IELTS PRACTICE TESTS

READING & WRITING

QUARTER II, 2021

(April – June)

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i | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 TABLE OF CONTENTS

PRACTICE TEST 1 .............................................................................. 1

PRACTICE TEST 2 .............................................................................. 9

PRACTICE TEST 3 ............................................................................. 17

PRACTICE TEST 4 ............................................................................. 25

ANSWER KEY ................................................................................ 36

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ii | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 1
READING
Reading Passage 1
SHEDDING LIGHT ON IT
There are three main types of light bulb for lighting a room: incandescent, fluorescent and, more
recently, the light emitting diode (LED) bulb. All three bulbs have their advantages and disadvantages
when it comes to purchase price, running costs and environmental impact.
The traditional incandescent bulb has been in use for more than 100 years. It is made by
suspending a fine coil of tungsten wire between two electrodes. When a current flows through the
wire it reaches a temperature of more than 2,000°C and glows white hot. The bulb is filled with
argon, an inert gas, to prevent the wire from evaporating. Traditional light bulbs are not very efficient,
converting less than 10% of the energy into light with the rest as heat, making them too hot to handle.
Most household light bulbs are rated at 40, 60 or 100 Watts.
Mass production of fluorescent lights began in the 1940s. The standard size is 1.2 m in length
and 2.5 cm in diameter. The tube contains a small amount of mercury and the inside surface of the
glass has a phosphor coating. There are two electrodes, one at each end of the tube, but there is no
wire in between. Instead, mercury atoms absorb the electrical energy and emit ultraviolet (UV); this
light is invisible until it hits the phosphor coating on the glass, which emits a visible white light.
Fluorescent lights are about five times more efficient than incandescent light bulbs. A 20 Watt
fluorescent tube will produce a similar amount of light to a 100 Watt bulb and runs much cooler,
which helps to give it 10 times the life expectancy of a bulb.
The bright light produced by standard fluorescent lights makes them an ideal choice for offices
and factories, rather than homes, where the incandescent bulb has traditionally reigned supreme.
However, the newer compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) look likely to make the old bulbs extinct. Global
warming is the main reason. Compared with an incandescent bulb, a single energy-saving fluorescent
lamp will save about one tonne of carbon-dioxide emissions over its lifetime, as well as reduce the
consumer's electricity costs.
Not everybody likes the new CFLs, which have the following disadvantages: they are ten times
the price of the traditional bulbs; flickering can occur with dimmer switches; they need to warm up to
give full brightness; and they emit a bluish, less natural light that can strain the eye. Traditional bulbs
are safer to dispose of because they are free from mercury, which is a neurotoxin. The mercury is safe
inside a sealed CFL but it is released into the atmosphere if the bulb is broken. Mercury can
accumulate in the body to attack the brain and central nervous system.
The reduced carbon footprint of CFLs in comparison with traditional bulbs may have been
overstated. Whilst it is true that traditional bulbs convert 90% of the electricity into heat instead of light,
this heat is not wasted. The bulb helps to keep the house warm so less fuel is burnt; for example, less
gas or oil. If you change all your bulbs to CFLs it could prove very expensive in the short term and
save less energy than you might imagine if your home is properly insulated or you live in a cold
climate. If you live in a warm climate, then changing to CFLs will reduce your carbon footprint and
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1 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
the cost of your electricity bills, but the savings will be less than you might expect if the daylight hours
are long and the nights are short.
CFLs are themselves under threat from the latest generation of light emitting diodes (LEDs). The
LED has been in existence since the 1920s but they have only recently been made bright enough for
room lighting. The most common applications to date have been traffic lights, solar garden lights and
car brake lights; infrared LEDs are used in television remote controls. LEDs are electronic components
that emit photons of light when the current is switched on. Lights for the home are made by clustering
several LEDs into a single bulb.
Though more expensive than CFLs, LEDs last up to six times longer and are twice as efficient,
producing the same amount of light from half the electrical power (half the carbon emissions). Other
advantages of LED lighting include: an 'instant on', meaning that there is no warm-up time; no
problems with frequent on/off switching, which shortens the life of fluorescent lights; no glass to break
because the LED is made from a hard transparent plastic; and they are free from toxic mercury.

Questions 1 to 7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
1 Incandescent bulbs convert more energy to heat than light.
2 Ultraviolet light (UV) can be seen with the naked eye.
3 Compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) last about 10 years.
4 Fluorescent tubes are the best lights for workplaces.
5 Incandescent bulbs contain mercury.
6 Fluorescent light can cause headaches and migraines.
7 Traditional bulbs may waste less energy than they appear to.
Questions 8 to 13
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Switching to CFLs may not be such a bright idea
Whilst it is true that compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) have a smaller 8 .................... than
incandescent lighting, bulbs help to 9 .................... . the house, reducing the amount of gas or oil
burnt. Consequently, the savings are less than expected in well 10 ..............................................
houses and in 11 .................... regions. Fluorescent bulbs contain 12 ...................., which is
hazardous to health. The new light emitting diode (LED) bulbs carry no such risk and though expensive,
they are more 13 .................... than CFLs.

Reading Passage 2
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2 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 TAKING SOUNDINGS
A Until recently it was thought that dolphins, porpoises and bats were the only mammals to use
echolocation to locate prey and to navigate their environment. New research suggests that 'great
whales', like the blue whale and the humpback whale, might be able to 'see' in a similar way.
Underwater sound recordings of humpback whales have captured sonar clicks similar to those
made by dolphins.
B The ability of 'great whales' to use sound to communicate has been known for decades. In deep
water, where light cannot penetrate, whales use sound like we use our eyes. Low frequency
vocalizations, in the form of grunts and moans are inaudible to the human ear, but form a pattern
or song that enables whales to recognize their own species. Blue whales are the loudest animals
on earth and their sounds can travel for hundreds of kilometres. Highly sensitive hearing allows
whales to avoid shipping and to orientate themselves to the land by listening to waves crashing
on the shore. Whales might also use sound to detect the seabed or polar ice packs by listening
to the echoes of their own whale song. Man-made ocean sound, or 'noise pollution', can drown
out whale calls. Increasing amounts of background noise from motorized shipping and from oil
and gas drilling is making it difficult for whales to communicate and navigate via sound.
C Echolocation, also called bisonar, is a different form of sensory perception. A dolphin, for
example, sends out a series of short clicks and waits for an echo to be reflected back from the
obstacle or prey. Both the size and distance of an object can be determined from the echo. The
clicks, known as ultrasound, consist of high-pitch (frequency) sound waves, well above the range
of the human ear, and distinct from the low-pitched whale song. Whilst there is evidence
supporting the use of ultrasound by whales, it has not been shown that they can use echolocation.
Instead, the clicks might serve to scare and control shoals of small fish on which some whales
prey.
D A major concern of environmentalists is that high-power military sonar might dis-orientate or harm
whales, and that it is responsible for the mass strandings seen on beaches. However, whales
were beaching themselves before the invention of sonar and evidence from fossils indicates that
stranding goes back thousands of years. Today though, stranding occurs more frequently in
waters where navy training exercises take place. The impact of man-made sonar on the stranding
of whales and dolphins can no longer be ignored. Following pressure from environmentalists, US
law requires that the navy take steps to minimize the effects of sonar on mammals wherever
possible. Most of these precautions are common sense and include avoid-ing whale migration
routes when whales are present, not operating the sonar when dolphins are riding a bow wave,
and checking to see if a stranding has taken place after sonar has been deployed.
E The phenomenon of stranding is not well understood but it can occur for entirely natural reasons.
One explanation involves the ability of whales, like many animals, to use the earth's magnetic
field for direction finding. Ocean currents are thought to cause fluctuations in the earth's magnetic
field, which may leave whales vulnerable to navigation errors when they migrate to their breeding
grounds. Other reasons for stranding include straying into shallow coastal water when following
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3 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 prey, or when attempting to escape predators such as killer whales. Sea currents, winds and
storms are all known to play their part. When a single whale is found dead on a beach it might
have died from natural causes out at sea and been washed up on shore. It is apparent that
multiple deaths at sea cannot produce a 'mass stranding' on a single beach because the carcases
would have washed up along different parts of the shoreline. In these circumstances there is
concern that the multiple deaths may be man-made, linked to marine pollution, over-fishing, which
deprives the whales of food, or entanglement with nets. However, a mass stranding of whales
on a single beach, like those shown on television, can also arise naturally. Whales are social
animals that swim in groups known as 'pods'. Some scientists have speculated that if a sick or
injured whale takes refuge in shallower water the rest of the pod might follow on to become
trapped when the tide goes out.
Questions 14 to 18
Reading Passage 2 has five paragraphs A to E.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write A, B, C, D or E. You may use any letter more than once.
14. an example of sound being used other than for navigation and location of prey
15. examples of mammals other than whales and dolphins that use echolocation
16. how man's behaviour has increased the number of whales being stranded
17. an example of whales living in a community
18. why people cannot hear whale song.
Questions 19 to 22
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The harmful effects of high-power sonar on whales are a 19 ……………… . It is recognized that the
nay, pose a threat to whales during 20 ……………… when the number of beachings have been
observed to increase. The impact of sonar on mammals can be lessened by taking a number of 21
……………… steps. For example, it is clear that ships with sonar equipment should keep away from
whale 22 ……………… .
Questions 23 to 26
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONLY ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.
Several reasons, not linked with human activities, have been proposed to explain why whales beach
themselves. Changes in the earth's magnetic compass can lead to mistakes in 23 .................... .
Alternatively, whales might stray into shallow water when pursued by 24 .................... or to chase
prey, and then become trapped by the tide. Whilst one whale on a beach might have died naturally
out at sea and been washed ashore, a group of whales 25 .................... because their bodies
would appear on different stretches of sand. 'Mass stranding' appears to be linked to the
26 .................... nature of whales and their tendency to swim into shallow water as a group.

