501. Indian airspace comes under _________ class of airspace

a. A&B

b. D&E

c. A, B, C, & D

d. D, E, F, & G

502. Semi-circular rules starts from flight level

a. 140.

b. 10.

c. 150.

d. 290.

503. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than _______ NM and no Nav aid is present with in
_______ Nm of route

a. 300 NM, 600 NM.

b. 600 NM, 60 NM.

c. 600 NM, 30 NM.

d. 300 NM, 60 NM.

504. Taxiway Centre line light shall be of the following colour

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a. White

b. Red

c. Blue

d. Green

505. Minimum vertical separation in mountainous area for aircraft flying IFR flights is

a. 1000‟ with in 5 km radius of the aircraft

b. 1500‟ AGL

c. 2000‟ within 8 Km of the estimate position of the a/c

d. none of these

506. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in ___ NM of International Border

a. 15 km

b. 5 NM

c. 10 NM

d. 15 NM

507. Penalty for flying so as to cause danger is

a. Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months

b. Fine upto Rs. 1000

c. Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months, or with fine upto Rs. 1000 or both

d. Imprisonment upto 2 months or fine upto Rs. 500 or will both.

508. A passenger transport aircraft with 250 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of 136. The
number of flight attendants required is

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a. 5

b. 3

c. 6

d. 10

509. When approaching an airfield within a TMA ( Terminal Control Area) the altimeter setting to be used,
having passed through the transition altitude is

a. Airfield QNH

b. Airfield QFE

c. Regional QNH

d. Regional QFE

510. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is

a. 69 hours in the 27 days prior to the flight

b. 100 hours in the 27 days before the current flight

c. 1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight

d. 1200 hours in the year upto end of the month prior to present flight

511. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means

a. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

b. Return to the airfield and land

c. Give way to another aircraft and remain in the circuit

d. Notwithstanding any other instructions do not land at the moment

512. Airfield elevation is the altitude of the

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a. Highest point on the airfield

b. highest point on the landing area

c. highest point on the runway

d. Lowest point on the maneuvering area

513. An aircraft may be cleared to land on a runway before the preceding aircraft has cleared, provided

A. That it is daylight

b. That it is daylight and the preceding aircraft is clearly visible throughout the landing period

c. It is in VMC

d. There is a reasonable assurance the runway will be clear by the time landing threshold is
crossed

514. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are
satisfactory

a. Cloud base and visibility

b. Cloud ceiling and RVR

c. Cloud base and RVR

d. MDH and RVR

515. With regard to flight time limitations, “ flight time‟ means

a. The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off
until it comes to rest after the flight

b. The time between take-off and landing

c. The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one and a
half hours

d. The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing

516. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates

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a. The location of ATC on an airfield

b. The location where visiting pilots should report

c. The location of the control tower

d. Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots

517. The retinal size of an aircraft approaching on a collision course

a. Remain the same as the aircraft approaches

b. Decreases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches

c. Increases at a very slow rate until shortly before impact

d. Increases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches

518. After a general anaesthetic one should not fly for

a. 72 hours

b. 12 hours

c. 24 hours

d. 48 hours

519. Class “G” airspace in India

a. Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR & VFR flights

b. Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to both IFR & VFR
flights.

c. Is an airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic Advisory service and
VFR flight receive flight information service

d. Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces.

520. Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

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a. Airplane A: pilot should after course to the right to pass

b. Airplane B: the pilot should expect to be passed on the right

c. Airplane B: the pilot expect to be passed on the left

d. None of the above

521. What is the minimum visibility requirement in India under special VFR operation in Class D airspace
below 10000 feet

a. -Day- 2 Km

b. -Day- 3 Km

c. -Day- 1.5 Km when so prescribed by appropriate ATS authority

d. -Day- 1 Km

522. Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

a. the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow air speed

b. the rear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.

c. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight

d. Lift is greater than the drag

523. What is the definition of MEA?

a. The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.

b. Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable

navigational signal coverage, two- way radio communications, and provides adequate radar
coverage.

c. An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance

d. An altitude which ensures minimum 1000‟ clearance from all obstacles

524. Avoiding wake turbulence is

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a. the sole responsibility of the ATC

b. the sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of wake
turbulence.

c. a responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC

d. the sole responsibility of the pilot

525. Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately

a. before rotation

b. following take-off

c. above its flight path.

d. following full power application.

526. What colour navigation light would a pilot see on an aircraft which he is overtaking at night

a. Red.

b. yellow.

c. Green.

d. White.

527. Under what circumstances should an aircraft giving way alter its course to the left?

a. At all times

b. Only when overtaking in the air

c. Only when overtaking on the ground

d. Never

528. What does a flashing white light from ATC indicate to the pilot of a taxiing aircraft?

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a. Clear the landing area immediately

b. Taxi to the holding point for the runway in use.

c. Hold your position and await a flashing green light.

d. Return to the starting point on the aerodrome.

529. If a marshaller holds his hand down and waves is right arm continually upwards and backwards, what
does he want the pilot to do?

a. Turn right while moving forward

b. Turn left while moving forward

c. Start the left engine

d. Start the right engine

530. The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of collision,
Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?

a. Maintain heading, speed and altitude.

b. Maintain heading, and altitude only.

c. Maintain altitude and speed only.

d. Maintain heading, and speed only.

531. Which of the following air traffic services require the pilot to obey ATC instructions if he is receiving the
service?

a. Radar Control & Radar Advisory Service

b. Radar Control only

c. Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service

d. Radar Control & Procedural Control

532. ICAO Annex 2 lists the Rules of the Air. Where do they apply?

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a. Over the high seas only

b. Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of State being over flown

c. Over the territory of signatory nations only

d. Everywhere except in JAA States.

533. During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip
vortices will

a. dissipate completely

b. Dissipate rapidly

c. Dissipate slowly

d. remain at cruising altitude.

534. Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately

a. before rotation

b. following take-off

c. above its flight path.

d. following full power application.

535. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that
had just taken off?

a. could one vortex to remain over the runway for some time

b. would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices

c. would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices

d. would not ……….. the lateral movement of the vortices.

536. The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered

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a. 09

b. 90

c. 27

d. 270

537. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

a. Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

b. Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier- then aircraft

c. Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.

d. Power- drives heavier thatn-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders.

538. When converging at approximately the same altitude

a. balloons shall give way to hang gliders.

b. aeroplanes … wing gliders shall give way to balloons.

c. balloons shall give way to gliders.

d. balloons shall give way to airships.

539. ATIS is normally provided

a. to replace ………

b. to relieve frequency congestion

c. for the ……… updating of weather forecasts.

d. only when ….. conditions exist at airports.

540. A pilot flying a heading of 2700 receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2‟O clock , t miles “
eastbound” This information indicates the traffic is

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a. 600 to the left, altitude unknown.

b. 600 to the right, altitude unknown.

c. 900 to the right, at same altitude

d. 900 to the left, at same altitude .

541. You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit ATC will then

a. inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions

b. inform you the runway in use, wind and altimeter.

c. advise you of all other circuit traffic

d. clear you to land.

542. Estimated elapsed time A to B 2 hr 15 minutes.

Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes

Estimate elapsed time B to C 2 hr 20 minutes

using the above information, what time should be entered in the “ Elapsed Time” BOX OF VFR flight
plan?

a. 5 hrs 50 minutes.

b. 5 hrs 20 minutes.

c. 5 hrs 05 minutes

d. 4 hrs 35 minutes.

543. How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?

a. By including duration of the intermediate stop in “Elapsed Time” box as ATC automatically
checks time between points

b. Same as any VFR flight plan if the intermediate time does not exceed 30 minutes at each point.

c. By representing the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the “Route” column.

d. By simply indicating “ Intermediate Stop” in “ Other Information” column.

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544. An ATC clearance is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding in
accordance with a clearance or instruction.

a. ATC is relieved of the responsibility for traffic separation.

b. the responsibility for traffic separation is divided between ATC and the pilot.

c. the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance

d. the pilot is relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.

545. When issued a clearance to land and hold of an intersecting runway, pilots

a. shall comply regardless of the circumstances

b. may taxi across the intersection after the departing or arriving aircraft has cleared their path.

C. Who inadvertently go through the intersection should immediately do a 180 deg turn and
backtrack to the hold position.

d. should immediately inform ATC if they are unable to comply

546. A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

a. 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth

b. 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.

c. the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit.

d. a specified height above the surface of the earth.

547. When on VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of clouds by at least

a. 5,00 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.

b. 5,00 feet vertically and 2000 feet horizontally.

c. 1,000 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.

d. 1,000 feet vertically and 3 km horizontally.

548. A steady red light directed at an aircraft means

IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND

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a. Give way to other aircraft & continue stop

b. give to other aircraft & continue taxi clear of landing area in use.

c. airport unsafe do not land taxi clear landing area in use

d. airport unsafe do not land stop

549. A VFR flt takes off from Jaipur at 1040 hrs for Ahmedabad. Sunset time at Ahmedabad is 1232 hrs. What
is the maximum flying time available to the p-i-c to land at Ahmedabad?

a. 1 hr and 52 mins

b. 1 hr and 22 mins

c. 2 hrs 02 mins

d. 2 hrs and 22 mins

550. The holder of a PPL cannot fly IFR unless.

a. Specifically permitted by DGCA

b. Specifically permitted by control tower.

c. He has instrument rating.

d. He has R/T on board.

551. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown

a. At any time.

b. During hours of night

c. Without permission of aerodrome officer.

d. without permission from the DGCA.

552. Series of Red flashes from control tower when aircraft is in flight means

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a. Aerodrome is closed.

b. Aerodrome is unsafe, do not land

c. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

d. Disregard previous instruments, do not land for the time being.

553. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to

a. Seating capacity of the aircraft

b. Number of passengers on board the aircraft.

c. All-up weight of the aircraft.

d. No charges are levels : if free passengers are carried.

554. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks

a. 6 hrs before commencement if flight.

b. 12 hrs before commencement if flight.

C. 24 hrs before commencement if flight.

d. 36 hrs before commencement if flight.

555. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within

A. 35 mtrs.

b. 30 m.

c. 100 mtrs.

d. 43 m.

556. A person can bring unto India human remains of a person who may have died of plague

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a. If enclosed in a wooden box

b. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.

c. If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell if zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.

d. Cannot bring them

557. Flight plan must be filed

a. For all flights

b. For schedule flights only.

c. For training flights only

d. IFR flights proposed to be conducted in controlled airspace only.

558. The letter „C‟ displayed vertically in black against a yellow background indicates the location of the

a. Control Tower.

b. Airline movement control.

c. Aircraft services briefing office.

d. Air traffic services reporting office.

559. One of the objectives of Air Traffic Control Services is to

a. Provide weather and information to aircraft in need of such information.

b. Prevent collision on the maneuvering area between aircraft and obstruction on that area.

c. Notify appropriate organization regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue.

d. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of the aircraft.

560. All the flights at night must be conducted in accordance with IFR.

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a. When the aircraft is flown at or above F 150

b. If weather condition do not permit VMC operation.

c. If aircraft is flown within a controlled airspace.

d. Irrespective of weather condition and flight level.

561. Horizontal separation of aircraft as same cruising level and in same track by time is

a. 30 min.

b. 20 min.

c. 10 min.

d. 15 min.

562. Letter „W‟ in air routes designates.

a. Domestic Routes.

b. International Routes.

c. Route in western routes.

d. Area navigation routes.

563. Runway direction designator is

a. QDM.

b. QDR.

c. QTE.

d. QFE.

564. Colour specification of rotating aerodrome beacon

a. Alternate white and red.

b. Blue

c. Alternate white and green.

d. Green.
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565. If a passenger fall sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC‟s action
is

A. TO land immediately.

b. To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.

c. To inform DGCA.

d. To inform doctor on board.

566. An Aircraft is crossing at right angle left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is

a. Yellow.

b. Red.

c. Green.

d. White.

567. Minimum transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is

a. 4000‟ AMSL.

b. 4000‟ AGL.

c. 3000‟ above ground level.

d. 3000‟ AMSL.

568. Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is

a. 10 mins.

b. 15 mins.

c. 20 mins.

d. 5 mins.

569. In class „D‟ airspace visibility required for VFR flight below 10000‟ft.

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a. 8000 mts.

b. 5000 mts.

c. 3700 mts.

d. 1500 mts.

570. On a X-country flight where reporting points are not available position report shall be made every
______ min in IMC.

a. 60 mins.

b. 30 mins.

c. 15 mins.

d. 45 mins.

571. Second section of “Air Report” contains

a. ATC information.

b. Position Report.

c. Met information.

d. Operational Information.

572. Special Air Report is made by

a. Aerodrome officer

b. Meterology officer at Airport

c. An Aircraft

d. India Met Department

573. Runway end lights appears as

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a. Unidirectional green

b. Omni directional red

c. Unidirectional red.

d. Unidirectional amber

574. The incubation period of relapsing fever is ______

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 10.

575. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by

a. 5 mins

b. 10 mins

c. 3 mins

d. 2 mins.

576. Separation between medium a/c taking off behind heavy a/c of (or) light a/c taking off behind
medium a/c is

a. 02 mins.

b. 5 mins.

c. 3 mins.

d. 1 mins.

577. No unauthorized person must be within ________ mtr of a/c while refueling is going on

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a. 15 mts.

b. 30 mts.

c. 50 mts.

d. 10 mts.

578. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by

a. 10 mins

b. 15 mins.

c. 30 mins.

d. 60 mins.

579. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC is

. a. 50%

b. 80%

c. 60%

d. 100%

580. An Air-miss report made by radio ( or) telephone must be confirmed with in

a. 2 days

b. 4 days

c. 7 days

d. 10 days

581. In India night starts from

a. 20 mts. After sunset

b. 30 mts. After sunset

c. 20 mts. before sunset

d. 30 mts. before sunset

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582. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, in number of cabin attendants required is

a. 6

b. 5

c. 4

d. 7.

583. A pilot, after accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that all or part of the clearance cannot
be compiled with should

a. disregard the clearance.

b. comply with only the part that is suitable.

c. comply as best as possible under the circumstances to carry out the clearance and need not
say anything to ATC

d. comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advice ATC as soon as possible.

584. After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that it cannot complied with, a pilot should

a. take any immediate action required and advice ATC as soon as possible

b. comply as best as possible under the circumstances and say nothing to ATC.

c. disregard the clearance.

d. comply with the suitable parts.

585. “Controlled Airspace” means as airspace of defined dimensions within which

a. Control Zone regulations are in force.

b. security regulations are in force.

c. Special VFR flight only is permitted.

d. an ATC service is provided.

