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Software Project Management (Anna University)

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SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

MCQ QUESTIONS

Different activity of a project management is

A. project planning
B. project monitoring
C. project control
D. All of the above
ANS:D
2. Different activity of a project management is
A. project planning
B. project monitoring
C. project control
D. All of the above
3. This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?
A. Project Planning
B. Project Monitoring and Control
C. Project size estimation
D. Project cost estimation
4. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A. project estimation
B. project scheduling
C. project monitoring
D. risk management
5. In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the
most basic parameter based on which all other estimates are made?
A. project size
B. project effort
C. project duration
D. project schedule
6. During project estimation, project manager estimates following
A. project cost

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B. project duration
C. project effort
D. all of the above
7. Once project planning is complete, project managers document
their plan in
A. SPMP document
B. SRS document
C. Detailed Design documet
D. Excel Sheet
8. Which of the following serves as metrics for project size
estimation?
A. Lines of codes
B. function point
C. Number of persons
D. Only A & B
9. Lines of Code measures the size of project by counting

A. the number of source instructions

B. the comments in the code
C. the header lines
D. All of the above
10."Larger code size doesnot necessarily mean better quality or higher
efficiency."
A. True
B. False
C. NA
D. NA
11. We can accurately estimate lines of code from the problem
specification.

A. True
B. False
C. NA
D. NA

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12. Which of the following technique overcomes drawback related to

LOC?

A. Project Planning Sheet

B. Function Point Metric
C. COCOMO
D. COCOMO2
13. Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from
problem specification?

A. LOC
B. Function Point Metric
C. Bothg
D. None
14. Which of the following serves as project estimation technique?

A. Empirical estimation
B. Heuristic technique
C. Analytical estimation
D. All of the above
15. Heuristics estimation techniquedepends on

A. educated guess
B. prior experience
C. Common sense
D. All of the above
16. Which of the following is empirical estimation technique?
(i) expert judgement (ii) Delphi estimation (iii) COCOMO (iv)
Critical path Method
A. only i, ii & iii
B. only i & ii
C. only i, iii & iv
D. All of the above

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17. Which of the following is example of multi-variable cost

estimation model?

A. COCOMO
B. intermediate COCOMO
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

18. Which of the following technique overcomes the drawbacks of
expert judggement technique?

A. Heuristic technique
B. Delphi cost esttimation
C. Basis COCOMO
D. only a & b

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

19. What is the full form of COCOMO?

A. Conditional Cost Estimation Model

B. Complete Cost Estimation Model
C. Construction Cost Estimation Model
D. Collaborative Cost Estimation Model

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

20. Staffing level estimation pattern is greatly influenced by

A. Norden's Work
B. Putnam's Work
C. Both

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D. None of the these

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

21. Resource allocated is done using

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

22. Resource allocated is done using

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

23. This technique decompose a given task set recursively into small
activities?

A. Sotware Configuration Management

B. Configuration indentification
C. Work breakdown Structure
D. both a & c

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

24. The ways in Which a software development organisation can be
structured.

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A. functional formation
B. project format
C. both
D. none

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

25. Which of the following are different team structures used in Point
Management?

A. Chief programmer team

B. Democratic team
C. Mixed Control team
D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

26. Which of the following is not a characteristics of a good software
engineer?

A. Ability to work in different team

B. Good Domian Knowledge
C. Weak programming knowledge
D. Good Communication Skills

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

27. Which of the following are important activities of Risk
Management?

A. Risk indentification
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk Containment

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D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

28. When we rank risks in terms of their damage causing potential,
we are doing

A. Risk Containment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk indentification
D. Risk Mapping

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

29. Which of the following is not strategies for containment?

A. Risk avoiding
B. Transfer risk
C. Risk indentification
D. Risk reduction

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

30. This deals with effectively tracking and controlling the
configuration of a software product during its life cycle.

A. Software Configuration management

B. Software Risk Monitoring
C. Gantt chart
D. COCOMO

Explanation

Correct Option :A.

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31. Which of the following are two popular configuration

management tools on most UNIX system

A. SCCS & RCS

B. SSCS & PCS
C. PSCS & PCS
D. RCCS & MPI

Explanation

Correct Option :A
32. Coding is undertaken

A. after design phase is complete

B. design document is reviewed
C. while design document is in review
D. a & b only

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

33.The objective of this phase is to transform the design of the system
into high-level language
A. design phase
B. unit testing
C. coding
D. testing

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

34. The main advantage of adhering to coding standard is

A. uniform appearance to code

B. Code understandibility
C. good programming practice
D. All of the above

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Explanation

Correct Option :D.

35. This activity for a module is undertaken after module sucessfully
compiles

A. code review
B. Unit testing
C. integration testing
D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :A.

36. Which of the following are type of code review?

A. code inspection
B. code walkthrough
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :C
37. Which of the following helps detect algorithmic and logical error
in code?

A. code walkthrough
B. code inspection
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :A.

38. Which of the following helps detect common programming errors
in code?

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A. code walkthrough
B. code inspection
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

39. Which of the following are some classical programming error?

A. use of uninitialized variables

B. jumps into loops
C. Arrrary indices out of bound
D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

40. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional
software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints.
41. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might
affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being
developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
42. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
a) Specification delays

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b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as
risk
43. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is
known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly
implement and manage projects successfully.
44. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low
(<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very
high (>75%)
45. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use
when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is
required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total
cost of activities.
46. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project

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c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software
qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.
47. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes
define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to
decide what system components to change, how to manage different
versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
changes to customers.
48. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses
and bottlenecks are identified.
49. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that
can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in
some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.

50.Tool used for secure expert judgment

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A. Peer Review
B. Delphi Technique
C. Expected value technique
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. DBMS Architecture

51.What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all

work in the project is included?
A. Create a contingency plan
B. Create a risk management plan
C. Create a WBS
D. Create a scope statement

1. Create a scope statement

52. Relationship between completion of a successor is dependent on

initiation of its predecessor is known as ?

1. FS
2. FF
3. SS
4. SF

53. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear

boundaries for project completion?

1. Scope verification
2. Completing a scope statement
3. scope definition
4. Risk management plan

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54.An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard

and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative
method is available but involves lot of risk. What should the project
team do?

1. Drop the alternative approach

2. Work out a mitigation plan
3. Procure an insurance against the risk
4. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk

55.That is the objective of project manager behind the study of the

work processes on a project.

1. Quality control
2. Quality planning
3. Checking adherence to processes
4. Quality assurance

56.Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution?

1. Work authorization system

2. Project plan
3. Corrective action
4. Preventive action

57. Coral reefs in India can be found in

1. the coast of Orissa

2. Waltair
3. Rameshwaram

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4. Trivandrum

58.Fate smiles …… those who untiringly grapple with stark realities

of life.

1. with
2. over
3. on
4. round
5. 46%

59. The model serves as the basis for the creation of ______ for the
Software.

(a) Design

(b) Maintenance

(c) Testing

(d) Specifications

60.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they

must be gathered through a/an_______

(a) Elicitation process

(b) Interviewing

(c) Meeting

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(d) None of given

61.Technology-related problems include _____

(a) Overestimated savings from reusable components and new tools

and methods

(b) Switching tools in mid-way

(c) Integrating different software products in cross-platform

implementation

(d) All of given

62.Insufficient identification is a

(a) Technology-related problems

(b) Process-related problems

(c) People-related problems

(d) Product-related problems

63. Throughout evaluation and solution synthesis, the analyst’s

primary focus is on ______

(a) “Not what, not “how”

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(b) “What, also “how”

(c) “What, not “how”

(d) None of given

64. The overall role of Software in a larger system is identified

during

(a) Requirements engineering

(b) Process engineering

(c) System engineering

(d) All of given

65. Many software projects digress from the original scope because
of the nature of the software product or technology used, it’s happen
in ________

(a) Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle

(b) Research-oriented software development

(c) Defined scope

(d) Fuzzy users

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66.In problem evaluation area of effort is identified by.

(a) Analyst

(b) Designer

(c) Coder

(d)Manager

67. A ‘facilitator’ controls the meeting can be ________

(a) Customer

(b) A developer

(c) An outsider

(d) All of given

68. Version control combines ______ to manage different versions of

configuration objects that are created during software product
development.

(a) Procedure

(b) Tools

(c) Procedure and Tools

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(d) None of given

69..Many software projects digress from the original scope because of

the nature of the software product or. technology used, it’s happen in
________

(a)Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle

(b)Research-oriented software development

(c)Defined scope

(d)Fuzzy users

70..When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through

a series of predictable steps , the process which you follow to develop
it is known as________

(a)Software design

(b)Software process

(c)Software schedule

(d)Framework

71.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they

must be gathered through a/an_______

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(a)Elicitation process

(b)Interviewing

(c)Meeting

(d)None of given

72.Defined scope is a

(a)Technology-related problems

(b)Product-related problems

(c)Process-related problems

(d) People-related problems

73..You can use the Item Traceability Matrix to identify _______ at

the end of each phase

(a)SCIs

(b)SCM

(c)Design

(d)Construction

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74..Most software project manager’s practice a lot of management

techniques that are of doubtful authenticity are called

(a)Project management tools

(b)Project management myths

(c)Project management thumb rules

(d) Project management fundamentals

75..The Introduction of the software requirements specification states

the

Select correct option:

(a)Goals

(b)Objective

(c)Design

(d)Goals and objectives of the software

76.The code generation step performs the task

Select correct option:

(a) Translated specification into a machine-readable form

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(b)Translated design into a machine-readable form

(c)Translated requirements into a machine-readable form

(d)Translated user data into a machine-readable form

77..———–is the ability to encourage by “push or pull” technical

people to produce to their best ability.

Select correct option:

(a)Evaluating

(b)Motivation

(c)None of the given

(d)Monitoring

78..__________contains an analysis of what went wrong, what went

right, and what you could have done better in the software project.

Select correct option:

(a)Prepare closedown report

(b)Identify learning

(c)Identify reusable software components

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(d)none

79.Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways

1.likelihood and exposure
2.likelihood and consequences
3.likelihood and cost
4.likelihood and impact
The correct answer/s : likelihood and exposure

80.A project budget report shows spending of Rs. 350,000/- against a

budgeted amount of Rs. 400,000/-. Which of the following is true?
1.The project will complete within budget
2.They are doing a good job managing the project
3.We can not be sure how the project is going
4.Project is spending less than the required amount
The correct answer/s : They are doing a good job managing the
project

81.The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of

development effort be spent on:
1.Planning
2.Coding
3.Testing
4.Modeling
The correct answer/s : Planning

82.A task set is a collection of

1.responsibilities, milestones, documents
2.engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables
3.milestones, deliverables, metrics
4.task assignments, cost estimates, metrics
The correct answer/s : responsibilities, milestones, documents
83.Resource leveling can not help with
1.Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
2.Improvement in critical path
3.Reduced resource need over the life of the project
4.Lower peak demand

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The correct answer/s : Reduced fluctuations in resource demand

84.The level of review formality is not determined by

1.reviewer follow-up
2.structure of review
3.size of project budget
4.amount of preparation
The correct answer/s : structure of review

85.While scheduling a project, effort validation is required for

1.Checking size estimates
2.Work load of members
3.Competence of team
4.Timely completion
The correct answer/s : Checking size estimates

86.The purpose of earned value analysis is to

1.provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
2.set the price point for a software product based on development
effort
3.provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
4.determine how to compensate developers based on their
productivity
The correct answer/s : set the price point for a software product based
on development effort

87.Process indicators enable management to

1.improve software process
2.adjust work flow
3.track potential risks
4.Assess the status of an on-going project
88.Which of the following is not an approach to sizing problem
1.Fuzzy Logic
2.Schedule Focus
3.Component Sizing
4.Function Point
The correct answer/s : Fuzzy Logic

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89.Which of the following are objectives for formal technical

reviews?
1.determining who introduced an error into a program
2.assess programmer productivity
3.allow senior staff members to correct errors
4.uncover errors in software work products
The correct answer/s : allow senior staff members to correct errors

90.Which of the following provide useful measures of software

quality?
1.reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
2.correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
3.correctness, controlability, integrity, usability
4.correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
The correct answer/s : reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales

91.Risk tables are sorted by

1.probability and impact
2.probability and consequences
3.probability and exposure
4.probability and cost

92.Three categories of risks in software projects are

1.management risks, technical risks, design risks
2.planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks
3.business risks, personnel risks, budget risks
4.project risks, technical risks, business risks
The correct answer/s : business risks, personnel risks, budget risks

93.The best indicator of progress on a software project is the

completion of
1.successful budget review meeting on time
2.successful review of a defined software work product
3.successful acceptance of project prototype by the customer
4.defined engineering activity task

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The correct answer/s : successful budget review meeting on time

94.In earned value analysis, it is desirable that variance and index are
1.positive and less than 1
2.negative and greater than 1
3.negative and less than 1
4.positive and greater than 1
The correct answer/s : negative and less than 1

95.Software risk always involves two characteristics

1.uncertainty and loss
2.fire fighting and crisis management
3.staffing and budget
4.known and unknown risks
The correct answer/s :

96.The IEEE software maturity index (SMI) is used to provide a

measure of the
1.stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance
2.maintainability of a software product based on its availability
3.reliability of a software product following regression testing
4.relative age of a software product being considered for retirement

97.Empirical estimation models are typically based on

1.refinement of expected value estimation
2.regression model derived from historical project data
3.trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
4.expert judgement based on past project experiences
98.The correct answer/s : refinement of expected value estimationAs
per Putnam's Software Equation, when development time is reduced
by 5%, effort goes up by
1.5%
2.Effort goes down
3.Over 20%
4.About 10%
The correct answer/s : Effort goes down

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99. analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential

hazards that can cause
1.an entire system to fail
2.project termination
3.schedule slippage
4.cost overruns
The correct answer/s :

100.Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of

software project scheduling:
1.Effort Validation
2.Market assessment
3.Time allocation
4.Compartmentalization
The correct answer/s : Effort Validation

101.A risk table will not contain following information about risk
1.Impact
2.Probability
3.Category
4.Source
The correct answer/s : Category

102.Which of the following is not one of the attributes of software

quality?
1.Useful products satisfy stakeholder requirements
2.Adds value for developers and users
3.Effective software process creates infrastructure
4.Removes need to consider performance issues
The correct answer/s : Effective software process creates
infrastructure

103.The critical path in a project network is the

1.Shortest path through the network
2.Network path with the most difficult activities
3.Network path using the most resources

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4.Longest path through the network

The correct answer/s : Network path using the most resources

104.Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences

affecting
1.planning, resources, cost, schedule
2.marketability, cost, personnel
3.business, technology, process
4.performance, cost, support, schedule
The correct answer/s : business, technology, process

105.The first step in project planning is to

1.determine the budget
2.determine the project constraints
3.establish the objectives and scope
4.select a team organizational model
The correct answer/s : determine the project constraints

106."To construct a high-quality, custom home within five months at

costs not to exceed Rs15,00,000" is best classified as
1.Deliverable
2.Objective
3.Milestone
4.Exclusion
The correct answer/s : Deliverable

107.Why is it important to measure the process of software

engineering and software it produces?
1.To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set
2.To make software engineering more like other engineering
processes
3.To determine whether a software group is improving or not
4.It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex
The correct answer/s : To make software engineering more like other
engineering processes
108. Changes made to an information system to add the desired but
not necessarily the required features is called

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1.Perfective Maintenance
2.Preventive Maintenance
3.Adaptive Maintenance
4.Corrective Maintenance
109.Software feasibility is based on which of the following
1.business and marketing concerns
2.scope, constraints, market
3.technology, finance, time, resources
4.technical prowess of the developers
The correct answer/s : scope, constraints, market

110.Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software

Process?
1.Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager
2.Emphasizes personal measurement of work product
3.Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling
4.Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work
products

111.The prototyping model of software development is

1.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
2.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
3.A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product
4.A useful approach when customer can not define requirements
clearly
The correct answer/s : A risky model that rarely produces a
meaningful product

112.From among the following activities, which is the best example

of a project?
1.Producing automobiles
2.Writing a term paper
3.Developing HIV vaccine
4.Processing insurance claims
The correct answer/s : Producing automobiles

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113.To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data

used must be
1.measured consistently across projects
2.based only on successful projects
3.based on reasonable guestimates from past projects
4.drawn from projects on same platforms
114.Which of following are advantages of using LOC(lines of code)
as a size-oriented metric?
1.LOC is easily computed
2.LOC is language dependent
3.LOC can be computed early in the process
4.LOC is language independent

115.Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?

Formulation, Collection, Analysis, Interpretation
1.Measurement
2.Quantification
3.Feedback
4.Design
The correct answer/s : Quantification

116.In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the

time required to complete each
1.use-case
2.scenario
3.increment
4.task
The correct answer/s : scenario

117.Which of the following items are not measured by software

project metrics?
1.Outputs
2.Markets
3.Results
4.Inputs
The correct answer/s : Outputs
118.The most important feature of spiral model is

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1.quality management
2.configuration management
3.risk management
4.requirement analysis
The correct answer/s : configuration management

119.One of the most important attributes for a software product metric

is that it should be
1.easy to compute
2.qualitative in nature
3.reliable over time
4.widely applicable

120.Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an

object-oriented design?
1.size
2.volatility
3.efficiency
4.completeness
The correct answer/s : volatility

121.The objective of software project planning is to

1.enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule
2.determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project
3.make use of historical project data
4.convince the customer that a project is feasible

122.Which of the following is not a main project objective?

1.Quality
2.Structure
3.Cost
4.Time
The correct answer/s : Quality

123.Requirements can be best refined using

1.Prototyping Model

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2.Evolutionary Model
3.Waterfall model
4.Spiral Model

124.Which of the following is NOT a main element of the project

management activities?
1.Estimate
2.Monitor
3.Design
4.Schedule
The correct answer/s : Monitor

125.Make/Buy decisions are usually not driven by

1.Support concerns
2.Cost of acquisition
3.Time to market
4.Staff aspirations
The correct answer/s : Time to market

126.When can selected common process framework activities be

omitted during process decomposition?
1.never the activities are invariant
2.rapid prototyping does not require their use
3.any time the software is mission critical
4.when the project is extremely small in size

127.Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard

comments of project managers?
1.How can all these projects be first priority?
2.Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?
3.Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
4.Why are we doing this project?
The correct answer/s : Where are we going to get the resources to do
this project?

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128. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering

framework activities?
1.analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing
2.communication, risk management, measurement, production,
reviewing
3.communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment
4.analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
The correct answer/s : communication, risk management,
measurement, production, reviewing

129.LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition

based on
1.project schedule
2.software functions
3.information domain values
4.process activities
The correct answer/s : project schedule

130.FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition

based on
1.process activities
2.information domain values
3.software functions
4.project schedule
The correct answer/s : process activities

131.The Process Models differ from one another based on following

factors except
1.Manner of Quality Assurance
2.Team Organization and Roles
3.Conformance to quality standards
4.Based on flow of activities
The correct answer/s : Team Organization and Roles

132.One reason to involve everyone on the software team in the

planning activity is to
1.control feature creep

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2.get all team members to "sign up" to the plan

3.understand the problem scope
4.adjust the granularity of the plan
The correct answer/s : control feature creep

133.Which of the following is not a weak point of waterfall lifecycle?

1.Difficult to keep entire team busy with work
2.Difficult to prepare a plan early
3.Difficult for the customer to state all requirements
4.Working version of the program is not available soon
The correct answer/s : Difficult to keep entire team busy with work

134.Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a

software process?
1.Process allows team to streamline tasks
2.Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
3.Uses incremental product delivery strategy
4.Only essential work products are produced
The correct answer/s : Process allows team to streamline tasks

135.The incremental model of software development is

1.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
2.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
3.A good approach when a working core product is required quickly
4.A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products
The correct answer/s : The best approach to use for projects with large
development teams

136.The waterfall model of software development is

1.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
2.A good approach when a working program is required quickly
3.An old fashioned model that is not used any more
4.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
The correct answer/s : An old fashioned model that is not used any
more

137.Project selection criteria are typically classified as

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1.Short-term and long-term

2.Strategic and tactical
3.Financial and non-financial
4.Required and optional
The correct answer/s : Strategic and tactical
138.Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most
of the costs are
1.Personnel
2.Outsourced contract
3.Material
4.Overhead
The correct answer/s :

139.Which of these are reasons for using technical product measures

during software development?
1.Provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for
assessing software quality
2.Allow software quality information to be expressed unambiguously
as a single number
3.Large body of scientific evidence supports their use
4.They help capturing client requirements clearly

140.Which of the following is not an example of a business process?

1.testing software
2.designing a new product
3.hiring an employee
4.purchasing services
141.The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to
understand
1.business trends
2.user interface
3.processing
4.data
The correct answer/s : user interface

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142.Which of the following is not considered one of the four

important elements that should exist when a configuration
management system is developed?
1.human elements
2.component elements
3.process elements
4.validation elements
The correct answer/s : process elements

143.Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration

management?
1.version control
2.statistical quality control
3.change control
4.reporting
The correct answer/s : version control

144.Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on

hazards that
1.prevent profitable marketing of the final product
2.affect the reliability of a software component
3.may result from user input errors
4.may cause an entire system to fail
The correct answer/s : may result from user input errors

145.A review summary report answers which three questions?

1.what defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
2.terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
3.project situation, success story, improvement point
4.what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
The correct answer/s : project situation, success story, improvement
point

146.Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to

1.errors in operation
2.errors in design
3.errors in accuracy

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4.errors in requirements
The correct answer/s : errors in operation

147.Which of the following is not ISO 9126 software quality factors?

1.Portability
2.Functionality
3.Reliability
4.Security
The correct answer/s : Reliability
148.Which of the following activities is not part of the software
reengineering process model?
1.inventory analysis
2.reverse engineering
3.forward engineering
4.prototyping
The correct answer/s : forward engineering

149.The Hofstede framework for global engagements includes all of

the following dimensions except
1.Power distance
2.Language Skills
3.Uncertainty avoidance
4.Masculinity-feminity
The correct answer/s : Power distance

150.Which of these is not a benefits achieved when software is

restructured?
1.higher quality programs
2.software easier to test
3.improved performance
4.reduced maintenance effort
The correct answer/s : software easier to test

151.When software configuration management is a formal activity the

software configuration audit is conducted by the
1.senior managers
2.quality assurance group

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3.test team
4.development team
The correct answer/s : senior managers

152.Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

1.define, measure, control
2.define, measure, analyze
3.analyze, improve, control
4.analyze, design, verify
The correct answer/s : define, measure, control

153.Software reengineering process model does not include

restructuring activities for
1.code
2.organizational structure
3.documentation
4.data
The correct answer/s : code

154.At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to
1.modify the work product and continue the review
2.reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
3.accept the work product without modification
4.advise developer about the problem domain
The correct answer/s : reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies

155.Which of these are not valid software configuration items?

1.test data
2.email
3.documentation
4.Utility programs
The correct answer/s : test data

156.Which of these is not an example of data restructuring?

1.data name rationalization
2.refining entity relationships
3.data record standardization

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4.data analysis
The correct answer/s : data record standardization

157.Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of

the following except
1.Shortened project completion
2.Reduced costs
3.Higher level of expertise
4.Reduced conflict
The correct answer/s : Higher level of expertise
158. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software
engineering is
1.ISO 9002
2.ISO 9000
3.ISO 9003
4.ISO 9001
The correct answer/s : ISO 9003

159.Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse

engineering?
1.directionality
2.connectivity
3.completeness
4.abstraction level
The correct answer/s : directionality

160.Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended

to be performed by an independent SQA group?
1.serve as the test team for software produced
2.review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
3.prepare SQA plan for the project
4.report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
161. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints. Answer:D

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162. Software Project Management Multiple Choice Questions:- 1.

Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.
Answer:D

163. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a
project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
164.Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

Answer:C 4.
165.process each manager follows during the life of a project is
known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:C
166.A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
e) very high
Answer:D
167. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should
use when computing the costs of a software development project?

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a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
168.Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer:B
169. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
) Version management
d) System management
Answer:A

170. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer:B 10.

171.An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that

can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up
a) True
b) False
Answer:B

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172. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Answer:C

173.RUP stands for____________ created by a division of

____________.
a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer:D

174. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-

dynamic, static & practice.What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time

Answer:A

175. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the
working program.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
176. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for
the system
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer:D

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177. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for

software processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
e) Software specification
Answer:A

178. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed

software efforts
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
179. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
180. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True
b) False

Answer:A
181. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering
Process Model. i. Test ii. Design iii. Install iv. Specification v.
Manufacture vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:B
182. Which of the following categories is part of the output of
software process?

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a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
183. Which is a software configuration management concept that
helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:A
184. Software Configuration Management can be administered in
several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole
organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project
members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:A 25.
185.What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions
of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned

Answer:B
186. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a
configuration object for characteristics that are generally not
considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

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Answer:A
187. Which of the following is the process of assembling program
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these
to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer:A
188. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration
management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:D
189. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration
Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer:B
190. The definition and use of configuration management standards is
essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
191. What involves preparing software for external release and
keeping track of the system versions that have been released for
customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management

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Answer:B
192. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement
Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
Answer: C
193. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging
etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement
is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
Answer:A
194. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the
changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned
. Answer:D
195. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
196. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part
requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of
requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
197. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but
does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B

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198.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management

workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer:C
199. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
200. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is
depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically
detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval
techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations.”

a) Automatic Link Detection

b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer:A
201. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software
projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the
remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason
for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:B
202. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing
the total cost of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs

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c) Travel and training costs

d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
203. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? a)
Costs of networking and communications

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
Answer:C
204. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered
software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:A
205. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that
relates some software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer:A
206. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False

Answer:a
207. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same
analogy application domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer:c

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208. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable
components, scripting or database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:A
209. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time
available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement
Answer:C
210. Which model is used during early stages of the system design
after the requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:D
211. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate
reusable components or program code that is automatically generated
by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:C
212. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to
software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
213.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.

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a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is

the requirement of most software systems to work with a multitude of
homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the
legal domain
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but
software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to
manage software projects
e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find
that only less than 20% of today’s software is still custom built.
Answer:C
214.Software Engineering:

a) Is a set of rules about developing software products

b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late
90’s
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of
software production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established
engineering fields.
Answer:D
215. Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.
“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a
company that specializes in aircraft navigation control software.
While orientating yourselves to the company’s work practices, you
observe that they in fact do not conduct a few tests that they should in
order to comply with the relevant safety standard. When you inquire
about this from the project manager, he dismisses it saying that those
tests are really unnecessary (and takes an unreasonably long time to
conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they have managed
with the other tests for so long, without any problems.”
a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a
complaint with the relevant standard institution
b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide

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c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know
anything about the internal processes and politics, you should insist
on the company changing its work practices immediately; failing
which you threaten to report the matter
d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the
internal processes and politics, you should first find-out more about
the issue and its background
e) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer:D
216. With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct
statement.
a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors;
exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary
development based approach
c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the
requirements are well understood in advance
d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it
facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of
documentation it generates
e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed
by a reimplementation of the system using a more structured
approach.
Answer:A
217. What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be
considered to be engineered?
a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed

b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering,

such as Civil) is an art – not a science
c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge
building that is an activity that has millennia of practice
d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous
discipline
e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster
than we can understand it.
Answer:E

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218. The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of

phases. The classical model is referred to as the waterfall model.
Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined,
and the client’s requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
d) Implementation
(e) Integration.
Answer:A
219. The individual or organisation who wants a product to be
developed is known as the:
a) Developer
(b) User
(c) Contractor
(d) Initiator
(e) Client.
Answer:E
220. Which of the following items should not be included in the
software project management plan?
a) The techniques and case tools to be used
b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) The organisational structure of the development organisation,
project responsibilities, managerial objectives and priorities
e) None of the above.
Answer:E
221. The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.
a) Unit

(b) Integration
(c) Alpha
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Answer:E
222. In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against
previous test cases. This is known as __________ testing.

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a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Regression
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Answer:C
223. Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
a) The speed with which it can be developed
b) The speed with which it can be modified
c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are
of the ‘how not to do it’ variety
e) Its internal structure.
Answer:C
224. An example of the risk involved in software development is
a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware
associated with a real-time system) may go bankrupt
c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete
d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent
package
e) All of these are risks involved in software development.
Answer:E
225. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is
as a waterfall model with each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
Answer:E
226. The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.

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Answer:D
227. The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base
class is referred to as
a) Association
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism
d) Instantiation
e) Aggregation
. Answer:B
228. Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of
cohesion may be defined as followed; “the output from one element in
the component serves as input for some other element”?
a) Communicational cohesion
b) Functional cohesion
c) Communicational cohesion
d) Temporal cohesion
e) None of these
. Answer:A
229. A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.
Answer:E
230. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of
_______ coupling.
a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
Answer:C
231. Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration

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d) All of the above

e) None of the above.
Answer:D
232. In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team
member responsible for maintaining the detailed design and coding is
a) The chief programmer
b) The programming secretary
c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’
d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)
e) The back-up programmer.
Answer:D
233. Internal costs include
a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel e) All of
the above. Answer:a
234. Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a
product include(s)
a) The creation of source code is only part of the development effort
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot
be measured for some languages
c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC)
be included as well?
d) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is
delivered
e) All of the above.
Answer:e
235. Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
a) Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)
b) Lines of Code (kLOC) c) Function Points (FP)
d) operands and operators
e) Feature Points (FeP).
Answer:d
236. In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex
products is referred to as
a) Embedded

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b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
e) Monolithic.
Answer:A
237. Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to
any specific phase of software development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function
c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
Answer:B
238. The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a
Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard
1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development
organisations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or
specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application
area, development team or technique.
e) All of the above.
Answer:E
239. The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan
(SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
Answer:B
240. Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be
different for the same application development, because
a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently

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b) Different organisations may use different programming languages

c) Developers’ skills may vary
d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary
e) All of the above may be true.
Answer:E
241. The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is a)
Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
c) Delivered within budget
d) Satisfies users’ needs
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
Answer:E
242. Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was
considered to be
a) ALGOL-68
B) FORTRAN 77
c) C
d) MODULA
e) SIMULA 67.
Answer:E

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
IT8075 Software anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being
Project Management

M
developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.

CSE - Professional

O
3. Which of the following is not considered as
a risk in project management?
Elective - II a) Specification delays

C
b) Product competition
c) Testing

T.
Regulations 2017 d) Staff turnover

Answer: c

O
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
it can’t be categorized as risk.

SP
4. The process each manager follows during
UNIT I PROJECT the life of a project is known as
EVALUATION AND a) Project Management
PROJECT PLANNING b) Manager life cycle
G
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
LO

TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE OF

Answer: c
SOFTWARE PROJECT
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
MANAGEMENT is necessary to repeatedly implement and
manage projects successfully.
.B

1. Which of the following is not project

management goal? 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Keeping overall costs within budget a) very low
17

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high
development team
Answer: d
-R

d) Avoiding customer complaints

Explanation: The probability of the risk
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
Explanation: Projects need to be managed (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
SE

because professional software engineering is 75%), or very high (>75%).

always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints. 6. Which of the following is/are main
parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software
C

2. Project managers have to assess the risks

that may affect a project. development project?
a) True a) travel and training costs
b) False b) hardware and software costs

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
engineers and managers) identified.
d) all of the mentioned
10. An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured

M
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False

O
total cost of activities.
Answer: b

C
7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

T.
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
c) customers .
d) project manager

O
Answer: b
TOPIC 1.2 ACTIVITIES -
METHODOLOGIES

SP
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. 1. Which of these truly defines Software
design?
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity
G
a) Software design is an activity subjected to
for the configuration management of a constraints
software system? b) Software Design specifies nature and
LO

a) Internship management composition of software product

b) Change management c) Software Design satisfies client needs and
c) Version management desires
d) System management d) All of the mentioned
.B

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: Software design explains all of
policies and processes define how to record the statements as its definition.
17

and process proposed system changes, how to

decide what system components to change, 2. Which of the following statement is false?
how to manage different versions of the a) A process is a collection of related tasks
system and its components, and how to that transforms a set of inputs to the set of
-R

distribute changes to customers. output

b) A design notation is a symbolic
9. Identify the sub-process of process representational system
improvement
SE

c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding

a) Process introduction guidance, with guarantee for achieving some
b) Process analysis end
c) De-processification d) Software design method is orderly
d) Process distribution procedure for providing software design
C

solutions
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed,

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: b Software Engineering)

Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed d) Wide support by CASE, More detailed and
but there is no guarantee that we get output. flexible processes

3. Which of these describes stepwise Answer: d

M
refinement? Explanation: Notations used are more
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first software specialized and sophisticated one.
engineering method as stepwise refinement

O
b) Stepwise refinement follows its existence 7. Which of the following is an incorrect
from 1971 method for structural design?

C
c) It is a top down approach a) Transition of problem models to solution
d) All of the mentioned models

T.
b) Handling of larger and more complex
Answer: d products
Explanation: It is top down approach and not c) Designing Object oriented systems
bottom up. d) More procedural approach

O
4. What is incorrect about structural design? Answer: b

SP
a) Structural design introduced notations and Explanation: It does not account for larger
heuristics and complex products.
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural
decomposition 8. What is followed by the design task?
a) Choosing specific classes, operations
G
c) The advantage is data flow representation
d) It follows Structure chart b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
LO

Answer: c d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: The biggest drawback or
problem is a data flow diagram of structure Answer: d
design. Explanation: All of these tasks are followed
by a design task.
.B

5. What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data 9. Which of this analysis are not acceptable?
flow diagram a) Object oriented design is a far better
17

b) Procedures represented as bubbles approach compared to structural design

c) Specification model is structure chart b) Object oriented design always dominates
showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow structural design
of data in and out of procedures c) Object oriented design are given more
-R

d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition preference than structural design

d) Object oriented uses more specific
Answer: c notations
Explanation: It is solution to central
SE

problem. Rest others are problems. Answer: b

Explanation: Though object oriented design
6. Which of these are followed by the latest is considered a far better approach but it
versions of structural design? never dominates structural approach.
C

a) More detailed and flexible processes

b) Regular Notations 10. Which of these does not represent object
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided oriented design?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) It follows regular procedural 3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with

decomposition in favor of class and object reference to one of the eight principles as per
decomposition the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
b) Programs are thought of collection of a) The product should be easy to use
objects b) Software engineers shall ensure that their

M
c) Central model represents class diagrams products and related modifications meet the
that show the classes comprising a program highest professional standards possible

O
and their relationships to one another c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
d) Object-oriented methods incorporates products and related modifications satisfy the
Structural methods client

C
d) It means that the product designed /created
Answer: a should be easily available

T.
Explanation: It does not follow regular
procedural decomposition. Answer: b
Explanation: None.

O
TOPIC 1.3 CATEGORIZATION 4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the
OF SOFTWARE PROJECTS situations mentioned below:

SP
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
1. Choose the correct option in terms of system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional responsibility system
a) Confidentiality b) Refusing to undertake a project
G
b) Intellectual property rights c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual senior management
property rights d) All of the mentioned
LO

d) Managing Client Relationships

Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
.B

respect the confidentiality of their employers 5. Identify the correct statement: “Software
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall
formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best interests
of his expertise and favour.”
17

signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
-R

2. “Software engineers should not use their

technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
SE

a) Unauthorized access to computer material a manner that is in the best interests of their
b) Unauthorized modification of computer client and employer consistent with the public
material interest and shall ensure that their products
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware and related modifications meet the highest
professional standards possible.Thus options
C

d) All of the mentioned

a & c are ruled out.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software Answer: c

engineers should Explanation: Software companies are
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside responsible for making policies and providing
your competence.” working atmosphere for the software
b) not use your technical skills to misuse development, so in turn these companies

M
other people’s computers.” become a part of software development
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new

O
d) maintain integrity and independence in thing. Thus option c answers the question.
their professional judgment.”
10. Company has latest computers and state-

C
Answer: c of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t
Explanation:None. worry about the quality of the product.

T.
a) True
7. Efficiency in a software product does not b) False
include ________
a) responsiveness Answer: b

O
b) licensing Explanation: The infrastructure is only one
c) memory utilization of the several factors that determine the

SP
d) processing time quality of the product.

Answer: b .
Explanation: Licensing of a software product
G
comes under corporate part of the software
company.
TOPIC 1.4 SETTING
OBJECTIVES
LO

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project

get cancelled before they are completed, 53% 1. Which of these are not among the eight
overrun their cost estimates by an average of principles followed by Software Engineering
189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
.B

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics a) PUBLIC

? b) PROFESSION
a) Lack of adequate training in software c) PRODUCT
engineering d) ENVIRONMENT
17

b) Lack of software ethics and understanding

c) Management issues in the company Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software
ethics, environment does not focus on
-R

Answer: a specific clause nor its of importace related to

Explanation: Option b & c are a part of question.
Software Engineering as a subject,hence
SE

option a covers them both. 2. What is a Software ?

a) Software is set of programs
9. The reason for software bugs and failures b) Software is documentation and
is due to configuration of data
a) Software companies c) Software is set of programs, documentation
C

b) Software Developers & configuration of data

c) Both Software companies and Developers d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c engineering
Explanation: Software is not just set of d) Software engineering is concerned with the
program but it is also associated practicalities of developing and delivering
documentation and configuration of data to useful software
make program run.

M
Answer: c
3. Which of these does not account for Explanation: Software engineering is a vast
software failure ? sub domain which comes under computer

O
a) Increasing Demand science which is main domain.
b) Low expectation

C
c) Increasing Supply 7. Which of these is true ?
d) Less reliable and expensive a) Generic products and customized products

T.
are types of software products
Answer: c b) Generic products are produced by
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to organization and sold to open market
more production and not failure. c) Customized products are commissioned by

O
particular customer
4. What are attributes of good software ? d) All of the mentioned

SP
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality Answer: d
c) Software development Explanation: All of them are true.
d) Software maintainability & functionality
8. Which of these does not affect different
G
Answer: d types of software as a whole?
Explanation: Good software should deliver a) Heterogeneity
LO

the required functinality, maintainability. b) Flexibility

Software development is not an attribute but a c) Business and social change
fundamental. d) Security

5. Which of these software engineering Answer: b

.B

activities are not a part of software processes Explanation: Option b & c are a part of
? Software Engineering as a subject,hence
a) Software dependence option a covers them both.
17

b) Software development
c) Software validation 9. The fundamental notions of software
d) Software specification engineering does not account for ?
a) Software processes
-R

Answer: a b) Software Security

Explanation: Software dependence is an c) Software reuse
attribute and not an engineering activity for d) Software Validation
process.
SE

Answer: d
6. Which of these is incorrect ? Explanation: Software validation is an
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer activity for software process and not the
science fundamental for engineering.
C

b) Software engineering is a part of more

general form of System Engineering 10. Which of these is not true ?
c) Computer science belongs to Software a) Web has led to availability of software

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

services and possibility of developing highly Answer: a

distributed service based systems Explanation: For systems with a long life,
b) Web based systems have led to degradation maintenance costs may be several times
of programming languages development costs.
c) Web brings concept of software as service

M
d) Web based system should be developed 4. Which one of the following is not an
and delivered incrementally application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system

O
Answer: b b) pattern recognition game playing
Explanation: Web based systems has led to c) digital function of dashboard display in a

C
important advances in programming car
languages. d) none of the mentioned

T.
. Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses
Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

O
TOPIC 1.5 MANAGEMENT
PRINCIPLES 5. Purpose of process is to deliver software

SP
a) in time
1. Which one of the following is not a b) with acceptable quality
software process quality? c) that is cost efficient
a) Productivity d) both in time & with acceptable quality
G
b) Portability
c) Timeliness Answer: d
d) Visibility Explanation: Cost of a software is a
LO

management issue & is not related to process

Answer: b activities.
Explanation: Portability is a software
product quality which means software can run 6. The work associated with software
engineering can be categorized into three
.B

on different hardware platforms or software

environments. generic phases,regardless of application area,
project size, or complexity namely
2. _____________&_____________ are two the__________ phase which focuses on what,
17

kinds of software products. the_________ phase which focuses on how

a) CAD, CAM and the_________ phase which focuses on
b) Firmware, Embedded change.
c) Generic, Customised i. support
-R

d) None of the mentioned ii. development

iii. definition
Answer: c a) 1, 2, 3
SE

Explanation: rest all are sub b) 2, 1, 3

categories/applications of option c. c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
3. Software costs more to maintain than it
does to develop. Answer: c
C

a) True Explanation: None.

b) False

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

7. Which of the following activities of a Answer: a

Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in the
feedback report? development phase.
a) Communication
b) Planning .

M
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment TOPIC 1.6 MANAGEMENT

O
Answer: d CONTROL
Explanation: In Deployment the product is

C
delivered to the customer who evaluates the 1. SCM stands for
product and provides feedback based on the a) Software Control Management

T.
evaluation. b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
8. Process adopted for one project is same as d) None of the mentioned
the process adopted from another project.

O
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: In software engineering,

SP
software configuration management (SCM) is
Answer: b the task of tracking and controlling changes
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, in the software, part of the larger cross-
actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to discipline field of configuration management.
G
the software team and the inter dependencies
among two process can never be the same. 2. When code is made available to others, it
goes in a/an
LO

9. Which one of the following is not an a) hard drive

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) access-controlled library
process framework activities and help team c) servers
manage and control progress, quality, change, d) access control
.B

and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
17

d) User Reviews 3. Which of the following is not a main phase

in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
Answer: d a) CM Planning
Explanation: None. b) Executing the CM process
-R

c) CM audits
10. Four types of change are encountered d) None of the mentioned
during the support phase.Which one of the
following is not one that falls into such Answer: d
SE

category? Explanation: All are main phases of CM.

a) Translation
b) Correction 4. CM is about managing the different items
c) Adaptation in the product, and changes in them.
C

d) Prevention a) True
b) False

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a 9. How are baselines verified?

Explanation: None. a) By reviews
b) By inspections
5. What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code
same source files at the same time? d) All of the mentioned

M
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to

O
d) Version Control and Access control description.

C
Answer: a 10. Which of the following is a example of
Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?

T.
continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
6. Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned

O
management process?
a) Log the changes Answer: d

SP
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned 11. SCM controls only the products of the
development process.
Answer: d a) True
G
Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False
LO

7. Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
.B

Answer: a b) Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
17

8. What is one or more software configuration

items that have been formally reviewed and Answer: a
agreed upon and serve as a basis for further Explanation: None.
development?
-R

a) Baseline 13. What information is required to process a

b) Cumulative changes change to a baseline?
c) CM a) Reasons for making the changes
d) Change Control b) A description of the proposed changes
SE

c) List of other items affected by the changes

Answer: a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In configuration management, a
“baseline” is an agreed-to description of the Answer: d
C

attributes of a product, at a point in time, Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to

which serves as a basis for defining change. description of the product, changes require
multiple reasons..

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

. of the solution, negotiate different

approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
TOPIC 1.7 PROJECT
PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT 4. CLSS stands for

M
a) conveyor line sorting system
1. Which of the following is an important b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed

O
factor that can affect the accuracy and
efficacy of estimates? d) conveyor line sorting specification
a) Project size

C
b) Planning process Answer: a
c) Project complexity Explanation: The conveyor line sorting

T.
d) Degree of structural uncertainty system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a
conveyor line. Each box is identified by a
Answer: a barcode that contains a part number and is
Explanation: As size increases, the sorted into one of six bins at the end of the

O
interdependence among various elements of line.
the software grows rapidly.

SP
5. The project planner examines the statement
2. What describes the data and control to be of scope and extracts all important software
processed? functions which is known as
a) Planning process a) Association
G
b) Software scope b) Decomposition
c) External hardware c) Planning process
d) Project complexity d) All of the mentioned
LO

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the Explanation: None
statement of scope are evaluated and in some
6. The environment that supports the software
.B

cases refined to provide more detail prior to

the beginning of estimation. project is called
a) CLSS
3. A number of independent investigators b) SEE
17

have developed a team-oriented approach to c) FAST

requirements gathering that can be applied to d) CBSE
establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD Answer: b
-R

b) CLASS Explanation: Software engineering

c) FAST environment (SEE), incorporates hardware
d) None of the mentioned and software.
SE

Answer: c 7. Which of the following is not an option to

Explanation: Facilitated application achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
specification techniques a) Base estimates on similar projects that
(FAST), this approach encourages the have already been completed
C

creation of a joint team of customers b) Use one or more empirical models for
and developers who work together to identify software cost and effort estimation
the problem, propose elements c) Use relatively simple decomposition

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

techniques to generate project cost and effort TOPIC 1.8 COST-BENEFIT

estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate EVALUATION TECHNOLOGY
into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
1. Which one of the following is not an

M
Answer: d Evolutionary Process Model?
Explanation: None. a) WINWIN Spiral Model

O
b) Incremental Model
8. What can be used to complement c) Concurrent Development Model
decomposition techniques and offer a d) All of the mentioned

C
potentially valuable estimation approach in
their own right? Answer: d

T.
a) Automated estimation tools Explanation: None.
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques 2. The Incremental Model is a result of
d) Both Automated estimation tools and combination of elements of which two

O
Empirical estimation models models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model

SP
Answer: b b) Linear Model & RAD Model
Explanation: An estimation model for c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
computer software uses empirically derived d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
formulas to predict effort as a function of
G
LOC or FP. Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces
9. Which of the following is not achieved by a deliverable “increment” of the software and
LO

an automated estimation tools? particularly when we have to quickly deliver

a) Predicting staffing levels a limited functionality system.
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules 3. What is the major advantage of using
.B

d) Predicting clients demands Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment
Answer: d b) Easier to test and debug
Explanation: Demands can vary from client c) It is used when there is a need to get a
17

to client. product to the market early

d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when
10. Software project estimation can never be there is a need to get a product to the market
an exact science, but a combination of good early
-R

historical data and systematic techniques can

improve estimation accuracy. Answer: d
a) True Explanation: Incremental Model is generally
b) False
SE

easier to test and debug than other methods of

software development because relatively
Answer: a smaller changes are made during each
Explanation: None. iteration and is popular particularly when we
have to quickly deliver a limited functionality
C

. system.However, option “a” can be seen in

other models as well like RAD model,hence
option “d” answers the question.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

4. The spiral model was originally proposed Answer: a

by Explanation: All other options are the
a) IBM advantages of Spiral Model.
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman 8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its

M
d) Royce phases.
a) True
Answer: b b) False

O
Explanation: None.
Answer: b

C
5. The spiral model has two dimensions Explanation: None.
namely _____________ and ____________
9. How is Incremental Model different from

T.
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular Spiral Model?
c) radial, angular a) Progress can be measured for Incremental
d) diagonal, perpendicular Model

O
b) Changing requirements can be
Answer: c accommodated in Incremental Model

SP
Explanation: The radial dimension of the c) Users can see the system early in
model represents the cumulative costs and the Incremental Model
angular dimension represents the progress d) All of the mentioned
made in completing each cycle. Each loop of
Answer: a
G
the spiral from X-axis clockwise through
360o represents one phase. Explanation: None.
LO

6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different 10. If you were to create client/server
from Spiral Model? applications, which model would you go for?
a) It defines tasks required to define a) WINWIN Spiral Model
resources, timelines, and other project related b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
.B

information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at d) Incremental Model
the beginning of each pass around the spiral
Answer: c
17

c) It defines tasks required to assess both

technical and management risks Explanation: When applied to client/server
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, applications, the concurrent process model
install, and provide user support defines activities in two dimensions: a system
dimension and a component dimension.Thus
-R

Answer: b Concurrency is achieved by system and

Explanation: Except option “b” all other component activities occurring
tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as simultaneously and can be modeled using the
state-oriented approach.
SE

well.

7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. .

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis TOPIC 1.9 RISK EVALUATION
C

c) Strong approval and documentation control

d) Additional Functionality can be added at a
later date

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

1. Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment of
b) Investor software engineering.
c) Production team

M
d) Project manager 5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Answer: d more about the risk?

O
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the project b) Risk planning

C
schedule or the quality of the software being c) Risk analysis
developed, and then taking action to avoid d) Risk identification

T.
these risks.
Answer: a
2. Which of the following risk is the failure of Explanation: None.
a purchased component to perform as

O
expected? 6. Which of the following risks are derived
a) Product risk from the organizational environment where

SP
b) Project risk the software is being developed?
c) Business risk a) People risks
d) Programming risk b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
G
Answer: a d) Organizational risks
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or
performance of the software being developed. Answer: d
LO

Explanation: These risks are at management

3. Which of the following term is best defined level.
by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different 7. Which of the following risks are derived
from the software or hardware technologies
.B

priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover that are used to develop the system?
b) Technology change a) Managerial risks
c) Management change b) Technology risks
17

d) Product competition c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
-R

Explanation: The risks associated with

4. Which of the following term is best defined technology might affect the product
by the statement: “The underlying technology development.
on which the system is built is superseded by
SE

new technology.”? 8. Which of the following term is best defined

a) Technology change by the statement: “Derive traceability
b) Product competition information to maximize information hiding
c) Requirements change in the design.”?
C

d) None of the mentioned a) Underestimated development time

b) Organizational restructuring

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Requirements changes 2. Project managers have to assess the risks

d) None of the mentioned that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can

M
help us understand the risk. Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
9. Which of the following strategies means anticipating risks that might affect the project

O
that the impact of the risk will be reduced? schedule or the quality of the software being
a) Avoidance strategies developed, and then taking action to avoid

C
b) Minimization strategies these risks.
c) Contingency plans

T.
d) All of the mentioned 3. Which of the following is not considered as
a risk in project management?
Answer: b a) Specification delays
Explanation: None. b) Product competition

O
c) Testing
10. Risk management is now recognized as d) Staff turnover

SP
one of the most important project
management tasks. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
b) False it can’t be categorized as risk.
G
Answer: a 4. The process each manager follows during
Explanation: None. the life of a project is known as
LO

a) Project Management
. b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
TOPIC 1.10 STRATEGIC d) All of the mentioned
.B

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
1. Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and
17

management goal? manage projects successfully.

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
the agreed time a) very low
-R

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

development team c) moderate
d) Avoiding customer complaints d) high
SE

Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed Explanation: The probability of the risk
because professional software engineering is might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
always subject to organizational budget and (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
C

schedule constraints. 75%), or very high (>75%).

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis

parameters that you should use when c) De-processification
computing the costs of a software d) Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b

M
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

O
engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
10. An independent relationship must exist

C
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.

T.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.
Answer: b

O
7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

SP
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
c) customers .
d) project manager
G
TOPIC 1.11 STEPWISE
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out PROJECT PLANNING
LO

the desired software qualities and describe

how these are to be assessed. 1. Which of the following is an important
factor that can affect the accuracy and
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity efficacy of estimates?
.B

for the configuration management of a a) Project size

software system? b) Planning process
a) Internship management c) Project complexity
b) Change management d) Degree of structural uncertainty
17

c) Version management
d) System management Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the
Answer: a interdependence among various elements of
-R

Explanation: Configuration management the software grows rapidly.

policies and processes define how to record
and process proposed system changes, how to 2. What describes the data and control to be
processed?
SE

decide what system components to change,

how to manage different versions of the a) Planning process
system and its components, and how to b) Software scope
distribute changes to customers. c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
C

9. Identify the sub-process of process

improvement Answer: b
a) Process introduction Explanation: Functions described in the

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

statement of scope are evaluated and in some 6. The environment that supports the software
cases refined to provide more detail prior to project is called
the beginning of estimation. a) CLSS
b) SEE
3. A number of independent investigators c) FAST

M
have developed a team-oriented approach to d) CBSE
requirements gathering that can be applied to
establish the scope of a project called Answer: b

O
a) JAD Explanation: Software engineering
b) CLASS environment (SEE), incorporates hardware

C
c) FAST and software.
d) None of the mentioned

T.
7. Which of the following is not an option to
Answer: c achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
Explanation: Facilitated application a) Base estimates on similar projects that
specification techniques have already been completed

O
(FAST), this approach encourages the b) Use one or more empirical models for
creation of a joint team of customers software cost and effort estimation

SP
and developers who work together to identify c) Use relatively simple decomposition
the problem, propose elements techniques to generate project cost and effort
of the solution, negotiate different estimates
approaches, and specify a preliminary set of d) The ability to translate the size estimate
G
requirements. into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

4. CLSS stands for Answer: d

LO

a) conveyor line sorting system Explanation: None.

b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed 8. What can be used to complement
d) conveyor line sorting specification decomposition techniques and offer a
.B

potentially valuable estimation approach in

Answer: a their own right?
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting a) Automated estimation tools
system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a b) Empirical estimation models
17

conveyor line. Each box is identified by a c) Decomposition techniques

barcode that contains a part number and is d) Both Automated estimation tools and
sorted into one of six bins at the end of the Empirical estimation models
line.
-R

Answer: b
5. The project planner examines the statement Explanation: An estimation model for
of scope and extracts all important software computer software uses empirically derived
SE

functions which is known as formulas to predict effort as a function of

a) Association LOC or FP.
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process 9. Which of the following is not achieved by
d) All of the mentioned an automated estimation tools?
C

a) Predicting staffing levels

Answer: b b) Predicting software cost
Explanation: None

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Predicting software schedules b) Firmware, Embedded

d) Predicting clients demands c) Generic, Customised
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client Answer: c

M
to client. Explanation: rest all are sub
categories/applications of option c.
10. Software project estimation can never be

O
an exact science, but a combination of good 3. Software costs more to maintain than it
historical data and systematic techniques can does to develop.

C
improve estimation accuracy. a) True
a) True b) False

T.
b) False
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: For systems with a long life,
Explanation: None. maintenance costs may be several times

O
development costs.
.

SP
4. Which one of the following is not an
application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
UNIT II PROJECT LIFE c) digital function of dashboard display in a
G
car
CYCLE AND EFFORT d) none of the mentioned
LO

ESTIMATION
Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses
TOPIC 2.1 SOFTWARE Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
PROCESS AND PROCESS
.B

MODELS 5. Purpose of process is to deliver software

a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
17

1. Which one of the following is not a c) that is cost efficient

software process quality? d) both in time & with acceptable quality
a) Productivity
b) Portability Answer: d
-R

c) Timeliness Explanation: Cost of a software is a

d) Visibility management issue & is not related to process
activities.
Answer: b
SE

Explanation: Portability is a software 6. The work associated with software

product quality which means software can run engineering can be categorized into three
on different hardware platforms or software generic phases,regardless of application area,
environments. project size, or complexity namely
C

the__________ phase which focuses on what,

2. _____________&_____________ are two the_________ phase which focuses on how
kinds of software products. and the_________ phase which focuses on
a) CAD, CAM

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

change. Answer: d
i. support Explanation: None.
ii. development
iii. definition 10. Four types of change are encountered
a) 1, 2, 3 during the support phase.Which one of the

M
b) 2, 1, 3 following is not one that falls into such
c) 3, 2, 1 category?
a) Translation

O
d) 3, 1, 2
b) Correction
Answer: c c) Adaptation

C
Explanation: None. d) Prevention

T.
7. Which of the following activities of a Answer: a
Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in the
feedback report? development phase.
a) Communication

O
b) Planning .
c) Modeling & Construction

SP
d) Deployment TOPIC 2.2 CHOICE OF
Answer: d PROCESS MODELS - RAPID
Explanation: In Deployment the product is APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
G
delivered to the customer who evaluates the
product and provides feedback based on the 1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for
evaluation. programming exercises of ___________ LOC
LO

(Line of Code).
8. Process adopted for one project is same as a) 100-200
the process adopted from another project. b) 200-400
a) True c) 400-1000
.B

b) False d) above 1000

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
17

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to for small projects & programming exercises
the software team and the inter dependencies of 100 or 200 lines.
among two process can never be the same.
2. RAD stands for
-R

9. Which one of the following is not an a) Relative Application Development

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) Rapid Application Development
process framework activities and help team c) Rapid Application Document
manage and control progress, quality, change,
SE

d) None of the mentioned

and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
C

d) User Reviews 3. Which one of the following models is not

suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Prototyping Model c) 5 phases

c) RAD Model d) 6 phases
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: RAD Model consists of five

M
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the phases namely:Business modeling,Data
sequential flow that the Waterfall Model modeling,Process modeling,Application
proposes. generation and Testing & Turnover.

O
4. Which is not one of the types of prototype 8. What is the major drawback of using RAD

C
of Prototyping Model? Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype a) Highly specialized & skilled

T.
b) Vertical Prototype developers/designers are required
c) Diagonal Prototype b) Increases reusability of components
d) Domain Prototype c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components,

O
Answer: c Highly specialized & skilled
Explanation: Their is no such thing as developers/designers are required

SP
Diagonal Prototype whereas other options
have their respective definitions. Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an
5. Which one of the following is not a phase unrealistic product vision leading a team to
of Prototyping Model?
G
over or under-develop functionality.Also, the
a) Quick Design specialized & skilled developers are not
b) Coding easily available.
LO

c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product 9. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
Answer: b b) System Development Life cycle
Explanation: A prototyping model generates
.B

c) Software Design Life Cycle

only a working model of a system. d) System Design Life Cycle

6. Which of the following statements Answer: a

17

regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong? Explanation: None.

a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & 10. Which model can be selected if user is
unchangeable involved in all the phases of SDLC?
-R

c) Maintenance is practically not possible a) Waterfall Model

d) It scales up well to large projects b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
Answer: d d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
SE

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

for 100-200 LOC Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. RAD Model has
C

a) 2 phases .
b) 3 phase
TOPIC 2.3 AGILE METHODS

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto to be able to respond quickly to changing
for Agile Software Development requirements without excessive rework.
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software 5. How is plan driven development different
c) Customer collaboration from agile development ?

M
d) All of the mentioned a) Outputs are decided through a process of
negotiation during the software development
Answer:d process

O
Explanation: None. b) Specification, design, implementation and
testing are interleaved

C
2. Agile Software Development is based on c) Iteration occurs within activities
a) Incremental Development d) All of the mentioned

T.
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development Answer:c
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Explanation: A plan-driven approach to
Development software engineering is based around separate

O
development stages with the outputs to be
Answer:d produced at each of these stages planned in

SP
Explanation: The software is developed in advance.
increments with the customer specifying the
requirements to be included in each increment 6. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
and the highest priority is to satisfy the a) Two
G
customer through early and continuous b) Three
delivery of valuable software. They are c) Four
iterative because they work on one iteration d) Scrum is an agile method which means it
LO

followed by improvements in next iteration does not have phases

3. Which on of the following is not an agile Answer:b

method? Explanation: There are three phases in
.B

a) XP Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning

b) 4GT phase followed by a series of sprint cycles
c) AUP and project closure phase.
d) All of the mentioned
17

7. Agile methods seem to work best when

Answer:b team members have a relatively high skill
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not level.
incorporate iteration and the continuous a) True
-R

feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of b) False

an agile method.
Answer:a
4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project Explanation: None.
SE

team to respond rapidly to a change.

a) True 8. Which of the following does not apply to
b) False agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
C

Answer:b b) Only essential work products are produced

Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to c) Eliminate the use of project planning and
reduce overheads in the software process and

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

testing 2. RAD stands for

d) All of the mentioned a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
Answer:c c) Rapid Application Document
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each d) None of the mentioned

M
software development process which can’t be
avoided. Answer: b
Explanation: None.

O
9. Which three framework activities are
present in Adaptive Software 3. Which one of the following models is not

C
Development(ASD) ? suitable for accommodating any change?
a) analysis, design, coding a) Build & Fix Model

T.
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle b) Prototyping Model
planning, iterative development c) RAD Model
c) speculation, collaboration, learning d) Waterfall Model
d) all of the mentioned

O
Answer: d
Answer:c Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the

SP
Explanation: None. sequential flow that the Waterfall Model
proposes.
10. In agile development it is more important
to build software that meets the customers’ 4. Which is not one of the types of prototype
needs today than worry about features that of Prototyping Model?
G
might be needed in the future. a) Horizontal Prototype
a) True b) Vertical Prototype
LO

b) False c) Diagonal Prototype

d) Domain Prototype
Answer:a
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as
.B

. Diagonal Prototype whereas other options

have their respective definitions.
TOPIC 2.4 DYNAMIC SYSTEM
17

5. Which one of the following is not a phase

DEVELOPMENT METHOD of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for b) Coding
-R

programming exercises of ___________ LOC c) Prototype Refinement

(Line of Code). d) Engineer Product
a) 100-200
b) 200-400 Answer: b
SE

c) 400-1000 Explanation: A prototyping model generates

d) above 1000 only a working model of a system.

Answer: a 6. Which of the following statements

C

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
for small projects & programming exercises a) No room for structured design
of 100 or 200 lines. b) Code soon becomes unfixable &

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

unchangeable a) Waterfall Model

c) Maintenance is practically not possible b) Prototyping Model
d) It scales up well to large projects c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: d

M
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable Answer: c
for 100-200 LOC Explanation: None.

O
7. RAD Model has .
a) 2 phases

C
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
TOPIC 2.5 EXTREME
PROGRAMMING

T.
d) 6 phases

Answer: c 1. Incremental development in Extreme

Explanation: RAD Model consists of five Programming (XP) is supported through a

O
phases namely:Business modeling,Data system release once every month.
modeling,Process modeling,Application a) True

SP
generation and Testing & Turnover. b) False
8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Answer: b
Model? Explanation: Incremental development is
a) Highly specialized & skilled
G
supported through small, frequent system
developers/designers are required releases.
b) Increases reusability of components
LO

c) Encourages customer/client feedback 2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is

d) Increases reusability of components, complete, it is integrated into the whole
Highly specialized & skilled system.
developers/designers are required a) True
.B

b) False
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an Answer: a
unrealistic product vision leading a team to Explanation: XP follows a continuous
17

over or under-develop functionality.Also, the integration approach.After any such

specialized & skilled developers are not integration, all the unit tests in the system
easily available. must pass.
-R

9. SDLC stands for 3. In XP Increments are delivered to

a) Software Development Life Cycle customers every _______ weeks.
b) System Development Life cycle a) One
c) Software Design Life Cycle b) Two
SE

d) System Design Life Cycle c) Three

d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
C

Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP)

10. Which model can be selected if user is takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative
involved in all the phases of SDLC? development.New versions may be built

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

several times per day, hence delivering the Answer: a

increment for approval every 2nd week after Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very
testing the new version. difficult to write incrementally.For example,
in a complex user interface, it is often
4. User requirements are expressed as difficult to write unit tests for the code that

M
__________ in Extreme Programming. implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow
a) implementation tasks between screens.
b) functionalities

O
c) scenarios 7. Tests are automated in Extreme
d) none of the mentioned Programming.

C
a) True
Answer: c b) False

T.
Explanation: User requirements are
expressed as scenarios or user stories.These Answer: a
are written on cards and the development Explanation: Automated test harnesses are
team break them down into implementation used to run all component tests each time that

O
tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule a new release is built.
and cost estimates.

SP
8. In XP an automated unit test framework is
5. Is a customer involved test development used to write tests for a new piece of
and validation in XP ? functionality before that functionality itself is
a) Yes implemented.
G
b) No a) True
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer b) False
d) None of the mentioned
LO

Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: XP follows Test-first
Explanation: The role of the customer in the development approach.
testing process is to help develop acceptance
9. Developers work individually on a release
.B

tests for the stories that are to be implemented

in the next release of the system.However, and they compare their results with other
people adopting the customer role have developers before forwarding that release to
limited time available and so cannot work customers.
17

full-time with the development team. They a) True

may feel that providing the requirements was b) False
enough of a contribution and so may be
reluctant to get involved in the testing Answer: b
-R

process. Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair

programming which means developers work
6. Programmers prefer programming to in pairs, checking each other’s work and
providing the support to always do a good
SE

testing and sometimes they take shortcuts

when writing tests. For example, they may job.
write incomplete tests that do not check for
all possible exceptions that may occur. 10. Which four framework activities are
a) True found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
C

b) False a) analysis, design, coding, testing

b) planning, analysis, design, coding

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) planning, design, coding, testing 5. CIM and WBEM has been defined by ?
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing a) DMTF
b) SMI Standards Organization
Answer: c c) Open Standards Body
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four d) None of the mentioned

M
activities, and in the same in order.
Answer: a
.

O
6. _________ instruments one or more
aspects of the CIM Schema
TOPIC 2.6 MANAGING

C
a) Distributor
b) Provider
This set of multiple choice SAN storage

T.
c) Manager
questions and answers focuses on Storage d) None of the mentioned
Management aspects.
Answer: b

O
1. A Subprofile can reference other
subprofiles 7. The server can operate directly on the

SP
a) True underlying system by calling the system’s
b) False commands, services, and library functions.
a) True
Answer: a b) False
G
2. Clients use which protocol to discover SMI Answer: a
Agents on Storage Area Network?
LO

a) SLP (Service Location Protocol) 8. Transport protocol used for XMLCIM is

b) AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol) a) UDP
c) SMIP (SMI Protocol) b) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned c) SNMP
d) None of the mentioned
.B

Answer: a
Answer: b
3. Encoding mechanism of CIM Data as
17

XML Elements ? 9. A single CIM based management

a) CIM-XML application can manage storage arrays from
b) xmlCIM multiple vendors.
c) SGML a) True
-R

d) None of the mentioned b) False

Answer: b Answer: a
SE

4. Can a vendor implement additional Classes 10. Collects responses from providers and
or support additional Properties than are returns to the client
defined in a Profile and still be considered a) xmlCIM
conformant? b) CIMOM
C

a) True c) DMTF
b) False d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: b

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Answer: c

Series – Storage Area Networks. Explanation: None.

5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable

TOPIC 2.7 INTERACTIVE __________

M
PROCESSES a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one

O
1. Which process can be affected by other
processes executing in the system? d) that can not be more than one
a) cooperating process

C
b) child process Answer: a
c) parent process Explanation: None.

T.
d) init process
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
Answer: a __________
Explanation: None. a) mutex locks

O
b) binary semaphores
2. When several processes access the same c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores

SP
data concurrently and the outcome of the d) none of the mentioned
execution depends on the particular order in
which the access takes place, is called? Answer: c
a) dynamic condition Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
as mutex locks.
G
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition 7. When high priority task is indirectly
LO

preempted by medium priority task

Answer: b effectively inverting the relative priority of
Explanation: None. the two tasks, the scenario is called
__________
a) priority inversion
.B

3. If a process is executing in its critical

section, then no other processes can be b) priority removal
executing in their critical section. This c) priority exchange
condition is called? d) priority modification
17

a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion Answer: a
c) synchronous exclusion Explanation: None.
d) asynchronous exclusion
-R

8. Process synchronization can be done on

Answer: a __________
Explanation: None. a) hardware level
b) software level
SE

4. Which one of the following is a c) both hardware and software level

synchronization tool? d) none of the mentioned
a) thread
b) pipe Answer: c
C

c) semaphore Explanation: None.

d) socket
9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates
__________

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) shared data structures c) Costs of lunch time food

b) procedures that operate on shared data d) Costs of support staff
structure
c) synchronization between concurrent Answer: c
procedure invocation Explanation: This is a incurred by the

M
d) all of the mentioned employees.

Answer: d 3. What is related to the overall functionality

O
Explanation: None. of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics

C
10. To enable a process to wait within the b) Product-related metrics
monitor __________ c) Size-related metrics

T.
a) a condition variable must be declared as d) None of the mentioned
condition
b) condition variables must be used as Answer: a
boolean objects Explanation: Productivity is expressed in

O
c) semaphore must be used terms of the amount of useful functionality
d) all of the mentioned produced in some given time. Function points

SP
and object points
Answer: a are the best-known metrics of this type.
Explanation: None.
4. A _________ is developed using historical
cost information that relates some software
G
TOPIC 2.8 BASICS OF metric to the project cost.
SOFTWARE ESTIMATION a) Algorithmic cost modelling
LO

b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
TOPIC 2.9 EFFORT AND COST d) Parkinson’s Law
ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES
Answer: a
.B

1. Which of the following are parameters Explanation: The model uses a basic
involved in computing the total cost of a regression formula with parameters that are
derived from historical project data and
17

software development project?

a) Hardware and software costs current as well as future project
b) Effort costs characteristics.
c) Travel and training costs
5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an
d) All of the mentioned
-R

early stage in a project when only a

Answer: d specification is available
Explanation: All these are accounted for in a) True
b) False
SE

estimating a software development cost.

2. Which of the following costs is not part of Answer: a

the total effort cost? Explanation: Function-point and object-point
a) Costs of networking and communications estimates are easier to produce than estimates
C

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting of code size but are often still inaccurate.
office space

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which technique is applicable when other Answer: d

projects in the same analogy application Explanation: Estimates are based on function
domain have been completed? points, which are then converted to number of
a) Algorithmic cost modelling lines of source code. The formula follows the
b) Expert judgement standard form discussed above with a

M
c) Estimation by analogy simplified set of seven multipliers.
d) Parkinson’s Law
10. Which model is used to compute the

O
Answer: c effort required to integrate reusable
Explanation: The cost of a new project is components or program code that is

C
estimated by analogy with these completed automatically generated by design or program
projects. translation tools?

T.
a) An application-composition model
7. Which model assumes that systems are b) A post-architecture model
created from reusable components, scripting c) A reuse model
or database programming? d) An early design model

O
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model Answer: c

SP
c) A reuse model Explanation: None.
d) An early design model
11. The COCOMO model takes into account
Answer: a different approaches to software
G
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates development, reuse, etc.
of prototype development. a) True
b) False
LO

8. Which of the following states that work

expands to fill the time available. Answer: b
a) CASE tools Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model.
b) Pricing to win COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-
.B

c) Parkinson’s Law models that produce increasingly detailed

d) Expert judgement software estimates.

Answer: c .
17

Explanation: The cost is determined by

available resources rather than by objective
assessment. If the software has to be
TOPIC 2.10 COSMIC FULL
delivered in 12 months and 5 people are FUNCTION POINTS
-R

available, the effort required is estimated to

be 60 person-months. 1. Which of the following is not a metric for
design model?
9. Which model is used during early stages of
SE

a) Interface design metrics

the system design after the requirements have b) Component-level metrics
been established? c) Architectural metrics
a) An application-composition model d) Complexity metrics
b) A post-architecture model
C

c) A reuse model Answer: d

d) An early design model Explanation: Complexity metrics measure
the logical complexity of source code.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are 6. Architectural Design Metrics are
part of ___________ in nature.
a) Analysis Model a) Black Box
b) Testing b) White Box
c) Design Model c) Gray Box

M
d) Source Code d) Green Box

Answer: b Answer: a

O
Explanation: These metrics lead to the Explanation: They are “black box” in that
design of test cases that provide program they do not require any knowledge of the

C
coverage. inner workings of a particular software
component.

T.
3. Function Points in software engineering
was first proposed by 7. Structural complexity of a module i is
a) Booch given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f
b) Boehm symbolizes here?

O
c) Albrecht a) “fan check-out” of module i
d) Jacobson b) “fan check-in” of module i

SP
c) “fan in” of module i
Answer: c d) “fan out” of module i
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in
1979, hundreds of books and papers have Answer: d
G
been written on functions points since then. Explanation: Fan out is number of modules
directly invoked by module i.
4. How many Information Domain Values are
LO

used for Function Point Computation? 8. SMI stands for

a) three a) Software Mature Indicator
b) four b) Software Maturity Index
c) five c) Software Mature Index
.B

d) six d) Software Maturity Indicator

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The five values are: External Explanation: None.
17

Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries,

Internal Logical Files and External Interface 9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software
Files. product starts becoming unstable
a) True
-R

5. Function Point Computation is given by the b) False

formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) Answer: b
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the
SE

c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) software product begins to stabilize.

d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt
Answer: b is the number of modules
C

Explanation: Option b is the correct formula a) in the current release

for Function Point Computation. b) in the current release that have been
changed

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) from the preceding release that were development team

deleted in the current release d) Avoiding customer complaints
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Projects need to be managed

M
Explanation: None. because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and
11. The amount of time that the software is schedule constraints.

O
available for use is known as
a) Reliability 2. Project managers have to assess the risks

C
b) Usability that may affect a project.
c) Efficiency a) True

T.
d) Functionality b) False

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: Risk management involves

O
anticipating risks that might affect the project
12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as schedule or the quality of the software being

SP
the degree to which the software developed, and then taking action to avoid
a) stated needs these risks.
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources 3. Which of the following is not considered as
d) none of the mentioned a risk in project management?
G
a) Specification delays
Answer: b b) Product competition
LO

Explanation: None. c) Testing

d) Staff turnover
.
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
.B

it can’t be categorized as risk.

UNIT III ACTIVITY 4. The process each manager follows during

17

PLANNING AND RISK the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management
MANAGEMENT b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
-R

d) All of the mentioned

TOPIC 3.1 OBJECTIVES OF
ACTIVITY PLANNING Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
SE

1. Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and

management goal? manage projects successfully.
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
C

the agreed time a) very low

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) moderate and process proposed system changes, how to

d) high decide what system components to change,
how to manage different versions of the
Answer: d system and its components, and how to
Explanation: The probability of the risk distribute changes to customers.

M
might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
(10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50– 9. Identify the sub-process of process
75%), or very high (>75%). improvement

O
a) Process introduction
6. Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis

C
parameters that you should use when c) De-processification
computing the costs of a software d) Process distribution

T.
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are

O
engineers and managers) identified.
d) all of the mentioned

SP
10. An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
G
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.
Answer: b
LO

7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality

developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
.
.B

c) customers
d) project manager

Answer: b
TOPIC 3.2 PROJECT
17

Explanation: The quality plan should set out SCHEDULES

the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. 1. Which of the following is the reason that
software is delivered late?
-R

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Changing customer requirements that are
for the configuration management of a not reflected in schedule changes
software system? b) Technical difficulties that could not have
a) Internship management
SE

been foreseen in advance

b) Change management c) Human difficulties that could not have
c) Version management been foreseen in advance
d) System management d) All of the mentioned
C

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: None.
policies and processes define how to record

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

2. Which of the following is an activity that 6. What is used to determine the

distributes estimated effort across the planned recommended degree of rigor with which the
project duration by allocating the effort to software process should be applied on a
specific software engineering tasks? project?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule a) Degree of Rigor

M
b) Software Project scheduling b) Adaptation criteria
c) Software Detailed schedule c) Task Set

O
d) None of the mentioned d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation
criteria
Answer: b

C
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor

T.
3. Every task that is scheduled should be are: casual, structured, strict, and quick
assigned to a specific team member is termed reaction.
as
a) Compartmentalization 7. What evaluates the risk associated with the

O
b) Defined milestones technology to be implemented as part of
c) Defined responsibilities project scope?

SP
d) Defined outcomes a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
Answer: c c) Technology risk assessment
Explanation: These responsibilities are d) Customer reaction to the concept
G
domain specific.
Answer: b
4. What is a collection of software Explanation: None.
LO

engineering work tasks, milestones, and

deliverables that must be accomplished to 8. Which of the following is not an adaptation
complete a particular project? criteria for software projects?
a) Task set a) Size of the project
.B

b) Degree of milestone b) Customers Complaints

c) Adaptation criteria c) Project staff
d) All of the mentioned d) Mission criticality
17

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: These can vary from client to
client.
5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated
-R

number of people are allocated at any given 9. Which of the following is a project
time in Software Scheduling is known as scheduling method that can be applied to
a) Time Allocation software development?
b) Effort Validation a) PERT
SE

c) Defined Milestone b) CPM

d) Effort Distribution c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer: b
C

Explanation: None. Answer: d

Explanation: Program evaluation and review
technique (PERT) and critical path method

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

(CPM) are two project scheduling methods

TOPIC 3.4 SEQUENCING AND
that can be applied to software development.
SCHEDULING
10. A technique for performing quantitative
analysis of progress is known as 1. Round robin scheduling falls under the

M
a) BCWS category of ____________
b) EVA a) Non-preemptive scheduling
c) BAC

O
b) Preemptive scheduling
d) CBSE c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

C
Answer: b
Explanation: The earned value system Answer: b

T.
provides a common value scale for every Explanation: None.
task, regardless of the type of work being
performed. The total hours to do the whole 2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a
project are estimated, and every task is given time shared system ____________

O
an earned value based on its estimated a) using very large time slices converts it into
percentage of the total. First come First served scheduling algorithm

SP
b) using very small time slices converts it into
11. What is the recommended distribution of First come First served scheduling algorithm
effort for a project? c) using extremely small time slices increases
a) 40-20-40 performance
G
b) 50-20-30 d) using very small time slices converts it into
c) 30-40-30 Shortest Job First algorithm
d) 50-30-20
LO

Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: All the processes will be able to
Explanation: A recommended distribution of get completed.
effort across the software process is 40%
.B

(analysis and design), 20% (coding), and 40% 3. The portion of the process scheduler in an
(testing). operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with ____________
12. A project usually has a timeline chart a) assigning ready processes to CPU
17

which was developed by b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue

a) Henry Gantt c) assigning running processes to blocked
b) Barry Boehm queue
c) Ivar Jacabson d) all of the mentioned
-R

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: Timeline chart, also called a
SE

Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an 4. Complex scheduling algorithms

industrial engineer in 1917 . ____________
a) are very appropriate for very large
. computers
C

b) use minimal resources

TOPIC 3.3 ACTIVITIES c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a c) tQ = 45ms
Explanation: Large computers are d) tQ = 50ms
overloaded with a greater number of
processes. Answer: a
Explanation: None.

M
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in 9. Orders are processed in the sequence they
the queue arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.

O
b) first executes the job that came in first in a) earliest due date
the queue b) slack time remaining

C
c) first executes the job that needs minimal c) first come, first served
processor d) critical ratio

T.
d) first executes the job that has maximum
processor needs Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: b

O
Explanation: None. 10. Which of the following algorithms tends
to minimize the process flow time?

SP
6. The strategy of making processes that are a) First come First served
logically runnable to be temporarily b) Shortest Job First
suspended is called ____________ c) Earliest Deadline First
a) Non preemptive scheduling d) Longest Job First
G
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first Answer: b
d) First come First served Explanation: None.
LO

Answer: b 11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround

Explanation: None. time for short jobs is usually ________ and
that for long jobs is slightly ___________
7. What is Scheduling? a) Lengthened; Shortened
.B

a) allowing a job to use the processor b) Shortened; Lengthened

b) making proper use of processor c) Shortened; Shortened
c) all of the mentioned d) Shortened; Unchanged
17

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
-R

12. Which of the following statements are

8. There are 10 different processes running on true? (GATE 2010)
a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for
an input event in the input queue. Busy I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling
SE

processes are scheduled with the Round- II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvat
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for III. Round robin is better than FCFS in ter
small response times, if the processes have a
C

short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms? a) I only

a) tQ = 15ms b) I and III only
b) tQ = 40ms

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) II and III only are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation,

d) I, II and III Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and
Physical layer. Each layer uses a protocol to
Answer: d perform its designated function, for example,
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first the data link layer uses error detection

M
scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest protocols for error control functions.
job scheduling. It may cause starvation as
shorter processes may keep coming and a 3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer

O
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. but OSI model have this layer.
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If a) session layer

C
priority based scheduling with preemption is b) transport layer
used, then a low priority process may never c) application layer

T.
get CPU. d) network layer
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves
response time as all processes get CPU after a Answer: a
specified time. Explanation: In OSI reference model, there

O
. are two layers which are not present in
TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and

SP
Session layer. The functions of Presentation
TOPIC 3.5 NETWORK and Session layer in the OSI model are
PLANNING MODELS handled by the transport layer itself in
TCP/IP.
G
1. OSI stands for __________
a) open system interconnection 4. Which layer is used to link the network
b) operating system interface support layers and user support layers?
LO

c) optical service implementation a) session layer

d) open service Internet b) data link layer
c) transport layer
Answer: a d) network layer
.B

Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for

Open System Interconnection. OSI model Answer: c
provides a structured plan on how Explanation: Physical, data link and network
layers are network support layers and session,
17

applications communicate over a network,

which also helps us to have a structured plan presentation and application layers are user
for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the support layers. The transport layer links these
ISO as the generalized model for computer layers by segmenting and rearranging the
network i.e. it can be modified to design any data. It uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
-R

kind of computer network.