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4 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Reading Passage 3
OXBRIDGE
Although more than 100 km separates the English cities of Oxford and Cambridge, their
universities are linked by the term 'Oxbridge'. It is a name that can be applied to either university or
to both. Traditionally, a degree at Oxbridge symbolized the pinnacle of academic achievement.
Cities like Birmingham, Liverpool, Bristol and Manchester had their own universities, but these were
not as esteemed as Oxbridge and received the derogatory title of 'Red brick' universities. In recent
times, the name Oxbridge has also become a derogatory term. Some people believe that Oxbridge
is part of a social class system that favours the privileged few, born into wealth or high social status,
at the expense of the less well-off, socially disadvantaged, though equally talented students. Whilst
Oxford and Cambridge encourage applications from candidates living in deprived areas, only 1 in
100 of the poorest university students in England received an Oxbridge education in 2010, far lower
than the percentage of poorer students at the 'Red brick' universities.
It cannot be disputed that a disproportionate number of Oxbridge entrants went to a fee-paying
private school rather than to a free, state school. Nationally, only 1 in 15 pupils receive a private
education, but nearly half of the students at Oxbridge went to a private school. Fee-paying schools
have higher staff-to-pupil ratios, so their pupils receive more tuition and achieve higher grades than
pupils from state sector schools. It is surely no surprise that pupils with an education paid for by their
parents are about 20 times more likely to be offered a place at Oxbridge. There is no reason to
believe that the best pupils in the state sector are any less intelligent than those in the private sector.
Given the same educational opportunities and life circumstances, state sector pupils can achieve
equally high grades. The failure of the best pupils to achieve their potential can often be linked to a
difficult home life, lack of motivation or peer pressure from less academic pupils. The attainment gap
between university applicants from fee-paying and state schools is maintained when Oxbridge
graduates are rewarded with the best-paying jobs, affording them the opportunity to send their own
children to the best schools.
Looked at from the perspective of life chances, Oxbridge helps to maintain the 'social divide'
where the rich get richer and the poor remain poor. Some people would argue that this 'Oxbridge
advantage' is a symptom of social stratification rather than a cause of it. After all, parents cannot be
blamed for wanting the best education for their children and Oxbridge cannot be held responsible
for the failure of state schools to achieve the necessary grades. There is no evidence to suggest that
Oxbridge selects students on anything other than merit. Indeed, in some subjects the application
process includes admissions and aptitude tests that help to ensure a level playing field. Perhaps then,
the state sector needs to encourage and support more applications from their best pupils to the best
universities. Alternatively, the low aspiration of some pupils' parents may fail to drive gifted pupils
onwards and upwards, or it may be that some pupils from an ordinary background are not com-
fortable with the idea of attending Oxbridge. Students who do not feel that they will 'fit in' at Oxbridge
can still make the most of their talents by attending one of the country's many other excellent universities.

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5 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 Inequalities in our society do not begin and end with Oxbridge. The best state schools are usually
found in the most affluent areas. Injustices can arise when parents move house to secure a child's
place at a more desirable school and in doing so they force another child into an under-performing
school. Other, better-off parents, though not necessarily wealthy, will pay for their children to be
educated at a private school to avoid having to move home. Either way, the desire to furnish one's
children with the best possible education outweighs any sense of social justice. Unless remedies can
be found for the disparity in educational standards in the pre-university years, it is unrealistic to believe
that Oxbridge contributes in any substantial way to a lack of social mobility. A place at Oxbridge
should be seen as an opportunity for self-improvement and learning at the highest standards whatever
one's social background.
Questions 27 to 40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D for the questions based on Reading Passage 3.
27. In the past Oxbridge has been seen as
A. an education only for those who can afford to pay for it.
B. the best universities in the country.
C. an opportunity for learning and self-improvement.
D. a place that represents the highest educational standards.
28. Everybody agrees that
A. too many Oxbridge students have had a private education.
B. there are higher staff to student ratios at Oxbridge.
C. life at Oxbridge is for those with money and social status.
D. Oxbridge applicants are rewarded with the best degrees.
29. In the passage, there is an example of how Oxbridge
A. encourages applications from pupils living in deprived areas.
B. has made the application process fairer.
C. selects students based on their exam results.
D. maintains its advantage over other universities.
30. In the passage, a link is made between a degree at Oxbridge and
A. inequalities in state schools.
B. a pupil's aspiration.
C. a successful career.
D. under-performing schools.
Questions 31 to 36
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
31. The 'Oxbridge advantage' refers to better prospects in life.
32. Some Oxbridge candidates are offered a place whether they deserve it or not.
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33. A student from an ordinary background is unlikely to do well at Oxbridge.
34. A lack of applications from state schools is the only reason for the low number of state school
students at Oxbridge.
35. The author does not believe that Oxbridge is responsible for social inequalities.
36. There are few good schools in the state sector.
Questions 37 to 40
Complete the following summary using the list of words, A to K, below.
The best schools tend to be found in the most 37................................ areas. This leads to a lack
of 38 ................................ in the state school system. For example, some parents will move closer
to a better-performing state school, or failing this, pay for their children to be educated
39 ............................ Children from poorer families can lose out, but the desire for one's children
to do well at school is more 40 ....................... than any sense of social justice.
A deprived B valuable C quality D fairness E applicants F
advantaged G important H privately I prosperous J selectively K
preferentially

WRITING
Writing task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The graph shows the percentage of four different types of fuels in use between the years 1800 and
2000.
Summarize the information by describing the main features of the graph and making comparisons
where appropriate.
Write at least 150 words.
Fuel usage 1800 to 2000

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Writing task 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic.
Some people believe that electronic calculators should not be allowed in
school until after the pupils have mastered mental arithmetic. Others believe
that calculators save pupils time. especially with complicated calculations.
Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