586. A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively

IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND

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a. Cleared to land cleared to taxi

b. return for landing cleared for take off

c. return for landing cleared to taxi

d. cleared to land cleared for take-off

587. A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means

a. stop

b. return to starting point on the airport

c. cleared to taxi

d. taxi clear of landing area in use.

588. Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to

a. return to the apron

b. vacate the runways immediately

c. be aware that an emergency is in progress continue with caution.

d. be aware that an emergency is in progress hold your position

589. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of

a. 70 Degrees.

b. 140 Degrees.

c. 110 Degrees.

d. 220 Degrees.

590. The holder of a private pilot‟s license can fly any aircraft.

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a. Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs.

b. Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. And the pilot has completed at least 40
hours of flying time.

c. Provided the owner has no objections.

d. Which is endorsed on his license.

591. For the issue of Private Pilot‟s License, the total flight time required is

a. 60 hours out of which 40 hours will be solo.

b. 40 hours out of which 20 hours will be solo.

c. 20 hours out of which 10 hours will be solo.

d. 5 hours within preceding 12 months.

592. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted

a. Provided the owner has no objection.

b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer

c. Without restricted if no passengers are carried.

d. Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits.

593. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

a. If the sale deed is not yet completed

b. For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase

c. If it is used for Govt. Work.

d. If specially permitted in writing by the central govt

594. Whoever will fully flies an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any property
shall be punishable with

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a. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to one
thousand rupees or with both.

b. Imprisonment upto three months and fine upto Rs.1000/- or both.

c. Imprisonment upto three months and fine upto Rs.500/- or both.

d. Imprisonment upto two years and fine upto Rs.1000/- or both.

595. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from

a. Aerodrome office.

b. DGCA.

c. Central Govt.

d. Defence Ministry

596. A PPL holder can fly an aircraft with passengers on board at night provided he has completed

a. 10 landing & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 6 months.

b. 5 landing & 5 T/O, at night within preceding 6 months.

c. 5 landing & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 12 months.

d. 10 landing & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 12months.

597. When two power driven aircraft are in crossing course, the responsibility of avoiding collision, rests with

a. Heavier a/c

b. Lighter a/c

c. The a/c which has the other a/c to its right

d. The a/c which has the other a/c to its left.

598. The a/c approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH setting
while crossing

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a. Transition altitude

b. Transition level

c. Sector safety altitude.

d. Route safety altitude.

599. An a/c flying low due to thunder storm for safety reasons can be sued by

a. State Govt.

b. Municiple Corporation.

c. Owner of the property over which it is flying.

d. Cannot be sued.

600. During the distress phase an a/c

a. Switches on and off its landing lights.

b. Speaks MAY DAY on R/T

c. Speaks PAN on R/T

d. Selects SSR mode a code 7000.

601. When flying in IMC outside a regular route, an aircraft should report its position to the appropriate ATS
unit.

a. Every 30 mts.

b. Every one hour.

c. On crossing every NDB or VOR Station.

d. As and when convenient

602. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat 1 runways is

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a. 0.3 mts.

b. 0.6 mts.

c. 0.45 mts.

d. 0.9 mts.

603. Aircraft intending to fly in formation

a. Cannot fly

b. Can fly during daytime

c. Can fly with permission for DGCA

d. Can fly with prior arrangement

604. A horizontal white dumbbell displayed in signal area means.

a. Pilot to exercise caution due bad state of the maneuvering area.

b. Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runway and taxiways only.

c. Aircraft are required to land/ take off on runway only but may use grass area for taxing.

d. Aerodrome closed.

605. An alternate aerodrome means

a. An aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it becomes in
advisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

b. Any aerodrome other than the aerodrome of intended landing which may be used by an
aircraft.

c. An aerodrome where an aircraft may be forced to land due to unavoidable circumstances.

d. An aerodrome situated at the same location other than the aerodrome of intended landing.

606. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad day
light, when aircraft are flown

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a. At or above F150

b. Within controlled airspace.

c. At or above F 200

d. In designated areas or designated routes.

607. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad day
light, when aircraft are flown

a. In class „C‟ airspace.

b. Within controlled airspace.

c. In class A airspace

d. In designated areas or designated routes.

608. The “ Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft

a. Is involved in an accident/incident.

b. Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.

c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.

d. In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.

609. While flying over high terrain or in mourtainous regions, as IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is at
least.

a. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms or the estimated position of the aircraft.

b. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms or the estimated position of the aircraft.

c. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms or the estimated position of the aircraft.

d. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms or the estimated position of the aircraft.

610. If navigational lights fail during day time then

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a. Land as soon as possible without endangering the safety of the aircraft.

b. Fly to destination.

c. Return to departure aerodrome.

d. Continue flying.

611. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if

a. Packed in a wooden box

b. Cannot be brought.

c. Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc line box, filled with saw dust
impregnated with carbolic powder.

d. Permitted by the DGCA

612. Flight Duty Time can be extended by ______ hrs in a day

a. 3 hrs.

b. 4 hrs.

c. 5 hrs.

d. 6 hrs.

613. A light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft requires a spacing of

a. 2 min

b. 3 min

c. 5 min

d. 4 min

614. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is _____ hrs and _______ landing.

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a. 10 hrs and 3 landings.

b. Three hrs and 9 landings.

c. 9 hrs and 3 landings.

d. 8 hrs and 3 landings.

615. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of

a. Aerodrome

b. local District magistrate

c. Operator

d. DGCA

616. Emergency …… frequency is

a. 121.5 MHz.

b. 256.0 MHz.

c. 243.0 MHz.

d. 127.0 MHz.

617. DME separation between a/c on same track, same level and in same direction

A. 10 NM.

b. 20 NM.

c. 15 NM.

d. 5 NM.

618. Separation between climbing a/c, which is on crossing track of another a/c is

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a. 10 mins.

b. 15 mins.

c. 5 mins.

d. 20 mins.

619. Route navigation charge are based on

a. Length of a/c

b. Number of passengers.

c. All up weight of a/c

d. Nav aids en-route

620. Information about rules of the air is contained in ______ ICAO document.

a. Annex 2

b. Annex 11

c. Annex 44

d. Doc 4444.

621. Semi circular rules starts from

a. F 200

b. F 150

c. F 290

d. F 10

622. Prime Minister‟s house is a

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a. Danger Area

b. Restricted area

c. Prohibited area

d. None of the above

623. An a/c climbing through the transition layer will reports its height in

a. Flight Levels

b. AMSL

c. Altitudes.

d. AGL

624. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by

a. Switching on/off Nav lights.

b. Rocking wings.

c. Flickering Anti-collision lights

d. Flying low

625. The responsibility that the radio equipment is operational before takes off lies with the

a. Flight Engineer

b. Co-pilot

c. Radio officer

d. Pilot-in-command

626. Longitudinal separation between two a/c on same track is

a. 10 mins.

b. 15 mins.

c. 05 mins

d. 20 mins.
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627. Separation above F 410 is

a. 1000‟

b. 3000‟

c. 2000‟

d. 4000‟

628. Rashtrapati Bhawan is a

a. Danger Area

b. Restricted Area

c. Prohibited Area

d. Non of the above

629. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in

a. 12 hrs.

b. 24 hrs.

c. 48 hrs.

d. 60 hrs.

630. „RPL‟s shall be used for _______ flights only.

a. VFR Flights

b. Domestic Flights

c. IFR flights

d. International Flights.

631. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than _____ years after completion.

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a. 1 yr.

b. 3 yrs.

c. 5 yrs.

d. 2 yrs.

632. Incubation period for typhus is

a. 7 days

b. 5 days

c. 10 days

d. 14 days

633. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery

a. With in a radius of 1 NM.

b. With in a radius of 10 NM.

c. With in a radius of 20 NM.

d. is absolute

634. Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the following on the
transponder

a. Mode A 7700

b. Mode A 7500

c. Mode C 2000

d. Mode A 7600

635. When two aircraft are approaching head on the rules of the air require that

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a. Both aircraft alter heading to starboard

b. Both aircraft alter heading to port

c. The larger aircraft alters heading to starboard

d. The smaller aircraft alters heading to port.

636. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for

a. 6 months

b. 13 months.

c. 12 months.

d. 2 years

637. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100 degrees from him.
You should see his

a. Red navigation light

b. White navigation light

c. Green & white navigation lights

d. Green navigation light

638. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft requires a
wake vortex separation of

a. 2 minutes

b. 8 minutes

c. 3 nm

d. 3 minutes.

639. EAT is the time that an aircraft

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a. Is expected to join the field.

b. Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach

c. Is expected to land

d. Is expected to leave the las en-route holding point before destination

640. Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be

a. 2000 ft.

b. 1000 ft.

c. 1000 ft or 2000 ft depending on whether or not the aircraft are in RVSM airspace

d. 4000 ft.

641. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters

a. Severe turbulence or icing

b. Moderate turbulence, hail or Cb clouds during supersonic or transonic flight

c. Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft

d. All of the above

642. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is

a. 3 nm

b. 5 nm

c. 10 nm

d. 8 nm

643. The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are

a. Anxiety, rapid breathing & dizziness

b. Lethargy, nausea, headache & complexion

c. Blueness of lips, impaired judgement and co-ordination

d. Excitability, tingling fingertips & loss of inhibition

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644. If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts, he/she should not fly within

a. 12 hours

b. 36 hours

c. 24 hours

d. 48 hours

645. A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means

a. Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere

b. Airfield closed, do not land

c. Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling

d. Clear the landing area

646. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right of
way belongs to the aircraft.

a. at the higher altitude.

b. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to
overtake the other aircraft.

c. That is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake
othe other aircraft

647. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at 6500 feet MSL, in
Class D airspace?

a. 1.5 Km visibility clear of clouds

b. 10000 feet MSL, if above 10000 feet AGL.

c. 5 Km visibility, and 1000 feet below

648. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as

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a. Class E

b. Class F

c. Class G

d. Class A

649. When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

a. If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet‟s touchdown
point.

b. At least 1000 feet beyond the jet‟s touchdown point

c. Beyond the jet‟s touchdown point.

650. At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 Hpa. The pressure altitude would be
approx.

a. 7500 feet.

b. 6000 feet.

c. 7000 feet.

d. 8000 feet.

651. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air

a. dissipates immediately.

b. dissipates rapidly.

c. may persist for two minutes or more.

d. persists indefinitely.

652. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is

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a. heavy, landing configuration and slow speed.

b. heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.

c. light , clean configuration and slow speed.

d. heavy, take- off configuration and slow speed.

653. While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the following levels.

a. 80

b. 95

c. 85

d. 70

654. During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be

a. The local QNH

b. The local QFE

c. The Standard Pressure Setting

d. Any desired value

655. The marshalling signal – “ arms extended overhead, palms facing inwads, arms swung from the
extended position inwards means

a. Stop

b. Chokes

c. Brakes applied

d. Cut Engines

656. An aircraft used for simulated instrument flying must have

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a. A competent observer in the front seat

b. Dual controls.

c. Dual controls and a competent observer.

d. A safety pilot and dual controls

657. Which one of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct

a. A vehicle towing an aircraft has priority over taxiing aircraft

b. Flying machine give way to vehicles towing aircraft at all times

c. An aircraft overtaking another does so by passing on the right

d. A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft

658. Controlled airspace is

a. An area within a FIR only in which an ATC service is provided

b. An area within a FIR/UIR only in which an ATC service is provided

c. An area within a UIR only in which an ATC service is provided

d. An area with a lower limit which is above ground level.

659. In the airfield circuit the “finals” call is made when

a. On completion of the turn on to base leg

b. Abeam the upwind threshold of the runway

c. After completion of the turn on to final approach and not more than 4 nm from the runway

d. When making a straight in approach at 6 nm range

660. At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAP Is pilot should see

a. Two red lights and two white

b. Four red lights

c. Four white lights

d. Three white lights and one red

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661. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or Gairspace below F 100 is

a. 250KTS IAS

b. 250Kts TAS

c. 280Kts IAS

d. 150Kts IAS

662. To indicate the existence of a fuel emergency to ATC a pilot should

a. Request “fuel priority”

b. Request “fuel emergency”

c. Request “fuel state low”

d. Declare a MAYDAY if an emergency or PAN if urgent

663. What are possible effects of hypoxia below 10000 feet?

a. None

b. Impaired mental agility only

c. Impaired mental agility below 5000 feet and night vision below 8000 feet

d. Impaired night vision below 5000 feet and mental agility below 8000 feet

664. After drinking residual alcohol can remain for upto 24 hrs in

a. The blood

b. The semi-circular canals

c. The Stomach

d. The intestines

665. Class „D‟ airspace in India

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a. Includes controlled airspace in form of terminal control area and ATS routes where IFR traffic is
provided Air Traffic Services.

b. Includes controlled airspace inform of control zone, control areas, terminal control areas where
IFR flights receive Air Traffic Control service and VFR flights receive traffic information and traffic
avoidance advice on request.

c. Extends from a specified height above control zone and aerodrome traffic zone where
separation between IFR flights is assured.

666. Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The –of
way belongs to the aircraft

a. At the higher altitude.

b. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to
overtake the other aircraft.

c. That is more maneuverable. That the aircraft may with caution move in front of or over take
aircraft.

667. VFR Flights shall be operated between

a. Sunrise to Sunset

b. 30 mts before Sunrise to 30 mts after Sunset

c. 20 mts before Sunrise to 20 mts after Sunset.

668. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest
period of time

a. Direct headwind

b. Direct tailwind

c. Light quartering tailwind

669. The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to

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a. Sea level

b. the standard datum

c. the pressure level set in the barometric window.

670. The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after is set to

a. the field elevation

b. 29.92”

c. the current altimeter setting

d. the QFE setting

671. During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip
vortices will

a. dissipate completely

b. dissipate rapidly

c. dissipate slowly

d. remain at cruising altitude

672. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that
had just taken off

a. could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime.

b. Would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices

c. would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices

d. would not affect the latest movement of the vortices.

673. LDA for runway 27 at an aerodrome is 1599 mts. Pair of touchdown zone markings for this runway will
be

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a. 3

b. 6

c. 4

d. 5

674. Colour of aircraft stand markings shall be

a. yellow

b. Red

c. Orange or white

d. White

675. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 25 m width shall be

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 12

676. Colour of Intermediate holding position markings shall be

a. White

b. Red

c. Green

d. Yellow

677. Aircraft „A‟ on F 95 crosses LLK VOR at 1105 UTC and tracks out on radial 100 deg Aircraft „B‟ takes off
From Lucknow at 1110UTC and tracks out on radial 110 deg and is climbing to F95. The longitudinal
separation required shall be

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a. 5 mins if „A‟ is 25 kts faster than B

b. 3 mins if „A‟ is 35 kts faster than B

c. Longitudinal separation is not required

d. 20 minutes if A & B are on same speed.