5. Which address is used on the internet for
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference employing the TCP/IP protocols?
SE

model is __________ a) physical address and logical address

a) 4 b) port address
b) 5 c) specific address
c) 6 d) all of the mentioned
C

d) 7
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The physical, logical, port and
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there specific addresses are used in TCP/IP

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is Answer: c

physical (MAC) and logical address, port Explanation: A port number is a way to
address and specific address are employed in identify a specific process to which an
both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In Internet or other network message is to be
TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some

M
the internet implementation of these examples of port numbers are port 20 which
addresses. is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used

O
for SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the used for TELNET.
OSI model.

C
a) prior to 9. Which layer provides the services to user?
b) after a) application layer

T.
c) simultaneous to b) session layer
d) with no link to c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
Answer: a

O
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes Answer: a
were developed at multiple research centers Explanation: In networking, a user mainly

SP
between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI interacts with application layer to create and
reference model was developed in the year send information to other computer or
1984. TCP/IP was developed with the network. Application layer provides the
intention to create a model for the Internet interface between applications and the
G
while OSI was intended to be a general network. It is the top-most layer in both the
network model. TCP/IP and the OSI model.
LO

7. Which layer is responsible for process to 10. Transmission data rate is decided by
process delivery in a general network model? ____________
a) network layer a) network layer
b) transport layer b) physical layer
.B

c) session layer c) data link layer

d) data link layer d) transport layer

Answer: b Answer: b
17

Explanation: The role of Transport layer Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1

(Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end device which deals with network cables or the
connection between two systems in a standards in use like connectors, pins, electric
network. The protocols used in Transport current used etc. Basically the transmission
-R

layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is speed is determined by the cables and
responsible for segmentation of the data. It connectors used. Hence it is physical layer
uses ports for the implementation of process- that determines the transmission speed in
SE

to-process delivery. network. Some of the cables used for high

speed data transmission are optical fiber
8. Which address is used to identify a process cables and twisted pair cables.
on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
C

b) logical address TOPIC 3.6 | 3.7 | 3.8

c) port address FORMULATING NETWORK
d) specific address MODEL, FORWARD PASS &

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

BACKWARD PASS a) Retesting

TECHNIQUES b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
1. Which of the following term describes

M
testing? Answer: c
a) Finding broken code Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors the already deployed software. The deployed

O
c) A stage of all projects software needs to be enhanced, changed or
d) None of the mentioned migrated to other hardware. The Testing done

C
during this enhancement, change and
Answer: b migration cycle is known as maintenance
Explanation: Software testing is the process

T.
testing.
of evaluation a software item to detect
differences between given input and expected 5. White Box techniques are also classified as
output. a) Design based testing

O
b) Structural testing
2. What is Cyclomatic complexity? c) Error guessing technique

SP
a) Black box testing d) None of the mentioned
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing Answer: b
d) Green box testing Explanation: The structural testing is the
G
testing of the structure of the system or
Answer: b component. Structural testing is often referred
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box
LO

measures the amount of decision logic in the testing’ because in structural testing we are
program module.Cyclomatic complexity interested in what is happening ‘inside the
gives the minimum number of paths that can system/application’.
generate all possible paths through the
module.
.B

6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
3. Lower and upper limits are present in b) practically possible
which chart? c) impractical but possible
17

a) Run chart d) impractical and impossible

b) Bar chart
c) Control chart Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing
-R

where we execute single test case for multiple

Answer: a test data.It means if we are using single test
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor case for different product or module under
the behavior of a variable over time for a
SE

manual testing.
process or system. Run charts graphically testing .
display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random
patterns in behavior over time. It contains 7. Which of the following is/are White box
lower and upper limits. technique?
C

a) Statement Testing
4. Maintenance testing is performed using b) Decision Testing
which methodology?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Condition Coverage
TOPIC 3.10 RISK
d) All of the mentioned
IDENTIFICATION
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision 1. What is the main purpose of hazard

M
testing, condition coverage all of them uses identification?
white box technique. a) To minimise the effect of a consequence

O
b) For better risk management
8. What are the various Testing Levels? c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
a) Unit Testing d) To reduce probability of occurrence

C
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing Answer: c

T.
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
Answer: d understand the concentration of toxins, spatial
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing distribution and there movement.

O
all of them are levels in testing.
2. The ____________ process determines

SP
9. Boundary value analysis belong to? whether exposure to a chemical can increase
a) White Box Testing the incidence of adverse health effect.
b) Black Box Testing a) Hazard identification
c) White Box & Black Box Testing b) Exposure assessment
d) None of the mentioned
G
c) Toxicity assessment
d) Risk characterization
Answer: b
LO

Explanation: Boundary value analysis is Answer: a

based on testing at the boundaries between Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
partitions and checks the output with path of the toxins and also determines the
expected output. likelihood of occurrence in humans.
.B

10. Alpha testing is done at 3. Which of the following data is not required
a) Developer’s end for hazard identification?
b) User’s end a) Land use
17

c) Developer’s & User’s end b) Contaminant levels

d) None of the mentioned c) Affected population
d) Estimation of risk
Answer: a
-R

Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the Answer: d

developer’s end. Developers observe the Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at
users and note problems. Alpha testing is risk characterization whereas land use,
testing of an application when development is
SE

contaminant level, affected population and

about to complete. Minor design changes can biota data play a major role while identifying
still be made as a result of alpha testing. a hazard.

TOPIC 3.9 CRITICAL PATH 4. Hazard is defined as the probability of

C

suffering harm or loss.

(CRM) METHOD a) True
b) False

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Explanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential c) Monitoring is failed
source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals

M
5. Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to

O
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

C
contamination on site
d) For determination of remedial actions 9. The purpose of risk management is to

T.
identify potential problems before they occur
Answer: c so that risk-handling activities may be
Explanation: Site history provides precise planned.
information about the activities that had been a) False

O
carried on the area. Most of the instance b) True
contamination is due to past activities on site.

SP
Answer: b
6. What is the main objective of risk Explanation: The main goal of risk
assessment? management is to reduce the threats from an
a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks activity so that harm to the surrounding is
G
b) Remediation of contaminated sites minimized.
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants 10. Hazard identification mainly focus on
LO

______________
Answer: a a) Chemical source and concentration
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to b) Chemical exposure
understand possible problems and provides c) Chemical analysis
.B

alternatives as well as control measures to d) Chemical pathway

reduce the accident.
Answer: a
7. What is the first stage of risk assessment? Explanation: The main aim of hazard
17

a) Exposure assessment identification is to identify chemical source,

b) Hazard identification concentration and its movement in
c) Toxicity study environment.
d) Risk characterization
-R

Answer: b TOPIC 3.11 ASSESSMENT

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
stage of risk assessment. It provides clear 1. What is the main purpose of hazard
SE

understanding about chemical contaminants, identification?

their concentration and distribution in a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
environment. b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
C

8. An incident can be called hazardous only d) To reduce probability of occurrence

when?
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c contamination on site

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first d) For determination of remedial actions
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
understand the concentration of toxins, spatial Answer: c
distribution and there movement. Explanation: Site history provides precise

M
information about the activities that had been
2. The ____________ process determines carried on the area. Most of the instance
whether exposure to a chemical can increase contamination is due to past activities on site.

O
the incidence of adverse health effect.
a) Hazard identification 6. What is the main objective of risk

C
b) Exposure assessment assessment?
c) Toxicity assessment a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks

T.
d) Risk characterization b) Remediation of contaminated sites
c) Hazard management
Answer: a d) To know source of pollutants
Explanation: Hazard identification traces the

O
path of the toxins and also determines the Answer: a
likelihood of occurrence in humans. Explanation: Risk assessment helps to

SP
understand possible problems and provides
3. Which of the following data is not required alternatives as well as control measures to
for hazard identification? reduce the accident.
a) Land use
7. What is the first stage of risk assessment?
G
b) Contaminant levels
c) Affected population a) Exposure assessment
d) Estimation of risk b) Hazard identification
LO

c) Toxicity study
Answer: d d) Risk characterization
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at
risk characterization whereas land use, Answer: b
Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
.B

contaminant level, affected population and

biota data play a major role while identifying stage of risk assessment. It provides clear
a hazard. understanding about chemical contaminants,
their concentration and distribution in
17

4. Hazard is defined as the probability of environment.

suffering harm or loss.
a) True 8. An incident can be called hazardous only
b) False when?
-R

a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

Answer: b humans and ecological systems
Explanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential c) Monitoring is failed
SE

source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals

5. Why does site history have to be Answer: a

considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
C

a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to

b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

9. The purpose of risk management is to 2. Which of the following risk is the failure of
identify potential problems before they occur a purchased component to perform as
so that risk-handling activities may be expected?
planned. a) Product risk
a) False b) Project risk

M
b) True c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: b

O
Explanation: The main goal of risk Answer: a
management is to reduce the threats from an Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or

C
activity so that harm to the surrounding is performance of the software being developed.
minimized.

T.
3. Which of the following term is best defined
10. Hazard identification mainly focus on by the statement: “There will be a change of
______________ organizational management with different
a) Chemical source and concentration priorities.”?

O
b) Chemical exposure a) Staff turnover
c) Chemical analysis b) Technology change

SP
d) Chemical pathway c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of hazard Answer: c
G
identification is to identify chemical source, Explanation: None.
concentration and its movement in
environment. 4. Which of the following term is best defined
LO

by the statement: “The underlying technology

on which the system is built is superseded by
TOPIC 3.12 RISK PLANNING new technology.”?
a) Technology change
.B

TOPIC 3.13 RISK b) Product competition

c) Requirements change
MANAGEMENT d) None of the mentioned
17

1. Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment of
b) Investor software engineering.
-R

c) Production team
d) Project manager 5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
more about the risk?
SE

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the project b) Risk planning
schedule or the quality of the software being c) Risk analysis
developed, and then taking action to avoid d) Risk identification
C

these risks.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which of the following risks are derived 10. Risk management is now recognized as
from the organizational environment where one of the most important project
the software is being developed? management tasks.
a) People risks a) True
b) Technology risks b) False

M
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks Answer: a
Explanation: None.

O
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management .

C
level.
TOPIC 3.14 PERT TECHNIQUE

T.
7. Which of the following risks are derived
from the software or hardware technologies
that are used to develop the system? 1. Which of the following is not a phase of
a) Managerial risks project management?

O
b) Technology risks a) Project planning
c) Estimation risks b) Project scheduling

SP
d) Organizational risks c) Project controlling
d) Project being
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with Answer: d
Explanation: There are three phases of
G
technology might affect the product
development. project management. These are project
planning, project scheduling and project
LO

8. Which of the following term is best defined controlling. Project management refers to a
by the statement: “Derive traceability highly specialised job to achieve the
information to maximize information hiding objectives of a project.
in the design.”?
2. Who introduced the bar charts?
.B

a) Underestimated development time

b) Organizational restructuring a) Williams henry
c) Requirements changes b) Henry Gantt
d) None of the mentioned c) Jane Gantt
17

d) Joseph henry
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can Answer: b
help us understand the risk. Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the bar
-R

charts around 1900 A.D. They give pictorial

9. Which of the following strategies means representation in two dimensions of a project
that the impact of the risk will be reduced? by breaking it down into numerous
a) Avoidance strategies manageable units.
SE

b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans 3. Bar charts were modified later to obtain the
d) All of the mentioned milestone charts.
a) True
C

Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a progress, black colour is used and for

Explanation: The various tools or techniques progress behind schedule, red colour is used.
used for project management are bar charts,
milestone charts and network diagrams. Bar 7. A PERT network is activity-oriented while
charts were modified later to obtain the a CPM network is event-oriented.

M
milestone charts. a) True
b) False
4. The full form of PERT is ___________

O
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology Answer: b
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique Explanation: A CPM network is activity-

C
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology oriented while a PERT network is event-
d) Program Evaluation and Review oriented. Event is the completion of an

T.
Technique activity or the commencement of an activity.
An event may be head event, tail event or
Answer: d dual role event.
Explanation: There are various network

O
techniques that are called by various names 8. _________ are used to represent activity in
like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LESS. Network a network diagram.

SP
technique is one of the major advancements a) Circles
in management science. The full form of b) Squares
PERT is Program Evaluation and Review c) Rectangles
Technique. d) Arrows
G
5. The full form of CPM is ___________ Answer: d
a) Critical Path Method Explanation: A network is a flow diagram
LO

b) Control Path Method that consists of events and activities which

c) Critical Plan Management are connected sequentially and logically.
d) Control Path Management Arrows are used to represent activity in a
network diagram. Events are generally
.B

Answer: a represented by circles.

Explanation: The full form of CPM is the
Critical Path Method. CPM networks are 9. The shortest possible time in which an
mainly used for those projects for which a activity can be achieved under ideal
17

fairly accurate estimate of time of completion circumstances is known as ________

can be made for each activity. a) Pessimistic time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
6. In bar charts, which colour is used to show c) Expected time estimate
-R

the actual progress? d) The most likely time estimate

a) Red
b) Black Answer: b
Explanation: There are three kinds of time
SE

c) Blue
d) Green estimates made by PERT planners. These are
the optimistic time estimate, the pessimistic
Answer: d time estimate and the most likely time
Explanation: In bar charts, different colours estimate. The shortest possible time in which
C

are sometimes filled in the bars for showing an activity can be achieved under ideal
various control information. For actual circumstances is known as the optimistic time
progress, green colour is used. For anticipated estimate.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

10. According to the time estimates made by 1. A randomized algorithm uses random bits
the PERT planners, the maximum time that as input inorder to achieve a _____________
would be needed to complete an activity is good performance over all possible choice of
called as __________ random bits.
a) The most likely time estimate a) worst case

M
b) Optimistic time estimate b) best case
c) Pessimistic time estimate c) average case

O
d) Expected time estimate d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: c

C
Explanation: According to the time estimates Explanation: A randomized algorithm is an
made by the PERT planners, the maximum algorithm that employs a degree of

T.
time that would be needed to complete an randomness as a part of its logic using
activity is called the pessimistic time random bits as inputs and in hope of
estimate. This estimate does not include producing average case good performace.
possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.

O
2. Which of the following options match the
11. In a network, a critical path is the time- given statement:

SP
wise shortest path. Statement: The algorithms that use the
a) True random input to reduce the expected running
b) False time or memory usage, but always terminate
with a correct result in a bounded amount of
G
Answer: b time.
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is a) Las Vegas Algorithm
the time-wise longest path. The critical path b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
LO

in the Critical Path Method plays an essential c) Atlantic City Algorithm

role in scheduling and planning. d) None of the mentioned

12. The difference between the maximum Answer: a

.B

time available and the actual time needed to Explanation: The other type of algorithms
perform an activity is known as _________ are probabalistic algorithms, which
a) Free float depending upon the random input, have a
b) Independent float chance of producing incorrect results or fail
17

c) Total float to produce a result.

d) Half float
3. Which of the following are probalistic
Answer: c algorithms?
-R

Explanation: The difference between the a) Las Vegas Algorithm

maximum time available and the actual time b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
needed to perform an activity is known as the c) Atlantic City Algorithm
SE

total float. Hence, the total float is the excess d) All of the mentioned
of the maximum available time throughout
the time of the activity. Answer: d
Explanation: Monte Carlo algorithms are
very vast, but only probably correct. On thr
C

TOPIC 3.15 MONTE CARLO other side, Las Vegas algorithms are always
SIMULATION correct, but probably fast.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

4. Which of the following algorithms are randomized algorithms as probalistic turing

probably correct as well as fast? machines. A probalistic turing machine is a
a) Las Vegas Algorithm non deterministic turing machine which
b) Monte Carlo Algorithm randomly chooses between the available
c) Atlantic City Algorithm transitions at each point according to some

M
d) All of the mentioned probalistic distribution.

Answer: c 8. For the given algorithm, find the

O
Explanation: The atlantic city algorithms probability of finding after k iterations:
which are bounded polynomial time

C
algorithms are probably correct and probably find_a(array A, n, k)
fast. It is correct more than 75% of the times.
begin

T.
5. Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the i=0
following:
a) cooperative behaviour repeat

O
b) graph theory
Randomly select one element out
c) Both (a) and (b)

SP
d) None of the mentioned i=i+1

Answer: a until i=k or a is found

Explanation: Prisonner’s dilemma is a
end
G
standard example of a game analysed in game
theory where rational cooperative behaviour
is judged on the basis of rewards and a) (1/2)k
LO

punishment. b) (1-(1/3))k
c) 1-(1/2)k
6. Unix sort command uses _________ as its d) None of the mentioned
sorting technique.
.B

a) Quick Sort Answer: c

b) Bucket Sort Explanation: The given is known as Monte
c) Radix Sort Carlo Algorithm. If a is fount, the algorithm
d) Merge Sort succeeds, else the algorith fails. The
17

algorithm doesn not guarantee success but the

Answer: a run time is bounded.
Explanation: Quicksort is the method of
choice in many applications( Unix sort 9. Which of the following can be solved in
-R

command) with O(nlogn) in worst case. computer science?

a) P=BPP problem
7. State true or false: b) NP=co-NP problem
Statement: A turing machine has the c) Do one way problems exist?
SE

capability of using randomly ‘generated’ d) All of the mentioned

numbers.
a) true Answer: d
b) false Explanation: There exists a list of unsolved
C

problems in computational theory which

Answer: a includes many problems including the ones
Explanation: Complexity theories models given.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

10. Which of the following can be referred to 3. In _________ the embedded devices and
as applications of Randomized algorithm? objects working under IoT are resource
a) Quicksort constrained.
b) Min Cut a) Health
c) Verifying Matrix Multiplication b) Industry

M
d) All of the mentioned c) Home
d) Information system
Answer: d

O
Explanation: Freivalds algorithm is a Answer: d
probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to Explanation: In the information system the

C
verify matrix multiplication. On the other embedded devices and objects working under
hand, Randomness can be useful in quicksort. IoT implementation are resource constrained.

T.
If the algorithm selects pivot element
uniformaly at random, it has a probably high 4. What type of networks is interacting under
probabilty of finishing the work in O(nlogn) IoT?
time regardless of the input. a) Heterogeneous only

O
b) Homogeneous Only
c) Both hetero and homogeneous
TOPIC 3.16 RESOURCE

SP
d) Neither hetero nor Homo
ALLOCATION
Answer: a
1. What is the popular method of organizing Explanation: Due to the huge number of
G
wireless network topologies? heterogeneous network elements interacting
a) Software and working under IoT based information
b) Synchronization systems, there is an enormous need for
LO

c) Network resource management for the smooth running

d) Cluster of IoT operations.

Answer: d 5. Managing of resources can be done by

.B

Explanation: Clustering is a popular method implementing ________

of organising wireless network topologies, in a) Protocols
which a few nodes, the cluster heads are b) Algorithms
c) Networks
17

elected as representing to route the traffic

originated in the entire network. d) Protocols and algorithms

2. _________ will enable the humans to Answer: d

access, control and manage the operation. Explanation: Managing of resources by
-R

a) IoT implementing protocols, algorithms or

b) Bigdata techniques is required to enhance the
c) Network scalability, reliability and stability in the
SE

d) Communication operations of IoT across different domains of

technology.
Answer: a
Explanation: IoT enables the humans to 6. This section is to solicit the efforts and
access, control and manage the operations ongoing research work in the domain of
C

and data of the objects working under _______

different information systems of their a) Information Management
surroundings. b) Resource Management

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Industrial Management –> QoS in communication protocol

d) Network Management –> Mac layer issues
–> Secure communication in D2D.
Answer: b
Explanation: The motivation of this section 10. Which of the following is the future

M
is to solicit the efforts and ongoing research application of IoT?
work in the domain of resource management a) Role of green IoT system
in IoT. b) QoS in communication

O
c) Secure communication
7. Resource management will elaborate the d) Multimedia communication

C
key aspects of _________
a) Industrial management Answer: a

T.
b) Energy management Explanation: Future applications of IoT:
c) Network management –> IoT based information system for Ambient
d) Information management living
–> Cyber Physical System in IoT

O
Answer: c –> Role of Green IoT system
Explanation: Resource management will –> Fog computing.

SP
elaborate the key aspects of energy
management, communication protocols and 11. The object of IoT will be empowered by
future applications of IoT for information ___________
systems. a) Network
G
b) Cloud
8. Resource management includes c) Devices
___________ d) Connectivity
LO

a) IoT Devices
b) IoT Cloud Answer: c
c) IoT Networks Explanation: The objects of the Internet of
d) IoT Web Things will be empowered by embedded
.B

devices whose constrained resources will

Answer: b need to be managed efficiently.
Explanation: Resource management includes
IoT Cloud, IoT based industrial and home 12. The embedded devices will form _______
17

environment and integration of IoT concept in network.

upcoming technologies of Cyber Physical a) ATM
System, Ambient living and Fog Computing. b) Ethernet
c) FDDI
-R

9. What is the role of communication protocol d) Ad-hoc

in IoT?
a) Smart cities Answer: d
b) Cyber physical system Explanation: It is envisioned that these
SE

c) Mac layer issue devices will be able to form ad-hoc network,

d) Managing energy and that the connection from these networks
to the Internet of Things infrastructure will
Answer: c not always be possible.
C

Explanation: Role of communication

protocol in IoT : 13. _______ are used to overcome the
–> Multimedia communication challenges of managing the resources of the

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

IoT. 1. Architectural design is a creative process

a) Clustering satisfying only functional-requirements of a
b) Software agents system.
c) Synchronization techniques a) True
d) Cluster, Software agent, and b) False

M
Synchronization techniques
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: In architectural design you

O
Explanation: The use of Cluster, Software design a system organization satisfying the
agent, and Synchronization techniques in functional and non-functional requirements of

C
order to overcome the challenges of a system.
managing the resources of the Internet of

T.
Things objects. 2. A ________ view shows the system
hardware and how software components are
14. Which will reduce the energy distributed across the processors in the
expenditure? system.

O
a) Clustering a) physical
b) Software agents b) logical

SP
c) Synchronization techniques c) process
d) Cluster, Software agent, and d) all of the mentioned
Synchronization techniques
Answer: a
G
Answer: a Explanation: A physical view is
Explanation: Clustering will be beneficial to implemented by system engineers
reduce the energy expenditure and improve implementing the system hardware.
LO

the scalability and robustness of the object

networks. 3. The UML was designed for describing
_________
15. Synchronization techniques will be a) object-oriented systems
.B

necessary to address the various challenges of b) architectural design

harmonising. c) SRS
a) False d) Both object-oriented systems and
b) True Architectural design
17

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Synchronization techniques Explanation: The UML was designed for
will be necessary to address the various describing object-oriented systems and, at the
-R

challenges of harmonising plenty of copies of architectural design stage, you often want to
object data with potentially partially describe systems at a higher level of
disconnected Internet of Things architecture abstraction.
SE

components.
4. Which of the following view shows that
the system is composed of interacting
TOPIC 3.17 CREATION OF processes at run time?
CRITICAL PATHS, COST a) physical
C

SCHEDULES. b) development
c) logical
d) process

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: d 8. Which of the following pattern is the basis

Explanation: This view is useful for making of interaction management in many web-
judgments about non-functional system based systems?
characteristics such as performance and a) architecture
availability. b) repository pattern

M
c) model-view-controller
5. Which of the following is an architectural d) different operating system
conflict?

O
a) Using large-grain components improves Answer: c
performance but reduces maintainability Explanation: Model-View-Controller pattern

C
b) Introducing redundant data improves is the basis of interaction management in
availability but makes security more difficult many web-based systems.

T.
c) Localizing safety-related features usually
means more communication so degraded 9. What describes how a set of interacting
performance components can share data?
d) All of the mentioned a) model-view-controller

O
b) architecture pattern
Answer: d c) repository pattern

SP
Explanation: High availability architecture d) none of the mentioned
can be affected by several design factors that
are required to be maintained to ensure that Answer: c
no single points of failure exist in such Explanation: The majority of systems that
G
design. use large amounts of data are organized
around a shared database or repository.
6. Which of the following is not included in
LO

Architectural design decisions? 10. Which view in architectural design shows

a) type of application the key abstractions in the system as objects
b) distribution of the system or object classes?
c) architectural styles a) physical
.B

d) testing the system b) development

c) logical
Answer: d d) process
Explanation: Architectural design decisions
17

include decisions on the type of application, Answer: c

the distribution of the system, the Explanation: It is possible to relate the
architectural styles to be used, and the ways system requirements to entities in a logical
in which the architecture should be view.
-R

documented and evaluated.

11. Which of the following is a type of
7. Architecture once established can be Architectural Model?
a) Static structural model
SE

applied to other products as well.

a) True b) Dynamic process model
b) False c) Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
C

Explanation: Systems in the same domain Answer: d

often have similar architectures that reflect Explanation: All these models reflects the
domain concepts.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

basic strategy that is used to structure a Answer: a

system. Explanation: LOC or Line of Code is a direct
measure to estimate project size.
.
4. Which software project sizing approach

M
develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics?
a) Function point sizing

O
UNIT IV PROJECT b) Change sizing
c) Standard component sizing
MANAGEMENT AND

C
d) Fuzzy logic sizing
CONTROL

T.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
TOPIC 4.1 FRAMEWORK FOR
MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL 5. The expected value for the estimation

O
variable (size), S, can be computed as a
weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt),
1. Why is decomposition technique required?

SP
most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess)
a) Software project estimation is a form of
estimates given as
problem solving
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a a) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4
software project is too complex b) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
G
c) All of the mentioned c) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
d) None of the mentioned d) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4
LO

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: For these reasons, we Explanation: This assumes that there is a
decompose the problem, re-characterizing it very small probability that the actual size
as a set of smaller problems. result will fall outside the optimistic or
.B

pessimistic values.
2. Cost and effort estimation of a software
6. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s
uses only one forms of decomposition, either
COCOMO Model?
17

decomposition of the problem or

decomposition of the process. a) Two
a) True b) Three
b) False c) Four
d) No form exists
-R

Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: Estimation uses one or both
forms of partitioning. Explanation: The three forms include the
basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO
SE

3. If a Direct approach to software project model.

sizing is taken, size can be measured in
a) LOC 7. Who suggested the four different
b) FP approaches to the sizing problem?
C

c) LOC and FP a) Putnam

d) None of the mentioned b) Myers

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Boehm Answer: b
d) Putnam and Myers Explanation: The planner must determine the
cause of divergence and then reconcile the
Answer: d estimates.
Explanation: None.

M
12. Programming language experience is a
8. In many cases, it is often more cost- part of which factor of COCOMO cost
effective to acquire, rather than develop, drivers?

O
computer software. a) Personnel Factor
a) True b) Product Factor

C
b) False c) Platform Factor
d) Project Factor
Answer: a

T.
Explanation: Managers are faced with a Answer: a
make-buy decision in such situations. Explanation: None.

O
9. A make-buy decision is based on whether 13. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the
a) The software may be purchased off-the- sizing approach is represented as

SP
shelf a) LOC
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” b) FP
software components should be used c) Fuzzy Logic
c) Customer-built software should be d) LOC and FP
developed
G
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: A function point (FP) is a unit
LO

Answer: d of measurement to express the amount of

Explanation: None.. business functionality an information system
provides to a user.
10. Which of the following is not one of the
five information domain characteristics of .
.B

Function Point (FP) decomposition?

a) External inputs
b) External outputs TOPIC 4.2 COLLECTION OF
17

c) External process DATA

d) External inquiries
1. Project management involves the planning,
Answer: c monitoring, and control of the people,
-R

Explanation: External inputs, external process, and events that occur as software
outputs, external inquiries, internal logical evolves from a preliminary concept to an
files, external interface files are the five operational implementation.
domains.
SE

a) True
b) False
11. The project planner must reconcile the
estimates based on decomposition techniques Answer: a
to produce a single estimate of effort. Explanation: None.
C

a) True
b) False 2. Which of the following is not an effective
software project management focus?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) people Answer: c
b) product Explanation: A small number of framework
c) popularity activities are applicable to all software
d) process projects, regardless of their size or
complexity.

M
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project 6. Who defines the business issues that often
management focuses on the four P’s: people, have significant influence on the project?

O
product, process, and project. a) Practitioners
b) Project managers

C
3. PM-CMM stands for c) Senior managers
a) people management capability maturity d) None of the mentioned

T.
model
b) process management capability maturity Answer: c
model Explanation: None.
c) product management capability maturity

O
model 7. Who delivers the technical skills that are
d) project management capability maturity necessary to engineer a product or an

SP
model application?
a) Practitioners
Answer: a b) Project managers
Explanation: The people management c) Senior managers
G
maturity model defines the following key d) None of the mentioned
practice areas for software people: recruiting,
selection, performance management, training, Answer: a
LO

compensation, career development, Explanation: None.

organization and work design, and
team/culture development. 8. Which of the following paradigm attempts
to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the
.B

4. Which of the following is not a project

manager’s activity? closed paradigm but also much of the
a) project control innovation that occurs when using the random
b) project management paradigm?
17

c) project planning a) asynchronous paradigm

d) project design b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
Answer: d d) synchronous paradigm
-R

Explanation: The design part of any project

management is done by the project team. Answer: b
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures
5. A software ________ provides the are well suited to the solution of complex
SE

framework from which a comprehensive plan problems but may not perform as efficiently
for software development can be established. as other teams.
a) people
b) product 9. Which of the following is a people-
C

c) process intensive activity?

d) none of the mentioned a) Problem solving
b) Organization

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Motivation 2. Who interacts with the software once it is

d) Project management released for production use?
a) End-users
Answer: d b) Client
Explanation: For this reason, competent c) Project (technical) managers

M
practitioners often make poor team leaders. d) Senior managers

10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely Answer: a

O
and depends on individual initiative of the Explanation: A product is always built to
team members? satisfy an end-user.

C
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm 3. Which of the following is not an effective

T.
c) closed paradigm project manager trait?
d) synchronous paradigm a) Problem solving
b) Managerial identity
Answer: d c) Influence and team building

O
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned

SP
11. Which of the following is not an approach Answer: d
to software cost estimation? Explanation: All are key traits of an effective
a) Empirical project manager.
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical 4. Which type of software engineering team
G
d) Critical has a defined leader who coordinates specific
tasks and secondary leaders that have
LO

Answer: d responsibility for sub tasks?

Explanation: Critical is no such standard a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
approach of cost estimation. b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled centralized (CC)
.
.B

d) None of the mentioned

TOPIC 4.3 VISUALIZING Answer: a

Explanation: Problem solving remains a
17

PROGRESS group activity, but implementation of

solutions is partitioned among subgroups by
1. Which paradigm relies on the natural the team leader.
compartmentalization of a problem and
-R

organizes team members to work on pieces of 5. Commitments to unrealistic time and

the problem with little active communication resource estimates may result in
among themselves? a) project delay
a) random paradigm b) poor quality work
SE

b) open paradigm c) project failure

c) closed paradigm d) all of the mentioned
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: d
C

Answer: c Explanation: None.

Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which software engineering team has no the functionality that must be delivered and
permanent leader? the process that will be used to deliver it.
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized (DD) 10. Which of the following is not a sign that
c) Controlled Centralized (CC) indicates that an information systems project

M
d) None of the mentioned is in jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand their
Answer: b customers needs

O
Explanation: Here Communication among b) Changes are managed poorly
team members is horizontal. c) Sponsorship is gained

C
d) Users are resistant
7. Which of the following is not a project

T.
factor that should be considered when Answer: c
planning the structure of software engineering Explanation: Other options are contradictory
teams? to the question.
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved

O
b) High frustration caused by personal, 11. SPMP stands for
business, or technological factors that causes a) Software Project Manager’s Plan

SP
friction among team members b) Software Project Management Plan
c) The degree of sociability required for the c) Software Product Management Plan
project d) Software Product Manager’s Plan
d) The rigidity of the delivery date
Answer: b
G
Answer: c Explanation: After planning is complete,
Explanation: Development is irrelevant of documenting of the plans is done in a
LO

social quotient. Software Project Management Plan(SPMP)

document.
8. Which of the following is a collection of
project coordination technique? .
.B

a) Formal approaches
b) Formal, interpersonal procedures TOPIC 4.4 COST MONITORING
c) Informal, interpersonal procedures
d) All of the mentioned
17

1. Which of the following categories is part of

Answer: d the output of software process?
Explanation: None. a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer
-R

9. Which activity sits at the core of software programs

requirements analysis? c) data
a) Problem decomposition d) all of the mentioned
b) Partitioning
SE

c) Problem elaboration Answer: d

d) All of the mentioned Explanation: None

Answer: d 2. Which is a software configuration

C

Explanation: During the scoping activity management concept that helps us to control
decomposition is applied in two major areas: change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) Baselines c) Baseline
b) Source code d) None of the mentioned
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.

M
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the 6. Which of the following is the process of
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a assembling program components, data, and

O
software configuration item becomes a libraries, and then compiling and linking
baseline, change may be made quickly and these to create an executable system?

C
informally. a) System building
b) Release management

T.
3. Software Configuration Management can c) Change management
be administered in several ways. These d) Version management
include
a) A single software configuration Answer: a

O
management team for the whole organization Explanation: None.
b) A separate configuration management

SP
team for each project 7. Which of the following option is not
c) Software Configuration Management tracked by configuration management tools?
distributed among the project members a) Tracking of change proposals
d) All of the mentioned b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to
G
Answer: a customers
Explanation: None d) None of the mentioned
LO

4. What combines procedures and tools to Answer: d

manage different versions of configuration Explanation: All the options are tracked.
objects that are created during the software
8. Which of the following is not a Software
.B

process?
a) Change control Configuration Management Activity?
b) Version control a) Configuration item identification
c) SCIs b) Risk management
17

d) None of the mentioned c) Release management

d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management Answer: b
-R

allows a user to specify alternative Explanation: Risk management is an entirely

configurations of the software system through different domain.
the selection of appropriate versions.
9. The definition and use of configuration
SE

5. What complements the formal technical management standards is essential for quality
review by assessing a configuration object for certification in
characteristics that are generally not a) ISO 9000
considered during review? b) CMM
C

a) Software configuration audit c) CMMI

b) Software configuration management d) All of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: d which components in the system have been

Explanation: It is defined in all the changed.
mentioned options.
3. Which of the following is not a Version
10. What involves preparing software for management feature?

M
external release and keeping track of the a) Version and release identification
system versions that have been released for b) Build script generation
customer use? c) Project support

O
a) System building d) Change history recording
b) Release management

C
c) Change management Answer: b
d) Version management Explanation: All other options are a part of

T.
version management.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 4. Which method recommends that very
frequent system builds should be carried out

O
. with automated testing to discover software
problems?

SP
a) Agile method
TOPIC 4.5 EARNED VALUE b) Parallel compilation method
ANALYSIS c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned
G
1. Which of the following process ensures
that versions of systems and components are Answer: a
recorded and maintained? Explanation: In keeping with the agile
LO

a) Codeline methods notion of making many small

b) Configuration control changes, continuous integration involves
c) Version rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small
d) Workspace source code changes have been made.
.B

Answer: b 5. Which of the following is not a build

Explanation: In configuration control system feature?
changes are managed and all versions of a) Minimal recompilation
17

components are identified and stored for the b) Documentation generation

lifetime. c) Storage management
d) Reporting
2. Which of the following process is
-R

concerned with analyzing the costs and Answer: c

benefits of proposed changes? Explanation: To reduce the storage space
a) Change management required by multiple versions of components
that differ only slightly, version management
SE

b) Version management
c) System building systems usually provide storage management
d) Release management facilities.

Answer: a 6. Which of the following is a collection of

C

Explanation: It involves approving those component versions that make up a system?

changes that are worthwhile, and tracking a) Version
b) Codeline

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Baseline new codeline from a version in an existing

d) None of the mentioned codeline”?
a) Branching
Answer: c b) Merging
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which c) Codeline

M
means that the versions of the components d) Mainline
making up the system cannot be changed.
Answer: a

O
7. Which of the following is a configuration Explanation: The code may then be
item? developed independently.

C
a) Design & Test specification
b) Source code .

T.
c) Log information
d) All of the mentioned
TOPIC 4.6 PRIORITIZING
Answer: d MONITORING

O
Explanation: A configuration item is an
approved and accepted deliverable, changes 1. “Robustness” answers which of the

SP
have to be made through formal procedure. following description?
a) CASE tools be used to support the process
8. Which of the following is a part of system activities
release? b) Process errors are avoided or trapped
a) electronic and paper documentation
G
before they result in product errors
describing the system c) Defined process is acceptable and usable
b) packaging and associated publicity that by the engineers responsible for producing
LO

have been designed for that release the software

c) an installation program that is used to help d) Process continues in spite of unexpected
install the system on target hardware problems
d) all of the mentioned
.B

Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: None.
Explanation: Release creation is the process
of creating the collection of files and 2. Process improvement is the set of
17

documentation that includes all of the activities, methods, and transformations that
components of the system release. developers use to develop and maintain
information systems.
9. A sequence of baselines representing a) True
-R

different versions of a system is known as b) False

a) System building
b) Mainline Answer: b
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
SE

Explanation: The definition is of a system

d) None of the mentioned development process.
Answer: b 3. “Understandability” answers which of the
Explanation: None. following description?
C

a) The extent to which the process is

10. Which of the following term is best explicitly defined
defined by the statement “The creation of a b) Process errors are avoided or trapped

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

before they result in product errors b) Process analysis

c) Defined process is acceptable and usable c) Process modelling
by the engineers responsible for producing d) None of the mentioned
the software product
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected Answer: c

M
problems Explanation: Process models may be
presented from different perspectives.
Answer: a

O
Explanation: None. 8. It is always best to start process analysis
with a new test model.

C
4. How many stages are there in process a) True
improvement? b) False

T.
a) three
b) four Answer: b
c) five Explanation: It is always best to start process
d) six analysis with an existing model. People then

O
may extend and change this.
Answer: a

SP
Explanation: Process measurement, analysis 9. What is a tangible output of an activity that
and change are the three stages. is predicted in a project plan?
a) Deliverable
5. In which stage of process improvement b) Activity
bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified? c) Condition
G
a) Process measurement d) Process
b) Process analysis
LO

c) Process change Answer: a

d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.

Answer: b 10. What is often undefined and is left to the

Explanation: In Process analysis the current ingenuity of the project managers and
.B

process is assessed and bottlenecks and engineers?

weaknesses are identified. a) Role
b) Exception
17

6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are c) Activity

categorized under which process? d) Process
a) Informal
b) Managed Answer: b
-R

c) Methodical Explanation: Exceptions are often undefined

d) Supported and it is left to the ingenuity of the project
managers and engineers to handle the
Answer: a exception.
SE

Explanation: Here the development team

chose their own way of working. 11. Which of the following is not a part of
process change?
7. The documentation of a process which a) Introducing new practices, methods or
C

records the tasks, the roles and the entities processes

used is called b) Introducing new team members to existing
a) Process metric project

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Introducing or removing deliverable 2. Project managers have to assess the risks

d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Adding more developers aid to

M
process completion rather than changing it. Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is anticipating risks that might affect the project

O
a continuous model. schedule or the quality of the software being
a) True developed, and then taking action to avoid

C
b) False these risks.

Answer: b

T.
3. Which of the following is not considered as
Explanation: The CMM is discrete rather a risk in project management?
than continuous. a) Specification delays
b) Product competition

O
13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x- c) Testing
point scale. What is the value of x? d) Staff turnover

SP
a) 0
b) 2 Answer: c
c) 4 Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
d) 6 it can’t be categorized as risk.
G
Answer: d 4. The process each manager follows during
Explanation: Not performed, performed, the life of a project is known as
LO

managed, defined, quantitatively managed, a) Project Management

and optimizing are the six points. b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
. d) All of the mentioned
.B

TOPIC 4.7 PROJECT Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
TRACKING is necessary to repeatedly implement and
17

manage projects successfully.

1. Which of the following is not project
management goal? 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Keeping overall costs within budget a) very low
-R

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high
development team
SE

d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d

Explanation: The probability of the risk
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
Explanation: Projects need to be managed (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
C

because professional software engineering is 75%), or very high (>75%).

always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis

parameters that you should use when c) De-processification
computing the costs of a software d) Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b

M
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

O
engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
10. An independent relationship must exist

C
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.

T.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.
Answer: b

O
7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

SP
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
c) customers .
d) project manager
G
TOPIC 4.8 CHANGE CONTROL
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
LO

the desired software qualities and describe 1. SCM stands for

how these are to be assessed. a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity c) Software Concept Management
d) None of the mentioned
.B

for the configuration management of a

software system?
a) Internship management Answer: b
b) Change management Explanation: In software engineering,
17

c) Version management software configuration management (SCM) is

d) System management the task of tracking and controlling changes
in the software, part of the larger cross-
Answer: a discipline field of configuration management.
-R

Explanation: Configuration management

policies and processes define how to record 2. When code is made available to others, it
and process proposed system changes, how to goes in a/an
a) hard drive
SE

decide what system components to change,

how to manage different versions of the b) access-controlled library
system and its components, and how to c) servers
distribute changes to customers. d) access control
C

9. Identify the sub-process of process Answer: b

improvement Explanation: None.
a) Process introduction

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

3. Which of the following is not a main phase 8. What is one or more software configuration
in Configuration Management (CM) Process? items that have been formally reviewed and
a) CM Planning agreed upon and serve as a basis for further
b) Executing the CM process development?
c) CM audits a) Baseline

M
d) None of the mentioned b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
Answer: d

O
d) Change Control
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
Answer: a

C
4. CM is about managing the different items Explanation: In configuration management, a
in the product, and changes in them. “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the

T.
a) True attributes of a product, at a point in time,
b) False which serves as a basis for defining change.

Answer: a 9. How are baselines verified?

O
Explanation: None. a) By reviews
b) By inspections

SP
5. What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code
same source files at the same time? d) All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process
G
Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to
d) Version Control and Access control description.
LO

Answer: a 10. Which of the following is a example of

Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
.B

c) Software design descriptions

6. Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned
management process?
a) Log the changes Answer: d
17

b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned 11. SCM controls only the products of the
development process.
-R

Answer: d a) True
Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

7. Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

SE

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.

a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
C

Answer: a b) Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a 3. Software Configuration Management can

Explanation: None. be administered in several ways. These
include
13. What information is required to process a a) A single software configuration
change to a baseline? management team for the whole organization

M
a) Reasons for making the changes b) A separate configuration management
b) A description of the proposed changes team for each project
c) List of other items affected by the changes

O
c) Software Configuration Management
d) All of the mentioned distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned

C
Answer: d
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to Answer: a

T.
description of the product, changes require Explanation: None
multiple reasons..
4. What combines procedures and tools to
. manage different versions of configuration

O
objects that are created during the software
TOPIC 4.9 SOFTWARE process?

SP
a) Change control
CONFIGURATION b) Version control
MANAGEMENT c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned
G
1. Which of the following categories is part of
the output of software process? Answer: b
a) computer programs Explanation: Configuration management
LO

b) documents that describe the computer allows a user to specify alternative

programs configurations of the software system through
c) data the selection of appropriate versions.
d) all of the mentioned
.B

5. What complements the formal technical

Answer: d review by assessing a configuration object for
Explanation: None characteristics that are generally not
considered during review?
17

2. Which is a software configuration a) Software configuration audit

management concept that helps us to control b) Software configuration management
change without seriously impeding justifiable c) Baseline
change? d) None of the mentioned
-R

a) Baselines
b) Source code Answer: a
c) Data model Explanation: None.
SE

d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is the process of
Answer: a assembling program components, data, and
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the libraries, and then compiling and linking
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a these to create an executable system?
C

software configuration item becomes a a) System building

baseline, change may be made quickly and b) Release management
informally.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Change management Answer: b

d) Version management Explanation: None.

Answer: a .
Explanation: None.

M
7. Which of the following option is not TOPIC 4.10 MANAGING
tracked by configuration management tools? CONTRACTS - CONTRACT

O
a) Tracking of change proposals MANAGEMENT.
b) Storing versions of system components

C
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to 1. A voluntary arrangement between two or
customers more parties that is enforceable by law as a

T.
d) None of the mentioned binding legal agreement is known as
__________
Answer: d
a) job
Explanation: All the options are tracked.

O
b) loan
8. Which of the following is not a Software c) contract
d) mutual fund

SP
Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
Answer: c
b) Risk management
Explanation: A contract arises when the
c) Release management
parties agree that there is an agreement.
d) Branch management
G
Formation of a contract generally requires an
Answer: b offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual
LO

Explanation: Risk management is an entirely intent to be bound. Each party to a contract

different domain. must have capacity to enter the agreement.
Minors, intoxicated persons, and those under
9. The definition and use of configuration a mental affliction may have insufficient
management standards is essential for quality capacity to enter a contract. Some types of
.B

certification in contracts may require formalities, such as a

a) ISO 9000 memorialization in writing.
b) CMM
17

c) CMMI 2. What is the type of mistake which occurs

d) All of the mentioned when only one party to a contract is mistaken
as to the terms or subject-matter?
Answer: d a) Mutual mistake
-R

Explanation: It is defined in all the b) Unilateral mistake

mentioned options. c) Bilateral mistake
d) Individual mistake
10. What involves preparing software for
SE

external release and keeping track of the Answer: b

system versions that have been released for Explanation: The courts will uphold such a
customer use? contract unless it was determined that the
a) System building non-mistaken party was aware of the mistake
C

b) Release management and tried to take advantage of the mistake. It

c) Change management is also possible for a contract to be void if
d) Version management there was a mistake in the identity of the
contracting party. An example is in Lewis v.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Avery where Lord Denning MR held that the 5. Which tender allows anyone to submit a
contract can only be voided if the plaintiff can tender to supply the goods or services that are
show that, at the time of agreement, the required?
plaintiff believed the other party’s identity a) Framework tendering
was of vital importance. A mere mistaken b) Selective tendering

M
belief as to the credibility of the other party is c) Open tendering
not sufficient. d) Close tendering

O
3. _______________ contract is one that has Answer: c
automatic renewals until one party requests Explanation: On larger projects, there may

C
termination. then be a pre-qualification process that
a) Uniform produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who

T.
b) Evergreen will be invited to prepare tenders. This sort of
c) Moderate pre-qualification process is not the same as
d) On-demand selective tendering.
Open tendering has been criticised for

O
Answer: b attracting tenders / expressions of interest
Explanation: If these are left unattended, from large numbers of suppliers, some of

SP
they can have significant cost impacts with whom may be entirely unsuitable for the
little value. If these agreements won’t work contract and as a result it can waste a great
for the company, the clauses stating the deal of time, effort and money. However,
contract automatically renews should be open tendering offers the greatest competition
G
removed. If the clause makes sense or cannot and has the advantage of allowing new or
be taken out, alerts can still be set in a emerging suppliers to try to secure work.
contract management platform as a reminder.
LO

6. ________________ involves the

4. How are final contracts signed in modern preparation of tenders based on a typical or
business? notional bill of quantities or schedule of
a) e-Signatures works.
.B

b) Document scanning a) Framework tendering

c) Thump impression b) Selective tendering
d) Shaking hands c) Negotiated tendering
17

d) Serial tendering
Answer: a
Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e- Answer: d
Signatures, have become crucial for Explanation: The rates submitted can then be
businesses as they seek to increase the speed used to value works over a series of similar
-R

of time-to-signature, e-Signatures are legally projects, often for a fixed period of time
binding and have the same legal status as a following which the tendering procedure may
written signature, as long as it fulfills the be repeated. Serial tendering can reduce
SE

requirements of the regulation it was created tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to
under. submit low rates to secure an ongoing
A contract management platform should program of work.
include the ability to integrate with an e-
Signature software, or include e-Signatures as 7. _______________ tendering is used when
C

part of the platform. all the information necessary to calculate a

realistic price is available when tendering
commences.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) Single-stage • The form of contract.

b) Double-stage • A tender pricing document.
c) Framework • A drawing schedule.
d) Serial • Design drawings.
• Specifications.

M
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-stage tendering is the 9. Mutual mistake occurs when both parties
more traditional route, used when all the of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.

O
information necessary to calculate a realistic a) False
price is available when tendering commences: b) True

C
• An invitation to tender is issued to
prospective suppliers (perhaps following Answer: b

T.
completion of a pre-qualification Explanation: Each believes they are
questionnaire and/or a pre-tender interview). contracting to something different. Courts
The invitation to tender will include usually try to uphold such mistakes if a
information describing the goods or services reasonable interpretation of the terms can be

O
required in sufficient detail to enable found. However, a contract based on a mutual
prospective suppliers to prepare an accurate mistake in judgment does not cause the

SP
tender. contract to be voidable by the party that is
• Tenders are prepared and returned by adversely affected.
prospective suppliers (this may involve
questions and answers and a mid-tender 10. In Schedule contract the contractor
G
interview to clarify the client’s requirements). undertakes the execution or construction of
• Submitted tenders are then assessed and specific work with all its contingencies, to
compared (this may involve further complete it in all respect within a specified
LO

interviews). time for a fixed amount.

• The preferred tenderer is selected and a) False
negotiations opened. b) True
• Subject to the outcome of those negotiations
.B

the preferred tenderer may then be appointed. Answer: a

Explanation: In lump sum contract the
8. An invitation to tender might not include? contractor undertakes the execution or
construction of specific work with all its
17

a) Holiday packages
b) Preliminarie contingencies, to complete it in all respect
c) A letter of invitation to tender within a specified time for a fixed amount. In
d) Design drawing this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a
specified lump sum after the completion of
-R

Answer: a work without a cost breakdown. After work

Explanation: An invitation to tender might no detailed measurements are required.
be issued for a range of contracts, including;
SE

equipment supply, the main construction

contract (perhaps including design by the
contractor), demolition, enabling works and
so on. UNIT V STAFFING IN
An invitation to tender might include: SOFTWARE PROJECTS
C

• A letter of invitation to tender.

• The form of tender.
• Preliminaries. TOPIC 5.1 MANAGING PEOPLE

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

1. Project management involves the planning, Answer: d

monitoring, and control of the people, Explanation: The design part of any project
process, and events that occur as software management is done by the project team.
evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation. 5. A software ________ provides the

M
a) True framework from which a comprehensive plan
b) False for software development can be established.
a) people

O
Answer: a b) product
Explanation: None. c) process

C
d) none of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is not an effective

T.
software project management focus? Answer: c
a) people Explanation: A small number of framework
b) product activities are applicable to all software
c) popularity projects, regardless of their size or

O
d) process complexity.

SP
Answer: c 6. Who defines the business issues that often
Explanation: Effective software project have significant influence on the project?
management focuses on the four P’s: people, a) Practitioners
product, process, and project. b) Project managers
G
c) Senior managers
3. PM-CMM stands for d) None of the mentioned
a) people management capability maturity
LO

model Answer: c
b) process management capability maturity Explanation: None.
model
c) product management capability maturity 7. Who delivers the technical skills that are
necessary to engineer a product or an
.B

model
d) project management capability maturity application?
model a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
17

Answer: a c) Senior managers

Explanation: The people management d) None of the mentioned
maturity model defines the following key
practice areas for software people: recruiting, Answer: a
-R

selection, performance management, training, Explanation: None.

compensation, career development,
organization and work design, and 8. Which of the following paradigm attempts
to structure a team in a manner that achieves
SE

team/culture development.
some of the controls associated with the
4. Which of the following is not a project closed paradigm but also much of the
manager’s activity? innovation that occurs when using the random
a) project control paradigm?
C

b) project management a) asynchronous paradigm

c) project planning b) open paradigm
d) project design

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) closed paradigm None

d) synchronous paradigm

Answer: b TOPIC 5.3 BEST METHODS OF

Explanation: Open paradigm team structures STAFF SELECTION

M
are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently
as other teams. TOPIC 5.4 MOTIVATION

O
9. Which of the following is a people- 1. Interviews are conversations with _______

C
intensive activity? a) fun
a) Problem solving b) purpose

T.
b) Organization c) friendliness
c) Motivation d) informality
d) Project management
Answer: b

O
Answer: d Explanation: The correct statement is:
Explanation: For this reason, competent Interviews are conversations with purpose.

SP
practitioners often make poor team leaders. For the employer the purpose is to determine
the most suitable person for the job.
10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely
and depends on individual initiative of the 2. A job interview is a formal meeting
team members?
G
between a job seeker and an employer.
a) random paradigm a) True
b) open paradigm b) False
LO

c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Interview
Answer: d is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job
Explanation: None.
.B

interview is a formal meeting between a job

seeker and an employer.
11. Which of the following is not an approach
to software cost estimation? 3. All job interviews have the same objective.
17

a) Empirical a) True
b) Heuristic b) False
c) Analytical
d) Critical Answer: a
-R

Explanation: The statement is true. All job

Answer: d interviews have the same objective, but
Explanation: Critical is no such standard employers reach that objective in a variety of
approach of cost estimation. ways.
SE

. 4. Which of these is not a type of interview?

a) Screening interview
TOPIC 5.2 ORGANIZATIONAL b) Stress interview
C

c) Music interview
BEHAVIOR d) Lunch interview

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c 8. Which of these interviews is adapted for

Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: computer programmers?
They are Screening interview, stress a) The stress interview
interview, behavioural interview, the audition, b) The group interview
group interview, telephone, lunch interview, c) The screening interview

M
video interview and sequential interview. d) The audition

5. Which kind of interview includes a process Answer: d

O
in which the employability of the job Explanation: For some positions such as
applicant is evaluated? computer programmers or trainers, companies

C
a) Stress interview want to see you in action before they make
b) Screening interview their decision. Here, the audition type is

T.
c) Group interview adapted.
d) Behavioural interview
9. In which of these, more than one candidate
Answer: b is interviewed?

O
Explanation: In the screening interview, a) The behavioural interview
companies use screening tools to ensure that b) The stress interview

SP
candidates meet minimum qualification c) The group interview
requirements. d) The audition

6. How many styles are used in a screening Answer: c

G
interview? Explanation: In group interview, more than
a) Two one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing
b) Five simultaneously with other candidates can be
LO

c) Three disconcerting, but it provides the company

d) Four with a sense of your leadership potential and
style.
Answer: a
.B

Explanation: There are two styles used in a 10. Which of these interviews is taken for a
screening interview. They are: the directive candidate far away?
style and the meandering style. a) Lunch interview
b) Telephone
17

7. In which of these interviews, insults are c) Stress interview

common? d) Group interview
a) Screening interview
b) Stress interview Answer: b
-R

c) Behavioural interview Explanation: Many organizations will

d) Group interview conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a
field of candidates. Telephone interviews may
Answer: b
SE

also be used as a preliminary interview for

Explanation: In stress interview, insults and candidates who live far away.
miscommunication is common. All this is
designed to see whether you have the mettle
to withstand the company culture or other TOPIC 5.5 THE OLDHAM-
C

potential stress. HACKMAN JOB

CHARACTERISTIC MODEL

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

https://study.com/academy/practice/quiz- 4. Factor of safety is used to find out the

worksheet-hackman-oldham-s-job- reliability of the design.
characteristics-model.html a) True
b) False

M
TOPIC 5.6 STRESS , HEALTH Answer: a
AND SAFETY Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about
how much load the material can take before it

O
1. Which of the following is the numerator of fails. Basically, it states the load carrying
factor safety formula? capacity of a material beyond the actual load.

C
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress 5. What can understand by the factor of safety

T.
c) Tensile stress equal to one?
d) Ultimate stress a) It means that the structure will fail under
load
Answer: d b) It means that the structure will only

O
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as support the actual load
ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. It c) it means that the structure will support

SP
is also called as factor of ignorance. The more than the actual load
factor of safety is dependent on the type of d) There is no relation between factor safety
load. and load application
G
2. Which of the following can be the factor of Answer: b
safety for a dead load? Explanation: When the factor of safety is one
a) 6 it means that the ultimate stress is equal to the
LO

b) 2 working stress and therefore the body can

c) 4 only support load up to actual load and no
d) 7 more before failing.
.B

Answer: c 6. For which of the following design factor of

Explanation: For dead load, the range in safety the design will work properly?
which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5. a) 0.1
Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 b) 1
17

are all values which are beyond that range. c) 2

d) 0.9
3. Which of the following can be the factor of
safety for shock loading? Answer: c
-R

a) 11 Explanation: If the design factor of safety is

b) 13 not more than 1 then the design may not work
c) 4 and will fail under certain conditions.
SE

d) 7
7. What is a safe factor of failure for a
Answer: b component which on failure can result in
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in financial loss or serious injury?
which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15. a) 1
C

Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, b) 2

7 are all values which are beyond that range. c) 3
d) 4

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: d c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware

Explanation: For components which on d) All of the mentioned
failing can be hazardous and can lead to
serious injuries, death and financial loss, the Answer: d
factor of safety should be taken equal to or Explanation: None.

M
more than 4.
3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with
8. Design factor for most aircraft structures is reference to one of the eight principles as per

O
2. the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) True a) The product should be easy to use

C
b) False b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
products and related modifications meet the

T.
Answer: b highest professional standards possible
Explanation: The design factor of safety for c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
most aircraft structures or components is products and related modifications satisfy the
taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors affect client

O
this value, but it is most of the time taken as d) It means that the product designed /created
1.5. should be easily available

SP
Answer: b
TOPIC 5.7 ETHICAL AND Explanation: None.
PROFESSIONAL CONCERNS OF
4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the
G
WORKING IN TEAMS
situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
LO

1. Choose the correct option in terms of

system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional responsibility
system
a) Confidentiality
b) Refusing to undertake a project
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual
.B

senior management
property rights
d) All of the mentioned
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: a
17

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
respect the confidentiality of their employers 5. Identify the correct statement: “Software
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall
-R

formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best interests
signed. of his expertise and favour.”
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
SE

patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”

d) all of the mentioned
2. “Software engineers should not use their
technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
C

computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
a) Unauthorized access to computer material a manner that is in the best interests of their
b) Unauthorized modification of computer client and employer consistent with the public
material

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

interest and shall ensure that their products 9. The reason for software bugs and failures
and related modifications meet the highest is due to
professional standards possible.Thus options a) Software companies
a & c are ruled out. b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers

M
6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software d) All of the mentioned
engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside Answer: c

O
your competence.” Explanation: Software companies are
b) not use your technical skills to misuse responsible for making policies and providing

C
other people’s computers.” working atmosphere for the software
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” development, so in turn these companies

T.
d) maintain integrity and independence in become a part of software development
their professional judgment.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
thing. Thus option c answers the question.
Answer: c

O
Explanation:None. 10. Company has latest computers and state-
of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t

SP
7. Efficiency in a software product does not worry about the quality of the product.
include ________ a) True
a) responsiveness b) False
b) licensing
G
c) memory utilization Answer: b
d) processing time Explanation: The infrastructure is only one
of the several factors that determine the
LO

Answer: b quality of the product.

Explanation: Licensing of a software product
comes under corporate part of the software .
company.
.B

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project TOPIC 5.8 DECISION MAKING
get cancelled before they are completed, 53%
overrun their cost estimates by an average of 1. Software Maintenance includes
17

189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 a) Error corrections
restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics b) Enhancements of capabilities
? c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
a) Lack of adequate training in software d) All of the mentioned
-R

engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding Answer: d
c) Management issues in the company Explanation: None.
SE

d) All of the mentioned

2. Maintenance is classified into how many
Answer: a categories ?
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of a) two
Software Engineering as a subject,hence b) three
C

option a covers them both. c) four

d) five

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c 7. Selective retest techniques may be more

Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective economical than the “retest-
and preventive are the four types of software all”technique.How many selective retest
maintenance. techniques are there?
a) two

M
3. The modification of the software to match b) three
changes in the ever changing environment, c) four
falls under which category of software

O
d) five
maintenance?
a) Corrective Answer: b

C
b) Adaptive Explanation: The three categories include:
c) Perfective Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.

T.
d) Preventive
8. Which selective retest technique selects
Answer: b every test case that causes a modified
Explanation: None. program to produce a different output than its

O
original version?
4. How many phases are there in Taute a) Coverage

SP
Maintenance Model? b) Minimization
a) six c) Safe
b) seven d) Maximization
c) eight
G
d) nine Answer: c
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus on
Answer: c coverage criteria, instead they select every
LO

Explanation: None. test case that cause a modified program to

produce different output than its original
5. What type of software testing is generally version.
used in Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
.B

9. ______________ measures the ability of a

b) System Testing regression test selection technique to handle
c) Integration Testing realistic applications.
d) Unit Testing a) Efficiency
17

b) Precision
Answer: a c) Generality
Explanation: All other options are known as d) Inclusiveness
levels of software testing which further have
-R

types of software testing. Answer: c

Explanation: Generality measures the ability
6. Regression testing is a very expensive of a technique to handle realistic and diverse
activity.
SE

language constructs, arbitrarily complex

a) True modifications, and realistic testing
b) False applications.
Answer: a 10. Which regression test selection technique
C

Explanation: As regression testing is exposes faults caused by modifications?

performed many times over the life of the a) Efficiency
software product, it becomes a costly affair. b) Precision

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Generality c) An implementation exhibits an architecture

d) Inclusiveness if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the
Answer: d implementation must be divided into
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the prescribed components

M
extent to which a technique chooses test cases d) None of the mentioned
that will cause the modified program to
produce different output than the original Answer: c

O
program, and thereby expose faults caused by Explanation: An implementation exhibits an
modifications. architecture if it conforms to the structural

C
decisions described by the architecture, the
. implementation must be divided into

T.
prescribed components.
TOPIC 5.9 ORGANIZATIONAL 4. Why does architecture dictates
STRUCTURES organizational structure?

O
a) Architecture describes the structure of the
1. Why is Software architecture so important? system being developed which becomes

SP
a) Communication among stakeholders engraved in the development project structure
b) Early Design decisions b) An implementation exhibits an architecture
c) Transferable abstraction of a system if it conforms to the structural decisions
d) All of the mentioned described by the architecture
G
c) Architecture may not describe structure as
Answer: d whole
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to d) None of the mentioned
LO

be important are all the mentioned above.

Answer: a
2. Why is software architecture called vehicle Explanation: Architecture describes the
for stakeholder communication? structure of the system being developed
.B

a) Each stakeholder of a software system is which becomes engraved in the development

concerned with different characteristics of the project structure.
system affected by architecture
b) Architecture provides a common language 5. Which of the following is right dependence
17

in which different concerns can be expressed relationship?

c) All of the mentioned a) Performance depends on how strongly
d) None of the mentioned components are coupled with other
components in system
-R

Answer: d b) Re-usability depends on the volume and

Explanation: All of the mentioned are complexity of the inter-component
correct. communication and coordination
SE

c) Modifiability depends on system’s

3. Which lines depict that architecture defines modularization
constraints on an implementation? d) All of the mentioned
a) An implementation exhibits an architecture
if it conforms to the structural decisions Answer: c
C

described by the architecture Explanation: Performance depends on the

b) The implementation need not be divided volume and complexity of the inter-
into prescribed components component communication and coordination,

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

re-usability depends on how strongly 9. Which change is accomplished by

components are coupled with other modifying a single component?
components in system and modifiability a) A local change
depends on system’s modularization. b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change

M
6. Which of the following is correct for d) All of the mentioned
decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from Answer: a

O
high level design to coding, implementation Explanation: A local change is accomplished
affect system quality by modifying a single component.

C
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from
high level design to coding, implementation 10. An architecture help in evolutionary

T.
may or may not affect system quality prototyping in which of the following ways?
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from a) Potential performance problem can be
high level design to coding,implementation identified early in the product’s life cycle
does not affect system quality b) The system is executable early in the

O
d) None of the mentioned product’s life cycle
c) All of the mentioned

SP
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like
cycle from high level design to coding, Answer: c
implementation affect system quality. Explanation: All the mentioned are the valid
G
ways.
7. Is it possible to make quality predictions
about a system based solely on evaluation of 11. Which of the following are software
LO

its architecture? structures?

a) Yes a) Module Structure
b) No b) Conceptual or logical structure
c) May be c) Process structure
.B

d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Yes it is possible to make Explanation: All of the mentioned are the
17

quality predictions about a system based valid structures.

solely on evaluation of its architecture.
12. Which structure describes units as
8. Every possible architecture partition abstraction of system’s functional
-R

possible changes into which of the following requirements?

categories? a) Conceptual structure
a) Local b) Module structure
c) Physical structure
SE

b) Non Local
c) Architectural d) Calls structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes
C

Explanation: All of the mentioned are true. units as abstraction of system’s functional
requirements.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

13. Which structure’s view is orthogonal to as-you-go usage model allows for costs to be
the module and conceptual view? applied to individual accounts directly.
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure 2. Point out the correct statement.
c) Uses Structure a) Except for tightly managed SaaS cloud

M
d) Data flow providers, the burden of resource
management is still in the hands of the user
Answer: b b) Cloud computing vendors run very reliable

O
Explanation: Process Structure-view is networks
orthogonal to the module and conceptual c) The low barrier to entry cannot be

C
view. accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning
d) All of the mentioned

T.
14. Which structure’s view shows the
mapping of software onto hardware? Answer: b
a) Module Structure Explanation: Often, cloud data is load-
b) Process Structure balanced between virtual systems and

O
c) Physical Structure replicated between sites.
d) Class Structure

SP
3. ________ captive requires that the cloud
Answer: c accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows a) Licensed
the mapping of software onto hardware. b) Policy-based
G
c) Variable
15. Which structure describes units are d) All of the mentioned
programs or module?
LO

a) Calls Structure Answer: b

b) Uses Structure Explanation: Compliance with laws and
c) Data Flow policies varies by geographical area.
d) Control Flow
4. Security methods such as private
.B

Answer: d encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes

Explanation: Control Flow-structure under __________ subject area.
describes units are programs or module. a) Accounting Management
17

b) Compliance
c) Data Privacy
TOPIC 5.10 DISPERSED AND d) All of the mentioned
VIRTUAL TEAMS
-R

Answer: c
1. Which of the following subject area deals Explanation: To ensure data privacy in the
with pay-as-you-go usage model? cloud, additional security methods such as
private encryption, VLANs, firewalls, and
SE

a) Accounting Management
b) Compliance local storage of sensitive data are necessary.
c) Data Privacy
d) All of the mentioned 5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Large cloud providers with geographically
C

Answer: a dispersed sites worldwide, therefore, achieve

Explanation: For cloud computing, the pay- reliability rates that are hard for private
systems to achieve

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Private data centers tend to be located in 9. Cloud ________ are standardized in order
places where the company or unit was to appeal to the majority of its audience.
founded or acquired a) SVAs
c) A network backbone is a very low-capacity b) SLAs
network connection c) SALs

M
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: b

O
Explanation: On the Internet, an Internet Explanation: Custom SLAs that allow for
backbone consists of the high-capacity routes multiple data sources are difficult to obtain or

C
and routers that are typically operated by an enforce.
individual service provider such as a

T.
government or commercial entity. 10. ___________ is a function of the
particular enterprise and application in an on-
6. Which of the following captive area deals premises deployment.
with monitoring? a) Vendor lock

O
a) Licensed b) Vendor lock-in
b) Variable but under control c) Vendor lock-ins

SP
c) Low d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Vendor lock-in for a cloud
G
Explanation: For private systems, any computing solution in a PaaS model is very
monitoring system the organization wishes to high.
deploy can be brought to bear.
LO

7. Network bottlenecks occur when ______ TOPIC 5.11 COMMUNICATIONS

data sets must be transferred. GENRES
a) large
.B

b) small
c) big TOPIC 5.12 COMMUNICATION
d) all of the mentioned PLANS
17

Answer: a 1. Which of these is the external sounds

Explanation: This is the case for staging, present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise
8. The reputation for cloud computing
b) Semantic problems
-R

services for the quality of those services is

c) Cultural barriers
shared by _________
d) Over communication
a) replicas
b) shards
SE

Answer: a
c) tenants Explanation: Noise is the external sounds
d) all of the mentioned present in the channels of communication,
which results in the reduction of the audibility
Answer: c
or omission of some words from the message.
C

Explanation: Clouds often have higher

reliability than private systems. 2. Which of these should not be avoided for
effective communication?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) Noise the jungle of information whereas in under

b) Planning communication the sender is blamed for
c) Semantic problems sharing less information.
d) Wrong assumptions
6. Communication should serve as a conflict-

M
Answer: b reduction exercise.
Explanation: Lack of planning must be a) True
avoided for effects communication. There are b) False

O
innumerable examples of people who would
give an ill planned, long winding lecture Answer: a

C
while a short presentation with tables or Explanation: The statement is true.
graphs would be sufficient. Communication should serve as a conflict-

T.
reduction exercise. When people start
3. __________ are problems arising from competing for the fulfillment of their narrow
expression. interests communication suffers.
a) Cultural barriers

O
b) Semantic problems 7. _______ means to impart understanding of
c) Wrong assumptions the message.

SP
d) Selecting perception a) Encoding
b) Receiver
Answer: b c) Decoding
Explanation: The correct statement is: d) Feedback
G
Semantic problems are problems arising from
expression or transmission of meaning in Answer: c
communication. Explanation: The correct statement is:
LO

Decoding means to impart understanding of

4. Both encoding and decoding of message the message. Receiver has to identify the
are influenced by our emotions. person, words symbols, etc..
a) True
8. When is the communication process
.B

b) False
complete?
Answer: a a) When the sender transmits the message
Explanation: The statement is true. Both b) When the message enters the channel
17

encoding and decoding of message are c) When the message leaves the channel
influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a d) When the receiver understands the
very important role in our lives. message.
-R

5. In which of these problems, is the actual Answer: d

message lost in the abundance of transmitted Explanation: Communication is complete
information? only when the receiver understands the
a) Selecting perception message. Many communication problems
SE

b) Over communication arise because of misunderstandings.

c) Under communication
d) Filtering 9. ______ is the first enemy of
communication.
C

Answer: b a) Noise
Explanation: In the case of over b) Clarity
communication, the actual message is lost in

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Politeness important. The sender of the message should

d) Completeness be careful to see that the receiver does not
have to go beyond the text of the message.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise 11. Which of these is not a commandment of

M
is the first and foremost enemy of effective communication?
communication. Every possible effort must be a) Clarity in language
made to eliminate the element of noise that b) Listen poorly

O
distorts communication. c) Home communication skills
d) Adequate medium

C
10. Which of these must be avoided for
effective communication? Answer: b

T.
a) Sharing of activity Explanation: In order to ensure an effective
b) Listening communication one must take care of ten
c) Ambiguity commandments: Clarity in language, home
d) Politeness communication skills, listen attentively, etc..

O
Answer: c

SP
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided.
Clarity and crispness of the message is very
G
LO
.B
17
-R
SE
C

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 SPM QUESTION BANK

EITHER THE ANSWER SPECIFICALLY WRITTEN OR IT IS MARKED WITH *

1 What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_____
A. Consistency*
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these

2 A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.
A. Project fundamental purpose
B. Project quality
C. Project requirement
D. Project management*

3. ___________ is not an effective software project management focus.

A. people
B. product
C. process
D. popularity*
4. _________ is not a project manager’s activity.
A. project design*
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project control
5. The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?
A. Analytical
B. Critical*
C. Empirical
E. Heuristic
6. Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
A. Staff turnover*
B. Testing
C. Product competition
D. Specification delays
7. What is the process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
A. Project Management
B. Project Management Life Cycle*
C. Manager life cycle
D. All of the mentioned
8. What is the process during the life of a software development is known as
A. Project Management
B. sdlc*
C. Manager life cycle
D. All of the mentioned
9. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.
A. customers
B. project manager
C. team
D. project*
10. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included?
a.Create a contingency plan
b.Create a risk management plan
c.Create a WBS*
d.Create sql queries

11. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion?
a.Scope verification
b.Completing a scope statement*
c.scope definition
d.Process Management in OS

12. Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process*
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting
(d) None of given

13. When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable steps , the process which you
follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process*
(c)Software schedule
(d)Framework

14. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints*
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality
15. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
a) project delay
b) poor quality work
c) project failure
d) all of the mentioned*
16. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned*
17. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the
effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling*
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned
18. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning8
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept
19. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints*
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality
20. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring*
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
21. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks*
22. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the
system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks*
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
23. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True*
b) False

24. If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return then it is classified as
a)future cash flows
b)present cash flows
c)positive cash flows
d)negative cash flows*
25. The present value of cash inflows is 50000 US $ and the present value of cash outflows is $ 55000 then NPV is
____________
26. If desired rate of return is exceeded by actual rate of return then it is classified as
a)positive cash flows
b)negative cash flows
c) future cash flows*
d)present cash flows
27. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size*
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty
28. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope*
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
29. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager*
30. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk*
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
31. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring*
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
32. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being
developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks*
33. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the
system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks*
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
34. Software consist of
a)programs
b) associated documentation
c) operating procedures
d) all of the above*
35. __ What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks*
36. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks*
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

37. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection*
38. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks*
d) Development environment risks
39. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its
requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk*
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
40. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation*
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
41. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints*
42. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False*
43. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing*
d) Staff turnover
44. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development
project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned*
45. What is followed by the design task?
a) Choosing specific classes, operations
b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
d) All of the mentioned*
46. Which of the following is project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) all of the mentioned*
47. Risk managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True *
b) False
48. Which of the following is considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Delay in schedule
d) all of the mentioned*
49. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project*
c) customers
d) project manager
50. Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?
a) The techniques and case tools to be used
b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) nONE*

51. The effective software project management focuses on four P’s People, Process, Product and Management True/ False
52. _____must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software work
a) Project Managers*
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End users
53. Project management, is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements
a. True*
b. False
54. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification*
d) Development and Documentation
55. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm*
56. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and
objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification*
d) design
57. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation*
58. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that
task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming*
59. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned*
60. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral*
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
61. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral*
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
62. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated
time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD*
d) Incremental
63. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping*
64. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False*
65 Investigation into whether a prospective project is worth starting, probable development cost, operational cost and
benefits of the new system are investigated.
a) Feasibility study*
b) Planning
c) System analysis
d) SRS
66. Difference between total cost and total income over the life of the project.
a) Net profit*
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)
d) Net present value

67. Time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment
a) Net profit
b) Payback period*
c) Return on investment(ROI)
d) Net present value
68. Also known as the accounting rate of return (ARR)
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)*
d) Net present value

69. A project evaluation technique that takes into account the profitability of a project and the timing of the cash flows that
are produced
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)
d) Net present value*

70. ____________sum of all incoming and outgoing payments, discounted using an interest rate, to a fixed point in time
(the present)
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)
d) Net present value*

71. ____________is the discount rate that would produce an NPV of 0 for the project.
a) IRR*
e) Payback period
f) Return on investment(ROI)
g) Net present value
72 Identifying and estimating all of the costs and benefits of carrying out the project and operating the delivered application:
a) Cost-benefit analysis*
b) Feasibility analysis
c) Technical analysis
d) Business analysis
73. ________compares the sensitivity of each factor of project profiles by varying parameters which affect the project cost
benefits
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Risk profiles*
c) Business analysis
d) None
74. Strategic Project Management is about forming clear links between your Projects and Strategic Objectives
True*
False
75. It is important to review plan to review quality aspects of the project plan.
a) True*
b) False
76. Includes the salaries and other employment costs of the staff in the development project.
a) Development Cost*
b) Set up cost
c) Operational cost
d) None
77. Includes costs of any new hardware and ancillary equipment in the development project.
a) Development Cost
b) Set up cost*
c) Operational cost
d) None
78. Consist of the cost of operating the system Once it has been installed.

a) Development Cost
b) Set up cost
c) Operational cost*
d) None
79. Earning directly from the operation of the proposed system.
a) Direct benefits*
b) Indirect benefits
c) Intangible benefits
d) None
80. Earning secondary benefits like increased accuracy of a proposed system
a) Direct benefits
b) Indirect benefits*
c) Intangible benefits
d) None
81 benefits difficult to quantify like lower recruitment cost:
a) Direct benefits
b) Indirect benefits
c) Intangible benefits*
d) None
82 Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
83 Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) both in time & with acceptable quality*
84 Which are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned*
85. Select the developer-specific requirement?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability*
86. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design*
c) analysis
d) documentation
87. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised*
d) None of the mentioned
88. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.
a) True*
b) False
89 Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing*
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned
90. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False
91. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
d) All of the mentioned*
92 Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200*
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
93 What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) *Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early*
94. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
1. Test
2. Design
3. Install
4. Specification
5. Manufacture
6. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6*
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
95. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing*
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
96. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality of the
product.
a) True
b) False
97. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development*
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
98. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding*
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
99. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle*
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
100. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model*
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
 Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project activities

into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?

a) PERT chart
b) GANTT chart
c) Task network representation
d) Work breakdown structure
Answer: d

which one of the following is the critical path for the activity network given below?

a) A, B, F, H, G, I,L
b) A,B,F,H,I,L
c) A, C, D, J, K,L
d) A,C,D,G,K,L
Answer: c

Consider a portion of a PERT network diagram given below. What is the LF of activity C?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 16
d) 17
Answer: d

Consider a portion of a PERT network diagram given below. What is the ES of activity C?

a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: b

PERT method differs from CPM in which one of the following aspects?
a) PERT uses statistical time durations where as CPM uses deterministic time durations.
b) PERT uses dummy activities whereas CPM does not
c) PERT uses free float, whereas CPM uses total float in critical path calculations.
d) PERT uses activity on arc whereas CPM uses activity on node networks.
Answer: a

Consider the data regarding the activities, their duration, and precedence for ascertain project given in the following table. What is the total project
duration?
Activity Duration Predecessors
A 14
B 13 A
C 20 A
D 10 B,C
a)37
b)44
c)47
d)57
Answer: b

Which one of the following is true of a critical path in a PERT chart?

a) It is the path having maximum number of tasks.

b) It is the shortest path in terms of time
c) It is the longest path in terms of time
d) It is the path with the largest amount Df slack time
Answer: c

Which one of the following statements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is true?
a) A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that contains the least number
of edges.
b) Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
c) Every PERT chart has exactly one critical path.
d) It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple critical paths, all having exactly the same duration.
Answer: d

For a project whose activities, their precedence ordering, estimated time for completion are given in the following table.
Immediate Estimated time
Activity in
follower
weeks
A E,B 3
B C,F 2
C D,G B
D F 4
E F 5
F 10
G 10

Which one of the following sequence Df activities is on the critical path?

a) A-E-F
b) A—B-C—G
c) A—B-C—D—F
d) A—B-F
Answer: c
For a project whose activities, their precedence ordering, estimated time for completion are given .For a project whose activities, their precedence
ordering, estimated time for completion are given in the following table.
Immediate Estimated time in
Activity
follower weeks
A E,B 3
B C,F 2
C D,G 8
D F 4
E F
F 10
10

Which one of the following paths has the greatest slack time
a. A-E-F
b. A—B-C—G
c. A—B-C—D—F
d. A—B---F
Answer: d

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d

What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer: a

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a)Specification delays
b)Product competition
c)Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c

The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:

a. Identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.

b. Identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
c. Identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
d. Identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
Answer: b

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a. The life cycle phases.
b. The logical order of tasks.
c. The scope of the project.
d. Project costs.
Answer: c

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

a. Identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b. Identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c. Identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d. Satisfy the organization’s project management process.
Answer: a
What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
a. A Gantt chart.
b. A critical path network.
c. A product flow diagram.
d. A Pareto chart.
Answer: a

Resource allocated is done using

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart
Answer: B

Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control?