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8 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 2
READING
Reading Passage 1
ROSETTA STONE
In 1799, a famous discovery was made in the small town of Rashid (known as Rosette by the
French), 65 km from the city of Alexandria in northern Egypt. Napoleon Bonaparte's army were
digging the foundations of a fort when they unearthed a large basalt slab, over 1.1 metres tall, 75
cm wide and 28 cm thick, weighing about 760 kg.
The 'Pierre de Rosette' (Rosetta Stone) dates back to 196 BC when the Macedonians ruled
Egypt. The stone is of great historical value because it is carved with the same text written in two
Ancient Egyptian scripts (hieroglyphics and Demotic) and in Greek. At the time of the discovery,
Egyptian hieroglyphic writing could not be understood, and by comparing the symbols with the Greek
text it was eventually deciphered. This allowed scholars to understand the meaning of Egyptian
hieroglyphs dating back almost 4,000 years.
Napoleon was defeated by the British navy in the battle of the Nile in 1798 and he left Egypt
two years later. The Rosetta Stone, together with other antiquities, was handed over to the British
under the terms of the Treaty of Alexandria in 1801. It went on display in the British Museum and to
this day remains one of the most popular exhibits. In 1802, Thomas Young, an English academic,
translated some of the words in the Demotic section of the stone. Despite this early success, he made
little headway with the hieroglyphic symbols, which proved baffling. The problem remained largely
unsolved for a further 20 years until the French scholar, Jean-Francois Champollian, unlocked the
code. He realized that the symbols used a combination of alphabet letters and phonetic sounds to
convey the same meaning as the classical Greek writing. In 1828 he travelled to Egypt where he
was able to read hieroglyphs off temple walls, obelisks and other ancient artefacts to establish, for
the first time, the order of kings, when they ruled and how they lived. Champollian is acknowledged
as the father of modern Egyptology.
The Rosetta Stone has revealed its secrets. The hieroglyphs were written on the stone by Egyptian
priests to proclaim the greatness of their Pharaohs, in this case, 13-year-old King Ptolemy V, the fifth
ruler of the Ptolemaic dynasty, and son of Ptolemy IV. The stone was made on the first anniversary of
the boy king's coronation in 197 BC and takes the form of a decree. It affirms the rightful place of
Ptolemy V as the King of Egypt and instructs the priests to worship him and erect temples. The Demotic
language was used in daily life in Egypt, and the classical Greek by the ruling Ptolemies, so it made
sense to have these languages on the stone as well as the hieroglyphs so that the decree could be
understood by everyone. The stone is not unique in that similar stones would have been placed at
other Egyptian temples.
In recent times, Egypt's head of antiquities, Dr Zahi Hawass, has lobbied for the return of the
Rosetta Stone to Egypt, along with other prized antiquities like the 'Elgin Marbles' and the bust of
Queen Nefertiti. The repatriation of artefacts of cultural heritage is a controversial and emotive issue.
The problem is in deciding between what was taken on a fair basis and what was stolen. However,
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in 2002, 30 of the world's leading museums issued the joint declaration that 'objects acquired in
earlier times must be viewed in the light of different sensitivities and values reflective of that earlier
era'. Whilst this statement may suit the many museums that wish to conserve historically important
artefacts, some of the objects are held sacred by the peoples and nations from which they originate.
In the case of the Rosetta Stone, the British Museum donated a life-size replica of the stone to the town
of Rashid (Rosetta) in 2005 and a giant copy in France marks the birthplace of Jean-Francois
Champollian. Though not authentic items, these copies provide an opportunity for study and learning.
The British Museum will loan treasured artefacts to other museums around the world, though in doing
so it runs the risk of not getting them back.
Today the term 'Rosetta Stone' has been adopted by a language-learning company and is more
likely to be recognized in this context than as an important cultural artefact. The term is also used as
a metaphor for anything that is vital to unlocking a difficult problem, for example, DNA has become
the 'Rosetta Stone of life and death, health and disease', according to the Human Genome Project.
Nevertheless, it is the science of Egyptology that carries on the legacy of the Rosetta Stone.
Questions 1 to 8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
1. The Rosetta Stone was unearthed in the city of Alexandria.
2. There are three translations of the same passage on the Rosetta Stone.
3. Egyptian scholars wrote the passages almost 4,000 years ago.
4. Thomas Young translated the entire Demotic text.
5. The hieroglyphs were more difficult to translate than the Demotic text.
6. Demotic language used phonetic sounds.
7. Jean-Francois Champollian is the founder of the science of Egyptology.
8. The Rosetta Stone was the only stone of its type.
Questions 9 to 13
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A to J, below.
9. The head of Egypt's antiquities believes
10. The return of antiquities to their country of origin is a topic
11. In 2002, 30 museums stated
12. Where prized artefacts are concerned, there is a danger
13. Rosetta Stone is a name
A. that all hems of cultural heritage should be repatriated.
B. that the taking of antiquities cannot be judged by today's standards.
C. that is associated more with language training than with antiquities.
D. that was used by the French army.
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 E. that the country's treasured antiquities belong in Egypt.
F. that reflects the values of an earlier period.
G. that provokes debate and generates strong feelings.
H. that some of the objects are held sacred.
I. that borrowed hems will not be conserved and protected.
J. that borrowed items will be kept and not returned.

Reading Passage 2
TICKLED PINK
In 1973, the Australian fruit breeder John Cripps created a new variety of apple tree by
crossing a red Australian Lady Williams variety with a pale-green American Golden Delicious. The
offspring first fruited in 1979 and combined the best features of its parents in an apple that had an
attractive pink hue on a yellow undertone. The new, improved apple was named the Cripps Pink
after its inventor.
Today the Cripps Pink is one of the most popular varieties of apple and is grown extensively in
Australia, New Zealand, Canada, France and in California and Washington in the USA. By
switching from northern hemisphere fruit to southern hemisphere fruit the apple is available at its
seasonal best all year round. The highest-quality apples are marketed worldwide under the trademark
Pink Lady'. To preserve the premium price and appeal of the Pink Lady, apples that fail to meet the
highest standards are sold under the name Cripps Pink". These standards are based on colour and
flavour, in particular, the extent of the pink coverage and the sugar/acid balance. Consumers who
buy a Pink Lady apple are ensured a product that is of consistently high quality.
To earn the name Pink Lady the skin of a Cripps Pink apple must be at least 40% pink. Strong
sunlight increases the pink coloration and it may be necessary to remove the uppermost leaves of a
tree to let the light through. The extra work required to cultivate Cripps Pink trees is offset by its
advantages, which include: vigorous trees; fruit that has tolerance to sunburn; a thin skin that does
not crack; flesh that is resistant to browning after being cut and exposed to air; a cold-storage life of
up to six months and a retail shelf-life of about four weeks. However, the main advantage for apple
growers is the premium price that the Pink Lady brand is able to command.
The Cripps Red variety, also known as Cripps II, is related to the Pink Lady and was developed
at the same time. The premium grade is marketed as the Sun-downer". Unlike the genuinely pink Pink
Lady, the Sundowner" is a classic bi-coloured apple, with a skin that is 45% red from Lady Williams
and 55% green from Golden Delicious. Apples that fall outside of this colour ratio are rejected at the
packing station and used for juice, whilst the smaller apples are retained for the home market. The
Sundowner is harvested after Cripps Pink in late May or early June, and a few weeks before Lady
Williams. It has better cold-storage properties than Cripps Pink and it retains an excellent shelf life.
Cripps Red apples have a coarser texture than Cripps Pink, are less sweet and have a stronger flavour.
Both apples are sweeter than Lady Williams but neither is as sweet as Golden Delicious.

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 The advantage of the Pink Lady brand is that it is a trademark of a premium product, not just a
Cripps Pink apple. This means that new and improved strains of the Cripps Pink can use the Pink Lady
brand name as long as they meet the minimum quality requirement of being 40% pink. Three such
strains are the Rosy Glow, The Ruby Pink and the Lady in Red. The Rosy Glow apple was discovered
in an orchard of Cripps Pink trees that had been planted in South Australia in 1996. One limb of a
Cripps Pink tree had red-coloured apples while the rest of the limbs bore mostly green fruit. A bud
was taken from the mutated branch and grafted onto rootstock to produce the new variety. The fruit
from the new Rosy Glow tree was the same colour over the entire tree and a patent for this unique
apple was granted in 2003. The Rosy Glow apple benefits from a larger area of pink than the Pink
Lady and it ripens earlier in the season in climates that have less hours of sunshine. As a consequence,
the Cripps Pink is likely to be phased out in favour of the Rosy Glow, with the apples branded as Pink
Lady— if they have 40% or more pink coverage.
Ruby Pink and Lady in Red are two mutations of the Cripps Pink that were dis-covered in New
Zealand. Like the Rosy Glow, these improved varieties develop a larger area of pink than the Cripps
Pink, which allows more apples to meet the quality requirements of the Pink Lady- brand. Planting of
these trees may need to be controlled otherwise the supply of Pink Lady apples will exceed the
demand, to then threaten the price premium. Overproduction apart, the future of what has become
possibly the world's best-known modern apple and fruit brand, looks secure.