678. Aircraft a Crosses DPN VOR at 1000 UTC and is on a radial 270 deg at o2NMS when aircraft B reports
established on radial 285 deg at 18 NMS. The aircraft are

a. Not separated

b. Longitudinally separated

c. Laterally separated

d. „B‟ should turn right to avoid collision

679. Ac „A‟ maintaining F 250 and reports over DPN at 1100 UTC. „B‟ wants to climb on same track from F 210
to F 270 and estimates to reach F 270 at 1105 UTC His ETA DPN is 1106 UTC. Which of following statement
is true

a. Longitudinal separation to be ensured when „B‟ is passing through F 240, till ac crosses F 260

b. 10 minutes separation to be ensured when „B‟ is passing through F 240 till ac crosses F 260

c. Lateral separation needs to be provided

d. Vertical separation is to be provided between aircraft till 1115 UTC

680. Ac „A‟ reports 20 NMs inbound to LLK at F 150 Ac „B‟ reports 38 NMS inbound to LLK at same track &
level „A‟ is 15 kts faster than „B‟. Which statement is true

a. A and B are essential traffic to each other

b. Longitudinal separation exists

c. Lateral separation exists

d. B will be advised to decrease speed by 3 kts.

681. Ac „A‟ at F 200 is reciprocal to „B‟ at F 190 „A‟ can descend through „B‟s level

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a. After 5 mins of crossing each other.

b. After 5 NMS of estimated time of crossing

c. When both are in visual contact and confirm crossing each other

d. „A‟ can descend remaining in VMC and maintaining own separation

682. An aircraft having an AUW of 14,500 kgs falls in following category

a. Heavy

b. Light

c. Medium

d. None of the above

683. Advance notification for establishment of a VOR at an airport shall be notified by means of

a. AIRAC

b. AIP

c. NOTAM

d. AIC

684. If cleared for take-off immediately following the very low approach and overshoot of large aircraft, the
pilot should

a. take off immediately otherwise the trailing vortices will descend into the flight path.

b. taxi to position on the runway and wait until it is considered safe to take-off.

c. decline take-off clearance and inform ATC of the reason for non-acceptance.

d. wait for 2 minutes after the large aircraft has passed then take-off.

685. Avoiding wake turbulence is

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a. the sole responsibility of the ATC

b. the sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of wake
turbulence.

c. a responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC

d. the sole responsibility of the pilot.

686. The pilot of a light aircraft on final approach close behind a heavier aircraft should plan the approach
to land

a. beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft.

b. prior the touchdown point of the other aircraft.

c. at the touchdown point of the other aircraft.

d. to the right or left of the touchdown point of the other aircraft.

687. Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins

a. before rotation

b. with rotation

c. after becoming airborne

d. with full power application

688. Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway
1000 m of length should normally hold.

a. clear of the maneuvering area.

b. 30 m from the edge of the runway

c. 50 m from the edge of the runway

d. 60 m from the edge of the runway.

689. Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude

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a. A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft.

b. An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power driven heavier than aircraft

c. An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the left.

d. Aeroplane towinggliders must give way to helicopters.

690. When two power driven heavier than airaircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude.

a. the one on the left has the right of way

b. both shall alter heading to the left.

c. the one on the right has the right of way

d. the one on the right, shall give way by descending.

691. Aircraft that has right of way shall

a. maintain heading and speed.

b. Turn right

c. Turn left

d. Take no action

692. A Boeing 737 aircraft in VMC is flying at F250. The PIC can

a. Cancel his IFR plan and request for a VFR plan

b. He can climb/ descend remaining in VMC and maintaining his own separation

c. He has to fly on a VFR plan only

d. He has to fly on an IFR plan only.

693. In class „D‟ airspace, a VFR Flt at F 120 requires in flight visibility of

a. 5 kms.

b. 1.5 kms.

c. 3 kms.

d. 8 kms
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694. On a magnetic track of 000o an IFR flt can fly at

a. F 95

b. F 120

c. F 170

d. F 180

695. SIDs are used for

a. IFR departures at busy aerodromes

b. VFR flights only

c. For all aerodrome traffic

d. For all arriving aircraft

696. Ac „A‟ is maintaining a TAS of 450 kts and Ac „B‟ 400 kts. „B‟ is following „A‟ on the same track and on
same level. Min separation required is

a. 15 mins

b. 10 mins

c. 5 mins

d. 3 mins

697. „A‟ is crossing track of „B‟ at same level. There are two VORs one at 300 NMs E and second at 350 NM W
of the position of ac. Minimum separation required shall be

a. 20 NMs

b. 15 mins

c. 10 NMs

d. 10 mins

698. „A‟ is 05 NMs inbound to LLK. „B‟ is 05 NMs outbound from LLK on same track and maintaining same TAS
Separation required is

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a. Longitudinal separation is existing at same level

b. Vertical separation is to be applied

c. Lateral separation exists at the same level

d. None of the above

699. Flight plan shall be submitted at least __________ mins before departure

a. 30 mins

b. 60 mins

c. 45 mins

d. 90 mins

700. Annex dealing with operation of Aircraft is

a. Annex 2

b. Annex 6

c. Annex 11

d. Annex 14

701. AIP contains information on

a. Aerodromes

b. Notarns

c. AIRACs

d. AICs

702. Angle of intersection of Rapid Exit Taxiways with runway should not be more than

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a. 300

b. 250

c. 450

d. 600

703. Length of runway centre line stripe + gap should not be less than

a. 60 m

b. 75 m

c. 30 m

d. 50 m

704. A major early symptom of Hypoxia is

a. an increased sense of well being

b. a marked suppression of mental alertness

c. a sense of fear

d. a sense of physical weakness

705. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in Class G airspace at
a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?

a. 8000 metres.

b. 5000 metres.

c. 1500 metres.

d. There is no minimum

706. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G airspace in India?

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a. 180 knots

b. 250 knots

c. 350 knots

d. There is no limit

707. What is the minimum height outside congested areas at which ICAO standards permit normal flight to
take place under VFR?

a. 1000 feet above ground or objects, no minimum above water

b. 1000 feet above ground or water

c. 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure, but no minimum height

d. 500 feet above ground or water

708. What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR ( over non-mountainous terrain) allowed by ICAO?

a. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position

b. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 metres of its position

c. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 km of its position

d. 1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position

709. What mode A transponder setting means an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?

a. 7000

b. 7500

c. 7600

d. 7700

710. If a military aeroplane flies alongside you and rocks its wings, what should you do?

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a. Follow it

b. Call on 121.50 MHz

c. Select 7700 on your transponder

d. All the above

711. What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?

a. Go-around

b. Do not land, divert

c. Land at this aerodrome after receiving a green light

d. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

712. What light signal indicates to the pilot of an aircraft in the air that he may land?

a. A steady green light

b. A flashing green light

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Neither (a) nor (b)

713. What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?

a. Show his open hand then close it

b. Show his closed hand then open it

c. Cross his hands in front of his face

d. Place his crossed fhands in front of his face then uncross them

714. What does a white dumbbell in the signal area mean?

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a. Landing prohibited

b. Take-offs, landings and taxiing must be made on paved surface only

c. Take-offs and landings must be made on paved surfaces, taxiing may be on grass

d. Make all take-offs, landings and taxiing on runways & taxiways only.

715. What ground signal indicates the runway in use to an aircraft in the air?

a. A White T in the signal area

b. White numbers in the signal area

c. Either (a) or (b)

d. Neither (a) or (b)

716. In the signals area there is a red square with a yellow diagonal. What does this mean?

a. The traffic pattern is right hand

b. All turns after take-offs and landings must be to the right

c. Landing prohibited

d. Take special care during approach and landing

717. What is defined as “Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reaction of the
air other than the reactions of the air against the earth‟s surface”?

a. An aircraft

b. A flying machine

c. An airship

d. An aeroplane

718. Which type of controlled airspace touches the ground?

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a. A terminal Control Area

b. An airway

c. A Control Zone

d. CTA

719. What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no advice as to the
correct action to take to avoid?

a. Flight Advisory Service

b. Flight Information Service

c. Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service

d. Radar Control & Procedural Control

720. In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all other traffic, no
separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter the airspace?

a. Class B

b. Class C

c. Class D

d. Class E

721. ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?

a. All aircraft arriving at the aerodrome only

b. All aircraft arriving or departing the aerodrome

c. Controlled traffic arriving at the aerodrome only

d. Controlled traffic arriving or departing the aerodrome only

722. What is defined as “ A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as is
practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flights plans.”?

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a. Air Traffic Control Service

b. Air Traffic Advisory Service

c. Flight Information Service

d. Air Traffic Alerting Service

723. Cessna aircraft call sign VGA gives a call that he has a lot of smoke in the cockpit and is going to land
at a nearby field. It will be a

a. Alert phase

b. Uncertainty phase

c. Distress phase

d. Non of the above

724. The aerobatics shall be carried out not below

a. 6000‟

b. 2000‟

c. 5000‟

d. 1000‟

725. Fuel required on board the propeller driven aircraft to an isolated aerodrome and there is no suitable
alternate available

a. Fly to dest + 45 mins

b. Fly to dest, + 45 mins + 15% flt time or Dest + 2 hrs, Whichever is less

c. As per operational Manual

d. Dest + 2 hrs.

726. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000‟ in a controlled airspace

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a. 5 kms

b. 8 kms

c. 10 kms

d. 3 kms

727. Transition altitude at an aerodrome is above ________ Msl in India.

a. 2000‟ AMSL

b. 3000‟ AMSL

c. 4000‟ AMSL

d. 5000‟ AMSL

728. When approaching to land, all turns are to be made to

a. left

b. right

c. as per wind direction

d. as per Captain‟s choice

729. The aircraft rules 1937 can be amended by

a. DGCA

b. Govt. of India

c. CAR

d. AIP

730. Change in frequency or location of navigational aids on short notice is notified through

a. Notams

b. AIRAC

c. AIP

d. AIC
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731. IFR flt shall be flown at a cruising level at or above

a. 3000‟ from the ground

b. 3000‟ from obstacles

c. 3000‟ AMSL

d. 3000‟ in controlled airspace

732. Runway end lights appear as ________ lights

a. Green

b. Blue

c. White

d. Red

733. Taxy track center line lights are

a. Red

b. Green

c. Yellow

d. Alternate Red & Green

731. IFR flight shall not be commenced if the weather at destination and alternate is

a. Above minima

b. CAVOK

c. below minima

d. IMC prevails

732. ADC is exempted for A/C flying within ______ of the aerodrome and below

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a. 10 NMS, 5000‟

b. 5 NMS, 1000‟

c. 5 NMS, 4000‟

d. 5 NMS, 3000‟

733. Runway centre line lights are

a. Blue

b. White

c. Red

d. Amber

734. Crossing of an ATS route should be at an angle of

a. 600

b. 900

c. 450

d. 300

735. An A/C descending through the transition layer will report its height in

a. Flight Levels

b. AMSL

c. Altitude

d. AGL

736. Information about facilities on an aerodrome is found in

a. AICs

b. NOTAMs

c. AIRAC

d. AIP
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737. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/c if it has the permission of

a. DM/ Commissioner of Police

b. DGCA

c. Aerodrome officer

d. ICAO

738. A flight which exceeds Mach number -1 cannot fly over

a. Populated Areas

b. Indian Air Space

c. Europe

d. High Seas

739. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable, which exceeds

a. 1000 lts

b. 900 lts

c. 1500 lts

d. 500 lts

740. The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in year

a. 1934

b. 1937

c. 1994

d. 1954

741. If a passenger falls sick then action by PIC is

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a. Inform Operator

b. Inform health officer of destination

c. Inform doctor on board

d. Inform DGCA

742. The incubation period of relapsing fever is _______ days

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 10

743. The route navigation charges are on the basis of

a. AUW

b. Length of aircraft

c. No. of Nav Aids used

d. No. of passengers

744. Control Zone is from

a. Surface of earth specified upper limit

b. 5000‟ to unlimited

c. Atleast 700‟

d. None of the above

745. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by

a. Switching on/off Nav-lights

b. Rocking Wings

c. Flickering Anti-collision lights

d. Flying low
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746. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270 action of pilot

a. Turn Right

b. No action

c. Turn left

d. Give way

747. Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above

a. 1500 kg

b. 15000 kg.

c. 5700 kg.

d. all ac

748. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by

a. 5 mins

b. 3 mins

c. 10 mins

d. 2 mins

749. Night flying hours can be logged between

a. 20 mins after Sunset to 20 mins before Sunrise

b. 45 mins

c. 1 hr.

d. 15 mins

750. Runway direction is measured from

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a. True North

b. Compass North

c. Magnetic North

d. North Pole

751. An A/C flying a track of 1800 will fly at _____ level on a IFR plan

a. F 260

b. F 185

c. F 90

d. F 170

752. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with chest and moved laterally indicates

a. Stop

b. Cut Engines

c. Continue Straight

d. Turn Off

753. If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000‟ outside controlled airspace then it will fly at _______ levels

a. Semi Circular System

b. On QNH

c. On QNE

d. On quadrantal level

754. NDB separation is

a. 150 at 15 NMs.

b. 300 at 15 NMs.

c. 450 at 15 NMs.

d. 150 at 30 NMs.
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755. Red pyrotechnical light to A/C in flight indicates

a. Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

b. Proceed to alternate

c. keep circling

d. Total refusal to land

756. The responsibility that the radio equipment is operational before takes off lies with the

a. Flight Engineer

b. Co-pilot

c. Radio officer

d. Pilot in command

757. Aerodrome beacon light colour is

a. Alternate white & green

b. Green

c. Red

d. Alternate white & Red

758. Anti collision lights are _______ lights

a. Steady Red

b. Rotating Red

c. Flashing Red

d. Red & White

759. If an A/C flying at F 290 is descending and its altimeter reads 12000 ft then the pilot will report its height
as

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a. Altitude

b. Flight level

c. On QNH

d. On QFE

760. For an IFR flt on a track of 1800 (M), FL to be selected is

a. F 230

b. F 240

c. F 250

d. F 255

761. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is

a. 15 NMs

b. 15 Mins

c. 20 NMs

d. 5 Mins

762. Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of ______ hrs

a. 3 hrs.

b. 24 hrs.

c. 25 hrs

d. 12 hrs.

763. The pilot has to inform the ATC if its TAS changes by

a. 3% & 5 kts

b. 5% & 10 kts

c. 10% & 5 kts

d. 3 kts
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764. The alert phase starts when an A/C fails to land within

a. 3 mins

b. 2 mins

c. 5 mins

d. 10 mins

765. No smoking shall be permitted within ________ mtrs. Of A/C (or) fuelling equipment.

a. 15 mtrs

b. 10 mts

c. 30 mts

d. 50 mts.