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. THETA chart
D. All of the above
Answer: A

Milestones are used to

A. Know the cost of the project
B. Know the user expectations
C. Know the status of the project
D. None of the above
Answer: C

PERT/CPM is

A. Network techniques
B. Assignment techniques
C. Project evaluation techniques
D. None of the above
Answer: c

What does CPM stand for?

a Control Path Method
b Critical Path Method
c Critical Plan Management
d Control Path Management
Answer: b

What does PERT analysis base on?

a Most likely time
b Optimistic time
c Pessimistic time
d All of the above
Answer: d

What is difference between PERT and CPM?

a PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model
b PERT is an event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique
c PERT is Project Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method
d All of the above
Answer: d

The earliest start time rule

a Directs when a project can start
b Regulates when a project must begin
c Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
d Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor
Answer: c
Slack time in PERT analysis
a Can never be less than zero
b Is minimum for critical events
c Can never be less than zero
d Can never be greater than zero
Answer: b

Choose the correct option from the following statements?

a CPM analysis is activity oriented
b In CPM, the time is related to cost
c PERT analysis is event oriented
d All of the above
Answer: d

Which of these statements is not one of the Critical Chain fundamental principles?
A. The project performance first lies into the performance of each task
B. The resource availability is taken into account.
C. Project execution is managed by the relative consumption of buffers.

D. The project performance requires a mutulisation of the time Security margin.

PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for

a Small projects

b Deterministic activities

c Large and complex projects

d Research and development projects

Answer: c
PERT analysis is based upon

a Optimistic time

b Most likely time

c Pessimistic time

d All of the above

Answer: d

Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known as

a Event

b Node

c Connector

d All the above

Answer: D

The critical path ...........

a Is the longest path

b Is the shortest path

c Is a mixture of all paths

d Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node

Answer: a

The particular task performance in CPM is known as

a Event
b Activity
c Dummy
d Contract
Answer: b

Which of the following is used for computations in cpm?

a normal time
b most likely time
c pessimistic time
d optimistic time
Answer: a

Among the following, critical path and slack time analysis most help .................

a managers define the project activities.

b highlight relationships among project activities.
c point out who is responsible for various activities.
d pinpoint activities that need to be closely watched.
Answer: D
 with respect to pert and cpm, slack ...............

a marks the start or completion of a task.

b is a task or subproject that must be completed.
c is the latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
d is the amount of time a task may be delayed without changing the overall project completion time
Answer: D

which of the following statements regarding pert analysis is true?

a Each activity has three estimates of its duration.

b Only critical activities contribute to the project variance.
c Project variance is the sum of all critical activity variances.
d The most likely time is different from the expected activity time.
Answer: a

Which of the following statements regarding pert times is true?

a The probable time estimate is calculated as t = (a + 4m + b)/6.

b Optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
c pesimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
d None of the above
Answer: a

What is PERT analysis based on?

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay
Answer: B
What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract
Answer: C
What is the earliest start time rule?
A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.
Answer: B
What is a critical path?
A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. It is a mixture of all the paths
C. It is the longest path
D. It is the shortest path
Answer: C
What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known as?
A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All of the above
Answer: D

Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will
be the earliest starting time for Y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: B
Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and 10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A

Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
Answer: B
What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?
A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Monte Carlo simulation is
A. static
B. dynamic
c. static or dynamic
d. none
Answer: A

Your actual cost is 155 and your earned value is 170. What is your cost variance?
A. 15
B. -15
C. 162.5
D. -155
ANSWER: A

The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is called…

A. Difference at Completion
B. Deficit at Completion
C. Variance at Completion
D. Management reserve
ANSWER: C

This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A. Project Monitoring and Control
B. Project size estimation
C. Project cost estimation
D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A

What does a SPI value of 1 mean?

A. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the schedule plan
B. The project is behind the planned schedule
C. The project is in line with the planned schedule
D. The project is ahead of the planned schedule
ANSWER: C

Your project is behind schedule but has a positive cost variance. Completing the project in time is a top-priority. Which
approach to calculate the estimate at completion do you choose?
A. Continue to use BAC as the project needs to meet the plan
B. Estimate at completion using SPI and CPI
C. Estimate at completion with top-down ETC
D. Do the operational project work rather than wasting time calculating a new EAC
ANSWER: B

___ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

A. Gantt charts
B. Ball charts
C. Slip charts
D. Timeline
ANSWER: A

Your schedule performance index is 0.8. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The planned value exceeds the earned value by 0.8$
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The earned value exceeds the planned value by 0.8$
D. The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D

Your project controlling shows you actual cost of 500 and an earned value of 600. Calculate the schedule performance index.
A. 0.8333
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D

You are managing a project with a cumulative cost variance of -30 and you expect the project to perform at the budgeted rate.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. You expect your project to be completed within the budget
B. Your projected Variance at Completion is -30
C. You need to get a bottom-up ETC to determine your EAC
D. You should calculate the EAC considering CPI and SPI
ANSWER: B

Calculate the estimate at completion based on the current cost performance index for the following situation: AC=1150;
EV=1000; BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A

The CPI is > 1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The project has a cost overrun compared to the plan
B. The project has incurred less cost than planned
C. The earned value is higher than the planned value
D. The cost and performance are in line with the plan
ANSWER: B

What does a CPI of 1 indicate?

A. The project is in line with the planned budget
B. The actual cost exceed the earned value by 1
C. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the cost plan
D. The project is ahead of the planned budget
ANSWER: A

The cumulative earned value is 40 with cumulative actual cost of 60. The budget at completion is 400. What is your current to-
complete-performance index?
A. 1.0588
B. 1.5
C. 0.9444
D. 1.2841
ANSWER: A

Your SPI is 0.8 and your CPI 1.1. Which of the following statements describes the current project status correctly?
A. The project incurred higher cost than planned and is behind schedule
B. The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
C. The project incurred higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule
D. The project incurred less cost than planned but is behind schedule
ANSWER: B

What does a CPI of less than 1 tell you about the cost situation of your project?
A. The project will not be completed within the budget
B. The incurred cost are lower than the earned value
C. The project will be completed within the budget
D. The incurred cost are higher than the earned value
ANSWER: D

What is the variance at completion?

A. AC - EV
B. BAC - EAC
C. EAC - BAC
D. EV - AC
ANSWER: B

How do you interpret a SPI value of 1.24?

A. The planned value is higher than the earned value
B. The project is ahead of the planned schedule
C. The project is behind the planned schedule
D. The earned value is higher than the actual cosT
ANSWER: B

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management
ANSWER: B

Why is software difficult to build?

A. Controlled changes
B. Lack of reusability
C. Lack of monitoring
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: C

Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recognise that their personal
success is dependent on the success of others.
A. common goal
B. Similar jobs
C. The same manager
D. A shared work environment
ANSWER: A

Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work division are known as:
A. formal groups
B. operational groups
C. informal groups
D. target groups
ANSWER: A

Reasons for the formation of groups include:

A. The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.
B. The provision of protection for its membership.
C. The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals
working together.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?

A. It means that the structure will fail under load
B. It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C. It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D. There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B

In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.
A. Norming
B. Adjourning
C. Forming
D. Storming
ANSWER: A

A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:

A. A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change
B. A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce output
C. A tendency to see other groups as rivals
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A. A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B. A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
C. The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
D. The open expression of feelings and disagreements.
ANSWER: B

A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still
__________________ together closely.
A. Physically; think
B. Temporally; work
C. Geographically; work
D. Geographically; decide
ANSWER: C

A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role has:
A. A line management relationship
B. Meaningful interactions
C. Daily contact
D. Regular appraisals
ANSWER: B
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may
show disregard for practical details is:
A. Shaper
B. Team Worker
C. Specialist
D. Plant
ANSWER: D

Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________

A. Hockman and Coldham
B. Hockman and Oldcham
C. Hackman and Oldham
D. Horkman and Olatham
ANSWER: C

The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic vision and accurate
judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A. Team Worker
B. Monitor-Evaluator
C. Specialist
D. Shaper
ANSWER: B

Decision making needs

A. Priors
B. Likelihoods
C. Priors & Likelihoods
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: C

Motivating the employees is classified as___________.

A. Informational role
B. Interpersonal role
C. Decisional role
D. Conceptual role
ANSWER: B

Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

A. Sharing of activity
B. Listening
C. Ambiguity
D. Politeness
ANSWER: C

The risky-shift phenomenon means that there is a tendency for groups to make decisions which are
_______________________ than those which individual members would make.
A. Less risky
B. More conservative
C. Less consistent
D. More risky
ANSWER: D

Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:

A. Encourages communication
B. Involves everyone
C. Focuses the mind
D. All three of the above
ANSWER: D

Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?

A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Customer expectations
D. Leadership
ANSWER: B

Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:

A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization?

A. Lack of motivation of project team members
B. Longer project duration
C. Lack of focus on the project
D. A, B, and C are all correct
ANSWER: D
Who among the following is not a project stakeholder?
A) Project manager
B) customer
C) Project team member
D) Security personnel guarding the project building
ANSWER: D
Managing a software development project is much harder than managing a road construction project. Which
one of the following is NOT a major reason for this?
A) Large sized project
B) Managing something that is intangible
C) Managing intellectual work
D) Large impact of any requirements change
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a software development project?
A) A software development project can have several non-routine tasks that involve challenge
B) A software development project can have several routine tasks
C) The resources available for a software development project are usually constrained
D) Every software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue indefinitelyEvery
software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue indefinitely
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following statements concerning the business case for a project
A) It clearly states the cost that would be incurred to complete the project
B) It provides the benefits that are expected to accrue from undertaking the project
C) It presents a cost-benefit analysis
D) Once the business case is completed and approved by the project sponsor, the feasibility study is
undertaken
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following is the most acceptable definition of a project?
A) A series of activities
B) A set of activities undertaken within a defined time period in order to meet a specific set of
goals/objectives within a budget
C) A coordinated effort to accomplish a well-defined goal but in general can continue indefinitely
D) Once the businesAny activity that requires human and other resources for it to proceed
ANSWER: B
Which one of the following is usually not recognized as a phase of the software project management life
cycle?
A) Execution
B) Initiation
C) Maintenance
D) none
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following most closely describes the sequence of phases o f a project management life
cycle?
A) Initiation, planning, executing, and closing.
B) Concept, definition, development, closure
C) Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring.
D) Concept, definition, implementation, maintenance
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following is not a pertinent question to ask for defining the scope of a project?
A) Why is the software being built?
B) What will be done?
C) When will it be done?
D) Who will be the project manager
ANSWER: D
1) Which one of the following can be considered to be a job rather than a project?
A) Constnuc tion of a houseb} A p olitical election campa ignc} Buying grocery from a supe rm arket d}
A wedding
B) political election campaignc} Buying grocery from a supe rm arket d} A weddingb} A p olitical election
campa ignc} Buying grocery from a supe rm arket d} A wedding
C) Buying grocery from a super market
D) A wedding
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following is not a software service type of project?
A) A software customization project
B) A novel antivirus software development project
C) A software maintenance projectsoftware maintenance projectsoftware maintenance project
D) A software testing project
ANSWER: B
_________ is not a project manager’s activity.
A) project design
B) project management
C) project planning
D) project control
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
A) Staff turnover
B) Testing
C) Product competition
D) Specification delays
ANSWER: A
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.
A) customersB
B) project manager
C) team
D) project
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
A) Size of the project
B) Customers Complaints
C) Project staff
D) Mission criticality
ANSWER: B
Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
A) project delay
B) poor quality work
C) project failure
D) all of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
A) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
B) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
C) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
D) all of above
ANSWER: D
Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance Which of the following is an activity that
distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software
engineering tasks?
A) Software Macroscopic schedule
B) Software Project scheduling
C) Software Detailed schedule
D) none
ANSWER: B
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
A) Risk monitoring
B) Risk planning
C) Risk analysis
D) NONE
ANSWER: A
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being
developed?
A) People risks
B) Technology risks
C) Estimation risks
D) Organizational risks
ANSWER: D
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
A) client
B) team member
C) project manager
D) NONE
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
A) Build & Fix Model
B) Prototyping Model
C) RAD Model
D) Waterfall Model
ANSWER: D
Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?
A) RAD and Waterfall
B) spiral and Prototyping
C) Spiral & RAD
D) RAD and Waterfall
ANSWER: B
The agile software development model is built based on __________.
A) Linear development
B) incremental development
C) iterative development
D) Both incremental and iterative development
ANSWER: D
Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
A) Producing only the essential work products.
B) Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.
C) Abolishing the project planning and testing.
D) NONE
ANSWER: C
Is a customer involved test development and validation in Extreme Programming ?
A) Yes
B) NO
C) It may vary from Customer to Customer
D) None of above
ANSWER: C
Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
A) analysis, design, coding, testing
B) planning, analysis, design, coding
C) planning, design, coding, testing
D) planning, analysis, coding, testing
ANSWER: C
DSDM is an approach
A) waterfall
B) spiral
C) incremental
D) iterative and incremental
ANSWER: D
How many man -hours is a man-month?
A) 142
B) 152
C) 162
D) 172
ANSWER: B
Which one of the following is the correct order in which a software project manager estimates various
project parameters while using COCOMO?
A) cost, effort, duration, size
B) cost, duration, effort, size
C) size, effort, duration, cost
D) size, cost, effort, duration
ANSWER: C
Which one of the followings is NOT a factor for "Lines of co de" being considered a poor software size metric?
A) It is programming language dependent.I
B) It penalizes efficient and compact coding.
C) it is programmer dependent.g.It is programmer dependent.It is programmer dependent
D) It is dependent on the complexity of the requirements.
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following estimating methods is most appropriate when detailed information about the
project is lacking
A) Parametric Models
B) Basic Expert Judgement Technique
C) Analogy -Based Method
D) Price to win
ANSWER: D
Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
A) Horizontal Prototype
B) Vertical Prototype
C) Diagonal Prototype
D) Domain Prototype
ANSWER: C
Which one of the followings is NOT a limitation of bottom-up estimation?
A) It may overlook many of the system-level costs.
B) It may be inaccurate because the necessary information may not be available in the early phase
C) It tends to underestimate and overlook complexities of low-level components.
D) It tends to be more time-consuming.
ANSWER: C
Which one of the followings is NOT a desirable characteristic of a good algorithmic estimation model?
A) A clear procedure for estimation is providedS
B) Subjective factors are avoidedR
C) Results are valid for a wide range of parameter values
D) Requires data that are accurately known only in future
ANSWER: D
 Which one of the followings is NOT a key component in function point analysis?
A) External Inputs
B) External Outputs
C) External Operations
D) External Inquiries
ANSWER: C
In function point analysis, how many general systems characteristics are evaluated and used to compute the
Value Adjustment Factor (VAF)
A) 12
B) 13
C) 14
D) 15
ANSWER: C
which one of the followings is NOT a is a disadvantage of function point analysis?
A) It is labor intensive.
B) Extensive Lobour is required
C) Does not consider algorithm complexities of function
D) It is hard to fudge
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following function points is most suitable for use in embedded system development projects
A) IFPUG function points
B) MARK II Function Point
C) Cosmic Function Points
ANSWER: C
THE MODEL THAT ASSUMES THAT EFFORT AND DEVELOPMENT TIME ARE FUNCTIONS OF
PRODUCTSIZE ALONE IS
A) BASIC COCOMO MODEL
B) INTERMEDIATE COCOMO MODEL
C) DETAILED COCOMO MODEL
D) ALL THE THREE COCOMO MODELS
ANSWER: A
FP-BASED ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES REQUIRE PROBLEM DECOMPOSITION BASED ON
A) INFORMATION DOMAIN VALUES
B) project schedule
C) software function
D) Activity schedule
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project activitiesinto smaller
tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
A) PERT chart
B) GANTT chart
C) Task network representation
D) Work breakdown structure
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following statements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is true?
A) A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that contains the least numberof edges.
B) Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
C) Every PERT chart has exactly one critical path.
D) It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple critical paths, all having exactly the
same duration.
ANSWER: D
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
A) Client
B) Investor
C) team member
D) project Manager
ANSWER: D
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the
risk?
A) Risk monitoringb
B) Risk Planning
C) Risk Analysis
D) Risk Identification
ANSWER: A
What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
A) A Gantt chart
B) CPM
C) PERT
D) None
ANSWER: A
Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) Theta chart
D) All of Above
ANSWER: A
Milestones are used to
A) . Know the cost of the project
B) . Know the user expectations
C) Know the status of the project
D) None Of Above
ANSWER: C
What is PERT/CPM?
A) . Network techniques
B) Assignment techniques
C) Project evaluation techniques
D) none of above
ANSWER: C
What does CPM stand for?
A) Control path method
B) critical path method
C) common path method
D) common plan method
ANSWER: B
What does PERT analysis base on?
A) Most likely time
B) Optimistic time
C) Pessimistic time
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
What is difference between PERT and CPM?
A) PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model
B) PERT is an event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique
C) PERT is Project Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
The earliest start time rule
A) Directs when a project can start
B) Regulates when a project must begin
C) PERT is Project Evaluation andCompares the activities end time for an activity predecessorReview
Technique while CPM is Critical Path MethodCompares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
D) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor
ANSWER: C
Slack time in PERT analysis
A) Can never be less than zero
B) Is minimum for critical events
C) Can never be less than zero
D) Can never be greater than zero
ANSWER: B
Choose the correct option from the following statements?
A) CPM analysis is activity oriented
B) In CPM, the time is related to cost
C) PERT analysis is event orientedPERT analysis is event oriented
D) all of above
ANSWER: D
Which of these statements is not one of the Critical Chain fundamental principles?
A) The project performance first lies into the performance of each task
B) The resource availability is taken into account.
C) Project execution is managed by the relative consumption of buffers.
D) The project performance requires a mutualization of the time Security margin.
ANSWER: A
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
A) Small projects
B) Deterministic activities
C) Large and complex projects
D) Research and development projects
ANSWER: C
Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known as
A) event
B) node
C) connector
D) all
ANSWER: D
The critical path is -------
A) shortest path
B) longest path
C) Mixed of all paths
D) none
ANSWER: B
The particular task performance in CPM is known as
A) event
B) activity
C) dummy
D) node
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is used for computations in cpm?
A) Normal time
B) expected time
C) optimistic time
D) pessimistic time
ANSWER: A
WHICH ACTIVITY IS UNDERTAKEN ONCE THE DEVELOPMENT ACTIVITIES START?
A) Project Monitoring and Control
B) Project size estimation
C) Project cost estimation
D) project planning
ANSWER: A
WHAT DOES A SPI VALUE OF 1 MEAN?
A) The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the schedule plan
B) The project is behind the planned schedule
C) The project is in line with the planned schedule
D) none
ANSWER: C
YOUR PMO TEAM PRESENTS AN BOTTOM-UP ETC OF 875, YOUR ACTUAL COST ARE 250 AND THE
BAC IS 1000. WHAT IS YOUR ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION?
A) 1250
B) 1125
C) 1875
D) 1175
ANSWER: B
YOUR PROJECT IS BEHIND SCHEDULE BUT HAS A POSITIVE COST VARIANCE. COMPLETING THE
PROJECT IN TIME IS A TOP-PRIORITY. WHICH APPROACH TO CALCULATE THE ESTIMATE AT
COMPLETION DO YOU CHOOSE?
A) Continue to use BAC as the project needs to meet the plan
B) Estimate at completion using SPI and CPI
C) Estimate at completion with top-down ETC
D) Do the operational project work rather than wasting time calculating a new EAC
ANSWER: B
YOUR SCHEDULE PERFORMANCE INDEX IS 0.8. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS
TRUE?
A) The planned value exceeds the earned value by 0.8$
B) The project is ahead of schedule
C) The earned value exceeds the planned value by 0.8$
D) The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D
YOUR PROJECT CONTROLLING SHOWS YOU ACTUAL COST OF 500 AND AN EARNED VALUE OF
600. CALCULATE THE SCHEDULE PERFORMANCE INDEX.
A) 1.33
B) 1.2
C) 100
D) Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D
YOU ARE MANAGING A PROJECT WITH A CUMULATIVE COST VARIANCE OF -30 AND YOU EXPECT
THE PROJECT TO PERFORM AT THE BUDGETED RATE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS
IS TRUE?
A) You expect your project to be completed within the budget
B) Your projected Variance at Completion is -30
C) You need to get a bottom-up ETC to determine your EAC
D) You should calculate the EAC considering CPI and SPI
ANSWER: B
YOUR ACTUAL COST IS 155 AND YOUR EARNED VALUE IS 170. WHAT IS YOUR COST VARIANCE?
A) 165
B) 15
C) 325
D) 20
ANSWER: B
CALCULATE THE ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION BASED ON THE CURRENT COST PERFORMANCE
INDEX FOR THE FOLLOWING SITUATION: AC=1150; EV=1000; BAC=2000
A) 3150
B) 2300
C) 1875
D) 2000
ANSWER: B
THE CPI IS > 1. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE?
A) The project has a cost overrun compared to the plan
B) The project has incurred less cost than planned
C) The earned value is higher than the planned value
D) The cost and performance are in line with the plan
ANSWER: B
YOUR COST PERFORMANCE INDEX IS 0.9 AND THE EARNED VALUE IS 100. CALCULATE THE
ACTUAL COST.
A) 111
B) 90
C) 99
D) 121
ANSWER: A
WHAT DOES A COST VARIANCE OF 0 MEAN?
A) No costs have been incurred
B) There is no variance between AC and EV
C) There is no variance between AC and PV
D) The project will be completed at the approved budget
ANSWER: B
THE CUMULATIVE AC IS 30 AND THE BAC IS 200. THE CUMULATED PLANNED VALUE IS 60.
CALCULATE THE TCPI.
A) 0.2
B) 0.8
C) 1.2
D) Not sufficient data
ANSWER: D
THE TO-COMPLETE-PERFORMANCE INDEX IS 1.5. WHICH MANAGEMENT ACTION DOES THIS
SUGGEST?
A) Take actions to reduce incurred cost and increase earned value going forward
B) No action required as the project performs well
C) Take on additional tasks that are not in scope, given that the budget wouldn't be used up otherwise
D) Stop the project as soon as possible, as it won't be completed within the budget
ANSWER: A
YOUR CURRENT COST VARIANCE IS -1235. WHAT IS THE VALUE OF YOUR COST PERFORMANCE
INDEX?
A) -1.2
B) 0.8
C) Not enough data provided to calculate the CPI, EV is missing
D) Not enough data provided to calculate the CPI, PV is missing
ANSWER: C
IN WHICH RANGE IS THE VALUE OF THE SCHEDULE VARIANCE IF YOUR PROJECT IS AHEAD OF
THE SCHEDULE. _ _
A) >0
B) ==0
C) <0
D) >1
ANSWER: A
THE ACTUAL COST IS 100, THE EARNED VALUE IS 150, THE PLANNED VALUE IS 120 AND THE
BUDGET AT COMPLETION IS 2500. CALCULATE THE ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION BASED ON THE
INITIALLY BUDGETED RATE.
A) 2450
B) 2400
C) 2300
D) 2500
ANSWER: A
YOUR SPI IS 0.8 AND YOUR CPI 1.1. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS DESCRIBES THE
CURRENT PROJECT STATUS CORRECTLY?
A) The project incurred higher cost than planned and is behind schedule T
B) The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
C) _ __ _The project incurred higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule The project incurred
higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule _ _The project incurred higher cost than planned but is
ahead of the schedule
D) The project incurred less cost than planned but is behind schedule
ANSWER: B
THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN BUDGET AT COMPLETION AND ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION IS
CALLED…
A) Difference at Completion
B) Deficit at Completion
C) Variance at Completion
D) none
ANSWER: C
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SOFTWARE CONFIGURATION MANAGEMENT ACTIVITY?
A) Configuration item identification
B) Risk management
C) Release management
D) Branch management
ANSWER: B
Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recognise that their personal
success is dependent on the success of others.
A) common goal
B) Similar jobs
C) The same manager
D) A shared work environment
ANSWER: A
Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work division are known as:
A) formal groups
B) operational groups
C) informal groups
D) target groups
ANSWER: A
Reasons for the formation of groups include:
A) The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.
B) The provision of protection for its membership.
C) The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals
working together
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?
A) It means that the structure will fail under load
B) It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C) It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D) There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B
In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.
A) Norming
B) adjourning
C) forming
D) storming
ANSWER: A
potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:
A) A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change
B) A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce outputC
C) A tendency to see other groups as rivals
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?
A) A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B) A belief in shared aims and objectives.
C) The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
D) The open expression of feelings and disagreements
ANSWER: B
A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still
__________________ together closely.
A) Physically; think
B) Temporally; work
C) Geographically; work
D) Geographically; decide
ANSWER: C
A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role has:
A) A line management relationship
B) Meaningful interactions
C) Daily contact
D) Regular appraisals
ANSWER: B
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may
show disregard for practical details is:
A) Shaper
B) Team Worker
C) Specialist
D) Plant
ANSWER: D
Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________
A) Hockman and Coldham
B) Hockman and Oldcham
C) Hackman and Oldham
D) Horkman and Olatham
ANSWER: C
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic vision and accurate
judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A) Team Worker
B) Monitor-Evaluator
C) Specialist
D) Shaper
ANSWER: B
Decision making needs
A) Priors
B) Priors & Likelihoods
C) Likelihoods
D) None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B
Motivating the employees is classified as___________.
A) Informational role
B) Interpersonal role
C) Decisional role
D) None of the above
ANSWER: B
Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?
A) Sharing of activity
B) Listening
C) Politeness
D) Ambiguity
ANSWER: D
Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:
A) Encourages communication
B) Involves everyone
C) Focuses the mind
D) All of the Above
ANSWER: D
Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?
A) Negotiation
B) Resource allocation
C) Customer expectations
D) Leadership
ANSWER: B
Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:
A) Management
B) Leadership
C) Monitoring
D) Corrective action
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization?
A) Lack of motivation of project team members
B) Longer project duration
C) Lack of focus on the project
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following may be highest motivator for a software development company
A) lunch allowance
B) HRA
C) company provided car
D) More interesting job assignment at the same pay
ANSWER: D
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always
subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage
projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%),
moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity
and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these
are to be assessed.

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process
proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage
different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the
attribute than can be measured.
11. Which of these truly defines Software design?
a) Software design is an activity subjected to constraints
b) Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product
c) Software Design satisfies client needs and desires
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Software design explains all of the statements as its definition.

12. Which of the following statement is false?

a) A process is a collection of related tasks that transforms a set of inputs to the set of output
b) A design notation is a symbolic representational system
c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding guidance, with guarantee for achieving some end
d) Software design method is orderly procedure for providing software design solution
Answer: b
Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed but there is no guarantee that we get output.

13. Which of these describes stepwise refinement?

a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first software engineering method as stepwise refinement
b) Stepwise refinement follows its existence from 1971
c) It is a top down approach
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It is top down approach and not bottom up.

14. What is incorrect about structural design?

a) Structural design introduced notations and heuristics
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition
c) The advantage is data flow representation
d) It follows Structure chart
Answer: c
Explanation: The biggest drawback or problem is a data flow diagram of structure design.

15. What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data flow diagram
b) Procedures represented as bubbles
c) Specification model is structure chart showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow of data in and
out of procedures
d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition
Answer: c
Explanation: It is solution to central problem. Rest others are problems.

16. Which of these are followed by the latest versions of structural design?
a) More detailed and flexible processes
b) Regular Notations
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided Software Engineering)
d) Wide support by CASE, More detailed and flexible processes
Answer: d
Explanation: Notations used are more specialized and sophisticated one.

17. Which of the following is an incorrect method for structural design?

a) Transition of problem models to solution models
b) Handling of larger and more complex products
c) Designing Object oriented systems
d) More procedural approach
Answer: b
Explanation: It does not account for larger and complex products.

18. What is followed by the design task?

a) Choosing specific classes, operations
b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of these tasks are followed by a design task.

19. Which of this analysis are not acceptable?

a) Object oriented design is a far better approach compared to structural design
b) Object oriented design always dominates structural design
c) Object oriented design are given more preference than structural design
d) Object oriented uses more specific notations
Answer: b
Explanation: Though object oriented design is considered a far better approach but it never
dominates structural approach.

20. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

a) It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition
b) Programs are thought of collection of objects
c) Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another
d) Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
Answer: a
Explanation: It does not follow regular procedural decomposition.

21. What is the full form of TQM?

a) True quality machining
b) Total quality management
c) True quantitative machining
d) Total queue management
Answer: b
Explanation: Total quality management is a process that promotes unending improvement in the
efficiency and effectiveness of all elements of a business. Quality finds the 1st place in the entire
business action.

22. Which of the following is correct for TQM?

a) Quality strategy in TQM emanates from top
b) TQM is a static process
c) It is a management approach to short-term success through customer
d) It is used to improve processes not products
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality strategies and values in TQM emanates from top. Strategy of defect prevention
leads to plans of action and strategic goals. Customer orientation is also a principle of TQM. Regular
feedback is needed to meet the needs of customers.

23. Which part in quality management is the critical part?

a) Process thinking
b) Performance measurement
c) Customer’s view
d) Systematic approach
Answer: d
Explanation: A critical part of quality management is the systematic and strategic approach to
achieving an organization’s vision and goals. This process includes the formulation of a strategic
plan that integrates quality as a core component.

24. Which of the following is not true for communication in TQM?

a) Three way communication
b) It should be clear
c) Forceful
d) Open involvement
Answer: a
Explanation: Communication is two way in total quality management. It should be forceful, effective,
consistent and clear. It is very essential for active and open involvement in all company’s visions.

25. Which of the following is correct option for given statements about TQM?
Statement 1: Design of the formal system is a one time effort.
Statement 2: TQM is a management philosophy.
a) F, F
b) F, T
c) T, T
d) T, F
Answer: b
Explanation: Design of a system is not a onetime effort but it wills changes continuously according to
the customer need and organization.
TQM is a management philosophy to a journey of excellence of organization and also to satisfy
needs of customer.

26. What are the core principles of the TQM in a company-wide effort?
a) Customer and process orientation only
b) Continuous improvement only
c) Process orientation and continuous improvement only
d) Continuous improvement, process and customer orientation
Answer: d
Explanation: TQM as a company-wide effort emphasizes 3 core principles. These principles are
process orientation, customer orientation and continuous improvement. Some core areas are
essential to implement these principles that organization need to follow.

27. Which drivers are used in TQM system?

a) Competition, Survival and export drive
b) Teamwork participation and customer satisfaction
c) Quality tools and technique
d) Management commitment and vision
Answer: a
Explanation: Management commitment and vision, teamwork participation, Quality tools and
techniques are the system models and competition. Survival, profitability, Customer expectations are
the drivers. System models, drivers and TQM all together forms a TQM system.

28. What is included in the quality assessment in TQM?

a) Strategic quality planning
b) Management of process quality
c) Quality and operational results
d) Information and analysis
Answer: b
Explanation: Any TQM company needed a good process management. These include design, R &
D, process management quality for all work units and suppliers and also quality improvement and
assessment.

29. How many stages are needed for inspection and testing in TQM as per ISO 9001?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three stages of inspection and testing as per ISO 9001. These stages are
receiving inspection and testing, in process inspection and third is testing and final inspection and
testing.

30. Which factor is the basis of Decision making in TQM?

a) Facts only
b) Opinions only
c) Facts and opinions both
d) neither facts nor opinions
Answer: a
Explanation: Decision-making within the organization should be only based on facts. It is not based
on opinions like personal interests and emotions. Data should support this type of decision-making
process.

31. SCM stands for

a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In software engineering, software configuration management (SCM) is the task of
tracking and controlling changes in the software, part of the larger cross-discipline field of
configuration management.

32. When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an

a) hard drive
b) access-controlled library
c) servers
d) access control
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

33. Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
a) CM Planning
b) Executing the CM process
c) CM audits
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.

34. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
35. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?
a) Version Control
b) Access control
c) CM Process
d) Version Control and Access control
Answer: a
Explanation: It allows software engineers to continue development along a branch even when a line
of development is frozen.

36. Which of the following is not a change management process?

a) Log the changes
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are required for a change.

37. Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

38. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and agreed
upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Baseline
b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
d) Change Control
Answer: a
Explanation: In configuration management, a “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the attributes
of a product, at a point in time, which serves as a basis for defining change.

39. How are baselines verified?

a) By reviews
b) By inspections
c) By testing of code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to description.

40. Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?

a) SCM procedures
b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are covered in CM.

41. SCM controls only the products of the development process.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
42. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
b) Change Control Baseline
c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

43. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?

a) Reasons for making the changes
b) A description of the proposed changes
c) List of other items affected by the changes
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to description of the product, changes require multiple
reasons..

44. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates?
a) Project size
b) planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty
Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software grows
rapidly.

45. What describes the data and control to be processed?

a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined
to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.

46. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to

requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques(FAST), this approach encourages the
creation of a joint team of customers and developers who work together to identify the problem,
propose elements of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.

47. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None

48. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

49. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict
effort as a function of LOC or FP.

50. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.

51. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical
data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

52. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

53. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.
54. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

55. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on
which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software
engineering.

56. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

57. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software
is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.

58. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are
used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

59. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to
maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.
60. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

61. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility

Answer: b
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality which means software can run on different
hardware platforms or software environments.

2. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.

a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customized
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: rest all is sub categories/applications of option c.

3. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: For systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times development
costs.

4. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?

a) Keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

5. Purpose of process is to deliver software

a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) both in time & with acceptable quality

Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.

6. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases,
regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which
focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which
focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment

Answer: d
Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the product and
provides feedback based on the evaluation.

8. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, actions, tasks, the level of autonomy given to the software
team and the inter dependencies among two process can never be the same.

9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is
not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention

Answer: a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development phase.
11. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. Agile Software Development is based on

a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Answer: d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements
to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and
continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative because they work on one iteration
followed by improvements in next iteration

13. Which one of the following is not an agile method?

a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback, which
is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

14. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be
able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.

15. How is plan driven development different from agile development?

a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development
stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.
16. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

17. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which can’t be avoided.

18. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development (ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

19. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs
today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

20. RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

21. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

22. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

Answer: c
Explanation: There is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their
respective definitions

23. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product

Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

24. RAD Model has

a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases

Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely: Business modeling, Data modeling,
Process modeling, Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

25. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are
required

Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-
develop functionality. Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

26. SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

27. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

28. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release
once every month.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.

29. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration approach.After any such integration, all the unit
tests in the system must pass.

30. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.New
versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment for approval every 2nd
week after testing the new version.

31. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.

a) Implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories.These are written on
cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks are the
basis of schedule and cost estimates.
32. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) it may vary from Customer to Customer
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for
the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system.However, people adopting
the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time with the development
team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a contribution and so may be
reluctant to get involved in the testing process.

33. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing
tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that
may occur.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally.For example, in a complex
user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and
workflow between screens.

34. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new
release is built.

35. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality
before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development approach.

36. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers
before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs,
checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.
37. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing

Answer: c
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.

38. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.

39. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff

Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.

40. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in
some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.

41. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to
the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modeling
b) Expert judgments
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from
historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
42. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is
available
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code
size but are often still inaccurate.

43. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have
been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modeling
b) Expert judgments
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.

44. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.

45. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgments

Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. If
the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is
estimated to be 60 person-months.

46. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been
established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of
source code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven
multipliers.

47. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or
program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

48. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse,
etc
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that
produce increasingly detailed software estimates.

49. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?

a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics

Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.

50. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of

a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code

Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.

51. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written
on functions points since then.

52. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

Answer: c
Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal
Logical Files and External Interface Files.

53. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.

54. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.

a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box

Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner workings of
a particular software component.

55. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

56. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always
subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage
projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%),
moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity
and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these
are to be assessed.

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process
proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage
different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the
attribute than can be measured.
11. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project
duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

13. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) Defined milestones
c) Defined responsibilities
d) Defined outcomes

Answer: c
Explanation: These responsibilities are domain specific.

14. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must
be accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

15. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
16. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process
should be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

Answer: b
Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor are: casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction.

17. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project
scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

18. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality

Answer: b
Explanation: These can vary from client to client.

19. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software
development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM

Answer: d
Explanation: Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) are
two project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development.

20. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as

a) BCWS
b) EVA
c) BAC
d) CBSE

Answer: b
Explanation: The earned value system provides a common value scale for every task, regardless of
the type of work being performed. The total hours to do the whole project are estimated, and every
task is given an earned value based on its estimated percentage of the total.

21. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20

Answer: a
Explanation: A recommended distribution of effort across the software process is 40% (analysis and
design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing).

22. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by

a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an industrial
engineer in 1917.

23. What is Scheduling?

a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

24. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences
between given input and expected output.

25. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program
module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible
paths through the module.

26. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?

a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or
system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior
over time. It contains lower and upper limits.

27. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing

Answer: c
Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software
needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this
enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.

28. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component.
Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in
structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.

29. Exhaustive testing is

a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible

Answer: c
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test
data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.
testing.
30. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box
technique.

31. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.

32. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and
checks the output with expected output.

33. Alpha testing is done at

a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and
note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete.
Minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.

34. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

a) To minimize the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
d) To reduce probability of occurrence

Answer: c
Explanation: Hazard identification is the first step in risk assessment. The goal is to understand the
concentration of toxins, spatial distribution and there movement.
35. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?
a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels
c) Affected population
d) Estimation of risk

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at risk characterization whereas land use, contaminant level,
affected population and biota data play a major role while identifying a hazard.

36. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential source of harm.

37. What is the main objective of risk assessment?

a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
b) Remediation of contaminated sites
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants

Answer: a
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to understand possible problems and provides alternatives as
well as control measures to reduce the accident.

38. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-
handling activities may be planned.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b
Explanation: The main goal of risk management is to reduce the threats from an activity so that harm
to the surrounding is minimized.

39. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

40. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk

Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.

41. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

42. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on
which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software
engineering.

43. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

44. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software
is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.

45. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are
used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

46. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to
maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.

47. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

48. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

49. Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

a) Project planning
b) Project scheduling
c) Project controlling
d) Project being

Answer: d
Explanation: There are three phases of project management. These are project planning, project
scheduling and project controlling. Project management refers to a highly specialized job to achieve
the objectives of a project.

50. The full form of PERT is ___________

a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

Answer: d
Explanation: There are various network techniques that are called by various names like PERT,
CPM, TOPS and LESS. Network technique is one of the major advancements in management
science. The full form of PERT is Program Evaluation and Review Technique.

51. The full form of CPM is ___________

a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management

Answer: a
Explanation: The full form of CPM is the Critical Path Method. CPM networks are mainly used for
those projects for which a fairly accurate estimate of time of completion can be made for each
activity.

52. A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-oriented.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: A CPM network is activity-oriented while a PERT network is event-oriented. Event is
the completion of an activity or the commencement of an activity. An event may be head event, tail
event or dual role event.

53. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be
needed to complete an activity is called as __________
a) The most likely time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that
would be needed to complete an activity is called the pessimistic time estimate. This estimate does
not include possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.

54. In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest path.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is the time-wise longest path. The critical path in the Critical
Path Method plays an essential role in scheduling and planning.
55. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an
activity is known as _________
a) Free float
b) Independent float
c) Total float
d) Half float

Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to
perform an activity is known as the total float. Hence, the total float is the excess of the maximum
available time throughout the time of the activity.
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and
manage projects successfully.
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–
25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs
of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
 Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each
activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how
these are to be assessed.
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and
process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how
to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
changes to customers.
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of
the attribute than can be measured.
11. In a similar way to structure prediction methods models can be evaluated using RMSD to
measure the similarity between two molecular complexes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is only the case if an experimental structure already exists. Several
docking methods have been evaluated at ‘Critical Assessment of Structure Prediction 2’
(CASP2) for both protein-ligand and protein-protein interactions.
12. In practical circumstances there exists an experimental structure of the complex.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In practical circumstances an experimental structure of the complex does not
already exist. Some other evaluation criteria are needed. This is by necessity experimental
validation. The hypothetical protein-biomolecular complex predicts a mode of interaction
between the two molecules that can be tested experimentally.
13. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
14. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.
15. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
16. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and
manage projects successfully.
17. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–
25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
18. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs
of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each
activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
19. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how
these are to be assessed.
20. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and
process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how
to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
changes to customers.
21. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.
22. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of
the attribute than can be measured.
23. A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding
legal agreement is known as __________
a) job
 b) loan
c) contract
d) mutual fund
Answer: c
Explanation: A contract arises when the parties agree that there is an agreement. Formation
of a contract generally requires an offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual intent to be
bound. Each party to a contract must have capacity to enter the agreement. Minors,
intoxicated persons, and those under a mental affliction may have insufficient capacity to
enter a contract. Some types of contracts may require formalities, such as a memorialization
in writing.
24. _______________ contract is one that has automatic renewals until one party requests
termination.
a) Uniform
b) Evergreen
c) Moderate
d) On-demand
Answer: b
Explanation: If these are left unattended, they can have significant cost impacts with little
value. If these agreements won’t work for the company, the clauses stating the contract
automatically renews should be removed. If the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out,
alerts can still be set in a contract management platform as a reminder.
25. How are final contracts signed in modern business?
a) e-Signatures
b) Document scanning
c) Thump impression
d) Shaking hands
Answer: a
Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e-Signatures, have become crucial for businesses as
they seek to increase the speed of time-to-signature, e-Signatures are legally binding and
have the same legal status as a written signature, as long as it fulfills the requirements of the
regulation it was created under.
A contract management platform should include the ability to integrate with an e-Signature
software, or include e-Signatures as part of the platform.
26. An invitation to tender might not include?
a) Holiday packages
b) Preliminarie
c) A letter of invitation to tender
d) Design drawing
Answer: a
Explanation: An invitation to tender might be issued for a range of contracts, including;
equipment supply, the main construction contract (perhaps including design by the
contractor), demolition, enabling works and so on.
An invitation to tender might include:
• A letter of invitation to tender.
• The form of tender.
• Preliminaries.
 • The form of contract.
• A tender pricing document.
• A drawing schedule.
• Design drawings.
• Specifications.
27. Mutual mistake occurs when both parties of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: Each believes they are contracting to something different. Courts usually try to
uphold such mistakes if a reasonable interpretation of the terms can be found. However, a
contract based on a mutual mistake in judgment does not cause the contract to be voidable
by the party that is adversely affected.
28. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None
29. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a
software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
informally.
30. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None
31. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects
that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of
the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.
32. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
33. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries,
and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
34. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.
35. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely different domain.
36. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality
certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It is defined in all the mentioned options.
37. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
38. SCM stands for
a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In software engineering, software configuration management (SCM) is the task
of tracking and controlling changes in the software, part of the larger cross-discipline field of
configuration management.
39. When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an
a) hard drive
b) access-controlled library
c) servers
d) access control
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
40. Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
a) CM Planning
b) Executing the CM process
c) CM audits
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
41. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
42. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?
a) Version Control
b) Access control
c) CM Process
d) Version Control and Access control
Answer: a
Explanation: It allows software engineers to continue development along a branch even
when a line of development is frozen.
43. Which of the following is not a change management process?
a) Log the changes
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are required for a change.
44. Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client
a) True
b) False
 Answer: a
Explanation: None.
45. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and
agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Baseline
b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
d) Change Control
Answer: a
Explanation: In configuration management, a “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the
attributes of a product, at a point in time, which serves as a basis for defining change.
46. How are baselines verified?
a) By reviews
b) By inspections
c) By testing of code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to description.
47. Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?
a) SCM procedures
b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are covered in CM.
48. SCM controls only the products of the development process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
49. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
b) Change Control Baseline
c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
50. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?
a) Reasons for making the changes
b) A description of the proposed changes
c) List of other items affected by the changes
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to description of the product, changes require multiple
reasons.
1. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people,
process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None
2. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?
a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s: people,
product, process, and project.
3. PM-CMM stands for
a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model
Answer: a
Explanation: The people management maturity model defines the following key practice
areas for software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training,
compensation, career development, organization and work design, and team/culture
development.
4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?
a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design
Answer: d
Explanation: The design part of any project management is done by the project team.
5. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for
software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
 Answer: c
Explanation: A small number of framework activities are applicable to all software
projects, regardless of their size or complexity.
6. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an
application?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation
that occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: b
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently as other teams.
9. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management
Answer: d
Explanation: For this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders.
10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the
team members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
 c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
11. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical
Answer: d
Explanation: Critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation.
12. Which of the following is the valid component of the predictor?
a) data
b) question
c) algorithm
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A prediction is a statement about the future.
13. Point out the wrong statement.
a) In Sample Error is also called generalization error
b) Out of Sample Error is the error rate you get on the new dataset
c) In Sample Error is also called resubstitution error
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of Sample Error is also called generalization error.
14. Which of the following is correct order of working?
a) questions->input data ->algorithms
b) questions->evaluation ->algorithms
c) evaluation->input data ->algorithms
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Evaluation is done in the last.
15. Which of the following shows correct relative order of importance?
a) question->features->data->algorithms
b) question->data->features->algorithms
 c) algorithms->data->features->question
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Garbage in should be equal to garbage out.
16. Point out the correct statement.
a) In Sample Error is the error rate you get on the same dataset used to model a predictor
b) Data have two parts-signal and noise
c) The goal of predictor is to find signal
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Perfect in sample prediction can be built.
17. Which of the following is characteristic of best machine learning method?
a) Fast
b) Accuracy
c) Scalable
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: There is always a trade-off in prediction accuracy.
18. True positive means correctly rejected.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: True positive means correctly identified.
19. Which of the following trade-off occurs during prediction?
a) Speed vs Accuracy
b) Simplicity vs Accuracy
c) Scalability vs Accuracy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Interpretability also matters during prediction.
20. Which of the following expression is true?
a) In sample error < out sample error
b) In sample error > out sample error
 c) In sample error = out sample error
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of sample error is given more importance.
21. Backtesting is a key component of effective trading-system development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Backtesting is the process of applying a trading strategy or analytical
method to historical data to see how accurately the strategy or method would have
predicted actual results.

22. Interviews are conversations with _______

a) fun
b) purpose
c) friendliness
d) informality

Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Interviews are conversations with purpose. For the
employer the purpose is to determine the most suitable person for the job.

23. A job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Interview is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job interview is
a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.

24. All job interviews have the same objective.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. All job interviews have the same objective, but employers
reach that objective in a variety of ways.

25. Which of these is not a type of interview?

a) Screening interview
b) Stress interview
c) Music interview
d) Lunch interview
Answer: c
Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: They are Screening interview, stress interview,
behavioural interview, the audition, group interview, telephone, lunch interview, video interview
and sequential interview.

26. Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is
evaluated?
a) Stress interview
b) Screening interview
c) Group interview
d) Behavioural interview

Answer: b
Explanation: In the screening interview, companies use screening tools to ensure that candidates
meet minimum qualification requirements.

27. How many styles are used in a screening interview?

a) Two
b) Five
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: a
Explanation: There are two styles used in a screening interview. They are: the directive style and
the meandering style.

28. In which of these interviews, insults are common?

a) Screening interview
b) Stress interview
c) Behavioural interview
d) Group interview

Answer: b
Explanation: In stress interview, insults and miscommunication is common. All this is designed
to see whether you have the mettle to withstand the company culture or other potential stress.

29. Which of these interviews is adapted for computer programmers?

a) The stress interview
b) The group interview
c) The screening interview
d) The audition

Answer: d
Explanation: For some positions such as computer programmers or trainers, companies want to
see you in action before they make their decision. Here, the audition type is adapted.

30. In which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed?

a) The behavioural interview
b) The stress interview
c) The group interview
d) The audition

Answer: c
Explanation: In group interview, more than one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing
simultaneously with other candidates can be disconcerting, but it provides the company with a
sense of your leadership potential and style.

31. Which of these interviews is taken for a candidate far away?

a) Lunch interview
b) Telephone
c) Stress interview
d) Group interview

Answer: b
Explanation: Many organizations will conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a field of
candidates. Telephone interviews may also be used as a preliminary interview for candidates
who live far away.
32. Which of the following is the numerator of factor safety formula?
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Ultimate stress
Answer: d
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. It is
also called as factor of ignorance. The factor of safety is dependent on the type of load.
33. Which of the following can be the factor of safety for a dead load?
a) 6
b) 2
c) 4
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: For dead load, the range in which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5.
Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 are all values which are beyond that range.
34. Which of the following can be the factor of safety for shock loading?
a) 11
b) 13
c) 4
d) 7
Answer: b
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15.
Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, 7 are all values which are beyond that
range.
35. Factor of safety is used to find out the reliability of the design.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about how much load the material can take before it
fails. Basically, it states the load carrying capacity of a material beyond the actual load.
36. What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?
a) It means that the structure will fail under load
b) It means that the structure will only support the actual load
c) it means that the structure will support more than the actual load
d) There is no relation between factor safety and load application
 Answer: b
Explanation: When the factor of safety is one it means that the ultimate stress is equal to
the working stress and therefore the body can only support load up to actual load and no
more before failing.
37. For which of the following design factor of safety the design will work properly?
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0.9
Answer: c
Explanation: If the design factor of safety is not more than 1 then the design may not
work and will fail under certain conditions.
38. What is a safe factor of failure for a component which on failure can result in financial
loss or serious injury?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: For components which on failing can be hazardous and can lead to serious
injuries, death and financial loss, the factor of safety should be taken equal to or more
than 4.
39. Design factor for most aircraft structures is 2.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The design factor of safety for most aircraft structures or components is
taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors affect this value, but it is most of the time taken as
1.5.
40. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or
clients irrespective of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as
patents, copyright, etc.
41. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
42. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per
the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the
highest professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the
client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
43. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the
system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
44. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their
client and employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products
and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible.Thus options a
& c are ruled out.
45. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
 c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Answer: c
Explanation:None.
46. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software
company.
47. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53%
overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are
94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a
covers them both.
48. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing
working atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a
part of software development process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. Thus
option c answers the question.
49. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the
quality of the product.
50. Fading channel has memory.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Fading channel has memory and the received samples are correlated
with each other in time.
51. How can frequency selective distortion be minimized?
a) By using pilot signal
b) By adaptive equalization
c) By spread spectrum
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency selective distortion can be minimized by using adaptive
equalization, by using spread spectrum, by using pilot signal and also by using
orthogonal FDM modulation.
52. How can slow fading be minimized?
a) By diversity technique
b) Error correcting codes
c) By diversity technique & Error correcting codes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Slow fading can be minimized by using error correcting codes and also
by using diversity technique to get additional uncorrelated estimates of a signal.
53. Fast fading can be minimized by
a) Robust modulation
b) Coding and interleaving
c) Robust modulation, Coding and interleaving
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Fast fading can be minimized by using coding and interleaving, by using
robust modulation and by introducing signal redundancy to increase signalling rate.
54. The decision feedback equalizer has a linear traversal filter which is
a) Feed forward section
b) Feedback section
c) Feed forward section & Feedback section
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The decision feedback filter has a feed forward section which is a linear
traversal filter.
55. Decision making needs
a) Priors
b) Likelihoods
c) Priors & Likelihoods
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision making needs both priors and likelihoods and Bayes decision rule
combines them to achieve minimum probability of error.
56. Why is Software architecture so important?
a) Communication among stakeholders
b) Early Design decisions
c) Transferable abstraction of a system
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to be important are all the mentioned above.
57. Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication?
a) Each stakeholder of a software system is concerned with different characteristics of the
system affected by architecture
b) Architecture provides a common language in which different concerns can be
expressed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are correct.
58. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?
a) An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture
b) The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components
c) An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed
components
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the
structural decisions described by the architecture, the implementation must be divided
into prescribed components.
59. Why does architecture dictates organizational structure?
a) Architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which becomes
engraved in the development project structure
b) An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions
 described by the architecture
c) Architecture may not describe structure as whole
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Architecture describes the structure of the system being developed
which becomes engraved in the development project structure.
60. Which of the following is right dependence relationship?
a) Performance depends on how strongly components are coupled with other components
in system
b) Re-usability depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-component
communication and coordination
c) Modifiability depends on system’s modularization
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Performance depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-
component communication and coordination, re-usability depends on how strongly
components are coupled with other components in system and modifiability depends
on system’s modularization.
61. Which of the following is correct for decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation
affect system quality
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation
may or may not affect system quality
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding,implementation
does not affect system quality
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding,
implementation affect system quality
62. Is it possible to make quality predictions about a system based solely on evaluation of its
architecture?
a) Yes
b) No
c) May be
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes it is possible to make quality predictions about a system based
solely on evaluation of its architecture.
63. Every possible architecture partition possible changes into which of the following
categories?
 a) Local
b) Non Local
c) Architectural
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are true.
64. Which change is accomplished by modifying a single component?
a) A local change
b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A local change is accomplished by modifying a single component.
65. An architecture help in evolutionary prototyping in which of the following ways?
a) Potential performance problem can be identified early in the product’s life cycle
b) The system is executable early in the product’s life cycle
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: All the mentioned are the valid ways.
66. Which of the following are software structures?
a) Module Structure
b) Conceptual or logical structure
c) Process structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are the valid structures.
67. Which structure describes units as abstraction of system’s functional requirements?
a) Conceptual structure
b) Module structure
c) Physical structure
d) Calls structure
Answer: a
Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes units as abstraction of system’s
functional requirements.
68. Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view?
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure
 c) Uses Structure
d) Data flow
Answer: b
Explanation: Process Structure-view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual
view.
69. Which structure’s view shows the mapping of software onto hardware?
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure
c) Physical Structure
d) Class Structure
Answer: c
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows the mapping of software onto hardware.
70. Which structure describes units are programs or module?
a) Calls Structure
b) Uses Structure
c) Data Flow
d) Control Flow
Answer: d
Explanation: Control Flow-structure describes units are programs or module.
71. Which of these is the external sound present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise
b) Semantic problems
c) Cultural barriers
d) Over communication
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise is the external sounds present in the channels of
communication, which results in the reduction of the audibility or omission of
some words from the message.
72. Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?
a) Noise
b) Planning
c) Semantic problems
d) Wrong assumptions
 Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of planning must be avoided for effects communication. There
are innumerable examples of people who would give an ill planned, long winding
lecture while a short presentation with tables or graphs would be sufficient.
73. __________ are problems arising from expression.
a) Cultural barriers
b) Semantic problems
c) Wrong assumptions
d) Selecting perception
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Semantic problems are problems arising
from expression or transmission of meaning in communication
74. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Both encoding and decoding of message are
influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a very important role in our lives.
75. In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted
information?
a) Selecting perception
b) Over communication
c) Under communication
d) Filtering
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case of over communication, the actual message is lost in the
jungle of information whereas in under communication the sender is blamed for
sharing less information
76. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Communication should serve as a conflict-
 reduction exercise. When people start competing for the fulfillment of their
narrow interests communication suffers.
77. _______ means to impart understanding of the message.
a) Encoding
b) Receiver
c) Decoding
d) Feedback
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Decoding means to impart understanding
of the message. Receiver has to identify the person, words symbols, etc..
78. When is the communication process complete?
a) When the sender transmits the message
b) When the message enters the channel
c) When the message leaves the channel
d) When the receiver understands the message.
Answer: d
Explanation: Communication is complete only when the receiver understands the
message. Many communication problems arise because of misunderstandings.
79. ______ is the first enemy of communication.
a) Noise
b) Clarity
c) Politeness
d) Completeness
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise is the first and foremost enemy of
communication. Every possible effort must be made to eliminate the element of
noise that distorts communication.
80. Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?
a) Sharing of activity
b) Listening
c) Ambiguity
d) Politeness
 Answer: c
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided. Clarity and crispness of the message is
very important. The sender of the message should be careful to see that the
receiver does not have to go beyond the text of the message.
81. Which of these is not a commandment of effective communication?
a) Clarity in language
b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills
d) Adequate medium
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to ensure an effective communication one must take care of
ten commandments: Clarity in language, home communication skills, listen
attentively, etc..

82. ___________ is increasing Leadership rapidly:

A. Strategy
B. Command
C. Control
D. Getting others to follow
Answer: D

83. Regarding leadership, which statement is false?

A. Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation
B. When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined
C. Not every leader is a manager
D. All of the above
Answer: B
84. __________ are the approaches to the study of leadership which emphasise the
personality of the leader:
A. Contingency theories
B. Group theories
C. Trait theories
D. Inspirational theories
Answer: C
85. The effectiveness of a leader is dependent upon meeting _______ areas of need within
the workgroup:
A. One
B. Three
C. Five
D. None of the above
Answer: B
86. Needs, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders
according to Adair’s approach, called as:
A. Work functions
B. Task functions
C. Individual functions
D. Team functions
Answer: D
87. The Ohio State Leadership Studies revealed _____________ and initiating structure as
two major dimensions of leadership behaviour:
A. Control
B. Communication
C. Collaboration
D. Consideration
Answer: D
88. _________ used the terms “employee-centred” and “production-centred” to describe
leader behaviour:
A. Blake and McCanse
B. Fiedler
C. McGregor
D. Likert
Answer: D
89. Identify the four main styles of leadership displayed by the manager which identified in
Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s continuum of possible leadership behaviour:
A. Tells, help, joins and leads
B. Commands, sells, consults and resists
C. Tells, sells, consults and joins
D. Commands, help, joins and leads
Answer: C

90. Contingency theories of leadership based upon:

A. That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
B. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
C. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
D. None of the above

Answer: A
91. Leaders with a low LPC score gain satisfaction from _______________ according to
Fiedler’s LPC scale:
A. Developing team relationships
B. Achieving objectives
C. Both of these
D. None of the above
Answer: B
92. Model of leadership based on which aspects of a leader’s decision is Vroom and
Yetton’s contingency?
A. Decision acceptance
B. Decision quality
C. Both of these
D. None of the above
Answer: C
93. An individual’s motivation is dependent on:
A. Whether path-goal relationships are clarified
B. Expectations that increased effort to achieve an improved level of performance will be
successful
C. Their effective performance
D. The necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided
Answer: B
94. A firm that chooses a cost-leadership business strategy focuses on gaining advantages
by reducing its costs to a level equal to all of its competitors.
True/ False
Answer: False
95. A cost-leadership competitive strategy helps reduce the threat of entry by creating cost-based
barriers to entry.
True/False
Answer: True
96. Cost leadership and product differentiation are so widely recognized that they are often
called generic business strategies.
True/False
Answer: True
97. Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will generally adopt what is known as a
functional organizational structure.
True/False
Answer: True
98. In general, economies of scale and diseconomies of scale are relatively easy-to-duplicate
bases of cost leadership.
True/False
Answer: True
99. The best example of a firm following a cost-leadership business strategy is
(A) Wal-Mart
(B) Rolls Royce
(C) Mercedes Benz.
(D) .Macy’s
Answer: A) Wal-Mart
100. Cost-leadership and product-differentiation strategies are so widely recognized that
they are often called
(A) common business strategies.
(B) generic business strategies.
(C) generic corporate strategies
(D) common corporate strategies.
Answer: B) generic business strategies.
101. Compensation at cost-leadership firms is usually tied directly to product innovation and
customer service efforts.
True/ False
Answer: False
102. Cost leadership as a strategy requires a firm to __.
(A). aim at a cost advantage in a niche market
(B). be unique in its product offering
(C). aggressively search out efficiencies to maintain the lowest cost structure
(D). aim to be similar to its competition in most operations
Answer: (C). aggressively search out efficiencies to maintain the lowest cost structure
103. Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will generally adopt a
(A) multidivisional structure.
(B) functional organizational structure.
(C) product divisional structure.
(D) matrix structure.
Answer: (B) functional organizational structure.
104. Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will have ________ layers in their reporting
structure.
(A) relatively complex
(B) relatively simple
(C) relatively few
(D) many
Answer: (D) many

105. One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may lead to
lower costs.
True/False
Answer: True

106. The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy includes:

(A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
(B). the inability to balance high differentiation and low price.
(C). excessive differentiation to
(D). loss of customer loyalty.
Answer: (A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
107. One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may lead to
lower costs.
True/False
Answer: True
108. The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy includes:
(A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
(B). the inability to balance high differentiation and low price.
(C). excessive differentiation to
(D). loss of customer loyalty
Answer: (A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete

109. Under which condition would a cost leadership strategy be especially effective?
Answer: Cost leadership strategy is more effective under the following two conditions;
1. When price competition among competitive sellers is too much.
2 When the products of competitive sellers is identical to your product and supplies are
readily available.
110. One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may lead to
lower costs. Experience effects are achieved by……?
ANswer: repeating a process until a task becomes easier.
111. Firms pursuing a cost-leadership strategy are typically characterized by?
(A) loose cost control systems.
(B) close supervision of labor, raw materials, inventory, and other costs.
(C) Both A and B
(D) a de -emphasis on quantitative cost goals and costs.
(E). None of these
Answer: B) close supervision of labor, raw materials, inventory, and other costs.
112. What must a cost-leadership strategy accomplish to be successful?
(A). It must increase the firm’s cost above that of its competitors while offering adequate value.
(B. It must reduce the firm’s cost below that of its competitors while offering superior value.
(C). Both A and B
(D). It must reduce the firm’s cost below that of its competitors while offering adequate value.
(E). None of these
Answer: (D). It must reduce the firm's cost below that of its competitors while offering
adequate value.

113. Organisational behaviour is_______

a) A science

b) An art

c) A science as well as an art

d) None of the above

Answer: c) A science as well as an art

114. Communication begins with _____

a. encoding

b. idea origination

c. decoding

d. channel selection
Answer: b. idea origination

115. A study of the culture and practises in different societies is called _____

a) Personality

b) Anthropology

c) Perception

d) Attitudes

Answer: b) Anthropology

116. Forces affecting organisational behaviour are _______

a) People

b) Environment

c) Technology

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

117. Scope of Organizational Behaviour does not include ______

a. Leadership

b. Perception

c. Job Design

d. Technology
Answer: d. Technology

118. In present context, challenges for Organizational Behaviour are _____

a) Employee expectation

b) Workforce diversity

c) Globalization

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

119. Meso organisation behaviour is related with

a) Individual behaviour

b) Group behaviour

c) Organisational behaviour

d) None of these

Answer: b) Group behavior

120. Organizational behaviour focuses at 3 Levels-

a. Individuals, Organisation, Society

b. Society, Organisation, Nation

c. Employee, Employer, Management

d. Individual, Groups, Organisation.

Answer: d. Individual, Groups, Organisation.

121.__________ is recognised as father of “Human relations”

a) William Gilbreth

b) Hendry Fayol

c) F.W.Taylor

d) Elton Mayo

Answer: d) Elton Mayo

122. Some of OB’s challenges and opportunities include all of the following except

a) reinforcing the importance of traditional methods of management

b) offering specific insights to improve interpersonal and people skills

c) helping us learnt to cope in a continues changing world

d) facilitating the improvement of quality and employee productivity

Answer: a) reinforcing the importance of traditional methods of management

123. Hawthorne Studies is related to which stage of the organisational behaviour evolution?

a) Industrial revolution

b) Scientific management

c) Organisational behaviour

d) Human relations movement

Answer: d) Human relations movement

124. The field of organizational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of
leadership, effective team development, and______
b) Organisational control; conflict management

a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals

c) Motivation of individuals; planning

d) Planning; development

Answer: a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals

125. Organisational Behaviour is a field of study backed by a body associated with growing
concern for people at the workplace

a) Theory

b) Research

c) Application

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

126. Which of the following is not correct for the organisational behaviour?

a) Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management

b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach

c) Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behaviour

d) Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented

Answer: b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach

127. Contribution/s of human relations movement is/are

a) Great Depression

b) Labour Movement

c) Hawthorne Studies

d) All of these

Answer: d) All of these

128.Nowadays a lot of stress is being put on the __________ of the employee in the
organisation

a. Character

b. improvement

c. Behaviour

d. Rewards

Answer: c. Behaviour

129. The term ‘psychology’ is derived from the word ‘psyche’, which means ‘soul’ or
‘spirit’_______
a) Latin

b) French

c) Greek

d) None of these

Answer: c) Greek

130. The field of organisational behaviour is primarily concerned with _____

a) The behaviour of individual and groups.

b) How resources are effectively managed.

c) Control processes and interactions between organisations, external context.

d) Both a and c.

Answer: d) Both a and c.

131. The____________ is based on the environment. Though____________ like thinking,

expectations and perception do exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict
behaviour.

a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,

b) cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach

c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic approach

d) Cognitive processes, social cognitive

Answer: a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,

132. Organisational Behaviour is the study of _____________ in the organisation

A. Human

B. Employer

C. Human Behaviour

D. Employees

Answer: C. Human Behaviour

133. The Hawthorne experiment was conducted by________

a) William Gilbreth

b) Hendry Fayol

c) F.W.Taylor

d) Elton Mayo

Answer: d) Elton Mayo

134. OB Helps to understand behaviour of human in ___________.

a) work place and Society

b) work place only

c) Society only

d) Department only

Answer: b) work place only

135. OB does Not contributed to improve

a) Motivation

b) Efficiency

c) interpersonal relations

d) Communication

Answer: c) interpersonal relations

136. Due to emphasis on productivity & efficiency, employee are not allowed to work with
harmony with one another is a limitation of_____

a) Organizational Cultural

b) Organizational Structure

c) Organizational Behaviour

d) Organisational Value

Answer: c) Organizational Behaviour

137. Common uniform, canteen, office does not mean common treatment is a limitation of

a) Organizational Cultural

b) Organizational Structure

c) Organizational Behaviour

d) Organisational Value

Answer: c) Organizational Behaviour

138. Which of the following is not a contributing discipline of OB

a) Anthropology

b) Psychology

c) physiology

d) sociology

Answer: c) physiology
139. ____________ is a Study of individual Behaviour

a) Anthropology

b) Psychology

c) political science

d) sociology

Answer: b) Psychology

140.__________ is a Study of Group Behaviour

a) Anthropology

b) Psychology

c) physiology

d) sociology

Answer: d) sociology

141. ___________ is a Study of man, his work and Culture

a) Anthropology

b) Psychology

c) Social psychology

d) sociology

Answer: a) Anthropology
142. _________ focuses on the influence of people on one another

a) Anthropology

b) Psychology

c) Social psychology

d) sociology

Answer: c) Social psychology

 Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad
Department of CSE
Multiple Choice Questions
Subject Name/ Subject Code: Software Project Management (KOE-068)
Year/Semester: VI
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
UNIT I - PROJECT EVALUATION AND PROJECT
PLANNING
Q1. In problem definition, the use of the project is
a. Clarified
b. Identified
c. Elaborated
d. Distinguished

Q2. The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and resources,
identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific project is known as
… a. project management.
b. Software
c. Process
d. Activities

Q3) Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.

Q4) Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a. Specification delays
b. Product competition
c. Testing
d. Staff turnover

Q5) You are working in Career Ride as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the
risk of software failure?
a. Request a large budget
b. You will increase the team size
c. Track progress
d. None of the above.

Q6) Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules,
responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is
called as ______.
a. W3HH principle
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
d. None of the above.
Q7) Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four
P’s? a. People, performance, payment, product
b. People, product, process, project
c. People, product, performance, project
d. All of the above.
Q8) For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the developers
decide a roadmap for project plan?
a. Software Design
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing

Q9) Developing a technology is an example of

(a) Process
(b) Project
(c) Scope
(d) All of the above

Q10)) Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct
order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and
delivery a) 3-2-1-4
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 2-3-1-4
d) 4-3-2-1

Q11) Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

a) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
b) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
c) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
d) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

Q12) Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability

Q13) Arrange the following steps to form a basic Engineering Process

Model. 1. Test 2. Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6.
Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

Q14) Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management

a) Risk Assessment
b) Risk Control
c) Risk Ranking
d) All of the above
Q15) Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such
as ____.

a. lower profit margins

b. lower costs
c. less internal coordination
d. lower worker morale

16). ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software
work. a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users

17) Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact
of such bad event. (True / False)
a) False
b) True

18. A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same
requirement is implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above

19 ___ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right
option)
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution
d) Risk prioritization

20. ACAT stands for ___.

a. Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer
b.account,construct,accept or transfer
c.avoid,construct, accept or trasfer
d.none of them

21. The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting.What does SMART stand
for? a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
d. standardized, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely

22) A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same
requirement is implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above

Q23) __ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right
option)
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution
d) Risk prioritization

Q24) _ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project
sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the
project.

a. Managers
b. Stakeholders
c. Directors
d. Citizens

Q25). Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to
complete the project successfully.
a. scope
b. quality
c. time
d. cost

Q26). Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs
for which it was undertaken.
a. cost
b. time
c. scope
d. quality

Q27). Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved
with the project.
a. human resource
b. risk
c. communications
d. procurement

Q28). Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing
project information.
a. risk
b. procurement
c. communications
d. resource

Q29). What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for project
managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing projects. a.
time
b. resources
c. funding
d. skills

Q30) "All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects of their
projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization" describes the ____ best
practice for project delivery.
a. Use an integrated toolbox
b. Grow project leaders
c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process
d. Measure project health using metrics

Q31. ____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show
the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization. a. Investment
b. Active
c. Enterprise
d. Budget

Q32). A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary tremendously based on
the organization and the project.

a. project supervisor
b. project manager
c. job coordinator
d. project coordinator

Q33) In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed that the most
important project management skills seem to depend on ____.

a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved

b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved
c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task
d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved

Q34). Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations
skills.

a. capital skills
b. soft skills
c. light skills
d. hard skills
Q35) A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people
to reach those goals.

a. assistant
b. programmer
c. leader
d. manager

Q36) A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific
goals. a. manager
b. leader
c. programmer
d. analyst

Q37). Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project.
a. leaders
b. managers
c. stakeholders
d. supervisors

Q38). Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began with the
____. a. Great Wall of China
b. first space shuttle
c. Egyptian pyramids
d. Manhattan Project

Q39). During the Cold War years of the 1950s and '60s, ____ continued to be key in refining
several project management techniques.
a. NASA
b. the military
c. steel manufacturing
d. marine biology

Q40). The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a
project is called the ____ path.
a. essential
b. important
c. critical
d. vital

Q41) What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project
completion?
a. Scope verification
b. Completing a scope statement
c. Scope definition
d. Process Management in OS

Q) 42. An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the
key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative method is available but involves lot of risk.
What should the project team do?
a. Drop the alternative approach
b.Work out a mitigation plan
c. Procure an insurance against the risk
d.Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
Q43): That is the objective of project manager behind the study of the work processes on a
project.
a. Quality control
b. Quality planning
c. Checking adherence to processes
d. Quality assurance
Q44) which of the following is NOT an input to project plan
execution? a)Work authorization system
b)Project plan
c)Corrective action
d)Preventive action
Q. (45) The model serves as the basis for the creation of ______ for the
Software. (a) Design
(b) Maintenance
(c) Testing
(d) Specifications

Q46) Insufficient identification is a

(a) Technology-related problems
(b) Process-related problems
(c) People-related problems
(d) Product-related problems

Q47) In problem evaluation area of effort is identified by.

(a) Analyst
(b) Designer
(c) Coder
(d)Manager

Q48). When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable
steps, the process which you follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process
(c)Software schedule
(d)Framework
Q49__contains an analysis of what went wrong, what went right, and what you could have
done better in the software project.
Select correct option:
(a)Prepare closedown report
(b)Identify learning
(c)Identify reusable software components
(d)none

Q50) The three most important factors that influence project management are ___, ___and
___. a. Time, Cost, Scope
b. Money, time, budget
c. Time, staff, budget
d. None of them

Answer Keys:
Ans1 (a)
Ans2(a)
Ans3( d )
Ans4(c )
Ans5( c )
Ans6 (c)
Ans7 (b)
Ans8 (b)
Ans9 (a)
Ans 10 ( A )
 Ans 11(B )
Ans12 ( c)
Ans13 (a)
Ans14 (D)
Answer15 : b
Ans 16 .( a)
Ans 17 (b)
Ans.18 (a)
Ans. 19(a)
Ans 20. a
Ans 21.(b)
Ans.22. a)
Ans.23 a)
Ans 24 : B
Ans25 : A
Ans26 : D
Ans 27 :A
Ans28 :D
Ans29 : D
Ans 30: C
Ans 31: D
Ans 32: B
Ans33: D
Ans34: B
Ans35: C
Ans 36: A
Ans 37: B
Ans 38: D
Ans 39: B
Ans 40: C
Ans 41(b)
Ans 42(a)
Ans 43.(d)
Ans 44. a
Ans 45(d)
Ans 46(b)
Ans 47(a)
Ans 48(b)
Ans49(a)
Ans 50. a
UNIT II - PROJECT LIFE CYCLE AND EFFORT ESTIMATION

Q1. RUP was created by a division of

a) Rational Unification Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Q2. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False

Q3) The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is referred
to as the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined, and the
client’s requirements are elicited?”
(a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
((d) Implementation
Q4) In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is referred to as
a) Embedded
b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
Q5) Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change? a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Q6. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with each
phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis

Q7) __ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model

Q8) Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through
a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting
(d) None of given

Q (9) Technology-related problems include _____

(a) Overestimated savings from reusable components and new tools and
methods (b) Switching tools in mid-way
(c) Integrating different software products in cross-platform implementation
(d) All of given

Q10) Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of
Code). a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000

11) RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
Q12) . Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change? a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

Q13) Which is not one of the types of prototypes of Prototyping

Model? a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

Q14. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product

Q15). Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is
wrong? a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects

Q16) SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle

Q17) Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of
SDLC? a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

Q18) Object point method best suited for

Select one:
a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation
Q19) This term is least critical from customer view point
Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
c. Delivery timeliness
d. Milestones

Q20) Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

Select one:
a. Predicting clients demands.
b. Predicting software schedules.
c. Predicting software cost.
d. Predicting staffing levels.

Q21 ____ model is not suitable for accommodating any change

Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model

Q22. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

Q23 Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of
a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

Q24 ___________is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model

Q25. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ________________.

a.person month
b.monthly cost
c.person cost
d.none of them

Q26.For normalization purposes, the productivity of a project is measured in terms of ___ per person
month.
a.functions
b.function point
c.cost
d.functional point
Q 27 Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics

Q28) RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________

a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Q29 Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort

estimate? a) as estimates on similar projects that have already been completed

b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates

d)The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollar Q30)
What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right Automated estimation tool

a) Empirical estimation models

b) Decomposition techniques
c) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
d. None of them

Q31 What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics

c) Size-related metrics

d) None of the mentioned

Q32 A ------------is developed using historical cost information that relates some metrics to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic Cost Modeling
b) Expert Juggememt
c) Estimation by Anlogy
d) Parkison’a Law

Q33. What is the disadvantage of the Spiral Model?

a. Does not work well for smaller projects
b. The high amount of risk analysis
c. Additional Functionality can be added later
d. Strong approval and documentation control
e. both a & b
f. none of these
Q34 In which model the Project risk factor is considered?
a. Spiral model.
b. Waterfall model.
c. Prototyping model
d. incremental model
e. None of the above
f. All of the above

Q35 The spiral model was the first time proposed by

a. IBM
b. Pressman
c. Barry Boehm
d. Royce
e. both a & b
f. none of these

Q36-What is the most important use of the incremental model?

a. Customers can respond to each increment
b. Easier to test and debug
c. To use it when we need to get a product to the market early
d. Easier to test and debug & use it when we need to get a product to the market
early e. None of these
f. both a & b

Q37. The spiral model has two dimensions namely __ and __

a. diagonal, perpendicular
b. radial, perpendicular
c. radial, angular
d. diagonal, angular
e. both a & b
f. none of these

Q38) Which of the options is correct for the prototyping model of software
development? a. For projects with large development teams.
b. When requirements are well defined.
c. When a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
d. both a & b
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

Q39. In which model the requirements are implemented b through its

category? a. Evolutionary Development Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
e. both a & b
f. none of these

Q40) In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed

a. In the first loop
b.In every loop
c.Before using the spiral model
d.in first and second loop

Q41. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability

Q42. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system
? a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception

Q43 Each iteration in the incremental model passes through the

a. communication and modeling phases
b. planning and construction phases
c. deployment and maintenance phases
d. all phases

Q44) In a university, students are asked to develop software. Which model would be
preferable? a. Waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. Agile model
d. Code and fix model

Q45) an individual who plans and directs the work.

a Stakeholder
b. Project manager
c. Team leader
d. Programmer

Q46.which of the following testing strategy established during requirements analysis against
developed software?
a.Validation
b.Integration
c.Regression
d.System

Q47. The incremental model is

a. A reasonable approach when well-defined requirements.
b.good approach when a working core product quickly
c.approach to use projects with large development teams.
d.revolutionary model is not used for commercial.

Q48)The Incremental Model is combination of

_________ a. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall
b. Linear Model & RAD
c.Linear Model & Prototyping
d.Waterfall Model & RAD

Q49) Advantage of using an Incremental Model.

a. Customers can respond to each increment
b. Easier to test and debug
c.when there is a need to get a product to the market
early d.Both b & c

Q50) The Introduction of the software requirements specification states

the Select correct option:
(a)Goals
(b)Objective
(c)Design
(d)Goals and objectives of the software
Ans Keys:
Ans 1(d)
Ans2(b)
Ans3(a)
Ans4(a)
Ans5(d)
Ans6 (e)
Ans. 7) b
Ans 8(a)
Ans 9(d)
Ans 10(a)
Ans 11(b)
Ans 12(d)
Ans 13(c)
Ans 14(b)
Ans 15(d)
Ans 16(a)
Ans 17(c)
Ans 18(d)
Ans 19(d)
Ans 20(a)
Ans 21.a
Ans 22 .(c )
Ans 23(d)
Ans 24(b)
Ans25. a
Ans26. b
Ans 27 d
Ans28. d
Ans 29. d
Ans 30(b)
Ans 31(a)
Ans 32(a)
Answer 33.(a)
Answer 34 (a)
Ans 35(c)
Ans 36(d)
Answer 37(c)
Answer 38(c)
Ans 39( a)
Ans 40(b)
Ans 41. C
Ans 42. D
Ans 43. d
Ans 44(d)
Ans 45(b)
Ans 46(a)
Ans 47(a)
Ans 48(c)
Ans 49(d)
Ans 50(d)

UNIT III - ACTIVITY PLANNING AND RISK

MANAGEMENT

Q1. The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub process placed
in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
(D) None of the above

Q2) Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated to
produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
Q3 Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar nature whose
costs are known.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy

Q4). Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time
available. a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement?

Q5) A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law A

Q6) __ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

Q7) wo general notations used for scheduling are ___ charts and ___
charts. a.Pert, histogram
b.PERT, gantt
c.CPM,gantt
d.none of them

Q)8 __ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

a) Positive slack (+)
b) Negative slack (–)
c) Zero slack
d) None of the above

Q9) Which one of the following is a functional requirement?

a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned

Q10) Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from problem
specification? A.LOC
B.Function Point Metric
C.Bothg
D.None

Q)11. In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in
factories.

a. 1897
b. 1917
c. 1927
d. 1957

Q12. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project
activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format.

a. pie chart
b. line graph
c. bar graph
d. calendar

Q13) _ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or
customer request
Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up

Q) 14: Tool used for secure expert judgement

a.Peer Reviewb.
b.Delphi Technique
c.Expected value technique
d.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
e. DBMS Architecture
Q15) What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is
included? a.Create a contingency plan
b.Create a risk management plan
c.Create a WBS
d.Create sql queries

Q)16. PERT stands

a.Program and evaluation review technique
b process and evaluation review technique
c program and evaluation recovery technique
d.none of them.
Q17) Following method is not used for project planning
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart

Q18 There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures.

Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c. Two
d. None

Q19) Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project network diagram
and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished?
Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences b. The Activity
Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project c. The activity duration
Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of the project d. The activity
duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates

Q20) Which of the following is not the technique for network planning model
? a) PERT
b)CPM
c) Monte Carlo simulation
d) Hybrid approach tecnique
Q21) Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring
C.Project Control
D.Project Scheduling
Q22)
The particular task performance in CPM is known as
a) Event
b)Activity
c) Task
d) contract

Q23) This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring and Control
C.Project size estimation
D.Project cost estimation

Q24) Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A.project estimation
B.project scheduling
C.project monitoring
D.risk management
Explanation
Q25) In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based
on which all other estimates are made?
A.project size
B.project effort
C.project duration
D.project schedule

Q26) During project estimation, project manager estimates following

A.project cost
B.project duration
C.project effort
D.all of the above

Q27 ) Once project planning is complete, project managers document their plan
in A.SPMP document
B.SRS document
C.Detailed Design documet
D.Excel Sheet

Q28) Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?
A.Lines of codes
B.function point
C.Number of persons
D.Only A & B

Q29)What is PERT analysis based on?

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All of the above

Q30)Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a

project? A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay

Q31)What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract

Q32What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.

Q33)What is a critical path?

A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. It is a mixture of all the paths
C. It is the longest path
D. It is the shortest path
 Q34What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known
as? A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All of the above

Q35) Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time
for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y? A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined

Q36Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and
10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined

Q37)Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles

Q 38)What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?

A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above

Q39) _____is the associated with the Product Risk.

A. Test object
B. non-availability of the test environment
C. Negative consequences
D. Control of test item
E. None of these
Q40) one of the following factors affect the probable
consequences? A. Risk timing
B. Contingency planning
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk monitoring
E. None of these

Q41) ____is the Risk management most important jobs.

A. Project manager
B. Production team
C. Investor
D. Client
E. None of these
 Q 42 What is the PERT and CPM?
a) Network techniques
b) Assignment techniques
c) Project evaluation techniques
d) None of the above
Q43. What does CPM stand
for?

a) Control Path Method

b) Critical Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management
Q44. Which of the following colour is used to show the actual progress in bar
charts?

a) Red
b) Blue
c) Black
d) Green
Q45. Who introduced bar chart in
CPM?

a) Jane Gantt
b) Henry Gantt
c) Williams henry
d) Joseph henry

Q46). What does PERT analysis based

on? a) Most likely time
b) Optimistic time
c) Pessimistic time
d) All of the above
Q47). CPM is
the
 a) Time oriented technique
b) Event oriented technique
c) Target oriented technique
d) Activity oriented technique
Q48. What is difference between PERT and
CPM?

a) PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model b) PERT is an

event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique c) PERT is Project
Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method d) All of the above

Q49 The earliest start time

rule

Directs when a project can start

Regulates when a project must begin
Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
Compares the activities starting time for an activity
successor

Q50. Slack time in pert analysis.

a) Can never be less than zero

b) Is minimum for critical events
c) Can never be less than zero
d) Can never be greater than zero

Ans Keys:

Ans1 c)
Ans2(C )
Ans 3(D)
Ans 4(c)
Ans5 (a)
Ans.6 a
Ans 7. b
Ans. 8(a)
Ans 9 d
Ans 10 (B)
Answe11(: B)
Answer:12( D)
Ans 13(b)
Ans 14(b)
Ans 15(c)
Ans16. a
Ans 17(c)
Ans 18(c)
Ans 19(b)
Ans 20(d)
Ans 21(A)
Ans 22(b)
Ans 23(b)
Ans 24(c)
Ans 25 (:A.)
Ans 26(D)
Ans 27(A)
.Ans 28(D)
Ans 29( D)
Ans 30(B)
Ans 31(c)
Ans 32(b)
Ans 33 c
Ans 34(D)
Ans 35(B)
Ans 36( A)
Ans 37(B)
Ans 38(D)
Ans 39(a)
Ans 40(a)
Ans 41(a)
Ans 42(c)
Ans 43(b)
Ans 44(d)
Ans 45(b)
Ans 46(d)
Ans 47(d)
Ans 48 (d)
Ans 49(c)
Ans 50(b)

UNIT-4- PROJECT MANAGEMENT

AND CONTROL

1. Team Leader is responsible for all aspects of the project.

a) True
b) False

2. ___ manage hardware/software requirements for development, testing, validation, and production
environments.
a) Logistics
b) Labour
c) staff
d) none

3. ___ define testing procedures and certification process.

a) Software Support
b) Software Development
c) Software Management
d) Software Testing

4. Project Management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities
to meet the project requirements.

a) True
b) False

5. Interoperability has become a key characteristic of many systems.

a) True
b) False

6. Conducting structured meetings is a form of ___ communication.

a) Informal
b) Formal
c) adhoc
d) general

7. ___ encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing

system. a) Formal communication
b) Electronic communication
c) Informal communication
d) Interpersonal networking

8. Project implementation is the first stage in project development.

a) True
b) False

9. The ___ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.

a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

10. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in ___

phase. a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

11. The project charter is a __________time announcement.

a) two
b) one
c) four
d) none

12. The purpose of a ___ is to detail the work requirements for projects and programs that have
deliverables and/or services performed.

a) Initiation
b) Statement of Work (SoW)
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

13. IAPPM stands for ___.

a) International Associative of Project and Program Management
b) International Association of Phase and Program Management
c) International Association of Project and Program Management
d) International Association of Plan and Program Management

14. The three most important factors that influence project management are ___, ___and ___.

a) Time, Cost, Scope

b) Time, Staff, Stakeholder
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

15. PERT stands for ___.

a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

b) Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
c) Program Evolution and Review Technique
d) None of the above

16. ___ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

17. The _____________ documented in 1970 by Royce was the first publicly documented life cycle
model.
a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) None of the above

18. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the ___.

a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) None of the above

19. ___ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model

20. CMM stands for ___.

a) Capability Maturity Model
b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Customer Maturity Model
d) Common Maturity Model

21. Project scope, pros and cons are discussed in the ___________ phase.

a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

22. A semiformal way of breaking down the goal is called the ___.

a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) Work Breakdown Structure

23. Two general notations used for scheduling are ___ charts and ___ charts.

a) bar, pert
b) PERT, Gantt
c) gantt, histogram
d) None

24. The purpose of planning a project is to identify the sequence of activities as per their complexities
and dependencies.
a) True
b) False
25. COCOMO stands for ___.

a) Constructive Cost Model

b) Construction Cost Model

c) Constructive Capable Model
d) None

26. In ___ mode the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and interface
requirements. a) Organic
b) Embedded
c) Semidetached
d) None of the above

27. Budgeting in a business sense is the __________ allocation of available funds to each department
within a company.

a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) planned

28. ROI stands for ___.

a) Return On Investment
b) Rare On Investment
c) Return Of Investment
d) Return Of Idea

29. ___ is a standard method for the financial appraisal of long-term

projects. a) Net Profit Value (NPV)
b) None Present Value (NPV)
c) Net Present Value (NPV)
d) Net Price Value (NPV)

30. __________in a project includes software, hardware and human resources.

a) Cost
b) Time
c) Planning
d) Design

31. A _____________ provides the idea about the start and finishes dates of key activities or terminal
elements of the project.

a) Schedule
b) Implementation
c) Design
d) plan

32. PERT stands for ___.

a) Program Evaluate and Review Technique
b) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
d) Plan Evaluation and Review Technique

33. ___ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

a) Positive slack (+)
b) Negative slack (–)
c) Zero slack
d) None of the above
34. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed a Gantt chart.

a) True
b) False

35. ___ is example of automated scheduling tools.

a) Microsoft Project
b) ABT’s Project Workbench for Windows
c) Symantec’s Timeline
d) all

36. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as ___ of the schedule. (Pick right
option) a) Breaking
b) Crashing
c) Speeding
d) None of the above

37. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ___.

a) Person-Months
b) Plan-Months
c) Person-Years
d) None

38. ‘Work expands to fill the available volume’ is ___ principle.

a) Parkinson’s
b) James’s
c) John’s
d) None of the above

39. COCOMO model was developed by Parkinson.

a) True
b) False

40. If there is a certain probability that the objectives of the project will not be achieved, this risk should
not be reported to higher management.
a) True
b) False

41. Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact of such
_____ event.
a) bad
b) good
c) average
d) planned
42. When there are disagreements between the project lead and overall project manager, the same can be
resolved through ___.
a) Change control board
b) Implementation
c) Planning
d) Design

43. A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same requirement is
implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above

44. Tom DeMarco stated, “You can’t control what you can’t _________”.

a) Initiate
b) Implement
c) measure
d) plan

45. ___ is the statistics gathered over the course of the execution of the project.

a) Requirement
b) Software Metric
c) Software Plan
d) Cost

46. ___ is a software package used for preparing earned value analysis. (Pick right
option) a) MS Project
b) Primavera
c) Lotus Notes
d) None of the above

47. Status meetings and status reporting are required for a medium-size project.

a) True
b) False
48. ___ is a set of practices originally developed by Motorola to systematically improve processes by
eliminating defects.

a) Six Sigma
b) four sigma
c) SMART
d) none

49. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ___. (Pick right
option) a) Microsoft
b) Sun Microsystems
c) Motorola
d) None of the above

50. ___ involves activities like typical strategies, processes, techniques, and tools involved in containing
the adverse impacts of risks on the software project.

a) Software risk management

b) Software planning management
c) Software management
d) none

ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. A
10.C
11.C
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.A
16.A
17.B
18.B
19.B
20.A
21.A
22.D
23.B
24.A
25.A
26.B
27.D
28.A
29.C
30.A
31.A
32.C
33.A
34.B
35.D
36.B
37.A
38.A
39.B
40.B
41.A
42.A
43.A
44.C
45.B
46.B
47.A
48.A
49.A
50.C
UNIT-V STAFFING IN SOFTWARE PROJECTS

1. What are the concerns in Managing People in Software

Environments?
a)Staff Development
b) Staff Motivation
c)Well-being Staff during course of project
d) All the above

2. Which of the following is not included in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics
model ofwork motivation?
a) Variety of
skill
b)Significance of
the taskc)Quality
of job life
d)Autonomy

3. Organizational
behavior is
 a)A science
b)An art
c)A science as well as an art
d)None of the above

4. The field of organisational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of

leadership,effective team development, and
a)Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict
managementc)Motivation of
individuals; planning d)Planning;
development
5.The field of organisational behavior is primarily concerned with
a)The behaviour of individual and groups.
b)How resources are effectively managed.
c)Control processes and interactions between organizations, external
context. d)Both a and c.

6.The study of organisation behaviour has certain basic assumptions. They

are a)An industrial enterprise is an organization of people.
b)These people must be motivated to work effectively.
c)The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily
coincide. d)All of the above.

7.Which of the following represents correct sequencing of historical developments

ofOrganizational Behaviour?
a) Industrial revolution —> Scientific management –> Human relations movement –
> OB
b)revolution —> Human relations movement —> Scientific management
–> OB
c)Scientific management —> Human relations movement –> Industrial revolution
–> OB
d)None of these.

8.Which of the following is not correct for the organisational

behaviour? a)Organisational behaviour is an integral part of
management
b)Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c)Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of
behaviord)Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented

9.The is based on the environment. Though like thinking, expectations and perception do
exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict behaviou a)Behaviouristic approach,
Cognitive processes,
b)cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic
approachd)Cognitive processes, social
cognitive

10. Now a days a lot of stress is being put on the of the employee in theorganization
a)Character
b)improvemen
tc)Behaviour
d)Rewards
11. The purpose of job enrichment is to
a)expand the number of tasks an individual can do
b)increase job efficiency
c)increase job effectiveness
d)increase job satisfaction of middle management

12. Which of the following is not an example of Content

Theory?a)Maslow Theory
b)Herzberg’s Theory
c)Expectancy theory
d)Alderfer’s ERG
theory

13. theory emphasis that, Unsatisfied need can influence the behaviour satisfied one will not
act as a motivator.
a)Maslow Theory
b)Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d)Alderfer’s ERG
theory

14. Among the following which is not a problem in changing the attitude of the
employeea)Insufficient Information
b)Resistant by
employeec)Cognitive
Dissonance
d)Cognitive
Dissonance

15. Motivation
includesa)job
enrichment
b)Job rotation
c)Job enlargement
d)all of the above

16. The statement ―I don’t feel comfortable in crowdǁis an

example ofa)component of attitude.
b)Behavio
ral
c)Cognitiv
e
d)Affectiv
e
e)Positive
17. The statement ―I am going to apologies for my mistakeǁis an
example ofcomponent of
attitude. a)Behavioral
b)Cognitive
c)Affecti
ve
d)Positiv
e
18. In which stage of the team development process does hostility and infighting occur?
a)storming
b)forming
c)norming
d)performi
ng

19. What is the final stage of the team development

process?a)forming
b)storming
c)adjournin
g
d)performi
ng

20. Which of the following best defines the type of rewards that are distributed
toindividuals fortheir unique contribution to the team?
a)functional team rewards
b)competitive team rewards
c)cooperative team rewards
d)non-competitive team
rewards

21. Which of the following is not a type

of team?a)teams that recommend things
b)teams that organize things
c)teams that make or do things
d)teams that run things

22. What is the ideal size of a team in order for it to be productive and
successful?a)2 to 4
b)9 to 12
c)5 to 8
d)8 to 11

23. Which of the following best defines an organization where decision making authority is at
thetop of the organization and employees have little freedom to make their own decisions?
a)decentralized organization
b)centralized
organizationc)virtual
organization d)functional
organization

24. Which type of structure is also referred to as a team

structure?a)virtual structure
b)matrix
structure
c)horizontal
structured)staff
structure
25. Which of the following best describes functions that are advisory and supportive
in nature;designed to contribute to the efficiency and maintenance of
theorganization?
a)line
functions
b)organizati
onal
functions
c)matrix
functions
d)staff functions

26. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of

organizational peoplebecause;
a)It makes procedures cost effective
b)It helps in detecting the problems
c)It leads to product innovation
d)It assists in implementing new technology

27. The S in the acronym for SMART goals stands for

a)speci
fic
b)strai
ghtfor
ward
c)strate
gic
d)sour
ce

28. .A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:

a)Be time consuming.
B0Result in immeasurable objectives.
c)1 and 2
d)None of the above.

29. On her work team Michelle develops detailed tasks lists and work flow charts to help
her team members understand the steps involved in each project. She also maintains
the project calendar and receives periodic updates from each team member to ensure
that projects are progressing on schedule.Which role does Michelle most likely fill
on her team?
a)assessorb)organizerc)maintainerd)creator

30. Coasting on the group effort is termed .

A)inconsistenc
y
b)incompetenc
c)social loafing
d)dysfunction

31.A unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information

system provides to a user
e) Functi
onal Point
b)Control Point
c)Checkpoint
d)Cost trade

32. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

33. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

34. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

35. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

36. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

37. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

38. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

39. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

40. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

41. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

42. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process,
and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational
implementation.
a) True
b) False

43. Which of the following is not an effective software project management

focus? a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process

44. PM-CMM stands for

a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model

45. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design

46. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for
software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned

47. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the
project? a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned

48. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an
application? a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned
49. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that
occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

50. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?

a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management

51. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team
members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

52. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost

estimation? a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical

53. ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software
work. a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users

54. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development is
___. a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 100%

55. ___ organizations take the networked structure one step further by combining IT with
traditional components to form new types of components.
a) Hierarchical
b) Flat
c) T-form (Technology-based)
d) Matrix

ANSWER KEY
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. E
32.
D
33. B
34. C
35. C
36.
D
37.
D
38. B
39.
A
40. B
41. B
42.
A
43. C
44.
A
45.
D
46. C
47. C
48.
A
49. B
50.
D
51.
D
52.
D
53.
A
54. B
55. C
 SEMESTER VIII
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
Multiple Choice Questions.

1. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as

A. Project
B. Job
C. Process
D. Task
ANSWER: A

2. formalizes acceptance and bnngs project to an orderly end.

A. planning.
B. closing process.
C. control process.
D. executing process.
ANSWER: B

3. The Stepwise Project Planning has 0- steps

A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 11
ANSWER: B

4. Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of .

A. performance
B. change
C. time
D. strength
ANSWER: B

Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof

5. In type of system, system interfaces with the machine.
A. embedded
B. stock control
C. process control
D. information
ANSWER: A

6. Projects may be distinguished by whether their aim is to produce a or meet certain .

A. product, objective
B. product, tasks
C. tasks, objective
D. tasks and null objects
ANSWER: A

7. The first stage of the software project is a which results in a recommended course of action.
A. system driven project
B. software driven project
C. hardware driven project
D. objectives driven project
ANSWER: D

8. The second stage of software project is .

A. to create software product
B. to meet the objective
C. to make up resources
D. to close the project
ANSWER: C

9. In case of product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of .
A. functional requirements only
B. resource and non-functional requirements
C. functional and quality requirements
D. resource requirements only
ANSWER: C

10. defines what the end product of the project is to do.

A. product perspective.
B. Non-functional requirements.
C. Quality requirements.
D. Functional requirements.
ANSWER: D

Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof

11. is a system analysis and design method designed primarily to provide functional requirements.
A. SSTD.
B. SADT.
C. SGTH.
D. STDH.
ANSWER: B

12. Quality requirements in requirement specification include .

A. response time.
B. ease of using the system.
C. reliability.
D. a, b and c.
ANSWER: D

13. is record of how much the organization is willing to spend to the system
A. Resource requirements.
B. Functional requirements.
C. Security requirements.
D. Non-functional requirements.
ANSWER: A

14. Projects are by definition and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.
A. routine
B. non-routine
C. specific
D. controllable
ANSWER: B

15. is tabular representation of the expected risks in a project

A. Risk Table
B. Assessment Table
C. Time Table
D. Round Table
ANSWER: A

16. CCTA stands for .

A. central commission of telecommunication agency.
B. central computing and telecommunication agency.
C. central computing and telecom agency.
D. an NGO.
ANSWER: B

Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof

17. standards are needed so that various systems can communicate with each other.
A. Hardware.
B. Hardware and software.
C. Software.
D. Shareware
ANSWER: B

18. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a programme in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at
various stages of a project.
A. measurement.
B. system.
C. software.
D. testing.
ANSWER: A

19. The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as .
A. software
B. application program
C. deliverables
D. intermediate products
ANSWER: C

20. is the result of an activity.

A. Software.
B. System.
C. Control.
D. Product.
ANSWER: D

21. Product description contains .

A. name of the product
B. form of the product
C. quantity of the product
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D

22. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in .
A. PFD.
B. DFD.
C. PDF.
D. DDF.
ANSWER: A
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
23. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?
A. SCRUM
B. Extreme Programming (XP)
C. DSDM
D. Waterfall
ANSWER: D

24. Same generic fragment relates to more than instance of the particular type of the product.
A. one.
B. two.
C. three
D. four
ANSWER: A

25. is the amount of work that needs to be done.

A. Effort.
B. Energy.
C. Capacity.
D. Strength.
ANSWER: A

26. Project planning is an process.

A. continuous.
B. iterative.
C. time consuming.
D. conventional
ANSWER: B

27. In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential project there should be strategic plan clearly defining the organization's .
A. objectives.
B. rules.
C. conditions.
D. ideas.
ANSWER: A

28. The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry out a analysis.
A. price-benefit.
B. cost-benefit.
C. cash flow.
D. fund flow.
ANSWER: B
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
29. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the development project and all associated costs are .
A. operational cost.
B. development cost.
C. setup cost
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: B

30. Long term or benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify is called .
A. direct benefits.
B. assessable benefits.
C. indirect benefits.
D. intangible benefits.
ANSWER: D

31. will indicate when expenditure and income will take place.
A. Cash flow forecast.
B. Cost analysis.
C. Fund flow.
D. Technical forecast.
ANSWER: A

32. is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment.
A. Back period.
B. Payback period.
C. Cash back period.
D. Rate of Return.
ANSWER: B

33. Uncertainties are associated with .

A. products, processes and resources.
B. products, properties and resources
C. products, prosperities and resources.
D. products, processes and recoveries.
ANSWER: A

34. The availability of staff and experience will be under .

A. process uncertainty.
B. product uncertainty.
C. resource uncertainty.
D. profit uncertainty.
ANSWER: C
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
35. Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called .
A. activity model.
B. network model.
C. hierarchical model.
D. process model.
ANSWER: D

36. RAD is .
A. Resource Application Development.
B. Resource Allocation Development.
C. Rapid Application Development.
D. Rapid Action Development.
ANSWER: C

37. JAD is .
A. J2EE Application Development.
B. J2ME Allocation Development.
C. J2SE Application Development.
D. Joint Action Development.
ANSWER: D

38. The alternate name for Waterfall model is .

A. two-shot.
B. phase shot.
C. three-phase.
D. one-shot.
ANSWER: D

39. The first phase of waterfall model is .

A. analysis.
B. feasibility Study.
C. coding.
D. user requirements.
ANSWER: B

40. The spiral model is originated by .

A. B.W.Boehm.
B. B.W.Williams.
C. B.W.Britto.
D. B.W.Hackman.
ANSWER: A
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
41. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as .
A. extended Waterfall.
B. iterative Model.
C. V-Process model.
D. spiral Model.
ANSWER: C

42. prototypes are used and discarded when the true development of the operational system is commenced.
A. Evolutionary.
B. Throw away.
C. Operational.
D. Real.
ANSWER: B

43. is as when copies of input screens are shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used.
A. Simulation.
B. Annealing.
C. Mock-ups.
D. RAD system.
ANSWER: C

44. Partial working model is classified as .

A. vertical and horizontal.
B. vertical and straight.
C. bended and horizontal.
D. elevated and horizontal.
ANSWER: A

45. The scope of the deliverables for an increment is rigidly constrained by an agreed deadline called as .
A. sand boxing.
B. time boxing.
C. time delaying.
D. local delaying.
ANSWER: B

46. would mean the change can be implemented without software development.
A. One cost.
B. Total cost.
C. Zero cost.
D. No cost.
ANSWER: C
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
47. SSADM means .
A. Straight Systems Analysis Design Method.
B. Structured Systems Analysis Design Method.
C. Software Systems Analysis Design Method.
D. Solutions Systems Analysis Design Method.
ANSWER: B

48. Frequent redesigns of the code is often called as .

A. refactoring.
B. redesigning.
C. recoding.
D. rearranging.
ANSWER: A

49. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch?

A. Micro and Macro processes.
B. Inter and Intra processes.
C. Internal and External processes.
D. Small and Large processes.
ANSWER: A

50. What is SLOC?

A. Secret Lines of Code.
B. Source Lines of Code.
C. Selected Lines of Code.
D. Suppressed Lines of Code.
ANSWER: B

51. Homogeneity refers to .

A. not similar.
B. similarity.
C. singleness.
D. house full.
ANSWER: B

52. "Work expands to fill the time available"is .

A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: C
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
53. The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from .
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: A

54. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from .
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's first Law.
D. Weinberg's Zeroth Law.
ANSWER: D

55. KLOC indicates .

A. hundred lines of code.
B. source lines of code.
C. thousand lines of code.
D. million lines of code.
ANSWER: C

56. Engineering practice to derive estimates of software development is called as .

A. algorithmic model.
B. software effort estimation technique.
C. software extra estimation technique.
D. Markov models.
ANSWER: B

57. The top-down approach is normally associated with models.

A. process.
B. product.
C. effort.
D. parametric.
ANSWER: D

58. Effort = .
A. system size x productivity rate.
B. system size x KLOC.
C. person in months / SLOC.
D. person in months x productivity rate.
ANSWER: A
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
59. The estimator seeks out projects that have been completed and that have similar characteristics to the new project is called .
A. code based reasoning.
B. case based reasoning.
C. case based analysis.
D. code based analysis.
ANSWER: B

60. UFP indicates .

A. unused function points.
B. unstructured function points.
C. uniform function points.
D. unadjusted function points.
ANSWER: D

61. Effort = c x sizek refers to.

A. parametric Design.
B. COCOMO model.
C. organic mode.
D. embedded Mode.
ANSWER: B

62. is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.

A. COCOMO III
B. COCOMO IV.
C. COCOMO II.
D. COCOMO I.
ANSWER: C

63. the degree to which there is a large dispersed team as opposed to there being a small tightly knit team.
A. Small cohesion.
B. Team cohesion.
C. Process maturity.
D. Team maturity.
ANSWER: B

64. is one of the objectives of activity planning.

A. Designing.
B. Detailed costing.
C. Cooperation.
D. Team work.
ANSWER: B
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
65. In the resources are not a constraint for each activity is.
A. resource planning.
B. schedule production.
C. ideal activity plan.
D. technical Plan
ANSWER: C

66. What is PFD?

A. Process Flow Diagram.
B. Product Flow Diagram.
C. Project Flow Diagram.
D. Procurement Flow Diagram.
ANSWER: B

67. PERT is .
A. Process Evaluation and Review Technique.
B. Product Evaluation and Review Technique.
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
D. Project Evaluation and Review Technique.
ANSWER: C

68. CPM is an acronym for .

A. Control Path Method.
B. Critical Path Method.
C. Cohesion Path Method.
D. Control Path Model.
ANSWER: B

69. The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called .
A. hijacked activity.
B. heuristic activity.
C. hammocked activity.
D. hole activity.
ANSWER: C

70. is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may be started and completed.
A. Backward pass.
B. Forward pass.
C. No pass.
D. Increasing pass.
ANSWER: B
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
71. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called .
A. action float.
B. terminal float.
C. free float
D. null float
ANSWER: C

72. The objective of is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events is called
A. risk management.
B. risk maintenance.
C. risk taking.
D. risky job.
ANSWER: A

73. A is an event that might occur and if it occurs, create a problem for the successful completion of the project.
A. planning.
B. hazard.
C. safety.
D. start.
ANSWER: B

74. = risk likelihood x risk impact.

A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure.
ANSWER: D

75. RRL is .
A. risk reduction leverage.
B. risk relax leverage.
C. risk reading letter.
D. risk resource letter.
ANSWER: A

76. WBS is known as

A. Wealth Breaking Scheme
B. Wealth Brokerage Scheme
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Work Breakup Structure
ANSWER: C
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
77. The impact of some risks can be transferred away from the project by .
A. risk analysis.
B. risk control.
C. risk transfer.
D. risk evaluation.
ANSWER: C

78. The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring outright miracles called .
A. Optimistic Time
B. Pessimistic Time
C. Most Likely Time
D. Shortest Time
ANSWER: A

79. PERT combines three estimates of time and obtains a single expected duration is .
A. te
B. tp
C. tm
D. ts
ANSWER: A

80. is proportional to the difference between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.
A. Activity Regression
B. Activity mean
C. Activity Standard Deviation
D. Activity Variance
ANSWER: C

81. The value in PERT is calculated for each node that has a target date.
A. x value.
B. y value.
C. t value.
D. z value.
ANSWER: D

82. simulation is an alternate to PERT.

A. Morris mano.
B. Monte Carlo.
C. Markov.
D. Hidden Markov.
ANSWER: B
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
83. talks about how to match the activity plan to the available resources.
A. Risk management.
B. Allocation management.
C. Activity management.
D. Resource management
ANSWER: D

84. A is any item or person required for the execution of the project.
A. risk.
B. allocation.
C. activity.
D. resource.
ANSWER: D

85. According to Bob Hughes and Mike Cotterell, resources fall into categories.
A. five.
B. four.
C. seven.
D. two.
ANSWER: C

86. is a secondary resource. .

A. Money.
B. Time.
C. Materials.
D. Labour
ANSWER: A

87. "Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called as .
A. likelihood.
B. activity schedule.
C. probability.
D. planning.
ANSWER: A

88. In activities are allocated resources in ascending order of total float.

A. total free priority.
B. total float priority.
C. technical float priority.
D. top float priority
ANSWER: B
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
89. is the selection of individuals in which the final shape of the project team is taken into account
A. Independent building.
B. Construction building.
C. Team building.
D. Recruitment.
ANSWER: B

90. To know whether a particular individual is available when required is known as .

A. reliability.
B. consistency.
C. availability.
D. portability.
ANSWER: C

91. Activity plans can be illustrated using .

A. activity bar charts
B. activity pie charts.
C. activity ball charts
D. activity flow charts
ANSWER: A

92. represents expenditure that an organization incurs, which cannot be directly related.
A. Under head
B. Over head.
C. Top head.
D. Miscellaneous expenses
ANSWER: B

93. Cost schedule of an activity plan is represented by .

A. ascending steps.
B. descending steps.
C. sequence of steps.
D. reverse steps
ANSWER: C

94. is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

A. Product board.
B. Purpose board.
C. Project board.
D. Perfect board.
ANSWER: C
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
95. Check points of a project plan must be .
A. regular.
B. irregular.
C. random
D. fixed.
ANSWER: A

96. is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently augmented with activity floats. .
A. Bar chart.
B. Ball chart.
C. Slip Chart.
D. Gantt chart
ANSWER: D

97. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under process.
A. monitoring.
B. verification.
C. control.
D. visualization.
ANSWER: D

98. is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the duration of the project.
A. Gantt chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Timeline.
D. Schedule.
ANSWER: C

99. The total value credited to a project at any point is known as .

A. earned value.
B. moral value.
C. money value.
D. recurred value
ANSWER: A

100. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as .

A. deciding monitoring.
B. monitoring.
C. tracking.
D. prioritized monitoring.
ANSWER: D
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
101. Risk management will occur in the step of step wise planning.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4
ANSWER: C

102. relates to the physical resources used when the software is executed.
A. Functionality.
B. Maintainability.
C. Reliability.
D. Efficiency.
ANSWER: D

103. Deployment diagrams illustrate the view of the system.

A. static.
B. dynamic.
C. behavioural.
D. activities.
ANSWER: A

104. A is a container-like element for organizing other elements into groups.

A. classes.
B. adornments.
C. packages.
D. activities.
ANSWER: C

105. are denoted by a hollow-diamond adornment on the association.

A. Associations.
B. Constants.
C. Messages.
D. Aggregations.
ANSWER: D

106. indicates the range of items in association relationships.

A. Multiplicity.
B. Adornments.
C. Roles.
D. Instructors.
ANSWER: A
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
107. Generalization/Specialization is implemented in Object Oriented Programming as .
A. polymorphism.
B. inheritance.
C. overloading.
D. abstract.
ANSWER: B

108. are building a software product.

A. Acquirere.
B. Developers.
C. Independent evaluators.
D. All the above.
ANSWER: B

109. An is a named property of a class that describes the object being modeled.
A. method.
B. constant.
C. message.
D. attribute.
ANSWER: B

110. A Class symbol in UML has chambers.

A. 4.
B. 2.
C. 5.
D. 3.
ANSWER: D

111. is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes,operations, relationships, and semantics.
A. Object.
B. Class.
C. Process.
D. Instance
ANSWER: B

112. will divide the domain of the task hierarchy in activity diagrams.
A. Swim lane.
B. Activity.
C. Interface.
D. Split.
ANSWER: A
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
113. is the task/process which describes the way in which the actor interact the system.
A. Class.
B. Flow.
C. Object.
D. Use case.
ANSWER: D

114. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
ANSWER: B

115. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

116. What are the Types of Integration Testing?

A. Big Bang Testing
B. Bottom Up Testing
C. Top Down Testing
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

117. Component Level is implemented using software tools.

A. client.
B. server.
C. middleware.
D. peer.
ANSWER: C

118. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
ANSWER: A
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
119. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors
and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White Box Testing
B. Grey Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Open Box Testing
ANSWER: C

120. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
ANSWER: B

121. Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases
A. Coding
B. Design
C. Requirements Gathering
D. Implementation
ANSWER: C

122. User Acceptance testing is

A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Gray box testing
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

123. Error guessing is a

A. Test verification techniques
B. Test execution techniques
C. Test control management techniques
D. Test data management technique
ANSWER: D

124. Histogram refers to

A. Bar chart
B. Run chart
C. Pareto diagram
D. Correlation diagram
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
 ANSWER: A

125. Pareto principle advocates

A. 20-80 rule
B. 80-20 rule
C. 40-60 rule
D. 60-40 rule
ANSWER: B

126. Which one is not Structural Testing?

A. Regression
B. Parallel
C. Acceptance
D. Stress
ANSWER: C

127. Testing comes under which category of cost of quality?

A. Preventive.
B. Appraisal
C. Failure.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B

128. Which of the following is not true about Incremental testing?

A. Top-Down approach can be used
B. Use of stubs or drivers are required
C. All modules need to be completed prior to testing
D. Bottom up approach is also possible
ANSWER: C

129. Which of the following is not a part of test plan?

A. Scope
B. Mission
C. Objective
D. Risk
ANSWER: B

130. Which one is not Statistical Tool?

A. Cause and effect Graphing
B. Stratification
C. Run Chart
D. Regression Analysis
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
 ANSWER: A

131. The 'V' represent the following term:

A. Verification and validation
B. Static testing and Dynamic testing
C. Black box testing and white box testing
D. Software development process and software testing process
ANSWER: D

132. Function point is a measure of

A. Effort
B. Complexity
C. Usability
D. Size
ANSWER: D

133. You are told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. You review the software defect reports, which categories the defects of coding
errors, requirement errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is
A. A histogram
B. A pareto diagram
C. A cause and effect diagram
D. A scatter plot
ANSWER: A

134. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process is
A. Pareto chart
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Histogram
ANSWER: B

135. The following are incremental testing approaches .

A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

136. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the terms as
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration
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 D. Ease of use and simplicity
ANSWER: A

137. Test Readiness review is conducted by the

A. Project manager
B. Test manager
C. Quality assurance personnel
D. User/Customer
ANSWER: B

138. To which phase will training cost fall?

A. Failure
B. Prevention
C. Build
D. Appraisal
ANSWER: B

139. You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a drop down box containing a list of values.
What kind of testing are you doing?
A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Load testing
D. Regression testing
ANSWER: B

140. Which is the reputed testing standard?

A. M Bridge awards
B. QAI
C. ISO
D. Microsoft
ANSWER: C

141. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceablity Matrix
ANSWER: D

142. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. ReTesting
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 C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
ANSWER: B

143. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: B

144. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: A

145. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hieraechy

A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

146. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
A. Usability Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Unit testing
D. Block Box Testing
ANSWER: A

147. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle
& Deals with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: C

148. Variance from product specifications is called?

A. Report
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof
 B. Requirement
C. Defect
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

149. White box testing is not called as

A. Glass box testing
B. Closed box testing
C. Open box testing
D. Clear box testing
ANSWER: B

150. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called
as
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Pie Charts
ANSWER: A

Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof

 MG6088 - Software Project Management
Multiple Choice Questions – PART -2
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget.

b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.

d) Avoiding costumer complaints.

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

a) True

b) False

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Testing

d) Staff turnover

Answer:C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management

b) Manager life cycle

c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned

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 Answer:C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low

b) low

c) moderate

d) high

e) very high

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?

a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team

b) project

c) customers

d) project manager

Answer:B

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?

a) Internship management
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 b) Change management

c) Version management

d) System management

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction

b) Process analysis

c) De-processification

d) Process distribution

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured
and the external quality attribute.
a) True

b) False

Answer:B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.

a) True

b) False

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability

b) usability

c) reusability

d) reliability
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 Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. RUP stands for created by a division of .

a) Rational Unified Program, IBM

b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys

c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft

d) Rational Unified Process, IBM

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What
does static perspective do ?

a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.

b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process.

c) It shows the phases of the model over time.

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
15. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.

a) True

b) False

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?

a) Transition

b) Elaboration

c) Construction

d) Inception

Answer:D
17. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in
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 software engineering ?
a) Software Verification

b) Software Validation

c) Software design and implementation

d) Software evolution

e) Software specification

Answer:A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
18. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software efforts.

a) True

b) False

Answer:A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
19. The longer a fault exists in software

a) the more tedious its removal becomes

b) the more costly it is to detect and correct

c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
20. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.

a) True

b) False

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.

i. Test

ii. Design

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 iii. Install

iv. Specification

v. Manufacture

vi. Maintain

a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3

b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6

d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
22. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?

a) computer programs

b) documents that describe the computer programs

c) data

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
23. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?

a) Baselines

b) Source code

c) Data model

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

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 a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization

b) A separate configuration management team for each project

c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
25. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects
that are created during the software process?

a) Change control

b) Version control

c) SCIs

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
26. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?

a) Software configuration audit

b) Software configuration management

c) Baseline

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
27. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and
libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?

a) System building

b) Release management

c) Change management

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 d) Version management

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
28. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?

a) Tracking of change proposals

b) Storing versions of system components

c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
29. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

a) Configuration item identification

b) Risk management

c) Release management

d) Branch management

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
30. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality
certification in

a) ISO 9000

b) CMM

c) CMMI

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
31. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use?

a) System building

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 b) Release management

c) Change management

d) Version management

Answer:B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
32. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?

a) User and Developer

b) Functional and Non-functional

c) Enduring and Volatile

Answer: C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
33. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library
management. What type of management requirement is being depicted here?

a) Enduring

b) Volatile

Answer:A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
34. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes

a) to the environment

b) in technology

c) in customer’s expectations

d) in all of the mentioned.

Answer:D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
35. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.

a) True

b) False
Answer:A
36. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It
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 may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.

a) True

b) False

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
37. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing
funding throughout a project.

a) True

b) False

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
38.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?

a) RTM

b) DOORS

c) Rational Suite

d) RDD 100

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
39. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?

a) Investigation
b) Design

c) Construction and Test

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
40. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement:
“the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example
information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection

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 b) Documentation Support

c) Graphical Representation

d) Automatic Link Creation and Change

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
41. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before
completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the
reason for such a situation ?

a) Poor change management

b) Poor requirements management

c) Poor quality control

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
42. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project?

a) Hardware and software costs

b) Effort costs

c) Travel and training costs

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
43. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?

a) Costs of networking and communications

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

c) Costs of lunch time food

d) Costs of support staff

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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 44. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics

b) Product-related metrics

c) Size-related metrics

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
45. A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric
to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling

b) Expert judgement

c) Estimation by analogy

d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
46. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is
available

a) True

b) False

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
47. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application
domain have been completed?

a) Algorithmic cost modelling

b) Expert judgement

c) Estimation by analogy

d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer:C

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-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
48. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model

d) An early design model

Answer:A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
49. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.

a) CASE tools

b) Pricing to win

c) Parkinson’s Law

d) Expert judgement

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
50. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements
have been established?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model

d) An early design model

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
51. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or
program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model
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 d) An early design model

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
52. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse,
etc.

a) True

b) False

Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
53.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.

a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is the requirement of most
software systems to work with a multitude of homogenous systems

b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the legal domain

c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but software does tend to
deteriorate as it evolves

d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to manage software projects

e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find that only less than 20% of
today’s software is still custom built.

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
54.Software Engineering:

a) Is a set of rules about developing software products

b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s

c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s

d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software production

e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established engineering fields.

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

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55.Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.

“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a company that specializes in
aircraft navigation control software. While orientating yourselves to the company’s work
practices, you observe that they in fact do not conduct a few tests that they should in order to
comply with the relevant safety standard. When you inquire about this from the project manager,
he dismisses it saying that those tests are really unnecessary (and takes an unreasonably long
time to conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they have managed with the other tests
for so long, without any problems.”

a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a complaint with the relevant
standard institution

b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide

c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know anything about the internal
processes and politics, you should insist on the company changing its work practices
immediately; failing which you threaten to report the matter

d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the internal processes and
politics, you should first find-out more about the issue and its background

e) None of the above statements are correct.

Answer:D

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
56. With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct statement.

a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors; exploratory development, and

throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary development based approach

c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the requirements are well
understood in advance

d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it facilitates easy project
management, through the high volume of documentation it generates

e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a reimplementation

of the system using a more structured approach.

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 Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
57. What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be considered to be engineered?

a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed

b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering, such as Civil) is an art – not a
science

c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge building that is an activity
that has millennia of practice

d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous discipline

e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster than we can understand it.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
58.The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is
referred to as the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and
refined, and the
client’s requirements are elicited?”

a) Requirements (b) Specification (c) Design

d) Implementation (e) Integration.

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
59.The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is known as the:

a) Developer (b) User (c) Contractor (d) Initiator (e) Client.

Answer:E

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
60.Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?

a) The techniques and case tools to be used

b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations

c) The life cycle model to be used

d) The organisational structure of the development organisation, project responsibilities,

managerial objectives and priorities

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 e) None of the above.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
61.The final form of testing COTS software is testing.

a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Alpha (d) Module (e) Beta.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
62.In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This is known
as
testing.

a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Regression (d) Module (e) Beta.

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
63.Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?

a) The speed with which it can be developed

b) The speed with which it can be modified

c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs

d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are of the ‘how not to do it’
variety

e) Its internal structure.

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
64.An example of the risk involved in software development is

a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete

b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with a real-time
system) may go bankrupt

c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete

d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent package

e) All of these are risks involved in software development.

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 Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
65.A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with
each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix

b) Freezing

c) Synchronization

d) Testing

e) Risk analysis.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
66.The degree of interaction between two modules is known as

a) Cohesion

b) Strength

c) Inheritance

d) Coupling

e) Instantiation.

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
67.The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is referred to as

a) Association

b) Inheritance

c) Polymorphism

d) Instantiation

e) Aggregation.
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
68.Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of cohesion may be defined as

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followed; “the output from one element in the component serves as input for some other element”?

a) Communicational cohesion

b) Functional cohesion

c) Communicational cohesion

d) Temporal cohesion

e) None of these.

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
69.A design is said to be a good design if the components are

a) Strongly coupled

b) Weakly cohesive

c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive

d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive

e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
70.If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of coupling.

a) Content

b) Common

c) Control

d) Stamp

e) Data.

Answer:C

71.Which of the following is a type of abstraction?

a) Data

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 b) Procedural

c) Iteration

d) All of the above

e) None of the above.

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
72.In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for maintaining
the detailed design and coding is
a) The chief programmer

b) The programming secretary

c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’

d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)

e) The back-up programmer.

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
73.Internal costs include

a) Developers salaries

b) Managers and support personnel salaries

c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers

d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel

e) All of the above.

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
74.Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a product include(s)

a) The creation of source code is only part of the development effort

b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot be measured for some
languages

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 c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC) be included as well?

D) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is delivered

e) All of the above.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
75.Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on

a) Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)

b) Lines of Code (kLOC)

c) Function Points (FP)

d) operands and operators

e) Feature Points (FeP).

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
76.In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is referred to as

a) Embedded

b) Semidetached

c) Organic

d) Multiplicative

e) Monolithic.

Answer:A

77.Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific phase of software
development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone

b) Project function

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 c) Activity

d) Task

e) Baseline.

Answer:B

78.The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software Project Management
Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is

a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development organisations

b) It is designed for all types of software products

c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific techniques

d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application area, development
team or technique.

e) All of the above.

Answer:E

79.The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by

a) Prototyping

b) Inspection

c) Simulation

d) Compilation

e) Debugging
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
80Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the same application
development, because
a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently

b) Different organisations may use different programming languages

c) Developers’ skills may vary

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 d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary

e) All of the above may be true.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
81.The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is

a) Fault-free

b) Delivered on time

c) Delivered within budget

d) Satisfies users’ needs

e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
82.Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was considered to be

a) ALGOL-68

b) FORTRAN 77

c) C

d) MODULA

e) SIMULA 67.

Answer:E

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 (MCQs) Question Bank on “Software Project Management”.

Subject Code: KOE068

UNIT-I : Project Evaluation and Project Planning

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always
subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule
or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage
projects successfully.
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%),
moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

6. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty

Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software
grows rapidly.
7. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity

Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases
refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.
8. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how
these are to be assessed
9. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.
10. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.
11. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential
magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification,
and maintenance problems.
13. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.
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14. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.
15. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection

Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step
toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.
16. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
17. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
18. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that
the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk

19. Purchasing insurance coverage for your project equipment is an example of ________ risk
response.
a) Transfer
b) Mitigation
c) Acceptance
d) Avoidance

Answer: a
Explanation:
This is an example of transfer as the financial risk is transferred to the insurance company.
20. A project manager is managing a pilot project of a short duration and has started the risk
management planning process. He has identified new risks and prioritized them based on the
probability and impact matrix. The project manager now proceeds to plan responses for the risks
without analyzing the risks numerically. According to you, this decision of project manager is:
a)Incorrect, as it is important to numerically analyzeeach risk so that it can be responded
properly
b) Correct, as quantitative risk analysis is a waste of time and not required if risks are already
assessed qualitatively
c) Incorrect, as quantitative risk analysis is important to calculate EMV for each risk and then
later move to risk response planning
d) Correct, as this is a short project and project manager might skip quantitative risk analysis if
he feels it is not assisting in the risk management process

Answer: d
Explanation:
The amount of rigor in the analysis is dependent upon the duration and complexity of the project.
For a project with a short duration, it may not be necessary to perform numeric (quantitative) risk
analysis.

UNIT-II: Project Life Cycle and Risk Management

21. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs
of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each
activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
22. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process
proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage
different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
23. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.
24. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the
attribute than can be measured.
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Project Planning”.

25. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to

requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers
and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
26. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification

Answer: a
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor
line. Each box is identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six
bins at the end of the line.
27. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None
28. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE

Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.
29. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
30. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to
predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.
31. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands

Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.
32. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good
historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

33. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.
34. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff

Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.
35. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in
some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.
36. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric
to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from
historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
37. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is
available
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of
code size but are often still inaccurate.
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38. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain
have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.
39. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.
40. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement

Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment.
If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is
estimated to be 60 person-months.
 UNIT-III : Activity Planning and Risk Management
41.Who is typically responsible for approving project charter.
a) Project Sponsor
b) Senior Management
c) Project Manager
d) Project Stakeholder

Answer : a
Explanation: Project Sponsor is typically responsible for Project charter
42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?
a)Repeats every week
b)Temporary
c)Definite beginning and end
d)Interrelated activities

Answer: A
Explanation: Characteristic of the project based on the project definition. Except the choice a,
everything else is a part of a project definition itself.

43.What does ITTO stands for

a) Information, Tools, Techniques, Outputs
b)Inputs, Timing, Tasks, Outputs
c)Inputs, Tools, Techniques, Outputs
d)Information, Tools, Tasks, Outcomes

Answer: C
Inputs, Tools, Techniques, Outputs

44. A project manager is validating the scope. Which Process Group is the project manager
working in?
a) Planning
b) Monitoring and Controlling
c) Initiating
d) Closing

Answer: b
Monitoring and Controlling During project closure the project manager reviews the acceptance
documentation from scope validation to ensure that all project requirements are completed.

45. Who is in control of the project during the Planning Processes?

a)Project manager
b)Functional manager
c)Team members
d) Stakeholders

Answer is: a
The project manager is in control of the project throughout the project life cycle.

46. The high level project schedule constraints have been determined. Which Process Group is
the project in?
a)Planning
b)Closing
c)Monitoring and Controlling
d)Initiating

Answer: d
The high level constraints of schedule and budget are determined during the Initiating Process
Group. The detailed planning is done during the Planning Process Group.

47. Which of the following is not true about project life cycle?
a)Cost of changes increases as the project approaches completion
b)Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the end of the project
c)Risk and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project
d) Cost and staffing levels are low at the start, peak as the work is carried out, and
drop rapidly as the project draws to a close

Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the beginning of the project.

48. Which of the following Process Groups should be included in all the projects?
a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing
b) Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling
c) Monitoring and Controlling
d) Initiating, Planning, and Executing

Answer: a
In every project, all five Process Groups must be included but the level of attention given to each
Process Group will be governed by the project manager depending on the project size and
complexity.

49. A project manager is working on a project to construct a new bridge. The resources report to
the functional manager and are mainly occupied with operational work. The project manager has
no authority to properly assign resources. What type of organizational structure is the project
manager in?
a)Functional
b) Projectized
c) Strong Matrix
d) Weak Matrix
Answer: a
Explanation : In a functional organization, team members are more concerned with their daily
functional activities than with the project activities.

50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?

a) Repeats every week
b) Temporary
c) Definite beginning and end
d) Interrelated activities

Answer:a
Explanation: Characteristic of a project is based on the project definition. Except for choice a,
everything else is part of the project definition itself.

51. How is a project life cycle different from product life cycle?
a) A project life cycle has no methodology
b) A project life cycle depends on the control needs of the performing organization
c) A project life cycle can contain many product life cycles
d) A project life cycle only includes specific project management activities

Answer: b
Explanation:
A project life cycle depends on the control needs of the performing organization. Choice C is just
the opposite, i.e., a product life cycle can include many projects through its life cycle, not the
other way around.

52 With respect to change, which of the following is the most important for a project manager to
focus on?
Undertake the change
Track and record the change
Prevent uncontrolled change
Inform project sponsor of the change
It is the responsibility of the project manager to proactively manage the project. This includes

53. Which of the following theory was suggested by Deming?

a) Apply continuous small improvements to reduce costs and ensure consistency.
b) Marginal Analysis
c) Expectancy theory - people expect to be rewarded for their efforts.
d) Plan-do-check-act to improve quality.

Answer. D
Explanation:
The Plan-do-Check-Act philosophy was proposed by Deming. Continuous small improvements
are part of Kaizen theory.
54. What makes Project Integration Management unique among the other ten knowledge areas?
a)It is the only knowledge area with processes in each of the project process groups (Initiating,
Planning, Execution and Monitoring and Controlling).
b) Integration Management is the only knowledge area where no resources are assigned as it is a
coordination function that is the responsibility of the project manager.
c) Integration Management is the only knowledge area that can be completed in the Planning
phase.
d) When closing integration planning, it is not necessary to have sign-off as it only delivers
subsidiary plans.

The correct answer is: a

Explanation:
Project integration manage has processes within each project process group and ensures that the
entire project is planned, executed and managed effectively.

55). What is the most important thing that a project manager should ensure during the Validate
Scope process?
a) Accuracy
b) Timeliness
c) Acceptance
d) Completeness

Ans: C
Explanation: Scope validation involves formal acceptance of the work deliverables.

56. The WBS for your project has been prepared and distributed to the project team members.
When execution begins, which document will provide the detailed descriptions of the WBS
elements?
a) Scope Statement
b) Project Management Plan
c) WBS dictionary
d) Project Statement of Work
Answer: C
Explanation:
The WBS dictionary provides detailed descriptions about the deliverables listed in the WBS.

57. Which of the following is not true regarding subdividing the work in the WBS?
a) Subdivide until it has a meaningful conclusion
b) Subdivide until it can be done by a single person
c) Subdivide until it cannot be logically subdivided further
d) Subdivide until it can be realistically estimated

Answer : b
Explanation:
WBS need not be decomposed until it can be done by a single person.
58 A project team is working on the network diagram of a project and wants to determine the
float of a project activity. Which of the following is the correct formula?
a) Late Finish-Early finish (LF-EF)
b) Late Finish-Early finish (LF-EF) or Late Start-Early Start (LS-ES)
c) Late Start-Early Start (LS-ES)
d) Late Finish-Late Start (LF-LS)

Answer: B
Explanation: Float is calculated by subtracting either the Early Finish (EF) from the Late
Finish (LF) or the Early Start (ES) from the Late Start (LS). Float for an activity = LS-ES or
LF-EF.

59. A sequence of tasks within a project schedule that has zero slack is called ________.
a) Critical Chain
b) Critical Path
c) Zero Slack Track
d) Network Dependency Diagram

Answer: b
Explanation:
The Critical Path in a project has zero slack, and any delays on tasks on the critical path will
delay the end date of the project.

60.If Earned Value (EV) is $550, Actual Cost (AC) is $650, and Planned Value (PV) is $600,
what is the Cost Variance (CV)?
a) -100
b) +50
c) -50
d) +100

Answer: a
Explanation: Apply the formula CV = EV –AC to get the answer. Note that although PV is
provided, it is not used in solving this problem.

UNIT:IV :Project Management and Control

61. Which of the following is not a project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always
subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
62. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule
or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

63. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Testing

d) Staff turnover

Answer: c

Explanation: Testing is a part of a project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

64. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and

manage projects successfully.

65.A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
a) milestone
b) goal
c) Gantt chart
d) PERT chart
Answer : (c) Gantt chart
66. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have
changed throughout the duration of the project.

a) Gantt chart.

b) Bar chart.

c) Timeline.

d) Schedule.

ANSWER: c

67. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually
accomplished?

a) Earned value (EV)

b) Planned value (PV)

c) Actual cost (AC

d) Cost variance (CV)

Answer : a

68. ________ is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

a) Product board.
b) Purpose board.
c) Project board.
d) Perfect board

Answer : c
69. Check points of a project plan must be _____.
a) regular.
b) irregular.
 c) random
d) fixed.

Answer: a
70. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under ___________ process.
a) monitoring.
b) verification.
c) control.
d) visualization.

Answer: d
71. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have
changed throughout the duration of the project.
a) Gantt chart.
b) Bar chart.
c) Timeline.
d) Schedule.

Answer: c
72. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as ______.
a) Deciding monitoring.
b) monitoring.
c) tracking.
d) prioritized monitoring.

Answer: d
73. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?

a) computer programs

b) documents that describe the computer programs

c) data

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

74. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control

change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

a) Baselines

b) Source code

c) Data model

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a

software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
informally

75. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

a) Change control

b) Version control

c) SCIs

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations

of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.

76. What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. Ensure that change is being properly implemented
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above

77. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

a. Project is on budget and on

b. Schedule Variance Index is 1

c. There is no schedule variance

d. There is no cost variance

Answer: D

78. Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
a) Cost plus percentage fee
b) Cost plus incentive fee
c) Cost plus fixed fee
d) Fixed price plus incentive fee
e) Firm fixed price

Answer: e
79. From a contract management perspective, the project manager must consider the:
a) acquisition process
b) contract administration
c) ecological environment
d) offer, acceptance, and consideration
e) a and b
Answer: e

80. You have been asked to assist the contract manager in drafting the contract for a large project
with limited scope clarity. Which type of contract would you suggest so that your organization
does not incur any financial losses?
a)Time and material
b) Fixed price
c) Cost plus fixed fee
d) Cost plus incentive fee
Answer: c
Explanation: In a cost plus fixed fee project, the seller can exercise control over the cost
rather than getting locked into a rate or a price. In a project with limited scope clarity, incentives
are hard to define and agree.
 SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT MCQ

1. The effective software project management focuses on four P’s – People, Process, Product, and Project.
(True / False)
Ans. True

2. People Management Capability Maturity Model (PM-CMM) has been developed by ____.
Ans. Software Engineering Institute (SEI)

3. ____ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software work.
a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users
Ans. a

4. Organization structure depends on the people working in it. (True / False)

Ans. False

5. Wheelwright and Clark define a continuum of organizational structures between two extremes, ____
organizations and ____ organizations.
Ans. Functional, Project

6. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development is ____.
a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Ans. b

7. In flat structured organizations, work is more flexible and the employee does whatever is needed. (True / False)
Ans. True

8. In ____ organizations, work is organized into small workgroups and integrated regionally and nationally/globally.
Ans. Matrix

9. ____ organizations take the networked structure one step further by combining IT with traditional components to
form new types of components.
a) Hierarchical
b) Flat
c) T-form (Technology-based)
d) Matrix
Ans. C

10. Team Leader is responsible for all aspects of the project. (True / False)
Ans. True

11. ____ manage hardware/software requirements for development, testing, validation, and production
environments.
Ans. Logistics

1
12. ____ define testing procedures and certification process.
a) Software Support
b) Software Development
c) Software Management
d) Software Testing
Ans. d

13. Project Management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements. (True /False)
Ans. True

14. Interoperability has become a key characteristic of many systems. (True/ False)
Ans. True

15. Conducting structured meetings is a form of ____ communication.

Ans. Formal

16. ____ encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing system.

a) Formal communication
b) Electronic communication
c) Informal communication
d) Interpersonal networking
Ans. B

17. Project implementation is the first stage in project development. (True / False)
Ans. False

18. The ____ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.
Ans. Initiation

19. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in ____ phase.
a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance
Ans. C

20. The project charter is a one-time announcement. (True / False)

Ans. True

21. The purpose of a ____ is to detail the work requirements for projects and programs that have deliverables and/or
services performed.
Ans. Statement of Work (SoW)

22. IAPPM stands for ____.

Ans. International Association of Project and Program Management

24. The three most important factors that influence project management are ____, ____and _____.
Ans. Time, Cost, Scope

25. PERT stands for ____.

Ans. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
2
26. ____ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.
a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Gantt charts

27. The "spiral model", documented in 1970 by Royce was the first publicly documented life cycle model. (True /
False)
Ans. False

28. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the ____.
Ans. Spiral model

29. ____ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model
Ans. b) Waterfall model

30. CMM stands for ____.

a) Capability Maturity Model
b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Customer Maturity Model
d) Common Maturity Model
Ans. A

31. Project scope, pros and cons are discussed in the initiation phase. (True/ False)
Ans. True

32. A semiformal way of breaking down the goal is called the ____.
Ans. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

33. Two general notations used for scheduling are ____ charts and ____ charts.
Ans. PERT, Gantt

34. The purpose of planning a project is to identify the sequence of activities as per their complexities and
dependencies. (True / False)
Ans. True

35. COCOMO stands for ____.

Ans. COnstructive COst MOdel

36. In ____ mode the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and interface requirements.
a) Organic
b) Embedded
c) Semidetached
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Embedded

3
37. Budgeting in a business sense is the planned allocation of available funds to each department within a company.
(True / False)
Ans. True

38. ROI stands for ____.

Ans. Return On Investment

39. ____ is a standard method for the financial appraisal of long-term projects.
Ans. Net Present Value (NPV)

40. Cost in a project includes software, hardware and human resources. (True / False)
Ans. True

41. A schedule provides the idea about the start and finishes dates of key activities or terminal elements of the
project. (True / False)
Ans. True

42. PERT stands for ____.

Ans. Program Evaluation and Review Technique

43. ____ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

a) Positive slack (+)
b) Negative slack (–)
c) Zero slack
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Positive slack (+)

44. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed a Gantt chart. (True / False)
Ans. False

45. ____, ____, ____, are examples of automated scheduling tools.

Ans. Microsoft Project, ABT’s Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec’s Timeline

46. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as ____ of the schedule. (Pick right option)
a) Breaking
b) Crashing
c) Speeding
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Crashing

47. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ____.

Ans. Person-Months (PM)

48. ‘Work expands to fill the available volume’ is ____ principle.

a) Parkinson’s
b) James’s
c) John’s
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Parkinson’s

49. COCOMO model was developed by Parkinson. (True / False)

Ans. False
4
50. If there is a certain probability that the objectives of the project will not be achieved, this risk should not be
reported to higher management. (True / False)
Ans. False

51. Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact of such bad event.
(True / False)
Ans. True

52. When there are disagreements between the project lead and overall project manager, the same can be resolved
through ____.
Ans. Change control board

53. A ____ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same requirement is
implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Defect

54. Tom DeMarco stated, “You can’t control what you can't measure”. (True / False)
Ans. True

55. ____ is the statistics gathered over the course of the execution of the project.
Ans. Software Metric

56. _____ is a software package used for preparing earned value analysis. (Pick right option)
a) MS Project
b) Primavera
c) Lotus Notes
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Primavera

57. Status meetings and status reporting are required for a medium-size project. (True / False)
Ans. True

58. ____ is a set of practices originally developed by Motorola to systematically improve processes by eliminating
defects.
Ans. Six Sigma

59. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ____. (Pick right option)
a) Microsoft
b) Sun Microsystems
c) Motorola
d) None of the above
Ans. c) Motorola

60. ____ involves activities like typical strategies, processes, techniques, and tools involved in containing the
adverse impacts of risks on the software project.
Ans. Software risk management

5
61. Software Configuration Management (SCM) is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software
process. (True / False)
Ans. True

62. A ____ becomes the basis to further elaboration of Project plan and the Software Requirement specification as
the project progresses.
Ans. Scope and Vision document

63. A ____ has a name, attributes, and is "connected" to other objects by relationships.
Ans. Configuration Object

64. Software configuration management is not an element of software quality assurance. (True / False)
Ans. False

65. Two types of objects that can be identified in configuration management are ____ and _____.
Ans. Base Objects, Aggregate Objects

66. ____ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created
during the software process.
Ans. Version Control

67. For a large software engineering project, uncontrolled change rapidly leads to chaos. (True / False)
Ans. True

68. The results of the evaluation are presented as a change report, which is used by a ____.
Ans. Change Control Authority

69. ____ helps to eliminate the problems by improving communication among all people involved.
Ans. Status Reporting

70. ____ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right option)
a) Risk assessment b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution d) Risk prioritization
Ans. a) Risk assessment

71. Project risks are those risks that could result in project slippage, budget constraints related issues, and resource
and customer requirement related issues. (True / False)
Ans. True

72. ____ threaten the applicability of the software product being built.
Ans. Business risk

73. ACAT stands for ____. Ans. Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer

74. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the project schedule will be maintained and that the
product will be delivered on time is a schedule risk. (True / False)
Ans. True

75. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the resulting software will be easy to correct, adapt and
enhance is a ____.
Ans. Support risk

6
 (MCQs) Question Bank on “Software Project Management”.

Subject Code: KOE068

UNIT-I : Project Evaluation and Project Planning

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

d) Avoiding customer complaints

Answer: d

Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software

engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the
project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking
action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition

c) Testing

d) Staff turnover

Answer: c

Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management

b) Manager life cycle

c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement

and manage projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low

b) low

c) moderate

d) high

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
(10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

6. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and
efficacy of estimates?

a) Project size

b) Planning process

c) Project complexity

d) Degree of structural uncertainty

Answer: a

Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the

software grows rapidly.

7. What describes the data and control to be processed?

a) Planning process

b) Software scope

c) External hardware

d) Project complexity

Answer: b

Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in

some cases refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.

8. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team

b) project

c) customers

d) project manager

Answer: b

Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and
describe how these are to be assessed

9. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?

a) Threats

b) Vulnerabilities

c) Consequences

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.

10. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment

b) Risk generation

c) Risk control

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be

generated.

11. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the
potential magnitude of that loss?

a) Risk exposure

b) Risk prioritization

c) Risk analysis

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

12. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

Answer: d

Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface,

verification, and maintenance problems.

13. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

Answer: b

Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

advertisement

14. Which of the following is not a business risk?

a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants

b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in

people

c) lack of documented requirements or software scope

d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

Answer: c

Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.

15. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project
plan?

a) Risk identification

b) Performance risk

c) Support risk
d) Risk projection

Answer: d

Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes
a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when
necessary.

16. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or
modified?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks

d) Development environment risks

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

17. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the
marketplace?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks

d) Development environment risks

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

18. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of
uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended
use.”?

a) Performance risk

b) Cost risk

c) Support risk

d) Schedule risk

19. Purchasing insurance coverage for your project equipment is an example of

________ risk response.

a) Transfer

b) Mitigation

c) Acceptance

d) Avoidance

Answer: a

Explanation:

This is an example of transfer as the financial risk is transferred to the insurance

company.

20. A project manager is managing a pilot project of a short duration and has
started the risk management planning process. He has identified new risks and
prioritized them based on the probability and impact matrix. The project manager
now proceeds to plan responses for the risks without analyzing the risks
numerically. According to you, this decision of project manager is:

a)Incorrect, as it is important to numerically analyzeeach risk so that it can be

responded properly

b) Correct, as quantitative risk analysis is a waste of time and not required if risks
are already assessed qualitatively

c) Incorrect, as quantitative risk analysis is important to calculate EMV for each

risk and then later move to risk response planning

d) Correct, as this is a short project and project manager might skip quantitative
risk analysis if he feels it is not assisting in the risk management process

Answer: d

Explanation:

The amount of rigor in the analysis is dependent upon the duration and complexity
of the project. For a project with a short duration, it may not be necessary to
perform numeric (quantitative) risk analysis.

UNIT-II: Project Life Cycle and Risk Management

21. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?

a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to

complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

22. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management
of a software system?

a) Internship management

b) Change management

c) Version management

d) System management

Answer: a

Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to

record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system
components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its
components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

23. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction

b) Process analysis

c) De-processification

d) Process distribution
Answer: b

Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and

bottlenecks are identified.

24. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the
value of the attribute than can be measured.

This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Project Planning”.

25. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented

approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a
project called

a) JAD

b) CLASS

c) FAST

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques

(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers

and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements

of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of

requirements.

26. CLSS stands for

a) conveyor line sorting system

b) conveyor line sorting software

c) conveyor line sorting speed

d) conveyor line sorting specification

Answer: a

Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a
conveyor line. Each box is identified by a barcode that contains a part number and
is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.

27. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important
software functions which is known as

a) Association

b) Decomposition

c) Planning process

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: None

28. The environment that supports the software project is called

a) CLSS

b) SEE

c) FAST

d) CBSE

Answer: b

Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and

software.

29. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort
estimate?

a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed

b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and

effort estimates

d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and
dollars

Answer: d

Explanation: None.
30. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a
potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?

a) Automated estimation tools

b) Empirical estimation models

c) Decomposition techniques

d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

Answer: b

Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived

formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.

31. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

a) Predicting staffing levels

b) Predicting software cost

c) Predicting software schedules

d) Predicting clients demands

Answer: d

Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.

32. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of
good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.

a) True

b) False
Answer: a

Explanation: None.

33. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project?

a) Hardware and software costs

b) Effort costs

c) Travel and training costs

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development

cost.

34. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?

a) Costs of networking and communications

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

c) Costs of lunch time food

d) Costs of support staff

Answer: c

Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.

35. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics

b) Product-related metrics

c) Size-related metrics

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful

functionality produced in some given time. Function points and object points

are the best-known metrics of this type.

36. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some
software metric to the project cost.

a) Algorithmic cost modelling

b) Expert judgement

c) Estimation by analogy

d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer: a

Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are
derived from historical project data and current as well as future project
characteristics.

37. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than

estimates of code size but are often still inaccurate.

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38. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy
application domain have been completed?

a) Algorithmic cost modelling

b) Expert judgement

c) Estimation by analogy

d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer: c

Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these

completed projects.

39. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components,
scripting or database programming?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model

d) An early design model

Answer: a

Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.

40. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.

a) CASE tools

b) Pricing to win

c) Parkinson’s Law

d) Expert judgement

Answer: c

Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective

assessment. If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are
available, the effort required is estimated to be 60 person-months.

UNIT-III : Activity Planning and Risk Management

41.Who is typically responsible for approving project charter.

a) Project Sponsor

b) Senior Management

c) Project Manager

d) Project Stakeholder

Answer : a
Explanation: Project Sponsor is typically responsible for Project charter

42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?

a)Repeats every week

b)Temporary

c)Definite beginning and end

d)Interrelated activities

Answer: A

Explanation: Characteristic of the project based on the project definition. Except

the choice a, everything else is a part of a project definition itself.

43.What does ITTO stands for

a) Information, Tools, Techniques, Outputs

b)Inputs, Timing, Tasks, Outputs

c)Inputs, Tools, Techniques, Outputs

d)Information, Tools, Tasks, Outcomes

Answer: C

Inputs, Tools, Techniques, Outputs

44. A project manager is validating the scope. Which Process Group is the project
manager working in?
a) Planning

b) Monitoring and Controlling

c) Initiating

d) Closing

Answer: b

Monitoring and Controlling During project closure the project manager reviews the
acceptance documentation from scope validation to ensure that all project
requirements are completed.

45. Who is in control of the project during the Planning Processes?

a)Project manager

b)Functional manager

c)Team members

d) Stakeholders

Answer is: a

The project manager is in control of the project throughout the project life cycle.

46. The high level project schedule constraints have been determined. Which
Process Group is the project in?

a)Planning

b)Closing
c)Monitoring and Controlling

d)Initiating

Answer: d

The high level constraints of schedule and budget are determined during the
Initiating Process Group. The detailed planning is done during the Planning
Process Group.

47. Which of the following is not true about project life cycle?

a)Cost of changes increases as the project approaches completion

b)Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the end of the project

c)Risk and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project

d) Cost and staffing levels are low at the start, peak as the work is carried out, and

drop rapidly as the project draws to a close

Answer: b

Explanation: Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the beginning of the

project.

48. Which of the following Process Groups should be included in all the projects?

a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing

b) Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling

c) Monitoring and Controlling

d) Initiating, Planning, and Executing

Answer: a

In every project, all five Process Groups must be included but the level of attention
given to each Process Group will be governed by the project manager depending
on the project size and complexity.

49. A project manager is working on a project to construct a new bridge. The

resources report to the functional manager and are mainly occupied with
operational work. The project manager has no authority to properly assign
resources. What type of organizational structure is the project manager in?

a)Functional

b) Projectized

c) Strong Matrix

d) Weak Matrix

Answer: a

Explanation : In a functional organization, team members are more concerned with

their daily functional activities than with the project activities.

50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?

a) Repeats every week

b) Temporary

c) Definite beginning and end

d) Interrelated activities

Answer:a

Explanation: Characteristic of a project is based on the project definition. Except

for choice a, everything else is part of the project definition itself.

51. How is a project life cycle different from product life cycle?

a) A project life cycle has no methodology

b) A project life cycle depends on the control needs of the performing organization

c) A project life cycle can contain many product life cycles

d) A project life cycle only includes specific project management activities

Answer: b

Explanation:

A project life cycle depends on the control needs of the performing organization.
Choice C is just the opposite, i.e., a product life cycle can include many projects
through its life cycle, not the other way around.

52 With respect to change, which of the following is the most important for a
project manager to focus on?

Undertake the change

Track and record the change

Prevent uncontrolled change

Inform project sponsor of the change

It is the responsibility of the project manager to proactively manage the project.

This includes

53. Which of the following theory was suggested by Deming?

a) Apply continuous small improvements to reduce costs and ensure consistency.

b) Marginal Analysis

c) Expectancy theory - people expect to be rewarded for their efforts.

d) Plan-do-check-act to improve quality.

Answer. D

Explanation:

The Plan-do-Check-Act philosophy was proposed by Deming. Continuous small

improvements are part of Kaizen theory.

54. What makes Project Integration Management unique among the other ten
knowledge areas?

a)It is the only knowledge area with processes in each of the project process groups
(Initiating, Planning, Execution and Monitoring and Controlling).

b) Integration Management is the only knowledge area where no resources are

assigned as it is a coordination function that is the responsibility of the project
manager.

c) Integration Management is the only knowledge area that can be completed in the
Planning phase.
d) When closing integration planning, it is not necessary to have sign-off as it only
delivers subsidiary plans.

The correct answer is: a

Explanation:

Project integration manage has processes within each project process group and
ensures that the entire project is planned, executed and managed effectively.

55). What is the most important thing that a project manager should ensure during
the Validate Scope process?

a) Accuracy

b) Timeliness

c) Acceptance

d) Completeness

Ans: C

Explanation: Scope validation involves formal acceptance of the work deliverables.

56. The WBS for your project has been prepared and distributed to the project team
members. When execution begins, which document will provide the detailed
descriptions of the WBS elements?

a) Scope Statement

b) Project Management Plan

c) WBS dictionary

d) Project Statement of Work

Answer: C

Explanation:

The WBS dictionary provides detailed descriptions about the deliverables listed in
the WBS.

57. Which of the following is not true regarding subdividing the work in the
WBS?

a) Subdivide until it has a meaningful conclusion

b) Subdivide until it can be done by a single person

c) Subdivide until it cannot be logically subdivided further

d) Subdivide until it can be realistically estimated

Answer : b

Explanation:

WBS need not be decomposed until it can be done by a single person.

58 A project team is working on the network diagram of a project and wants to

determine the float of a project activity. Which of the following is the correct
formula?

a) Late Finish-Early finish (LF-EF)

b) Late Finish-Early finish (LF-EF) or Late Start-Early Start (LS-ES)

c) Late Start-Early Start (LS-ES)

 d) Late Finish-Late Start (LF-LS)

Answer: B

Explanation: Float is calculated by subtracting either the Early Finish (EF) from
the Late Finish (LF) or the Early Start (ES) from the Late Start (LS). Float for
an activity = LS-ES or LF-EF.

59. A sequence of tasks within a project schedule that has zero slack is called
________.

a) Critical Chain

b) Critical Path

c) Zero Slack Track

d) Network Dependency Diagram

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Critical Path in a project has zero slack, and any delays on tasks on the critical
path will delay the end date of the project.

60.If Earned Value (EV) is $550, Actual Cost (AC) is $650, and Planned Value
(PV) is $600, what is the Cost Variance (CV)?

a) -100

b) +50

c) -50

d) +100
Answer: a

Explanation: Apply the formula CV = EV –AC to get the answer. Note that
although PV is provided, it is not used in solving this problem.

Unit-4: Project Management and Control

1. Which of the following is not a project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software
engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the
project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking
action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

Answer: c

Explanation: Testing is a part of a project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management

b) Manager life cycle

c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement

and manage projects successfully.

5. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called

a) milestone

b) goal

c) Gantt chart

d) PERT chart

Answer : (c) Gantt chart

6. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets
have changed throughout the duration of the project.

a) Gantt chart.

b) Bar chart.

c) Timeline.

d) Schedule.

ANSWER: c

7. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually
accomplished?

a) Earned value (EV)

b) Planned value (PV)

c) Actual cost (AC)

d) Cost variance (CV)

Answer : a

8. Earned value analysis is an example of:

a) Performance reporting

b) Planning control

c) Ishikawa diagrams
d) Integrating the project components into a whole

Answer: a

9. ________ is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

a) Product board.
b) Purpose board.
c) Project board.
d) Perfect board
Answer : c
10. Check points of a project plan must be _____.
a) regular.
b) irregular.
c) random
d) fixed.
Answer: a
11. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under ___________ process.
a) monitoring.
b) verification.
c) control.
d) visualization.
Answer: d
12. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets
have changed throughout the duration of the project.
a) Gantt chart.
b) Bar chart.
c) Timeline.
d) Schedule.
Answer: c
13. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as
______.
a) Deciding monitoring.
b) monitoring.
c) tracking.
d) prioritized monitoring.
Answer: d
14. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs

b) documents that describe the computer programs

c) data

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

15. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to

control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

a) Baselines

b) Source code

c) Data model

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a

software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
informally

16. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of

configuration objects that are created during the software process?

a) Change control

b) Version control
c) SCIs

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative

configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.

17. What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. Ensure that change is being properly implemented
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above

18. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

a. Project is on budget and on

b. Schedule Variance Index is 1

c. There is no schedule variance

d. There is no cost variance

Answer: D

19. Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
a) Cost plus percentage fee
b) Cost plus incentive fee
c) Cost plus fixed fee
d) Fixed price plus incentive fee
e) Firm fixed price
Answer: e
20. From a contract management perspective, the project manager must consider
the:
a) acquisition process
b) contract administration
c) ecological environment
d) offer, acceptance, and consideration
e) a and b
Answer: e
 Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Risk
Management
« Prev Next »

This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Risk Management”.

1. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client

b) Investor

c) Production team

d) Project manager

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the
quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

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2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?

a) Product risk

b) Project risk

c) Business risk

d) Programming risk

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.

3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational
management with different priorities.”?

a) Staff turnover

b) Technology change

c) Management change

d) Product competition

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

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4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the
system is built is superseded by new technology.”?

a) Technology change

b) Product competition

c) Requirements change

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software engineering.
5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?

a) Risk monitoring

b) Risk planning

c) Risk analysis

d) Risk identification

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

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6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being
developed?

a) People risks

b) Technology risks

c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: These risks are at management level.

7. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to
develop the system?

a) Managerial risks

b) Technology risks

c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks

View Answer
 Answer: b

Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

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8. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize
information hiding in the design.”?

a) Underestimated development time

b) Organizational restructuring

c) Requirements changes

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.

9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?

a) Avoidance strategies

b) Minimization strategies

c) Contingency plans

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

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10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

Here’s the list of Best Reference Books in Software Engineering.

To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers on Software Engineering.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks
below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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Planning

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Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and CTO at Sanfoundry. He is
Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about competency developments in these areas. He
 lives in Bangalore and delivers focused training sessions to IT professionals in Linux Kernel,
Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers, Linux Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C
Programming, SAN Storage Technologies, SCSI Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI
& Fiber Channel. Stay connected with him @
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 Software Engineering Questions and Answers –
Project Management
« Prev Next »

This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Project
Management”.

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

d) Avoiding customer complaints

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to
organizational budget and schedule constraints.

advertisement

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
 Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the
quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Testing

d) Staff turnover

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

advertisement

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management

b) Manager life cycle

c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects
successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low

b) low

c) moderate

d) high

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–
50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

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6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software
development project?

a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and,
from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team

b) project

c) customers

d) project manager

View Answer
 Answer: b

Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be
assessed.

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8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?

a) Internship management

b) Change management

c) Version management

d) System management

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed
system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of
the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction

b) Process analysis

c) De-processification

d) Process distribution

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.

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10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external
quality attribute.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute
than can be measured.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

Here’s the list of Best Reference Books in Software Engineering.

To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers on Software Engineering.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks
below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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« Prev - Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Metrics for Quality Control
» Next - Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Project Planning

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 Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and
CTO at Sanfoundry. He is Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about
competency developments in these areas. He lives in Bangalore and delivers focused
training sessions to IT professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers,
Linux Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C Programming, SAN Storage Technologies,
SCSI Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI & Fiber Channel. Stay connected with him
@
LinkedIn | Youtube | Instagram | Facebook | Twitter

Subscribe Sanfoundry Newsletter and Posts

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Email*

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aktu-exam-2021/)
July
Question 4: Following method is not used for project planning 24, 2021

a. Activity Diagram
How to Fill Invalid

b. CPM
Activity Appeal For
Google AdSense 2021
c. Timesheet

(https://www.deepcrazy
d. Gantt chart
world.com/how-to-fill-
invalid-activity-appeal-
We useAnswer:
cookiesTimesheet
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July 21, 2021

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
Digital Communication
MCQ (Formatting
 Analog Information)
UNIT-2
(https://www.deepcrazy
world.com/digital-
communication-mcq-
formatting-analog-
information-unit-2/)
July 5, 2021

Digital Communication
MCQ (Signals and
Spectra) UNIT-1
(https://www.deepcrazy
world.com/digital-
communication-mcq-
Question 5: There are __ types of Work Breakdown Structures. multiple-choice-
questions/)
July 4, 2021
a. Four

Renewable Energy
b. Three

MCQ (Geothermal
c. none

Energy) Unit – 6
d. Two
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world.com/renewable-
Answer: Two
energy-mcq-
geothermal-energy-
Question 6: If Task A to complete, it takes 10 days of human effort. It started 5
unit-6/)
July 4, 2021
days earlier to the scheduled date and completed on 35th day. Then, the float
value

a. 25

b. 10

c. 20

d. 15

Question 7: Which of the following is not achieved by an automated

estimation tools?

a. Predicting clients demands.

Archives
b. Predicting software schedules.

c. Predicting software cost.

July 2021
d. Predicting staffing levels.
(https://www.deepcrazy
world.com/2021/07/)
Answer: Predicting clients demands.
June 2021
Question 8: The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What (https://www.deepcrazy
does SMART stand for?
world.com/2021/06/)

a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely

May 2021
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
(https://www.deepcrazy
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
world.com/2021/05/)
d. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
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Answer: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
world.com/2021/04/)
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
 Question 9 Which of these is NOT true for a matrix organizational structure?
February 2021
a. It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
(https://www.deepcrazy
b. Task and personality conflicts are a disadvantage of Matrix structure
world.com/2021/02/)
c. Individual operators have to do double reporting both to a Project Manager
January 2021
and to the Functional manager

(https://www.deepcrazy
d. It is generally employed in project driven organizations
world.com/2021/01/)

Answer: It follows the unity of command principle rigorously December 2020

(https://www.deepcrazy
Question 10 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering world.com/2020/12/)
Process Model.