Questions 14 to 19
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
14. Pink Lady apples are the highest grade of Cripps Pink apples.
15. One advantage of Cripps Pink trees is that they grow well.
16. Cripps Pink trees produce an abundance of fruit.
17. Pink Lady apples are less expensive to buy than Cripps Pink apples.
18. Colour is an important factor in the selection of both of the premium grades of Cripps apples
referred to.
19. Lady Williams apples are sweeter than Golden Delicious.
Questions 20 to 24
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
New and Improved strains
A bud taken from a mutated branch on a Cripps Pink tree was grafted onto rootstock to produce the
new apple variety named 20 ................ . A feature of this improved apple is that it 21 ................
sooner than the Pink Lady with less sun. Another mutated strain is the 22 ................ tree from New
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12 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Zealand. The chief advantage of new and improved strains is that the apples develop more
23 .................so more can use the name 24 ................ .
Questions 25 to 27
Identify the following apples as being:
A. Pink Lady
B. Sundowner
C. Lady in Red
D. Lady Williams
25. The trademark of the highest-quality Cripps Red apple.
26. Not as sweet as either Cripps Red or Cripps Pink apples.
27. A mutation of a Cripps Pink tree.

Reading Passage 3
WILLPOWER
A Although willpower does not shape our decisions, it determines whether and how long we can
follow through on them. It almost single-handedly determines life outcomes. Interestingly, research
suggests the general population is indeed aware of how essential willpower is to their wellbeing;
survey participants routinely identify a ‘lack of willpower’ as the major impediment to making
beneficial life changes. There are, however, misunderstandings surrounding the nature of willpower
and how we can acquire more of it. There is a widespread misperception, for example, that increased
leisure time would lead to subsequent increases in willpower.
B Although the concept of willpower is often explained through single-word terms, such as ‘resolve’
or ‘drive’, it refers in fact to a variety of behaviours and situations. There is a common perception that
willpower entails resisting some kind of a ‘treat’, such as a sugary drink or a lazy morning in bed, in
favour of decisions that we know are better for us, such as drinking water or going to the gym. Of
course this is a familiar phenomenon for all. Yet willpower also involves elements such as overriding
negative thought processes, biting your tongue in social situations, or persevering through a difficult
activity. At the heart of any exercise of willpower, however, is the notion of ‘delayed gratification’,
which involves resisting immediate satisfaction for a course that will yield greater or more permanent
satisfaction in the long run.
C Scientists are making general investigations into why some individuals are better able than others
to delay gratification and thus employ their willpower, but the genetic or environmental origins of this
ability remain a mystery for now. Some groups who are particularly vulnerable to reduced willpower
capacity, such as those with addictive personalities, may claim a biological origin for their problems.
What is clear is that levels of willpower typically remain consistent over time (studies tracking

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13 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
individuals from early childhood to their adult years demonstrate a remarkable consistency in
willpower abilities). In the short term, however, our ability to draw on willpower can fluctuate
dramatically due to factors such as fatigue, diet and stress. Indeed, research by Matthew Gailliot
suggests that willpower, even in the absence of physical activity, both requires and drains blood
glucose levels, suggesting that willpower operates more or less like a ‘muscle’, and, like a muscle,
requires fuel for optimum functioning.
D These observations lead to an important question: if the strength of our willpower at the age of
thirty-five is somehow pegged to our ability at the age of four, are all efforts to improve our willpower
certain to prove futile? According to newer research, this is not necessarily the case. Gregory M.
Walton, for example, found that a single verbal cue – telling research participants how strenuous
mental tasks could ‘energise’ them for further challenging activities – made a profound difference in
terms of how much willpower participants could draw upon to complete the activity. Just as our
willpower is easily drained by negative influences, it appears that willpower can also be boosted by
other prompts, such as encouragement or optimistic self-talk.
E Strengthening willpower thus relies on a two-pronged approach: reducing negative influences
and improving positive ones. One of the most popular and effective methods simply involves avoiding
willpower depletion triggers, and is based on the old adage, ‘out of sight, out of mind’. In one study,
workers who kept a bowl of enticing candy on their desks were far more likely to indulge than those
who placed it in a desk drawer. It also appears that finding sources of motivation from within us may
be important. In another study, Mark Muraven found that those who felt compelled by an external
authority to exert self-control experienced far greater rates of willpower depletion than those who
identified their own reasons for taking a particular course of action. This idea that our mental
convictions can influence willpower was borne out by Veronika Job. Her research indicates that those
who think that willpower is a finite resource exhaust their supplies of this commodity long before those
who do not hold this opinion.
F Willpower is clearly fundamental to our ability to follow through on our decisions but, as
psychologist Roy Baumeister has discovered, a lack of willpower may not be the sole impediment
every time our good intentions fail to manifest themselves. A critical precursor, he suggests, is
motivation – if we are only mildly invested in the change we are trying to make, our efforts are bound
to fall short. This may be why so many of us abandon our New Year’s Resolutions – if these were
actions we really wanted to take, rather than things we felt we ought to be doing, we would probably
be doing them already. In addition, Muraven emphasises the value of monitoring progress towards
a desired result, such as by using a fitness journal, or keeping a record of savings toward a new
purchase. The importance of motivation and monitoring cannot be overstated. Indeed, it appears
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14 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
that, even when our willpower reserves are entirely depleted, motivation alone may be sufficient to
keep us on the course we originally chose.
Questions 27–33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading
Passage 3? In boxes 27–32 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
28. People with more free time typically have better willpower.
29. Willpower mostly applies to matters of diet and exercise.
30. The strongest indicator of willpower is the ability to choose long-term rather than short-term
rewards.
31. Researchers have studied the genetic basis of willpower.
32. Levels of willpower usually stay the same throughout our lives.
33. Regular physical exercise improves our willpower ability.
Questions 34 –39
Look at the following statements (Questions 37–40) and the list of researchers
below. Match each statement with the correct person, A–D.
Write the correct letter, A–D, in boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet.
You may use some letters more than once.
This researcher …
34. identified a key factor that is necessary for willpower to function.
35. suggested that willpower is affected by our beliefs.
36. examined how our body responds to the use of willpower.
37. discovered how important it is to make and track goals.
38. found that taking actions to please others decreases our willpower.
39. found that willpower can increase through simple positive thoughts.
List of People
A. Matthew Gailliot
B. Gregory M. Walton
C. Mark Muraven
D. Veronika Job
E. Roy Baumeister

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15 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Question 40
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in willpower?
Willpower is affected by:
A. physical factors such as tiredness
B. our fundamental ability to delay pleasure
C. the levels of certain chemicals in our brains
D. environmental cues such as the availability of a trigger

WRITING
Writing task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The pie charts below show the percentage of housing owned and rented in the UK in 1985 and
2005.
Summarize the information by describing the main features of the charts and making comparisons
where appropriate.
Write at least 150 words.
Housing owned and rented in the UK

Writing Task 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Some people believe that unemployed people should be made to work for
their welfare/benefit payments. Others, however, see this as cheap labour.

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16 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 Discuss the possible advantages and disadvantages of making unemployed
people take any job.
Do you believe that making unemployed people work is a goad idea?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant experience or knowledge.
Write at least 250 words.

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17 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 3
READING
Reading Passage 1
RECALLING IT
A Memory and recollection vary from person to person. Take three average citizens with a similar
degree of honesty and integrity and ask them to make a statement concerning a bank raid that they
all witnessed. Whilst the three statements will contain a fair degree of concurrence, there will also be
areas of dissimilarity. When a person observes an event, not only are cognitive (or thinking) powers
involved but also emotions are involved, especially when the incident observed is of an unpleasant
nature.
B In our primitive ancestors, emotional stress had a survival value. It prepared us to face or flee a
danger ('flight or fight' syndrome). Today's stressors are more likely to be perceived threats to an
individual's well-being and self-esteem rather than actual threats to survival. However, any stressful
situation, real or apparent, can trigger many of the same effects, for example, increased blood
pressure, heart rate and anxiety.
C 'Pre-exam nerves' is an anxiety state experienced by candidates prior to an examination. It is
perfectly natural to feel apprehensive about an important test. Negative thoughts disappear quickly
when the candidate makes a promising start. On the other hand, a poor start increases the stress felt
by the individual who can then experience a 'retrieval failure'. In this circumstance the information is
held in the memory but cannot be accessed. The knowledge has been forgotten temporarily to remain
on the 'tip-of the-tongue'. In intensely stressful situations, panic sets in and the relevant knowledge
becomes blocked out completely by thoughts of failure.
D The ability to cope with stress is influenced by personality (way of thinking and behaving) and
social circumstances, no what one person finds stressful another may find stimulating. Managing your
own stress depends in part upon becoming aware of what your own particular stressors are. You can
then confront each situation and try to change it and/or change your thoughts and emotional reactions
to the stressor, so as to lessen its impact. Emotional support from family, friends and work colleagues
leads to an improvement in coping with long-term stress. When confronted with a potentially stressful
examination, one solution is to sit back, take a few deep breaths and relax to steady the nerves.
Relaxation techniques will improve the memory but they cannot help a candidate to retrieve
knowledge that they have yet to acquire. In this respect, short-term memory improves if you repeat
new information to yourself several times, learning by rote.
E Clear and precise information is required when giving instructions. How often, in an unfamiliar
district, has the reader stopped a passing stranger for simple and clear directions? How often also
have the replies been unclear, rambling accompanied by wild gesticulations? The route may be clear
in the eye of the director but the message is lost if salient points are either omitted or out of sequence.
Accurate recall of past events is facilitated by note-taking and in particular by placing information
under the headings: who, what, where, when and how. When information is classified under these