766. The controller suggests a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that

a. the remaining runway length will not be stated by the controller.

b. it is the pilot‟s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take-off

c. noise abatement procedures have been cancelled.

767. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air

a. dissipates immediately

b. dissipates rapidly

c. may persist for two minutes or more

d. persists indefinitely.

768. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a large aircraft, the pilot should

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a. remain in ground effect until past the rotation point of the large aircraft.

b. become airborne in the calm airspace between the vortices.

c. taxi until past the rotation point of the large aircraft, then take off and remain below its climb
path.

d. become airborne before the rotation point of the large aircraft and stay above its departure path
or request a turn to avoid the departure path.

769. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is

a. heavy. Landing configuration and slow speed.

b. heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.

c. light, clean configuration and high speed.

d. heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.

770. No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an controlled airport used for the movement of
aircraft, except in accordance with permission from

a. the control tower of the airport

b. the airport security officer

c. The operator of the airport

d. A qualified flying instructor

771. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude

a. both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.

b. the aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.

c. the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way

d. the aircraft that has other on its left shall give way

772. Which of the following is defined as “ The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop
way, if provided”

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a. Take off distance available

b. Landing distance available

c. Landing run available

d. Accelerate stop distance available

773. What is the principle objective of a rescue and firefighting service?

a. To prevent the spread of fire to other aircraft and facilities

b. To minimize the damage caused by fire

c. To extinguish any fire with minimum delay

d. To save lives

774. Who is responsible for providing search and rescue facilities over land?

a. The State of Registry of the aircraft

b. The State from which the aircraft took off

c. The State in whose territory the crash occurred

d. ICAO

775. If a pilot sees the following 2.5 meter symbol on the ground what does it mean? “X”

a. A survivor requires medical assistance

b. A survivor requires general assistance

c. Affirmative

d. Negative

776. Which symbol indicates that the survivors have left the scene of the crash?

a. Y

b. V

c. ↓

d. N
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777. If pilot sees the following 2.5 metre symbol on the ground, what does it mean? “V”

a. A surviver requires medical assistance

b. The survivors

c. A survivor requires general assistance

d. Negative

778. If you fly into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain

a. Constant Airspeed

b. Level flt Altitude

c. Constant Altitude and Constant Speed.

d. Constant Ground Speed.

779. Identify Runway Lighting on center line lighting system

a. Amber light from 3000‟ to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.

b. Alternative Red and white light from 3000‟ft to 100 fr and then Red light to the end.

c. Alternative Red and white light from 3000‟ ft to end of runway.

d. Red lights from 3000‟ till end of runway.

780. Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system

a. Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.

b. Blue light covering from the center line of R/Way to the center line of taxiway.

c. Alternate green & white light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of taxiway.

D. Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of Taxiway.

781. For testing of Flt Recorder System

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a. Minimum of 1 hour recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.

b. Total of more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.

c. Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased.

d. None of the above.

782. En route Altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft of Terrain clearance
with in a width of

a. 5 Nms

b. 10 Kms

c. 15 Nms

d. 20 Nms

783. Aerobatic can be done below Altitude 6000 ft at least at a distance of

a. 2 NMs from the Aerodrome

b. 4 NMs from the Aerodrome

c. 5 NMs from the Aerodrome

d. 6 NMs from the Aerodrome

784. Flt Duty Time in the event of being extended shall be limited to

a. 3 hrs.

b. 4 hrs.

c. 6 hrs.

d. 8 hrs.

785. How can Pilot flying in clouds overcome Special Disorientation

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a. Use of Very rapid crosscheck of instruments

b. Avoid banking in excess of 300

c. Properly interpret Flt Instruments and act accordingly

d. Fly with reference to horizon

786. A flt-plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATX unit unit for

a. All Inst Flts

b. All Inst and Visual Flts

c. After 5 kms / 5 Nms

d. All controlled flts

787. Flt Crew on Domestic Flt. The Flt time should not exceed more than ______ and No. of landing restrictions
is

a. 8 hrs and 4 landings

b. 8 hrs and 6 landings

c. 9 hrs and 3 landings

d. 6 hrs and 4 landings.

788. All a/c from one FIR to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS ______ mts prior
to entry.

a. 60

b. 20

c. 10

d. 30.

789. Without visual Aid a pilot often interprets Centifugal Force as a sensation of

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a. Fixing

b. Turing

c. Motion Reversal

d. Pushing towards seat

790. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated inst.

conditions can cause.

a. Pilot Disorientation

b. False Horizon

c. Illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis

d. Drowsiness or haziness

791. When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop

a. with nose gear on hold line

b. so that no part of the A/C extends beyond hold line

c. so that the Flt Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line

d. Wings are in line with hold line.

792. Take off Alternate Aerodrome shall be located from the Aerodrome of departure not more than a
distance equal to the Flt of ___ with one engine inoperative cruise speed.

a. 1 hr for 2 Eng A/c and 2 hrs or more for 3 Eng or more than 3 Eng A/c

b. 30 minutes for 2 Eng A/c and one hour for more than 3 Eng A/c

c. 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 3 hr for 3 Eng A/c

d. 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 1 hr for 3 or more engine A/c

793. Lowest Transition Level in India is

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a. F 40

b. F 50

c. F 45

d. F 55

794. Cosmic Radiations affect a pilot flying over a height above

a. F 430

b. F 450

c. F 470

d. F 490

795. A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c inlast 29 cosecutive days. He can fly ______ on 30th day

a. 6 hrs. as p-i-c

b. 6 hrs as co-pilot

c. 8 hrs as Supernumerary pilot

d. None of the above

796. State aircraft includes

a. Air India Aircraft

b. Military aircraft

c. All aircraft registered in India

d. Aircraft operating in state.

797. While force landing an aircraft in a field due to engine failure, one person is killed on ground P-in-C can
be prosecuted for

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a. murder

b. culpable homicide

c. negligenced

d. cannot be prosecuted

798. Instrument time includes

a. Instrument flight time only

b. Inst Ground time only

c. Both a & b

d. Insturment Ground time upto 50% only and full Inst. Flt time.

799. For landing minima considerations, following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken into
account.

a. RVR at the beginning of runway

b. RVR at the middle of runway

c. RVR at the end of the runway

d. Lowest value out of a, b, & c

800. Flight Duty time is calculated based on

a. Chokes off to Chokes on time.

b. From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing

c. From the time you report for the duty till 15 minutes after switch off.

d. One hour before take off till 30 mins after landing

801. Maximum age upto which a pilot can fly for remuneration is

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a. 55 yrs.

b. 60 yrs.

c. 65 yrs.

d. 70 yrs.

802. Ac „A‟ reports 20 NMs inbound of LLK at F 150. Ac „B‟ reports 38 NMs inbound of LLK on same
track & level. Which statement is true if A is 15 kts faster than „B‟

a. „A‟ & „B‟ are essential local traffic to each other

b. Longitudinal Separation exists

c. Lateral separation exists.

d. „A‟ will be advised to increase speed by 5 kts to achieve longitudinal separation.

803. Ac „A‟ at F 100 is reciprocal to „B‟ at F 90 in class „A‟ airspace . „A‟ can descend through „B‟s level

a. After 5 mins of crossing each other

b. After 5 NMs of crossing each other

c. Immediately after estimated time of crossing

d. A can descend remaining in VMC & maintaining own separation

804. Separation is affected between

a. Special VFR flts & IFR flts

b. Special VFR flts & VFR flts

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

805. In case of an accident in the vicinity of aerodrome, rescue & fire services are alerted by

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a. Control Tower

b. App. Cont

c. Area Control

d. FIC

806. The following aircraft will be given priority to land

a. An aircraft with VVIP on board

b. An aircraft with critical shortage of fuel

c. A scheduled aircraft

d. An aircraft experiencing in flight bad visibility

807. PAPI lights are operated

a. During sunset to sunrise time

b. 20 mts after sunset to 20 mins before sunrise

c. In bad visibility conditions only when associated runway is in use

d. Irrespective of the visibility during day & night when associated runway is being used

808. STAR is a

a. Designated IFR arrival route

b. Designated VFR arrival route

c. Designated arrival route

d. All of the above

809. A vehicle parked close to runway holding position is a ________ for taxiing aircraft

a. Aerodrome Traffic

b. Essential local traffic

c. Essential Traffic

d. Non of the above

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810. ICAO document dealing with Acts of Unlawful Interference is

a. Annex 2

b. Annex 6

c. Annex 14

d. Annex 17

811. Significant differences between national regulations and ICAO procedures are published in

a. AIRAC

b. AIP

c. NOTAMs

d. AICs.

812. Letter „F‟ in bearing strength of pavements indicates

a. Pavement type

b. Pavement subgrade

c. Evaluation Method

d. Tyre Pressure

813. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the green navigation light of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270 then the
action of Pilot

a. Turn Right

b. Maintain heading and speed

c. Turn left

d. Give way

814. Incubation period of Yellow fever is _____ days

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a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 10

815. All aircraft after take off are to turn ________ for a circuit pattern

a. Right

b. into the wind

c. left

d. along the wind

816. Indian airspace comes under ________ class of airspace

a. A&B

b. D&E

c. A,B,C, & D

d. D, E, F, & G

817. The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered

a. 09

b. 90

c. 27

d. 270

818. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is

a. 0.3 mts.

b. 0.6 mts.

c. 0.45 mts.

d. 0.9 mts.
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819. During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be

a. The local QNH

b. The local QFE

c. The Standard Pressure Setting

d. Any desired value

820. A VFR flt cannot be operated

a. At F 120

b. At transonic speed

c. 100 NMs from the seashore in uncontrolled airspace

d. Across international borders

821. Slaughtering of animals is not permitted with in ______ of ARP

a. 10 kms

b. 10 NMs

c. 20 kms

d. 20 NMs.

822. ICAO publishes:

a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception

b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world

c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only

d) International law

823. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?

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a) 9

b) 14

c) 6

d) 11

[Link] annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

a) 14

b) 11

c) 6

d) 18

825. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

a) Annex 11

b) Annex 10

c) Annex 14

d) Annex 15

[Link] is cabotage?

a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

b) Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country

c) Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC

d) An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country

[Link] `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered

a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.

b) Binding for all member states.

c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.

d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.

828. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and
luggage?

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a) Annex 2

b) Annex 6

c) Annex 17

d) Annex 18

829. What is the objective of ICAO?

a) To assist states to purchase aircraft

b) To help airlines set up

c) To assist with improving international aviation

d) To train pilots for international aviation

830. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international
crew licences?

a) Annex 9 - Facilitation

b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing

c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft

d) Annex - 17 Security

[Link] of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

a) Annex 9 – Facilitation

b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods

c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection

d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft

[Link] annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?

a) Annex 15

b) Annex 16

c) Annex 17

d) Annex 18

[Link] annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?

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a) Annex 6

b) Annex 11

c) Annex 17
d) Annex 7

834. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the
Council?

a) The Assembly

b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting

c) The Council itself

d) The Air Navigation Commission

835. The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS) for personnel licensing is:

a) Annex 2

b) Annex 12

c) Annex 11

d) Annex 1

836. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be
about to commit an offence, to:

a) Disable him

b) Require passengers to assist in restraining

c) Request cabin crew to assist

d) Deliver the person to the appropriate authority

837. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:

a) request the crew to detain the passenger

b) ask the passenger to disembark

c) order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question

d) hand him/her over to the authorities

838. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?

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a) First freedom

b) Fourth freedom

c) Third freedom

d) Second freedom

839. The first freedom of the air allows:

a) Over-flight only

b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators

c) Landing for technical reasons

d) Carriage of mail and cargo

840. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?

a) 1st

b) 2nd

c) 3 rd

d) 4th

841. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:

a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

b) Land for technical reasons

c) Cabotage

d) Over-fly a State without landing

842. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?
a) 18
b) 21
c) 16
d) 23

843. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL, how often are you required to have a medical
examination?
a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months
b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months

[Link] can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited?

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a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer
c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer
d) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer

845. What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL licence?
a) 75 hours PIC
b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c) 100 hours PIC
d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot

846. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:
a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations
b) Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations
c) Act as a flying instructor
d) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation

847. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a) after the 21st day of illness has elapsed
b) on the 21stday of the illness
c) after a month
d) after medical has expired

848. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 15 hrs
b) 20 hrs
c) 25 hrs
d) 35 hrs

849. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a) Class 2
b) As required by ICAO.
c) Class 1
d) None of the above.

850. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a) with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
c) the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) the flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority

851. For an ATPL how many night hours are required?

a) 30
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150

852. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?

a) 200
b) 100
c) 150
d) 250
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853. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying instructor.
When will supervision cease?
a) Once you have passed a competency check
b) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d) When you have completed 100 hours solo

854. At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?

a) 21 -60
b) 21 -59
c) 8-59
d) 8-60

855. Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hours requirement for a CPL(A)?
a) 100 hours PIC or SPIC
b) 20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300
nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes
c) 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm and to
include 2 landings
d) 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings

856. What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?

a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 21

857. Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than .......
hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.
a) 100 15
b) 100 20
c) 100 25
d) 75 25

858. According to CAR‟84, what classes of medical exist?

a) Class 1 only
b) Classes 1, 2 and 3
c) Classes 1 and 2
d) Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4

859. The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:
a) date of issue
b) date of application received by the authority
c) date of skill test
d) date of medical examination

860. In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:

a) PPL with instructor rating
b) Have CPL with FI rating
c) CPL
d) ATPL

861. For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:

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a) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
b) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
c) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
d) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision

862. A pilot with a CPL can act as:

a) PIC in commercial aviation
b) PIC in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
c) PIC of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
d) PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation

863. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a) The date of the assessment
b) The date the certificate delivered to the pilot
c) The date of licence issue
d) The date of the revalidation of the licence

864. The minimum age for a CPL holder is

a) 17 years
b) 18 years
c) 16 years
d) 21 years

865. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a crew
member's licence to be recognised by Contracting States?
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 1
d) Annex 4

866. The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:
a) 100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command
b) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
c) 100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
d) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command

867. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:
a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
b) 150 hours flight time
c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d) 200 hours flight time

868. Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?
a) Steady red
b) Steady green
c) Flashing green
d) White

869. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V

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870. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

a) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b) 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
c) 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
d) The same as class D

871. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?
a) cleared to land
b) return for landing and await clearance to land
c) give way to other landing aircraft
d) land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron

872. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What
does it mean?
a) Return to start point
b) Clear to taxi
c) Clear to take off
d) Stop

873. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?
a) Rocking wings
b) Flashing lights
c) Cut across track
d) Breaking turn up and left

874. Which has priority to land?

a) A hospital flight
b) An emergency
c) A military flight
d) A VIP flight

875. Which of these is not a distress frequency?

1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz
a) 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4

876. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C

877. You are taxying an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the tower. What does it
mean?
a) Stop
b) Taxi clear of the landing area
c) Give way to approaching aircraft
d) You are not clear to take off

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878. Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the CTR without
clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?
a) B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
b) A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
c) A has right of way if B is on the right
d) B has right of way if A is on the left

879. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and include the
phrase:
a) "Cancelling my flight plan"
b) "Cancelling my flight"
c) "Cancelling my IFR flight"
d) "Cancelling my IMC flight plan"

880. What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?

a) Waving the arms across the face
b) Drawing the palm across the throat
c) Clenching raised fists
d) Holding both arms up with palms facing forward

881. ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:
a) A 7600 Mode C
b) A 0020 Mode C
c) A 5300 Mode C
d) A 7620 Mode C

882. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a) 50 minutes before off-block time
b) 60 minutes before departure
c) 10 minutes before departure
d) 30 minutes before off-block time

883. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognised as an aircraft in distress?

a) Code 7500
b) Code 7700
c) Code 7000
d) Code 7600

884. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

885. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not comply with ATC
instructions. You should:
a) select code 7500 A on your transponder
b) ask ATC for different instructions
c) comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft
d) comply with ATC instructions

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886. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards. What
does this signal indicate?
a) clear to move forward
b) brakes off
c) remove chocks
d) clear to close all engines

887. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a. World War I
b. The Korean War
c. World War II
d. The American War of Independence

888. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

a. The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b. All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c. The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a
boundary with another state
d. The airspace over a state and its territorial waters

3. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?

a. International law
b. The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
c. The ICAO law
d. The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area

889. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to
obey the law of France ?
a. Yes at all times
b. No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France
c. Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh
d. Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he

890. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:

a. A regular series of flights from one place to another
b. Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral
agreement between the two states
c. Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance
d. Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air

891. Do any rules of the air exists over international waters (high seas areas)?
a. Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air
b. No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
c. Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
d. Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane

892. With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:
a. Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour
b. Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the Chicago
Convention
c. Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC)
d. Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR

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893. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such
an offence?
a. Interpol
b. The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator
d. ICAO through the International Court at The Hague

894. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?

a. 2000
b. 7777
c. 7600
d. 7500

895. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as
commander?
a. The passengers
b. The Operator
c. The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d. The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane

896. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?

a. No
b. Yes, but only for single engine operation
c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation
d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over

897. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the licence.
What else must you carry?
a. Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself
b. Your valid medical certificate
c. Your valid medical certificate or your passport
d. Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you identity as
stated on your licence

898. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell. Which
of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a. Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication
b. Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c. Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure
d. The need to wear dark glasses

899. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical concerns.
One such situation is:
a. A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient
b. Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days
c. Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days
d. Diagnosis of the need for spectacles to be used for reading

900. It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is the aeroplane
required to be lit?
a. Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated
b. Only if the engines are running
c. No
d. Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome
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901. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
[Link] are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect that is
worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?
a. No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b. Yes but only because it is daylight
c. No because you are flying IFR
d. Yes

902. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?
a. No, he only needs to be a qualified observer
b. No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make
c. Yes
d. No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you
incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying
903. `If you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed
traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?
a. Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome
b. If you are aware that the aerodrome is there
c. If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ)
d. Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ

904. When is a flight plan is required?

a. For all flights
b. For all IFR flights
c. For all VFR flights in controlled airspace
d. For all flights which require an air traffic service

905. When is a flight plan not required?

a. For VFR flights crossing international boundaries
b. For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the
boundary
c. For VFR flights in advisory airspace
d. For flights over distances less than 50Km at night

906.A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is
submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is required
regarding the type of aeroplane?
a. Wake turbulence category
b. Optimum cruising mach number
c. Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude
d. Minimum equipment list

907. When is a flight plan `closed'?

a. When it is complete and ready for filing
b. When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing'
c. When the aeroplane arrives at the destination
d. On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome

[Link] is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

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a. Prior to operating any controlled flight

b. Prior to entry into controlled airspace
c. Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several aerodromes
en route
d. At least 30 minutes prior to take off

[Link] you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated
Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do?
a. Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible
b. Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
c. Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700
and make an approach to land
d. Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC

910. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the left,
and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?
a. Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!)
b. You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
c. You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
d. The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be
reported by AIRPROX procedures

[Link] is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
b. If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
c. If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
d. If the cloud ceiling is more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less

912. Unless authorised, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a. FL150(Correct)
b. FL245
c. FL200
d. FL 180

[Link] or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m radius of
the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?
a. En route outside of an ATZ
b. Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore
c. In class G airspace in daylight
d. Only where necessary for take off and landing

914. You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC much
longer. What should you do'?
a. File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance
b. If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome
c. Get a Special VFR clearance and continue
d. Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the Air Traffic Controllers
sort it out.

[Link] are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking
avoiding action. What should you do?

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a. Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
b. Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
c. Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
d. Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared

916. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before making a
request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?
a. What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
b. How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC
c. How much day light is left
d. Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the destination

[Link] may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A airspace?
a. In good VMC
b. Above 24 500 ft
c. Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
d. When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique

918. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a listening
watch with an ATS unit?
a. No
b. Yes, always
c. Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d. Yes if you are flying in IMC

[Link] you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?
a. Help
b. Mayday
c. Pan Pan
d. Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)

920. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?
a. The frequency in use
b. 121.500 Mhz
c. 119.100 Mhz
d. 123.450 Mhz

[Link] are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower,
what does it mean?
a. Give way to an approaching aeroplane
b. Return to the starting point
c. Stop
d. Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway

922. You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare fired
from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?

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a. The Tower controller is scaring the birds away

b. An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop
immediately
c. You have not acknowledged the clearance to land
d. Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being

923. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC
watch. You see this yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?
a. It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
b. It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are clear to
continue taxiing
c. It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
d. It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.

924. A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean?
a. Glider flying is in progress
b. Take-off and landing are not restricted to the same direction
c. Right hand circuit in force
d. Non radio traffic is permitted to use this aerodrome

925. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?
a. I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane.
b. I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this
parking bay
c. This is your parking bay
d. Stop immediately

926. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate tot he
marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first?
a. Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing
to no 2 engine
b. Raise a hand with two fingers extended
c. Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched fist
d. Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting

927. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?
a. NDB and ILS
b. VOR and NDB
c. VOR and DME
d. NDB and DME

928. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure?
a. En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach
b. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach
c. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal
d. En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating

929. During the latter stages of an instrument approach, track accuracy is of paramount importance as it is the
major factor in defining the limits of the obstacle clearance zone which leads to calculation of DH. Which of
the following facilities is the most accurate for providing track guidance?

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a. VOR
b. ILS localiser
c. ILS glide path
d. NDB

930. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?
a. Not less than 3.5%
b. 3.5°
c. About 300ft/km
d. Should not exceed 5%

[Link] does the initial approach segment end?

a. At the start of the final approach segment
b. At the FAF
c. Overhead the facility upon which the procedure is based
932. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this?
a. The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance my not be achieved
b. The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this track may
result in a collision with other approaching aircraft
c. The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane
d. The initialisation of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires
the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.

933. Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a. At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase
b. At the missed approach point (MAPt)
c. At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued
d. At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach

934. In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg?
a. 1 1/2 minutes starting over or abeam the fix
b. 1 minute starting abeam the fix
c. It is determined by either distance or time, whichever is specified
d. Not less than 5nm

935. The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of
obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends:
a. All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area
b. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area
c. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area
d. 2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of the holding
area on the holding side of the pattern

936. When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported?
a. As a flight level
b. It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter
c. As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending
d. It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep

937. When/where is the use of aerodrome QFE permitted?

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a. When transiting the Aerodrome Traffic Zone

b. Within a zone if the aerodrome is within a CTR
c. When flying en-route in the vicinity of an aerodrome if regional QNH is below the subscale of
the altimeter
d. For terrain clearance during the final approach to a runway

938. If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight?
a. No, you must get if fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace
b. Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace
c. Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form
d. Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled
flights

939. What do the initials SRA mean?

a. Separated Radar Approach
b. Simplex Radar Application
c. Secondary Radar Approach
d. Surveillance Radar Approach

940. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing
facility providing the basis for an instrument approach?
a. Minimum Safe Altitude
b. Minimum Sector Altitude
c. Mandatory Safety Area
d. Maximum Speed Area

941. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made:
a) To the left
b) To the left then right
c) To the right
d) Procedure turn right then left

[Link] a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a) Rate of turn of 3 °/sec
b) Rate of turn of 3 °/sec or 20 ° bank whichever is lesser
c) Rate of turn of 30°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser
d) Bank angle of 25°

943. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a) 25nm
b) 10nm
c) 15nm
d) 15km

944. What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30° leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a
holding pattern?
a) 1 1/2 mins
b) 2 1/2 mins
c) 3 mins
d) 30 secs –

945. What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft.
without special ATC clearance?
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a) 230 kts
b) 285 kts
c) 250 kts
d) 240 kts

[Link] is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a) 5.5%
b) 2.5%
c) 0.8%
d) 3.3%

947. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a) An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information
b) An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
c) An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
d) An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information

948. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:
a) OCH/A
b) 200ft
c) 350ft
d) 400ft

949. When carrying out a 45/180° procedure turn in Class C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45° leg be ?
a) 1 minute
b) 1 minute 15 seconds
c) 1 minute 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes

950. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal conditions at
4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?
a) 0.83 Mach
b) 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c) 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)

951. What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from the
initial approach segment for a non-precision approach ?
a) 30 °
b) 45°
c) 120°
d) 15°

952. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6

953. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
a) DH
b) FAF
c) FAP
d) MAPT
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[Link] an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound
with track reversal. This is called:
a) Base Turn
b) Procedure Turn
c) Reverse Procedure
d) Racetrack

955. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)?
a) only determined for Cats A & B
b) only determined for Cats C, D & E
c) different for all Cats
d) the same for all Cats

[Link] what distance does an SRA normally terminate?

a) 2nm
b) 1 nm
c) 3nm
d) 1/2 nm

[Link] direction are turns in the standard holding pattern?

a) left
b) right
c) depends on w/v
d) depends on entry made

[Link] making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome setting,
unless otherwise authorised by ATC?
a) Transition altitude
b) Transition level
c) 300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher
d) within the transition layer

959. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways?

a) RVR 350m DH not below 100ft
b) RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c) RVR 200 DH not below 200ft
d) RVR 300 DH not below 200ft

[Link] is OCH for an ILS approach complied with?

a) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and full scale localiser deflection
b) not more than 1/2 scale localiser deflection
c) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and 35 ° localiser deflection
d) not more than full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localiser deflection

961. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?
a) +/- 5 °
b) +/- 10 °
c) +/- 15 °
d) +/- 20°

962. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern?

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a) 3 kms
b) 3 runs
c) 5 kms
d) 5 nms

963. What is the width of the zone of flexibility regarding which procedure to execute when joining a holding
pattern?
a) +/-5 °
b) +/-10°
c) +/-15°
d) +/-20°

964. What range would the radar service be normally terminated for an SRA?
a) 1 nm
b) 1.5 nm
c) 2 nm
d) 4 nm

965. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway?
a) Initial segment
b) Final segment
c) Arrival segment
d) Intermediate segment

966. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold of
the landing runway. What do you do?
a) Carry out the missed approach procedure
b) Turn through 90° and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference
c) Head towards the FAF
d) Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves

967. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a) Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision
b) Non-precision and Precision in general
c) Precision CAT I / II / III
d) Instrument precision and CAT 11/111

968. What is the transition level?

a) The first flight level above the transition altitude
b) The highest flight level available below the transition altitude
c) The top of the ATZ
d) The level at which 1013 is set

969. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the runway
and descent commenced?
a) Final
b) Initial
c) Intermediate
d) Arrival

970. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land:

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a) the same for Cat A and B aircraft

b) Different for each category
c) The same for Cats A, B and D
d) The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D

971. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA?
a) Yes
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) It depends on the flight conditions

972. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:

a) 3%
b) 3.3%
c) 5%
d) 2.5%

973. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal?
a) Base turn
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure
d) Racetrack procedure

974. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a) Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it
b) Fly the heading without wind correction
c) Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
d) Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind

975. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a) From where a new instrument approach can be commenced
b) Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
c) Where a climb is established
d) At the missed approach point

976. Who determines OCA/H?

a) The operator
b) The flight operations department
c) The authority of the State
d) The Commander

977. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:
a) 1/4 scale deflection
b) 1'/2 scale deflection
c) 1 scale deflection
d) 1/2 scale deflection

978. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable?
a) Aircraft magnetic heading
b) Aircraft true track
c) Aircraft track over the ground
d) Aircraft compass heading

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979. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 ° magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a heading
of 232° magnetic. What type of join should you make?
a) Direct
b) Parallel
c) Offset or Parallel
d) Reciprocal

[Link] is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold?
a) 5°
b) 2.5
c) 10°
d) 2°

981. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?
a) When a height of 50m has been achieved and maintained
b) When established in the climb
c) At the missed approach point
d) When en-route either to the hold or departure

982. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy of.
a) 1/4 scale
b) 1/2 scale
c) 1 scale
d) 1 1/2 scale

983. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 1 10, the max IAS is:
a) 170 kt
b) 240 kt
c) 230 kt
d) 280 kt

984. The abbreviation OIS means:

a) Obstacle in surface
b) Obstruction in surface
c) Obstruction identification surface
d) Obstacle identification surface

985. Which of the following defines a standard holding procedure?

a) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
b) Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
c) Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14 000 ft
d) Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000ft

986. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a) Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing
b) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach
c) Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach
d) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing

987. In a category A aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air?
a) 45/180° procedure turn
b) 80/260° procedure turn
c) Base turn
d) Racetrack

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988. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the
minimum obstacle clearance provided?
a) 300m
b) At least 300m
c) 150m
d) At least 150m

989. When conducting a procedure turn (45°/180°), for how long should the 45° leg be flown for a Cat A or Cat
B aircraft ?
a) 1 minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 1 minute 15 seconds
d) 2 minutes

990. What are the phases of the Missed Approach Procedure?

a) Initial, intermediate and final
b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final
c) Initial and final
d) Arrival, intermediate and final

991. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the
position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:
a) Visual Approach
b) Aerodrome traffic pattern
c) Visual Manoeuvring (circling)
d) Contact Approach

992. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that:
a) You are 50 ft above the nominal glidepath
b) The fix is passed no lower than the specified crossing altitude
c) You leave the intermediate approach altitude step-by-step until reaching the MAPt
d) The fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min.

993. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach:

a) conducted by a crew consisting of at least 2 pilots who are properly trained
b) which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information, provided that the pilot uses a flight
director or an autopilot and is certified to a height of 200 ft.
c) which uses azimuth, distance and elevation information
d) which uses azimuth and elevation information

994. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a) 15 nms (28 kms)
b) 30 nms (55 kms)
c) 25 nms (46 kms)
d) 20 runs (37 kms)

995. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
a) 800m
b) 550m
c) 50m
d) 550ft

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996. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

a) I minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes

997. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
a) At the IF
b) At the IAF
c) At the FAF
d) At the final en-route fix

998. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:
a) correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
b) ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c) ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d) ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

999. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
a) When it seems possible to land
b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
d) When the tower is visible

1000. Turns in a standard holding pattern are:

a) in a direction dependent on the wind
b) in a direction dependent on the type of entry
c) left handed
d) right handed

1001. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to
a) make a step-down descent in approaching sequence
b) pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) pass a specific point

1002. Your transponder fails prior to departure and it is not practical to effect a repair.
ATC is required to:
a) Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair can be
made
b) Permit you to proceed as normal
c) Forbid you from taking off
d) Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan

1003. A visual circling approach procedure:

a) can only be conducted under radar control
b) is a visual manoeuvre conducted under IMC
c) entails the radar controller providing separation
d) has to be conducted with visual reference to the ground

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1004. When can an aircraft descend below MSA?

1) the airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so
2) the aircraft is under radar control
3) the underlying terrain is visible
4) the aircraft is following an approach procedure
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

[Link] is the definition of Distress?

a) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires
immediate assistance
b) Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued
c) The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome
d) The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or
within sight

[Link] defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)?

a) A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and
imminent danger
b) A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted
c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety
d) A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency

1007. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted?
a) D
b) E
c) A
d) B

1008.A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of
approaching aircraft for at least
a) 7nms
b) 5 rims
c) 15 rims
d) 20 rims

1009. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a) 250 kts TAS
b) 250 kts IAS
c) Not applicable
d) 200 kts IAS

1010. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a) Discrete VHF frequency only
b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR
c) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency
d) ILS only

1011. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?

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a) FIC or the relevant ATCU

b) The State and ATC
c) The Area Control and the RCC
d) RCC and the FIR

1012. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

a) The Distress Phase
b) The Alarm Phase
c) The Alert Phase
d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase

1013. FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:
a) C,D,E,F,G
b) F and G only
c) F
d) A,B,C,D,E,F,G

1014. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service:
a) Radar, SAR and FIS
b) Area, Approach and Aerodrome
c) Radar, Procedural and FIS
d) Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.

1015. For VFR flight in class E airspace:

a) ATC clearance and two way radio are required
b) Two way radio not required
c) ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required
d) ATC clearance is required

1016. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a) country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier
b) country identifier followed by P/D/R
c) P/D/R followed by the identifier
d) country identifier followed by numbers

1017. Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway?

a) the State
b) the State + ICAO
c) ICAO
d) RAN

1018. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other
VFR traffic?
a) B
b) BODE
c) BC
d) BCD

1019. What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA ?

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a) The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome

b) The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace
c) The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace
d) The controlling of IFR traffic

1020. What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?
a) control area
b) Air Traffic Zone
c) control zone
d) TMA

1021. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?
a) C
b) D
c) C
d) F

1022. The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:

a) 300m
b) 150m
c) 200m
d) 500m

1023. How often is an ATIS updated?

a) Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR
b) When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity
c) When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum
d) When there is a significant change in information.

1024. RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a) 98%
b) 93%
c) 95%
d) 90%

1025. In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C; D and E

1026. The lower boundary of an UIR must be:

a) An IFR flight level
b) A VFR flight level
c) Is not specified
d) At any flight level

1027. List the services provided in a FIR:

a) FIS only
b) FIS, advisory ATC, ATC
c) FIS, aerodrome control
d) FIS, alerting service

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1028. Who organises the RNP specification for airspace?

a) The State in which the airspace is located
b) ICAO
c) The State + ICAO
d) States who agree what the RNP should be

1029. What is the upper limit of a CTA?

a) 2,000 ft
b) 3,000 ft
c) 5,000 ft
d) A VFR Flight Level

1030. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service for
separation?
a) F
b) E
c) G
d) D

1031. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:
a) separate you from all traffic
b) separate you from all IFR traffic
c) separate you from all arriving traffic
d) separate you from all VFR traffic

1032. In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without a radio?

a) E & G
b) D
c) E, D
d) C, D, E

1033. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR
separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D

1034. In class C airspace, what flights are separated?

a) All flights
b) IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR
c) IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR
d) IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR

1035. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing and
communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service will be
declared by the ATSU ?
a) DETRESFA
b) INCERFA
c) ALERFA
d) EMERGFA

1036. A Control Zone has to exist to at least:

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a) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
b) 20 rims from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
c) 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
d) 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made

1037. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
a) Air Traffic Coordination Centres
b) Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres
c) Search and Rescue Coordination Centres
d) Air Traffic Control Centres only

1038. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety
of lowlevel aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in
the FIR concerned or sub-area thereof."
a) NOTAM
b) SIGMET Information
c) AIRMET Information
d) En-route Weather Report

[Link], in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
2) He/she must request and obtain clearance
3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is
correct?
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4

1040. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V

1041. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a) 30 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 60 minutes

[Link] is the standard ICAO position report?

a) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
b) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time
c) Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time
d) Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time
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[Link] a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight?
a) 15 mins
b) 30 mins
c) 45 mins
d) 60 mins

[Link] is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

a) Ground speed
b) True airspeed
c) Ground speed plus 10%
d) Indicated airspeed

[Link] have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do
you do?
a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation
d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours

1046. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination
b) Time from brakes released to landing time
c) Time from take off to overhead the destination
d) Time from take off to landing

1047. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a
new flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time
d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time

1048. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) present position and ETA
b) estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c) estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d) ETA and endurance

1049. What types of separation do ATC apply?

a) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing
b) Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal
c) Horizontal , vertical and composite
d) Horizontal, vertical and lateral

1050. What is a strayed aircraft?

a) One that has gone significantly off-track
b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC
c) Both „a‟ and „b‟.
d) One which its position has not been established by ATC

[Link] you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is:

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a) 20 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 15 minutes

1052. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?
a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 20 nm

1053. When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in
VMC maintaining own separation?
a) If the pilot requests and the state approves
b) If the pilot requests and it is day time
c) If the pilot requests during day or night
d) Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted

[Link] RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

a) 80 nm
b) 50 nm
c) 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type
d) 20 nm

1055. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before
one of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a) 5 nm
b) 10 nm
c) 15 nm
d) 20 nm

1056. Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of another
aircraft. What is required?
a) During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval
b) You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night
c) You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre
d) In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal

[Link] ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920" What does this mean?
a) The flight must end by 0920
b) The slot time cannot be later than 0920
c) The next clearance will be issued at 0920
d) Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight hasn't commenced

1058. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second

[Link] aircraft are using the Mach Number technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster
thansecond) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu
of time?
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a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 25 nm
1060. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is theminimum
RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal separation?
a) 150nm
b) 50nm
c) 80nm
d) 120nm

1061. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed,
assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum is:
a) 60 nms
b) 80 nms
C) 50 rims
d) 20 nms

1062. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what
change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a) 10 kts
b) 8 kts
c) 3 kts
d) 5 kts

1063. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 2 minutes

1064. Approach control is provided for:

a) All arriving and departing controlled flights
b) All arriving IFR traffic
c) Traffic within the CTA
d) All VFR traffic

1065. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:
a) 5 minutes or more
b) 10 minutes or more
c) 1 minute or more
d) 15 minutes or more

1066. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when
can the first aircraft start descending to that level?
a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level
b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level
c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level
d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level

1067. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

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a) after the FAF

b) with visual reference to the terrain
c) when the visibility is greater than 5km
d) after the MAP

1068. A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach?
a) when the controller will provide separation from other traffic
b) the aircraft has passed the FAF
c) with a met visibility at least 8kms
d) the remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.

1069. Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What
separation should be provided?
a) 2 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 7 mins

1070. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30°
d) 20°

1071. When can normal separation be reduced?

a) When the controller has both aircraft in sight
b) When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it
c) When both pilots request it
d) When both aircraft are under radar control

1072. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
a) When it seems possible to land
b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
d) When the tower is visible

1073. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:
a) make a step-down descent in approaching sequence
b) pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) pass a specific point

1074. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a) before landing and taxi for take-off
b) in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c) when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give an
AIREP
d) when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West

1075. What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second on departure?

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a) 2 mins
b) 5 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 4 mins

1076. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed
to an aircraft on final approach?
a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 2nm
d) 4nm

1077. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a) It must be located within a CTR
b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
d) It must be in controlled airspace

1078. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a) 5 min
b) 3 min
c) 1 min
d) 2 min

1079. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a) Separation
b) Helping when aircraft communications have failed
c) To assist pilots with technical problems
d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost

1080 When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a) Always
b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
d) Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion

[Link] two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence?
a) 4 nms
b) 2.5 nms
c) 2 nms
d) 3 nms

[Link] maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a) ± 40 kts
b) ± 5 kts
c) ± 10 kts
d) ± 20 kts

1083. To whom is the alerting service provided?

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a) All IFR traffic

b) All flight-planned aircraft
c) All hijacked aircraft
d) All traffic known to ATC

1084. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:
a) The pilot is responsible for own navigation
b) Radar vectoring is terminated
c) The pilot should contact next ATC unit
d) The pilot should contact the current ATC unit

1085. What is standard radar separation?

a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 10nm
d) 15nm

1086. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?
a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30° or more
d) a minimum of 25 °

1087. When may the pilot operate the `ident' switch on the transponder?
a) in controlled airspace
b) when requested by ATC
c) in uncontrolled airspace
d) when under radar control

1088. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:
a) Degrees true, to be corrected for wind
b) Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind
c) Degrees true
d) Degrees magnetic

1089. When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

a) Only when directed by ATC
b) Always
c) Always in controlled airspace
d) Only in controlled airspace

[Link] separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy?

a) 2 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 4 mins
d) 5 mins

1091. What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?
a) 5 nm
b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 10 nm
d) 20 nm

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1092. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence
separation applied as required is:
a) 6 nms
b) 2.5 runs
c) 4 nms
d) 2 nms

1093. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?

a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C

1094. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a) At pilots discretion
b) Dependant on weather conditions
c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
d) Not less than 30°

1095. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

a) Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity
b) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
c) Aircraft on the movement area only
d) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only

1096. On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence
separation?
a) 5 nm
b) 2.5 nm
c) 2 run
d) 1 nm

1097. What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category
aircraft on final approach?
a) 2.5 run
b) 3 nm
c) 5 nm
d) 6 nm

1098. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in
distress are:
a) uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase
b) uncertainty phase, alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase
c) uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase

1099. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway.
What wake turbulence separation will be applied?
a) 3 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 1 minute
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1100. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a
heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a) 2 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 4 minutes

1101. What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

a) the aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are
communicating with this radar facility
b) ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning
traffic until you are notified that contact is lost
c) your aircraft is identified on the radar screen
d) you receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or
radar service is terminated

1102. The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified take-off
mass of an aircraft is less or equal to:
a) 5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters
b) 14,000 kg
c) 20,000 kg
d) 7,000 kg

1103. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector must
be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than:
a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 15°
d) 25°

1104. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a) light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes

1105. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) None

1106. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

1107. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

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a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) COMMS

1108. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

a) GEN
b) COMMS
c) AD
d) AGA

1109. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a) every 5 days
b) every 28 days
c) every 18 days
d) at intervals of not more than one month.

1110. AIP approach charts do not give information for Instrument Approach Procedures for:
a) OCA/H
b) Visibility minima
c) Obstacles protruding above the obstacle free zone
d) DME frequencies

1111. AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this
respect?
a) 1 yr
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 6 months

1112. AIRAC is:

a) A breakdown service
b) Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP
c) A medical evacuation flight
d) An Army Air Corps publication

1113. What information is not on an aerodrome approach plate?

a) DME frequency
b) OCA
c) Dominant obstacles
d) Operating minima if the aerodrome is being used as an alternative

1114. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?
a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN

1115. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?
a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN

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1116. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?
a) Between. 1.0 and 0.25
b) Between 0.25 and 0.3
c) Between 0.30 and 0.35
d) Between 0.35 and 0.4

1117. Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

a) Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organisation
b) only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground
c) has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organisation, but the activities are neither
continuous or regular
d) can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services

1118. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a
distance of at least:
a) 100 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 300 metres
d) 500 metres

1119. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a) 02.03.04
b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10°
c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's
d) `L' `C' `R'

1120. What is a stopway for?

a) Stopping after landing distance
b) Extending the Landing Distance Available
c) Stopping after an aborted take off
d) A runway extension for big aircraft

1121. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:

a) closed runway
b) runway which is 2400 meters or longer
c) displaced runway
d) runway available for circling to land approaches

1122. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is
prepared as a suitable area:
a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway

1123. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways
c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters

1124. A PAPI system consists of

a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformally spaced
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b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformally spaced

c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformally spaced
d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformally spaced

1125. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

[Link] in lights are:

a) Green at threshold across the runway
b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
c) Yellow
d) Steady white across the runway

1127. What colour are runway end lights?

a) Unidirectional red
b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red
d) Omni directional white

1128. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a) Omni directional green
b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach
c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach
d) Red uni-directional

[Link] a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a) 150 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 250 metres
d) 300 metres

[Link] colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?
a) Red or yellow
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Blue

[Link] aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is:

a) blue
b) white
c) green
d) red

[Link] colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light?

a) Flashing Green
b) Flashing Green and White
c) Steady Green
d) Flashing White

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[Link] is the colour of threshold lights?

a) Steady white
b) Flashing white
c) Steady green
d) Flashing green

[Link] is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?

a) 300 m
b) 600 m
c) 900 m
d) 1200 m

[Link] information signs are:

a) Black on red, or red on black
b) Yellow on red, or black on yellow
c) Yellow on black, or black on yellow
d) Orange on black, or black on orange

[Link] edge lights are:

a) Fixed showing blue
b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow
d) Flashing showing blue

1137. Runway lead-in lights must consist of.

a) Only flashing lights
b) A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway
c) Arbitrary number of green lights
d) Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway

1138. On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway and
two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft?
a) Under the approach glide path
b) Above the approach glide path
c) Precisely on the glide path
d) On or close to the approach glide path

[Link] abbreviation "PAPI" stands for:

a) Precision Approach Path Index
b) Precision Approach Power Indicator
c) Precision Approach Path Indicator
d) Precision Approach Power Index

1140. What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon?

a) Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only
b) White flashes only
c) Green flashes only
d) Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon

1141. What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light?

a) Blue
b) Steady red
c) Yellow
d) Flashing red
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1142. Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are:
a) Flashing green
b) Flashing yellow
c) Steady red
d) Steady blue

1143. What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome required to show?
a) Flashing yellow
b) Flashing red
c) Flashing blue
d) Steady red

1144. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
a) Green
b) Dayglo orange
c) A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green
d) White and red chequered

[Link] object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by:
a) low intensity steady red lights
b) low intensity flashing red lights
c) medium intensity steady red lights
d) medium intensity flashing red lights

1146. Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confides of an aerodrome?
a) No, providing the response time can be met
b) Yes
c) No
d) No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time of the aerodrome

[Link] level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the aerodrome. What
factors determine this category?
a) Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the largest
aircraft using that aerodrome
b) The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered
c) The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome
d) The length of the longest runway and total area of hardstandings (including access roads)

1148. The General Declaration is signed by the:

a) The Pilot in Command only

b) The Pilot in Command or the Agent
c) Any flight crew member
d) The Operator

[Link] does the SAR signal "X" on the ground mean?

a) We need help
b) We are OK
c) We need medical supplies
d) We have gone away

[Link] what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State?