November 2020
1)Test

(https://www.deepcrazy
2)Design
world.com/2020/11/)
3)Install

October 2020
4)Specification

(https://www.deepcrazy
5)Manufacture

world.com/2020/10/)
6)Maintain Select one:
September 2020
a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
(https://www.deepcrazy
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
world.com/2020/09/)
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

August 2020
d. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
(https://www.deepcrazy
world.com/2020/08/)
Answer: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
July 2020
Question 11: Project management (PM) is the application of _____ to meet (https://www.deepcrazy
project requirements. world.com/2020/07/)

June 2020
a. skills, tools and techniques

(https://www.deepcrazy
b. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques

world.com/2020/06/)
c. knowledge, tools and techniques

d. knowledge, skills, tools May 2020

(https://www.deepcrazy
Answer: knowledge, skills, tools and techniques world.com/2020/05/)

March 2020
Question 12: A __ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles
(https://www.deepcrazy
one business transaction or customer request
world.com/2020/03/)

a. Model February 2020

b. Workflow
(https://www.deepcrazy
c. Prototype
world.com/2020/02/)

d. Mock-up
January 2020
(https://www.deepcrazy
Answer: Workflow
world.com/2020/01/)

Question 13: __ model is not suitable for accommodating any change December 2019
(https://www.deepcrazy
We use cookies on our website to give you the most relevant experience by remembering your preferences and repeat
a. Waterfall Model
world.com/2019/12/)
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b. Prototyping Model

November 2019
Cookiec.settings ACCEPT
Build & Fix Model


(https://www.deepcrazy
d. RAD Model
 Answer: Waterfall Model world.com/2019/11/)

October 2019
Question 14: Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has
(https://www.deepcrazy
produced a project network diagram and has updated the activity list. Which
world.com/2019/10/)
process have he just finished?
September 2019
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities (https://www.deepcrazy
dependences
world.com/2019/09/)

b. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of
August 2019
the project

(https://www.deepcrazy
c. The activity duration Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent world.com/2019/08/)
activities of the project

d. The activity duration Estimating process, which diagram project network

time estimates

Answer: The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific
activities of the project

Question 15: Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? Follow Us

a. Costs of support staff

 
b. Costs of lunch time food

c. Costs of networking and communications

d. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space (https: (https:

Answer: Costs of lunch time food //twitt //www

Question 16: Which of the following is the process of assembling program

er.co .faceb
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to
create an executable system?
m/Du ook.co
a. Change management

b. Version management
deTec m/tec
c. Release management

d. System building
hnic? hnicd

Answer: System building

s=08) ude/)
Question 17: Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?

a. Project management

b. Organization

c. Motivation
(https: 
d. Problem solving
//www (https:
Answer: Project management

Question 18 What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?

.insta //in.pi
We use cookies on our website to give you the most relevant experience by remembering your preferences and repeat
a. Changes are managed poorly.

visits. By clicking “Accept”, you consent to the use of ALL the cookies.
b. Deadlines are unrealistic
gram. nteres
Cookiec.settings ACCEPT
The product scope is poorly define

d. All of the given options. com/t t.com/
 Answer: All of the given options.
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Question 19: If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up.

c_dud cdude
a. True

b. False
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Answer: False

Question 20 The project life cycle consists of
(https:
a. Objectives of the project

b. All of the above

//www
c. Formulation and planning various activities

d. Understanding the scope of the project

.youtu
Answer: All of the above
be.co
Question 21: Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the
total cost of a software development project?
m/c/T

a. All of the mentioned

b. Travel and training costs

echni
c. Hardware and software costs

d. Effort costs cDud

Answer: All of the mentioned

e)

Question 22 An estimation technique ____________measure the size of the

functionality to be developed.

a. Analogy

b. Function Point

c. WBS

Answer: Function Point

Question 23 Which of the following is not generally considered a stakeholder

Most Popular
in the software process?
Post
a. end users

b. project team

c. sales team

d. customer

Answer: sales team

Question 24 What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

Top 10 WordPress

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onmodel
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world.com/top-10- 
d. Waterfall model
wordpress-themes/)
 Answer: Waterfall model (DeepCrazyWorld)
(1,920)
Question 25 The PERT technique gives most weightage to

a. the most pessimistic estimate obtained

b. the most optimistic estimate obtained

c. the most likely estimate obtained

d. all the estimates obtained have equal weights

Answer: the most likely estimate obtained How to make Student

Portal System Android
Question 26: Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for Project
schedule compression
(https://www.deepcrazy
a. quality reduction
world.com/student-
b. use of overtime
portal-system-android-
c. scope reduction
project/)

d. resource reduction (DeepCrazyWorld)

(1,502)

Answer: resource reduction

Question 27 To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data

mining task should be used

a. Outlier analysis

b. prediction

How to Make All in One

c. association analysis
Status Saver App in
d. feature selection Android Studio
(https://www.deepcrazy
Answer: Outlier analysis world.com/status-saver-
app-in-android-studio/)
Question 28 One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software (DeepCrazyWorld)
development process is to (1,484)

a. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.

b. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

c. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.

d. Reward programmers based on their productivity.

Answer: Give team members more control over process and technical
How to Make a
decisions.
Wallpaper App with
pixel in Android Studio
Question 29 Select from the following which is not project management goal
(https://www.deepcrazy
world.com/how-to-
a. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.

make-a-wallpaper-app-
b. Keeping overall costs within budget.

with-pixel-in-android-
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
studio/)
d. Avoiding costumer complaints. (DeepCrazyWorld)
(1,456)
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costumerto complaints.
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Question 30 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering

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
Process Model.
 1. Test
2. Design
3. Install
4. Specification
5. Manufacture
6. Maintain
How to make Photo
Select one:
Video Maker app With
a. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
Music in android studio
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
(https://www.deepcrazy
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
world.com/how-to-
d. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3 make-photo-video-
maker-app/)
Answer: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 (DeepCrazyWorld)
(1,450)
Question 31: —————— is the linear software development lifecycle
methodology

a. Prototyping

b. Spiral

c. Agile

d. Waterfall

Answer: Waterfall

Question 32 Which of the following is a reliability tactic?

A) improving individual components

B) increasing repair speed

C) providing redundancy

D) A and C

E) A, B, and C

Answer : A and C

33. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

d) Avoiding customer complaints

Answer: d

Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software

engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule
constraints.

34. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

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b) False

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
 Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect

the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then
taking action to avoid these risks.

35. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Testing

d) Staff turnover

Answer: c

Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

36. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management

b) Manager life cycle

c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly

implement and manage projects successfully.

37. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low

b) low

c) moderate

d) high

Answer: d

Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%),
low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

38. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?

a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to

complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

39. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team

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b) project

c) customers

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
d) project manager
 Answer: b

Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and
describe how these are to be assessed.

40. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration

management of a software system?

a) Internship management

b) Change management

c) Version management

d) System management

Answer: a

Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to

record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system
components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and
its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

41. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction

b) Process analysis

c) De-processification

d) Process distribution

Answer: b

Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and

bottlenecks are identified.

42. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to
the value of the attribute than can be measured.

According to Forbes, there are eight ways to improve and streamline the
software project management process.

These tips include:

Taking non-development work off your team’s plate to let them focus on
the product
Motivating your team by sharing others’ success stories
Avoiding any changes to tasks once assigned
Trying to stick to the plan (until it needs to be changed)
Encouraging organization by being organized yourself
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Streamlining productivity through effective delegation
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Getting to know your team and building a rapport
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Breaking down the plan and assigning specific daily tasks 
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
 Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Size
and Cost Estimation of Software
« Prev Next »

This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Size and Cost
Estimation of Software”.

1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development
project?

a) Hardware and software costs

b) Effort costs

c) Travel and training costs

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.

advertisement

2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?

a) Costs of networking and communications

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

c) Costs of lunch time food

d) Costs of support staff

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.

3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics

b) Product-related metrics

c) Size-related metrics

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in some given
time. Function points and object points

are the best-known metrics of this type.

advertisement

4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project
cost.

a) Algorithmic cost modelling

b) Expert judgement

c) Estimation by analogy

d) Parkinson’s Law

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from historical
 project data and current as well as future project characteristics.

5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code size but
are often still inaccurate.

advertisement

6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been
completed?

a) Algorithmic cost modelling

b) Expert judgement

c) Estimation by analogy

d) Parkinson’s Law

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.

7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database
programming?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model

d) An early design model

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.

advertisement

8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.

a) CASE tools

b) Pricing to win

c) Parkinson’s Law

d) Expert judgement

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. If the
software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is estimated to be
60 person-months.

9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model

d) An early design model

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of source
code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven multipliers.
 advertisement

10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code
that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?

a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model

d) An early design model

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

11. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that produce
increasingly detailed software estimates.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

Here’s the list of Best Reference Books in Software Engineering.

To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers on Software Engineering.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks
below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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 Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and
CTO at Sanfoundry. He is Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about
competency developments in these areas. He lives in Bangalore and delivers focused
training sessions to IT professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers,
Linux Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C Programming, SAN Storage Technologies,
SCSI Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI & Fiber Channel. Stay connected with him
@
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 Software Engineering Questions and Answers –
Project Planning
« Prev Next »

This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Project Planning”.

1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?

a) Project size

b) Planning process

c) Project complexity

d) Degree of structural uncertainty

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software grows rapidly.

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2. What describes the data and control to be processed?

a) Planning process

b) Software scope

c) External hardware

d) Project complexity

View Answer
 Answer: b

Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to
provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.

3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements

gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called

a) JAD

b) CLASS

c) FAST

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques

(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers

and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements

of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of

requirements.

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4. CLSS stands for

a) conveyor line sorting system

b) conveyor line sorting software

c) conveyor line sorting speed

d) conveyor line sorting specification

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. Each box is
identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.
5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is
known as

a) Association

b) Decomposition

c) Planning process

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None

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6. The environment that supports the software project is called

a) CLSS

b) SEE

c) FAST

d) CBSE

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.

7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?

a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed

b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates

d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

View Answer
 Answer: d

Explanation: None.

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8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation
approach in their own right?

a) Automated estimation tools

b) Empirical estimation models

c) Decomposition techniques

d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort
as a function of LOC or FP.

9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

a) Predicting staffing levels

b) Predicting software cost

c) Predicting software schedules

d) Predicting clients demands

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.

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10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and
systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

Here’s the list of Best Reference Books in Software Engineering.

To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers on Software Engineering.
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below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and CTO at Sanfoundry. He is
Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about competency
developments in these areas. He lives in Bangalore and delivers focused training sessions
to IT professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers, Linux
Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C Programming, SAN Storage Technologies, SCSI
Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI & Fiber Channel. Stay connected with him @
LinkedIn | Youtube | Instagram | Facebook | Twitter

Subscribe Sanfoundry Newsletter and Posts

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Email*

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1 What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_____

A. Consistency*

B. Correctness

C. Concurrency

D. None of these

2 A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.

A. Project fundamental purpose

B. Project quality

C. Project requirement

D. Project management*

3. ___________ is not an effective software project management focus.

A. people

B. product

C. process

D. popularity*

4. _________ is not a project manager’s activity.

A. project design*

B. project management

C. project planning

D. project control

5. The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?

A. Analytical

B. Critical*

C. Empirical

E. Heuristic

6. Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

A. Staff turnover*

B. Testing

C. Product competition
D. Specification delays

7. What is the process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

A. Project Management

B. Project Management Life Cycle*

C. Manager life cycle

D. All of the mentioned

8. What is the process during the life of a software development is known as

A. Project Management

B. sdlc*

C. Manager life cycle

D. All of the mentioned

9. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.

A. customers

B. project manager

C. team

D. project*

10. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is
included?

a.Create a contingency plan

b.Create a risk management plan

c.Create a WBS*

d.Create sql queries

11. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project
completion?

a.Scope verification

b.Completing a scope statement*

c.scope definition

d.Process Management in OS

12. Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through
a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process*

(b) Interviewing

(c) Meeting

(d) None of given

13. When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable
steps , the process which you follow to develop it is known as________

(a)Software design

(b)Software process*

(c)Software schedule

(d)Framework

14. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?

a) Size of the project

b) Customers Complaints*

c) Project staff

d) Mission criticality

15. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in

a) project delay

b) poor quality work

c) project failure

d) all of the mentioned*

16. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?

a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes

b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance

c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance

d) All of the mentioned*

17. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned
project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?

a) Software Macroscopic schedule

b) Software Project scheduling*

c) Software Detailed schedule

d) None of the mentioned

18. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project
scope?

a) Concept scoping

b) Preliminary concept planning8

c) Technology risk assessment

d) Customer reaction to the concept

19. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?

a) Size of the project

b) Customers Complaints*

c) Project staff

d) Mission criticality

20. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk?

a) Risk monitoring*

b) Risk planning

c) Risk analysis

d) Risk identification

21. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed?

a) People risks

b) Technology risks

c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks*

22. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that
are used to develop the system?

a) Managerial risks

b) Technology risks*

c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks

23. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management
tasks.

a) True*
b) False

24. If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return then it is classified as

a)future cash flows

b)present cash flows

c)positive cash flows

d)negative cash flows*

25. The present value of cash inflows is 50000 US $ and the present value of cash outflows is $
55000 then NPV is ____________

26. If desired rate of return is exceeded by actual rate of return then it is classified as

a)positive cash flows

b)negative cash flows

c) future cash flows*

d)present cash flows

27. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates?

a) Project size*

b) Planning process

c) Project complexity

d) Degree of structural uncertainty

28. What describes the data and control to be processed?

a) Planning process

b) Software scope*

c) External hardware

d) Project complexity

29. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client

b) Investor

c) Production team

d) Project manager*

30. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?

a) Product risk*
b) Project risk

c) Business risk

d) Programming risk

31. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk?

a) Risk monitoring*

b) Risk planning

c) Risk analysis

d) Risk identification

32. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed?

a) People risks

b) Technology risks

c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks*

33. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that
are used to develop the system?

a) Managerial risks

b) Technology risks*

c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks

34. Software consist of

a)programs

b) associated documentation

c) operating procedures

d) all of the above*

35. __ What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks*

36. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks*

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

37. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?

a) Risk identification

b) Performance risk

c) Support risk

d) Risk projection*

38. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks*

d) Development environment risks

39. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty
that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?

a) Performance risk*

b) Cost risk

c) Support risk

d) Schedule risk

40. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment

b) Risk generation*

c) Risk control

d) None of the mentioned

41. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

d) Avoiding customer complaints*

 42. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

a) True

b) False*

43. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Testing*

d) Staff turnover

44. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?

a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

d) all of the mentioned*

45. What is followed by the design task?

a) Choosing specific classes, operations

b) Checking model’s completeness

c) Following design task heuristics

d) All of the mentioned*

46. Which of the following is project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

d) all of the mentioned*

47. Risk managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

a) True *

b) False

48. Which of the following is considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays

b) Product competition

c) Delay in schedule
d) all of the mentioned*

49. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team

b) project*

c) customers

d) project manager

50. Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management
plan?

a) The techniques and case tools to be used

b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations

c) The life cycle model to be used

d) nONE*

51. The effective software project management focuses on four P’s People, Process, Product
and Management True/ False

52. _____must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software work

a) Project Managers*

b) Senior Managers

c) Customers

d) End users

53. Project management, is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project
activities to meet the project requirements

a. True*

b. False

54. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?

a) Analysis

b) Design

c) Problem/Opportunity Identification*

d) Development and Documentation

55. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as

a) Sequential structure

b) A List
c) A plan

d) An Algorithm*

56. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.

a) documentation

b) flowchart

c) program specification*

d) design

57. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.

a) Maintenance and Evaluation

b) Design

c) Analysis

d) Development and Documentation*

58. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer
will use to perform that task.

a) Project design

b) Installation

c) Systems analysis

d) Programming*

59. Selection of a model is based on

a) Requirements

b) Development team & Users

c) Project type and associated risk

d) All of the mentioned*

60. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?

a) Waterfall & RAD

b) Prototyping & Spiral*

c) Prototyping & RAD

d) Waterfall & Spiral

61. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?

a) Spiral*
b) Waterfall

c) RAD

d) Iterative Enhancement Model

62. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?

a) Waterfall

b) Spiral

c) RAD*

d) Incremental

63. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s
participation is not involved?

a) Waterfall & Spiral

b) RAD & Spiral

c) RAD & Waterfall

d) RAD & Prototyping*

64. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.

a) True

b) False*

65 Investigation into whether a prospective project is worth starting, probable development

cost, operational cost and benefits of the new system are investigated.

a) Feasibility study*

b) Planning

c) System analysis

d) SRS

66. Difference between total cost and total income over the life of the project.

a) Net profit*

b) Payback period

c) Return on investment(ROI)

d) Net present value

67. Time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment

a) Net profit
b) Payback period*

c) Return on investment(ROI)

d) Net present value

68. Also known as the accounting rate of return (ARR)

a) Net profit

b) Payback period

c) Return on investment(ROI)*

d) Net present value

69. A project evaluation technique that takes into account the profitability of a project and the
timing of the cash flows that are produced

a) Net profit

b) Payback period

c) Return on investment(ROI)

d) Net present value*

70. ____________sum of all incoming and outgoing payments, discounted using an interest
rate, to a fixed point in time (the present)

a) Net profit

b) Payback period

c) Return on investment(ROI)

d) Net present value*

71. ____________is the discount rate that would produce an NPV of 0 for the project.

a) IRR*

e) Payback period

f) Return on investment(ROI)

g) Net present value

72 Identifying and estimating all of the costs and benefits of carrying out the project and
operating the delivered application:

a) Cost-benefit analysis*

b) Feasibility analysis
c) Technical analysis

d) Business analysis

73. ________compares the sensitivity of each factor of project profiles by varying parameters
which affect the project cost benefits

a) Sensitivity analysis

b) Risk profiles*

c) Business analysis

d) None

74. Strategic Project Management is about forming clear links between your Projects and
Strategic Objectives

True*

False

75. It is important to review plan to review quality aspects of the project plan.

a) True*

b) False

76. Includes the salaries and other employment costs of the staff in the development project.

a) Development Cost*

b) Set up cost

c) Operational cost

d) None

77. Includes costs of any new hardware and ancillary equipment in the development project.

a) Development Cost

b) Set up cost*

c) Operational cost

d) None

78. Consist of the cost of operating the system Once it has been installed.

a) Development Cost

b) Set up cost

c) Operational cost*

d) None

79. Earning directly from the operation of the proposed system.

a) Direct benefits*

b) Indirect benefits

c) Intangible benefits

d) None

80. Earning secondary benefits like increased accuracy of a proposed system

a) Direct benefits

b) Indirect benefits*

c) Intangible benefits

d) None

81 benefits difficult to quantify like lower recruitment cost:

a) Direct benefits

b) Indirect benefits

c) Intangible benefits*

d) None

82 Which one of the following is not a software process quality?

a) Productivity

b) Portability

c) Timeliness

d) Visibility

83 Purpose of process is to deliver software

a) in time

b) with acceptable quality

c) that is cost efficient

d) both in time & with acceptable quality*

84 Which are the types of requirements ?

a) Availability

b) Reliability

c) Usability

d) All of the mentioned*

85. Select the developer-specific requirement?

a) Portability
b) Maintainability

c) Availability

d) Both Portability and Maintainability*

86. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

a) elicitation

b) design*

c) analysis

d) documentation

87. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.

a) CAD, CAM

b) Firmware, Embedded

c) Generic, Customised*

d) None of the mentioned

88. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.

a) True*

b) False

89 Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?

a) keypad control of a security system

b) pattern recognition game playing*

c) digital function of dashboard display in a car

d) none of the mentioned

90. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.

a) True

b) False

91. The longer a fault exists in software

a) the more tedious its removal becomes

b) the more costly it is to detect and correct

c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected

d) All of the mentioned*

92 Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).

a) 100-200*
b) 200-400

c) 400-1000

d) above 1000

93 What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment

b) Easier to test and debug

c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

d) *Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early*

94. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.

1. Test

2. Design

3. Install

4. Specification

5. Manufacture

6. Maintain

a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3

b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6*

c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6

d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

95. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________

a) responsiveness

b) licensing*

c) memory utilization

d) processing time

96. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
about the quality of the product.

a) True

b) False

97. RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development

b) Rapid Application Development*

c) Rapid Application Document

d) None of the mentioned

98. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

a) Quick Design

b) Coding*

c) Prototype Refinement

d) Engineer Product

99. SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle*

b) System Development Life cycle

c) Software Design Life Cycle

d) System Design Life Cycle

100. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?

a) Waterfall Model

b) Prototyping Model

c) RAD Model*

d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

 Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Software Risks
and Identification
« Prev Next »

This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Software Risks and Identification”.

1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?

a) Threats

b) Vulnerabilities

c) Consequences

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.

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2. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment

b) Risk generation

c) Risk control

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?

a) Risk exposure

b) Risk prioritization

c) Risk analysis

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

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4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.

5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

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6. Which of the following is not a business risk?

a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants

b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people

c) lack of documented requirements or software scope

d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.

7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?

a) Risk identification

b) Performance risk

c) Support risk

d) Risk projection

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when
possible and controlling them when necessary.

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8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks

d) Development environment risks

View Answer
 Answer: c

Explanation: None.

9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks

d) Development environment risks

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

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10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its
requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?

a) Performance risk

b) Cost risk

c) Support risk

d) Schedule risk

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

Here’s the list of Best Reference Books in Software Engineering.

To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Software
Engineering.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks below and stay updated
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SPM MCQ - Easier to study MCQ question bank

Software Project Management (Anna University)

StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university

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SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

MCQ QUESTIONS

Different activity of a project management is

A. project planning
B. project monitoring
C. project control
D. All of the above
ANS:D
2. Different activity of a project management is
A. project planning
B. project monitoring
C. project control
D. All of the above
3. This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?
A. Project Planning
B. Project Monitoring and Control
C. Project size estimation
D. Project cost estimation
4. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A. project estimation
B. project scheduling
C. project monitoring
D. risk management
5. In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the
most basic parameter based on which all other estimates are made?
A. project size
B. project effort
C. project duration
D. project schedule
6. During project estimation, project manager estimates following
A. project cost

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B. project duration
C. project effort
D. all of the above
7. Once project planning is complete, project managers document
their plan in
A. SPMP document
B. SRS document
C. Detailed Design documet
D. Excel Sheet
8. Which of the following serves as metrics for project size
estimation?
A. Lines of codes
B. function point
C. Number of persons
D. Only A & B
9. Lines of Code measures the size of project by counting

A. the number of source instructions

B. the comments in the code
C. the header lines
D. All of the above
10."Larger code size doesnot necessarily mean better quality or higher
efficiency."
A. True
B. False
C. NA
D. NA
11. We can accurately estimate lines of code from the problem
specification.

A. True
B. False
C. NA
D. NA

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12. Which of the following technique overcomes drawback related to

LOC?

A. Project Planning Sheet

B. Function Point Metric
C. COCOMO
D. COCOMO2
13. Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from
problem specification?

A. LOC
B. Function Point Metric
C. Bothg
D. None
14. Which of the following serves as project estimation technique?

A. Empirical estimation
B. Heuristic technique
C. Analytical estimation
D. All of the above
15. Heuristics estimation techniquedepends on

A. educated guess
B. prior experience
C. Common sense
D. All of the above
16. Which of the following is empirical estimation technique?
(i) expert judgement (ii) Delphi estimation (iii) COCOMO (iv)
Critical path Method
A. only i, ii & iii
B. only i & ii
C. only i, iii & iv
D. All of the above

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17. Which of the following is example of multi-variable cost

estimation model?

A. COCOMO
B. intermediate COCOMO
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

18. Which of the following technique overcomes the drawbacks of
expert judggement technique?

A. Heuristic technique
B. Delphi cost esttimation
C. Basis COCOMO
D. only a & b

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

19. What is the full form of COCOMO?

A. Conditional Cost Estimation Model

B. Complete Cost Estimation Model
C. Construction Cost Estimation Model
D. Collaborative Cost Estimation Model

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

20. Staffing level estimation pattern is greatly influenced by

A. Norden's Work
B. Putnam's Work
C. Both

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D. None of the these

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

21. Resource allocated is done using

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

22. Resource allocated is done using

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

23. This technique decompose a given task set recursively into small
activities?

A. Sotware Configuration Management

B. Configuration indentification
C. Work breakdown Structure
D. both a & c

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

24. The ways in Which a software development organisation can be
structured.

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A. functional formation
B. project format
C. both
D. none

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

25. Which of the following are different team structures used in Point
Management?

A. Chief programmer team

B. Democratic team
C. Mixed Control team
D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

26. Which of the following is not a characteristics of a good software
engineer?

A. Ability to work in different team

B. Good Domian Knowledge
C. Weak programming knowledge
D. Good Communication Skills

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

27. Which of the following are important activities of Risk
Management?

A. Risk indentification
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk Containment

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D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

28. When we rank risks in terms of their damage causing potential,
we are doing

A. Risk Containment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk indentification
D. Risk Mapping

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

29. Which of the following is not strategies for containment?

A. Risk avoiding
B. Transfer risk
C. Risk indentification
D. Risk reduction

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

30. This deals with effectively tracking and controlling the
configuration of a software product during its life cycle.

A. Software Configuration management

B. Software Risk Monitoring
C. Gantt chart
D. COCOMO

Explanation

Correct Option :A.

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31. Which of the following are two popular configuration

management tools on most UNIX system

A. SCCS & RCS

B. SSCS & PCS
C. PSCS & PCS
D. RCCS & MPI

Explanation

Correct Option :A
32. Coding is undertaken

A. after design phase is complete

B. design document is reviewed
C. while design document is in review
D. a & b only

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

33.The objective of this phase is to transform the design of the system
into high-level language
A. design phase
B. unit testing
C. coding
D. testing

Explanation

Correct Option :C.

34. The main advantage of adhering to coding standard is

A. uniform appearance to code

B. Code understandibility
C. good programming practice
D. All of the above

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Explanation

Correct Option :D.

35. This activity for a module is undertaken after module sucessfully
compiles

A. code review
B. Unit testing
C. integration testing
D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :A.

36. Which of the following are type of code review?

A. code inspection
B. code walkthrough
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :C
37. Which of the following helps detect algorithmic and logical error
in code?

A. code walkthrough
B. code inspection
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :A.

38. Which of the following helps detect common programming errors
in code?

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A. code walkthrough
B. code inspection
C. both
D. None

Explanation

Correct Option :B.

39. Which of the following are some classical programming error?

A. use of uninitialized variables

B. jumps into loops
C. Arrrary indices out of bound
D. All of the above

Explanation

Correct Option :D.

40. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional
software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints.
41. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might
affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being
developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
42. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
a) Specification delays

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b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as
risk
43. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is
known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly
implement and manage projects successfully.
44. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low
(<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very
high (>75%)
45. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use
when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is
required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total
cost of activities.
46. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project

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c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software
qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.
47. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes
define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to
decide what system components to change, how to manage different
versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
changes to customers.
48. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses
and bottlenecks are identified.
49. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that
can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in
some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.

50.Tool used for secure expert judgment

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A. Peer Review
B. Delphi Technique
C. Expected value technique
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. DBMS Architecture

51.What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all

work in the project is included?
A. Create a contingency plan
B. Create a risk management plan
C. Create a WBS
D. Create a scope statement

1. Create a scope statement

52. Relationship between completion of a successor is dependent on

initiation of its predecessor is known as ?

1. FS
2. FF
3. SS
4. SF

53. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear

boundaries for project completion?

1. Scope verification
2. Completing a scope statement
3. scope definition
4. Risk management plan

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54.An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard

and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative
method is available but involves lot of risk. What should the project
team do?

1. Drop the alternative approach

2. Work out a mitigation plan
3. Procure an insurance against the risk
4. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk

55.That is the objective of project manager behind the study of the

work processes on a project.

1. Quality control
2. Quality planning
3. Checking adherence to processes
4. Quality assurance

56.Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution?

1. Work authorization system

2. Project plan
3. Corrective action
4. Preventive action

57. Coral reefs in India can be found in

1. the coast of Orissa

2. Waltair
3. Rameshwaram

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4. Trivandrum

58.Fate smiles …… those who untiringly grapple with stark realities

of life.

1. with
2. over
3. on
4. round
5. 46%

59. The model serves as the basis for the creation of ______ for the
Software.

(a) Design

(b) Maintenance

(c) Testing

(d) Specifications

60.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they

must be gathered through a/an_______

(a) Elicitation process

(b) Interviewing

(c) Meeting

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(d) None of given

61.Technology-related problems include _____

(a) Overestimated savings from reusable components and new tools

and methods

(b) Switching tools in mid-way

(c) Integrating different software products in cross-platform

implementation

(d) All of given

62.Insufficient identification is a

(a) Technology-related problems

(b) Process-related problems

(c) People-related problems

(d) Product-related problems

63. Throughout evaluation and solution synthesis, the analyst’s

primary focus is on ______

(a) “Not what, not “how”

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(b) “What, also “how”

(c) “What, not “how”

(d) None of given

64. The overall role of Software in a larger system is identified

during

(a) Requirements engineering

(b) Process engineering

(c) System engineering

(d) All of given

65. Many software projects digress from the original scope because
of the nature of the software product or technology used, it’s happen
in ________

(a) Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle

(b) Research-oriented software development

(c) Defined scope

(d) Fuzzy users

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66.In problem evaluation area of effort is identified by.

(a) Analyst

(b) Designer

(c) Coder

(d)Manager

67. A ‘facilitator’ controls the meeting can be ________

(a) Customer

(b) A developer

(c) An outsider

(d) All of given

68. Version control combines ______ to manage different versions of

configuration objects that are created during software product
development.

(a) Procedure

(b) Tools

(c) Procedure and Tools

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(d) None of given

69..Many software projects digress from the original scope because of

the nature of the software product or. technology used, it’s happen in
________

(a)Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle

(b)Research-oriented software development

(c)Defined scope

(d)Fuzzy users

70..When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through

a series of predictable steps , the process which you follow to develop
it is known as________

(a)Software design

(b)Software process

(c)Software schedule

(d)Framework

71.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they

must be gathered through a/an_______

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(a)Elicitation process

(b)Interviewing

(c)Meeting

(d)None of given

72.Defined scope is a

(a)Technology-related problems

(b)Product-related problems

(c)Process-related problems

(d) People-related problems

73..You can use the Item Traceability Matrix to identify _______ at

the end of each phase

(a)SCIs

(b)SCM

(c)Design

(d)Construction

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74..Most software project manager’s practice a lot of management

techniques that are of doubtful authenticity are called

(a)Project management tools

(b)Project management myths

(c)Project management thumb rules

(d) Project management fundamentals

75..The Introduction of the software requirements specification states

the

Select correct option:

(a)Goals

(b)Objective

(c)Design

(d)Goals and objectives of the software

76.The code generation step performs the task

Select correct option:

(a) Translated specification into a machine-readable form

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(b)Translated design into a machine-readable form

(c)Translated requirements into a machine-readable form

(d)Translated user data into a machine-readable form

77..———–is the ability to encourage by “push or pull” technical

people to produce to their best ability.

Select correct option:

(a)Evaluating

(b)Motivation

(c)None of the given

(d)Monitoring

78..__________contains an analysis of what went wrong, what went

right, and what you could have done better in the software project.

Select correct option:

(a)Prepare closedown report

(b)Identify learning

(c)Identify reusable software components

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(d)none

79.Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways

1.likelihood and exposure
2.likelihood and consequences
3.likelihood and cost
4.likelihood and impact
The correct answer/s : likelihood and exposure

80.A project budget report shows spending of Rs. 350,000/- against a

budgeted amount of Rs. 400,000/-. Which of the following is true?
1.The project will complete within budget
2.They are doing a good job managing the project
3.We can not be sure how the project is going
4.Project is spending less than the required amount
The correct answer/s : They are doing a good job managing the
project

81.The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of

development effort be spent on:
1.Planning
2.Coding
3.Testing
4.Modeling
The correct answer/s : Planning

82.A task set is a collection of

1.responsibilities, milestones, documents
2.engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables
3.milestones, deliverables, metrics
4.task assignments, cost estimates, metrics
The correct answer/s : responsibilities, milestones, documents
83.Resource leveling can not help with
1.Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
2.Improvement in critical path
3.Reduced resource need over the life of the project
4.Lower peak demand

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The correct answer/s : Reduced fluctuations in resource demand

84.The level of review formality is not determined by

1.reviewer follow-up
2.structure of review
3.size of project budget
4.amount of preparation
The correct answer/s : structure of review

85.While scheduling a project, effort validation is required for

1.Checking size estimates
2.Work load of members
3.Competence of team
4.Timely completion
The correct answer/s : Checking size estimates

86.The purpose of earned value analysis is to

1.provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
2.set the price point for a software product based on development
effort
3.provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
4.determine how to compensate developers based on their
productivity
The correct answer/s : set the price point for a software product based
on development effort

87.Process indicators enable management to

1.improve software process
2.adjust work flow
3.track potential risks
4.Assess the status of an on-going project
88.Which of the following is not an approach to sizing problem
1.Fuzzy Logic
2.Schedule Focus
3.Component Sizing
4.Function Point
The correct answer/s : Fuzzy Logic

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89.Which of the following are objectives for formal technical

reviews?
1.determining who introduced an error into a program
2.assess programmer productivity
3.allow senior staff members to correct errors
4.uncover errors in software work products
The correct answer/s : allow senior staff members to correct errors

90.Which of the following provide useful measures of software

quality?
1.reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
2.correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
3.correctness, controlability, integrity, usability
4.correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
The correct answer/s : reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales

91.Risk tables are sorted by

1.probability and impact
2.probability and consequences
3.probability and exposure
4.probability and cost

92.Three categories of risks in software projects are

1.management risks, technical risks, design risks
2.planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks
3.business risks, personnel risks, budget risks
4.project risks, technical risks, business risks
The correct answer/s : business risks, personnel risks, budget risks

93.The best indicator of progress on a software project is the

completion of
1.successful budget review meeting on time
2.successful review of a defined software work product
3.successful acceptance of project prototype by the customer
4.defined engineering activity task

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The correct answer/s : successful budget review meeting on time

94.In earned value analysis, it is desirable that variance and index are
1.positive and less than 1
2.negative and greater than 1
3.negative and less than 1
4.positive and greater than 1
The correct answer/s : negative and less than 1

95.Software risk always involves two characteristics

1.uncertainty and loss
2.fire fighting and crisis management
3.staffing and budget
4.known and unknown risks
The correct answer/s :

96.The IEEE software maturity index (SMI) is used to provide a

measure of the
1.stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance
2.maintainability of a software product based on its availability
3.reliability of a software product following regression testing
4.relative age of a software product being considered for retirement

97.Empirical estimation models are typically based on

1.refinement of expected value estimation
2.regression model derived from historical project data
3.trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
4.expert judgement based on past project experiences
98.The correct answer/s : refinement of expected value estimationAs
per Putnam's Software Equation, when development time is reduced
by 5%, effort goes up by
1.5%
2.Effort goes down
3.Over 20%
4.About 10%
The correct answer/s : Effort goes down

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99. analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential

hazards that can cause
1.an entire system to fail
2.project termination
3.schedule slippage
4.cost overruns
The correct answer/s :

100.Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of

software project scheduling:
1.Effort Validation
2.Market assessment
3.Time allocation
4.Compartmentalization
The correct answer/s : Effort Validation

101.A risk table will not contain following information about risk
1.Impact
2.Probability
3.Category
4.Source
The correct answer/s : Category

102.Which of the following is not one of the attributes of software

quality?
1.Useful products satisfy stakeholder requirements
2.Adds value for developers and users
3.Effective software process creates infrastructure
4.Removes need to consider performance issues
The correct answer/s : Effective software process creates
infrastructure

103.The critical path in a project network is the

1.Shortest path through the network
2.Network path with the most difficult activities
3.Network path using the most resources

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4.Longest path through the network

The correct answer/s : Network path using the most resources

104.Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences

affecting
1.planning, resources, cost, schedule
2.marketability, cost, personnel
3.business, technology, process
4.performance, cost, support, schedule
The correct answer/s : business, technology, process

105.The first step in project planning is to

1.determine the budget
2.determine the project constraints
3.establish the objectives and scope
4.select a team organizational model
The correct answer/s : determine the project constraints

106."To construct a high-quality, custom home within five months at

costs not to exceed Rs15,00,000" is best classified as
1.Deliverable
2.Objective
3.Milestone
4.Exclusion
The correct answer/s : Deliverable

107.Why is it important to measure the process of software

engineering and software it produces?
1.To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set
2.To make software engineering more like other engineering
processes
3.To determine whether a software group is improving or not
4.It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex
The correct answer/s : To make software engineering more like other
engineering processes
108. Changes made to an information system to add the desired but
not necessarily the required features is called

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1.Perfective Maintenance
2.Preventive Maintenance
3.Adaptive Maintenance
4.Corrective Maintenance
109.Software feasibility is based on which of the following
1.business and marketing concerns
2.scope, constraints, market
3.technology, finance, time, resources
4.technical prowess of the developers
The correct answer/s : scope, constraints, market

110.Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software

Process?
1.Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager
2.Emphasizes personal measurement of work product
3.Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling
4.Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work
products

111.The prototyping model of software development is

1.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
2.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
3.A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product
4.A useful approach when customer can not define requirements
clearly
The correct answer/s : A risky model that rarely produces a
meaningful product

112.From among the following activities, which is the best example

of a project?
1.Producing automobiles
2.Writing a term paper
3.Developing HIV vaccine
4.Processing insurance claims
The correct answer/s : Producing automobiles

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113.To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data

used must be
1.measured consistently across projects
2.based only on successful projects
3.based on reasonable guestimates from past projects
4.drawn from projects on same platforms
114.Which of following are advantages of using LOC(lines of code)
as a size-oriented metric?
1.LOC is easily computed
2.LOC is language dependent
3.LOC can be computed early in the process
4.LOC is language independent

115.Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?

Formulation, Collection, Analysis, Interpretation
1.Measurement
2.Quantification
3.Feedback
4.Design
The correct answer/s : Quantification

116.In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the

time required to complete each
1.use-case
2.scenario
3.increment
4.task
The correct answer/s : scenario

117.Which of the following items are not measured by software

project metrics?
1.Outputs
2.Markets
3.Results
4.Inputs
The correct answer/s : Outputs
118.The most important feature of spiral model is

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1.quality management
2.configuration management
3.risk management
4.requirement analysis
The correct answer/s : configuration management

119.One of the most important attributes for a software product metric

is that it should be
1.easy to compute
2.qualitative in nature
3.reliable over time
4.widely applicable

120.Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an

object-oriented design?
1.size
2.volatility
3.efficiency
4.completeness
The correct answer/s : volatility

121.The objective of software project planning is to

1.enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule
2.determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project
3.make use of historical project data
4.convince the customer that a project is feasible

122.Which of the following is not a main project objective?

1.Quality
2.Structure
3.Cost
4.Time
The correct answer/s : Quality

123.Requirements can be best refined using

1.Prototyping Model

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2.Evolutionary Model
3.Waterfall model
4.Spiral Model

124.Which of the following is NOT a main element of the project

management activities?
1.Estimate
2.Monitor
3.Design
4.Schedule
The correct answer/s : Monitor

125.Make/Buy decisions are usually not driven by

1.Support concerns
2.Cost of acquisition
3.Time to market
4.Staff aspirations
The correct answer/s : Time to market

126.When can selected common process framework activities be

omitted during process decomposition?
1.never the activities are invariant
2.rapid prototyping does not require their use
3.any time the software is mission critical
4.when the project is extremely small in size

127.Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard

comments of project managers?
1.How can all these projects be first priority?
2.Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?
3.Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
4.Why are we doing this project?
The correct answer/s : Where are we going to get the resources to do
this project?

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128. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering

framework activities?
1.analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing
2.communication, risk management, measurement, production,
reviewing
3.communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment
4.analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
The correct answer/s : communication, risk management,
measurement, production, reviewing

129.LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition

based on
1.project schedule
2.software functions
3.information domain values
4.process activities
The correct answer/s : project schedule

130.FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition

based on
1.process activities
2.information domain values
3.software functions
4.project schedule
The correct answer/s : process activities

131.The Process Models differ from one another based on following

factors except
1.Manner of Quality Assurance
2.Team Organization and Roles
3.Conformance to quality standards
4.Based on flow of activities
The correct answer/s : Team Organization and Roles

132.One reason to involve everyone on the software team in the

planning activity is to
1.control feature creep

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2.get all team members to "sign up" to the plan

3.understand the problem scope
4.adjust the granularity of the plan
The correct answer/s : control feature creep

133.Which of the following is not a weak point of waterfall lifecycle?

1.Difficult to keep entire team busy with work
2.Difficult to prepare a plan early
3.Difficult for the customer to state all requirements
4.Working version of the program is not available soon
The correct answer/s : Difficult to keep entire team busy with work

134.Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a

software process?
1.Process allows team to streamline tasks
2.Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
3.Uses incremental product delivery strategy
4.Only essential work products are produced
The correct answer/s : Process allows team to streamline tasks

135.The incremental model of software development is

1.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
2.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
3.A good approach when a working core product is required quickly
4.A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products
The correct answer/s : The best approach to use for projects with large
development teams

136.The waterfall model of software development is

1.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
2.A good approach when a working program is required quickly
3.An old fashioned model that is not used any more
4.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
The correct answer/s : An old fashioned model that is not used any
more

137.Project selection criteria are typically classified as

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1.Short-term and long-term

2.Strategic and tactical
3.Financial and non-financial
4.Required and optional
The correct answer/s : Strategic and tactical
138.Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most
of the costs are
1.Personnel
2.Outsourced contract
3.Material
4.Overhead
The correct answer/s :

139.Which of these are reasons for using technical product measures

during software development?
1.Provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for
assessing software quality
2.Allow software quality information to be expressed unambiguously
as a single number
3.Large body of scientific evidence supports their use
4.They help capturing client requirements clearly

140.Which of the following is not an example of a business process?

1.testing software
2.designing a new product
3.hiring an employee
4.purchasing services
141.The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to
understand
1.business trends
2.user interface
3.processing
4.data
The correct answer/s : user interface

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142.Which of the following is not considered one of the four

important elements that should exist when a configuration
management system is developed?
1.human elements
2.component elements
3.process elements
4.validation elements
The correct answer/s : process elements

143.Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration

management?
1.version control
2.statistical quality control
3.change control
4.reporting
The correct answer/s : version control

144.Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on

hazards that
1.prevent profitable marketing of the final product
2.affect the reliability of a software component
3.may result from user input errors
4.may cause an entire system to fail
The correct answer/s : may result from user input errors

145.A review summary report answers which three questions?

1.what defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
2.terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
3.project situation, success story, improvement point
4.what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
The correct answer/s : project situation, success story, improvement
point

146.Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to

1.errors in operation
2.errors in design
3.errors in accuracy

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4.errors in requirements
The correct answer/s : errors in operation

147.Which of the following is not ISO 9126 software quality factors?

1.Portability
2.Functionality
3.Reliability
4.Security
The correct answer/s : Reliability
148.Which of the following activities is not part of the software
reengineering process model?
1.inventory analysis
2.reverse engineering
3.forward engineering
4.prototyping
The correct answer/s : forward engineering

149.The Hofstede framework for global engagements includes all of

the following dimensions except
1.Power distance
2.Language Skills
3.Uncertainty avoidance
4.Masculinity-feminity
The correct answer/s : Power distance

150.Which of these is not a benefits achieved when software is

restructured?
1.higher quality programs
2.software easier to test
3.improved performance
4.reduced maintenance effort
The correct answer/s : software easier to test

151.When software configuration management is a formal activity the

software configuration audit is conducted by the
1.senior managers
2.quality assurance group

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3.test team
4.development team
The correct answer/s : senior managers

152.Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

1.define, measure, control
2.define, measure, analyze
3.analyze, improve, control
4.analyze, design, verify
The correct answer/s : define, measure, control

153.Software reengineering process model does not include

restructuring activities for
1.code
2.organizational structure
3.documentation
4.data
The correct answer/s : code

154.At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to
1.modify the work product and continue the review
2.reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
3.accept the work product without modification
4.advise developer about the problem domain
The correct answer/s : reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies

155.Which of these are not valid software configuration items?

1.test data
2.email
3.documentation
4.Utility programs
The correct answer/s : test data

156.Which of these is not an example of data restructuring?

1.data name rationalization
2.refining entity relationships
3.data record standardization

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4.data analysis
The correct answer/s : data record standardization

157.Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of

the following except
1.Shortened project completion
2.Reduced costs
3.Higher level of expertise
4.Reduced conflict
The correct answer/s : Higher level of expertise
158. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software
engineering is
1.ISO 9002
2.ISO 9000
3.ISO 9003
4.ISO 9001
The correct answer/s : ISO 9003

159.Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse

engineering?
1.directionality
2.connectivity
3.completeness
4.abstraction level
The correct answer/s : directionality

160.Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended

to be performed by an independent SQA group?
1.serve as the test team for software produced
2.review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
3.prepare SQA plan for the project
4.report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
161. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints. Answer:D

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162. Software Project Management Multiple Choice Questions:- 1.

Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.
Answer:D

163. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a
project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
164.Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

Answer:C 4.
165.process each manager follows during the life of a project is
known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:C
166.A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
e) very high
Answer:D
167. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should
use when computing the costs of a software development project?

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a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
168.Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer:B
169. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
) Version management
d) System management
Answer:A

170. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer:B 10.

171.An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that

can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up
a) True
b) False
Answer:B

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172. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Answer:C

173.RUP stands for____________ created by a division of

____________.
a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer:D

174. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-

dynamic, static & practice.What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time

Answer:A

175. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the
working program.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
176. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for
the system
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer:D

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177. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for

software processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
e) Software specification
Answer:A

178. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed

software efforts
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
179. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:D
180. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True
b) False

Answer:A
181. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering
Process Model. i. Test ii. Design iii. Install iv. Specification v.
Manufacture vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:B
182. Which of the following categories is part of the output of
software process?

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a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
183. Which is a software configuration management concept that
helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:A
184. Software Configuration Management can be administered in
several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole
organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project
members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:A 25.
185.What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions
of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned

Answer:B
186. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a
configuration object for characteristics that are generally not
considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

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Answer:A
187. Which of the following is the process of assembling program
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these
to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer:A
188. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration
management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:D
189. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration
Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer:B
190. The definition and use of configuration management standards is
essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
191. What involves preparing software for external release and
keeping track of the system versions that have been released for
customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management

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Answer:B
192. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement
Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
Answer: C
193. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging
etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement
is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
Answer:A
194. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the
changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned
. Answer:D
195. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
196. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part
requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of
requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
197. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but
does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B

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198.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management

workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer:C
199. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
200. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is
depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically
detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval
techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations.”

a) Automatic Link Detection

b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer:A
201. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software
projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the
remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason
for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:B
202. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing
the total cost of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs

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c) Travel and training costs

d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
203. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? a)
Costs of networking and communications

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
Answer:C
204. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered
software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:A
205. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that
relates some software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer:A
206. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False

Answer:a
207. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same
analogy application domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer:c

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208. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable
components, scripting or database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:A
209. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time
available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement
Answer:C
210. Which model is used during early stages of the system design
after the requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:D
211. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate
reusable components or program code that is automatically generated
by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:C
212. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to
software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
213.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.

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a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is

the requirement of most software systems to work with a multitude of
homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the
legal domain
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but
software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to
manage software projects
e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find
that only less than 20% of today’s software is still custom built.
Answer:C
214.Software Engineering:

a) Is a set of rules about developing software products

b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late
90’s
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of
software production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established
engineering fields.
Answer:D
215. Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.
“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a
company that specializes in aircraft navigation control software.
While orientating yourselves to the company’s work practices, you
observe that they in fact do not conduct a few tests that they should in
order to comply with the relevant safety standard. When you inquire
about this from the project manager, he dismisses it saying that those
tests are really unnecessary (and takes an unreasonably long time to
conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they have managed
with the other tests for so long, without any problems.”
a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a
complaint with the relevant standard institution
b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide

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c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know
anything about the internal processes and politics, you should insist
on the company changing its work practices immediately; failing
which you threaten to report the matter
d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the
internal processes and politics, you should first find-out more about
the issue and its background
e) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer:D
216. With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct
statement.
a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors;
exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary
development based approach
c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the
requirements are well understood in advance
d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it
facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of
documentation it generates
e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed
by a reimplementation of the system using a more structured
approach.
Answer:A
217. What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be
considered to be engineered?
a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed

b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering,

such as Civil) is an art – not a science
c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge
building that is an activity that has millennia of practice
d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous
discipline
e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster
than we can understand it.
Answer:E

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218. The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of

phases. The classical model is referred to as the waterfall model.
Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined,
and the client’s requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
d) Implementation
(e) Integration.
Answer:A
219. The individual or organisation who wants a product to be
developed is known as the:
a) Developer
(b) User
(c) Contractor
(d) Initiator
(e) Client.
Answer:E
220. Which of the following items should not be included in the
software project management plan?
a) The techniques and case tools to be used
b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) The organisational structure of the development organisation,
project responsibilities, managerial objectives and priorities
e) None of the above.
Answer:E
221. The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.
a) Unit

(b) Integration
(c) Alpha
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Answer:E
222. In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against
previous test cases. This is known as __________ testing.

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a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Regression
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Answer:C
223. Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
a) The speed with which it can be developed
b) The speed with which it can be modified
c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are
of the ‘how not to do it’ variety
e) Its internal structure.
Answer:C
224. An example of the risk involved in software development is
a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware
associated with a real-time system) may go bankrupt
c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete
d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent
package
e) All of these are risks involved in software development.
Answer:E
225. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is
as a waterfall model with each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
Answer:E
226. The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.

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 lOMoARcPSD|8745116

Answer:D
227. The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base
class is referred to as
a) Association
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism
d) Instantiation
e) Aggregation
. Answer:B
228. Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of
cohesion may be defined as followed; “the output from one element in
the component serves as input for some other element”?
a) Communicational cohesion
b) Functional cohesion
c) Communicational cohesion
d) Temporal cohesion
e) None of these
. Answer:A
229. A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.
Answer:E
230. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of
_______ coupling.
a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
Answer:C
231. Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration

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d) All of the above

e) None of the above.
Answer:D
232. In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team
member responsible for maintaining the detailed design and coding is
a) The chief programmer
b) The programming secretary
c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’
d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)
e) The back-up programmer.
Answer:D
233. Internal costs include
a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel e) All of
the above. Answer:a
234. Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a
product include(s)
a) The creation of source code is only part of the development effort
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot
be measured for some languages
c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC)
be included as well?
d) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is
delivered
e) All of the above.
Answer:e
235. Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
a) Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)
b) Lines of Code (kLOC) c) Function Points (FP)
d) operands and operators
e) Feature Points (FeP).
Answer:d
236. In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex
products is referred to as
a) Embedded

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b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
e) Monolithic.
Answer:A
237. Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to
any specific phase of software development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function
c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
Answer:B
238. The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a
Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard
1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development
organisations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or
specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application
area, development team or technique.
e) All of the above.
Answer:E
239. The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan
(SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
Answer:B
240. Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be
different for the same application development, because
a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently

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b) Different organisations may use different programming languages

c) Developers’ skills may vary
d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary
e) All of the above may be true.
Answer:E
241. The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is a)
Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
c) Delivered within budget
d) Satisfies users’ needs
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
Answer:E
242. Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was
considered to be
a) ALGOL-68
B) FORTRAN 77
c) C
d) MODULA
e) SIMULA 67.
Answer:E

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
IT8075 Software anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being
Project Management

M
developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.

CSE - Professional

O
3. Which of the following is not considered as
a risk in project management?
Elective - II a) Specification delays

C
b) Product competition
c) Testing

T.
Regulations 2017 d) Staff turnover

Answer: c

O
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
it can’t be categorized as risk.

SP
UNIT I PROJECT 4. The process each manager follows during
the life of a project is known as
EVALUATION AND a) Project Management
PROJECT PLANNING b) Manager life cycle
G
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
LO

TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE OF

SOFTWARE PROJECT Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
MANAGEMENT is necessary to repeatedly implement and
manage projects successfully.
.B

1. Which of the following is not project

management goal? 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Keeping overall costs within budget a) very low
17

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high
development team
Answer: d
-R

d) Avoiding customer complaints

Explanation: The probability of the risk
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
Explanation: Projects need to be managed (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
SE

because professional software engineering is 75%), or very high (>75%).

always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints. 6. Which of the following is/are main
parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software
C

2. Project managers have to assess the risks

that may affect a project. development project?
a) True a) travel and training costs
b) False b) hardware and software costs

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
engineers and managers) identified.
d) all of the mentioned
10. An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured

M
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False

O
total cost of activities.
Answer: b

C
7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

T.
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
c) customers .
d) project manager

O
Answer: b
TOPIC 1.2 ACTIVITIES -
METHODOLOGIES

SP
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. 1. Which of these truly defines Software
design?
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity
G
a) Software design is an activity subjected to
for the configuration management of a constraints
software system? b) Software Design specifies nature and
LO

a) Internship management composition of software product

b) Change management c) Software Design satisfies client needs and
c) Version management desires
d) System management d) All of the mentioned
.B

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: Software design explains all of
policies and processes define how to record the statements as its definition.
17

and process proposed system changes, how to

decide what system components to change, 2. Which of the following statement is false?
how to manage different versions of the a) A process is a collection of related tasks
system and its components, and how to that transforms a set of inputs to the set of
-R

distribute changes to customers. output

b) A design notation is a symbolic
9. Identify the sub-process of process representational system
improvement
SE

c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding

a) Process introduction guidance, with guarantee for achieving some
b) Process analysis end
c) De-processification d) Software design method is orderly
d) Process distribution procedure for providing software design
C

solutions
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed,

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: b Software Engineering)

Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed d) Wide support by CASE, More detailed and
but there is no guarantee that we get output. flexible processes

3. Which of these describes stepwise Answer: d

M
refinement? Explanation: Notations used are more
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first software specialized and sophisticated one.
engineering method as stepwise refinement

O
b) Stepwise refinement follows its existence 7. Which of the following is an incorrect
from 1971 method for structural design?

C
c) It is a top down approach a) Transition of problem models to solution
d) All of the mentioned models

T.
b) Handling of larger and more complex
Answer: d products
Explanation: It is top down approach and not c) Designing Object oriented systems
bottom up. d) More procedural approach

O
4. What is incorrect about structural design? Answer: b

SP
a) Structural design introduced notations and Explanation: It does not account for larger
heuristics and complex products.
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural
decomposition 8. What is followed by the design task?
a) Choosing specific classes, operations
G
c) The advantage is data flow representation
d) It follows Structure chart b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
LO

Answer: c d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: The biggest drawback or
problem is a data flow diagram of structure Answer: d
design. Explanation: All of these tasks are followed
by a design task.
.B

5. What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data 9. Which of this analysis are not acceptable?
flow diagram a) Object oriented design is a far better
17

b) Procedures represented as bubbles approach compared to structural design

c) Specification model is structure chart b) Object oriented design always dominates
showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow structural design
of data in and out of procedures c) Object oriented design are given more
-R

d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition preference than structural design

d) Object oriented uses more specific
Answer: c notations
Explanation: It is solution to central
SE

problem. Rest others are problems. Answer: b

Explanation: Though object oriented design
6. Which of these are followed by the latest is considered a far better approach but it
versions of structural design? never dominates structural approach.
C

a) More detailed and flexible processes

b) Regular Notations 10. Which of these does not represent object
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided oriented design?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) It follows regular procedural 3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with

decomposition in favor of class and object reference to one of the eight principles as per
decomposition the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
b) Programs are thought of collection of a) The product should be easy to use
objects b) Software engineers shall ensure that their

M
c) Central model represents class diagrams products and related modifications meet the
that show the classes comprising a program highest professional standards possible

O
and their relationships to one another c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
d) Object-oriented methods incorporates products and related modifications satisfy the
Structural methods client

C
d) It means that the product designed /created
Answer: a should be easily available

T.
Explanation: It does not follow regular
procedural decomposition. Answer: b
Explanation: None.

O
TOPIC 1.3 CATEGORIZATION 4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the
OF SOFTWARE PROJECTS situations mentioned below:

SP
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
1. Choose the correct option in terms of system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional responsibility system
a) Confidentiality b) Refusing to undertake a project
G
b) Intellectual property rights c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual senior management
property rights d) All of the mentioned
LO

d) Managing Client Relationships

Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
.B

respect the confidentiality of their employers 5. Identify the correct statement: “Software
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall
formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best interests
of his expertise and favour.”
17

signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
-R

2. “Software engineers should not use their

technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
SE

a) Unauthorized access to computer material a manner that is in the best interests of their
b) Unauthorized modification of computer client and employer consistent with the public
material interest and shall ensure that their products
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware and related modifications meet the highest
professional standards possible.Thus options
C

d) All of the mentioned

a & c are ruled out.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software Answer: c

engineers should Explanation: Software companies are
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside responsible for making policies and providing
your competence.” working atmosphere for the software
b) not use your technical skills to misuse development, so in turn these companies

M
other people’s computers.” become a part of software development
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new

O
d) maintain integrity and independence in thing. Thus option c answers the question.
their professional judgment.”
10. Company has latest computers and state-

C
Answer: c of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t
Explanation:None. worry about the quality of the product.

T.
a) True
7. Efficiency in a software product does not b) False
include ________
a) responsiveness Answer: b

O
b) licensing Explanation: The infrastructure is only one
c) memory utilization of the several factors that determine the

SP
d) processing time quality of the product.

Answer: b .
Explanation: Licensing of a software product
G
comes under corporate part of the software
company.
TOPIC 1.4 SETTING
OBJECTIVES
LO

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project

get cancelled before they are completed, 53% 1. Which of these are not among the eight
overrun their cost estimates by an average of principles followed by Software Engineering
189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
.B

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics a) PUBLIC

? b) PROFESSION
a) Lack of adequate training in software c) PRODUCT
engineering d) ENVIRONMENT
17

b) Lack of software ethics and understanding

c) Management issues in the company Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software
ethics, environment does not focus on
-R

Answer: a specific clause nor its of importace related to

Explanation: Option b & c are a part of question.
Software Engineering as a subject,hence
SE

option a covers them both. 2. What is a Software ?

a) Software is set of programs
9. The reason for software bugs and failures b) Software is documentation and
is due to configuration of data
a) Software companies c) Software is set of programs, documentation
C

b) Software Developers & configuration of data

c) Both Software companies and Developers d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c engineering
Explanation: Software is not just set of d) Software engineering is concerned with the
program but it is also associated practicalities of developing and delivering
documentation and configuration of data to useful software
make program run.

M
Answer: c
3. Which of these does not account for Explanation: Software engineering is a vast
software failure ? sub domain which comes under computer

O
a) Increasing Demand science which is main domain.
b) Low expectation

C
c) Increasing Supply 7. Which of these is true ?
d) Less reliable and expensive a) Generic products and customized products

T.
are types of software products
Answer: c b) Generic products are produced by
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to organization and sold to open market
more production and not failure. c) Customized products are commissioned by

O
particular customer
4. What are attributes of good software ? d) All of the mentioned

SP
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality Answer: d
c) Software development Explanation: All of them are true.
d) Software maintainability & functionality
8. Which of these does not affect different
G
Answer: d types of software as a whole?
Explanation: Good software should deliver a) Heterogeneity
LO

the required functinality, maintainability. b) Flexibility

Software development is not an attribute but a c) Business and social change
fundamental. d) Security

5. Which of these software engineering Answer: b

.B

activities are not a part of software processes Explanation: Option b & c are a part of
? Software Engineering as a subject,hence
a) Software dependence option a covers them both.
17

b) Software development
c) Software validation 9. The fundamental notions of software
d) Software specification engineering does not account for ?
a) Software processes
-R

Answer: a b) Software Security

Explanation: Software dependence is an c) Software reuse
attribute and not an engineering activity for d) Software Validation
process.
SE

Answer: d
6. Which of these is incorrect ? Explanation: Software validation is an
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer activity for software process and not the
science fundamental for engineering.
C

b) Software engineering is a part of more

general form of System Engineering 10. Which of these is not true ?
c) Computer science belongs to Software a) Web has led to availability of software

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

services and possibility of developing highly Answer: a

distributed service based systems Explanation: For systems with a long life,
b) Web based systems have led to degradation maintenance costs may be several times
of programming languages development costs.
c) Web brings concept of software as service

M
d) Web based system should be developed 4. Which one of the following is not an
and delivered incrementally application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system

O
Answer: b b) pattern recognition game playing
Explanation: Web based systems has led to c) digital function of dashboard display in a

C
important advances in programming car
languages. d) none of the mentioned

T.
. Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses
Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

O
TOPIC 1.5 MANAGEMENT
PRINCIPLES 5. Purpose of process is to deliver software

SP
a) in time
1. Which one of the following is not a b) with acceptable quality
software process quality? c) that is cost efficient
a) Productivity d) both in time & with acceptable quality
G
b) Portability
c) Timeliness Answer: d
d) Visibility Explanation: Cost of a software is a
LO

management issue & is not related to process

Answer: b activities.
Explanation: Portability is a software
product quality which means software can run 6. The work associated with software
engineering can be categorized into three
.B

on different hardware platforms or software

environments. generic phases,regardless of application area,
project size, or complexity namely
2. _____________&_____________ are two the__________ phase which focuses on what,
17

kinds of software products. the_________ phase which focuses on how

a) CAD, CAM and the_________ phase which focuses on
b) Firmware, Embedded change.
c) Generic, Customised i. support
-R

d) None of the mentioned ii. development

iii. definition
Answer: c a) 1, 2, 3
SE

Explanation: rest all are sub b) 2, 1, 3

categories/applications of option c. c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
3. Software costs more to maintain than it
does to develop. Answer: c
C

a) True Explanation: None.

b) False

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

7. Which of the following activities of a Answer: a

Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in the
feedback report? development phase.
a) Communication
b) Planning .

M
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment TOPIC 1.6 MANAGEMENT

O
Answer: d CONTROL
Explanation: In Deployment the product is

C
delivered to the customer who evaluates the 1. SCM stands for
product and provides feedback based on the a) Software Control Management

T.
evaluation. b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
8. Process adopted for one project is same as d) None of the mentioned
the process adopted from another project.

O
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: In software engineering,

SP
software configuration management (SCM) is
Answer: b the task of tracking and controlling changes
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, in the software, part of the larger cross-
actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to discipline field of configuration management.
G
the software team and the inter dependencies
among two process can never be the same. 2. When code is made available to others, it
goes in a/an
LO

9. Which one of the following is not an a) hard drive

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) access-controlled library
process framework activities and help team c) servers
manage and control progress, quality, change, d) access control
.B

and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
17

d) User Reviews 3. Which of the following is not a main phase

in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
Answer: d a) CM Planning
Explanation: None. b) Executing the CM process
-R

c) CM audits
10. Four types of change are encountered d) None of the mentioned
during the support phase.Which one of the
following is not one that falls into such Answer: d
SE

category? Explanation: All are main phases of CM.

a) Translation
b) Correction 4. CM is about managing the different items
c) Adaptation in the product, and changes in them.
C

d) Prevention a) True
b) False

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a 9. How are baselines verified?

Explanation: None. a) By reviews
b) By inspections
5. What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code
same source files at the same time? d) All of the mentioned

M
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to

O
d) Version Control and Access control description.

C
Answer: a 10. Which of the following is a example of
Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?

T.
continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
6. Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned

O
management process?
a) Log the changes Answer: d

SP
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned 11. SCM controls only the products of the
development process.
Answer: d a) True
G
Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False
LO

7. Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
.B

Answer: a b) Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
17

8. What is one or more software configuration

items that have been formally reviewed and Answer: a
agreed upon and serve as a basis for further Explanation: None.
development?
-R

a) Baseline 13. What information is required to process a

b) Cumulative changes change to a baseline?
c) CM a) Reasons for making the changes
d) Change Control b) A description of the proposed changes
SE

c) List of other items affected by the changes

Answer: a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In configuration management, a
“baseline” is an agreed-to description of the Answer: d
C

attributes of a product, at a point in time, Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to

which serves as a basis for defining change. description of the product, changes require
multiple reasons..

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

. of the solution, negotiate different

approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
TOPIC 1.7 PROJECT
PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT 4. CLSS stands for

M
a) conveyor line sorting system
1. Which of the following is an important b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed

O
factor that can affect the accuracy and
efficacy of estimates? d) conveyor line sorting specification
a) Project size

C
b) Planning process Answer: a
c) Project complexity Explanation: The conveyor line sorting

T.
d) Degree of structural uncertainty system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a
conveyor line. Each box is identified by a
Answer: a barcode that contains a part number and is
Explanation: As size increases, the sorted into one of six bins at the end of the

O
interdependence among various elements of line.
the software grows rapidly.

SP
5. The project planner examines the statement
2. What describes the data and control to be of scope and extracts all important software
processed? functions which is known as
a) Planning process a) Association
G
b) Software scope b) Decomposition
c) External hardware c) Planning process
d) Project complexity d) All of the mentioned
LO

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the Explanation: None
statement of scope are evaluated and in some
6. The environment that supports the software
.B

cases refined to provide more detail prior to

the beginning of estimation. project is called
a) CLSS
3. A number of independent investigators b) SEE
17

have developed a team-oriented approach to c) FAST

requirements gathering that can be applied to d) CBSE
establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD Answer: b
-R

b) CLASS Explanation: Software engineering

c) FAST environment (SEE), incorporates hardware
d) None of the mentioned and software.
SE

Answer: c 7. Which of the following is not an option to

Explanation: Facilitated application achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
specification techniques a) Base estimates on similar projects that
(FAST), this approach encourages the have already been completed
C

creation of a joint team of customers b) Use one or more empirical models for
and developers who work together to identify software cost and effort estimation
the problem, propose elements c) Use relatively simple decomposition

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

techniques to generate project cost and effort

TOPIC 1.8 COST-BENEFIT
estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate EVALUATION TECHNOLOGY
into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
1. Which one of the following is not an

M
Answer: d Evolutionary Process Model?
Explanation: None. a) WINWIN Spiral Model

O
b) Incremental Model
8. What can be used to complement c) Concurrent Development Model
decomposition techniques and offer a d) All of the mentioned

C
potentially valuable estimation approach in
their own right? Answer: d

T.
a) Automated estimation tools Explanation: None.
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques 2. The Incremental Model is a result of
d) Both Automated estimation tools and combination of elements of which two

O
Empirical estimation models models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model

SP
Answer: b b) Linear Model & RAD Model
Explanation: An estimation model for c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
computer software uses empirically derived d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
formulas to predict effort as a function of
G
LOC or FP. Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces
9. Which of the following is not achieved by a deliverable “increment” of the software and
LO

an automated estimation tools? particularly when we have to quickly deliver

a) Predicting staffing levels a limited functionality system.
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules 3. What is the major advantage of using
.B

d) Predicting clients demands Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment
Answer: d b) Easier to test and debug
Explanation: Demands can vary from client c) It is used when there is a need to get a
17

to client. product to the market early

d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when
10. Software project estimation can never be there is a need to get a product to the market
an exact science, but a combination of good early
-R

historical data and systematic techniques can

improve estimation accuracy. Answer: d
a) True Explanation: Incremental Model is generally
b) False
SE

easier to test and debug than other methods of

software development because relatively
Answer: a smaller changes are made during each
Explanation: None. iteration and is popular particularly when we
have to quickly deliver a limited functionality
C

. system.However, option “a” can be seen in

other models as well like RAD model,hence
option “d” answers the question.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

4. The spiral model was originally proposed Answer: a

by Explanation: All other options are the
a) IBM advantages of Spiral Model.
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman 8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its

M
d) Royce phases.
a) True
Answer: b b) False

O
Explanation: None.
Answer: b

C
5. The spiral model has two dimensions Explanation: None.
namely _____________ and ____________
9. How is Incremental Model different from

T.
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular Spiral Model?
c) radial, angular a) Progress can be measured for Incremental
d) diagonal, perpendicular Model

O
b) Changing requirements can be
Answer: c accommodated in Incremental Model

SP
Explanation: The radial dimension of the c) Users can see the system early in
model represents the cumulative costs and the Incremental Model
angular dimension represents the progress d) All of the mentioned
made in completing each cycle. Each loop of
Answer: a
G
the spiral from X-axis clockwise through
360o represents one phase. Explanation: None.
LO

6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different 10. If you were to create client/server
from Spiral Model? applications, which model would you go for?
a) It defines tasks required to define a) WINWIN Spiral Model
resources, timelines, and other project related b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
.B

information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at d) Incremental Model
the beginning of each pass around the spiral
Answer: c
17

c) It defines tasks required to assess both

Explanation: When applied to client/server
technical and management risks
applications, the concurrent process model
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test,
install, and provide user support defines activities in two dimensions: a system
dimension and a component dimension.Thus
-R

Answer: b Concurrency is achieved by system and

Explanation: Except option “b” all other component activities occurring
tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as simultaneously and can be modeled using the
state-oriented approach.
SE

well.

7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. .

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis TOPIC 1.9 RISK EVALUATION
C

c) Strong approval and documentation control

d) Additional Functionality can be added at a
later date

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

1. Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment of
b) Investor software engineering.
c) Production team

M
d) Project manager 5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Answer: d more about the risk?

O
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the project b) Risk planning

C
schedule or the quality of the software being c) Risk analysis
developed, and then taking action to avoid d) Risk identification

T.
these risks.
Answer: a
2. Which of the following risk is the failure of Explanation: None.
a purchased component to perform as

O
expected? 6. Which of the following risks are derived
a) Product risk from the organizational environment where

SP
b) Project risk the software is being developed?
c) Business risk a) People risks
d) Programming risk b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
G
Answer: a d) Organizational risks
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or
performance of the software being developed. Answer: d
LO

Explanation: These risks are at management

3. Which of the following term is best defined level.
by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different 7. Which of the following risks are derived
from the software or hardware technologies
.B

priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover that are used to develop the system?
b) Technology change a) Managerial risks
c) Management change b) Technology risks
17

d) Product competition c) Estimation risks

d) Organizational risks
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
-R

Explanation: The risks associated with

4. Which of the following term is best defined technology might affect the product
by the statement: “The underlying technology development.
on which the system is built is superseded by
SE

new technology.”? 8. Which of the following term is best defined

a) Technology change by the statement: “Derive traceability
b) Product competition information to maximize information hiding
c) Requirements change in the design.”?
C

d) None of the mentioned a) Underestimated development time

b) Organizational restructuring

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Requirements changes 2. Project managers have to assess the risks

d) None of the mentioned that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can

M
help us understand the risk. Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
9. Which of the following strategies means anticipating risks that might affect the project

O
that the impact of the risk will be reduced? schedule or the quality of the software being
a) Avoidance strategies developed, and then taking action to avoid

C
b) Minimization strategies these risks.
c) Contingency plans

T.
d) All of the mentioned 3. Which of the following is not considered as
a risk in project management?
Answer: b a) Specification delays
Explanation: None. b) Product competition

O
c) Testing
10. Risk management is now recognized as d) Staff turnover

SP
one of the most important project
management tasks. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
b) False it can’t be categorized as risk.
G
Answer: a 4. The process each manager follows during
Explanation: None. the life of a project is known as
LO

a) Project Management
. b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
TOPIC 1.10 STRATEGIC d) All of the mentioned
.B

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
1. Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and
17

management goal? manage projects successfully.

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
the agreed time a) very low
-R

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

development team c) moderate
d) Avoiding customer complaints d) high
SE

Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed Explanation: The probability of the risk
because professional software engineering is might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
always subject to organizational budget and (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
C

schedule constraints. 75%), or very high (>75%).

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis

parameters that you should use when c) De-processification
computing the costs of a software d) Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b

M
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

O
engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
10. An independent relationship must exist

C
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.

T.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.
Answer: b

O
7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

SP
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
c) customers .
d) project manager
G
TOPIC 1.11 STEPWISE
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out PROJECT PLANNING
LO

the desired software qualities and describe

how these are to be assessed. 1. Which of the following is an important
factor that can affect the accuracy and
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity efficacy of estimates?
.B

for the configuration management of a a) Project size

software system? b) Planning process
a) Internship management c) Project complexity
b) Change management d) Degree of structural uncertainty
17

c) Version management
d) System management Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the
Answer: a interdependence among various elements of
-R

Explanation: Configuration management the software grows rapidly.

policies and processes define how to record
and process proposed system changes, how to 2. What describes the data and control to be
processed?
SE

decide what system components to change,

how to manage different versions of the a) Planning process
system and its components, and how to b) Software scope
distribute changes to customers. c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
C

9. Identify the sub-process of process

improvement Answer: b
a) Process introduction Explanation: Functions described in the

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

statement of scope are evaluated and in some 6. The environment that supports the software
cases refined to provide more detail prior to project is called
the beginning of estimation. a) CLSS
b) SEE
3. A number of independent investigators c) FAST

M
have developed a team-oriented approach to d) CBSE
requirements gathering that can be applied to
establish the scope of a project called Answer: b

O
a) JAD Explanation: Software engineering
b) CLASS environment (SEE), incorporates hardware

C
c) FAST and software.
d) None of the mentioned

T.
7. Which of the following is not an option to
Answer: c achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
Explanation: Facilitated application a) Base estimates on similar projects that
specification techniques have already been completed

O
(FAST), this approach encourages the b) Use one or more empirical models for
creation of a joint team of customers software cost and effort estimation

SP
and developers who work together to identify c) Use relatively simple decomposition
the problem, propose elements techniques to generate project cost and effort
of the solution, negotiate different estimates
approaches, and specify a preliminary set of d) The ability to translate the size estimate
G
requirements. into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

4. CLSS stands for Answer: d

LO

a) conveyor line sorting system Explanation: None.

b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed 8. What can be used to complement
d) conveyor line sorting specification decomposition techniques and offer a
.B

potentially valuable estimation approach in

Answer: a their own right?
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting a) Automated estimation tools
system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a b) Empirical estimation models
17

conveyor line. Each box is identified by a c) Decomposition techniques

barcode that contains a part number and is d) Both Automated estimation tools and
sorted into one of six bins at the end of the Empirical estimation models
line.
-R

Answer: b
5. The project planner examines the statement Explanation: An estimation model for
of scope and extracts all important software computer software uses empirically derived
SE

functions which is known as formulas to predict effort as a function of

a) Association LOC or FP.
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process 9. Which of the following is not achieved by
d) All of the mentioned an automated estimation tools?
C

a) Predicting staffing levels

Answer: b b) Predicting software cost
Explanation: None

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Predicting software schedules b) Firmware, Embedded

d) Predicting clients demands c) Generic, Customised
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client Answer: c

M
to client. Explanation: rest all are sub
categories/applications of option c.
10. Software project estimation can never be

O
an exact science, but a combination of good 3. Software costs more to maintain than it
historical data and systematic techniques can does to develop.

C
improve estimation accuracy. a) True
a) True b) False

T.
b) False
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: For systems with a long life,
Explanation: None. maintenance costs may be several times

O
development costs.
.

SP
4. Which one of the following is not an
application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
UNIT II PROJECT LIFE c) digital function of dashboard display in a
G
CYCLE AND EFFORT car
d) none of the mentioned
LO

ESTIMATION
Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses
TOPIC 2.1 SOFTWARE Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
PROCESS AND PROCESS
.B

MODELS 5. Purpose of process is to deliver software

a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
17

1. Which one of the following is not a c) that is cost efficient

software process quality? d) both in time & with acceptable quality
a) Productivity
b) Portability Answer: d
-R

c) Timeliness Explanation: Cost of a software is a

d) Visibility management issue & is not related to process
activities.
Answer: b
SE

Explanation: Portability is a software 6. The work associated with software

product quality which means software can run engineering can be categorized into three
on different hardware platforms or software generic phases,regardless of application area,
environments. project size, or complexity namely
C

the__________ phase which focuses on what,

2. _____________&_____________ are two the_________ phase which focuses on how
kinds of software products. and the_________ phase which focuses on
a) CAD, CAM

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

change. Answer: d
i. support Explanation: None.
ii. development
iii. definition 10. Four types of change are encountered
a) 1, 2, 3 during the support phase.Which one of the

M
b) 2, 1, 3 following is not one that falls into such
c) 3, 2, 1 category?
a) Translation

O
d) 3, 1, 2
b) Correction
Answer: c c) Adaptation

C
Explanation: None. d) Prevention

T.
7. Which of the following activities of a Answer: a
Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in the
feedback report? development phase.
a) Communication

O
b) Planning .
c) Modeling & Construction

SP
d) Deployment TOPIC 2.2 CHOICE OF
Answer: d PROCESS MODELS - RAPID
Explanation: In Deployment the product is APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
G
delivered to the customer who evaluates the
product and provides feedback based on the 1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for
evaluation. programming exercises of ___________ LOC
LO

(Line of Code).
8. Process adopted for one project is same as a) 100-200
the process adopted from another project. b) 200-400
a) True c) 400-1000
.B

b) False d) above 1000

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
17

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to for small projects & programming exercises
the software team and the inter dependencies of 100 or 200 lines.
among two process can never be the same.
2. RAD stands for
-R

9. Which one of the following is not an a) Relative Application Development

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) Rapid Application Development
process framework activities and help team c) Rapid Application Document
manage and control progress, quality, change,
SE

d) None of the mentioned

and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
C

d) User Reviews 3. Which one of the following models is not

suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Prototyping Model c) 5 phases

c) RAD Model d) 6 phases
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: RAD Model consists of five

M
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the phases namely:Business modeling,Data
sequential flow that the Waterfall Model modeling,Process modeling,Application
proposes. generation and Testing & Turnover.

O
4. Which is not one of the types of prototype 8. What is the major drawback of using RAD

C
of Prototyping Model? Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype a) Highly specialized & skilled

T.
b) Vertical Prototype developers/designers are required
c) Diagonal Prototype b) Increases reusability of components
d) Domain Prototype c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components,

O
Answer: c Highly specialized & skilled
Explanation: Their is no such thing as developers/designers are required

SP
Diagonal Prototype whereas other options
have their respective definitions. Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an
5. Which one of the following is not a phase unrealistic product vision leading a team to
of Prototyping Model?
G
over or under-develop functionality.Also, the
a) Quick Design specialized & skilled developers are not
b) Coding easily available.
LO

c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product 9. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
Answer: b b) System Development Life cycle
Explanation: A prototyping model generates
.B

c) Software Design Life Cycle

only a working model of a system. d) System Design Life Cycle
6. Which of the following statements Answer: a
17

regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong? Explanation: None.

a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & 10. Which model can be selected if user is
unchangeable involved in all the phases of SDLC?
-R

c) Maintenance is practically not possible a) Waterfall Model

d) It scales up well to large projects b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
Answer: d d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
SE

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

for 100-200 LOC Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. RAD Model has
C

a) 2 phases .
b) 3 phase
TOPIC 2.3 AGILE METHODS

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto to be able to respond quickly to changing
for Agile Software Development requirements without excessive rework.
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software 5. How is plan driven development different
c) Customer collaboration from agile development ?

M
d) All of the mentioned a) Outputs are decided through a process of
negotiation during the software development
Answer:d process

O
Explanation: None. b) Specification, design, implementation and
testing are interleaved

C
2. Agile Software Development is based on c) Iteration occurs within activities
a) Incremental Development d) All of the mentioned

T.
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development Answer:c
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Explanation: A plan-driven approach to
Development software engineering is based around separate

O
development stages with the outputs to be
Answer:d produced at each of these stages planned in

SP
Explanation: The software is developed in advance.
increments with the customer specifying the
requirements to be included in each increment 6. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
and the highest priority is to satisfy the a) Two
G
customer through early and continuous b) Three
delivery of valuable software. They are c) Four
iterative because they work on one iteration d) Scrum is an agile method which means it
LO

followed by improvements in next iteration does not have phases

3. Which on of the following is not an agile Answer:b

method? Explanation: There are three phases in
.B

a) XP Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning

b) 4GT phase followed by a series of sprint cycles
c) AUP and project closure phase.
d) All of the mentioned
17

7. Agile methods seem to work best when

Answer:b team members have a relatively high skill
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not level.
incorporate iteration and the continuous a) True
-R

feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of b) False

an agile method.
Answer:a
4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project Explanation: None.
SE

team to respond rapidly to a change.

a) True 8. Which of the following does not apply to
b) False agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
C

Answer:b b) Only essential work products are produced

Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to c) Eliminate the use of project planning and
reduce overheads in the software process and

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

testing 2. RAD stands for

d) All of the mentioned a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
Answer:c c) Rapid Application Document
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each d) None of the mentioned

M
software development process which can’t be
avoided. Answer: b
Explanation: None.