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18 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
headings it acts as a cue that enables the reader to construct partial images of previous events or to
recall details that might otherwise be overlooked. It is important not to confuse facts with opinions and
to clearly preface opinions with 'I believe', 'I think', 'In my view' or similar words. Memories can be
triggered from several sources and it is useful to include both visual and verbal aids when revising for
an examination. Revision tools include spider diagrams that expand on a central idea, coloured
highlighting of related topics, flash cards with questions and answers, as well as mnemonic devices
(small rhymes), such as 'I before e except after c', that aid spelling, for example.
F Nerves play a big part in public speaking. Despite this, an impromptu speech can be delivered
effectively if the speaker is knowledgeable in the subject matter and sounds enthusiastic. Slide
presentations are a popular means of delivering a speech. Typically, a 15-minute talk can be linked
to a sequence of 30 slides, lasting 30 seconds on average. Each slide contains a few key elements
that serve to cue the memory towards the necessary detail. It is essential to make a solid start, in which
case it is advisable to memorize the opening lines of the speech by practising it out loud several times.
The slides should link naturally so that the talk never sounds stilted. It is not necessary to memorize the
speech word for word. All that is necessary is for the speaker to be familiar with the content of the
slide and to develop the speech from the key words. It is advisable to record the speech on a
dictaphone and then to play it back to check the continuity and duration.
Questions 1 to 5
Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A to F.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
1. How early man benefited from stress.
2. How a person can reduce the effects of stress.
3. How candidates fear examinations.
4. How a speaker can make a confident start.
5. How communication fails if important facts are out of order.
Questions 6 to 10
Do the 6 statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
6. Our primitive ancestors experienced higher levels of stress.
7. A 'retrieval failure' is a permanent loss of knowledge.
8. Learning by rote is memorizing by repetition.
9. Relaxation techniques can help a candidate to gain new knowledge.
10. Headings enable a complete image of an event to be recalled.
Questions 11 to 14
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D for the questions based on Reading Passage 1.
11. To recall past events from notes it is helpful
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19 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 A. to place important points in sequence.
B. to group information under headings.
C. to construct partial images.
D. to include a range of revision tools.
12. When revising for an examination it is helpful
A. to use a range of memory aids.
B. not to confuse facts with opinions.
C. to include a slide presentation.
D. to employ relaxation techniques.
13. A mnemonic is
A. a verbal revision aid.
B. an aural revision aid.
C. a visual revision aid.
D. a spelling revision aid.
14. A slide can help a speaker
A. to make a confident start.
B. to memorize a talk word for word.
C. to recall essential information.
D. to check the length of the speech.

Reading Passage 2
HOME-SCHOOLING
A Introduction
In developed countries, compulsory education is the norm for children aged from around 6 to 16.
Even so, in most cases this does not mean that the child has to attend a school. Increasing numbers
of parents are choosing to educate their children at home. In the UK it is estimated that up to 100,000
pupils are being taught in this way, which equates to about 1% of the UK school population. In the
USA, home education, or home schooling as it is known, has reached unprecedented levels with
approximately 2 million children, or 4% of the compulsory age group, now receiving tuition at home.
Parents cite various reasons for keeping their children away from school, ranging from a lack of
satisfaction with the school environment to a wish to provide their own religious instruction. Home-
schooling is a controversial issue surrounded by misgivings, with supporters emphasizing its benefits
and detractors pointing to its limitations and risks.
B The reasons why parents elect to educate their children at home are often linked to emotionally
charged issues rather than rational arguments that reflect the pros and cons of home-schooling.
Typically, a child is removed from a school following negative experiences, for example bullying, or
exposure to bad influences such as drugs, discrimination, bad language, or falling in with the wrong
crowd. Consequently, home-schooling is ardently defended by its proponents who are not necessarily
best placed to consider its downsides dispassionately. Whilst the popularity of home-education is on
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20 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
the increase, it remains an oddity, associated more with problems at school rather than a positive
decision to provide a real alternative.
C Whilst home-schooling of a child is unusual, learning from parents is not, so formal teaching at
home can be regarded as an extension of the parents' normal role. However, education in the home
environment can have its limitations; for example, when there are gaps in the parents' knowledge in
key subject areas such as fractions or algebra. Moreover, teaching is not merely the dispensing of
knowledge acquired, but rather a skill that has to be taught, practised and mastered. Parents are not
professional teachers and if the outcomes are poor then the parents can only blame themselves.
Home-schooling is both time-consuming and demanding. Parents can lose out financially and socially
when they are obliged to spend the entire day at home.
D Lack of socialization is perhaps the main criticism of home-schooling. When children are taken out
of school they cannot interact with other pupils or engage in school activities, including team sports.
Later, a young person may find it difficult to integrate in ordinary social settings or lack the coping
skills to deal with the demands of everyday life. Socialization outside of the home can negate some
of these short-comings, bearing in mind that the home-educated child is likely to have more free time
to engage in recreational activities. Indeed, it might be argued that the socialization experienced in
the natural setting of a community is preferable to that within the confines of a school.
E Whilst home-schooling has its shortcomings it also offers several advantages. Tuition is on a one-to-
one basis so it can be personalized to meet an individual child's needs. There is no strict curriculum
so the teaching can be readily adapted for those with special educational needs or learning
disabilities. Children are allowed to develop at their own rate, and attention can be focussed on
subjects that a child enjoys or has a particular aptitude for. Parents can provide religious education
and impart moral values consistent with their own beliefs, and they can also include subjects that may
not be available in their local schools, for example Latin or Archaeology. The timetable is entirely
flexible with no time wasted travelling to and from school, no lack of educational continuity when
moving home, and no restric-tions on when to take family holidays. It should come as no surprise that
with all these benefits, home-educated children usually outperform their schooled counterparts
academically. However, this is not conclusive proof of the effectiveness of home-schooling. Parents
who home-school their children tend to be well-educated and in a higher than average income bracket.
Consequently, these parents are more likely to show an interest in their child's education, encouraging
compliance with home-work and offering support, meaning that the child would probably have
performed well had they remained within the school system.
F Parents who educate their children at home may choose to shun school com-pletely. Despite this,
local schools should offer parents and children support and guidance, extending access to school
trips, library resources, recreational facilities, syllabus information, assessments and examinations. The
future of home-schooling and its position in the education system are uncertain. Nevertheless, it is the
duty of the state and the parents to ensure that home-educated children are given an education that
affords them opportunities in life and equips them for the world of work.
Questions 15 to 19
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21 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A to F.
Choose the correct heading for the paragraphs B, C, D, E and F from the list of headings below.
List of headings
i) Disadvantages
ii) Range of benefits
iii) Problems at school
iv) Main advantage
v) Overcoming a weakness
vi) No bad influences
vii) Introduction
viii) Shared responsibility
ix) Parents as teachers

Paragraph A (Introduction) vii

15. Paragraph B ……………………..
16. Paragraph C ……………………..
17. Paragraph D ……………………..
18. Paragraph E ……………………..
19. Paragraph F. ……………………..
Questions 20 to 26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
20. In the USA there are four times as many home-educated children as in the UK.
21. There is much disagreement about the merits of home-schooling.
22. School children with disabilities are the most discriminated against.
23. There is nothing unusual about children learning from their parents at home.
24. Only children who attend school can be favourably socialized.
25. Pupils in school achieve higher grades than home-school children.
26. Children from better-off homes are more likely to complete their homework.