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a) During the hours of operation of an FIR

b) On a 24 hour basis
c) hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR
d) During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR

[Link] aircraft are at the scene of an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2
arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft. Who
assumes responsibility ?
a) Wait for aircraft 3 to arrive
b) Aircraft 2 because he has good communications with ATC
c) Aircraft 2 until aircraft 3 arrives
d) Aircraft 1 until aircraft 2 arrives who then passes control to aircraft 3

[Link] of the following means `Require assistance'?

a) Y
b) X
c) LL
d) V

[Link] sighting a distress flare at night, you should:

a) Circle once
b) Flash landing lights or navigation lights
c) Rock wings
d) Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft

[Link] is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?

a) FIC and RCC
b) RCC and rescue sub-centres
c) FIC, RCC and ACC
d) ICAO through regional navigation plans

[Link] does the SAR ground signal "V" mean?

a) We have gone south
b) We need assistance
c) We need medical assistance
d) Yes

1156. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is:
a) + +
b) LLL
c) LL
d) Y

[Link] ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean?

a) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference
b) To safeguard international civil aviation operations
c) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hijacking
d) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against terrorism

[Link] Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at:
a) all aerial locations within the FIR
b) at each aerodrome serving international civil aviation
c) all international airports
d) all international and commercial airports
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[Link] States must design a security programme, with regard to Unlawful Interference, to safeguard:
a) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights
b) Passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public
c) Crews only for international flights
d) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their discretion, all of these for
domestic flights

[Link] armed personnel are to be carried to ensure the safety of an aircraft, then:
a) the PIC must be informed
b) the state of departure must notify the state of arrival
c) the state of departure must notify the airport of arrival
d) all of the above

1161. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended
to safeguard:
a) civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
b) international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
c) international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
d) aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"

1162. Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for the carriage of:
a) Deportees and people under lawful custody
b) Deportees, people under lawful custody and inadmissibles
c) Only people under lawful custody when physically restrained
d) Only deportees and inadmissible

1163. Airlines are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers confined to:
a) Inadmissibles, deportees, persons in custody
b) Persons in custody
c) Inadmissibles, deportees
d) Deportees, persons in custody

1164. An aircraft subjected to Unlawful Interference cannot be denied:

a) Permission to land and fuel
b) Air Traffic Services, permission to land and the use of navigational aids.
c) Food and water for the occupants of the aircraft
d) Air Traffic Services and fuel

1165. To whom does the National Security organisation of a state have to make available a written version of its
national security programme for civil aviation?
a) ICAO and ECAC
b) ICAO
c) ECAC
d) Other States

1166. For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be taken
among which is to:
a) Embark after all other passengers
b) Embark before all other passengers
c) Embarking at the captain's discretion
d) Embarking at the State's discretion

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1167. An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is
never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a) 1,000
b) 2,500
c) 3,000
d) 100

1168.A national civil aviation security programme must be established by:

a) ICAO and other organisations including the Contracting States concerned
b) ICAO
c) All Contracting States
d) ECAC

[Link] States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport of
undesirable passengers. These are seen as:
a) None of the answers are correct
b) Deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody
c) Deportees and inadmissible passengers only
d) Deportees and persons in custody

1170. The State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft subjected to
an act of unlawful interference until:
a) the end of the subsequent investigation
b) as such time as requested by the passengers and crew
c) their journey can be continued
d) they are returned to their country of origin

1171. A person found to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody of the operator who shall be responsible
for:

a) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person is
admissible at the expense of the operator without redress.
b) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person is
admissible at the expense of the operator. However nothing precludes the operator from recovering from such
a person any transportation costs arising from his/her inadmissibility.
c) returning such a person to their country of origin
d) returning such a person to their normal residence

[Link] to ICAO, who is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident Investigation Board

(AAIB)?
a) State of Registry and state of aircraft manufacture
b) State of Registry, aircraft operator and state of operator
c) Any state which on request provides assistance or information to help the AAIB.
d) Any ICAO state

1173. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage. Is
this:
a) an incident
b) an accident
c) a serious incident
d) covered by normal operating procedures

[Link] is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a) State of Occurrence
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b) State or Registry
c) ICAO
d) Combination of A and B

1175. In which language must an accident report be submitted to ICAO?

a) An ICAO (working) language
b) English
c) Major national language
d) Any language of a contracting state

1176. The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:

a) Apportion blame
b) Nothing else
c) To improve manufacturing design
d) To help judicial investigations

1177. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that:

a) the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
b) the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a nature that
the aircraft is still airworthy
c) the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where the aircraft is registered which says
that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state where the
aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy

[Link] before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride
into a pothole. The aircraft has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay the
departure:
a) considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to be taken is
merely constricted to notification of the insurance company, the mechanic, the operator and persons who are
in charge of runways and taxiways
b) This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures
c) This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours
d) This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the operator about the delay
caused by necessary repairs

1179. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC
describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a. Wet
b. Damp
c. Not dry
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d. Braking action poor

1180. What information concerning contaminants on an aerodrome is reported by SNOWTAM?

a. Clear ice, rime ice and snow
b. Light snow, heavy snow and blizzard
c. Snow, ice and standing water
d. Wet snow, dry snow and frozen snow

[Link] a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to
unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?
a. 50m
b. 100 m
c. 150 m
d. 200 m

1182. What colour is taxiway centre line markings?

a. White
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Green/yellow

[Link] does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a. The threshold
b. A temporary displaced threshold
c. A displace threshold
d. 1000 ft from the end zone

[Link] marks a runway holding position?

a. One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
b. Occulting yellow `guard' lights
c. A red marker board either side of the taxiway
d. A red light stop bar

1185. What colour are apron safety lines?

a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings

[Link] all runways require centreline markings?

a. No, only paved runways
b. No, only runways over 50 m wide
c. No, only instrument runways
d. Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long

1187. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance provided
they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9

1188. What is an ASHTAM used for?

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a. Notification of no smoking areas

b. Volcanic activity
c. Predicted volcanic eruptions
d. Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination

1189. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

1190. Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?
a. A stopbar
b. A pattern A runway holding position
c. Cat 1 holding point
d. A taxiway/runway intersection sign

1191. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign
positioned?
a. 30 m
b. at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
c. 60 m
d. A distance equal to twice the width of the runway

1192. Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the
type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based?
a. Length and max take-off mass
b. Max number of passengers and crew
c. Overall length and fuselage width
d. Max landing mass and max number of passengers

1193. What is the ICAO bird strike information system called?

a. IBSI
b. IBIS
c. IRIS
d. BSIS

1194. An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations are
carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?
a. High intensity white flashing lights
b. Red flashing lights
c. Steady (non flashing) red lights
d. A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and 180 m.

1195. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
a. By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold
b. By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
c. By a yellow X
d. By white crosses evenly spaced

1196. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate?

a. To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries
b. To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute
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aerodrome
c. To replace the crew member's licence
d. To provide identification of aircrew

1197. When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state?
a. From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace
b. On a 24 hour basis
c. When a state of emergency has been declared
d. When the authority of the state deems necessary

1198. What is the meaning of this SAR „N‟visual signal when used by survivors on the ground?
a. Require assistance
b. Negative
c. Affirmative
d. Require medical assistance

1199. 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the
runway?
a. Water patches
b. Flooded
c. Damp
d. Wet

1200. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track
separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's
level?
a. 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more
b. 15° and a distance of 15 Km or more
c. 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30° and a distance of 15 Km or more

1201. What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval of one
minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved?
a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 45°

[Link] a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track, what is the
required speed difference?
a. The preceding aircraft must be 20kts faster than the following aircraft
b. The preceding aircraft must be 40kts faster than the following aircraft
c. The preceding aircraft must be 50kts faster than the following aircraft
d. The preceding aircraft must be 60kts faster than the following aircraft

1203. What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation?

a. Wing span of 35m or more
b. Four turbojet engines
c. Take off mass of 145 000 kg
d. 245 passenger seats

1204. What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?

a. Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
b. Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
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c. Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
d. Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other

1205. What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic advisory
service?
a. Keep clear of all notified advisory routes
b. Fly at VFR flight levels
c. File a flight plan
d. Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the service

1206. An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service w ishes to cross an advisory route. What
procedure shall be used to cross the route'?
a. Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL75: FL95 etc..
b. Cross at 90° to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level
c. Cross at 90" to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level
d. Such crossings ire only to be made at the base of the airway

1207. Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane to
which a service is to be given'?
a. The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
b. Observation of a SSR squawk
c. Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft
d. Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident

1208. A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HFAVY category aircraft on a
radar vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied'?
a. 5 nm
b. 4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained
c. 6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold
d. There is no specified minimum for this case

1209. You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must you
do?
a. Resume position reports
b. Squawk standby
c. Squawk A/2000
d. Leave controlled airspace

1210. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar controller
pass to you?
a. Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path
b. Distance from touchdown and advisory height information
c. Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH
d. Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line

1211. Which of the following defines a visual approach?

a. When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained
b. An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance
c. Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
d. The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the
landing is to be made

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1212. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system within 60 m
of the centre line?

a. An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna

b. A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
c. The ILS glidepath antenna
d. The aerodrome boundary security fence

1213. What colour are runway edge lights?

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. White

1214. Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the end of the
runway and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?
a. Blue
b. White
c. Red
d. Green

1215. Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?
a. No, only in the direction of the approach
b. Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
c. No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
d. Yes but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizontal)

1216. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

a. Fixed; uni-directional; red
b. Fixed, omni-directional; red
c. Fixed; uni-directional; green
d. Fixed; omni-directional; green

1217. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided'?

a. They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground visibility
b. They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
c. They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
d. At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m

1218. Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

a. Cloud base and ground visibility for take off
b. Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for take off
c. Cloud base and RVR for take off
d. Cloud ceiling and RVR for take off.

1219. What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a. Apron
b. Ramp
c. Stands
d. Parking Bays
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1220. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose of public
transport of passengers or cargo?
a. A scheduled air service
b. A commercial air operation
c. An air transport operation
d. An airline

1221. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant
DH or MDH?
a. Glide path
b. Final approach
c. Approach to landing
d. Go around/Missed approach

1222. What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the intermediate
approach track for a precision instrument approach?
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°

1223. Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a. At DH/MDH
b. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
c. At the missed approach point
d. Over the threshold of the instrument runway

1224. If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be continued?
a. Yes, but DH now becomes MDH
b. Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with
c. It depends if the descent on the GP has already been initiated
d. Yes if the flight is in VMC

1225. Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
a. This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted
b. It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment
c. Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC
d. Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance and a high rate of descent

1226. A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what
circumstances is this is permitted?
a. Flight visibility of 1500 m or more and cloud ceiling of 850ft or more
b. The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas
c. The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing runway
d. The obstacle height for that obstacle is not more than 10% higher than the OCH calculated
without consideration of that obstacle

1227. A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° mag. You are
approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required?
a. Offset join (sector 2)
b. Reverse direct (sector 3)
c. Teardrop procedure (sector 2)
d. Sector 1 (parallel)
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1228. You are required to carry out a sector 2 (offset) joining procedure to a holding pattern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound end?
a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°

1229. It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute
duration. How long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft?
a. 1'/2 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 21/2 minutes
d. not specified

1230. How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding
area) of a holding pattern?
a. 300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas)
b. 150 m (500 ft)
c. 90 m (300 ft)
d. nil

1231. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
a. Yes
b. No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
c. Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
d. No, where G/S is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long

1232. The QNH is 1040 Mb and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the T/Alt is MSL) would your
flight level be?
a. FL 10
b. FL 0
c. FL -10
d. You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea, therefore the question is totally academic

1233. After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level (FL 40 ) which
is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report you vertical position. How would
you do this?
a. As a height above the transition altitude
b. As an altitude AMSL
c. As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 Mb
d. Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to get there
anyway!)

1234. Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?

a. It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state
b. The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft
c. The transition altitude shall not be less than 3000 ft
d. The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome traffic zone

1235. What is a controlled flight?

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a. A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate

b. A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance
c. A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR
d. A flight by a manned aeroplane

1236. What defines a danger area?

a. A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air
b. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
c. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
d. Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist

1237. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

a. The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and lit objects by night
b. Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
c. The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the airwith reference to atmospheric conditions
d. The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane

1238. When does night exist?

a. During the hours of darkness
b. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
d. During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon

1239. In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on the type
of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating?
a. A skill test including oral examinations as required
b. A proficiency check including oral examinations as required
c. Theoretical knowledge tests both written and oral
d. A flying performance check and a written type technical examination

1240. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a. Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b. A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
c. A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
d. A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR

1241. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes
to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on to a normal taxiway?
a. Rapid turn off lane
b. High speed exit lane
c. Rapid exit taxiway
d. Acute angle exit

1242. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

a. All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome

b. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the
aerodrome
c. Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit.
d. Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.

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1243. What is defined as: `A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with
radio navigation aids'?
a. A terminal manoeuvring area
b. An upper air route
c. An airway
d. A SVFR entry/exit corridor

1244. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to:
a. Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
b. Cabin baggage and checked baggage
c. Passenger baggage
d. Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control

[Link] when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud
base is lower than
a. 1000 feet and less than 8 kms visibility
b. 2000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility
c. 1500 feet or less than 5 kms visibility
d. 1000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility

1246. When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal
a. Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b. Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the [Link] clench fist.
d. Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.