O
9. Which three framework activities are
present in Adaptive Software 3. Which one of the following models is not

C
Development(ASD) ? suitable for accommodating any change?
a) analysis, design, coding a) Build & Fix Model

T.
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle b) Prototyping Model
planning, iterative development c) RAD Model
c) speculation, collaboration, learning d) Waterfall Model
d) all of the mentioned

O
Answer: d
Answer:c Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the

SP
Explanation: None. sequential flow that the Waterfall Model
proposes.
10. In agile development it is more important
to build software that meets the customers’ 4. Which is not one of the types of prototype
needs today than worry about features that of Prototyping Model?
G
might be needed in the future. a) Horizontal Prototype
a) True b) Vertical Prototype
LO

b) False c) Diagonal Prototype

d) Domain Prototype
Answer:a
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as
.B

. Diagonal Prototype whereas other options

have their respective definitions.
TOPIC 2.4 DYNAMIC SYSTEM
17

5. Which one of the following is not a phase

DEVELOPMENT METHOD of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for b) Coding
-R

programming exercises of ___________ LOC c) Prototype Refinement

(Line of Code). d) Engineer Product
a) 100-200
b) 200-400 Answer: b
SE

c) 400-1000 Explanation: A prototyping model generates

d) above 1000 only a working model of a system.

Answer: a 6. Which of the following statements

C

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
for small projects & programming exercises a) No room for structured design
of 100 or 200 lines. b) Code soon becomes unfixable &

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

unchangeable a) Waterfall Model

c) Maintenance is practically not possible b) Prototyping Model
d) It scales up well to large projects c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: d

M
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable Answer: c
for 100-200 LOC Explanation: None.

O
7. RAD Model has .
a) 2 phases

C
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
TOPIC 2.5 EXTREME
PROGRAMMING

T.
d) 6 phases

Answer: c 1. Incremental development in Extreme

Explanation: RAD Model consists of five Programming (XP) is supported through a

O
phases namely:Business modeling,Data system release once every month.
modeling,Process modeling,Application a) True

SP
generation and Testing & Turnover. b) False
8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Answer: b
Model? Explanation: Incremental development is
a) Highly specialized & skilled
G
supported through small, frequent system
developers/designers are required releases.
b) Increases reusability of components
LO

c) Encourages customer/client feedback 2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is

d) Increases reusability of components, complete, it is integrated into the whole
Highly specialized & skilled system.
developers/designers are required a) True
.B

b) False
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an Answer: a
unrealistic product vision leading a team to Explanation: XP follows a continuous
17

over or under-develop functionality.Also, the integration approach.After any such

specialized & skilled developers are not integration, all the unit tests in the system
easily available. must pass.
-R

9. SDLC stands for 3. In XP Increments are delivered to

a) Software Development Life Cycle customers every _______ weeks.
b) System Development Life cycle a) One
c) Software Design Life Cycle b) Two
SE

d) System Design Life Cycle c) Three

d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
C

Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP)

10. Which model can be selected if user is takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative
involved in all the phases of SDLC? development.New versions may be built

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

several times per day, hence delivering the Answer: a

increment for approval every 2nd week after Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very
testing the new version. difficult to write incrementally.For example,
in a complex user interface, it is often
4. User requirements are expressed as difficult to write unit tests for the code that

M
__________ in Extreme Programming. implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow
a) implementation tasks between screens.
b) functionalities

O
c) scenarios 7. Tests are automated in Extreme
d) none of the mentioned Programming.

C
a) True
Answer: c b) False

T.
Explanation: User requirements are
expressed as scenarios or user stories.These Answer: a
are written on cards and the development Explanation: Automated test harnesses are
team break them down into implementation used to run all component tests each time that

O
tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule a new release is built.
and cost estimates.

SP
8. In XP an automated unit test framework is
5. Is a customer involved test development used to write tests for a new piece of
and validation in XP ? functionality before that functionality itself is
a) Yes implemented.
G
b) No a) True
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer b) False
d) None of the mentioned
LO

Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: XP follows Test-first
Explanation: The role of the customer in the development approach.
testing process is to help develop acceptance
9. Developers work individually on a release
.B

tests for the stories that are to be implemented

in the next release of the system.However, and they compare their results with other
people adopting the customer role have developers before forwarding that release to
limited time available and so cannot work customers.
17

full-time with the development team. They a) True

may feel that providing the requirements was b) False
enough of a contribution and so may be
reluctant to get involved in the testing Answer: b
-R

process. Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair

programming which means developers work
6. Programmers prefer programming to in pairs, checking each other’s work and
providing the support to always do a good
SE

testing and sometimes they take shortcuts

when writing tests. For example, they may job.
write incomplete tests that do not check for
all possible exceptions that may occur. 10. Which four framework activities are
a) True found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
C

b) False a) analysis, design, coding, testing

b) planning, analysis, design, coding

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) planning, design, coding, testing 5. CIM and WBEM has been defined by ?
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing a) DMTF
b) SMI Standards Organization
Answer: c c) Open Standards Body
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four d) None of the mentioned

M
activities, and in the same in order.
Answer: a
.

O
6. _________ instruments one or more
aspects of the CIM Schema
TOPIC 2.6 MANAGING

C
a) Distributor
b) Provider
This set of multiple choice SAN storage

T.
c) Manager
questions and answers focuses on Storage d) None of the mentioned
Management aspects.
Answer: b

O
1. A Subprofile can reference other
subprofiles 7. The server can operate directly on the

SP
a) True underlying system by calling the system’s
b) False commands, services, and library functions.
a) True
Answer: a b) False
G
2. Clients use which protocol to discover SMI Answer: a
Agents on Storage Area Network?
LO

a) SLP (Service Location Protocol) 8. Transport protocol used for XMLCIM is

b) AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol) a) UDP
c) SMIP (SMI Protocol) b) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned c) SNMP
d) None of the mentioned
.B

Answer: a
Answer: b
3. Encoding mechanism of CIM Data as
17

XML Elements ? 9. A single CIM based management

a) CIM-XML application can manage storage arrays from
b) xmlCIM multiple vendors.
c) SGML a) True
-R

d) None of the mentioned b) False

Answer: b Answer: a
SE

4. Can a vendor implement additional Classes 10. Collects responses from providers and
or support additional Properties than are returns to the client
defined in a Profile and still be considered a) xmlCIM
conformant? b) CIMOM
C

a) True c) DMTF
b) False d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: b

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Answer: c

Series – Storage Area Networks. Explanation: None.

5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable

TOPIC 2.7 INTERACTIVE __________

M
PROCESSES a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one

O
1. Which process can be affected by other
processes executing in the system? d) that can not be more than one
a) cooperating process

C
b) child process Answer: a
c) parent process Explanation: None.

T.
d) init process
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
Answer: a __________
Explanation: None. a) mutex locks

O
b) binary semaphores
2. When several processes access the same c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores

SP
data concurrently and the outcome of the d) none of the mentioned
execution depends on the particular order in
which the access takes place, is called? Answer: c
a) dynamic condition Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
as mutex locks.
G
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition 7. When high priority task is indirectly
LO

preempted by medium priority task

Answer: b effectively inverting the relative priority of
Explanation: None. the two tasks, the scenario is called
__________
a) priority inversion
.B

3. If a process is executing in its critical

section, then no other processes can be b) priority removal
executing in their critical section. This c) priority exchange
condition is called? d) priority modification
17

a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion Answer: a
c) synchronous exclusion Explanation: None.
d) asynchronous exclusion
-R

8. Process synchronization can be done on

Answer: a __________
Explanation: None. a) hardware level
b) software level
SE

4. Which one of the following is a c) both hardware and software level

synchronization tool? d) none of the mentioned
a) thread
b) pipe Answer: c
C

c) semaphore Explanation: None.

d) socket
9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates
__________

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) shared data structures c) Costs of lunch time food

b) procedures that operate on shared data d) Costs of support staff
structure
c) synchronization between concurrent Answer: c
procedure invocation Explanation: This is a incurred by the

M
d) all of the mentioned employees.

Answer: d 3. What is related to the overall functionality

O
Explanation: None. of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics

C
10. To enable a process to wait within the b) Product-related metrics
monitor __________ c) Size-related metrics

T.
a) a condition variable must be declared as d) None of the mentioned
condition
b) condition variables must be used as Answer: a
boolean objects Explanation: Productivity is expressed in

O
c) semaphore must be used terms of the amount of useful functionality
d) all of the mentioned produced in some given time. Function points

SP
and object points
Answer: a are the best-known metrics of this type.
Explanation: None.
4. A _________ is developed using historical
cost information that relates some software
G
TOPIC 2.8 BASICS OF metric to the project cost.
SOFTWARE ESTIMATION a) Algorithmic cost modelling
LO

b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
TOPIC 2.9 EFFORT AND COST d) Parkinson’s Law
ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES
Answer: a
.B

1. Which of the following are parameters Explanation: The model uses a basic
involved in computing the total cost of a regression formula with parameters that are
derived from historical project data and
17

software development project?

a) Hardware and software costs current as well as future project
b) Effort costs characteristics.
c) Travel and training costs
5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an
d) All of the mentioned
-R

early stage in a project when only a

Answer: d specification is available
Explanation: All these are accounted for in a) True
b) False
SE

estimating a software development cost.

2. Which of the following costs is not part of Answer: a

the total effort cost? Explanation: Function-point and object-point
a) Costs of networking and communications estimates are easier to produce than estimates
C

b) Costs of providing heating and lighting of code size but are often still inaccurate.
office space

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which technique is applicable when other Answer: d

projects in the same analogy application Explanation: Estimates are based on function
domain have been completed? points, which are then converted to number of
a) Algorithmic cost modelling lines of source code. The formula follows the
b) Expert judgement standard form discussed above with a

M
c) Estimation by analogy simplified set of seven multipliers.
d) Parkinson’s Law
10. Which model is used to compute the

O
Answer: c effort required to integrate reusable
Explanation: The cost of a new project is components or program code that is

C
estimated by analogy with these completed automatically generated by design or program
projects. translation tools?

T.
a) An application-composition model
7. Which model assumes that systems are b) A post-architecture model
created from reusable components, scripting c) A reuse model
or database programming? d) An early design model

O
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model Answer: c

SP
c) A reuse model Explanation: None.
d) An early design model
11. The COCOMO model takes into account
Answer: a different approaches to software
G
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates development, reuse, etc.
of prototype development. a) True
b) False
LO

8. Which of the following states that work

expands to fill the time available. Answer: b
a) CASE tools Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model.
b) Pricing to win COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-
.B

c) Parkinson’s Law models that produce increasingly detailed

d) Expert judgement software estimates.

Answer: c .
17

Explanation: The cost is determined by

available resources rather than by objective
assessment. If the software has to be
TOPIC 2.10 COSMIC FULL
delivered in 12 months and 5 people are FUNCTION POINTS
-R

available, the effort required is estimated to

be 60 person-months. 1. Which of the following is not a metric for
design model?
9. Which model is used during early stages of
SE

a) Interface design metrics

the system design after the requirements have b) Component-level metrics
been established? c) Architectural metrics
a) An application-composition model d) Complexity metrics
b) A post-architecture model
C

c) A reuse model Answer: d

d) An early design model Explanation: Complexity metrics measure
the logical complexity of source code.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are 6. Architectural Design Metrics are
part of ___________ in nature.
a) Analysis Model a) Black Box
b) Testing b) White Box
c) Design Model c) Gray Box

M
d) Source Code d) Green Box

Answer: b Answer: a

O
Explanation: These metrics lead to the Explanation: They are “black box” in that
design of test cases that provide program they do not require any knowledge of the

C
coverage. inner workings of a particular software
component.

T.
3. Function Points in software engineering
was first proposed by 7. Structural complexity of a module i is
a) Booch given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f
b) Boehm symbolizes here?

O
c) Albrecht a) “fan check-out” of module i
d) Jacobson b) “fan check-in” of module i

SP
c) “fan in” of module i
Answer: c d) “fan out” of module i
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in
1979, hundreds of books and papers have Answer: d
G
been written on functions points since then. Explanation: Fan out is number of modules
directly invoked by module i.
4. How many Information Domain Values are
LO

used for Function Point Computation? 8. SMI stands for

a) three a) Software Mature Indicator
b) four b) Software Maturity Index
c) five c) Software Mature Index
.B

d) six d) Software Maturity Indicator

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The five values are: External Explanation: None.
17

Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries,

Internal Logical Files and External Interface 9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software
Files. product starts becoming unstable
a) True
-R

5. Function Point Computation is given by the b) False

formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) Answer: b
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the
SE

c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) software product begins to stabilize.

d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt
Answer: b is the number of modules
C

Explanation: Option b is the correct formula a) in the current release

for Function Point Computation. b) in the current release that have been
changed

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) from the preceding release that were development team

deleted in the current release d) Avoiding customer complaints
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Projects need to be managed

M
Explanation: None. because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and
11. The amount of time that the software is schedule constraints.

O
available for use is known as
a) Reliability 2. Project managers have to assess the risks

C
b) Usability that may affect a project.
c) Efficiency a) True

T.
d) Functionality b) False

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: Risk management involves

O
anticipating risks that might affect the project
12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as schedule or the quality of the software being

SP
the degree to which the software developed, and then taking action to avoid
a) stated needs these risks.
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources 3. Which of the following is not considered as
d) none of the mentioned a risk in project management?
G
a) Specification delays
Answer: b b) Product competition
LO

Explanation: None. c) Testing

d) Staff turnover
.
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
.B

it can’t be categorized as risk.

UNIT III ACTIVITY 4. The process each manager follows during

17

PLANNING AND RISK the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management
MANAGEMENT b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
-R

d) All of the mentioned

TOPIC 3.1 OBJECTIVES OF
ACTIVITY PLANNING Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
SE

1. Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and

management goal? manage projects successfully.
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
C

the agreed time a) very low

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) moderate and process proposed system changes, how to

d) high decide what system components to change,
how to manage different versions of the
Answer: d system and its components, and how to
Explanation: The probability of the risk distribute changes to customers.

M
might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
(10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50– 9. Identify the sub-process of process
75%), or very high (>75%). improvement

O
a) Process introduction
6. Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis

C
parameters that you should use when c) De-processification
computing the costs of a software d) Process distribution

T.
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are

O
engineers and managers) identified.
d) all of the mentioned

SP
10. An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
G
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.
Answer: b
LO

7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality

developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
.
.B

c) customers
d) project manager

Answer: b
TOPIC 3.2 PROJECT
17

Explanation: The quality plan should set out SCHEDULES

the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. 1. Which of the following is the reason that
software is delivered late?
-R

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Changing customer requirements that are
for the configuration management of a not reflected in schedule changes
software system? b) Technical difficulties that could not have
a) Internship management
SE

been foreseen in advance

b) Change management c) Human difficulties that could not have
c) Version management been foreseen in advance
d) System management d) All of the mentioned
C

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: None.
policies and processes define how to record

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

2. Which of the following is an activity that 6. What is used to determine the

distributes estimated effort across the planned recommended degree of rigor with which the
project duration by allocating the effort to software process should be applied on a
specific software engineering tasks? project?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule a) Degree of Rigor

M
b) Software Project scheduling b) Adaptation criteria
c) Software Detailed schedule c) Task Set

O
d) None of the mentioned d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation
criteria
Answer: b

C
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor

T.
3. Every task that is scheduled should be are: casual, structured, strict, and quick
assigned to a specific team member is termed reaction.
as
a) Compartmentalization 7. What evaluates the risk associated with the

O
b) Defined milestones technology to be implemented as part of
c) Defined responsibilities project scope?

SP
d) Defined outcomes a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
Answer: c c) Technology risk assessment
Explanation: These responsibilities are d) Customer reaction to the concept
G
domain specific.
Answer: b
4. What is a collection of software Explanation: None.
LO

engineering work tasks, milestones, and

deliverables that must be accomplished to 8. Which of the following is not an adaptation
complete a particular project? criteria for software projects?
a) Task set a) Size of the project
.B

b) Degree of milestone b) Customers Complaints

c) Adaptation criteria c) Project staff
d) All of the mentioned d) Mission criticality
17

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: These can vary from client to
client.
5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated
-R

number of people are allocated at any given 9. Which of the following is a project
time in Software Scheduling is known as scheduling method that can be applied to
a) Time Allocation software development?
b) Effort Validation a) PERT
SE

c) Defined Milestone b) CPM

d) Effort Distribution c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer: b
C

Explanation: None. Answer: d

Explanation: Program evaluation and review
technique (PERT) and critical path method

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

(CPM) are two project scheduling methods TOPIC 3.4 SEQUENCING AND
that can be applied to software development.
SCHEDULING
10. A technique for performing quantitative
analysis of progress is known as 1. Round robin scheduling falls under the

M
a) BCWS category of ____________
b) EVA a) Non-preemptive scheduling
c) BAC

O
b) Preemptive scheduling
d) CBSE c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

C
Answer: b
Explanation: The earned value system Answer: b

T.
provides a common value scale for every Explanation: None.
task, regardless of the type of work being
performed. The total hours to do the whole 2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a
project are estimated, and every task is given time shared system ____________

O
an earned value based on its estimated a) using very large time slices converts it into
percentage of the total. First come First served scheduling algorithm

SP
b) using very small time slices converts it into
11. What is the recommended distribution of First come First served scheduling algorithm
effort for a project? c) using extremely small time slices increases
a) 40-20-40 performance
G
b) 50-20-30 d) using very small time slices converts it into
c) 30-40-30 Shortest Job First algorithm
d) 50-30-20
LO

Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: All the processes will be able to
Explanation: A recommended distribution of get completed.
effort across the software process is 40%
.B

(analysis and design), 20% (coding), and 40% 3. The portion of the process scheduler in an
(testing). operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with ____________
12. A project usually has a timeline chart a) assigning ready processes to CPU
17

which was developed by b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue

a) Henry Gantt c) assigning running processes to blocked
b) Barry Boehm queue
c) Ivar Jacabson d) all of the mentioned
-R

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: Timeline chart, also called a
SE

Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an 4. Complex scheduling algorithms

industrial engineer in 1917 . ____________
a) are very appropriate for very large
. computers
C

b) use minimal resources

TOPIC 3.3 ACTIVITIES c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a c) tQ = 45ms
Explanation: Large computers are d) tQ = 50ms
overloaded with a greater number of
processes. Answer: a
Explanation: None.

M
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in 9. Orders are processed in the sequence they
the queue arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.

O
b) first executes the job that came in first in a) earliest due date
the queue b) slack time remaining

C
c) first executes the job that needs minimal c) first come, first served
processor d) critical ratio

T.
d) first executes the job that has maximum
processor needs Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: b

O
Explanation: None. 10. Which of the following algorithms tends
to minimize the process flow time?

SP
6. The strategy of making processes that are a) First come First served
logically runnable to be temporarily b) Shortest Job First
suspended is called ____________ c) Earliest Deadline First
a) Non preemptive scheduling d) Longest Job First
G
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first Answer: b
d) First come First served Explanation: None.
LO

Answer: b 11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround

Explanation: None. time for short jobs is usually ________ and
that for long jobs is slightly ___________
7. What is Scheduling? a) Lengthened; Shortened
.B

a) allowing a job to use the processor b) Shortened; Lengthened

b) making proper use of processor c) Shortened; Shortened
c) all of the mentioned d) Shortened; Unchanged
17

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
-R

12. Which of the following statements are

8. There are 10 different processes running on true? (GATE 2010)
a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for
an input event in the input queue. Busy I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling
SE

processes are scheduled with the Round- II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvat
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for III. Round robin is better than FCFS in ter
small response times, if the processes have a
C

short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms? a) I only

a) tQ = 15ms b) I and III only
b) tQ = 40ms

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) II and III only are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation,

d) I, II and III Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and
Physical layer. Each layer uses a protocol to
Answer: d perform its designated function, for example,
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first the data link layer uses error detection

M
scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest protocols for error control functions.
job scheduling. It may cause starvation as
shorter processes may keep coming and a 3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer

O
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. but OSI model have this layer.
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If a) session layer

C
priority based scheduling with preemption is b) transport layer
used, then a low priority process may never c) application layer

T.
get CPU. d) network layer
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves
response time as all processes get CPU after a Answer: a
specified time. Explanation: In OSI reference model, there

O
. are two layers which are not present in
TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and

SP
Session layer. The functions of Presentation
TOPIC 3.5 NETWORK and Session layer in the OSI model are
PLANNING MODELS handled by the transport layer itself in
TCP/IP.
G
1. OSI stands for __________
a) open system interconnection 4. Which layer is used to link the network
b) operating system interface support layers and user support layers?
LO

c) optical service implementation a) session layer

d) open service Internet b) data link layer
c) transport layer
Answer: a d) network layer
.B

Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for

Open System Interconnection. OSI model Answer: c
provides a structured plan on how Explanation: Physical, data link and network
layers are network support layers and session,
17

applications communicate over a network,

which also helps us to have a structured plan presentation and application layers are user
for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the support layers. The transport layer links these
ISO as the generalized model for computer layers by segmenting and rearranging the
network i.e. it can be modified to design any data. It uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
-R

kind of computer network.

5. Which address is used on the internet for
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference employing the TCP/IP protocols?
SE

model is __________ a) physical address and logical address

a) 4 b) port address
b) 5 c) specific address
c) 6 d) all of the mentioned
C

d) 7
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The physical, logical, port and
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there specific addresses are used in TCP/IP

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is Answer: c

physical (MAC) and logical address, port Explanation: A port number is a way to
address and specific address are employed in identify a specific process to which an
both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In Internet or other network message is to be
TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some

M
the internet implementation of these examples of port numbers are port 20 which
addresses. is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used

O
for SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the used for TELNET.
OSI model.

C
a) prior to 9. Which layer provides the services to user?
b) after a) application layer

T.
c) simultaneous to b) session layer
d) with no link to c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
Answer: a

O
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes Answer: a
were developed at multiple research centers Explanation: In networking, a user mainly

SP
between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI interacts with application layer to create and
reference model was developed in the year send information to other computer or
1984. TCP/IP was developed with the network. Application layer provides the
intention to create a model for the Internet interface between applications and the
G
while OSI was intended to be a general network. It is the top-most layer in both the
network model. TCP/IP and the OSI model.
LO

7. Which layer is responsible for process to 10. Transmission data rate is decided by
process delivery in a general network model? ____________
a) network layer a) network layer
b) transport layer b) physical layer
.B

c) session layer c) data link layer

d) data link layer d) transport layer

Answer: b Answer: b
17

Explanation: The role of Transport layer Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1

(Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end device which deals with network cables or the
connection between two systems in a standards in use like connectors, pins, electric
network. The protocols used in Transport current used etc. Basically the transmission
-R

layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is speed is determined by the cables and
responsible for segmentation of the data. It connectors used. Hence it is physical layer
uses ports for the implementation of process- that determines the transmission speed in
SE

to-process delivery. network. Some of the cables used for high

speed data transmission are optical fiber
8. Which address is used to identify a process cables and twisted pair cables.
on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
C

b) logical address TOPIC 3.6 | 3.7 | 3.8

c) port address FORMULATING NETWORK
d) specific address MODEL, FORWARD PASS &

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

BACKWARD PASS a) Retesting

TECHNIQUES b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
1. Which of the following term describes

M
testing? Answer: c
a) Finding broken code Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors the already deployed software. The deployed

O
c) A stage of all projects software needs to be enhanced, changed or
d) None of the mentioned migrated to other hardware. The Testing done

C
during this enhancement, change and
Answer: b migration cycle is known as maintenance
Explanation: Software testing is the process

T.
testing.
of evaluation a software item to detect
differences between given input and expected 5. White Box techniques are also classified as
output. a) Design based testing

O
b) Structural testing
2. What is Cyclomatic complexity? c) Error guessing technique

SP
a) Black box testing d) None of the mentioned
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing Answer: b
d) Green box testing Explanation: The structural testing is the
G
testing of the structure of the system or
Answer: b component. Structural testing is often referred
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box
LO

measures the amount of decision logic in the testing’ because in structural testing we are
program module.Cyclomatic complexity interested in what is happening ‘inside the
gives the minimum number of paths that can system/application’.
generate all possible paths through the
module.
.B

6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
3. Lower and upper limits are present in b) practically possible
which chart? c) impractical but possible
17

a) Run chart d) impractical and impossible

b) Bar chart
c) Control chart Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing
-R

where we execute single test case for multiple

Answer: a test data.It means if we are using single test
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor case for different product or module under
the behavior of a variable over time for a
SE

manual testing.
process or system. Run charts graphically testing .
display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random
patterns in behavior over time. It contains 7. Which of the following is/are White box
lower and upper limits. technique?
C

a) Statement Testing
4. Maintenance testing is performed using b) Decision Testing
which methodology?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Condition Coverage
TOPIC 3.10 RISK
d) All of the mentioned
IDENTIFICATION
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision 1. What is the main purpose of hazard

M
testing, condition coverage all of them uses identification?
white box technique. a) To minimise the effect of a consequence

O
b) For better risk management
8. What are the various Testing Levels? c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
a) Unit Testing d) To reduce probability of occurrence

C
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing Answer: c

T.
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
Answer: d understand the concentration of toxins, spatial
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing distribution and there movement.

O
all of them are levels in testing.
2. The ____________ process determines

SP
9. Boundary value analysis belong to? whether exposure to a chemical can increase
a) White Box Testing the incidence of adverse health effect.
b) Black Box Testing a) Hazard identification
c) White Box & Black Box Testing b) Exposure assessment
d) None of the mentioned
G
c) Toxicity assessment
d) Risk characterization
Answer: b
LO

Explanation: Boundary value analysis is Answer: a

based on testing at the boundaries between Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
partitions and checks the output with path of the toxins and also determines the
expected output. likelihood of occurrence in humans.
.B

10. Alpha testing is done at 3. Which of the following data is not required
a) Developer’s end for hazard identification?
b) User’s end a) Land use
17

c) Developer’s & User’s end b) Contaminant levels

d) None of the mentioned c) Affected population
d) Estimation of risk
Answer: a
-R

Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the Answer: d

developer’s end. Developers observe the Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at
users and note problems. Alpha testing is risk characterization whereas land use,
testing of an application when development is
SE

contaminant level, affected population and

about to complete. Minor design changes can biota data play a major role while identifying
still be made as a result of alpha testing. a hazard.

TOPIC 3.9 CRITICAL PATH 4. Hazard is defined as the probability of

C

suffering harm or loss.

(CRM) METHOD a) True
b) False

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Explanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential c) Monitoring is failed
source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals

M
5. Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to

O
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

C
contamination on site
d) For determination of remedial actions 9. The purpose of risk management is to

T.
identify potential problems before they occur
Answer: c so that risk-handling activities may be
Explanation: Site history provides precise planned.
information about the activities that had been a) False

O
carried on the area. Most of the instance b) True
contamination is due to past activities on site.

SP
Answer: b
6. What is the main objective of risk Explanation: The main goal of risk
assessment? management is to reduce the threats from an
a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks activity so that harm to the surrounding is
G
b) Remediation of contaminated sites minimized.
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants 10. Hazard identification mainly focus on
LO

______________
Answer: a a) Chemical source and concentration
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to b) Chemical exposure
understand possible problems and provides c) Chemical analysis
.B

alternatives as well as control measures to d) Chemical pathway

reduce the accident.
Answer: a
7. What is the first stage of risk assessment? Explanation: The main aim of hazard
17

a) Exposure assessment identification is to identify chemical source,

b) Hazard identification concentration and its movement in
c) Toxicity study environment.
d) Risk characterization
-R

Answer: b TOPIC 3.11 ASSESSMENT

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
stage of risk assessment. It provides clear 1. What is the main purpose of hazard
SE

understanding about chemical contaminants, identification?

their concentration and distribution in a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
environment. b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
C

8. An incident can be called hazardous only d) To reduce probability of occurrence

when?
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c contamination on site

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first d) For determination of remedial actions
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
understand the concentration of toxins, spatial Answer: c
distribution and there movement. Explanation: Site history provides precise

M
information about the activities that had been
2. The ____________ process determines carried on the area. Most of the instance
whether exposure to a chemical can increase contamination is due to past activities on site.

O
the incidence of adverse health effect.
a) Hazard identification 6. What is the main objective of risk

C
b) Exposure assessment assessment?
c) Toxicity assessment a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks

T.
d) Risk characterization b) Remediation of contaminated sites
c) Hazard management
Answer: a d) To know source of pollutants
Explanation: Hazard identification traces the

O
path of the toxins and also determines the Answer: a
likelihood of occurrence in humans. Explanation: Risk assessment helps to

SP
understand possible problems and provides
3. Which of the following data is not required alternatives as well as control measures to
for hazard identification? reduce the accident.
a) Land use
7. What is the first stage of risk assessment?
G
b) Contaminant levels
c) Affected population a) Exposure assessment
d) Estimation of risk b) Hazard identification
LO

c) Toxicity study
Answer: d d) Risk characterization
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at
risk characterization whereas land use, Answer: b
Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
.B

contaminant level, affected population and

biota data play a major role while identifying stage of risk assessment. It provides clear
a hazard. understanding about chemical contaminants,
their concentration and distribution in
17

4. Hazard is defined as the probability of environment.

suffering harm or loss.
a) True 8. An incident can be called hazardous only
b) False when?
-R

a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

Answer: b humans and ecological systems
Explanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential c) Monitoring is failed
SE

source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals

5. Why does site history have to be Answer: a

considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
C

a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to

b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

9. The purpose of risk management is to 2. Which of the following risk is the failure of
identify potential problems before they occur a purchased component to perform as
so that risk-handling activities may be expected?
planned. a) Product risk
a) False b) Project risk

M
b) True c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: b

O
Explanation: The main goal of risk Answer: a
management is to reduce the threats from an Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or

C
activity so that harm to the surrounding is performance of the software being developed.
minimized.

T.
3. Which of the following term is best defined
10. Hazard identification mainly focus on by the statement: “There will be a change of
______________ organizational management with different
a) Chemical source and concentration priorities.”?

O
b) Chemical exposure a) Staff turnover
c) Chemical analysis b) Technology change

SP
d) Chemical pathway c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of hazard Answer: c
G
identification is to identify chemical source, Explanation: None.
concentration and its movement in
environment. 4. Which of the following term is best defined
LO

by the statement: “The underlying technology

on which the system is built is superseded by
TOPIC 3.12 RISK PLANNING new technology.”?
a) Technology change
.B

TOPIC 3.13 RISK b) Product competition

c) Requirements change
MANAGEMENT d) None of the mentioned
17

1. Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment of
b) Investor software engineering.
-R

c) Production team
d) Project manager 5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
more about the risk?
SE

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the project b) Risk planning
schedule or the quality of the software being c) Risk analysis
developed, and then taking action to avoid d) Risk identification
C

these risks.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which of the following risks are derived 10. Risk management is now recognized as
from the organizational environment where one of the most important project
the software is being developed? management tasks.
a) People risks a) True
b) Technology risks b) False

M
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks Answer: a
Explanation: None.

O
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management .

C
level.
TOPIC 3.14 PERT TECHNIQUE

T.
7. Which of the following risks are derived
from the software or hardware technologies
that are used to develop the system? 1. Which of the following is not a phase of
a) Managerial risks project management?

O
b) Technology risks a) Project planning
c) Estimation risks b) Project scheduling

SP
d) Organizational risks c) Project controlling
d) Project being
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with Answer: d
Explanation: There are three phases of
G
technology might affect the product
development. project management. These are project
planning, project scheduling and project
LO

8. Which of the following term is best defined controlling. Project management refers to a
by the statement: “Derive traceability highly specialised job to achieve the
information to maximize information hiding objectives of a project.
in the design.”?
2. Who introduced the bar charts?
.B

a) Underestimated development time

b) Organizational restructuring a) Williams henry
c) Requirements changes b) Henry Gantt
d) None of the mentioned c) Jane Gantt
17

d) Joseph henry
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can Answer: b
help us understand the risk. Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the bar
-R

charts around 1900 A.D. They give pictorial

9. Which of the following strategies means representation in two dimensions of a project
that the impact of the risk will be reduced? by breaking it down into numerous
a) Avoidance strategies manageable units.
SE

b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans 3. Bar charts were modified later to obtain the
d) All of the mentioned milestone charts.
a) True
C

Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a progress, black colour is used and for

Explanation: The various tools or techniques progress behind schedule, red colour is used.
used for project management are bar charts,
milestone charts and network diagrams. Bar 7. A PERT network is activity-oriented while
charts were modified later to obtain the a CPM network is event-oriented.

M
milestone charts. a) True
b) False
4. The full form of PERT is ___________

O
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology Answer: b
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique Explanation: A CPM network is activity-

C
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology oriented while a PERT network is event-
d) Program Evaluation and Review oriented. Event is the completion of an

T.
Technique activity or the commencement of an activity.
An event may be head event, tail event or
Answer: d dual role event.
Explanation: There are various network

O
techniques that are called by various names 8. _________ are used to represent activity in
like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LESS. Network a network diagram.

SP
technique is one of the major advancements a) Circles
in management science. The full form of b) Squares
PERT is Program Evaluation and Review c) Rectangles
Technique. d) Arrows
G
5. The full form of CPM is ___________ Answer: d
a) Critical Path Method Explanation: A network is a flow diagram
LO

b) Control Path Method that consists of events and activities which

c) Critical Plan Management are connected sequentially and logically.
d) Control Path Management Arrows are used to represent activity in a
network diagram. Events are generally
.B

Answer: a represented by circles.

Explanation: The full form of CPM is the
Critical Path Method. CPM networks are 9. The shortest possible time in which an
mainly used for those projects for which a activity can be achieved under ideal
17

fairly accurate estimate of time of completion circumstances is known as ________

can be made for each activity. a) Pessimistic time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
6. In bar charts, which colour is used to show c) Expected time estimate
-R

the actual progress? d) The most likely time estimate

a) Red
b) Black Answer: b
Explanation: There are three kinds of time
SE

c) Blue
d) Green estimates made by PERT planners. These are
the optimistic time estimate, the pessimistic
Answer: d time estimate and the most likely time
Explanation: In bar charts, different colours estimate. The shortest possible time in which
C

are sometimes filled in the bars for showing an activity can be achieved under ideal
various control information. For actual circumstances is known as the optimistic time
progress, green colour is used. For anticipated estimate.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

10. According to the time estimates made by 1. A randomized algorithm uses random bits
the PERT planners, the maximum time that as input inorder to achieve a _____________
would be needed to complete an activity is good performance over all possible choice of
called as __________ random bits.
a) The most likely time estimate a) worst case

M
b) Optimistic time estimate b) best case
c) Pessimistic time estimate c) average case

O
d) Expected time estimate d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: c

C
Explanation: According to the time estimates Explanation: A randomized algorithm is an
made by the PERT planners, the maximum algorithm that employs a degree of

T.
time that would be needed to complete an randomness as a part of its logic using
activity is called the pessimistic time random bits as inputs and in hope of
estimate. This estimate does not include producing average case good performace.
possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.

O
2. Which of the following options match the
11. In a network, a critical path is the time- given statement:

SP
wise shortest path. Statement: The algorithms that use the
a) True random input to reduce the expected running
b) False time or memory usage, but always terminate
with a correct result in a bounded amount of
G
Answer: b time.
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is a) Las Vegas Algorithm
the time-wise longest path. The critical path b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
LO

in the Critical Path Method plays an essential c) Atlantic City Algorithm

role in scheduling and planning. d) None of the mentioned
12. The difference between the maximum Answer: a
.B

time available and the actual time needed to Explanation: The other type of algorithms
perform an activity is known as _________ are probabalistic algorithms, which
a) Free float depending upon the random input, have a
b) Independent float chance of producing incorrect results or fail
17

c) Total float to produce a result.

d) Half float
3. Which of the following are probalistic
Answer: c algorithms?
-R

Explanation: The difference between the a) Las Vegas Algorithm

maximum time available and the actual time b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
needed to perform an activity is known as the c) Atlantic City Algorithm
SE

total float. Hence, the total float is the excess d) All of the mentioned
of the maximum available time throughout
the time of the activity. Answer: d
Explanation: Monte Carlo algorithms are
very vast, but only probably correct. On thr
C

TOPIC 3.15 MONTE CARLO other side, Las Vegas algorithms are always
SIMULATION correct, but probably fast.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

4. Which of the following algorithms are randomized algorithms as probalistic turing

probably correct as well as fast? machines. A probalistic turing machine is a
a) Las Vegas Algorithm non deterministic turing machine which
b) Monte Carlo Algorithm randomly chooses between the available
c) Atlantic City Algorithm transitions at each point according to some

M
d) All of the mentioned probalistic distribution.

Answer: c 8. For the given algorithm, find the

O
Explanation: The atlantic city algorithms probability of finding after k iterations:
which are bounded polynomial time

C
algorithms are probably correct and probably find_a(array A, n, k)
fast. It is correct more than 75% of the times. begin

T.
5. Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the i=0
following:
a) cooperative behaviour repeat

O
b) graph theory
Randomly select one element out
c) Both (a) and (b)

SP
d) None of the mentioned i=i+1

Answer: a until i=k or a is found

Explanation: Prisonner’s dilemma is a
end
G
standard example of a game analysed in game
theory where rational cooperative behaviour
is judged on the basis of rewards and a) (1/2)k
LO

punishment. b) (1-(1/3))k
c) 1-(1/2)k
6. Unix sort command uses _________ as its d) None of the mentioned
sorting technique.
.B

a) Quick Sort Answer: c

b) Bucket Sort Explanation: The given is known as Monte
c) Radix Sort Carlo Algorithm. If a is fount, the algorithm
d) Merge Sort succeeds, else the algorith fails. The
17

algorithm doesn not guarantee success but the

Answer: a run time is bounded.
Explanation: Quicksort is the method of
choice in many applications( Unix sort 9. Which of the following can be solved in
-R

command) with O(nlogn) in worst case. computer science?

a) P=BPP problem
7. State true or false: b) NP=co-NP problem
Statement: A turing machine has the c) Do one way problems exist?
SE

capability of using randomly ‘generated’ d) All of the mentioned

numbers.
a) true Answer: d
b) false Explanation: There exists a list of unsolved
C

problems in computational theory which

Answer: a includes many problems including the ones
Explanation: Complexity theories models given.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

10. Which of the following can be referred to 3. In _________ the embedded devices and
as applications of Randomized algorithm? objects working under IoT are resource
a) Quicksort constrained.
b) Min Cut a) Health
c) Verifying Matrix Multiplication b) Industry

M
d) All of the mentioned c) Home
d) Information system
Answer: d

O
Explanation: Freivalds algorithm is a Answer: d
probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to Explanation: In the information system the

C
verify matrix multiplication. On the other embedded devices and objects working under
hand, Randomness can be useful in quicksort. IoT implementation are resource constrained.

T.
If the algorithm selects pivot element
uniformaly at random, it has a probably high 4. What type of networks is interacting under
probabilty of finishing the work in O(nlogn) IoT?
time regardless of the input. a) Heterogeneous only

O
b) Homogeneous Only
c) Both hetero and homogeneous
TOPIC 3.16 RESOURCE

SP
d) Neither hetero nor Homo
ALLOCATION
Answer: a
1. What is the popular method of organizing Explanation: Due to the huge number of
G
wireless network topologies? heterogeneous network elements interacting
a) Software and working under IoT based information
b) Synchronization systems, there is an enormous need for
LO

c) Network resource management for the smooth running

d) Cluster of IoT operations.

Answer: d 5. Managing of resources can be done by

.B

Explanation: Clustering is a popular method implementing ________

of organising wireless network topologies, in a) Protocols
which a few nodes, the cluster heads are b) Algorithms
c) Networks
17

elected as representing to route the traffic

originated in the entire network. d) Protocols and algorithms

2. _________ will enable the humans to Answer: d

access, control and manage the operation. Explanation: Managing of resources by
-R

a) IoT implementing protocols, algorithms or

b) Bigdata techniques is required to enhance the
c) Network scalability, reliability and stability in the
SE

d) Communication operations of IoT across different domains of

technology.
Answer: a
Explanation: IoT enables the humans to 6. This section is to solicit the efforts and
access, control and manage the operations ongoing research work in the domain of
C

and data of the objects working under _______

different information systems of their a) Information Management
surroundings. b) Resource Management

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Industrial Management –> QoS in communication protocol

d) Network Management –> Mac layer issues
–> Secure communication in D2D.
Answer: b
Explanation: The motivation of this section 10. Which of the following is the future

M
is to solicit the efforts and ongoing research application of IoT?
work in the domain of resource management a) Role of green IoT system
in IoT. b) QoS in communication

O
c) Secure communication
7. Resource management will elaborate the d) Multimedia communication

C
key aspects of _________
a) Industrial management Answer: a

T.
b) Energy management Explanation: Future applications of IoT:
c) Network management –> IoT based information system for Ambient
d) Information management living
–> Cyber Physical System in IoT

O
Answer: c –> Role of Green IoT system
Explanation: Resource management will –> Fog computing.

SP
elaborate the key aspects of energy
management, communication protocols and 11. The object of IoT will be empowered by
future applications of IoT for information ___________
systems. a) Network
G
b) Cloud
8. Resource management includes c) Devices
___________ d) Connectivity
LO

a) IoT Devices
b) IoT Cloud Answer: c
c) IoT Networks Explanation: The objects of the Internet of
d) IoT Web Things will be empowered by embedded
.B

devices whose constrained resources will

Answer: b need to be managed efficiently.
Explanation: Resource management includes
IoT Cloud, IoT based industrial and home 12. The embedded devices will form _______
17

environment and integration of IoT concept in network.

upcoming technologies of Cyber Physical a) ATM
System, Ambient living and Fog Computing. b) Ethernet
c) FDDI
-R

9. What is the role of communication protocol d) Ad-hoc

in IoT?
a) Smart cities Answer: d
b) Cyber physical system Explanation: It is envisioned that these
SE

c) Mac layer issue devices will be able to form ad-hoc network,

d) Managing energy and that the connection from these networks
to the Internet of Things infrastructure will
Answer: c not always be possible.
C

Explanation: Role of communication

protocol in IoT : 13. _______ are used to overcome the
–> Multimedia communication challenges of managing the resources of the

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

IoT. 1. Architectural design is a creative process

a) Clustering satisfying only functional-requirements of a
b) Software agents system.
c) Synchronization techniques a) True
d) Cluster, Software agent, and b) False

M
Synchronization techniques
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: In architectural design you

O
Explanation: The use of Cluster, Software design a system organization satisfying the
agent, and Synchronization techniques in functional and non-functional requirements of

C
order to overcome the challenges of a system.
managing the resources of the Internet of

T.
Things objects. 2. A ________ view shows the system
hardware and how software components are
14. Which will reduce the energy distributed across the processors in the
expenditure? system.

O
a) Clustering a) physical
b) Software agents b) logical

SP
c) Synchronization techniques c) process
d) Cluster, Software agent, and d) all of the mentioned
Synchronization techniques
Answer: a
G
Answer: a Explanation: A physical view is
Explanation: Clustering will be beneficial to implemented by system engineers
reduce the energy expenditure and improve implementing the system hardware.
LO

the scalability and robustness of the object

networks. 3. The UML was designed for describing
_________
15. Synchronization techniques will be a) object-oriented systems
.B

necessary to address the various challenges of b) architectural design

harmonising. c) SRS
a) False d) Both object-oriented systems and
b) True Architectural design
17

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Synchronization techniques Explanation: The UML was designed for
will be necessary to address the various describing object-oriented systems and, at the
-R

challenges of harmonising plenty of copies of architectural design stage, you often want to
object data with potentially partially describe systems at a higher level of
disconnected Internet of Things architecture abstraction.
SE

components.
4. Which of the following view shows that
the system is composed of interacting
TOPIC 3.17 CREATION OF processes at run time?
CRITICAL PATHS, COST a) physical
C

SCHEDULES. b) development
c) logical
d) process

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: d 8. Which of the following pattern is the basis

Explanation: This view is useful for making of interaction management in many web-
judgments about non-functional system based systems?
characteristics such as performance and a) architecture
availability. b) repository pattern

M
c) model-view-controller
5. Which of the following is an architectural d) different operating system
conflict?

O
a) Using large-grain components improves Answer: c
performance but reduces maintainability Explanation: Model-View-Controller pattern

C
b) Introducing redundant data improves is the basis of interaction management in
availability but makes security more difficult many web-based systems.

T.
c) Localizing safety-related features usually
means more communication so degraded 9. What describes how a set of interacting
performance components can share data?
d) All of the mentioned a) model-view-controller

O
b) architecture pattern
Answer: d c) repository pattern

SP
Explanation: High availability architecture d) none of the mentioned
can be affected by several design factors that
are required to be maintained to ensure that Answer: c
no single points of failure exist in such Explanation: The majority of systems that
G
design. use large amounts of data are organized
around a shared database or repository.
6. Which of the following is not included in
LO

Architectural design decisions? 10. Which view in architectural design shows

a) type of application the key abstractions in the system as objects
b) distribution of the system or object classes?
c) architectural styles a) physical
.B

d) testing the system b) development

c) logical
Answer: d d) process
Explanation: Architectural design decisions
17

include decisions on the type of application, Answer: c

the distribution of the system, the Explanation: It is possible to relate the
architectural styles to be used, and the ways system requirements to entities in a logical
in which the architecture should be view.
-R

documented and evaluated.

11. Which of the following is a type of
7. Architecture once established can be Architectural Model?
a) Static structural model
SE

applied to other products as well.

a) True b) Dynamic process model
b) False c) Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
C

Explanation: Systems in the same domain Answer: d

often have similar architectures that reflect Explanation: All these models reflects the
domain concepts.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

basic strategy that is used to structure a Answer: a

system. Explanation: LOC or Line of Code is a direct
measure to estimate project size.
.
4. Which software project sizing approach

M
develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics?
a) Function point sizing

O
UNIT IV PROJECT b) Change sizing
MANAGEMENT AND c) Standard component sizing

C
d) Fuzzy logic sizing
CONTROL

T.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
TOPIC 4.1 FRAMEWORK FOR
MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL 5. The expected value for the estimation

O
variable (size), S, can be computed as a
1. Why is decomposition technique required? weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt),

SP
a) Software project estimation is a form of most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess)
problem solving estimates given as
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a a) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4
software project is too complex b) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
G
c) All of the mentioned c) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
d) None of the mentioned d) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4
LO

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: For these reasons, we Explanation: This assumes that there is a
decompose the problem, re-characterizing it very small probability that the actual size
as a set of smaller problems. result will fall outside the optimistic or
.B

pessimistic values.
2. Cost and effort estimation of a software
uses only one forms of decomposition, either 6. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s
COCOMO Model?
17

decomposition of the problem or

a) Two
decomposition of the process.
a) True b) Three
c) Four
b) False
d) No form exists
-R

Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: Estimation uses one or both
forms of partitioning. Explanation: The three forms include the
basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO
SE

3. If a Direct approach to software project model.

sizing is taken, size can be measured in
a) LOC 7. Who suggested the four different
b) FP approaches to the sizing problem?
C

c) LOC and FP a) Putnam

d) None of the mentioned b) Myers

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Boehm Answer: b
d) Putnam and Myers Explanation: The planner must determine the
cause of divergence and then reconcile the
Answer: d estimates.
Explanation: None.

M
12. Programming language experience is a
8. In many cases, it is often more cost- part of which factor of COCOMO cost
effective to acquire, rather than develop, drivers?

O
computer software. a) Personnel Factor
a) True b) Product Factor

C
b) False c) Platform Factor
d) Project Factor
Answer: a

T.
Explanation: Managers are faced with a Answer: a
make-buy decision in such situations. Explanation: None.

O
9. A make-buy decision is based on whether 13. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the
a) The software may be purchased off-the- sizing approach is represented as

SP
shelf a) LOC
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” b) FP
software components should be used c) Fuzzy Logic
c) Customer-built software should be d) LOC and FP
developed
G
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: A function point (FP) is a unit
LO

Answer: d of measurement to express the amount of

Explanation: None.. business functionality an information system
provides to a user.
10. Which of the following is not one of the
five information domain characteristics of .
.B

Function Point (FP) decomposition?

a) External inputs
b) External outputs TOPIC 4.2 COLLECTION OF
17

c) External process DATA

d) External inquiries
1. Project management involves the planning,
Answer: c monitoring, and control of the people,
-R

Explanation: External inputs, external process, and events that occur as software
outputs, external inquiries, internal logical evolves from a preliminary concept to an
files, external interface files are the five operational implementation.
domains.
SE

a) True
b) False
11. The project planner must reconcile the
estimates based on decomposition techniques Answer: a
to produce a single estimate of effort. Explanation: None.
C

a) True
b) False 2. Which of the following is not an effective
software project management focus?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) people Answer: c
b) product Explanation: A small number of framework
c) popularity activities are applicable to all software
d) process projects, regardless of their size or
complexity.

M
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project 6. Who defines the business issues that often
management focuses on the four P’s: people, have significant influence on the project?

O
product, process, and project. a) Practitioners
b) Project managers

C
3. PM-CMM stands for c) Senior managers
a) people management capability maturity d) None of the mentioned

T.
model
b) process management capability maturity Answer: c
model Explanation: None.
c) product management capability maturity

O
model 7. Who delivers the technical skills that are
d) project management capability maturity necessary to engineer a product or an

SP
model application?
a) Practitioners
Answer: a b) Project managers
Explanation: The people management c) Senior managers
G
maturity model defines the following key d) None of the mentioned
practice areas for software people: recruiting,
selection, performance management, training, Answer: a
LO

compensation, career development, Explanation: None.

organization and work design, and
team/culture development. 8. Which of the following paradigm attempts
to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the
.B

4. Which of the following is not a project

manager’s activity? closed paradigm but also much of the
a) project control innovation that occurs when using the random
b) project management paradigm?
17

c) project planning a) asynchronous paradigm

d) project design b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
Answer: d d) synchronous paradigm
-R

Explanation: The design part of any project

management is done by the project team. Answer: b
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures
5. A software ________ provides the are well suited to the solution of complex
SE

framework from which a comprehensive plan problems but may not perform as efficiently
for software development can be established. as other teams.
a) people
b) product 9. Which of the following is a people-
C

c) process intensive activity?

d) none of the mentioned a) Problem solving
b) Organization

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Motivation 2. Who interacts with the software once it is

d) Project management released for production use?
a) End-users
Answer: d b) Client
Explanation: For this reason, competent c) Project (technical) managers

M
practitioners often make poor team leaders. d) Senior managers
10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely Answer: a

O
and depends on individual initiative of the Explanation: A product is always built to
team members? satisfy an end-user.

C
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm 3. Which of the following is not an effective

T.
c) closed paradigm project manager trait?
d) synchronous paradigm a) Problem solving
b) Managerial identity
Answer: d c) Influence and team building

O
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned

SP
11. Which of the following is not an approach Answer: d
to software cost estimation? Explanation: All are key traits of an effective
a) Empirical project manager.
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical 4. Which type of software engineering team
G
d) Critical has a defined leader who coordinates specific
tasks and secondary leaders that have
LO

Answer: d responsibility for sub tasks?

Explanation: Critical is no such standard a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
approach of cost estimation. b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled centralized (CC)
.
.B

d) None of the mentioned

TOPIC 4.3 VISUALIZING Answer: a

Explanation: Problem solving remains a
17

PROGRESS group activity, but implementation of

solutions is partitioned among subgroups by
1. Which paradigm relies on the natural the team leader.
compartmentalization of a problem and
-R

organizes team members to work on pieces of 5. Commitments to unrealistic time and

the problem with little active communication resource estimates may result in
among themselves? a) project delay
a) random paradigm b) poor quality work
SE

b) open paradigm c) project failure

c) closed paradigm d) all of the mentioned
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: d
C

Answer: c Explanation: None.

Explanation: None.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which software engineering team has no the functionality that must be delivered and
permanent leader? the process that will be used to deliver it.
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized (DD) 10. Which of the following is not a sign that
c) Controlled Centralized (CC) indicates that an information systems project

M
d) None of the mentioned is in jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand their
Answer: b customers needs

O
Explanation: Here Communication among b) Changes are managed poorly
team members is horizontal. c) Sponsorship is gained

C
d) Users are resistant
7. Which of the following is not a project

T.
factor that should be considered when Answer: c
planning the structure of software engineering Explanation: Other options are contradictory
teams? to the question.
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved

O
b) High frustration caused by personal, 11. SPMP stands for
business, or technological factors that causes a) Software Project Manager’s Plan

SP
friction among team members b) Software Project Management Plan
c) The degree of sociability required for the c) Software Product Management Plan
project d) Software Product Manager’s Plan
d) The rigidity of the delivery date
Answer: b
G
Answer: c Explanation: After planning is complete,
Explanation: Development is irrelevant of documenting of the plans is done in a
LO

social quotient. Software Project Management Plan(SPMP)

document.
8. Which of the following is a collection of
project coordination technique? .
.B

a) Formal approaches
b) Formal, interpersonal procedures TOPIC 4.4 COST MONITORING
c) Informal, interpersonal procedures
d) All of the mentioned
17

1. Which of the following categories is part of

Answer: d the output of software process?
Explanation: None. a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer
-R

9. Which activity sits at the core of software programs

requirements analysis? c) data
a) Problem decomposition d) all of the mentioned
b) Partitioning
SE

c) Problem elaboration Answer: d

d) All of the mentioned Explanation: None

Answer: d 2. Which is a software configuration

C

Explanation: During the scoping activity management concept that helps us to control
decomposition is applied in two major areas: change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) Baselines c) Baseline
b) Source code d) None of the mentioned
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.

M
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the 6. Which of the following is the process of
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a assembling program components, data, and

O
software configuration item becomes a libraries, and then compiling and linking
baseline, change may be made quickly and these to create an executable system?

C
informally. a) System building
b) Release management

T.
3. Software Configuration Management can c) Change management
be administered in several ways. These d) Version management
include
a) A single software configuration Answer: a

O
management team for the whole organization Explanation: None.
b) A separate configuration management

SP
team for each project 7. Which of the following option is not
c) Software Configuration Management tracked by configuration management tools?
distributed among the project members a) Tracking of change proposals
d) All of the mentioned b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to
G
Answer: a customers
Explanation: None d) None of the mentioned
LO

4. What combines procedures and tools to Answer: d

manage different versions of configuration Explanation: All the options are tracked.
objects that are created during the software
8. Which of the following is not a Software
.B

process?
a) Change control Configuration Management Activity?
b) Version control a) Configuration item identification
c) SCIs b) Risk management
17

d) None of the mentioned c) Release management

d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management Answer: b
-R

allows a user to specify alternative Explanation: Risk management is an entirely

configurations of the software system through different domain.
the selection of appropriate versions.
9. The definition and use of configuration
SE

5. What complements the formal technical management standards is essential for quality
review by assessing a configuration object for certification in
characteristics that are generally not a) ISO 9000
considered during review? b) CMM
C

a) Software configuration audit c) CMMI

b) Software configuration management d) All of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: d which components in the system have been

Explanation: It is defined in all the changed.
mentioned options.
3. Which of the following is not a Version
10. What involves preparing software for management feature?

M
external release and keeping track of the a) Version and release identification
system versions that have been released for b) Build script generation
customer use? c) Project support

O
a) System building d) Change history recording
b) Release management

C
c) Change management Answer: b
d) Version management Explanation: All other options are a part of

T.
version management.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 4. Which method recommends that very
frequent system builds should be carried out

O
. with automated testing to discover software
problems?

SP
a) Agile method
TOPIC 4.5 EARNED VALUE b) Parallel compilation method
ANALYSIS c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned
G
1. Which of the following process ensures
that versions of systems and components are Answer: a
recorded and maintained? Explanation: In keeping with the agile
LO

a) Codeline methods notion of making many small

b) Configuration control changes, continuous integration involves
c) Version rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small
d) Workspace source code changes have been made.
.B

Answer: b 5. Which of the following is not a build

Explanation: In configuration control system feature?
changes are managed and all versions of a) Minimal recompilation
17

components are identified and stored for the b) Documentation generation

lifetime. c) Storage management
d) Reporting
2. Which of the following process is
-R

concerned with analyzing the costs and Answer: c

benefits of proposed changes? Explanation: To reduce the storage space
a) Change management required by multiple versions of components
that differ only slightly, version management
SE

b) Version management
c) System building systems usually provide storage management
d) Release management facilities.

Answer: a 6. Which of the following is a collection of

C

Explanation: It involves approving those component versions that make up a system?

changes that are worthwhile, and tracking a) Version
b) Codeline

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Baseline new codeline from a version in an existing

d) None of the mentioned codeline”?
a) Branching
Answer: c b) Merging
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which c) Codeline

M
means that the versions of the components d) Mainline
making up the system cannot be changed.
Answer: a

O
7. Which of the following is a configuration Explanation: The code may then be
item? developed independently.

C
a) Design & Test specification
b) Source code .

T.
c) Log information
d) All of the mentioned
TOPIC 4.6 PRIORITIZING
Answer: d MONITORING

O
Explanation: A configuration item is an
approved and accepted deliverable, changes 1. “Robustness” answers which of the

SP
have to be made through formal procedure. following description?
a) CASE tools be used to support the process
8. Which of the following is a part of system activities
release? b) Process errors are avoided or trapped
a) electronic and paper documentation
G
before they result in product errors
describing the system c) Defined process is acceptable and usable
b) packaging and associated publicity that by the engineers responsible for producing
LO

have been designed for that release the software

c) an installation program that is used to help d) Process continues in spite of unexpected
install the system on target hardware problems
d) all of the mentioned
.B

Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: None.
Explanation: Release creation is the process
of creating the collection of files and 2. Process improvement is the set of
17

documentation that includes all of the activities, methods, and transformations that
components of the system release. developers use to develop and maintain
information systems.
9. A sequence of baselines representing a) True
-R

different versions of a system is known as b) False

a) System building
b) Mainline Answer: b
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
SE

Explanation: The definition is of a system

d) None of the mentioned development process.
Answer: b 3. “Understandability” answers which of the
Explanation: None. following description?
C

a) The extent to which the process is

10. Which of the following term is best explicitly defined
defined by the statement “The creation of a b) Process errors are avoided or trapped

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

before they result in product errors b) Process analysis

c) Defined process is acceptable and usable c) Process modelling
by the engineers responsible for producing d) None of the mentioned
the software product
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected Answer: c

M
problems Explanation: Process models may be
presented from different perspectives.
Answer: a

O
Explanation: None. 8. It is always best to start process analysis
with a new test model.

C
4. How many stages are there in process a) True
improvement? b) False

T.
a) three
b) four Answer: b
c) five Explanation: It is always best to start process
d) six analysis with an existing model. People then

O
may extend and change this.
Answer: a

SP
Explanation: Process measurement, analysis 9. What is a tangible output of an activity that
and change are the three stages. is predicted in a project plan?
a) Deliverable
5. In which stage of process improvement b) Activity
bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified? c) Condition
G
a) Process measurement d) Process
b) Process analysis
LO

c) Process change Answer: a

d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.

Answer: b 10. What is often undefined and is left to the

Explanation: In Process analysis the current ingenuity of the project managers and
.B

process is assessed and bottlenecks and engineers?

weaknesses are identified. a) Role
b) Exception
17

6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are c) Activity

categorized under which process? d) Process
a) Informal
b) Managed Answer: b
-R

c) Methodical Explanation: Exceptions are often undefined

d) Supported and it is left to the ingenuity of the project
managers and engineers to handle the
Answer: a exception.
SE

Explanation: Here the development team

chose their own way of working. 11. Which of the following is not a part of
process change?
7. The documentation of a process which a) Introducing new practices, methods or
C

records the tasks, the roles and the entities processes

used is called b) Introducing new team members to existing
a) Process metric project

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Introducing or removing deliverable 2. Project managers have to assess the risks

d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Adding more developers aid to

M
process completion rather than changing it. Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is anticipating risks that might affect the project

O
a continuous model. schedule or the quality of the software being
a) True developed, and then taking action to avoid

C
b) False these risks.
Answer: b

T.
3. Which of the following is not considered as
Explanation: The CMM is discrete rather a risk in project management?
than continuous. a) Specification delays
b) Product competition

O
13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x- c) Testing
point scale. What is the value of x? d) Staff turnover

SP
a) 0
b) 2 Answer: c
c) 4 Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
d) 6 it can’t be categorized as risk.
G
Answer: d 4. The process each manager follows during
Explanation: Not performed, performed, the life of a project is known as
LO

managed, defined, quantitatively managed, a) Project Management

and optimizing are the six points. b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
. d) All of the mentioned
.B

TOPIC 4.7 PROJECT Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
TRACKING is necessary to repeatedly implement and
17

manage projects successfully.

1. Which of the following is not project
management goal? 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Keeping overall costs within budget a) very low
-R

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high
development team
SE

d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d

Explanation: The probability of the risk
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
Explanation: Projects need to be managed (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
C

because professional software engineering is 75%), or very high (>75%).

always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

6. Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis

parameters that you should use when c) De-processification
computing the costs of a software d) Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b

M
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

O
engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
10. An independent relationship must exist

C
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.

T.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.
Answer: b

O
7. Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

SP
a) team value of the attribute than can be measured.
b) project
c) customers .
d) project manager
G
TOPIC 4.8 CHANGE CONTROL
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
LO

the desired software qualities and describe 1. SCM stands for

how these are to be assessed. a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity c) Software Concept Management
d) None of the mentioned
.B

for the configuration management of a

software system?
a) Internship management Answer: b
b) Change management Explanation: In software engineering,
17

c) Version management software configuration management (SCM) is

d) System management the task of tracking and controlling changes
in the software, part of the larger cross-
Answer: a discipline field of configuration management.
-R

Explanation: Configuration management

policies and processes define how to record 2. When code is made available to others, it
and process proposed system changes, how to goes in a/an
a) hard drive
SE

decide what system components to change,

how to manage different versions of the b) access-controlled library
system and its components, and how to c) servers
distribute changes to customers. d) access control
C

9. Identify the sub-process of process Answer: b

improvement Explanation: None.
a) Process introduction

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

3. Which of the following is not a main phase 8. What is one or more software configuration
in Configuration Management (CM) Process? items that have been formally reviewed and
a) CM Planning agreed upon and serve as a basis for further
b) Executing the CM process development?
c) CM audits a) Baseline

M
d) None of the mentioned b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
Answer: d

O
d) Change Control
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
Answer: a

C
4. CM is about managing the different items Explanation: In configuration management, a
in the product, and changes in them. “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the

T.
a) True attributes of a product, at a point in time,
b) False which serves as a basis for defining change.

Answer: a 9. How are baselines verified?

O
Explanation: None. a) By reviews
b) By inspections

SP
5. What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code
same source files at the same time? d) All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process
G
Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to
d) Version Control and Access control description.
LO

Answer: a 10. Which of the following is a example of

Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
.B

c) Software design descriptions

6. Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned
management process?
a) Log the changes Answer: d
17

b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned 11. SCM controls only the products of the
development process.
-R

Answer: d a) True
Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False
7. Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a
SE

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.

a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
C

Answer: a b) Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a 3. Software Configuration Management can

Explanation: None. be administered in several ways. These
include
13. What information is required to process a a) A single software configuration
change to a baseline? management team for the whole organization

M
a) Reasons for making the changes b) A separate configuration management
b) A description of the proposed changes team for each project
c) List of other items affected by the changes

O
c) Software Configuration Management
d) All of the mentioned distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned

C
Answer: d
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to Answer: a

T.
description of the product, changes require Explanation: None
multiple reasons..
4. What combines procedures and tools to
. manage different versions of configuration

O
objects that are created during the software
TOPIC 4.9 SOFTWARE process?

SP
a) Change control
CONFIGURATION b) Version control
MANAGEMENT c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned
G
1. Which of the following categories is part of
the output of software process? Answer: b
a) computer programs Explanation: Configuration management
LO

b) documents that describe the computer allows a user to specify alternative

programs configurations of the software system through
c) data the selection of appropriate versions.
d) all of the mentioned
.B

5. What complements the formal technical

Answer: d review by assessing a configuration object for
Explanation: None characteristics that are generally not
considered during review?
17

2. Which is a software configuration a) Software configuration audit

management concept that helps us to control b) Software configuration management
change without seriously impeding justifiable c) Baseline
change? d) None of the mentioned
-R

a) Baselines
b) Source code Answer: a
c) Data model Explanation: None.
SE

d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is the process of
Answer: a assembling program components, data, and
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the libraries, and then compiling and linking
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a these to create an executable system?
C

software configuration item becomes a a) System building

baseline, change may be made quickly and b) Release management
informally.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Change management Answer: b

d) Version management Explanation: None.

Answer: a .
Explanation: None.

M
7. Which of the following option is not TOPIC 4.10 MANAGING
tracked by configuration management tools? CONTRACTS - CONTRACT

O
a) Tracking of change proposals MANAGEMENT.
b) Storing versions of system components

C
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to 1. A voluntary arrangement between two or
customers more parties that is enforceable by law as a

T.
d) None of the mentioned binding legal agreement is known as
__________
Answer: d
a) job
Explanation: All the options are tracked.

O
b) loan
8. Which of the following is not a Software c) contract
d) mutual fund

SP
Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
Answer: c
b) Risk management
Explanation: A contract arises when the
c) Release management
parties agree that there is an agreement.
d) Branch management
G
Formation of a contract generally requires an
Answer: b offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual
LO

Explanation: Risk management is an entirely intent to be bound. Each party to a contract

different domain. must have capacity to enter the agreement.
Minors, intoxicated persons, and those under
9. The definition and use of configuration a mental affliction may have insufficient
management standards is essential for quality capacity to enter a contract. Some types of
.B

certification in contracts may require formalities, such as a

a) ISO 9000 memorialization in writing.
b) CMM
17

c) CMMI 2. What is the type of mistake which occurs

d) All of the mentioned when only one party to a contract is mistaken
as to the terms or subject-matter?
Answer: d a) Mutual mistake
-R

Explanation: It is defined in all the b) Unilateral mistake

mentioned options. c) Bilateral mistake
d) Individual mistake
10. What involves preparing software for
SE

external release and keeping track of the Answer: b

system versions that have been released for Explanation: The courts will uphold such a
customer use? contract unless it was determined that the
a) System building non-mistaken party was aware of the mistake
C

b) Release management and tried to take advantage of the mistake. It

c) Change management is also possible for a contract to be void if
d) Version management there was a mistake in the identity of the
contracting party. An example is in Lewis v.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Avery where Lord Denning MR held that the 5. Which tender allows anyone to submit a
contract can only be voided if the plaintiff can tender to supply the goods or services that are
show that, at the time of agreement, the required?
plaintiff believed the other party’s identity a) Framework tendering
was of vital importance. A mere mistaken b) Selective tendering

M
belief as to the credibility of the other party is c) Open tendering
not sufficient. d) Close tendering

O
3. _______________ contract is one that has Answer: c
automatic renewals until one party requests Explanation: On larger projects, there may

C
termination. then be a pre-qualification process that
a) Uniform produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who

T.
b) Evergreen will be invited to prepare tenders. This sort of
c) Moderate pre-qualification process is not the same as
d) On-demand selective tendering.
Open tendering has been criticised for

O
Answer: b attracting tenders / expressions of interest
Explanation: If these are left unattended, from large numbers of suppliers, some of

SP
they can have significant cost impacts with whom may be entirely unsuitable for the
little value. If these agreements won’t work contract and as a result it can waste a great
for the company, the clauses stating the deal of time, effort and money. However,
contract automatically renews should be open tendering offers the greatest competition
G
removed. If the clause makes sense or cannot and has the advantage of allowing new or
be taken out, alerts can still be set in a emerging suppliers to try to secure work.
contract management platform as a reminder.
LO

6. ________________ involves the

4. How are final contracts signed in modern preparation of tenders based on a typical or
business? notional bill of quantities or schedule of
a) e-Signatures works.
.B

b) Document scanning a) Framework tendering

c) Thump impression b) Selective tendering
d) Shaking hands c) Negotiated tendering
17

d) Serial tendering
Answer: a
Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e- Answer: d
Signatures, have become crucial for Explanation: The rates submitted can then be
businesses as they seek to increase the speed used to value works over a series of similar
-R

of time-to-signature, e-Signatures are legally projects, often for a fixed period of time
binding and have the same legal status as a following which the tendering procedure may
written signature, as long as it fulfills the be repeated. Serial tendering can reduce
SE

requirements of the regulation it was created tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to
under. submit low rates to secure an ongoing
A contract management platform should program of work.
include the ability to integrate with an e-
Signature software, or include e-Signatures as 7. _______________ tendering is used when
C

part of the platform. all the information necessary to calculate a

realistic price is available when tendering
commences.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) Single-stage • The form of contract.

b) Double-stage • A tender pricing document.
c) Framework • A drawing schedule.
d) Serial • Design drawings.
• Specifications.

M
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-stage tendering is the 9. Mutual mistake occurs when both parties
more traditional route, used when all the of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.

O
information necessary to calculate a realistic a) False
price is available when tendering commences: b) True

C
• An invitation to tender is issued to
prospective suppliers (perhaps following Answer: b

T.
completion of a pre-qualification Explanation: Each believes they are
questionnaire and/or a pre-tender interview). contracting to something different. Courts
The invitation to tender will include usually try to uphold such mistakes if a
information describing the goods or services reasonable interpretation of the terms can be

O
required in sufficient detail to enable found. However, a contract based on a mutual
prospective suppliers to prepare an accurate mistake in judgment does not cause the

SP
tender. contract to be voidable by the party that is
• Tenders are prepared and returned by adversely affected.
prospective suppliers (this may involve
questions and answers and a mid-tender 10. In Schedule contract the contractor
G
interview to clarify the client’s requirements). undertakes the execution or construction of
• Submitted tenders are then assessed and specific work with all its contingencies, to
compared (this may involve further complete it in all respect within a specified
LO

interviews). time for a fixed amount.

• The preferred tenderer is selected and a) False
negotiations opened. b) True
• Subject to the outcome of those negotiations
.B

the preferred tenderer may then be appointed. Answer: a

Explanation: In lump sum contract the
8. An invitation to tender might not include? contractor undertakes the execution or
construction of specific work with all its
17

a) Holiday packages
b) Preliminarie contingencies, to complete it in all respect
c) A letter of invitation to tender within a specified time for a fixed amount. In
d) Design drawing this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a
specified lump sum after the completion of
-R

Answer: a work without a cost breakdown. After work

Explanation: An invitation to tender might no detailed measurements are required.
be issued for a range of contracts, including;
SE

equipment supply, the main construction

contract (perhaps including design by the
contractor), demolition, enabling works and
so on. UNIT V STAFFING IN
An invitation to tender might include: SOFTWARE PROJECTS
C

• A letter of invitation to tender.

• The form of tender.
• Preliminaries. TOPIC 5.1 MANAGING PEOPLE

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

1. Project management involves the planning, Answer: d

monitoring, and control of the people, Explanation: The design part of any project
process, and events that occur as software management is done by the project team.
evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation. 5. A software ________ provides the

M
a) True framework from which a comprehensive plan
b) False for software development can be established.
a) people

O
Answer: a b) product
Explanation: None. c) process

C
d) none of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is not an effective

T.
software project management focus? Answer: c
a) people Explanation: A small number of framework
b) product activities are applicable to all software
c) popularity projects, regardless of their size or

O
d) process complexity.

SP
Answer: c 6. Who defines the business issues that often
Explanation: Effective software project have significant influence on the project?
management focuses on the four P’s: people, a) Practitioners
product, process, and project. b) Project managers
G
c) Senior managers
3. PM-CMM stands for d) None of the mentioned
a) people management capability maturity
LO

model Answer: c
b) process management capability maturity Explanation: None.
model
c) product management capability maturity 7. Who delivers the technical skills that are
necessary to engineer a product or an
.B

model
d) project management capability maturity application?
model a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
17

Answer: a c) Senior managers

Explanation: The people management d) None of the mentioned
maturity model defines the following key
practice areas for software people: recruiting, Answer: a
-R

selection, performance management, training, Explanation: None.

compensation, career development,
organization and work design, and 8. Which of the following paradigm attempts
to structure a team in a manner that achieves
SE

team/culture development.
some of the controls associated with the
4. Which of the following is not a project closed paradigm but also much of the
manager’s activity? innovation that occurs when using the random
a) project control paradigm?
C

b) project management a) asynchronous paradigm

c) project planning b) open paradigm
d) project design

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) closed paradigm None

d) synchronous paradigm

Answer: b TOPIC 5.3 BEST METHODS OF

Explanation: Open paradigm team structures STAFF SELECTION

M
are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently
as other teams. TOPIC 5.4 MOTIVATION

O
9. Which of the following is a people- 1. Interviews are conversations with _______

C
intensive activity? a) fun
a) Problem solving b) purpose

T.
b) Organization c) friendliness
c) Motivation d) informality
d) Project management
Answer: b

O
Answer: d Explanation: The correct statement is:
Explanation: For this reason, competent Interviews are conversations with purpose.

SP
practitioners often make poor team leaders. For the employer the purpose is to determine
the most suitable person for the job.
10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely
and depends on individual initiative of the 2. A job interview is a formal meeting
team members?
G
between a job seeker and an employer.
a) random paradigm a) True
b) open paradigm b) False
LO

c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Interview
Answer: d is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job
Explanation: None.
.B

interview is a formal meeting between a job

seeker and an employer.
11. Which of the following is not an approach
to software cost estimation? 3. All job interviews have the same objective.
17

a) Empirical a) True
b) Heuristic b) False
c) Analytical
d) Critical Answer: a
-R

Explanation: The statement is true. All job

Answer: d interviews have the same objective, but
Explanation: Critical is no such standard employers reach that objective in a variety of
approach of cost estimation. ways.
SE

. 4. Which of these is not a type of interview?

a) Screening interview
TOPIC 5.2 ORGANIZATIONAL b) Stress interview
C

c) Music interview
BEHAVIOR d) Lunch interview

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c 8. Which of these interviews is adapted for

Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: computer programmers?
They are Screening interview, stress a) The stress interview
interview, behavioural interview, the audition, b) The group interview
group interview, telephone, lunch interview, c) The screening interview

M
video interview and sequential interview. d) The audition

5. Which kind of interview includes a process Answer: d

O
in which the employability of the job Explanation: For some positions such as
applicant is evaluated? computer programmers or trainers, companies

C
a) Stress interview want to see you in action before they make
b) Screening interview their decision. Here, the audition type is

T.
c) Group interview adapted.
d) Behavioural interview
9. In which of these, more than one candidate
Answer: b is interviewed?

O
Explanation: In the screening interview, a) The behavioural interview
companies use screening tools to ensure that b) The stress interview

SP
candidates meet minimum qualification c) The group interview
requirements. d) The audition

6. How many styles are used in a screening Answer: c

G
interview? Explanation: In group interview, more than
a) Two one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing
b) Five simultaneously with other candidates can be
LO

c) Three disconcerting, but it provides the company

d) Four with a sense of your leadership potential and
style.
Answer: a
.B

Explanation: There are two styles used in a 10. Which of these interviews is taken for a
screening interview. They are: the directive candidate far away?
style and the meandering style. a) Lunch interview
b) Telephone
17

7. In which of these interviews, insults are c) Stress interview

common? d) Group interview
a) Screening interview
b) Stress interview Answer: b
-R

c) Behavioural interview Explanation: Many organizations will

d) Group interview conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a
field of candidates. Telephone interviews may
Answer: b
SE

also be used as a preliminary interview for

Explanation: In stress interview, insults and candidates who live far away.
miscommunication is common. All this is
designed to see whether you have the mettle
to withstand the company culture or other TOPIC 5.5 THE OLDHAM-
C

potential stress. HACKMAN JOB

CHARACTERISTIC MODEL

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

https://study.com/academy/practice/quiz- 4. Factor of safety is used to find out the

worksheet-hackman-oldham-s-job- reliability of the design.
characteristics-model.html a) True
b) False

M
TOPIC 5.6 STRESS , HEALTH Answer: a
AND SAFETY Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about
how much load the material can take before it

O
1. Which of the following is the numerator of fails. Basically, it states the load carrying
factor safety formula? capacity of a material beyond the actual load.

C
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress 5. What can understand by the factor of safety

T.
c) Tensile stress equal to one?
d) Ultimate stress a) It means that the structure will fail under
load
Answer: d b) It means that the structure will only

O
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as support the actual load
ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. It c) it means that the structure will support

SP
is also called as factor of ignorance. The more than the actual load
factor of safety is dependent on the type of d) There is no relation between factor safety
load. and load application
G
2. Which of the following can be the factor of Answer: b
safety for a dead load? Explanation: When the factor of safety is one
a) 6 it means that the ultimate stress is equal to the
LO

b) 2 working stress and therefore the body can

c) 4 only support load up to actual load and no
d) 7 more before failing.
.B

Answer: c 6. For which of the following design factor of

Explanation: For dead load, the range in safety the design will work properly?
which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5. a) 0.1
Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 b) 1
17

are all values which are beyond that range. c) 2

d) 0.9
3. Which of the following can be the factor of
safety for shock loading? Answer: c
-R

a) 11 Explanation: If the design factor of safety is

b) 13 not more than 1 then the design may not work
c) 4 and will fail under certain conditions.
SE

d) 7
7. What is a safe factor of failure for a
Answer: b component which on failure can result in
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in financial loss or serious injury?
which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15. a) 1
C

Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, b) 2

7 are all values which are beyond that range. c) 3
d) 4

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: d c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware

Explanation: For components which on d) All of the mentioned
failing can be hazardous and can lead to
serious injuries, death and financial loss, the Answer: d
factor of safety should be taken equal to or Explanation: None.

M
more than 4.
3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with
8. Design factor for most aircraft structures is reference to one of the eight principles as per

O
2. the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) True a) The product should be easy to use

C
b) False b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
products and related modifications meet the

T.
Answer: b highest professional standards possible
Explanation: The design factor of safety for c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
most aircraft structures or components is products and related modifications satisfy the
taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors affect client

O
this value, but it is most of the time taken as d) It means that the product designed /created
1.5. should be easily available

SP
Answer: b
TOPIC 5.7 ETHICAL AND Explanation: None.
PROFESSIONAL CONCERNS OF
4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the
G
WORKING IN TEAMS
situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
LO

1. Choose the correct option in terms of

system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional responsibility
system
a) Confidentiality
b) Refusing to undertake a project
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual
.B

senior management
property rights
d) All of the mentioned
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: a
17

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
respect the confidentiality of their employers 5. Identify the correct statement: “Software
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall
-R

formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best interests
signed. of his expertise and favour.”
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
SE

patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”

d) all of the mentioned
2. “Software engineers should not use their
technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
C

computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
a) Unauthorized access to computer material a manner that is in the best interests of their
b) Unauthorized modification of computer client and employer consistent with the public
material

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

interest and shall ensure that their products 9. The reason for software bugs and failures
and related modifications meet the highest is due to
professional standards possible.Thus options a) Software companies
a & c are ruled out. b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers

M
6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software d) All of the mentioned
engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside Answer: c

O
your competence.” Explanation: Software companies are
b) not use your technical skills to misuse responsible for making policies and providing

C
other people’s computers.” working atmosphere for the software
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” development, so in turn these companies

T.
d) maintain integrity and independence in become a part of software development
their professional judgment.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
thing. Thus option c answers the question.
Answer: c

O
Explanation:None. 10. Company has latest computers and state-
of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t

SP
7. Efficiency in a software product does not worry about the quality of the product.
include ________ a) True
a) responsiveness b) False
b) licensing
G
c) memory utilization Answer: b
d) processing time Explanation: The infrastructure is only one
of the several factors that determine the
LO

Answer: b quality of the product.