Reading Passage 3
BIOFUELS BACKLASH
A Blodiesel and bm-ethanol are cleaner, sustainable alternatives to petroleum-based fuels, which
continue to deplete. Biofuels can be grown repeatedly from crops making them 100% renewable.
Bio-ethanol is made in a similar way to 'moonshine' by fer-menting cereals like corn and maize and

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22 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
then distilling the brew to evaporate the ethanol. Biodiesel is manufactured from the vegetable oils
found in sunflower seeds, rapeseed and the oil palm. Gasoline (petrol) engines can be tuned to run
on 90% ethanol blended with 10% petroleum and biodiesel is a direct replacement for exist-ing road
diesel.
B Carbon-dioxide is the principal man-made greenhouse gas. It traps heat in the atmosphere and
increases global warming, causing polar ice to recede and sea-levels to rise. Energy crops offer one
solution to the deleterious effects of carbon-dioxide emitted from vehicle exhausts. Biofuels are 100%
carbon-neutral, which means that there is no net gain or loss of carbon to the environment when the
fuels are burnt. The carbon-dioxide does not add to the total amount in the atmosphere because the
crops absorb the equivalent amount of carbon-dioxide by photosynthesis as they grow. Consequently,
the 'carbon footprint' of gasoline- and diesel-powered vehicles can be reduced by switching to bio-
ethanol or biodiesel. The latter burns more efficiently than petroleum diesel leaving less unburned
hydrocarbons, carbon-monoxide and particulates, which means less atmospheric pollution as well as
less global warming. Biofuels are less toxic than fossil fuels and biodegrade if spilt on the ground.
C Not everybody believes that biofuels are the ideal alternative to fossil fuels. The status of biofuels
as environmentally friendly can be challenged on several counts. Firstly, to provide space for energy-
crop plantations, trees are felled and burnt which creates a surplus of carbon-dioxide. Secondly, in
tropical rainforests the loss of trees threatens biodiversity by destroying habitat. Thirdly, deforestation
increases the evaporation of water from the ground, which can lead to extensive droughts. These
deficits can be discounted if the energy crops are planted on existing agricultural land, but if this is
done it reduces the supply of food crops, creating a surge in food prices. Furthermore, in developing
countries people have barely sufficient food to eat and switching to fuel crops could threaten their
meagre food supplies.
D To judge whether or not biofuels are genuinely a greener alternative to fossil fuels it is necessary to
scrutinize the manufacturing steps. Whilst in theory, the carbon released by biofuels is equivalent to
that removed from the atmosphere by the growing plants this does not reflect the true energy picture.
Substantial amounts of nitrogen-based fertilizers are added to the soil to increase crop production.
The process of manufacturing fertilizers consumes large amounts of energy in a process that burns
natural gas and releases carbon-dioxide. What's more, when fertilizers are added to the land the soil
releases nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere. As an agent of global warming, nitrous oxide is about
300 times more potent than carbon-dioxide, and surplus nitrates can leach into nearby rivers and
streams where they kill the fish. The ethanol industry generates additional carbon-dioxide because
many of its manufacturing plants use coal-fired boilers, and fossil fuels are also consumed by the
vehicles that transport materials to and from manufacturing sites. Whilst the transportation of petroleum-
based fuels also burns fossil fuels, biofuels are supposed to offer a greener alternative to the fuels they
intend to replace.

E Biofuels may not be a panacea for global warning but they can play a part in a sustainable energy
programme. To reinforce their green credentials, energy crops should not be planted on land that
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23 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
was being used to produce food. New technologies can produce ethanol from the inedible parts of
plants, or from grasses grown on wasteland that is unsuitable for food. Genetically modified plants
may be the answer to increasing biofuel crop yields without the need for further land grab. Plant
strains can be developed that require little in the way of fertilizers or irrigation. Biodiesel consumption
may, in the future, extend beyond transportation to include heating oils for domestic boilers.
Developing countries that grow biofuels should be allowed to benefit from the premium prices that
fuel crops command, enabling farmers and their communities to reap economic and social benefits.
Whatever the advantages and disadvantages of fuel crops it is clear that fossil fuels are a limited
resource and cannot remain the mainstay of our economies indefinitely.
Questions 27 to 31
Reading Passage 3 has five sections, A to E.
Choose the correct heading for the sections A, B, C, D and E from the list of headings below.
List of headings
i. Biofoels
ii. Fossil fuel replacements
iii. Advantages
iv. The way forward
v. Man made
vi. Environmentally friendly
vii. Too much carbon
viii. Adverse effects
ix. Unsustainable
x. Thorough examination
27. Section A
28. Section B
29. Section C
30. Section D
31. Section E
Questions 32 to 36
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 9?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
32.. Bio-ethanol is a non-renewable fuel source.
33 Burning biodiesel instead of petroleum diesel generates less pollution.
34. Food prices fall when fuel crops are planted on land used to grow food.
35. Fuel crops outnumber food crops in developing countries.
36. The eco-friendly nature of biofuels cannot be disputed.
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24 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Questions 37 to 40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A to J, below.
37 Excess fertilizer can be deadly to fish
38 The green status of energy crops is strengthened
39 It may not be necessary to acquire more land
40 Farmers in poorer countries will benefit from fuel crops
A. if it is released tram the soil into the atmosphere.
B. when they play a part in a sustainable energy programme.
C. if they are not planted on agricultural land.
D. it they are planted on land used to produce food.
E. if nitrogen-based fertilizers are added to the soil.
F. when new technologies are employed.
G. if it drains into the surrounding watercourses.
H. it they can keep the profits they make.
I. when fossil fuels eventually run out
J. it yields are improved with genetically modified crops.

WRITING
Writing task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The table below gives information an internet use in six categories by age group.
Describe the information in the table and make comparisons where appropriate.
Write at least 150 words.
Internet activities by age group
TABLE 3.2
Age groups
Percentage % Teens 20s 30s 40s 50s 60s 70+
Use e-mail 90 91 93 94 95 90 91
Online games 80 55 36 25 20 27 29
Download music and 52 46 27 15 13 8 6
videos
Travel reservations 0 51 74 65 60 58 61
Online purchase 39 67 69 67 65 64 40
Searching for people 3 30 33 26 25 27 31

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25 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Writing task 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Is fast food to blame for obesity in society or is gaining too much weight the
responsibility of the individual?
What factors contribute to obesity?
Why do you think that children are becoming obese?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant experience or knowledge.
Write at least 250 words.

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26 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 4

READING
Reading Passage 1
HACKED OFF
Internet security, or rather the lack of it, is the bane of today's computer user. Computer hackers
write malicious computer programs (or malware) that infect vulnerable computers and modify the way
they operate. Typically, these programs are downloaded from the Internet inadvertently with a single
click of the mouse. The consequences are detrimental to the user, ranging from a minor nuisance —
for example, slowing the computer's speed — to a major financial loss for an individual or company,
when login and password details are accessed and fraud ensues. Examples of malware include
viruses, worms, trojans (Trojan horses), spyware, keystroke logging, scareware and dishonest adware.
A virus can be released when a user opens an e-mail and downloads an attach-ment. The text
portion of the e-mail cannot carry any malware but the attachment may contain a virus, for example
in a macro (a short program) embedded in a worksheet document, such as Excel. Viruses can replicate
and if they spread to the host com-puter's boot sector files they can leave the user with a 'blue-screen
of death'. In this circumstance, the blue-screen is accompanied by a message that starts 'A problem
has been detected and Windows has been shut down to prevent damage to your computer'. Whilst
malware cannot physically damage the computer's hard drive the information on the boot sector has
been destroyed and the computer is unable to function. In a worst case scenario the hard disk has to
be wiped clean by reformatting, before the operating system can be reinstalled, in which case every
program and file will be lost.
Unlike a virus, a worm can infect a computer without the user downloading an attachment, so
it can spread through a network of computers at tremendous speed. The ability of worms to replicate
in this way means that they can infect every contact in the user's e-mail address book and potentially
every e-mail contact in each recipient's computer. Instant messaging programs and social networking
sites are similarly at risk. A main feature of a worm is that it slows the computer down by consuming
memory or hard disk space so that the computer eventually locks up.
The word trojan derives from the Trojan Horse of Greek mythology that tricked the Trojans into
allowing Greek soldiers into the city of Troy, hidden inside a wooden horse. Today a trojan is a
metaphor for malware that masquerades as useful software. Trojans are unable to replicate but they
interfere with the computer surreptitiously, allowing viruses and worms unfettered access to the system.
Spyware programs monitor a computer user's internet surfing habits covertly. Some spyware
simply monitors how many visits consumers make to particular web pages and what they are buying
or spending, usually for marketing purposes. Keystroke logging is the main fraudulent activity linked
to spyware. Here, private and confidential information is obtained from the user's keystrokes, enabling
criminals to acquire credit card details, or login names and passwords for online bank accounts.
Some keystroke loggers operate legitimately to monitor the internet use of employees in the office or
to keep tabs on children's surfing activities at home.
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27 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 Scareware is a form of extortion where a victim is informed that the computer is infected with a
virus and, for a fee, is offered a solution to fix the problem. The user is tricked into clicking an 'OK'
button and buys software unnecessarily because there is usually no virus. In one scam, a scareware
pop-up informs the victim that the computer's registry contains critical errors when the problems are
actually minor or even non-existent. Persuaded by the pop-up advert, the victim buys the 'registry
cleaner', which may not work or could even damage the computer's registry. There are of course
legitimate registry cleaners that will boost your computer's speed. A genuine registry cleaner will
normally be endorsed by a reputable company or recommended in a PC magazine.
Adware pop-up adverts are similar to scareware but are merely a nuisance rather than malware
(unless dishonest), though they can still download programs that track your shopping habits and slow
your computer down. The adverts pop up automatically when the user opens the internet browser and
can become irritating because they conceal information on the opened up page. One answer is to
turn on the Internet Explorer's pop-up blocker under the privacy tab because this will block most
automatic pop-ups. More effectively, a user can purchase an all-in-one security suite to block any
malware. Security software automatically blocks and deletes any malicious programs for a more
secure web experience. Normally, the software will update itself every day as long as the computer
is switched on.