1247. When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken from the
beginning of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is
a. 1 minute 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 1 minute 15 seconds
d. 2 minutes

[Link] the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on
a. Heading
b. Track
c. Course
d. Bearing

[Link] given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a. Only use the word "wilco"
b. Only read back the code
c Only use the word "roger"
d Read back mode and code

1250. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre
line and when the decent is commenced is called
a Intermediate approach segment
b Initial approach segment
c Arrival segment
d Final approach segment

[Link] does DER mean ?

a Distance end of route
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b Departure end of runway

c Distance end of runway
d. Departure end of route

[Link] action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure ?
a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed
b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC
conditions
d Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

1253. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?
a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner

1254. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?
a the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b the Captain
c the Operator of the aircraft
d. ATC

1255. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least
a. 50 minutes before off-block time
b. 60 minutes before departure
c. 10 minutes before departure
d. 30 minutes before off-block time

1256. An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the
aircraft is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a the last 2 nms of the approach
b the last 5 nms of the approach
c the last 4 nms of the approach
d the last 3 nms of the approach

1257. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus

a 15 seconds of UTC
b 10 seconds of UTC
c 30 seconds of UTC
d 1 minute of UTC

1258. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, who's aircraft on final approach follows a normal PAPI
defined glide-path ?
a2
b none
c3
d1

1259. A Clearway is a squared area that is established to

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a protect aircraft during take-off and landing

b to enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
c to enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
d to decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway

1260. When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for
transportation away from the territory of the state
a the operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility
b the operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is
refused
c the operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person
d the operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises
out of his/her inadmissibility

1261. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus
a. 10%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 2%

1262. Concerning aircraft registration markings , no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for
a. codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents
b. letter combinations beginning with Q
c. 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
d. 5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals

1263. What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled
airspace unless otherwise directed `?
a. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the heading
b. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
c. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
d. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track

1264. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the

a. pilot in command
b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. owner of the aircraft

1265. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a. they operate outside controlled airspace
b. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace
d. they operate a transponder with mode C

1266. It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area
outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the published
procedure shall be
a. circling is only permitted in VMC
b. recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is
situated.
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c. prohibit a circling approach for the concerned runway

d. forbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located

[Link] the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to

a. correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
b. ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c. ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d. ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

1268. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed as
a. altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude
b. flight level on or under the transition altitude
c. flight level on or under the transition level
d. altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude

1269. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called
a. Base turn
b. Reverse track
c. Race track
d. Procedure turn

1270. The transition of altitude to flight level and visa versa is made
a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c. At the transition level only
d. At the transition altitude only

1271. Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit
a. At least 5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
b. At least 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
c. At least 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
d. At least 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

1272. Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers
b. Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices
c. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Reporting offices
d. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

1273. When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance

a. the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b. he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance.
c. he/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance
d. he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

1274. The transition from IFR to VFR is done

a. on the Captain's initiative
b. whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c. if told by ATC
d. at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

[Link] to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
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a. before landing and taxi for take-off

b. in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c. when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
d. when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West

[Link] longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same FL, where there is
enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20 kts minimum
is
a. 3 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes

[Link] is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway ?
a. 900m
b. 600m
c. 300m
d. 150m

1278. A PAPI must consist of

a. A row of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other
b. Two rows of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other
c. A row of 2 multiple at equal distance from each other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple at equal distance from each other

1279. Lights at the end of the runway shall be

a. Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
b. Steady white lights with controllable intensity
c. Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
d. Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway

[Link] aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if

a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures
b. The aircraft receives radar vectors
c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain
visual contact
d. All of the above

1281. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are
a. 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
b. 5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of
cloud
c. 8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d. 5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

1282. The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end of each
runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is
a. 3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
b. 2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes
c. 2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
d. 3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes
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1283.A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms
outwards. What does this signal indicate ?
a. clear to move forward
b. brakes off
c. remove chocks
d. clear to close all engines

1284. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace ?

a. No flight plan required
b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not.
c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

1285. A Type Rating is applicable to

a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness
b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

1286. If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept a ILS localiser, what is that maximum intercept angle ?
a. 45°
b. 30°
c. 15°
d. 20°

1287. What are the objectives of ATC Services

a. To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the
maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
b. To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
c. To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d. To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of
air traffic.

1288. A TODA consists of

a. The take-off run available excluding the clearway
b. The take-off run available including the clearway
c. The take-off run available excluding the stopway
d. The take-off run available only

1289. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of

a. The State of Registration
b. The State of Registration ands the State of the Operator
c. The State of the Operator
d. The State of Registry and the State of Design

[Link] will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is
a. 3 000 ft
b. 5 000 ft
c. When Cb's are present
d. When the cloud base is below MSA

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1291. Voice ATIS

1. cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2. cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3. is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4. is broadcasted on either a discreet VFH, VOR or an ILS frequency
a. 1 only is correct
b. 2 only is correct
c. 4 only is correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

1292. What is the meaning of the symbol LLL search parties ?

a. We have only found some personnel
b. We have found all personnel
c. Operation completed
d. Nothing found

1293.A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a Cargo Manifest shall, apart from
theinformation indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the
following items
a. Airway bill number, and the number of packages only
b. Total weight and the number of packages only
c. Total weight and the nature of the goods only
d. Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods

1294. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to
a. Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that normally
applicable to other cargo
b. Cargo
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Mail

[Link] area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined as a
a. Clearway
b. Runway Strip Extension
c. Runway end safety area
d. Altimeter Operating Area Extension

[Link] an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign positioned
?
a. To a distance of the nearest Pattern `A' holding position
b. At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
c. It depends on the Aerodrome Category
d. 85 metres

[Link] is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of
less than 550m
a. Both a Pattern `A' and `B' holding position
b. High intensity taxiway centerline lights only
c. Runway guard lights
d. Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights

1298. ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when

a. they are below 2,500m
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b. they are below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

c. they are below 1,000m
d. they are below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

1299. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach
a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach
b. Land on the instrument runway
c. Initiate a missed approach
d. Return to the FAF

1300. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to

a. each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages,
each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
b. ICAO only
c. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

1301. When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of
its own license, the validity shall
a. not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license.
b. not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
c. be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
d. be at the discretion of ICAO

1302. Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures ?
a. GEN
b. ENR
c. AD
d. AGA

1303. The loading limitations shall include:

a. All limiting mass and centres of gravity
b. All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
c. All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

1304. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago
convention.

1305. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing?
a. Let down
b. Descend
c. Descend for landing
d. You land

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1306. An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control [Link]
signifies that the aircraft must:
a. do not land because the airport is not available for landing.
b. give way to another aircraft.
c. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d. not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

1307. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights
b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

1308. The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
a. the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
b. ATC availability and requirements.
c. availability of navigation aids.
d. airspace restrictions applicable and in force.

1309. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a. The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b. The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
c. The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d. The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

1310. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:
a. advise ATC as early as possible.
b. execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
c. remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
d. follow the radio communication failure procedure.

1311. The Transition Level:

a. shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b. shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
c. is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
d. is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

1312. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
a. only when directed by ATC.
b. unless otherwise directed by ATC.
c. only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
d. regardless of ATC instructions

1313. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a. Achieving separation between IFR flights
b. Achieving separation between controlled flights
c. Providing advisory service
d. Providing flight Information Service

1314. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below
FL 290 is:
a. 500 feet (150 m).
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b. 2500 feet (750 m).

c. 1000 feet (300 m).
d. 2000 feet (600 m).

1315. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:

a. If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests

b. Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
c. When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able
to maintain own separation
d. At the discretion of the air traffic controller

1316. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a
medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a. 3 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 1 minute
d. 4 minutes

1317. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:
a. you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for
continuation of the flight;
b. departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
c. you are not allowed to commence the flight
d. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

1318. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:
a. 250 m.
b. 200 m.
c. 150 m.
d. 300 m.

1319. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory
of the state, the operator:
a. shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility.
b. shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
c. is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
d. the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

1320. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

a. The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
b. The Operators of the same aircraft type.
c. The aircraft manufacturer.
d. The State of design and manufacturer.

1321. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the
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a. operational air traffic control centres

b. flight information or control organizations
c. air traffic co-ordination services
d. search and rescue co-ordination centres

1322. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies
a. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz
b. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz
c. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz
d. 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz

1323. Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route segments of:
a. 1 00nms or more
b. 75nms or more
c. 60nms or more
d. 50nms or more

1324. The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the
experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of 1500
hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of
a. 100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
b. 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
c. 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer
d. 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic instrument
flight trainer

1325. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a. Only use the word "wilco"
b. Only read back the code
c Only use the word "roger"
d Read back mode and code

1326. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?
a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner

1327. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?
a the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b the Captain
c the Operator of the aircraft
d TC

[Link] aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a the last 2 rims of the approach
b the last 5 rims of the approach
c the last 4 rims of the approach
d the last 3 rims of the approach
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1329. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the
a. pilot in command
b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. owner of the aircraft

1330. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a. they operate outside controlled airspace
b. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace
d. they operate a transponder with mode C

1331. Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit
a. At least 5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
b. At least 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
c. At least 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
d. At least 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

1332. Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centres
b. Flight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices
c. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centres and Traffic Air Services Reporting offices
d. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

1333. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
a. before landing and taxi for take-off
b. in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c. when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
d. when the local variation is greater than 10° East or West

1334. A PAPI must consist of

a. A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
b. Two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other
c. A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other

1335. Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as proscribed by
a. The Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
b. The Acts in force of the General Postal Union
c. The Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention
d. The Acts in force of the International Postal Union

1336. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to
a Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that normally
applicable to other cargo
b. Cargo
c. Dangerous Goods
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d. Mail

1337. ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when

a. they are below 2,500m
b. they are below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
c. they are below 1,000m
d. they are below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

1338. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to
a. each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages,
each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
b. ICAO only
c. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

1339. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered
a. Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b. Binding for all member states
c. Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d. Binding for all airline companies with international traffic

[Link] is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may
a. request the crew to detain the passenger
b. ask the passenger to disembark
c. order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d. hand him her over to the authorities

[Link] of the following is not permitted in the registration mark of an aircraft?

a. Four letter Q codes
b. Five letter international identification signals
c. Three letter international identification signals
d. Any number identifying an ICAO document

1342. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a. with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b. in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence.
c. the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d. the flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority.

1343. For an ATPL(A), how many night hours are required:

a. 30
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150

1344. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying instructor.
When will supervision cease?
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a. Once you have passed a competency check

b. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d. When you have completed 100 hours solo

1345. What is the period of validity of a PPL class 2 medical in according to regulations?
a. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
b. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
c. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
d. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65

1346. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed

a. 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
b. 150 hours flight time
c. 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d. 200 hours flight time

1347. What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a
CTR?
a. 1000m
b. 1500m
c. 2000m
d. 3000m

1348. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a. Rate of turn of 3°/sec
b. Rate of turn of 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser
c. Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser
d. Bank angle of 25°

1349. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a. 5.5%
b. 2.5%
c. 0.8%
d. 3.3%

[Link] general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than
a. OCH/A
b. 200ft
c. 350ft
d. 400ft

[Link] is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal conditions at
4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?
a. 0.83 Mach
b 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d 520 km/hr (280 kts)

1352. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance:
a. 30m
b. 100m
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c. 50m
d. 120m

[Link] what distance does an SRA normally terminate:

a. 2nm
b. 1 nm
c. 3nm
d. ½ nm

1354. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways

a. RVR 300-450m DH not below 100ft
b. RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c. RVR 200 DH not below 200ft
d. RVR 300 DH not below 200ft

1355. Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?
a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 40°

[Link] 45° leg of a 45/270° procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft is:
a. 1 min
b. 1 min 15 seconds
c. 1 min 30 seconds
d. Continued until interception of the glide slope

[Link] Vth for a Category B aircraft is

a. Up to 91 kts
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive

1358. When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length of the
track that may be used to intercept the localiser ?
a. 10 nms
b. 5 nms
c. 10 minutes
d. 5 minutes

1359. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance if 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is
a. 15 nms (28 kms)
b. 30 nms (55 kms)
c. 25 nms (46 kms)
d. 20 nms (37 kms)

1360. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a. 250 kts TAS
b. 250 kts IAS
c. Not applicable
d. 200 kts IAS

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[Link] is the definition of the Emergency Phase ?

a. The Distress Phase
b. The Alarm Phase
c. The Alert Phase
d. A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase

1362. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by

a. country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier
b. country identifier followed by P/D/R
c. P/D/R followed by the identifier
d. country identifier followed by numbers

[Link] are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP ?

a present position and ETA
b estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d ETA and endurance

1364. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is
a. 20 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 15 minute

1365. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before
one of the two may commence a climb or descent'?
a. 5 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 15 nm
d. 20 nm

1366. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a. 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b. 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c. 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d. 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second

1367. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft
has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is
a. 5 minutes
b. 6 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 3 minutes

1368. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 minutes

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1369. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least
a. 45°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 20°

1370. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a. 5 min
b. 3 min
c. 1 min
d. 2 min

[Link] two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided for
wake turbulence is
a. 4 nms
b. 2.5 nms
C. 2 nms
d. 3 nms

1372. A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off.
What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off ?
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 1 minute
c. 5 minutes

[Link] separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft
providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within
a. 5nm
b. 3nm
c. 2nm
d. 1 nm

1374. What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?
a. 5 nm
b. 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second
c. 10 nm
d. 20 nm

1375. A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final
approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change must
not be more than
a. ± 15 kts
b. ± 8 kts
c. ± 10 kts
d. ± 20 kts

1376. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is
a. light aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 4 minutes
b. medium aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 2 minutes
c. medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 3 minutes
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d. medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 2 minutes

1377. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of

a. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b. AIP and amendment service„ NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d. AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

1378. An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by
a. low intensity steady red lights
b. low intensity flashing red lights
c. medium intensity steady red lights
d. medium intensity flashing red lights

1379. Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?
a. FIC and RCC
b. RCC and rescue sub-centres
c. FIC, RCC and ACC
d. ICAO through regional navigation plans

[Link] the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is
a. + +
b. LLL
c. LL
d. Y

1381. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended
to safeguard

a. civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

b. international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
c. international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
d. aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

[Link] an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that
a. the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
b. the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such
a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c. the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registered which
says that the aircraft is still airworthy
d. the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state where the
aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy

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