Explanation: Licensing of a software product
comes under corporate part of the software .
company.
.B

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project TOPIC 5.8 DECISION MAKING
get cancelled before they are completed, 53%
overrun their cost estimates by an average of 1. Software Maintenance includes
17

189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 a) Error corrections
restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics b) Enhancements of capabilities
? c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
a) Lack of adequate training in software d) All of the mentioned
-R

engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding Answer: d
c) Management issues in the company Explanation: None.
SE

d) All of the mentioned

2. Maintenance is classified into how many
Answer: a categories ?
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of a) two
Software Engineering as a subject,hence b) three
C

option a covers them both. c) four

d) five

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: c 7. Selective retest techniques may be more

Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective economical than the “retest-
and preventive are the four types of software all”technique.How many selective retest
maintenance. techniques are there?
a) two

M
3. The modification of the software to match b) three
changes in the ever changing environment, c) four
falls under which category of software

O
d) five
maintenance?
a) Corrective Answer: b

C
b) Adaptive Explanation: The three categories include:
c) Perfective Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.

T.
d) Preventive
8. Which selective retest technique selects
Answer: b every test case that causes a modified
Explanation: None. program to produce a different output than its

O
original version?
4. How many phases are there in Taute a) Coverage

SP
Maintenance Model? b) Minimization
a) six c) Safe
b) seven d) Maximization
c) eight
G
d) nine Answer: c
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus on
Answer: c coverage criteria, instead they select every
LO

Explanation: None. test case that cause a modified program to

produce different output than its original
5. What type of software testing is generally version.
used in Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
.B

9. ______________ measures the ability of a

b) System Testing regression test selection technique to handle
c) Integration Testing realistic applications.
d) Unit Testing a) Efficiency
17

b) Precision
Answer: a c) Generality
Explanation: All other options are known as d) Inclusiveness
levels of software testing which further have
-R

types of software testing. Answer: c

Explanation: Generality measures the ability
6. Regression testing is a very expensive of a technique to handle realistic and diverse
activity.
SE

language constructs, arbitrarily complex

a) True modifications, and realistic testing
b) False applications.
Answer: a 10. Which regression test selection technique
C

Explanation: As regression testing is exposes faults caused by modifications?

performed many times over the life of the a) Efficiency
software product, it becomes a costly affair. b) Precision

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Generality c) An implementation exhibits an architecture

d) Inclusiveness if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the
Answer: d implementation must be divided into
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the prescribed components

M
extent to which a technique chooses test cases d) None of the mentioned
that will cause the modified program to
produce different output than the original Answer: c

O
program, and thereby expose faults caused by Explanation: An implementation exhibits an
modifications. architecture if it conforms to the structural

C
decisions described by the architecture, the
. implementation must be divided into

T.
prescribed components.
TOPIC 5.9 ORGANIZATIONAL 4. Why does architecture dictates
STRUCTURES organizational structure?

O
a) Architecture describes the structure of the
1. Why is Software architecture so important? system being developed which becomes

SP
a) Communication among stakeholders engraved in the development project structure
b) Early Design decisions b) An implementation exhibits an architecture
c) Transferable abstraction of a system if it conforms to the structural decisions
d) All of the mentioned described by the architecture
G
c) Architecture may not describe structure as
Answer: d whole
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to d) None of the mentioned
LO

be important are all the mentioned above.

Answer: a
2. Why is software architecture called vehicle Explanation: Architecture describes the
for stakeholder communication? structure of the system being developed
.B

a) Each stakeholder of a software system is which becomes engraved in the development

concerned with different characteristics of the project structure.
system affected by architecture
b) Architecture provides a common language 5. Which of the following is right dependence
17

in which different concerns can be expressed relationship?

c) All of the mentioned a) Performance depends on how strongly
d) None of the mentioned components are coupled with other
components in system
-R

Answer: d b) Re-usability depends on the volume and

Explanation: All of the mentioned are complexity of the inter-component
correct. communication and coordination
SE

c) Modifiability depends on system’s

3. Which lines depict that architecture defines modularization
constraints on an implementation? d) All of the mentioned
a) An implementation exhibits an architecture
if it conforms to the structural decisions Answer: c
C

described by the architecture Explanation: Performance depends on the

b) The implementation need not be divided volume and complexity of the inter-
into prescribed components component communication and coordination,

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

re-usability depends on how strongly 9. Which change is accomplished by

components are coupled with other modifying a single component?
components in system and modifiability a) A local change
depends on system’s modularization. b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change

M
6. Which of the following is correct for d) All of the mentioned
decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from Answer: a

O
high level design to coding, implementation Explanation: A local change is accomplished
affect system quality by modifying a single component.

C
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from
high level design to coding, implementation 10. An architecture help in evolutionary

T.
may or may not affect system quality prototyping in which of the following ways?
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from a) Potential performance problem can be
high level design to coding,implementation identified early in the product’s life cycle
does not affect system quality b) The system is executable early in the

O
d) None of the mentioned product’s life cycle
c) All of the mentioned

SP
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like
cycle from high level design to coding, Answer: c
implementation affect system quality. Explanation: All the mentioned are the valid
G
ways.
7. Is it possible to make quality predictions
about a system based solely on evaluation of 11. Which of the following are software
LO

its architecture? structures?

a) Yes a) Module Structure
b) No b) Conceptual or logical structure
c) May be c) Process structure
.B

d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Yes it is possible to make Explanation: All of the mentioned are the
17

quality predictions about a system based valid structures.

solely on evaluation of its architecture.
12. Which structure describes units as
8. Every possible architecture partition abstraction of system’s functional
-R

possible changes into which of the following requirements?

categories? a) Conceptual structure
a) Local b) Module structure
c) Physical structure
SE

b) Non Local
c) Architectural d) Calls structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes
C

Explanation: All of the mentioned are true. units as abstraction of system’s functional
requirements.

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

13. Which structure’s view is orthogonal to as-you-go usage model allows for costs to be
the module and conceptual view? applied to individual accounts directly.
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure 2. Point out the correct statement.
c) Uses Structure a) Except for tightly managed SaaS cloud

M
d) Data flow providers, the burden of resource
management is still in the hands of the user
Answer: b b) Cloud computing vendors run very reliable

O
Explanation: Process Structure-view is networks
orthogonal to the module and conceptual c) The low barrier to entry cannot be

C
view. accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning
d) All of the mentioned

T.
14. Which structure’s view shows the
mapping of software onto hardware? Answer: b
a) Module Structure Explanation: Often, cloud data is load-
b) Process Structure balanced between virtual systems and

O
c) Physical Structure replicated between sites.
d) Class Structure

SP
3. ________ captive requires that the cloud
Answer: c accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows a) Licensed
the mapping of software onto hardware. b) Policy-based
G
c) Variable
15. Which structure describes units are d) All of the mentioned
programs or module?
LO

a) Calls Structure Answer: b

b) Uses Structure Explanation: Compliance with laws and
c) Data Flow policies varies by geographical area.
d) Control Flow
4. Security methods such as private
.B

Answer: d encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes

Explanation: Control Flow-structure under __________ subject area.
describes units are programs or module. a) Accounting Management
17

b) Compliance
c) Data Privacy
TOPIC 5.10 DISPERSED AND d) All of the mentioned
VIRTUAL TEAMS
-R

Answer: c
1. Which of the following subject area deals Explanation: To ensure data privacy in the
with pay-as-you-go usage model? cloud, additional security methods such as
private encryption, VLANs, firewalls, and
SE

a) Accounting Management
b) Compliance local storage of sensitive data are necessary.
c) Data Privacy
d) All of the mentioned 5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Large cloud providers with geographically
C

Answer: a dispersed sites worldwide, therefore, achieve

Explanation: For cloud computing, the pay- reliability rates that are hard for private
systems to achieve

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Private data centers tend to be located in 9. Cloud ________ are standardized in order
places where the company or unit was to appeal to the majority of its audience.
founded or acquired a) SVAs
c) A network backbone is a very low-capacity b) SLAs
network connection c) SALs

M
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: b

O
Explanation: On the Internet, an Internet Explanation: Custom SLAs that allow for
backbone consists of the high-capacity routes multiple data sources are difficult to obtain or

C
and routers that are typically operated by an enforce.
individual service provider such as a

T.
government or commercial entity. 10. ___________ is a function of the
particular enterprise and application in an on-
6. Which of the following captive area deals premises deployment.
with monitoring? a) Vendor lock

O
a) Licensed b) Vendor lock-in
b) Variable but under control c) Vendor lock-ins

SP
c) Low d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Vendor lock-in for a cloud
G
Explanation: For private systems, any computing solution in a PaaS model is very
monitoring system the organization wishes to high.
deploy can be brought to bear.
LO

7. Network bottlenecks occur when ______ TOPIC 5.11 COMMUNICATIONS

data sets must be transferred. GENRES
a) large
.B

b) small
c) big TOPIC 5.12 COMMUNICATION
d) all of the mentioned PLANS
17

Answer: a 1. Which of these is the external sounds

Explanation: This is the case for staging, present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise
8. The reputation for cloud computing b) Semantic problems
-R

services for the quality of those services is

c) Cultural barriers
shared by _________ d) Over communication
a) replicas
b) shards
SE

Answer: a
c) tenants Explanation: Noise is the external sounds
d) all of the mentioned present in the channels of communication,
which results in the reduction of the audibility
Answer: c or omission of some words from the message.
C

Explanation: Clouds often have higher

reliability than private systems. 2. Which of these should not be avoided for
effective communication?

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

a) Noise the jungle of information whereas in under

b) Planning communication the sender is blamed for
c) Semantic problems sharing less information.
d) Wrong assumptions
6. Communication should serve as a conflict-

M
Answer: b reduction exercise.
Explanation: Lack of planning must be a) True
avoided for effects communication. There are b) False

O
innumerable examples of people who would
give an ill planned, long winding lecture Answer: a

C
while a short presentation with tables or Explanation: The statement is true.
graphs would be sufficient. Communication should serve as a conflict-

T.
reduction exercise. When people start
3. __________ are problems arising from competing for the fulfillment of their narrow
expression. interests communication suffers.
a) Cultural barriers

O
b) Semantic problems 7. _______ means to impart understanding of
c) Wrong assumptions the message.

SP
d) Selecting perception a) Encoding
b) Receiver
Answer: b c) Decoding
Explanation: The correct statement is: d) Feedback
G
Semantic problems are problems arising from
expression or transmission of meaning in Answer: c
communication. Explanation: The correct statement is:
LO

Decoding means to impart understanding of

4. Both encoding and decoding of message the message. Receiver has to identify the
are influenced by our emotions. person, words symbols, etc..
a) True
8. When is the communication process
.B

b) False
complete?
Answer: a a) When the sender transmits the message
Explanation: The statement is true. Both b) When the message enters the channel
17

encoding and decoding of message are c) When the message leaves the channel
influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a d) When the receiver understands the
very important role in our lives. message.
-R

5. In which of these problems, is the actual Answer: d

message lost in the abundance of transmitted Explanation: Communication is complete
information? only when the receiver understands the
a) Selecting perception message. Many communication problems
SE

b) Over communication arise because of misunderstandings.

c) Under communication
d) Filtering 9. ______ is the first enemy of
communication.
C

Answer: b a) Noise
Explanation: In the case of over b) Clarity
communication, the actual message is lost in

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 IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Politeness important. The sender of the message should

d) Completeness be careful to see that the receiver does not
have to go beyond the text of the message.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise 11. Which of these is not a commandment of

M
is the first and foremost enemy of effective communication?
communication. Every possible effort must be a) Clarity in language
made to eliminate the element of noise that b) Listen poorly

O
distorts communication. c) Home communication skills
d) Adequate medium

C
10. Which of these must be avoided for
effective communication? Answer: b

T.
a) Sharing of activity Explanation: In order to ensure an effective
b) Listening communication one must take care of ten
c) Ambiguity commandments: Clarity in language, home
d) Politeness communication skills, listen attentively, etc..

O
Answer: c

SP
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided.
Clarity and crispness of the message is very
G
LO
.B
17
-R
SE
C

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 KIET Group of Institutions
Mechanical Engineering
B.Tech , 6th Semester
SPM Question Bank, (2020-2021) EVEN Semester
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

In Software Project Management, the end users and developers require to know
the
A. cost of the project
B. duration
C. Length
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

What is the first step in Project Planning? Select one:

A. Determine the budget.
B. Select a team organizational model.
C. Establish the objectives and scope.
D. Determine the project constraints.
ANSWER: C

Project Objectives should be SMART means

A. specified, measurable, achievable, relevance and time constrained
B. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant and time constrained
C. specified, measurable, achievable, relevant and time constrained
D. specific, measure, achievable, relevance and time constrained
ANSWER: B
How many steps are involved in stepwise project planning?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
ANSWER: C

Which of the following is not project management goal?


A. Keeping overall costs within budget
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D. Avoiding customer complaints
ANSWER: D

Which one is not a risk management activity?

A. Risk assessment
B. Risk generation
C. Risk control
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B

Cost-Benefit Analysis
A. evaluates the tangible and non-tangible factors
B. compares the cost, with the benefits, of introducing a computer-based system
C. estimates the hardware and software costs
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Calculate the net profit for the project according to given data:- Cash Flows are (-
1,20,000/- for 0 year,20,000/- for 1st year, 40,000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for 3rd
year, 80,000/- for 4th year):-
A. 50,000/-
B. 60,000/-
C. 70,000/-
D. 80,000/-
ANSWER: D
The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and re-
sources, identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific
project is known as …
A. project management.
B. Software
C. Process
D. Activities
ANSWER: A

Payback Period for the project according to given data:- Cash Flows are
(-1,20,000/- for 0 year,20,000/- for 1st year, 40,000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for
3rd year, 70,000/- for 4th year) will be
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
ANSWER: C

What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness,
and_____
A. Consistency
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these
ANSWER: A

A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.

A. Project fundamental purpose
B. Project quality
C. Project requirement
D. Project management
ANSWER: D
___________ is not an effective software project management focus.

A. people
B. product
C. process
D. popularity
ANSWER: D

_________ is not a project manager’s activity.


A. project design
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project control
ANSWER: A

The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?


A. Analytical
B. Critical
C. Empirical
D. Heuristic
ANSWER: B

What is the process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

A. Project Management
B. Project Management Life Cycle
C. Manager life cycle
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: B

Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.


A. customers
B. project manager
C. team
D. project
ANSWER: D
What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project
is included?
A. Create a contingency plan
B. Create a risk management plan
C. Create a WBS
D. Create sql queries
ANSWER: C

What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for

project completion?
A. Scope verification
B. Completing a scope statement
C. Scope definition
D. Process Management in OS
ANSWER: B

Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gath-

ered through a/an_______
A. Elicitation process
B. Interviewing
C. Meeting
D. None of given
ANSWER: A

Which of the following are valid step in SDLC framework?

A. Requirement Gathering
B. System Analysis
C. Software Design
D. All of them
ANSWER: D
Which model is being preferred when more focus on risks and their handling
A. Spiral Model
B. Prototype model
C. Iterative Model
D. V model
ANSWER: A

Waterfall model is not suitable for:

A. Small projects
B. Complex projects
C. Accommodating changes
D. Maintenance Projects
ANSWER: C

Before actual software development begins, this model requires to build the toy
implementation of it.
A. Spiral Model
B. Prototype Model
C. Waterfall Model
D. Evolutionary Model
ANSWER: B

The major drawback of RAD model is __________.

A. It requires highly skilled developers/designers.
B. It necessitates customer feedbacks.
C. It increases the component reusability.
D. It requires highly skilled developers/designers and also increases the compo-
nent reusability.
ANSWER: D

User requirements are expressed as _____ in Extreme Programming.

A. Functionalities
B. Scenarios
C. Implementation tasks
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Agile software development is based on _____?

A. Iterative development
B. Incremental development
C. Linear development
D. Both incremental and iterative development
ANSWER: D

How many phases are there in Scrum?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
ANSWER: B

In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.

Boehm?
A. Putnam model
B. COCOMO
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Which one of the following function points is most suitable for use in embedded
system development projects?
A. IFGUP function points
B. Mark II function points
C. COSMIC function points
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
RAD stands for

A. Relative Application Development
B. Rapid Application Development
C. Rapid Application Document
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B

Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?


A. Quick Design
B. Coding
C. Prototype Refinement
D. Engineer Product
ANSWER: B

SDLC stands for


A. Software Development Life Cycle
B. System Development Life cycle
C. Software Design Life Cycle
D. System Design Life Cycle
ANSWER: A

Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?

A. Waterfall Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
ANSWER: C

In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a

clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design
ANSWER: C
Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in
the SDLC.

A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Design
C. Analysis
D. Development and Documentation
ANSWER: D

____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that

a computer will use to perform that task.

A. Project design
B. Installation
C. Systems analysis
D. Programming
ANSWER: D

Selection of a model is based on


A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: D

Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?

A. Waterfall & RAD
B. Prototyping & Spiral
C. Prototyping & RAD
D. Waterfall & Spiral
ANSWER: B

Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team
has less experience on similar projects?

A. Spiral
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the
project activities into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
A. PERT chart
B. GANTT chart
C. Task network representation
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
ANSWER: D

PERT method differs from CPM in which one of the following aspects?
A. PERT uses statistical time durations where as CPM uses deterministic time du-
rations.
B. PERT uses dummy activities whereas CPM does not
C. PERT uses free float, whereas CPM uses total float in critical path calcula-
tions.
D. PERT uses activity on arc whereas CPM uses activity on node networks.
ANSWER: A

Which one of the following is true of a critical path in a PERT chart?

A. It is the path having maximum number of tasks.
B. It is the shortest path in terms of time
C. It is the longest path in terms of time
D. It is the path with the largest amount of slack time
ANSWER: C

The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:

A. Identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
B. Identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
C. Identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
D. Identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
ANSWER: B
Choose the correct option from the following statements?
A. CPM analysis is activity oriented
B. In CPM, the time is related to cost
C. PERT analysis is event oriented
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
ANSWER: B

Monte Carlo simulation is

A. static
B. dynamic
C. static or dynamic
D. none
ANSWER: A

Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earli-
est finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the
earliest starting time for Y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
ANSWER: B

Slack time in PERT analysis

A. Can never be less than zero
B. Is minimum for critical events
C. Can never be less than zero
D. Can never be greater than zero
ANSWER: B

Mark the wrong statement.

A. Forward pass calculations yield the earliest and the latest start and finish times
of various activities.
B. The difference between the latest and the earliest finish times is the total slack
C. Backward pass determines the latest start and the latest finish
D. Determination of the earliest and the latest start time of various activities of a
project is useful for proper planning of their execution.
ANSWER: B

Choose the correct option from the following statements?

A. CPM analysis is activity oriented
B. In CPM, the time is related to cost
C. PERT analysis is event oriented
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Andrew is a Project Manager for Green Valley project. A risk management plan
has been prepared for the project. Which of the following should Andrew do
next?
A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
B. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
C. Identify risks
D. Plan Risk responses
ANSWER: C

PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for

A. Small projects
B. Deterministic activities
C. Large and complex projects
D. Research and development projects
ANSWER: C

What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk?
A. Risk monitoring
B. Risk planning
C. Risk analysis
D. Risk identification
ANSWER: A

Among the following, critical path and slack time analysis most help .................
A. managers define the project activities.
B. highlight relationships among project activities.
C. point out who is responsible for various activities.
D. pinpoint activities that need to be closely watched.
ANSWER: D

What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.
ANSWER: B

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?

A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Which one of the following statements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is
true?
A. A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that contains
the least number of edges.
B. Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
C. Every PERT chart has exactly one critical path.
D. It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple critical
paths, all having exactly the same duration.
ANSWER: D
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D. Project manager
ANSWER: D

Your actual cost is 145 and your earned value is 170. What is your cost variance?
A. 25
B. -25
C. 162.5
D. -15
ANSWER: A

The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is

called…
A. Difference at Completion
B. Deficit at Completion
C. Variance at Completion
D. Management reserve
ANSWER: C

This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A. Project Monitoring and Control
B. Project size estimation
C. Project cost estimation
D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A

What does a SPI value of 1 mean?

A. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the schedule plan
B. The project is behind the planned schedule
C. The project is in line with the planned schedule
D. The project is ahead of the planned schedule
ANSWER: C

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These

include
A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: A

Why is software difficult to build?

A. Controlled changes
B. Lack of reusability
C. Lack of monitoring
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: C

Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management
ANSWER: B

Calculate the estimate at completion based on the current cost performance index
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000; BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A

___ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

A. Gantt charts
B. Ball charts
C. Slip charts
D. Timeline
ANSWER: A

This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A. Project Monitoring and Control
B. Project size estimation
C. Project cost estimation
D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A

Calculate the estimate at completion based on the current cost performance index
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000; BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A

The cumulative earned value is 40 with cumulative actual cost of 60. The budget
at completion is 400. What is your current to-complete-performance index?
A. 1.0588
B. 1.5
C. 0.9444
D. 1.2841
ANSWER: A

Your SPI is 0.8 and your CPI 1.1. Which of the following statements describes
the current project status correctly?
A. The project incurred higher cost than planned and is behind schedule
B. The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
C. The project incurred higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule
D. The project incurred less cost than planned but is behind schedule
ANSWER: B

What is the variance at completion (VAC)?

A. AC - EV
B. BAC - EAC
C. EAC - BAC
D. EV - AC
ANSWER: B

The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is

called…
A. Difference at Completion
B. Deficit at Completion
C. Variance at Completion
D. Management reserve
ANSWER: C

This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A. Project Monitoring and Control
B. Project size estimation
C. Project cost estimation
D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A

Your project is behind schedule but has a positive cost variance. Completing the
project in time is a top-priority. Which approach to calculate the estimate at com-
pletion do you choose?
A. Continue to use BAC as the project needs to meet the plan
B. Estimate at completion using SPI and CPI
C. Estimate at completion with top-down ETC
D. Do the operational project work rather than wasting time calculating a new
EAC
ANSWER: B

Your project controlling shows you actual cost of 500 and an earned value of 600.
Calculate the schedule performance index.
A. 0.8333
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D

You are managing a project with a cumulative cost variance of -30 and you ex-
pect the project to perform at the budgeted rate. Which of the following state-
ments is true?
A. You expect your project to be completed within the budget
B. Your projected Variance at Completion is -30
C. You need to get a bottom-up ETC to determine your EAC
D. You should calculate the EAC considering CPI and SPI
ANSWER: B

Calculate the budget at completion based on the current cost performance index
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000; EAC=2300
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: C

In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop

guidelines and standards of acceptable behaviour.
A. Norming
B. Adjourning
C. Forming
D. Storming
ANSWER: A

A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated

but still __________________ together closely.
A. Physically; think
B. Temporally; work
C. Geographically; work
D. Geographically; decide
ANSWER: C
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagina-
tion and creativity but may show disregard for practical details is:
A. Shaper
B. Team Worker
C. Specialist
D. Plant
ANSWER: D

Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________

A. Hockman and Coldham
B. Hockman and Oldcham
C. Hackman and Oldham
D. Horkman and Olatham
ANSWER: C

Decision making needs

A. Priors
B. Likelihoods
C. Priors & Likelihoods
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: C

Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:

A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
ANSWER: B

Reasons for the formation of groups include:

A. The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.
B. The provision of protection for its membership.
C. The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through com-
bined efforts of individuals working together.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:

A. Encourages communication
B. Involves everyone
C. Focuses the mind
D. All three of the above
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management orga-

nization?
A. Lack of motivation of project team members
B. Longer project duration
C. Lack of focus on the project
D. All
ANSWER: D

Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project manage-

ment?
A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Customer expectations
D. Leadership
ANSWER: B

The risky-shift phenomenon means that there is a tendency for groups to make
decisions which are _______________________ than those which individual
members would make.
A. Less risky
B. More conservative
C. Less consistent
D. More risky
ANSWER: D

Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

A. Sharing of activity
B. Listening
C. Ambiguity
D. Politeness
ANSWER: C

Motivating the employees is classified as___________.

A. Informational role
B. Interpersonal role
C. Decisional role
D. Conceptual role
ANSWER: B

The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic

vision and accurate judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A. Team Worker
B. Monitor-Evaluator
C. Specialist
D. Shaper
ANSWER: B

A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role

has:
A. A line management relationship
B. Meaningful interactions
C. Daily contact
D. Regular appraisals
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A. A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B. A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objec-
tives.
C. The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
D. The open expression of feelings and disagreements.
ANSWER: B
A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:
A. A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change
B. A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce output
C. A tendency to see other groups as rivals
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?

A. It means that the structure will fail under load
B. It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C. It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D. There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B

Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and

work division are known as:
A. formal groups
B. operational groups
C. informal groups
D. target groups
ANSWER: A

Why does architecture dictate organizational structure?

A. Architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which be-
comes engraved in the development project structure
B. An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural de-
cisions described by the architecture
C. Architecture may not describe structure as whole
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: A
Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recog-
nise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.
A. common goal
B. Similar jobs
C. The same manager
D. A shared work environment
ANSWER: A

Project Planning assists in

A. Facilitating communication
B. Development of the Project Plan
C. Execution of the Project Plan
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

A ___ includes a number of activities that must be completed in some particular

order, or sequence.
A. Process
B. Program
C. Project
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C

Project management (PM) is the application of _____ to meet project require-

ments.
A. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
B. skills, tools and techniques
C. knowledge, tools and techniques
D. knowledge, skills and techniques
ANSWER: A

Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A. Costs of support staff
B. Costs of lunch time food
C. Costs of networking and communications
D. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
ANSWER: B

The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What does SMART
stand for?
A. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
B. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
C. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
D. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is not project management goal?

A. Keeping overall costs within budget
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D. Avoiding customer complaints
ANSWER: D

Cost-Benefit Analysis
A. evaluates the tangible and non-tangible factors
B. compares the cost, with the benefits, of introducing a computer-based system
C. estimates the hardware and software costs
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Payback Period for the project according to given data:- Cash Flows are
(-1,20,000/- for 0 year,20,000/- for 1st year, 40,000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for
3rd year, 70,000/- for 4th year) will be
A. 2 year
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
ANSWER: B
Calculate the net profit for the project according to given data:- Cash Flows are (-
1,20,000/- for 0 year,20,000/- for 1st year, 40,000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for 3rd
year, 80,000/- for 4th year):-
A. 50,000/-
B. 60,000/-
C. 70,000/-
D. 80,000/-
ANSWER: D

What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness,
and_____
A. Consistency
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these
ANSWER: A

If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit
a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which
model would you select?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. RAD
D. Incremental
ANSWER: C

Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome
if user’s participation is not involved?
A. Waterfall & Spiral
B. RAD & Spiral
C. RAD & Waterfall
D. RAD & Prototyping
ANSWER: D

Identifying and estimating all of the costs and benefits of carrying out the project
and operating the delivered application:
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Feasibility analysis
C. Technical analysis
D. Business analysis
ANSWER: A

________compares the sensitivity of each factor of project profiles by varying

parameters which affect the project cost benefits
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Risk profiles
C. Business analysis
D. None
ANSWER: B

Includes the salaries and other employment costs of the staff in the development
project.
A. Development Cost
B. Set up cost
C. Operational cost
D. None
ANSWER: A

Agile software development is based on _____?

A. Iterative development
B. Incremental development
C. Linear development
D. Both incremental and iterative development
ANSWER: D

How many phases are there in Scrum?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
ANSWER: B
Earning secondary benefits like increased accuracy of a proposed system
A. Direct benefits
B. Indirect benefits
C. Intangible benefits
D. None
ANSWER: B

Purpose of process is to deliver software

A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality
ANSWER: D

Which are the types of requirements ?

A. Availability
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: D
Among the following, critical path and slack time analysis most help .................
A. managers define the project activities.
B. highlight relationships among project activities.
C. point out who is responsible for various activities.
D. pinpoint activities that need to be closely watched.
ANSWER: D

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay
ANSWER: B

What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract
ANSWER: C

What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.
ANSWER: B

Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earli-
est finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the
earliest starting time for Y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
ANSWER: B

Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
ANSWER: B

Monte Carlo simulation is

A. static
B. dynamic
C. static or dynamic
D. none
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the
project activities into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
A. PERT chart
B. GANTT chart
C. Task network representation
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
ANSWER: D

PERT method differs from CPM in which one of the following aspects?
A. PERT uses statistical time durations where as CPM uses deterministic time du-
rations.
B. PERT uses dummy activities whereas CPM does not
C. PERT uses free float, whereas CPM uses total float in critical path calcula-
tions.
D. PERT uses activity on arc whereas CPM uses activity on node networks.
ANSWER: A

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D. Project manager
ANSWER: D

Your schedule performance index is 0.8. Which of the following statements is

true?
A. The planned value exceeds the earned value by 0.8$
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The earned value exceeds the planned value by 0.8$
D. The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D

Your project controlling shows you actual cost of 500 and an earned value of 600.
Calculate the schedule performance index.
A. 0.8333
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D

You are managing a project with a cumulative cost variance of -30 and you ex-
pect the project to perform at the budgeted rate. Which of the following state-
ments is true?
A. You expect your project to be completed within the budget
B. Your projected Variance at Completion is -30
C. You need to get a bottom-up ETC to determine your EAC
D. You should calculate the EAC considering CPI and SPI
ANSWER: B

Calculate the estimate at completion based on the current cost performance index
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000; BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A

The CPI is > 1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The project has a cost overrun compared to the plan
B. The project has incurred less cost than planned
C. The earned value is higher than the planned value
D. The cost and performance are in line with the plan
ANSWER: B

What does a CPI of 1 indicate?

A. The project is in line with the planned budget
B. The actual cost exceed the earned value by 1
C. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the cost plan
D. The project is ahead of the planned budget
ANSWER: A
The cumulative earned value is 40 with cumulative actual cost of 60. The budget
at completion is 400. What is your current to-complete-performance index?
A. 1.0588
B. 1.5
C. 0.9444
D. 1.2841
ANSWER: A

Your SPI is 0.8 and your CPI 1.1. Which of the following statements describes
the current project status correctly?
A. The project incurred higher cost than planned and is behind schedule
B. The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
C. The project incurred higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule
D. The project incurred less cost than planned but is behind schedule
ANSWER: B

What does a CPI of less than 1 tell you about the cost situation of your project?
A. The project will not be completed within the budget
B. The incurred cost are lower than the earned value
C. The project will be completed within the budget
D. The incurred cost are higher than the earned value
ANSWER: D

What is the variance at completion?

A. AC - EV
B. BAC - EAC
C. EAC - BAC
D. EV - AC
ANSWER: B

Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recog-

nise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.
A. common goal
B. Similar jobs
C. The same manager
D. A shared work environment
ANSWER: A

Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and

work division are known as:
A. formal groups
B. operational groups
C. informal groups
D. target groups
ANSWER: A

What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?

A. It means that the structure will fail under load
B. It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C. It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D. There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B

A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:

A. A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change
B. A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce output
C. A tendency to see other groups as rivals
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A. A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B. A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objec-
tives.
C. The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
D. The open expression of feelings and disagreements.
ANSWER: B

A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role

has:
A. A line management relationship
B. Meaningful interactions
C. Daily contact
D. Regular appraisals
ANSWER: B

The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic

vision and accurate judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A. Team Worker
B. Monitor-Evaluator
C. Specialist
D. Shaper
ANSWER: B

Motivating the employees is classified as___________.

A. Informational role
B. Interpersonal role
C. Decisional role
D. Conceptual role
ANSWER: B

Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

A. Sharing of activity
B. Listening
C. Ambiguity
D. Politeness
ANSWER: C

The risky-shift phenomenon means that there is a tendency for groups to make
decisions which are _______________________ than those which individual
members would make.
A. Less risky
B. More conservative
C. Less consistent
D. More risky
ANSWER: D
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Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
IT8075 Software anticipating risks that might affect the
project schedule or the quality of the
Project Management software being developed, and then taking
action to avoid these risks.

CSE - Professional Which of the following is not considered as a

um
risk in project management?
Elective - II a) Specification delays

nt
b) Product competition

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c) Testing
Regulations 2017 d) Staff turnover

_Q
Answer: c

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Explanation: Testing is a part of project,

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thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

_B
UNIT I PROJECT The process each manager follows during
the life of a project is known as
EVALUATION AND es
a) Project Management
ot
b) Manager life cycle
PROJECT PLANNING
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c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned
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TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE

Answer: c
OF SOFTWARE PROJECT
K

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle

MANAGEMENT
A

is necessary to repeatedly implement and

manage projects successfully.
e/

Which of the following is not project

m

management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)

/t.

a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

s:/

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
tp

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high

ht

development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d
:-

Explanation: The probability of the risk

in

Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),

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xplanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high

because professional software engineering is (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).
always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints. Which of the following is/are main
parameters that you should use when
Project managers have to assess the risks computing the costs of a software
that may affect a project. development project?
a) True a) travel and training costs
b) False b) hardware and software costs

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effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
engineers and managers) identified.
all of the mentioned
An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False

um
total cost of activities.
Answer: b
Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality

nt
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

ua
a) team b) value of the attribute than can be measured.

_Q
project c)
customers .

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d) project manager
TOPIC 1.2 ACTIVITIES

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Answer: b
- METHODOLOGIES

_B
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. es
Which of these truly defines Software
ot
design?
Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Software design is an activity subjected to
_N

for the configuration management of a constraints

software system? b) Software Design specifies nature and
TU

a) Internship management composition of software product

b) Change management c) c) Software Design satisfies client needs and
K

Version management d) desires

A

System management d) All of the mentioned

e/
m

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management
/t.

Explanation: Software design explains all of

policies and processes define how to record the statements as its definition.
s:/

and process proposed system changes, how

tp

to decide what system components to change, Which of the following statement is false?
how to manage different versions of the a) A process is a collection of related tasks
ht

system and its components, and how to that transforms a set of inputs to the set of
:-

distribute changes to customers. output

in

b) A design notation is a symbolic

Identify the sub-process of process
Jo

representational system
improvement c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding
a) Process introduction guidance, with guarantee for achieving
b) Process analysis c) some end
De-processification d) d) Software design method is orderly
Process distribution procedure for providing software
design solutions
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed,

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Answer: b Software Engineering)

Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed Wide support by CASE, More detailed and
but there is no guarantee that we get output. flexible processes
Which of these describes stepwise Answer: d
refinement? Explanation: Notations used are more
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first specialized and sophisticated one.
software engineering method as stepwise
refinement b) Stepwise refinement follows Which of the following is an incorrect

um
its existence from 1971 method for structural design?
c) It is a top down approach a) Transition of problem models to

nt
d) All of the mentioned solution models

ua
b) Handling of larger and more complex

_Q
Answer: d products
Explanation: It is top down approach and c) Designing Object oriented systems

ks
not bottom up. d) More procedural approach

oo
What is incorrect about structural design? a) Answer: b

_B
Structural design introduced notations and Explanation: It does not account for
heuristics larger and complex products.
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural
decomposition
es
What is followed by the design task? a)
ot
c) The advantage is data flow representation Choosing specific classes, operations b)
_N

d) It follows Structure chart Checking model’s completeness

c) Following design task
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Answer: c heuristics d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: The biggest drawback or
K

problem is a data flow diagram of structure Answer: d

A

design. Explanation: All of these tasks are followed

e/

by a design task.
m

What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data Which of this analysis are not acceptable?
/t.

flow diagram a) Object oriented design is a far better

s:/

b) Procedures represented as bubbles c) approach compared to structural design

tp

Specification model is structure chart b) Object oriented design always

showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow dominates structural design
ht

of data in and out of procedures c) Object oriented design are given more
:-

d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition preference than structural design

in

d) Object oriented uses more specific

Answer: c
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notations
xplanation: It is solution to central
problem. Rest others are problems. Answer: b
Explanation: Though object oriented design
Which of these are followed by the latest is considered a far better approach but it
versions of structural design? never dominates structural approach.
a) More detailed and flexible
processes b) Regular Notations Which of these does not represent object
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided oriented design?

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It follows regular procedural Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with

decomposition in favor of class and reference to one of the eight principles as per
object decomposition the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
Programs are thought of collection of a) The product should be easy to use
objects b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
Central model represents class diagrams that products and related modifications meet the
show the classes comprising a program and highest professional standards possible
their relationships to one another c) Software engineers shall ensure that their

um
Object-oriented methods incorporates products and related modifications satisfy
Structural methods the client

nt
d) It means that the product designed /created
Answer: a should be easily available

ua
Explanation: It does not follow

_Q
regular procedural decomposition. Answer: b
Explanation: None.

ks
TOPIC 1.3 CATEGORIZATION Identify an ethical dilemma from the

oo
OF SOFTWARE PROJECTS situations mentioned below:

_B
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
Choose the correct option in terms of system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional es
system
ot
responsibility a) Confidentiality b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
_N

b) Intellectual property rights

c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual senior management
d) All of the mentioned
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property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: a
K

Answer: c Explanation: None.

A

Explanation: Engineers should normally

e/

respect the confidentiality of their employers Identify the correct statement: “Software
m

or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

/t.

formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best
interests of his expertise and favour.”
s:/

signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
tp

the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
SRS.”
ht

patents, copyright, etc.

d) all of the mentioned
:-

“Software engineers should not use their

in

technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b

Jo

computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
a) Unauthorized access to computer a manner that is in the best interests of their
material b) Unauthorized modification of client and employer consistent with the
computer material public interest and shall ensure that their
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware products and related modifications meet the
d) All of the mentioned highest professional standards possible.Thus
options a & c are ruled out.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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Select the incorrect statement: “Software Answer: c

engineers should Explanation: Software companies are
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside responsible for making policies and providing
your competence.” working atmosphere for the software
b) not use your technical skills to misuse development, so in turn these companies
other people’s computers.” become a part of software development
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
d) maintain integrity and independence thing. Thus option c answers the question.
in their professional judgment.”

um
Company has latest computers and state-of
Answer: c the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry

nt
Explanation:None. about the quality of the product

ua
a) True

_Q
Efficiency in a software product does not b) False
include ________

ks
a) responsiveness Answer: b
b) licensing Explanation: The infrastructure is only

oo
c) memory utilization one of the several factors that determine

_B
d) processing time the quality of the product.
Answer: b . es
ot
Explanation: Licensing of a software product
comes under corporate part of the software
_N

TOPIC 1.4 SETTING

company.
BJECTIVES
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As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get

cancelled before they are completed, 53% Which of these are not among the eight
K

overrun their cost estimates by an average of principles followed by Software Engineering

A

189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
e/

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics a) PUBLIC

m

? b) PROFESSION
/t.

a) Lack of adequate training in software c) PRODUCT

engineering d) ENVIRONMENT
s:/

b) Lack of software ethics and understanding

tp

c) Management issues in the company Answer: d

ht

d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Rest all are clauses for

software ethics, environment does not focus
:-

Answer: a on specific clause nor its of importace related

in

Explanation: Option b & c are a part of to question.

Jo

Software Engineering as a subject,hence

option a covers them both. 2. What is a Software ?
Software is set of programs
The reason for software bugs and failures is Software is documentation and
due to configuration of data
a) Software companies Software is set of programs, documentation &
b) Software Developers configuration of data
c) Both Software companies and None of the mentioned
Developers d) All of the mentioned

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Answer: c engineering
Explanation: Software is not just set of Software engineering is concerned with the
program but it is also associated practicalities of developing and delivering
documentation and configuration of data to useful software
make program run.
Answer: c
Which of these does not account for Explanation: Software engineering is a vast
software failure ? sub domain which comes under computer
a) Increasing Demand

um
science which is main domain.
b) Low expectation c)
Increasing Supply 7. Which of these is true ?

nt
d) Less reliable and expensive Generic products and customized products

ua
are types of software products

_Q
Answer: c Generic products are produced by
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead organization and sold to open market

ks
to more production and not failure. Customized products are commissioned by
particular customer

oo
What are attributes of good software ? All of the mentioned

_B
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality Answer: d
c) Software development es
Explanation: All of them are true.
ot
d) Software maintainability & functionality
Which of these does not affect different
_N

Answer: d types of software as a whole?

Explanation: Good software should deliver a) Heterogeneity
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the required functinality, maintainability. b) Flexibility

Software development is not an attribute but a c) Business and social
K

fundamental. change d) Security

A
e/

Which of these software engineering Answer: b

m

activities are not a part of software processes Explanation: Option b & c are a part of
? Software Engineering as a subject,hence
/t.

a) Software dependence option a covers them both.

s:/

b) Software development
The fundamental notions of software
tp

c) Software validation d)
engineering does not account for ?
ht

Software specification
a) Software processes
:-

Answer: a b) Software Security

in

Explanation: Software dependence is an c) Software reuse

Jo

attribute and not an engineering activity for d) Software Validation

process.
Answer: d
6. Which of these is incorrect ? Explanation: Software validation is an
oftware engineering belongs to Computer activity for software process and not the
science fundamental for engineering.
Software engineering is a part of more
general form of System Engineering 10. Which of these is not true ?
Computer science belongs to Software a) Web has led to availability of software

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services and possibility of developing highly Answer: a

distributed service based systems Explanation: For systems with a long
Web based systems have led to degradation life, maintenance costs may be several
of programming languages times development costs.
Web brings concept of software as service
Web based system should be developed Which one of the following is not an
and delivered incrementally application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
Answer: b b) pattern recognition game playing

um
Explanation: Web based systems has led c) digital function of dashboard display in a
car

nt
to important advances in programming
languages. d) none of the mentioned

ua
_Q
. Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses

ks
TOPIC 1.5 MANAGEMENT Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

oo
PRINCIPLES Purpose of process is to deliver software a)

_B
in time
Which one of the following is not a b) with acceptable quality
software process quality? es
c) that is cost efficient
ot
a) Productivity d) both in time & with acceptable quality
b) Portability
_N

c) Timeliness Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of a software is a
TU

d) Visibility
management issue & is not related to process
Answer: b activities.
K

Explanation: Portability is a software

A

product quality which means software can run The work associated with software
e/

on different hardware platforms or software engineering can be categorized into three

m

environments. generic phases,regardless of application

area, project size, or complexity namely
/t.

_____________&_____________ are two the phase which focuses on what,

s:/

kinds of software products. the_________ phase which focuses on how

tp

a) CAD, CAM and the_________ phase which focuses on

ht

b) Firmware, Embedded change.

c) Generic, Customised d) support
:-

None of the mentioned development

in

definition a)
Jo

Answer: c 1, 2, 3
xplanation: rest all are sub b) 2, 1, 3
categories/applications of option c. c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
oftware costs more to maintain than it
does to develop. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: None.
b) False

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Which of the following activities of a Answer: a

Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in
feedback report? the development phase.
a) Communication
b) Planning .
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment TOPIC 1.6 MANAGEMENT
Answer: d CONTROL

um
Explanation: In Deployment the product is
delivered to the customer who evaluates the 1. SCM stands for

nt
product and provides feedback based on the Software Control Management

ua
evaluation. Software Configuration Management

_Q
Software Concept Management
Process adopted for one project is same as None of the mentioned

ks
the process adopted from another project. a)
True Answer: b

oo
b) False Explanation: In software engineering,

_B
software configuration management (SCM) is
Answer: b the task of tracking and controlling changes
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, es
in the software, part of the larger cross-
ot
actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to discipline field of configuration management.
the software team and the inter dependencies
_N

among two process can never be the same. When code is made available to others, it
goes in a/an
TU

Which one of the following is not an a) hard drive

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) access-controlled
K

process framework activities and help team library c) servers

A

manage and control progress, quality, d) access control

e/

change, and risk.

m

a) Reusability management Answer: b

/t.

b) Risk management Explanation: None.

c) Measurement
s:/

d) User Reviews Which of the following is not a main phase in

tp

Configuration Management (CM) Process? a)

Answer: d CM Planning
ht

Explanation: None. b) Executing the CM process

:-

c) CM audits
in

Four types of change are encountered d) None of the mentioned

during the support phase.Which one of
Jo

the following is not one that falls into Answer: d

such category? Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
a) Translation
b) Correction CM is about managing the different items
c) Adaptation in the product, and changes in them.
d) Prevention a) True
b) False

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Answer: a How are baselines verified? a)

Explanation: None. By reviews
b) By inspections
What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code d)
same source files at the same time? All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-
d) Version Control and Access control

um
to description.
Answer: a Which of the following is a example of

nt
Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?

ua
continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures

_Q
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions

ks
Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned
management process?

oo
a) Log the changes Answer: d

_B
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned es
CM controls only the products of the
development process.
ot
Answer: d a) True
_N

Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

TU

Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
K

a) True
A

b) False 12. CCB stands for

e/

Change Control Board

Answer: a
m

Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. Cumulative Changes in Baseline
/t.

None of the mentioned

s:/

What is one or more software configuration

items that have been formally reviewed and Answer: a
tp

agreed upon and serve as a basis for further Explanation: None.

ht

development?
What information is required to process a
:-

a) Baseline
change to a baseline?
in

b) Cumulative changes
c) CM a) Reasons for making the changes
Jo

d) Change Control b) A description of the proposed changes

c) List of other items affected by the
Answer: a changes d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In configuration management, a
“baseline” is an agreed-to description of the Answer: d
attributes of a product, at a point in time, Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to
which serves as a basis for defining change. description of the product, changes
require multiple reasons..

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. of the solution, negotiate different

approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
TOPIC 1.7 PROJECT requirements.
PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT 4. CLSS stands for
conveyor line sorting system
Which of the following is an important conveyor line sorting software
factor that can affect the accuracy and conveyor line sorting speed
conveyor line sorting specification

um
efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
Answer: a

nt
b) Planning process c)
Project complexity Explanation: The conveyor line sorting

ua
d) Degree of structural uncertainty system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along

_Q
a conveyor line. Each box is identified by
Answer: a a barcode that contains a part number and

ks
Explanation: As size increases, the is sorted into one of six bins at the end of
the line.

oo
interdependence among various elements
of the software grows rapidly.

_B
The project planner examines the statement
What describes the data and control to be of scope and extracts all important software
processed? es
functions which is known as
ot
a) Planning process a) Association
b) Software scope c) b) Decomposition
_N

External hardware d) c) Planning process

d) All of the mentioned
TU

Project complexity
Answer: b Answer: b
K

Explanation: Functions described in the Explanation: None

A

statement of scope are evaluated and in some

e/

cases refined to provide more detail prior to The environment that supports the software
m

the beginning of estimation project is called

a) CLSS
/t.

A number of independent investigators have b) SEE

s:/

developed a team-oriented approach to c) FAST

tp

requirements gathering that can be applied to d) CBSE

ht

establish the scope of a project called

a) JAD b) Answer: b
:-

CLASS c) Explanation: Software engineering

in

FAST environment (SEE), incorporates hardware

Jo

d) None of the mentioned and software.

Answer: c Which of the following is not an option to

Explanation: Facilitated achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? a)
application specification techniques Base estimates on similar projects that have
(FAST), this approach encourages the already been completed
creation of a joint team of customers b) Use one or more empirical models for
and developers who work together to identify software cost and effort estimation
the problem, propose elements c) Use relatively simple decomposition

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techniques to generate project cost and effort TOPIC 1.8 COST-BENEFIT

estimates
The ability to translate the size estimate into EVALUATION TECHNOLOGY
human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Which one of the following is not an
Answer: d Evolutionary Process Model?
Explanation: None. a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
What can be used to complement

um
c) Concurrent Development
decomposition techniques and offer a Model d) All of the mentioned
potentially valuable estimation approach

nt
in their own right? Answer: d

ua
a) Automated estimation tools Explanation: None.

_Q
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques The Incremental Model is a result of

ks
d) Both Automated estimation tools combination of elements of which two
and Empirical estimation models models?

oo
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall

_B
Answer: b Model b) Linear Model & RAD Model
Explanation: An estimation model for Linear Model & rototyping Model
computer software uses empirically derived es
Waterfall Model & RAD Model
ot
formulas to predict effort as a function of
LOC or FP. Answer: c
_N

Explanation: Each linear sequence produces

Which of the following is not achieved by a deliverable “increment” of the software and
TU

an automated estimation tools? particularly when we have to quickly deliver

a) Predicting staffing levels a limited functionality system.
K

b) Predicting software cost

A

c) Predicting software schedules What is the major advantage of using

e/

d) Predicting clients demands Incremental Model?

m

a) Customer can respond to each increment

Answer: d
/t.

b) Easier to test and debug

Explanation: Demands can vary from client c) It is used when there is a need to get a
s:/

to client. product to the market early

tp

d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when

Software project estimation can never be an
ht

there is a need to get a product to the market

exact science, but a combination of good early
:-

historical data and systematic techniques can

in

improve estimation accuracy. Answer: d

Jo

a) True Explanation: Incremental Model is generally

b) False easier to test and debug than other methods of
software development because relatively
Answer: a smaller changes are made during each
Explanation: None. iteration and is popular particularly when we
have to quickly deliver a limited functionality
.
system.However, option “a” can be seen in
other models as well like RAD model,hence
option “d” answers the question.

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The spiral model was originally proposed Answer: a

by Explanation: All other options are the
a) IBM advantages of Spiral Model.
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman d) Spiral Model has user involvement in all its
Royce phases.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.

um
Answer: b
The spiral model has two dimensions Explanation: None.

nt
namely _____________ and ____________

ua
a) diagonal, angular How is Incremental Model different from
Spiral Model?

_Q
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular a) Progress can be measured for Incremental

ks
d) diagonal, perpendicular Model
b) Changing requirements can be

oo
Answer: c accommodated in Incremental Model

_B
Explanation: The radial dimension of the c) Users can see the system early in
model represents the cumulative costs and the Incremental Model
angular dimension represents the progress es
d) All of the mentioned
ot
made in completing each cycle. Each loop of
the spiral from X-axis clockwise through Answer: a
_N

o Explanation: None.
360 represents one phase.
TU

How is WINWIN Spiral Model different If you were to create client/server

from Spiral Model? applications, which model would you go for?
K

a) It defines tasks required to define a) WINWIN Spiral Model

A

resources, timelines, and other project b) Spiral Model

e/

related information c) Concurrent Model

m

b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at d) Incremental Model

/t.

the beginning of each pass around the spiral

Answer: c
c) It defines tasks required to assess both
s:/

Explanation: When applied to client/server

technical and management risks
tp

d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, applications, the concurrent process model
defines activities in two dimensions: a system
ht

install, and provide user support

dimension and a component dimension.Thus
:-

Answer: b Concurrency is achieved by system and

in

Explanation: Except option “b” all other component activities occurring

Jo

tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model simultaneously and can be modeled using the
as well. state-oriented approach.

Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. .

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects b)
High amount of risk analysis TOPIC 1.9 RISK EVALUATION
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a
later date

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Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment
b) Investor of software engineering.
c) Production team
d) Project manager What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Answer: d more about the risk?
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring

um
anticipating risks that might affect the b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis

nt
project schedule or the quality of the
software being developed, and then taking d) Risk identification

ua
action to avoid these risks.

_Q
Answer: a
Which of the following risk is the failure of a Explanation: None.

ks
purchased component to perform as
expected? Which of the following risks are derived

oo
a) Product risk from the organizational environment where

_B
b) Project risk the software is being developed?
c) Business risk a) People risks
d) Programming risk es
b) Technology risks c)
ot
Estimation risks d)
Answer: a Organizational risks
_N

Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or

performance of the software being developed. Answer: d
TU

Explanation: These risks are at

Which of the following term is best defined management level.
K

by the statement: “There will be a change of

A

organizational management with different Which of the following risks are derived
e/

priorities.”? from the software or hardware technologies

m

a) Staff turnover that are used to develop the system?

a) Managerial risks b)
/t.

b) Technology change
c) Management change Technology risks c)
s:/

d) Product competition Estimation risks d)

tp

Organizational risks
Answer: c
ht

Explanation: None. Answer: b

:-

Explanation: The risks associated

in

Which of the following term is best defined by with technology might affect the
the statement: “The underlying technology on
Jo

product development.
which the system is built is superseded by new
technology.”? Which of the following term is best defined
a) Technology change b) by the statement: “Derive traceability
Product competition c) information to maximize information hiding
Requirements change d) in the design.”?
None of the mentioned a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring

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Requirements changes Project managers have to assess the risks

None of the mentioned that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: Tracing the requirements
can help us understand the risk. Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
Which of the following strategies means anticipating risks that might affect the
that the impact of the risk will be reduced?

um
project schedule or the quality of the
a) Avoidance strategies software being developed, and then taking
b) Minimization strategies

nt
action to avoid these risks.
c) Contingency plans

ua
d) All of the mentioned Which of the following is not considered as a

_Q
risk in project management?
Answer: b a) Specification delays

ks
Explanation: None. b) Product competition
c) Testing

oo
Risk management is now recognized as d) Staff turnover
one of the most important project

_B
management tasks. Answer: c
a) True
b) False
es
Explanation: Testing is a part of project,
thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
ot
_N

Answer: a The process each manager follows during

Explanation: None. the life of a project is known as
TU

a) Project Management
. b) Manager life cycle
K

c) Project Management Life Cycle

A

TOPIC 1.10 STRATEGIC d) All of the mentioned

e/

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
m

Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
/t.

Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and

s:/

management goal? manage projects successfully.

tp

a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
ht

the agreed time very low

:-

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

in

development team c) moderate

Jo

d) Avoiding customer complaints d) high

Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed Explanation: The probability of the risk
because professional software engineering is might be assessed as very low (<10%),
always subject to organizational budget and low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high
schedule constraints. (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).

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Which of the following is/are main Process analysis

parameters that you should use when De-processification
computing the costs of a software Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
software engineers and managers) identified.

um
d) all of the mentioned
An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured

nt
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute

ua
out how much effort is required to complete a) True

_Q
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.

ks
Answer: b
Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality

oo
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

_B
a) team b) value of the attribute than can be measured.
project c)
customers . es
ot
d) project manager
TOPIC 1.11 STEPWISE
_N

Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out PROJECT PLANNING
TU

the desired software qualities and describe

how these are to be assessed. Which of the following is an important
K

factor that can affect the accuracy and

A

Which of the following is incorrect activity efficacy of estimates?

e/

for the configuration management of a a) Project size

m

software system? b) Planning process c)

/t.

a) Internship management Project complexity

b) Change management c) d) Degree of structural uncertainty
s:/

Version management d)
tp

System management Answer: a

ht

Explanation: As size increases, the

Answer: a interdependence among various elements
:-

Explanation: Configuration management of the software grows rapidly.

in

policies and processes define how to record

What describes the data and control to be
Jo

and process proposed system changes, how

to decide what system components to change, processed?
how to manage different versions of the a) Planning process
system and its components, and how to b) Software scope c)
distribute changes to customers. External hardware d)
Project complexity
Identify the sub-process of process
improvement Answer: b
a) Process introduction Explanation: Functions described in the

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statement of scope are evaluated and in some The environment that supports the software
cases refined to provide more detail prior to project is called
the beginning of estimation. a) CLSS
b) SEE
A number of independent investigators have c) FAST
developed a team-oriented approach to d) CBSE
requirements gathering that can be applied to
establish the scope of a project called Answer: b
a) JAD b) Explanation: Software engineering

um
CLASS c) environment (SEE), incorporates hardware
FAST

nt
and software.
d) None of the mentioned

ua
Which of the following is not an option to

_Q
Answer: c achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? a)
Explanation: Facilitated Base estimates on similar projects that have

ks
application specification techniques already been completed
(FAST), this approach encourages the b) Use one or more empirical models for

oo
creation of a joint team of customers software cost and effort estimation

_B
and developers who work together to identify c) Use relatively simple decomposition
the problem, propose elements techniques to generate project cost and effort
of the solution, negotiate different es
estimates
ot
approaches, and specify a preliminary set of d) The ability to translate the size estimate
requirements. into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
_N

4. CLSS stands for Answer: d

TU

conveyor line sorting system Explanation: None.

conveyor line sorting software
K

conveyor line sorting speed What can be used to complement

A

conveyor line sorting specification decomposition techniques and offer a

e/

potentially valuable estimation approach

m

Answer: a in their own right?

/t.

Explanation: The conveyor line sorting a) Automated estimation tools

system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along b) Empirical estimation models
s:/

a conveyor line. Each box is identified by c) Decomposition techniques

tp

a barcode that contains a part number and d) Both Automated estimation tools
ht

is sorted into one of six bins at the end of and Empirical estimation models
the line.
:-

Answer: b
in

The project planner examines the statement Explanation: An estimation model for
Jo

of scope and extracts all important software computer software uses empirically derived
functions which is known as formulas to predict effort as a function of
a) Association LOC or FP.
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process Which of the following is not achieved by
d) All of the mentioned an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
Answer: b b) Predicting software cost
Explanation: None

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Predicting software schedules Firmware, Embedded

Predicting clients demands Generic, Customised
None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client Answer: c
to client. Explanation: rest all are sub
categories/applications of option c.
Software project estimation can never be an
exact science, but a combination of good Software costs more to maintain than it

um
historical data and systematic techniques can does to develop.
improve estimation accuracy. a) True

nt
a) True b) False

ua
b) False
Answer: a

_Q
Answer: a Explanation: For systems with a long

ks
Explanation: None. life, maintenance costs may be several
times development costs.

oo
.
Which one of the following is not an

_B
application of embedded software product?
es
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
ot
UNIT II PROJECT LIFE c) digital function of dashboard display in a
_N

CYCLE AND EFFORT car

d) none of the mentioned
TU

ESTIMATION
Answer: b
K

Explanation: Pattern recognition uses

TOPIC 2.1 SOFTWARE
A

Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

e/

PROCESS AND PROCESS

Purpose of process is to deliver software a)
m

MODELS
in time
/t.

b) with acceptable quality

s:/

Which one of the following is not a c) that is cost efficient

software process quality?
tp

d) both in time & with acceptable quality

a) Productivity
ht

b) Portability Answer: d
c) Timeliness
:-

Explanation: Cost of a software is a

d) Visibility
in

management issue & is not related to process

activities.
Jo

Answer: b
xplanation: Portability is a software The work associated with software
product quality which means software can run engineering can be categorized into three
on different hardware platforms or software generic phases,regardless of application area,
environments. project size, or complexity namely
the__________ phase which focuses on what,
_____________&_____________ are two
the_________ phase which focuses on how
kinds of software products. and the_________ phase which focuses on
a) CAD, CAM

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change. Answer: d
support Explanation: None.
development
definition a) Four types of change are encountered
1, 2, 3 during the support phase.Which one of
b) 2, 1, 3 the following is not one that falls into
c) 3, 2, 1 such category?
d) 3, 1, 2 a) Translation
b) Correction

um
Answer: c c) Adaptation
Explanation: None.

nt
d) Prevention

ua
Which of the following activities of a Answer: a

_Q
Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in
feedback report? the development phase.

ks
a) Communication
b) Planning .

oo
c) Modeling & Construction

_B
d) Deployment TOPIC 2.2 CHOICE OF PROCE
Answer: d esMODELS - RAPID
APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
ot
Explanation: In Deployment the product is
delivered to the customer who evaluates the
_N

product and provides feedback based on the Build & Fix Model is suitable for
evaluation.
TU

programming exercises of ___________

LOC (Line of Code).
Process adopted for one project is same as
K

a) 100-200 b)
the process adopted from another project. a)
200-400 c)
A

True
400-1000 d)
e/

b) False above 1000

m

Answer: b
/t.

Answer: a
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
s:/

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to for small projects & programming exercises
tp

the software team and the inter dependencies of 100 or 200 lines.
among two process can never be the same.
ht

2. RAD stands for

:-

Which one of the following is not an

Relative Application Development
in

Umbrella Activity that complements the five

Rapid Application Development
process framework activities and help team
Jo

Rapid Application Document

manage and control progress, quality,
None of the mentioned
change, and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews Which one of the following models is not
suitable for accommodating any change? a)
Build & Fix Model

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Prototyping Model 5 phases

RAD Model 6 phases
Waterfall Model
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: RAD Model consists of five
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow phases namely:Business modeling,Data
the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model modeling,Process modeling,Application
proposes. generation and Testing & Turnover.

um
Which is not one of the types of prototype What is the major drawback of using RAD
of Prototyping Model? Model?

nt
a) Horizontal Prototype a) Highly specialized & skilled

ua
b) Vertical Prototype c) developers/designers are required

_Q
Diagonal Prototype d) b) Increases reusability of components
Domain Prototype c) Encourages customer/client feedback

ks
d) Increases reusability of components,
Answer: c Highly specialized & skilled

oo
Explanation: Their is no such thing as developers/designers are required

_B
Diagonal Prototype whereas other options
have their respective definitions. Answer: d

Which one of the following is not a phase

es
Explanation: The client may create an
ot
unrealistic product vision leading a team to
of Prototyping Model? over or under-develop functionality.Also,
_N

a) Quick Design the specialized & skilled developers are not

b) Coding easily available.
TU

c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product 9. SDLC stands for
K

Software Development Life Cycle

A

Answer: b System Development Life cycle

e/

Explanation: A prototyping model Software Design Life Cycle

m

generates only a working model of a system. System Design Life Cycle

/t.

Which of the following statements Answer: a

s:/

regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong? Explanation: None.

tp

a) No room for structured design

b) Code soon becomes unfixable & Which model can be selected if user is
ht

unchangeable involved in all the phases of SDLC?

:-

c) Maintenance is practically not possible a) Waterfall Model b)

in

d) It scales up well to large projects Prototyping Model c)

Jo

RAD Model
Answer: d d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
xplanation: Build & Fix Model is
suitable for 100-200 LOC Answer: c
Explanation: None.
RAD Model has a)
2 phases .
b) 3 phase
TOPIC 2.3 AGILE METHODS

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Select the option that suits the Manifesto for to be able to respond quickly to changing
Agile Software Development requirements without excessive rework.
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software How is plan driven development different
c) Customer collaboration from agile development ?
d) All of the mentioned a) Outputs are decided through a process of
negotiation during the software
Answer:d development process
Explanation: None. b) Specification, design, implementation

um
and testing are interleaved
Agile Software Development is based on c) Iteration occurs within

nt
a) Incremental Development activities d) All of the mentioned

ua
b) Iterative Development

_Q
c) Linear Development Answer:c
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Explanation: A plan-driven approach to

ks
Development software engineering is based around separate
development stages with the outputs to be

oo
Answer:d produced at each of these stages planned in

_B
Explanation: The software is developed in advance.
increments with the customer specifying the
requirements to be included in each increment es
How many phases are there in Scrum ? a)
Two
ot
and the highest priority is to satisfy the
customer through early and continuous b) Three
_N

delivery of valuable software. They are c) Four

iterative because they work on one iteration d) Scrum is an agile method which means it
TU

followed by improvements in next iteration does not have phases

K

Which on of the following is not an agile Answer:b

A

method? Explanation: There are three phases in

e/

a) XP Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning

m

b) 4GT phase followed by a series of sprint cycles

/t.

c) AUP and project closure phase.

d) All of the mentioned
s:/

Agile methods seem to work best when

tp

Answer:b team members have a relatively high skill

Explanation: The 4GT approach does not level.
ht

incorporate iteration and the continuous a) True

:-

feedback,which is the fundamental aspect b) False

in

of an agile method.
Answer:a
Jo

Agility is defined as the ability of a project Explanation: None.

team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True Which of the following does not apply to
b) False agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
Answer:b b) Only essential work products are produced
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to c) Eliminate the use of project planning and
reduce overheads in the software process and

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testing 2. RAD stands for

d) All of the mentioned Relative Application Development
Rapid Application Development
Answer:c Rapid Application Document
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each None of the mentioned
software development process which can’t be
avoided. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Which three framework activities are

um
present in Adaptive Software Which one of the following models is not
Development(ASD) ? suitable for accommodating any change? a)

nt
a) analysis, design, coding Build & Fix Model

ua
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle b) Prototyping Model

_Q
planning, iterative development c) RAD Model
c) speculation, collaboration, learning d) Waterfall Model

ks
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

oo
Answer:c Explanation: Real projects rarely follow

_B
Explanation: None. the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model
proposes.
In agile development it is more important to
build software that meets the customers’
es
Which is not one of the types of prototype
ot
needs today than worry about features that of Prototyping Model?
_N

might be needed in the future. a) Horizontal Prototype

a) True b) Vertical Prototype c)
TU

b) False Diagonal Prototype d)

Domain Prototype
K

Answer:a
A

Explanation: None. Answer: c

e/

Explanation: Their is no such thing as

.
m

Diagonal Prototype whereas other options

have their respective definitions.
/t.

TOPIC 2.4 DYNAMIC SYSTEM

s:/

Which one of the following is not a phase

DEVELOPMENT METHOD
tp

of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
ht

Build & Fix Model is suitable for b) Coding

:-

programming exercises of ___________ c) Prototype Refinement

in

LOC (Line of Code). d) Engineer Product

Jo

a) 100 200 b)
200-400 c) Answer: b
400-1000 d) Explanation: A prototyping model
above 1000 generates only a working model of a system.

Answer: a Which of the following statements

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
for small projects & programming exercises a) No room for structured design
of 100 or 200 lines. b) Code soon becomes unfixable &

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unchangeable Waterfall Model

Maintenance is practically not possible Prototyping Model
It scales up well to large projects RAD Model
both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is Answer: c
suitable for 100-200 LOC Explanation: None.
RAD Model has a) .

um
2 phases
b) 3 phase

nt
TOPIC 2.5 EXTREME
c) 5 phases

ua
d) 6 phases PROGRAMMING

_Q
Answer: c Incremental development in Extreme

ks
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five Programming (XP) is supported through
phases namely:Business modeling,Data a system release once every month.

oo
modeling,Process modeling,Application a) True

_B
generation and Testing & Turnover. b) False
What is the major drawback of using RAD
Model?
es
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Incremental development is
a) Highly specialized & skilled supported through small, frequent system
_N

developers/designers are required releases.

b) Increases reusability of components
TU

c) Encourages customer/client feedback In XP, as soon as the work on a task is

d) Increases reusability of components, complete, it is integrated into the whole
K

Highly specialized & skilled system.

A

developers/designers are required a) True

e/

b) False
m

Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an Answer: a
/t.

unrealistic product vision leading a team to Explanation: XP follows a continuous

s:/

over or under-develop functionality.Also, integration approach.After any such

tp

the specialized & skilled developers are not integration, all the unit tests in the system
easily available.
ht

must pass.
:-

9. SDLC stands for In XP Increments are delivered to

in

Software Development Life Cycle customers every _______ weeks. a)

Jo

System Development Life cycle One

Software Design Life Cycle b) Two
System Design Life Cycle c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP)
Which model can be selected if user is takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative
involved in all the phases of SDLC? development.New versions may be built

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several times per day, hence delivering the Answer: a

increment for approval every 2nd week after Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very
testing the new version. difficult to write incrementally.For example,
in a complex user interface, it is often
User requirements are expressed as difficult to write unit tests for the code that
__________ in Extreme Programming. implements the ‘display logic’ and
a) implementation tasks workflow between screens.
b) functionalities
c) scenarios Tests are automated in Extreme

um
d) none of the mentioned Programming.
a) True

nt
Answer: c b) False

ua
Explanation: User requirements are

_Q
expressed as scenarios or user stories.These Answer: a
are written on cards and the development Explanation: Automated test harnesses are

ks
team break them down into implementation used to run all component tests each time
tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule that a new release is built.

oo
and cost estimates.

_B
In XP an automated unit test framework is
Is a customer involved test development used to write tests for a new piece of
and validation in XP ? es
functionality before that functionality itself
ot
a) Yes is implemented.
b) No a) True
_N

c) It may vary from Customer to Customer b) False

d) None of the mentioned
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Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: XP follows Test-
K

Explanation: The role of the customer in the first development approach.

A

testing process is to help develop acceptance

e/

tests for the stories that are to be Developers work individually on a release
m

implemented in the next release of the system and they compare their results with other
developers before forwarding that release to
/t.

However, people adopting the customer role

have limited time available and so cannot customers.
s:/

work full-time with the development team. a) True

tp

They may feel that providing the b) False

ht

requirements was enough of a contribution

and so may be reluctant to get involved in the Answer: b
:-

testing process. Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair

in

programming which means developers work

in pairs, checking each other’s work and
Jo

Programmers prefer programming to

testing and sometimes they take shortcuts providing the support to always do a good
when writing tests. For example, they may job.
write incomplete tests that do not check for
all possible exceptions that may occur. Which four framework activities are
a) True found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
b) False ? a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding

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c) planning, design, coding, testing 5. CIM and WBEM has been defined by ?
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing a) DMTF
b) SMI Standards Organization
Answer: c c) Open Standards Body
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four d) None of the mentioned
activities, and in the same in order.

Answer: a
.

um
_________ instruments one or more aspects
of the CIM Schema

nt
TOPIC 2.6 MANAGING
a) Distributor

ua
b) Provider
This set of multiple choice SAN storage c) Manager

_Q
questions and answers focuses on Storage d) None of the mentioned

ks
Management aspects.

oo
Answer: b
A Subprofile can reference other subprofiles

_B
a) True The server can operate directly on the
b) False es
underlying system by calling the system’s
commands, services, and library functions. a)
ot
Answer: a True
_N

b) False
Clients use which protocol to discover SMI
TU

Agents on Storage Area Network? Answer: a

a) SLP (Service Location Protocol)
K

b) AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol) Transport protocol used for XMLCIM is

A

c) SMIP (SMI Protocol) a) UDP

e/

d) None of the mentioned b) HTTP

m

c) SNMP
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
/t.
s:/

Encoding mechanism of CIM Data as XML Answer: b

Elements ?
tp

a) CIM-XML A single CIM based management application

ht

b) xmlCIM can manage storage arrays from multiple

c) SGML
:-

vendors.
d) None of the mentioned
in

a) True
b) False
Jo

Answer: b
Answer: a

4. Can a vendor implement additional Classes 10. Collects responses from providers and
or support additional Properties than are returns to the client
defined in a Profile and still be considered a) xmlCIM
conformant? b) CIMOM
a) True c) DMTF
b) False d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: b
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um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
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Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Answer: c

Series – Storage Area Networks. Explanation: None.
A semaphore is a shared integer variable
TOPIC 2.7 INTERACTIVE __________
PROCESSES a) that can not drop below zero b)
that can not be more than zero c)
Which process can be affected by other that can not drop below one d)

um
processes executing in the system? that can not be more than one
a) cooperating process
Answer: a

nt
b) child process
c) parent process Explanation: None.

ua
d) init process
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the

_Q
Answer: a

ks
Explanation: None. mutex locks
binary semaphores

oo
When several processes access the same both mutex locks and binary semaphores

_B
data concurrently and the outcome of the none of the mentioned
execution depends on the particular order
in which the access takes place, is called? es
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
ot
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition as mutex locks.
_N

c) essential condition
When high priority task is indirectly
TU

d) critical condition
preempted by medium priority task
Answer: b effectively inverting the relative priority
K

Explanation: None. of the two tasks, the scenario is called

A
e/

If a process is executing in its critical priority inversion

m

section, then no other processes can be priority removal

priority exchange
/t.

executing in their critical section This

condition is called? priority modification
s:/

a) mutual exclusion
Answer: a
tp

b) critical exclusion
Explanation: None.
ht

c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion Process synchronization can be done on
:-
in

Answer: a __________
a) hardware level
Jo

xplanation: None.
b) software level
Which one of the following is a c) both hardware and software
synchronization tool? level d) none of the mentioned
a) thread
b) pipe Answer: c
c) semaphore Explanation: None.
d) socket A monitor is a module that encapsulates
__________

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shared data structures Costs of lunch time food

procedures that operate on shared data Costs of support staff
structure
synchronization between concurrent Answer: c
procedure invocation Explanation: This is a incurred by the
all of the mentioned employees.

Answer: d What is related to the overall functionality

Explanation: None. of the delivered software?

um
a) Function-related metrics
To enable a process to wait within the b) Product-related metrics

nt
monitor __________ c) Size-related metrics

ua
a) a condition variable must be declared as d) None of the mentioned

_Q
condition
b) condition variables must be used Answer: a

ks
as boolean objects Explanation: Productivity is expressed in
c) semaphore must be used terms of the amount of useful functionality

oo
d) all of the mentioned produced in some given time. Function

_B
points and object points
Answer: a are the best-known metrics of this type.
Explanation: None. es
4. A is developed using historical cost
ot
information that relates some software
_N

TOPIC 2.8 BASICS OF

metric to the project cost.
SOFTWARE ESTIMATION Algorithmic cost modelling
TU

Expert judgement
TOPIC 2.9 EFFORT AND COST Estimation by analogy
K

Parkinson’s Law
A

ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES
e/

Answer: a
m

Which of the following are parameters Explanation: The model uses a basic
regression formula with parameters that are
/t.

involved in computing the total cost of a

software development project? derived from historical project data and
s:/

a) Hardware and software current as well as future project

tp

costs b) Effort costs characteristics.

ht

c) Travel and training costs

It is often difficult to estimate size at an
d) All of the mentioned
:-

early stage in a project when only a

in

Answer: d specification is available

Jo

xplanation: All these are accounted for in a) True

estimating a software development cost. b) False

Which of the following costs is not part of Answer: a

the total effort cost? Explanation: Function-point and object-point
a) Costs of networking and estimates are easier to produce than estimates of
communications b) Costs of providing code size but are often still inaccurate.
heating and lighting office space

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Which technique is applicable when other Answer: d

projects in the same analogy application Explanation: Estimates are based on function
domain have been completed? points, which are then converted to number
a) Algorithmic cost modelling of lines of source code. The formula follows
b) Expert judgement the standard form discussed above with a
c) Estimation by analogy simplified set of seven multipliers.
d) Parkinson’s Law
Which model is used to compute the effort
Answer: c required to integrate reusable components or

um
Explanation: The cost of a new project is program code that is automatically generated
by design or program translation tools?

nt
estimated by analogy with these completed
projects. a) An application-composition model

ua
b) A post-architecture model

_Q
Which model assumes that systems are c) A reuse model
created from reusable components, scripting d) An early design model

ks
or database programming?
a) An application-composition model Answer: c

oo
b) A post-architecture model Explanation: None.

_B
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model The COCOMO model takes into account

Answer: a
es
different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
ot
Explanation: It is designed to make a) True
_N

estimates of prototype development. b) False

TU

Which of the following states that work Answer: b

expands to fill the time available. Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model.
K

a) CASE tools b) COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-

A

Pricing to win c) models that produce increasingly detailed

e/

Parkinson’s Law d) software estimates.

m

Expert judgement
.
/t.

Answer: c
s:/

Explanation: The cost is determined by TOPIC 2.10 COSMIC

tp

available resources rather than by objective

assessment. If the software has to be FULL FUNCTION POINTS
ht

delivered in 12 months and 5 people are

:-

available, the effort required is estimated to Which of the following is not a metric for
in

be 60 person-months. design model?

Jo

a) Interface design metrics

Which model is used during early stages of the b) Component-level metrics
system design after the requirements have c) Architectural metrics
been established? d) Complexity metrics
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model Answer: d
c) A reuse model Explanation: Complexity metrics measure
d) An early design model the logical complexity of source code.

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Statement and branch coverage metrics are Architectural Design Metrics are
part of ___________ in
a) Analysis Model nature. a) Black Box
b) Testing b) White Box
c) Design Model c) Gray Box
d) Source Code d) Green Box

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: These metrics lead to the Explanation: They are “black box” in that

um
design of test cases that provide program they do not require any knowledge of the

nt
coverage. inner workings of a particular software
component.

ua
Function Points in software engineering

_Q
was first proposed by Structural complexity of a module i is
a) Booch b) given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f

ks
Boehm c) symbolizes here?
Albrecht d) a) “fan check-out” of module i

oo
Jacobson b) “fan check-in” of module i

_B
c) “fan in” of module i
Answer: c d) “fan out” of module i
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in es
Answer: d
ot
1979, hundreds of books and papers have
been written on functions points since then. Explanation: Fan out is number of
_N

modules directly invoked by module i.

How many Information Domain Values are
TU

used for Function Point Computation? 8. SMI stands for

a) three Software Mature Indicator
K

b) four Software Maturity Index

A

c) five Software Mature Index

e/

d) six Software Maturity Indicator

m

Answer: c Answer: b
/t.

Explanation: The five values are: External Explanation: None.

s:/

Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries,

As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software
tp

Internal Logical Files and External Interface

product starts becoming unstable
ht

Files.
a) True
:-

Function Point Computation is given by the b) False

in

formula
Answer: b
Jo

a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0,
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) the software product begins to stabilize.
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is
Answer: b the number of modules
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula a) in the current release
for Function Point Computation. b) in the current release that have been
changed

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from the preceding release that were development team

deleted in the current release d) Avoiding customer complaints
none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Projects need to be managed
Explanation: None. because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and
The amount of time that the software is schedule constraints.
available for use is known as

um
a) Reliability b) Project managers have to assess the risks
Usability c) that may affect a project.

nt
Efficiency d) a) True

ua
Functionality b) False

_Q
Answer: a Answer: b

ks
Explanation: None. Explanation: Risk management involves
anticipating risks that might affect the

oo
Usability in metric analysis is defined as the project schedule or the quality of the
degree to which the software

_B
software being developed, and then taking
a) stated needs action to avoid these risks.
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system
es
Which of the following is not considered as a
ot
resources d) none of the mentioned risk in project management?
_N

a) Specification delays
Answer: b b) Product competition
TU

Explanation: None. c) Testing

d) Staff turnover
K

.
A

Answer: c
e/

Explanation: Testing is a part of project,

m

thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

/t.

UNIT III ACTIVITY The process each manager follows during

s:/

the life of a project is known as

PLANNING AND RISK
tp

a) Project Management
MANAGEMENT b) Manager life cycle
ht

c) Project Management Life Cycle

:-

TOPIC 3.1 OBJECTIVES d) All of the mentioned

in

OF ACTIVITY PLANNING Answer: c

Jo

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle

Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and
management goal? manage projects successfully.
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
b) Delivering the software to the customer at
very low
the agreed time
b) low
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning

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moderate and process proposed system changes, how

high to decide what system components to change,
how to manage different versions of the
Answer: d system and its components, and how to
Explanation: The probability of the risk distribute changes to customers.
might be assessed as very low (<10%),
low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high Identify the sub-process of process
(50– 75%), or very high (>75%). improvement
a) Process introduction

um
Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis c)
parameters that you should use when

nt
De-processification d)
computing the costs of a software Process distribution

ua
development project?

_Q
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,

ks
c) effort costs (the costs of paying and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
software engineers and managers) identified.

oo
d) all of the mentioned

_B
An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working es
and the external quality attribute.
ot
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
_N

total cost of activities.

Answer: b
TU

Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality

developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the
K

a) team b) value of the attribute than can be measured.

A

project c)
e/

customers .
m

d) project manager
/t.

TOPIC 3.2 PROJECT

Answer: b
s:/

Explanation: The quality plan should set out SCHEDULES

tp

the desired software qualities and describe

how these are to be assessed. Which of the following is the reason that
ht

software is delivered late?