Questions 1 to 7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 10?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
1. Malware is usually downloaded from the internet by mistake.
2. An e-mail text can carry a virus.
3. A virus can result in the loss of every program and file.
4. Java applets can contain malicious code.
5. A Trojan disguises itself as useful software.
6. Keystroke logging is always fraudulent.
7. Scareware is not harmful to the user.
Questions 8 to 12
Classify the following as typical of
A a virus
B a worm
C a virus and a worm.
8. requires user input to infect a computer.
9. can duplicate itself.
10. reduces the computers speed.
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28 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
11. do not damage the hard drive.
12. can be removed by security software.

Reading Passage 2
HIGHLANDS AND ISLANDS
A Off the west coast of Scotland, in the Atlantic Ocean, lies a chain of islands known as the Outer
Hebrides or Western Isles. The main inhabited islands are Lewis, Harris, North Uist and South
Uist, Benbecula, Berneray and Barra. The Isle of Lewis is the most northern and largest of the
Western Isles, and to its south, a small strip of land connects it to the Isle of Harris, making the
two islands one land mass. To the south west of Harris are the two Uists with Benbecula wedged
in between them. These three islands are connected by bridges and causeways. The small island
of Berneray is connected to North Uist by a causeway and it is the only populated island in the
waters around Harris. Eriskay is a tiny island, also populated, lying between South Uist and Barra.
Off the tip of Barra lie the Barra Isles, formerly known as the Bishop's Isles, comprising a group
of small islands which include Mingulay, Sandray, Pabbay and Vatersay, and at the southernmost
tip of the chain, lies an island by the name of Berneray, not to be confused with the island of the
same name observed across the bay from Harris.
B Lewis is low-lying and covered in a smooth blanket of peatland. Harris is an island of contrasts.
It displays a rocky coast to the east, yet white, sandy beaches to the west, backed by fertile
green grassland ('machair'), pockmarked with freshwater pools (lochans). North Uist is covered
with peatland and lochans, whilst South Uist is mountainous to the east with machair and sandy
beaches to the west. Benbecula is relatively flat and combines machair, peatland and lochans,
with sandy beaches and deeply indented sea lochs. Like Harris, Benbecula and Barra exhibit a
rocky coast-land to the east and low-lying machair to the west with sandy beaches similar to those
seen on Berneray, which is a flat isle, except for a few hills, and sand dunes.
C Although part of Scotland, the Western Isles have a distinctive culture. Whilst English is the
dominant language of mainland Scotland, Gaelic is the first language of more than half the
islanders, and visitors to the islands can expect a Gaelic greeting. Gaelic signing and labelling
reinforces the unique identity of the islands and helps to promote tourism and business. Place
names on road signs are in Gaelic with only the main signs displaying English beneath. Visitors
to the Western Isles may be surprised to find that the shops are closed on Sundays. The strong
Christian tradition of the islands means that for the most part, the Sabbath is respected as a day
of rest and leisure, especially on Lewis and Harris.
D There are approximately 27,000 people in the Western Isles and one-third of these live in and
around the capital town of Stornoway, on the east coast of the Isle of Lewis. The town is served
by an airport and ferry terminal making it the hub for Western Islands' travel. Stornoway is best
known for its world-famous Harris Tweed industry, which developed from a Murray tartan
commissioned by Lady Dunmore in the 1850s. Only wool that has been hand-woven and dyed
in the Outer Hebrides is permitted to carry the Harris Tweed logo. Other areas of economic
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29 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 activity include fishing, tourism, transport and renewable energy. Almost two-thirds of the
population live on a croft, which is a particular type of smallholding peculiar to the Highlands
and Islands of Scotland. Crofters are tenants of a small piece of agricultural land, typically a few
hectares, that usually includes a dwelling which the crofter either owns or rents from the landowner.
The land must be used for the purposes of crofting, which can be described as small-scale mixed
farming. Crofting activities include grazing sheep (lamb) and to lesser extent cattle (beef), growing
potatoes, vegetables and fruit, keeping chickens, and cutting peat for burning on the house fire.
Crofting can be likened to subsistence living, that is to say, living off what you can rear, grow
and make, with anything spare going to market or shared with the community. Some people see
crofting as a means of escaping the 'rat race' and getting closer to nature, though this
romanticized view is naive. It is difficult to survive from crofting alone and most crofters have to
supplement their incomes with a part-time job. Crofting as a way of life has been in decline.
However, this trend may be about to reverse, led by consumer demand for high-quality produce,
grown sustainably with the least environmental impact.

Questions 13 to 19
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
13. The Isles of Lewis and Harris are joined together.
14. There are two islands called Berneray in the sea around Harris.
15. The sea around Benbecula is deep.
16. On the island of South Uist, there are fertile green grasslands and sandy beaches to the west
and many islanders can speak Gaelic.
17. In the Western Isles most road signs are bilingual.
18. Approximately 9,000 people live in or near Stornoway.
19 Most crofters earn their living entirely from crofting.
Questions 20 to 22
The passage described the position of the islands in relation to each other. There are four unnamed
islands, A, B, C and D on the map below.
Complete the table below.
TABLE 4.2
Name of Island Label A, B, C or D

Lewis 20 __________

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30 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 Eriskay 21 ___________
Berneray 22 ___________

Map of the Western Isles

Questions 23 to 26
Reading Passage 2 has four paragraphs, A to D.
Choose the correct heading for the paragraphs A, B, C and D from the list of headings below.
List of headings
i. Life in the Western Isles
ii. Language and culture
iii. Environment
iv. Landscape
v. Population and economic activity
vi. Sustainability
vii. Location
viii. History and heritage
ix. Travel and tourism

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31 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
23. Paragraph A
24. Paragraph B
25. Paragraph C
26. Paragraph D