:-

Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Changing customer requirements that

in

for the configuration management of a are not reflected in schedule changes

Jo

software system? b) Technical difficulties that could not

a) Internship management have been foreseen in advance
b) Change management c) c) Human difficulties that could not
Version management have been foreseen in advance
d) ystem management d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: None.
policies and processes define how to record

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Which of the following is an activity that What is used to determine the recommended
distributes estimated effort across the degree of rigor with which the software
planned project duration by allocating the process should be applied on a project?
effort to specific software engineering tasks? a) Degree of Rigor
a) Software Macroscopic schedule b) Adaptation
b) Software Project scheduling c) criteria c) Task Set
Software Detailed schedule d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation
d) None of the mentioned criteria

um
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor

nt
are: casual, structured, strict, and quick

ua
Every task that is scheduled should be reaction.

_Q
assigned to a specific team member is
termed as What evaluates the risk associated with the

ks
a) Compartmentalization technology to be implemented as part of
b) Defined milestones project scope?

oo
c) Defined responsibilities a) Concept scoping

_B
d) Defined outcomes b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
Answer: c es
d) Customer reaction to the concept
ot
Explanation: These responsibilities
are domain specific. Answer: b
_N

Explanation: None.
What is a collection of software
TU

engineering work tasks, milestones, and Which of the following is not an adaptation
deliverables that must be accomplished to criteria for software projects?
K

complete a particular project? a) Size of the project

A

a) Task set b) Customers Complaints

e/

b) Degree of milestone c) Project staff

m

c) Adaptation criteria d) Mission criticality

/t.

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
s:/

Answer: a Explanation: These can vary from client

tp

Explanation: None. to client.

ht

Ensuring that no more than the allocated Which of the following is a project
:-

number of people are allocated at any given scheduling method that can be applied to
in

time in Software Scheduling is known as a) software development?

a) PERT
Jo

Time Allocation
ffort Validation b) CPM
Defined Milestone c) CMM
Effort Distribution d) Both PERT and CPM

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: Program evaluation and review
technique (PERT) and critical path method

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(CPM) are two project scheduling methods TOPIC 3.4 SEQUENCING AND
that can be applied to software development.
SCHEDULING
A technique for performing quantitative
analysis of progress is known as Round robin scheduling falls under the
a) BCWS category of ____________
b) EVA a) Non-preemptive scheduling
c) BAC b) Preemptive scheduling

um
d) CBSE c) All of the mentioned d)
None of the mentioned
Answer: b

nt
Explanation: The earned value system Answer: b

ua
provides a common value scale for every Explanation: None.

_Q
task, regardless of the type of work being
performed. The total hours to do the whole With round robin scheduling algorithm in a

ks
project are estimated, and every task is given time shared system
an earned value based on its estimated a) using very large time slices converts it into

oo
percentage of the total. First come First served scheduling algorithm

_B
b) using very small time slices converts it
What is the recommended distribution of into First come First served scheduling
effort for a project? es
algorithm c) using extremely small time
ot
a) 40-20-40 slices increases performance
b) 50-20-30 d) using very small time slices converts it
_N

c) 30-40-30 into Shortest Job First algorithm

d) 50-30-20
TU

Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: All the processes will be able to
K

Explanation: A recommended distribution of get completed.

A

effort across the software process is 40%

e/

(analysis and design), 20% (coding), and The portion of the process scheduler in an
m

40% (testing). operating system that dispatches processes is

/t.

concerned with
A project usually has a timeline chart a) assigning ready processes to CPU
s:/

which was developed by b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue

tp

a) Henry Gantt c) assigning running processes to blocked

b) Barry Boehm
ht

queue
c) Ivar Jacabson d) all of the mentioned
:-

d) None of the mentioned

in

Answer: a
Answer: a
Jo

Explanation: None.
xplanation: Timeline chart, also called a
Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an Complex scheduling algorithms
industrial engineer in 1917 . ____________
a) are very appropriate for very
. large computers
b) use minimal resources
TOPIC 3.3 ACTIVITIES c) use many resources d)
all of the mentioned

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

Answer: a tQ = 45ms
Explanation: Large computers are tQ = 50ms
overloaded with a greater number of
processes. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
first executes the job that came in last in Orders are processed in the sequence they
the queue arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs. a)
first executes the job that came in first in earliest due date

um
the queue b) slack time remaining
first executes the job that needs minimal c) first come, first

nt
processor served d) critical ratio

ua
first executes the job that has maximum
Answer: c

_Q
processor needs
Explanation: None.

ks
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Which of the following algorithms tends to

oo
minimize the process flow time?

_B
The strategy of making processes that are a) First come First served
logically runnable to be temporarily hortest Job First
suspended is called ____________ es
Earliest Deadline First
Longest Job First
ot
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
_N

c) Shortest job first Answer: b

d) First come First served Explanation: None.
TU

Answer: b Under multiprogramming, turnaround time

K

Explanation: None. for short jobs is usually ________ and that

A

for long jobs is slightly ___________

e/

7. What is Scheduling? a) Lengthened; Shortened

m

allowing a job to use the processor b) Shortened; Lengthened

making proper use of processor c) Shortened; Shortened
/t.

all of the mentioned d) Shortened; Unchanged

s:/

none of the mentioned

Answer: b
tp

Answer: a Explanation: None.

ht

Explanation: None.
Which of the following statements are
:-
in

There are 10 different processes running on a true? (GATE 2010)

workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an
Jo

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling

input event in the input queue. Busy
processes are scheduled with the Round- Preemptive scheduling may cause starvat III.
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for Round robin is better than FCFS in ter
small response times, if the processes have a
short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms? I only
a) tQ = 15ms I and III only
b) tQ = 40ms
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um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
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II and III only are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation,

I, II and III Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and
Physical layer. Each layer uses a protocol to
Answer: d perform its designated function, for example,
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first the data link layer uses error detection
scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest protocols for error control functions.
job scheduling. It may cause starvation as
shorter processes may keep coming and a TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. but OSI model have this layer.

um
Preemption may cause starvation. If priority a) session layer b)
based scheduling with preemption is used,

nt
transport layer c)
then a low priority process may never get application layer

ua
CPU. d) network layer

_Q
Round Robin Scheduling improves response
time as all processes get CPU after a Answer: a

ks
specified time. Explanation: In SI reference model, there
. are two layers which are not present in

oo
TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and

_B
Session layer. The functions of
TOPIC 3.5 NETWORK
Presentation and ession layer in the OSI
PLANNING MODELS es
model are handled by the transport layer
ot
itself in TCP/IP.
OSI stands for __________
_N

a) open system interconnection Which layer is used to link the network

support layers and user support layers? a)
TU

b) operating system interface

c) optical service implementation session layer
b) data link layer
K

d) open service Internet

c) transport layer
A

Answer: a d) network layer

e/

Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for

m

Open System Interconnection OSI model Answer: c

/t.

provides a structured plan on how Explanation: Physical, data link and network
layers are network support layers and session,
s:/

applications communicate over a network,

which also helps us to have a structured plan presentation and application layers are user
tp

for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the support layers. The transport layer links these
ht

ISO as the generalized model for computer layers by segmenting and rearranging the data.
network i.e. it can be modified to design any It uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
:-

kind of computer network.

in

Which address is used on the internet for

Jo

The number of layers in ISO OSI reference employing the TCP/IP protocols?
model is __________ a) physical address and logical
a) 4 address b) port address
b) 5 c) specific address
c) 6 d) all of the mentioned
d) 7
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The physical, logical, port
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP

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protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is
physical (MAC) and logical address, port
address and specific address are employed in
both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In
TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on
the internet implementation of these
addresses.
TCP/IP model was developed _____ the

um
OSI model.
a) prior to

nt
b) after

ua
c) simultaneous to

_Q
d) with no link to

ks
Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes

oo
were developed at multiple research

_B
centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas
OSI reference model was developed in the
year 1984. TCP/IP was developed with the es
ot
intention to create a model for the Internet
while OSI was intended to be a general
_N

network model.
TU

Which layer is responsible for process to

process delivery in a general network model?
K

a) network layer
A

b) transport layer
e/

c) session layer
m

d) data link layer

/t.

Answer: b
s:/

Explanation: The role of Transport layer

tp

(Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end

ht

connection between two systems in a

network. The protocols used in Transport
:-

layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is

in

responsible for segmentation of the data. It

Jo

uses ports for the implementation of process-

to-process delivery.
Which address is used to identify a process
on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
 Regulations 2017

Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to
identify a specific process to which an
Internet or other network message is to be
forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some
examples of port numbers are port 20 which
is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used for
SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is used

um
for TELNET.
Which layer provides the services to user? a)

nt
application layer

ua
b) session layer

_Q
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer

ks
Answer: a

oo
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly

_B
interacts with application layer to create and
send information to other computer or
network. Application layer provides the es
ot
interface between applications and the
network. It is the top-most layer in both the
_N

TCP/IP and the OSI model.

TU

10. Transmission data rate is decided by

K

network layer
A

physical layer
e/

data link layer

m

transport layer
/t.

Answer: b
s:/

Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device

tp

which deals with network cables or the

ht

standards in use like connectors, pins, electric

current used etc. Basically the transmission
:-

speed is determined by the cables and

in

connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that

Jo

determines the transmission speed in network.

Some of the cables used for high speed data
transmission are optical fiber cables and twisted
pair cables.

TOPIC 3.6 | 3.7 | 3.8

FORMULATING NETWORK
MODEL, FORWARD PASS &

35
IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

BACKWARD PASS Retesting

Sanity testing
TECHNIQUES
Breadth test and depth test
Confirmation testing
Which of the following term describes
testing? Answer: c
a) Finding broken code Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors on the already deployed software. The
c) A stage of all projects deployed software needs to be enhanced,

um
d) None of the mentioned changed or migrated to other hardware. The
Testing done during this enhancement,

nt
Answer: b change and migration cycle is known as

ua
Explanation: Software testing is the process maintenance testing.

_Q
of evaluation a software item to detect
differences between given input and White Box techniques are also classified as

ks
expected output. a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing

oo
What is Cyclomatic complexity? a) c) Error guessing technique
Black box testing

_B
d) None of the mentioned
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the
ot
testing of the structure of the system or
_N

Answer: b component. Structural testing is often

Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or
TU

measures the amount of decision logic in ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural

the program module.Cyclomatic complexity testing we are interested in what is happening
K

gives the minimum number of paths that ‘inside the system/application’.

A

can generate all possible paths through the

e/

module. Exhaustive testing is

m

a) always possible
Lower and upper limits are present in
/t.

b) practically possible
which chart? c) impractical but possible d)
s:/

a) Run chart b) impractical and impossible

tp

Bar chart c)
Control chart Answer: c
ht

d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing

:-

where we execute single test case for multiple

in

Answer: a test data.It means if we are using single test

xplanation: A run chart is used to monitor
Jo

case for different product or module under

the behavior of a variable over time for a manual testing.
process or system. Run charts graphically testing .
display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random
patterns in behavior over time. It contains Which of the following is/are White box
lower and upper limits. technique?
a) Statement Testing
Maintenance testing is performed using b) Decision Testing
which methodology?
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um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
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Condition Coverage TOPIC 3.10 RISK

All of the mentioned
IDENTIFICATION
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision What is the main purpose of hazard
testing, condition coverage all of them identification?
uses white box technique. a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
What are the various Testing Levels?

um
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
a) Unit Testing d) To reduce probability of occurrence
b) System Testing

nt
c) Integration Testing Answer: c

ua
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Hazard identification is the first

_Q
step in risk assessment. he goal is to
Answer: d understand the concentration of toxins,

ks
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing spatial distribution and there movement.
all of them are levels in testing.

oo
2. The process determines whether exposure
Boundary value analysis belong to?

_B
to a chemical can increase the incidence of
a) White Box Testing adverse health effect.
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box
es
Hazard identification
ot
Exposure assessment
Testing d) None of the mentioned
_N

Toxicity assessment
Answer: b Risk characterization
TU

Explanation: Boundary value analysis is Answer: a

based on testing at the boundaries Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
K

between partitions and checks the output path of the toxins and also determines the
A

with expected output. likelihood of occurrence in humans.

e/

Alpha testing is done at a)

m

Which of the following data is not required

Developer’s end
/t.

for hazard identification?

b) User’s end a) Land use
s:/

c) Developer’s & User’s end b) Contaminant levels

tp

d) None of the mentioned c) Affected population

ht

Answer: a d) Estimation of risk

:-

Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the Answer: d

developer’s end. Developers observe the
in

Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at

users and note problems. Alpha testing is
Jo

risk characterization whereas land use,

testing of an application when development is contaminant level, affected population and
about to complete. Minor design changes can biota data play a major role while identifying
still be made as a result of alpha testing. a hazard.

TOPIC 3.9 CRITICAL Hazard is defined as the probability of

suffering harm or loss.
PATH (CRM) METHOD a) True
b) False

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Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Explanation: Risk is the probability of Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a Monitoring is failed
potential source of harm. Outburst of chemicals
Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure

um
humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes results in catastrophic.
of contamination on site

nt
d) For determination of remedial actions The purpose of risk management is to

ua
identify potential problems before they occur

_Q
Answer: c so that risk-handling activities may be
Explanation: Site history provides precise planned.

ks
information about the activities that had been a) False
carried on the area. Most of the instance b) True

oo
contamination is due to past activities on site.

_B
Answer: b
What is the main objective of risk Explanation: The main goal of risk
assessment?
a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the
es
management is to reduce the threats from an
ot
activity so that harm to the surrounding is
risks b) Remediation of contaminated sites minimized.
_N

c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants 10. Hazard identification mainly focus on
TU

Answer: a Chemical source and concentration

K

Explanation: Risk assessment helps to Chemical exposure

A

understand possible problems and Chemical analysis

e/

provides alternatives as well as control Chemical pathway

m

measures to reduce the accident.

Answer: a
/t.

What is the first stage of risk assessment? Explanation: The main aim of hazard
s:/

a) Exposure assessment identification is to identify chemical

tp

b) Hazard identification source, concentration and its movement in

c) Toxicity study environment.
ht

d) Risk characterization
:-

TOPIC 3.11 ASSESSMENT

in

Answer: b
Jo

xplanation: Hazard identification is the first

stage of risk assessment. It provides clear What is the main purpose of hazard
understanding about chemical contaminants, identification?
their concentration and distribution in a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
environment. b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
An incident can be called hazardous only d) To reduce probability of occurrence
when?
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

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Answer: c contamination on site

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first d) For determination of remedial actions
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
understand the concentration of toxins, Answer: c
spatial distribution and there movement. Explanation: Site history provides precise
information about the activities that had been
The ____________ process determines carried on the area. Most of the instance
whether exposure to a chemical can increase contamination is due to past activities on site.
the incidence of adverse health effect.

um
a) Hazard identification What is the main objective of risk
assessment?

nt
b) Exposure assessment
c) Toxicity assessment a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the

ua
d) Risk characterization risks b) Remediation of contaminated sites

_Q
c) Hazard management
Answer: a d) To know source of pollutants

ks
Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
path of the toxins and also determines the Answer: a

oo
likelihood of occurrence in humans. Explanation: Risk assessment helps to

_B
understand possible problems and
Which of the following data is not required provides alternatives as well as control
for hazard identification? es
measures to reduce the accident.
ot
a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels What is the first stage of risk assessment?
_N

c) Affected population a) Exposure assessment

d) Estimation of risk b) Hazard identification
TU

c) Toxicity study
Answer: d d) Risk characterization
K

Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at

A

risk characterization whereas land use, Answer: b

e/

contaminant level, affected population and Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
m

biota data play a major role while identifying stage of risk assessment. It provides clear
understanding about chemical contaminants,
/t.

a hazard.
their concentration and distribution in
s:/

Hazard is defined as the probability of environment.

tp

suffering harm or loss.

a) True An incident can be called hazardous only
ht

b) False when?
:-

a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

in

Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Jo

xplanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding

suffering harm whereas hazard is a c) Monitoring is failed
potential source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals
Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

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The purpose of risk management is to Which of the following risk is the failure of a
identify potential problems before they occur purchased component to perform as
so that risk-handling activities may be expected?
planned. a) Product risk
a) False b) Project risk
b) True c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: b
Explanation: The main goal of risk Answer: a

um
management is to reduce the threats from an Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or

nt
activity so that harm to the surrounding is performance of the software being developed.
minimized.

ua
Which of the following term is best defined
by the statement: “There will be a change of

_Q
Hazard identification mainly focus on
______________ organizational management with different

ks
a) Chemical source and priorities.”?
concentration b) Chemical exposure a) Staff turnover

oo
c) Chemical analysis b) Technology change

_B
d) Chemical pathway c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: a es
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: The main aim of hazard
identification is to identify chemical Explanation: None.
_N

source, concentration and its movement in

environment. Which of the following term is best defined by
TU

the statement: “The underlying technology on

which the system is built is superseded by new
K

TOPIC 3.12 RISK PLANNING

technology.”?
A

a) Technology change b)
e/

TOPIC 3.13 RISK Product competition c)

m

Requirements change d)
MANAGEMENT
/t.

None of the mentioned

s:/

Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

tp

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are

common in the competitive environment
ht

a) Client
b) Investor of software engineering.
:-

c) Production team
in

d) Project manager What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Jo

Answer: d more about the risk?

xplanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the b) Risk planning
project schedule or the quality of the c) Risk analysis
software being developed, and then taking d) Risk identification
action to avoid these risks.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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Which of the following risks are derived Risk management is now recognized as
from the organizational environment where one of the most important project
the software is being developed? management tasks.
a) People risks a) True
b) Technology risks c) b) False
Estimation risks d)
Organizational risks Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d

um
Explanation: These risks are at .

nt
management level.
TOPIC 3.14 PERT TECHNIQUE

ua
Which of the following risks are derived

_Q
from the software or hardware technologies
that are used to develop the system? Which of the following is not a phase of

ks
a) Managerial risks b) project management?
Technology risks c) a) Project planning b)

oo
Estimation risks d) Project scheduling c)

_B
Organizational risks Project controlling d)
Project being
Answer: b es
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: The risks associated
with technology might affect the Explanation: There are three phases of
_N

product development. project management. These are project

planning, project scheduling and project
TU

Which of the following term is best defined controlling. Project management refers to a
by the statement: “Derive traceability highly specialised job to achieve the
K

information to maximize information hiding objectives of a project.

A

in the design.”?
e/

a) Underestimated development time Who introduced the bar charts? a)

m

b) Organizational restructuring Williams henry

b) Henry Gantt
/t.

c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned c) Jane Gantt d)
s:/

Joseph henry
tp

Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements Answer: b
ht

can help us understand the risk. Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the
:-

bar charts around 1900 A.D. They give

in

Which of the following strategies means pictorial representation in two dimensions of

that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
Jo

a project by breaking it down into numerous

a) Avoidance strategies manageable units.
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans Bar charts were modified later to obtain the
d) All of the mentioned milestone charts.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.

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Answer: a progress, black colour is used and for progress

Explanation: The various tools or techniques behind schedule, red colour is used.
used for project management are bar charts,
milestone charts and network diagrams. Bar A PERT network is activity-oriented while a
charts were modified later to obtain the CPM network is event-oriented.
milestone charts. a) True
b) False
The full form of PERT is ___________
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology Answer: b

um
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique Explanation: A CPM network is activity-
oriented while a PERT network is event-

nt
c) Program Evaluation and Robot
Technology d) Program Evaluation and oriented. Event is the completion of an

ua
Review Technique activity or the commencement of an

_Q
activity. An event may be head event, tail
Answer: d event or dual role event.

ks
Explanation: There are various network
techniques that are called by various names are used to represent activity in a network

oo
like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LESS. diagram.

_B
Network technique is one of the major a) Circles
advancements in management science. The quares
full form of PERT is Program Evaluation es
Rectangles
ot
and Review Technique. Arrows
_N

The full form of CPM is Answer: d

a) Critical Path Method b) Explanation: A network is a flow diagram
TU

Control Path Method that consists of events and activities which

c) Critical Plan Management are connected sequentially and logically.
K

d) Control Path Management Arrows are used to represent activity in a

A

network diagram. Events are generally

e/

Answer: a represented by circles.

m

Explanation: The full form of CPM is the

The shortest possible time in which an
/t.

Critical Path Method. CPM networks are

mainly used for those projects for which a activity can be achieved under ideal
s:/

fairly accurate estimate of time of circumstances is known as ________

tp

completion can be made for each activity. a) Pessimistic time estimate

ht

b) Optimistic time estimate

In bar charts, which colour is used to show c) Expected time estimate
:-

the actual progress? d) The most likely time estimate

in

a) Red
Jo

b) Black Answer: b
c) Blue Explanation: There are three kinds of time
d) Green estimates made by PERT planners. These are
the optimistic time estimate, the pessimistic
Answer: d time estimate and the most likely time
Explanation: In bar charts, different colours estimate. The shortest possible time in which
are sometimes filled in the bars for showing an activity can be achieved under ideal
various control information. For actual circumstances is known as the optimistic time
progress, green colour is used. For anticipated estimate.

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According to the time estimates made by the A randomized algorithm uses random bits as
PERT planners, the maximum time that input inorder to achieve a _____________
would be needed to complete an activity is good performance over all possible choice of
called as __________ random bits.
a) The most likely time estimate a) worst case
b) Optimistic time estimate b) best case c)
c) Pessimistic time estimate average case
d) Expected time estimate d) none of the mentioned

um
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: According to the time estimates Explanation: A randomized algorithm is an

nt
made by the PERT planners, the maximum algorithm that employs a degree of

ua
time that would be needed to complete an randomness as a part of its logic using

_Q
activity is called the pessimistic time random bits as inputs and in hope of
estimate. This estimate does not include producing average case good performace.

ks
possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.
Which of the following options match the

oo
In a network, a critical path is the time- given statement:

_B
wise shortest path. Statement: The algorithms that use the
a) True random input to reduce the expected
b) False es
running time or memory usage, but always
ot
terminate with a correct result in a bounded
Answer: b amount of time.
_N

Explanation: In a network, a critical path is a) Las Vegas Algorithm

the time-wise longest path. The critical path b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
TU

in the Critical Path Method plays an essential c) Atlantic City Algorithm

role in scheduling and planning. d) None of the mentioned
K
A

The difference between the maximum time Answer: a

e/

available and the actual time needed to Explanation: The other type of algorithms
m

perform an activity is known as are probabalistic algorithms, which

/t.

a) Free float depending upon the random input, have a

b) Independent chance of producing incorrect results or fail
s:/

float c) Total float to produce a result.

tp

d) Half float
Which of the following are probalistic
ht

Answer: c algorithms?
:-

Explanation: The difference between the a) Las Vegas Algorithm

in

maximum time available and the actual time b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
Jo

needed to perform an activity is known as the c) Atlantic City Algorithm

total float. Hence, the total float is the excess d) All of the mentioned
of the maximum available time throughout
the time of the activity. Answer: d
Explanation: Monte Carlo algorithms are
TOPIC 3.15 MONTE CARLO very vast, but only probably correct. On thr
other side, Las Vegas algorithms are
SIMULATION always correct, but probably fast.

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Which of the following algorithms are randomized algorithms as probalistic

probably correct as well as fast? turing machines. A probalistic turing
a) Las Vegas Algorithm machine is a non deterministic turing
b) Monte Carlo Algorithm machine which randomly chooses between
c) Atlantic City Algorithm the available transitions at each point
d) All of the mentioned according to some probalistic distribution.
Answer: c For the given algorithm, find the
Explanation: The atlantic city algorithms

um
probability of finding after k iterations:
which are bounded polynomial time
find_a(array A, n, k)

nt
algorithms are probably correct and probably
fast. It is correct more than 75% of the times.

ua
begin
Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the

_Q
i=0
following:

ks
a) cooperative behaviour repeat
b) graph theory

oo
Randomly select one element
c) Both (a) and (b)

_B
d) None of the mentioned out i=i+1

Answer: a
Explanation: Prisonner’s dilemma is a
es until i=k or a is found
ot
end
standard example of a game analysed in game
_N

theory where rational cooperative behaviour k

is judged on the basis of rewards and (1/2)
TU

k
punishment. (1-(1/3))
1-(1/2)k
K

6. Unix sort command uses as its None of the mentioned

A

sorting technique.
e/

a) Quick Sort Answer: c

m

b) Bucket Sort Explanation: The given is known as Monte

Carlo Algorithm. If a is fount, the algorithm
/t.

c) Radix Sort
d) Merge Sort succeeds, else the algorith fails. The
s:/

algorithm doesn not guarantee success but the

tp

Answer: a run time is bounded.

ht

Explanation: Quicksort is the method of

choice in many applications( Unix sort Which of the following can be solved in
:-

command) with O(nlogn) in worst case. computer science?

in

a) P=BPP problem
Jo

7. State true or false: b) NP=co-NP problem

Statement: A turing machine has the c) Do one way problems exist?
capability of using randomly ‘generated’ d) All of the mentioned
numbers.
true Answer: d
false Explanation: There exists a list of unsolved
problems in computational theory which
Answer: a includes many problems including the ones
Explanation: Complexity theories models given.

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Which of the following can be referred to as In _________ the embedded devices and
applications of Randomized algorithm? a) objects working under IoT are resource
Quicksort constrained.
b) Min Cut a) Health
c) Verifying Matrix Multiplication b) Industry
d) All of the mentioned c) Home
d) Information system
Answer: d
Explanation: Freivalds algorithm is a Answer: d

um
probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to Explanation: In the information system the
verify matrix multiplication. On the other

nt
embedded devices and objects working under
hand, Randomness can be useful in quicksort. IoT implementation are resource constrained.

ua
If the algorithm selects pivot element

_Q
uniformaly at random, it has a probably high What type of networks is interacting under
probabilty of finishing the work in O(nlogn) IoT?

ks
time regardless of the input. a) Heterogeneous only
b) Homogeneous nly

oo
TOPIC 3.16 RESOURCE c) Both hetero and homogeneous

_B
d) Neither hetero nor Homo
ALLOCATION
es
Answer: a
ot
What is the popular method of organizing Explanation: Due to the huge number of
heterogeneous network elements interacting
_N

wireless network topologies?

a) Software and working under IoT based information
systems, there is an enormous need for
TU

b) Synchronization
c) Network resource management for the smooth
running of IoT operations.
K

d) Cluster
A

Answer: d Managing of resources can be done by

e/

Explanation: Clustering is a popular implementing

m

method of organising wireless network a) Protocols

/t.

topologies, in which a few nodes, the cluster b) Algorithms

c) Networks
s:/

heads are elected as representing to route the

traffic originated in the entire network. d) Protocols and algorithms
tp

Answer: d
ht

_________ will enable the humans to

access, control and manage the Explanation: Managing of resources by
:-

operation. a) IoT implementing protocols, algorithms or

in

b) Bigdata techniques is required to enhance the

Jo

c) Network scalability, reliability and stability in the

d) Communication operations of IoT across different domains
of technology.
Answer: a
This section is to solicit the efforts and
Explanation: IoT enables the humans to
access, control and manage the operations ongoing research work in the domain of
and data of the objects working under _______
different information systems of their a) Information Management
surroundings. b) Resource Management

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Industrial Management –> QoS in communication

Network Management protocol –> Mac layer issues
–> Secure communication in D2D.
Answer: b
Explanation: The motivation of this section Which of the following is the future
is to solicit the efforts and ongoing research application of IoT?
work in the domain of resource management a) Role of green IoT system
in IoT. b) QoS in communication c)
Secure communication

um
Resource management will elaborate the d) Multimedia communication
key aspects of _________

nt
a) Industrial management Answer: a

ua
b) Energy management c) Explanation: Future applications of IoT:
–> IoT based information system for

_Q
Network management d)
Information management Ambient living

ks
–> Cyber Physical System in IoT
Answer: c –> Role of Green IoT system –>

oo
Explanation: Resource management will Fog computing.

_B
elaborate the key aspects of energy
management, communication protocols and 11. The object of IoT will be empowered by
future applications of IoT for information es
Network
ot
systems.
Cloud
_N

Resource management includes Devices

___________ Connectivity
TU

a) IoT Devices
b) IoT Cloud c) Answer: c
K

IoT Networks Explanation: The objects of the Internet of

A

d) IoT Web Things will be empowered by embedded

e/

devices whose constrained resources will

m

Answer: b need to be managed efficiently.

Explanation: Resource management includes
/t.

IoT Cloud, IoT based industrial and home The embedded devices will form _______
s:/

environment and integration of IoT concept in network.

tp

upcoming technologies of Cyber Physical a) ATM b)

System, Ambient living and Fog Computing. Ethernet c)
ht

FDDI d)
:-

What is the role of communication protocol Ad-hoc

in

in IoT?
Answer: d
Jo

a) Smart cities
b) Cyber physical system Explanation: It is envisioned that these
c) Mac layer issue devices will be able to form ad-hoc network,
d) Managing energy and that the connection from these networks
to the Internet of Things infrastructure will
Answer: c not always be possible.
Explanation: Role of communication
protocol in IoT : _______ are used to overcome the
–> Multimedia communication challenges of managing the resources of the

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IoT. Architectural design is a creative process

Clustering satisfying only functional-requirements of a
Software agents system.
Synchronization techniques a) True
Cluster, Software agent, and b) False
Synchronization techniques
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: In architectural design you
Explanation: The use of Cluster, Software

um
design a system organization satisfying the
agent, and Synchronization techniques in functional and non-functional requirements
order to overcome the challenges of

nt
of a system.
managing the resources of the Internet of

ua
Things objects. 2. A view shows the system hardware and

_Q
how software components are distributed
Which will reduce the energy across the processors in the system.

ks
expenditure?
a) Clustering physical

oo
b) Software agents logical

_B
c) Synchronization techniques process
d) Cluster, Software agent, and all of the mentioned
Synchronization techniques es
Answer: a
ot
Answer: a Explanation: A physical view is
_N

Explanation: Clustering will be beneficial to implemented by system engineers

reduce the energy expenditure and improve implementing the system hardware.
TU

the scalability and robustness of the object

networks. 3. The UML was designed for describing
K
A

Synchronization techniques will be necessary object-oriented systems

e/

to address the various challenges of architectural design

m

harmonising. SRS
/t.

a) False Both object-oriented systems and

b) True Architectural design
s:/
tp

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Synchronization techniques Explanation: The UML was designed for
ht

will be necessary to address the various describing object-oriented systems and, at

:-

challenges of harmonising plenty of copies the architectural design stage, you often want
in

of object data with potentially partially to describe systems at a higher level of

Jo

disconnected Internet of Things architecture abstraction.

components.
Which of the following view shows that
the system is composed of interacting
TOPIC 3.17 CREATION processes at run time?
OF CRITICAL PATHS, a) physical
COST SCHEDULES. b) development
c) logical
d) process

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Answer: d Which of the following pattern is the basis

Explanation: This view is useful for of interaction management in many web-
making judgments about non-functional based systems?
system characteristics such as performance a) architecture
and availability. b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
Which of the following is an architectural d) different operating system
conflict?
a) Using large-grain components improves Answer: c

um
performance but reduces maintainability b) Explanation: Model-View-Controller
Introducing redundant data improves

nt
pattern is the basis of interaction
availability but makes security more management in many web-based systems.

ua
difficult c) Localizing safety-related features

_Q
usually means more communication so What describes how a set of interacting
degraded performance components can share data?

ks
d) All of the mentioned a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern c)

oo
Answer: d repository pattern

_B
Explanation: High availability architecture d) none of the mentioned
can be affected by several design factors
that are required to be maintained to ensure es
Answer: c
ot
that no single points of failure exist in such Explanation: The majority of systems that
design. use large amounts of data are organized
_N

around a shared database or repository.

Which of the following is not included in
TU

Architectural design decisions? Which view in architectural design shows the

a) type of application key abstractions in the system as objects or
K

b) distribution of the system object classes?

A

c) architectural styles a) physical

e/

d) testing the system b) development

m

c) logical
Answer: d
/t.

d) process
Explanation: Architectural design decisions
s:/

include decisions on the type of application, Answer: c

tp

the distribution of the system, the Explanation: It is possible to relate the

system requirements to entities in a
ht

architectural styles to be used, and the ways

in which the architecture should be logical view.
:-

documented and evaluated.

in

Which of the following is a type of

Architectural Model?
Jo

Architecture once established can be

applied to other products as well. a) Static structural model b)
a) True Dynamic process model c)
b) False Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Systems in the same domain Answer: d
often have similar architectures that reflect Explanation: All these models reflects the
domain concepts.

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basic strategy that is used to structure Answer: a

a system. Explanation: LOC or Line of Code is a
direct measure to estimate project size.
.
Which software project sizing approach
develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics?
a) Function point
UNIT IV PROJECT sizing b) Change sizing

um
MANAGEMENT AND c) Standard component sizing

nt
d) Fuzzy logic sizing
CONTROL

ua
Answer: a

_Q
Explanation: None.
TOPIC 4.1 FRAMEWORK FOR

ks
MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL The expected value for the estimation
variable (size), S, can be computed as a

oo
Why is decomposition technique required? weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt),

_B
a) Software project estimation is a form of most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess)
estimates given as
problem solving
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a es
a) EV = ( opt + 4Sm + Spess)/4 b)
ot
EV = ( opt + 4Sm + Spess)/6 c)
software project is too complex
EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6 d)
_N

c) All of the mentioned d)

EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4
None of the mentioned
TU

Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: This assumes that there is a
K

Explanation: For these reasons, we

very small probability that the actual size
A

decompose the problem, re-characterizing it

result will fall outside the optimistic or
as a set of smaller problems.
e/

pessimistic values.
m

Cost and effort estimation of a software uses

How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s
/t.

only one forms of decomposition, either

COCOMO Model?
s:/

decomposition of the problem or

a) Two
decomposition of the process.
tp

b) Three
a) True
c) Four
ht

b) False
d) No form exists
:-

Answer: b
in

Answer: b
Explanation: Estimation uses one or both
Jo

Explanation: The three forms include the

forms of partitioning.
basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO
If a Direct approach to software project model.
sizing is taken, size can be measured in a)
Who suggested the four different
LOC
approaches to the sizing problem?
b) FP
a) Putnam
c) LOC and FP
d) None of the mentioned b) Myers

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Boehm Answer: b
Putnam and Myers Explanation: The planner must determine the
cause of divergence and then reconcile the
Answer: d estimates.
Explanation: None.
Programming language experience is a
In many cases, it is often more cost- part of which factor of COCOMO cost
effective to acquire, rather than drivers?
develop, computer software. a) Personnel Factor

um
a) True b) Product Factor c)
b) False

nt
Platform Factor d)
Project Factor

ua
Answer: a

_Q
Explanation: Managers are faced with a Answer: a
make-buy decision in such situations. Explanation: None.

ks
A make-buy decision is based on whether a) If an Indirect approach is taken, then the

oo
The software may be purchased off-the- sizing approach is represented as

_B
shelf a) LOC
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” b) FP
software components should be used
c) Customer-built software should
es
c) Fuzzy Logic
ot
d) LOC and FP
be developed
_N

d) All of the mentioned Answer: b

Explanation: A function point (FP) is a unit
TU

Answer: d of measurement to express the amount of

Explanation: None.. business functionality an information
K

system provides to a user.

A

Which of the following is not one of the

e/

five information domain characteristics of .

Function Point (FP) decomposition?
m

a) External inputs b)
/t.

TOPIC 4.2 COLLECTION OF

External outputs c)
s:/

External process d) DATA

tp

External inquiries
Project management involves the planning,
ht

Answer: c monitoring, and control of the people,

:-

Explanation: External inputs, external process, and events that occur as software
in

outputs, external inquiries, internal evolves from a preliminary concept to an

logical files, external interface files are
Jo

operational implementation.
the five domains. a) True
The project planner must reconcile the b) False
estimates based on decomposition techniques Answer: a
to produce a single estimate of effort. Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False Which of the following is not an effective
software project management focus?

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people Answer: c
product Explanation: A small number of
popularity framework activities are applicable to all
process software projects, regardless of their size or
complexity.
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project Who defines the business issues that often
management focuses on the four P’s: have significant influence on the project? a)
Practitioners

um
people, product, process, and project.
b) Project managers
3. PM-CMM stands for c) Senior managers

nt
people management capability maturity d) None of the mentioned

ua
model

_Q
process management capability maturity Answer: c
model Explanation: None.

ks
product management capability maturity
model Who delivers the technical skills that are

oo
project management capability maturity necessary to engineer a product or an

_B
model application?
a) Practitioners
Answer: a
Explanation: The people management
es
b) Project managers
ot
enior managers
maturity model defines the following key None of the mentioned
_N

practice areas for software people: recruiting,

selection, performance management, training, Answer: a
TU

compensation, career development, Explanation: None.

organization and work design, and
K

team/culture development. Which of the following paradigm attempts to

A

structure a team in a manner that achieves

e/

Which of the following is not a project some of the controls associated with the
m

manager’s activity? closed paradigm but also much of the

innovation that occurs when using the random
/t.

a) project control
b) project management paradigm?
s:/

c) project planning d) a) asynchronous paradigm

tp

project design b) open paradigm

c) closed paradigm
ht

Answer: d d) synchronous paradigm

:-

Explanation: The design part of any project

in

management is done by the project team. Answer: b

Jo

Explanation: Open paradigm team structures

5. A software provides the framework from are well suited to the solution of complex
which a comprehensive plan for software problems but may not perform as efficiently
development can be established. as other teams.
people
product Which of the following is a people-
process intensive activity?
none of the mentioned a) Problem solving
b) Organization

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Motivation Who interacts with the software once it is

Project management released for production use?
a) End-users
Answer: d b) Client
Explanation: For this reason, competent c) Project (technical) managers
practitioners often make poor team leaders. d) Senior managers
Which paradigm structures a team loosely Answer: a
and depends on individual initiative of the Explanation: A product is always built

um
team members? to satisfy an end-user.
a) random paradigm

nt
b) open paradigm c) Which of the following is not an effective

ua
closed paradigm project manager trait?

_Q
d) synchronous paradigm a) Problem solving b)
Managerial identity

ks
Answer: d c) Influence and team building
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned

oo
Which of the following is not an approach to

_B
Answer: d
software cost estimation? Explanation: All are key traits of an effective
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
es
project manager.
ot
c) Analytical Which type of software engineering team has
_N

d) Critical a defined leader who coordinates specific

tasks and secondary leaders that have
TU

Answer: d responsibility for sub tasks?

Explanation: Critical is no such standard a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
K

approach of cost estimation. b) Democratic decentralized

A

(DD) c) Controlled centralized

e/

. (CC) d) None of the mentioned

m

Answer: a
/t.

TOPIC 4.3 VISUALIZING

Explanation: Problem solving remains a
s:/

PROGRESS group activity, but implementation of

tp

solutions is partitioned among subgroups

Which paradigm relies on the natural by the team leader.
ht

compartmentalization of a problem and

:-

organizes team members to work on pieces of Commitments to unrealistic time and

in

the problem with little active communication resource estimates may result in
Jo

among themselves? a) project delay

a) random paradigm b) poor quality work
b) open paradigm c) c) project failure
closed paradigm d) all of the mentioned
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.

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Which software engineering team has no the functionality that must be delivered and
permanent leader? the process that will be used to deliver it.
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized Which of the following is not a sign that
(DD) c) Controlled Centralized indicates that an information systems project
(CC) d) None of the mentioned is in jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand
Answer: b their customers needs
Explanation: Here Communication among b) Changes are managed poorly

um
team members is horizontal. c) Sponsorship is gained
d) Users are resistant

nt
Which of the following is not a project factor

ua
that should be considered when planning the Answer: c

_Q
structure of software engineering teams? Explanation: Other options are contradictory
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved to the question.

ks
b) High frustration caused by personal,
business, or technological factors that 11. SPMP stands for

oo
causes friction among team members Software roject Manager’s Plan

_B
c) The degree of sociability required for the Software roject Management Plan
project oftware roduct Management Plan
d) The rigidity of the delivery date esoftware Product Manager’s Plan
ot
Answer: c Answer: b
_N

Explanation: Development is irrelevant of Explanation: After planning is complete,

social quotient. documenting of the plans is done in a
TU

Software Project Management Plan(SPMP)

Which of the following is a collection of document.
K

project coordination technique?

A

a) Formal approaches .
e/

b) Formal, interpersonal procedures

m

c) Informal, interpersonal procedures TOPIC 4.4 COST MONITORING

/t.

d) All of the mentioned

s:/

Answer: d Which of the following categories is part of

the output of software process?
tp

Explanation: None.
a) computer programs
ht

Which activity sits at the core of software b) documents that describe the computer
:-

requirements analysis? programs

in

a) Problem decomposition c) data

b) Partitioning d) all of the mentioned
Jo

c) Problem elaboration
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: None
Answer: d
Explanation: During the scoping activity Which is a software configuration
decomposition is applied in two major areas: management concept that helps us to control
change without seriously impeding
justifiable change?

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Baselines Baseline
Source code None of the mentioned
Data model
None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the Which of the following is the process of
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a assembling program components, data, and
software configuration item becomes a libraries, and then compiling and linking

um
baseline, change may be made quickly and these to create an executable system?
a) System building

nt
informally.
b) Release management

ua
Software Configuration Management can c) Change management

_Q
be administered in several ways. These d) Version management
include

ks
a) A single software configuration Answer: a
management team for the whole Explanation: None.

oo
organization b) A separate configuration
Which of the following option is not tracked

_B
management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management by configuration management tools? a)
distributed among the project members es
Tracking of change proposals
toring versions of system components
ot
d) All of the mentioned
Tracking the releases of system versions to
_N

Answer: a customers
Explanation: None None of the mentioned
TU

What combines procedures and tools to Answer: d

K

manage different versions of configuration Explanation: All the options are tracked.
A

objects that are created during the software

e/

process? Which of the following is not a Software

Configuration Management Activity?
m

a) Change control
a) Configuration item identification
/t.

b) Version control
c) SCIs b) Risk management
s:/

d) None of the mentioned c) Release management

tp

d) Branch management
Answer: b
ht

Explanation: Configuration management Answer: b

:-

allows a user to specify alternative Explanation: Risk management is an entirely

in

configurations of the software system through different domain.

Jo

the selection of appropriate versions.

The definition and use of configuration
What complements the formal technical management standards is essential for
review by assessing a configuration object for quality certification in
characteristics that are generally not a) ISO 9000
considered during review? b) CMM c)
a) Software configuration audit CMMI
b) Software configuration management d) All of the mentioned

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Answer: d which components in the system have been

Explanation: It is defined in all the changed.
mentioned options.
Which of the following is not a Version
What involves preparing software for management feature?
external release and keeping track of the a) Version and release identification
system versions that have been released for b) Build script generation
customer use? c) Project support
a) System building d) Change history recording

um
b) Release management
Answer: b

nt
c) Change management
d) Version management Explanation: All other options are a part

ua
of version management.

_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Which method recommends that very

ks
frequent system builds should be carried out
. with automated testing to discover software

oo
problems?

_B
TOPIC 4.5 EARNED a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
VALUE ANALYSIS es
c) Large systems method
ot
d) All of the mentioned
Which of the following process ensures
_N

that versions of systems and components are Answer: a

recorded and maintained? Explanation: In keeping with the agile
TU

a) Codeline methods notion of making many small

b) Configuration changes, continuous integration involves
K

control c) Version rebuilding the mainline frequently, after

A

d) Workspace small source code changes have been made.

e/
m

Answer: b Which of the following is not a build

system feature?
/t.

Explanation: In configuration control

changes are managed and all versions of a) Minimal recompilation
s:/

components are identified and stored for the b) Documentation generation

tp

lifetime. c) Storage management

d) Reporting
ht

Which of the following process is

:-

concerned with analyzing the costs Answer: c

in

and benefits of proposed changes? Explanation: To reduce the storage space

Jo

a) Change management required by multiple versions of components

b) Version management that differ only slightly, version management
ystem building systems usually provide storage
Release management management facilities.

Answer: a Which of the following is a collection of

Explanation: It involves approving those component versions that make up a
changes that are worthwhile, and tracking system? a) Version
b) Codeline

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Baseline new codeline from a version in an

None of the mentioned existing codeline”?
Branching
Answer: c Merging
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which Codeline
means that the versions of the components Mainline
making up the system cannot be changed.
Answer: a
Which of the following is a configuration Explanation: The code may then

um
item? be developed independently.
a) Design & Test

nt
specification b) Source code .

ua
c) Log information

_Q
d) All of the mentioned TOPIC 4.6 PRIORI IZING
MONITORING

ks
Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an

oo
approved and accepted deliverable, changes “Robustness” answers which of the

_B
have to be made through formal procedure. following description?
a) CA E tools be used to support the process
Which of the following is a part of system
release?
es
activities
ot
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped
a) electronic and paper documentation before they result in product errors
_N

describing the system c) Defined process is acceptable and usable

b) packaging and associated publicity that
TU

by the engineers responsible for producing

have been designed for that release the software
c) an installation program that is used to help d) Process continues in spite of
K

install the system on target hardware unexpected problems

A

d) all of the mentioned

e/

Answer: d
m

Answer: d Explanation: None.

Explanation: Release creation is the process
/t.

of creating the collection of files and Process improvement is the set of activities,
s:/

documentation that includes all of the methods, and transformations that

tp

components of the system release. developers use to develop and maintain

ht

information systems.
A sequence of baselines representing a) True
:-

different versions of a system is known b) False

in

as a) System building
Jo

b) Mainline Answer: b
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI) Explanation: The definition is of a
d) None of the mentioned system development process.
Answer: b “Understandability” answers which of the
Explanation: None. following description?
a) The extent to which the process is
Which of the following term is best explicitly defined
defined by the statement “The creation of a b) Process errors are avoided or trapped

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before they result in product errors Process analysis

Defined process is acceptable and usable by Process modelling
the engineers responsible for producing the None of the mentioned
software product
Process continues in spite of unexpected Answer: c
problems Explanation: Process models may be
presented from different perspectives.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. It is always best to start process analysis

um
with a new test model.
How many stages are there in process a) True

nt
improvement? b) False

ua
a) three
Answer: b

_Q
b) four
c) five Explanation: It is always best to start

ks
d) six process analysis with an existing model.
People then may extend and change this.

oo
Answer: a
What is a tangible output of an activity that is

_B
Explanation: Process measurement, analysis
and change are the three stages. predicted in a project plan?

In which stage of process improvement

es
a) Deliverable
b) Activity c)
ot
bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified? Condition d)
_N

a) Process measurement Process

b) Process analysis
TU

c) Process change Answer: a

d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
K
A

Answer: b What is often undefined and is left to the

e/

Explanation: In Process analysis the ingenuity of the project managers and

engineers?
m

current process is assessed and bottlenecks

and weaknesses are identified a) Role
/t.

b) Exception
s:/

Prototypes and 4GL business systems are c) Activity

tp

categorized under which process? d) Process

a) Informal b)
ht

Managed c) Answer: b
:-

Methodical d) Explanation: Exceptions are often undefined

in

Supported and it is left to the ingenuity of the project

managers and engineers to handle the
Jo

Answer: a exception.
xplanation: Here the development team
chose their own way of working. Which of the following is not a part of
process change?
The documentation of a process which a) Introducing new practices, methods or
records the tasks, the roles and the entities processes
used is called b) Introducing new team members to existing
a) Process metric project

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Introducing or removing deliverable Project managers have to assess the risks

Introducing new roles or responsibilities that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Adding more developers aid to
process completion rather than changing it. Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a anticipating risks that might affect the
continuous model.

um
project schedule or the quality of the
a) True software being developed, and then taking
b) False

nt
action to avoid these risks.

ua
Answer: b Which of the following is not considered as a

_Q
Explanation: The CMM is discrete rather risk in project management?
than continuous. a) Specification delays

ks
b) Product competition
The CMMI assessment is based on a x- c) Testing

oo
point scale. What is the value of x? d) Staff turnover

_B
a) 0
b) 2 Answer: c
c) 4
d) 6
es
Explanation: Testing is a part of project,
thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
ot
_N

Answer: d The process each manager follows during

Explanation: Not performed, performed, the life of a project is known as
TU

managed, defined, quantitatively managed, a) Project Management

and optimizing are the six points. b) Manager life cycle
K

c) Project Management Life Cycle

A

. d) All of the mentioned

e/
m

TOPIC 4.7 PROJECT Answer: c

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle
/t.

TRACKING is necessary to repeatedly implement and

s:/

manage projects successfully.

tp

Which of the following is not project

management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
ht

a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

:-

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

in

the agreed time c) moderate

Jo

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high

development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),
Explanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high
because professional software engineering is (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).
always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints.

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Which of the following is/are main Process analysis

parameters that you should use when De-processification
computing the costs of a software Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
software engineers and managers) identified.

um
d) all of the mentioned
An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured

nt
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute

ua
out how much effort is required to complete a) True

_Q
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
total cost of activities.

ks
Answer: b
Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality

oo
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the

_B
a) team b) value of the attribute than can be measured.
project c)
customers . es
ot
d) project manager
TOPIC 4.8 CHANGE CONTROL
_N

Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
TU

the desired software qualities and describe 1. SCM stands for

how these are to be assessed. Software Control Management
K

Software Configuration Management

A

Which of the following is incorrect activity Software Concept Management

e/

for the configuration management of a None of the mentioned

m

software system?
Answer: b
/t.

a) Internship management
b) Change management c) Explanation: In software engineering,
s:/

Version management d) software configuration management (SCM) is

tp

System management the task of tracking and controlling changes

in the software, part of the larger cross-
ht

Answer: a discipline field of configuration management.

:-

Explanation: Configuration management

When code is made available to others, it
in

policies and processes define how to record

goes in a/an
Jo

and process proposed system changes, how

to decide what system components to change, a) hard drive
how to manage different versions of the b) access-controlled
system and its components, and how to library c) servers
distribute changes to customers. d) access control

Identify the sub-process of process Answer: b

improvement Explanation: None.
a) Process introduction

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Which of the following is not a main phase in What is one or more software configuration
Configuration Management (CM) Process? a) items that have been formally reviewed and
CM Planning agreed upon and serve as a basis for further
b) Executing the CM process development?
c) CM audits a) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
Answer: d d) Change Control
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.

um
Answer: a
CM is about managing the different items Explanation: In configuration management, a

nt
in the product, and changes in them. “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the

ua
a) True attributes of a product, at a point in time,

_Q
b) False which serves as a basis for defining change.

ks
Answer: a How are baselines verified? a)
Explanation: None. By reviews

oo
b) By inspections
What allows different projects to use the

_B
c) By testing of code d)
same source files at the same time? All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control
es
Answer: c
ot
c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-
_N

d) Version Control and Access control to description.

TU

Answer: a Which of the following is a example of

Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
K

continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures

A

when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code

e/

c) Software design descriptions

Which of the following is not a change
m

d) All of the mentioned

management process?
/t.

a) Log the changes Answer: d

s:/

b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
tp

c) Review impact with stakeholders

d) None of the mentioned SCM controls only the products of the
ht

development process.
:-

Answer: d a) True
in

Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

Jo

Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
Change Control Board
Answer: a Change Control Baseline
Explanation: None. Cumulative Changes in Baseline
None of the mentioned

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Answer: a Software Configuration Management can

Explanation: None. be administered in several ways. These
include
What information is required to process a a) A single software configuration
change to a baseline? management team for the whole
a) Reasons for making the changes organization b) A separate configuration
b) A description of the proposed changes management team for each project
c) List of other items affected by the c) Software Configuration Management

um
changes d) All of the mentioned distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

nt
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to Answer: a

ua
description of the product, changes Explanation: None

_Q
require multiple reasons..
What combines procedures and tools to
.

ks
manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software

oo
TOPIC 4.9 SOFTWARE process?

_B
a) Change control
CONFIGURATION b) Version control
MANAGEMENT esCIs
ot
None of the mentioned
Which of the following categories is part of
_N

the output of software process? Answer: b

Explanation: Configuration management
TU

a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer allows a user to specify alternative
configurations of the software system through
K

programs
c) data the selection of appropriate versions.
A

d) all of the mentioned

e/

What complements the formal technical

m

Answer: d review by assessing a configuration object for

characteristics that are generally not
/t.

Explanation: None
considered during review?
s:/

Which is a software configuration a) Software configuration audit

tp

management concept that helps us to control b) Software configuration

ht

change without seriously impeding management c) Baseline

justifiable change? d) None of the mentioned
:-

a) Baselines b)
in

Source code c) Answer: a

Jo

Data model Explanation: None.

d) None of the mentioned
Which of the following is the process of
Answer: a assembling program components, data, and
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the libraries, and then compiling and linking
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a these to create an executable system?
software configuration item becomes a a) System building
baseline, change may be made quickly and b) Release management
informally.

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Change management Answer: b

Version management Explanation: None.
Answer: a .
Explanation: None.
Which of the following option is not tracked TOPIC 4.10 MANAGING
by configuration management tools? a) CONTRACTS - CONTRACT
Tracking of change proposals MANAGEMENT.

um
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to

nt
A voluntary arrangement between two or
customers

ua
more parties that is enforceable by law as a
d) None of the mentioned binding legal agreement is known as

_Q
Answer: d
job

ks
Explanation: All the options are tracked.
loan

oo
Which of the following is not a Software contract
Configuration Management Activity? mutual fund

_B
a) Configuration item identification Answer: c
b) Risk management
c) Release management
es
Explanation: A contract arises when the
ot
parties agree that there is an agreement.
d) Branch management
_N

Formation of a contract generally requires an

Answer: b offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual
TU

Explanation: Risk management is an entirely intent to be bound. Each party to a contract

must have capacity to enter the agreement.
different domain.
K

Minors, intoxicated persons, and those under a

A

The definition and use of configuration mental affliction may have insufficient
capacity to enter a contract. Some types of
e/

management standards is essential for

quality certification in contracts may require formalities, such as a
m

a) ISO 9000 memorialization in writing.

/t.

b) CMM c)
s:/

What is the type of mistake which occurs

CMMI
when only one party to a contract is mistaken
tp

d) All of the mentioned

as to the terms or subject-matter?
ht

Answer: d a) Mutual mistake b)

Unilateral mistake c)
:-

Explanation: It is defined in all the

Bilateral mistake d)
in

mentioned options.
Individual mistake
Jo

What involves preparing software for

external release and keeping track of the Answer: b
system versions that have been released for Explanation: The courts will uphold such a
customer use? contract unless it was determined that the non-
a) System building mistaken party was aware of the mistake and
b) Release management tried to take advantage of the mistake. It is
c) Change management also possible for a contract to be void if there
d) Version management was a mistake in the identity of the contracting
party. An example is in Lewis v.

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Avery where Lord Denning MR held that the Which tender allows anyone to submit a
contract can only be voided if the plaintiff can tender to supply the goods or services that are
show that, at the time of agreement, the required?
plaintiff believed the other party’s identity a) Framework tendering
was of vital importance. A mere mistaken b) Selective tendering
belief as to the credibility of the other party is c) Open tendering
not sufficient. d) Close tendering
_______________ contract is one that has Answer: c

um
automatic renewals until one party requests Explanation: On larger projects, there may
termination. then be a pre-qualification process that

nt
a) Uniform b) produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who

ua
Evergreen c) will be invited to prepare tenders his sort of

_Q
Moderate d) pre-qualification process is not the same as
On-demand selective tendering.

ks
Open tendering has been criticised for
Answer: b attracting tenders / expressions of interest

oo
Explanation: If these are left unattended, they from large numbers of suppliers, some of

_B
can have significant cost impacts with little whom may be entirely unsuitable for the
value. If these agreements won’t work for the contract and as a result it can waste a great
company, the clauses stating the contract es
deal of time, effort and money. However,
ot
automatically renews should be removed. If open tendering offers the greatest competition
the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out,
_N

and has the advantage of allowing new or

alerts can still be set in a contract management emerging suppliers to try to secure work.
TU

platform as a reminder.
6. involves the preparation of tenders
How are final contracts signed in modern based on a typical or notional bill of
K

business? quantities or schedule of works.

A

a) e-Signatures
e/

b) Document scanning Framework tendering

m

c) Thump impression Selective tendering

/t.

d) Shaking hands Negotiated tendering

s:/

Serial tendering
Answer: a
tp

Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e- Answer: d

ht

Signatures, have become crucial for Explanation: The rates submitted can then be
businesses as they seek to increase the speed used to value works over a series of similar
:-

of time to signature, e-Signatures are legally projects, often for a fixed period of time
in

binding and have the same legal status as a following which the tendering procedure may
Jo

written signature, as long as it fulfills the be repeated. Serial tendering can reduce
requirements of the regulation it was created tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to
under. submit low rates to secure an ongoing
A contract management platform should program of work.
include the ability to integrate with an e-
Signature software, or include e-Signatures as _______________ tendering is used when
part of the platform. all the information necessary to calculate a
realistic price is available when tendering
commences.

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Single-stage The form of contract.

Double-stage A tender pricing document.
Framework A drawing schedule.
Serial Design drawings.
Specifications.
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-stage tendering is the Mutual mistake occurs when both parties
more traditional route, used when all the of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.
information necessary to calculate a realistic a) False

um
price is available when tendering commences: b) True
An invitation to tender is issued to

nt
prospective suppliers (perhaps following Answer: b

ua
completion of a pre-qualification Explanation: Each believes they are

_Q
questionnaire and/or a pre-tender contracting to something different. Courts
interview). The invitation to tender will usually try to uphold such mistakes if a

ks
include information describing the goods or reasonable interpretation of the terms can be
services required in sufficient detail to found. However, a contract based on a

oo
enable prospective suppliers to prepare an mutual mistake in judgment does not cause

_B
accurate tender. the contract to be voidable by the party that is
Tenders are prepared and returned by adversely affected.
prospective suppliers (this may involve es
10. In chedule contract the contractor
ot
questions and answers and a mid-tender
interview to clarify the client’s requirements). undertakes the execution or construction of
_N

Submitted tenders are then assessed and specific work with all its contingencies, to
complete it in all respect within a specified
TU

compared (this may involve further

interviews). time for a fixed amount.
The preferred tenderer is selected and False
K

negotiations opened. True

A

Subject to the outcome of those negotiations

e/

Answer: a
the preferred tenderer may then be appointed.
m

Explanation: In lump sum contract the

/t.

An invitation to tender might not include? contractor undertakes the execution or

a) Holiday packages construction of specific work with all its
s:/

b) Preliminarie contingencies, to complete it in all respect

tp

c) A letter of invitation to tender within a specified time for a fixed amount. In

ht

d) Design drawing this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a

specified lump sum after the completion of
:-

Answer: a work without a cost breakdown. After work

in

Explanation: An invitation to tender might no detailed measurements are required.

Jo

be issued for a range of contracts,

including; equipment supply, the main
construction contract (perhaps including
design by the contractor), demolition,
enabling works and so on. UNIT V STAFFING IN
An invitation to tender might include:
A letter of invitation to tender.
SOFTWARE PROJECTS
The form of tender.
Preliminaries. TOPIC 5.1 MANAGING PEOPLE

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Project management involves the planning, Answer: d

monitoring, and control of the people, Explanation: The design part of any project
process, and events that occur as software management is done by the project team.
evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation. A software ________ provides the
a) True framework from which a comprehensive plan
b) False for software development can be established.
a) people
Answer: a b) product

um
Explanation: None. c) process
d) none of the mentioned

nt
Which of the following is not an effective

ua
software project management focus? Answer: c

_Q
a) people b) Explanation: A small number of
product c) framework activities are applicable to all

ks
popularity software projects, regardless of their size or
d) process complexity.

oo
_B
Answer: c Who defines the business issues that often
Explanation: Effective software project have significant influence on the project? a)
management focuses on the four P’s: es
Practitioners
ot
people, product, process, and project. b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
_N

3. PM-CMM stands for d) None of the mentioned

people management capability maturity
TU

model Answer: c
process management capability maturity Explanation: None.
K

model
A

product management capability maturity Who delivers the technical skills that are
e/

model necessary to engineer a product or an

m

project management capability maturity application?

a) Practitioners
/t.

model
b) Project managers
s:/

Answer: a c) Senior managers

tp

Explanation: The people management d) None of the mentioned

maturity model defines the following key
ht

practice areas for software people: recruiting, Answer: a

:-

selection, performance management, training, Explanation: None.

in

compensation, career development,

Which of the following paradigm attempts to
Jo

organization and work design, and

team/culture development. structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the
Which of the following is not a project closed paradigm but also much of the
manager’s activity? innovation that occurs when using the random
a) project control paradigm?
b) project management a) asynchronous paradigm
c) project planning d) b) open paradigm
project design

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closed paradigm None

synchronous paradigm
Answer: b TOPIC 5.3 BEST METHODS OF
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures STAFF SELECTION
are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently TOPIC 5.4 MOTIVATION
as other teams.

um
Which of the following is a people- Interviews are conversations with a)
intensive activity? fun

nt
a) Problem solving b) purpose

ua
b) Organization c) c) friendliness

_Q
Motivation d) informality
d) Project management

ks
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: The correct statement is:

oo
Explanation: For this reason, competent Interviews are conversations with purpose.

_B
practitioners often make poor team leaders. For the employer the purpose is to determine
the most suitable person for the job.
Which paradigm structures a team loosely
and depends on individual initiative of the
es
A job interview is a formal meeting
ot
team members? between a job seeker and an employer.
_N

a) random paradigm a) True

b) open paradigm c) b) False
TU

closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm Answer: a
K

Explanation: The statement is true. Interview

A

Answer: d is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job

e/

Explanation: None. interview is a formal meeting between a job

m

seeker and an employer.

Which of the following is not an approach to
/t.

software cost estimation? All job interviews have the same objective. a)
s:/

a) Empirical True
tp

b) Heuristic b) False
c) Analytical
ht

d) Critical Answer: a
:-

Explanation: The statement is true. All job

in

Answer: d interviews have the same objective, but

xplanation: Critical is no such standard
Jo

employers reach that objective in a variety of

approach of cost estimation. ways.
. Which of these is not a type of interview? a)
Screening interview
TOPIC 5.2 ORGANIZATIONAL b) Stress interview
c) Music interview
BEHAVIOR d) Lunch interview

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Answer: c Which of these interviews is adapted for

Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: computer programmers?
They are Screening interview, stress interview, a) The stress interview b)
behavioural interview, the audition, group The group interview c)
interview, telephone, lunch interview, video The screening interview
interview and sequential interview. d) The audition
Which kind of interview includes a process Answer: d
in which the employability of the job Explanation: For some positions such as

um
applicant is evaluated? computer programmers or trainers, companies
a) Stress interview

nt
want to see you in action before they make
b) Screening interview their decision. Here, the audition type is

ua
c) Group interview adapted.

_Q
d) Behavioural interview
In which of these, more than one candidate is

ks
Answer: b interviewed?
Explanation: In the screening interview, a) The behavioural interview

oo
companies use screening tools to ensure b) The stress interview

_B
that candidates meet minimum qualification c) The group interview
requirements. d) The audition

How many styles are used in a screening

es
Answer: c
ot
interview? Explanation: In group interview, more than
_N

a) Two one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing

b) Five simultaneously with other candidates can be
TU

c) Three disconcerting, but it provides the company

d) Four with a sense of your leadership potential
K

and style.
A

Answer: a
e/

Explanation: There are two styles used in a Which of these interviews is taken for a
m

screening interview. They are: the directive candidate far away?

/t.

style and the meandering style a) Lunch interview

b) Telephone
s:/

In which of these interviews, insults are c) Stress interview

tp

common? d) Group interview

a) Screening interview
ht

b) Stress interview Answer: b

:-

c) Behavioural interview Explanation: Many organizations will

in

d) Group interview conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a

Jo

field of candidates. Telephone interviews

Answer: b may also be used as a preliminary interview
xplanation: In stress interview, insults for candidates who live far away.
and miscommunication is common. All this
is designed to see whether you have the TOPIC 5.5 THE OLDHAM-
mettle to withstand the company culture or
other potential stress. HACKMAN JOB
CHARACTERISTIC MODEL

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https://study.com/academy/practice/quiz- Factor of safety is used to find out the

worksheet-hackman-oldham-s-job- reliability of the design.
characteristics-model.html a) True
b) False
TOPIC 5.6 STRESS , Answer: a
HEALTH AND SAFETY Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about
how much load the material can take before it

um
Which of the following is the numerator of fails. Basically, it states the load carrying
factor safety formula? capacity of a material beyond the actual load.

nt
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress c) What can understand by the factor of safety

ua
Tensile stress d) equal to one?

_Q
Ultimate stress a) It means that the structure will fail under
load

ks
Answer: d b) It means that the structure will only
support the actual load

oo
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as
ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. c) it means that the structure will support

_B
It is also called as factor of ignorance. The more than the actual load
factor of safety is dependent on the type of d) There is no relation between factor
load. es
safety and load application
ot
Which of the following can be the factor of Answer: b
_N

safety for a dead load? Explanation: When the factor of safety is one
it means that the ultimate stress is equal to the
TU

a) 6
b) 2 working stress and therefore the body can
only support load up to actual load and no
K

c) 4
d) 7 more before failing.
A
e/

Answer: c For which of the following design factor of

m

Explanation: For dead load, the range in safety the design will work properly?
/t.

which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5. a) 0.1

Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 b) 1
s:/

are all values which are beyond that range. c) 2

tp

d) 0.9
ht

Which of the following can be the factor of

safety for shock loading? Answer: c
:-

a) 11 Explanation: If the design factor of safety is

in

b) 13 not more than 1 then the design may not work

Jo

c) 4 and will fail under certain conditions.

d) 7
What is a safe factor of failure for a
Answer: b component which on failure can result in
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in financial loss or serious injury?
which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15. a) 1
Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, b) 2
7 are all values which are beyond that range. c) 3
d) 4

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Answer: d Dissemination of viruses or other malware

Explanation: For components which on All of the mentioned
failing can be hazardous and can lead to
serious injuries, death and financial loss, the Answer: d
factor of safety should be taken equal to or Explanation: None.
more than 4.
Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with
Design factor for most aircraft structures is reference to one of the eight principles as per
the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?

um
a) True a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their

nt
b) False
products and related modifications meet the

ua
Answer: b highest professional standards possible

_Q
Explanation: The design factor of safety for c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
most aircraft structures or components is products and related modifications satisfy

ks
taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors the client
affect this value, but it is most of the time d) It means that the product designed /created

oo
taken as 1.5. should be easily available

_B
Answer: b
TOPIC 5.7 ETHICAL AND
PROFESSIONAL CONCERNS OF
es
Explanation: None.
ot
WORKING IN TEAMS Identify an ethical dilemma from the
_N

situations mentioned below:

a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
TU

Choose the correct option in terms of

system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional
system
K

responsibility a) Confidentiality
b) Refusing to undertake a project
A

b) Intellectual property rights

c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual
e/

senior management
property rights
m

d) All of the mentioned

d) Managing Client Relationships
/t.

Answer: a
s:/

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
tp

respect the confidentiality of their employers Identify the correct statement: “Software
ht

or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

formal confidentiality agreement has been
:-

a) act in a manner that is in the best

signed.
in

interests of his expertise and favour.”

They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
Jo

the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”
“Software engineers should not use their d) all of the mentioned
technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a
a) Unauthorized access to computer manner that is in the best interests of their
material b) Unauthorized modification of client and employer consistent with the public
computer material

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interest and shall ensure that their products The reason for software bugs and failures is
and related modifications meet the highest due to
professional standards possible.Thus options a) Software companies
a & c are ruled out. b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and
Select the incorrect statement: “Software Developers d) All of the mentioned
engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside Answer: c
your competence.” Explanation: Software companies are

um
b) not use your technical skills to misuse responsible for making policies and providing
other people’s computers.” working atmosphere for the software

nt
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” development, so in turn these companies

ua
d) maintain integrity and independence become a part of software development

_Q
in their professional judgment.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
thing. Thus option c answers the question.

ks
Answer: c
Explanation:None. Company has latest computers and state-of

oo
the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry

_B
Efficiency in a software product does not about the quality of the product.
include ________ a) True
a) responsiveness es
b) False
ot
b) licensing
c) memory utilization Answer: b
_N

d) processing time Explanation: The infrastructure is only

one of the several factors that determine
TU

Answer: b the quality of the product.

Explanation: Licensing of a software product
K

comes under corporate part of the software .

A

company.
e/

As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get TOPIC 5.8 DECISION MAKING
m

cancelled before they are completed, 53%

/t.

overrun their cost estimates by an average of Software Maintenance includes

s:/

189% and for every 00 projects, there are 94 a) Error corrections

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics
tp

b) Enhancements of capabilities c)
? Deletion of obsolete capabilities
ht

Lack of adequate training in software d) All of the mentioned

:-

engineering
in

Lack of software ethics and understanding Answer: d

Jo

Management issues in the company Explanation: None.

All of the mentioned
Maintenance is classified into how many
Answer: a categories ?
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of a) two
Software Engineering as a subject,hence b) three
option a covers them both. c) four
d) five

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Answer: c Selective retest techniques may be more

Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective economical than the “retest-
and preventive are the four types of software all”technique.How many selective retest
maintenance. techniques are there?
a) two
The modification of the software to match b) three
changes in the ever changing environment, c) four
falls under which category of software d) five
maintenance?

um
a) Corrective Answer: b
b) Adaptive Explanation: The three categories include:

nt
c) Perfective Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.

ua
d) Preventive

_Q
Which selective retest technique selects
Answer: b every test case that causes a modified

ks
Explanation: None. program to produce a different output than its
original version?

oo
How many phases are there in Taute a) Coverage

_B
Maintenance Model? b) Minimization
a) six b) afe
seven c) es
Maximization
ot
eight d)
nine Answer: c
_N

Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus

Answer: c on coverage criteria, instead they select every
TU

Explanation: None. test case that cause a modified program to

produce different output than its original
K

What type of software testing is generally version.

A

used in Software Maintenance?

e/

a) Regression Testing 9. measures the ability of a regression test

m

b) System Testing c) selection technique to handle realistic

Integration Testing d) applications.
/t.

Unit Testing Efficiency

s:/

Precision
Answer: a
tp

Generality
Explanation: All other options are known as
ht

Inclusiveness
levels of software testing which further have
:-

types of software testing. Answer: c

in

Explanation: Generality measures the ability

Regression testing is a very expensive
Jo

of a technique to handle realistic and diverse

activity. language constructs, arbitrarily complex
a) True modifications, and realistic testing
b) False applications.
Answer: a Which regression test selection technique
Explanation: As regression testing is exposes faults caused by modifications?
performed many times over the life of the a) Efficiency
software product, it becomes a costly affair. b) Precision

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Generality An implementation exhibits an architecture if

Inclusiveness it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the
Answer: d implementation must be divided into
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the prescribed components
extent to which a technique chooses test cases None of the mentioned
that will cause the modified program to
produce different output than the original Answer: c
Explanation: An implementation exhibits an

um
program, and thereby expose faults caused by
modifications. architecture if it conforms to the structural

nt
decisions described by the architecture, the
. implementation must be divided into

ua
prescribed components.

_Q
TOPIC 5.9 ORGANIZATIONAL
Why does architecture dictates
STRUCTURES

ks
organizational structure?
a) Architecture describes the structure of the

oo
Why is Software architecture so important? system being developed which becomes

_B
a) Communication among stakeholders engraved in the development project structure
b) Early Design decisions b) An implementation exhibits an architecture
c) Transferable abstraction of a es
if it conforms to the structural decisions
ot
system d) All of the mentioned described by the architecture
c) Architecture may not describe structure
_N

Answer: d as whole
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to d) None of the mentioned
TU

be important are all the mentioned above.

Answer: a
K

Why is software architecture called vehicle Explanation: Architecture describes the

A

for stakeholder communication? structure of the system being developed

e/

a) Each stakeholder of a software system is which becomes engraved in the

m

concerned with different characteristics of development project structure.

/t.

the system affected by architecture

b) Architecture provides a common language Which of the following is right dependence
s:/

in which different concerns can be expressed relationship?

tp

c) All of the mentioned a) Performance depends on how strongly

ht

d) None of the mentioned components are coupled with other

components in system
:-

Answer: d b) Re-usability depends on the volume and

in

Explanation: All of the mentioned are complexity of the inter-component

Jo

correct. communication and coordination

c) Modifiability depends on
Which lines depict that architecture defines system’s modularization
constraints on an implementation? d) All of the mentioned
a) An implementation exhibits an
architecture if it conforms to the structural Answer: c
decisions described by the architecture Explanation: Performance depends on the
b) The implementation need not be volume and complexity of the inter-component
divided into prescribed components communication and coordination,

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re-usability depends on how strongly Which change is accomplished by

components are coupled with other modifying a single component?
components in system and modifiability a) A local change
depends on system’s modularization. b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change
Which of the following is correct for d) All of the mentioned
decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from Answer: a
high level design to coding, Explanation: A local change is accomplished

um
implementation affect system quality by modifying a single component.
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from

nt
high level design to coding, implementation An architecture help in evolutionary

ua
may or may not affect system quality prototyping in which of the following ways?

_Q
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from a) Potential performance problem can be
high level design to coding,implementation identified early in the product’s life cycle b)

ks
does not affect system quality The system is executable early in the
d) None of the mentioned product’s life cycle

oo
c) All of the mentioned d)

_B
Answer: a None of the mentioned
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like
cycle from high level design to coding, es
Answer: c
ot
implementation affect system quality. Explanation: All the mentioned are the
valid ways.
_N

Is it possible to make quality predictions

about a system based solely on evaluation Which of the following are software
TU

of its architecture? structures?

a) Yes a) Module Structure
K

b) No b) Conceptual or logical
A

c) May be structure c) Process structure

e/

d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned

m

Answer: a Answer: d
/t.

Explanation: Yes it is possible to make Explanation: All of the mentioned are

s:/

quality predictions about a system based the valid structures.

tp

solely on evaluation of its architecture.

Which structure describes units as
ht

Every possible architecture partition abstraction of system’s functional

:-

possible changes into which of the requirements?

in

following categories? a) Conceptual structure

Jo

a) Local b) Module structure c)

b) Non Local Physical structure d)
c) Architectural Calls structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes
Explanation: All of the mentioned are true. units as abstraction of system’s functional
requirements.

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Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the as-you-go usage model allows for costs to
module and conceptual view? be applied to individual accounts directly.
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure 2. Point out the correct statement.
c) Uses Structure d) Except for tightly managed SaaS cloud
Data flow providers, the burden of resource
management is still in the hands of the user
Answer: b Cloud computing vendors run very reliable
Explanation: Process Structure-view is networks

um
orthogonal to the module and conceptual The low barrier to entry cannot be
accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning

nt
view.
All of the mentioned

ua
Which structure’s view shows the

_Q
mapping of software onto hardware? Answer: b
a) Module Structure Explanation: Often, cloud data is load-

ks
b) Process Structure balanced between virtual systems and
c) Physical Structure replicated between sites.

oo
d) Class Structure

_B
captive requires that the cloud
Answer: c accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows es
a) Licensed
ot
the mapping of software onto hardware. b) Policy-based
c) Variable
_N

Which structure describes units are d) All of the mentioned

programs or module?
TU

a) Calls Structure Answer: b

b) Uses Structure Explanation: Compliance with laws and
K

c) Data Flow policies varies by geographical area.

A

d) Control Flow
e/

Security methods such as private

m

Answer: d encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes

Explanation: Control Flow-structure under subject area.
/t.

describes units are programs or module. Accounting Management

s:/

Compliance
tp

TOPIC 5. 0 DISPERSED AND Data Privacy

All of the mentioned
ht

VI TUAL TEAMS
:-

Answer: c
in

Which of the following subject area deals Explanation: To ensure data privacy in the
Jo

with pay as you-go usage model? cloud, additional security methods such as
a) Accounting Management private encryption, VLANs, firewalls, and
b) Compliance local storage of sensitive data are necessary.
c) Data Privacy
d) All of the mentioned 5. Point out the wrong statement.
Large cloud providers with geographically
Answer: a dispersed sites worldwide, therefore, achieve
Explanation: For cloud computing, the pay- reliability rates that are hard for private
systems to achieve

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Private data centers tend to be located in Cloud ________ are standardized in order to
places where the company or unit was appeal to the majority of its audience.
founded or acquired a) SVAs
A network backbone is a very low-capacity b) SLAs
network connection c) SALs
None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: On the Internet, an Internet Explanation: Custom SLAs that allow for

um
backbone consists of the high-capacity multiple data sources are difficult to obtain
routes and routers that are typically operated

nt
or enforce.
by an individual service provider such as a

ua
government or commercial entity. 10. is a function of the particular enterprise

_Q
and application in an on-premises
Which of the following captive area deals deployment.

ks
with monitoring? Vendor lock
a) Licensed Vendor lock-in

oo
b) Variable but under Vendor lock-ins

_B
control c) Low None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
es
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Vendor lock-in for a cloud
Explanation: For private systems, any computing solution in a PaaS model is very
_N

monitoring system the organization wishes high.

to deploy can be brought to bear.
TU

Network bottlenecks occur when PIC 5.11 COMMUNICATIONS

K

data sets must be transferred. GENRES

A

a) large
e/

b) small
TOPIC 5.12
m

c) big
COMMUNICATION PLANS
/t.

d) all of the mentioned

s:/

Answer: a Which of these is the external sounds

tp

Explanation: This is the case for staging, present in the channels of communication?
ht

The reputation for cloud computing a) Noise

b) Semantic problems
:-

services for the quality of those services is

c) Cultural barriers
in

shared by
d) Over communication
Jo

a) replicas
b) shards Answer: a
c) tenants Explanation: Noise is the external sounds
d) all of the mentioned present in the channels of communication,
Answer: c which results in the reduction of the audibility
Explanation: Clouds often have or omission of some words from the message.
higher reliability than private systems. Which of these should not be avoided for
effective communication?

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Noise the jungle of information whereas in

Planning under communication the sender is
Semantic problems blamed for sharing less information.
Wrong assumptions
Communication should serve as a conflict-
Answer: b reduction exercise.
Explanation: Lack of planning must be a) True
avoided for effects communication. There b) False
are innumerable examples of people who

um
would give an ill planned, long winding Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true

nt
lecture while a short presentation with tables
or graphs would be sufficient. Communication should serve as a conflict-

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reduction exercise. When people start

_Q
__________ are problems arising from competing for the fulfillment of their narrow
expression. interests communication suffers.

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a) Cultural barriers b)
Semantic problems c) means to impart understanding of the

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Wrong assumptions d) message.

_B
Selecting perception a) Encoding
b) Receiver
Answer: b es
c) Decoding
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Explanation: The correct statement is: d) Feedback
Semantic problems are problems arising from
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expression or transmission of meaning in Answer: c

communication. Explanation: The correct statement is:
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Decoding means to impart understanding of

Both encoding and decoding of message the message. Receiver has to identify the
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are influenced by our emotions. person, words symbols, etc..

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a) True
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b) False When is the communication process

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complete?
Answer: a a) When the sender transmits the
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Explanation: The statement is true. Both message b) When the message enters the
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encoding and decoding of message are channel c) When the message leaves the
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influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a channel d) When the receiver

very important role in our lives. understands the message.
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In which of these problems, is the actual Answer: d

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message lost in the abundance of Explanation: Communication is complete

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transmitted information? only when the receiver understands the

a) Selecting perception b) message. Many communication problems
Over communication c) arise because of misunderstandings.
Under communication d)
Filtering ______ is the first enemy of
communication.
Answer: b a) Noise
Explanation: In the case of over b) Clarity
communication, the actual message is lost in

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Politeness important. The sender of the message should

Completeness be careful to see that the receiver does not
have to go beyond the text of the message.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise Which of these is not a commandment of
is the first and foremost enemy of effective communication?
communication. Every possible effort must be a) Clarity in language
made to eliminate the element of noise that b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills

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distorts communication.
d) Adequate medium
Which of these must be avoided for

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effective communication? Answer: b

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a) Sharing of activity Explanation: In order to ensure an effective

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b) Listening communication one must take care of ten
c) Ambiguity commandments: Clarity in language, home

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d) Politeness communication skills, listen attentively, etc..

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Answer: c

_B
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided.
Clarity and crispness of the message is very
es
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A
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