Reading Passage 3
DUMMY PILLS
There is an ongoing debate about the merits and the ethics of using placebos, sometimes called
'sugar pills'. The 'placebo effect' is well documented though not completely understood. It refers to
the apparent benefits, both psychological and physiological, of taking a medication or receiving a
treatment that you expect will improve your health, when in fact the tablet contains no active
ingredients and the treatment has never been proven. Any benefit that arises from a placebo originates
solely in the mind of the person taking it. The therapeutic effect can be either real and measurable or
perceived and imagined.
The placebo effect is a headache for drug manufactures. 'Guinea pig' patients, that is to say,
those who volunteer for a new treatment, may show positive health gains from the placebo effect that
masks the response to the treatment. This has led to the introduction of double-blind trials —
experiments where neither the patient nor the healthcare professional observing the patient knows
whether a placebo has been used or not. So, for example, in a 'randomized control trial' (RCT),
patients are selected at random and half the patients are given the new medication and half are
given a placebo tablet that looks just the same. The observer is also 'blind' to the treatment to avoid
bias. If the observer knows which patients are receiving the 'real' treatment they may be tempted to
look harder for greater health improvements in these people in comparison with those on the placebo.
Whilst the case for placebos in drug trials appears to be justified, there are ethical issues to
consider when using placebos. In particular, the need to discontinue placebos in clinical trials in
favour of 'real' medication that is found to work, and whether a placebo should ever be prescribed
in place of a real treatment without the patient ever knowing. In the first circumstance, it would be
unethical to deny patients a new and effective treatment in a clinical trial and also unethical to stop
patients from taking their existing tablets so that they can enter a trial. These two ethical perspectives
are easy to understand. What is perhaps less clear is the distinction between a placebo that may
have therapeutic value and a 'quack cure' which makes claims without any supporting evidence.
Quackery was at its height at the end of the nineteenth century, when so-called men of medicine
peddled fake remedies claiming that all manner of diseases and afflictions could be cured. The
modern equivalent of these quack cures are 'complementary and alternative medicine' (CAM) which
are unable to substantiate the claims they make. There are dozens of these treatments, though the
best-known are perhaps acupuncture, homeopathy, osteopathy and reflexology. There is anecdotal
evidence from patients that these treatments are effective but no scientific basis to support the evidence.
Whilst recipients of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) can find the treatment to be
therapeutic, it is not possible to distinguish these benefits from the placebo effect. Consequently it is
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32 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
important not to turn to alternative therapies too early but to adhere to modern scientific treatments.
Complementary therapies are by definition intended to be used alongside traditional medicine as an
adjunct treatment to obtain, at the very least, a placebo effect. With either complementary or
alternative therapies the patient may notice an improvement in their health and link it with the therapy,
when in fact it is the psychological benefit derived from a bit of pampering in a relaxing environment
that has led to feelings of improvement, or it could be nature taking its course.
Patients enter into a clinical trial in the full knowledge that they have a 50/50 chance of receiving
the new drug or the placebo. An ethical dilemma arises when a placebo is considered as a treatment
in its own right; for example, in patients whose problems appear to be 'all in the mind'. Whilst a
placebo is by definition harmless and the 'placebo effect' is normally therapeutic, the practice is
ethically dubious because the patient is being deceived into believing that the treatment is authentic.
The person prescribing the placebo may hold the view that the treatment can be justified as long as
it leads to an improvement in the patient's health. However, benevolent efforts of this type are based
on a deception that could, if it came to light, jeopardize the relationship between the physician and
the patient. It is a small step between prescribing a placebo and believing that the physician always
knows best, thereby denying patients the right to judge for themselves what is best for their own
bodies. Whilst it is entirely proper for healthcare professionals to act at all times in patients' best
interests, honesty is usually the best policy where medical treatments are concerned, in which case
dummy pills have no place in modern medicine outside of clinical trials. On the other hand,
complementary medicine, whilst lacking scientific foundations, should not be considered unethical if
it is able to demonstrate therapeutic benefits, even if only a placebo effect, as long as patients are
not given false hopes nor hold unrealistic expectations, and are aware that the treatment remains
unproven.
Questions 27 to 30
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D for the questions based on Reading Passage 3.
27. The passage 'Dummy pills' is mainly concerned with
A. real and imagined treatments.
B. the use of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM).
C. the value and morality of placebo use.
D. alternatives to traditional medicine.
28. In the passage, the author states that the action of a placebo
A. is entirely understood.
B. is based on the patient's expectations of success.
C. is based on the active ingredients in the tablet.
D. is entirely psychological.
29. The author suggests that in volunteers, the placebo effect
A. may hide the effect of the drug being tested.
B. makes positive health gains a certainty.
C. is random response to a new treatment.

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33 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 D. causes bias in double-blind experiments.
30. The author states that it is morally wrong for patients to use placebos
A. in clinical drug trials.
B. if they do not know that they are taking them.
C. without any supporting evidence.
D. instead of their current treatment.
Questions 31 to 36
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
31. The author states that quack cures can be likened to complementary and alternative medicine
(CAM).
32. There are personal accounts of complementary and alternative medicine being successful.
33. Complementary medicine should be used separately from traditional medicine.
34. Health improvements following complementary or alternative therapies may not have been
caused by the therapies.
35. People turn to complementary and alternative therapies too early.
36. There can be risks associated with alternative therapies.
Questions 37 to 40
Complete the summary using the list of words, A to K, below.
Patients in a clinical trial are fully aware that they have only a 50% chance of receiving the new drug.
Even so, prescribing a placebo as a treatment presents the physician with a moral 37 …………… .
Even if the treatment works, the patient has been tricked into believing that the placebo was 38
……………….. and if this were found out it could 39 …………… the physician—patient relationship.
Furthermore, patients should not be denied the right to make 40 …………… about their own
treatment.
A genuine B deception C belief D questions E correct F harm
G improve H dilemma I story J choices K ethical

WRITING

Writing task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The graph shows the number of marriages and divorces in the UK between 1975 and 2000.
Summarize the information by describing the main features and making comparisons where
appropriate.
Write at least 150 words.
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34 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
Writing task 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task
Write about the following topic:
People think that government should increase the cost of fuel for cars and other
vehicles to solve environmental problems. Give your opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

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35 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 IELTS PRACTICE TESTS – READING & WRITING

ANSWER KEY

QUARTER II, 2021

(April – June)

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36 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 1

READING

PASSAGE 1 PASSAGE 2 PASSAGE 3

1. TRUE 14. B 27. D
2. FALSE 15. A 28. A
3. NOT GIVEN 16. D 29. B
4. TRUE 17. E 30. C
5. FALSE 18. B 31. TRUE
6. NOT GIVEN 19. major concern 32. FALSE
7. TRUE 20. training exercises 33. NOT GIVEN
8. carbon footprint 21. common sense 34. FALSE
9. warm 22. migration routes 35. TRUE
10. insulated 23. navigation 36. NOT GIVEN
11. cold 24. predators 37. I
12. mercury 25. cannot 38. D
13. efficient 26. social 39. H
40. G

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WRITING

TASK 1

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38 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
TASK 2

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39 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 2

READING

PASSAGE 1 PASSAGE 2 PASSAGE 3

1. FALSE 14. TRUE 28. FALSE
2. TRUE 15. TRUE 29. FALSE
3. FALSE 16. NOT GIVEN 30. TRUE
4. FALSE 17. FALSE 31. NOT GIVEN
5. TRUE 18. TRUE 32. TRUE
6. NOT GIVEN 19. FALSE 33. NOT GIVEN
7. TRUE 20. Rosy Glow 34. E
8. FALSE 21. ripens 35. D
9. E 22. Ruby Pink 36. A
10. G 23. pink area/ pink 37. C
11. B colour 38. C
12. J 24. Pink lady 39. B
13. C 25. B 40. C
26. D
27. C

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40 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
WRITING

TASK 1

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41 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
TASK 2

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42 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 3

READING

PASSAGE 1 PASSAGE 2 PASSAGE 3

1. B 15. iii 27. ii
28. vi
2. D 16. ix
29. viii
3. C 17. v 30. x
4. F 18. ii 31. iv
32. FALSE
5. E 19. viii
33. TRUE
6. NOT GIVEN 20. FALSE 34. FALSE
7. FALSE 21. TRUE 35. NOT GIVEN
36. FALSE
8. TRUE 22. NOT GIVEN
37. G
9. FALSE 23. TRUE 38. C
10. FALSE 24. FALSE 39. J
40. H
11. B 25. FALSE
12. A 26. TRUE
13. D
14. C

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43 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
WRITING

TASK 1

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44 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
TASK 2

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45 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
 PRACTICE TEST 4

READING

PASSAGE 1 PASSAGE 2 PASSAGE 3

1. TRUE 13. TRUE 27. C
28. B
2. FALSE 14. FALSE
29. A
3. TRUE 15. NOT GIVEN 30. D
4. NOT GIVEN 16. TRUE 31. TRUE
32. TRUE
5. TRUE 17. FALSE
33. FALSE
6. FALSE 18. TRUE 34. TRUE
7. FALSE 19. FALSE 35. NOT GIVEN
36. NOT GIVEN
8. A 20. A
37. H
9. C 21. D 38. A
10. B 22. B 39. F
40. J
11. C 23. vii
12. C 24. iv
25. ii
26. v

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46 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC
WRITING

TASK 1

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TASK 2

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48 | HALO IELTS 6.5+ - ĐẢM BẢO ĐẦU RA & BAO THI IDP VÀ BC