Don Kachi Surg
Don Kachi Surg
(a) Look at the x-rays below and tell me the abnormality that you see in these x-ray
(b) What are the causes of the abnormality?
© What could be the patient presentation?
(d) Why you do not find free gas under diaphragm in appendicular perforation?
(e) What operation will you plan for this patient?
Answers:
(a) The abnormality on the CXR is air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum)
(b) Causes of air the diaphragm are perforation of hollow viscus such as:
Bowel perforation
Perforated peptic ulcer
Ruptured appendix
Penetrating injury abdomen causing peritoneal penetration, with or without underlying
visceral injury.
Bullet injury abdomen—with peritoneal penetration and with or without underlying
hollow viscus injury.
Following laparoscopic procedure or following abdominal operation—due to
entrapment of carbon dioxide gas or air
(c) The patient will present with acute severe abdominal pain, guarding and board like rigidity
(d) The lumen of appendix contains very little amount of gas. So there is no free gas under
diaphragm in appendicular perforation. However, if there is perforation at the base of the
appendix involving the cecal wall, there may be free gas under both domes of diaphragm.
(e) I will do exploratory laparotomy.
The diagnosis of peptic ulcer perforation is confirmed.
Simple closure of perforation with interrupted polyglactin suture with an omental patch
(Graham’s patch).
Thorough peritoneal lavage.
If it is a perforated gastric ulcer a biopsy is to be taken from the ulcer margin to exclude
malignancy.
STATION 2
(a) Look at the patient below and state the type of injury it?
(b)What methods are used to assess the percentage of burns and what percentage does this
patient have?
(c) How to do you classify burns and what class does this patient belong to?
(d) How are going to manage this patient
(e) Tell us how you are going to administer fluid therapy in this patient?
(f) What are the complications of burns?
(g) What is the criteria for admitting patients with burns and when do you give blood?
(h) what are the different methods for treating burns?
(i) What is the pathophysiology?
Answers:
Involves epidermis and the papillary dermis, Red, Blistering, moist, Painful, Heal by
epithelialization, complete by 14 days, Minimal or no permanent scars but can
leave discoloration
b. Deep partial thickness:
Involves epidermis, upper dermis and varying degrees of lower dermis, Pale,
mottled appearance, Fixed staining (no blanching),May be painful or insensate
(depending on depth), Heal by combination of epithelialization and wound
contracture, May take weeks can leave significant scars and contractures over
joints depending on time taken to heal
(iii)Full thickness burns-Third Degree
Both dermis and epidermis burnt, No blisters, Skin appendages damaged, Look dull
or dark, Pin prink sensation-negative (Insensitive, Eschar to the limb extremities
may be present.
(d) Management
Initial
Long term
Monitoring
Fluid replacement
Urine output (0.5 - 1ml/kg/hr. hence catheterize the pt.)
Temperature - spikes may indicate infection.
Heart rate - rapid rate may also indicate infection, or severe dehydration
Pulse rate
Mental status
Edema
Wound healing
Color
Pus
Slough
Nutritional status
Weight
Skin fold thickness
(1) Fluid replacement -This is given to replace the loss due to burn. Most of the fluid leave the
circulation and is in the interstitial space.
(2) Maintenance fluid-This is the daily requirement due to insensible losses through sweat, breathe
etc.
(f) Complications
Early
(i) RS
a. Airway obstruction due to inhalation burns(causes pulmonary edema, ARDS, respiratory arrest)
b. Breathing difficulties as a result of respiratory distress due to eschar around the chest
(ii) CVS
a. Edema due to release of inflammatory mediator to produce vasoconstriction and vasodilatation
leading to increased capillary permeability
b. Hypovolaemia due to fluid loss as a result of increased capillary permeability due to SIRS, and
this may lead to renal failure.
c. Hypoxia due to destruction of red blood cells because thermal injury causes coagulative necrosis
to the epidermis and underlying tissue
(iii)MSS
a. Hypothermia as a result of loss of thermoregulatory fxn of the skin due to damage
(iv) GUS
a. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance due to dehydration, hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia and
hypocalcaemia
(v) Metabolic
a. Hyperglycemia due to hypercatabolism and mobilization of glucose as a result of release of stress
hormones
Intermediate
(i) Wound infection due to damage of the protective fxn of the skin
(ii) Septicemia
(iii)Anemia + malnutrition due to haemocoagulation
(iv) Stress ulcers (curling ulcers)
(v) Paralytic ileus due to electrolyte imbalance
(vi) Compartment syndrome due to eschar (slough produced)
(vii) Poor healing, Ankylosing (joint stuffiness)
(viii) Renal failure
(ix) Septic arthritis
(x) Hypoproteinemia
(xi) Ectropion- retraction of eyelid
(xii) Amputation
Late
(i) Contractures
(ii) Hypertrophic scar or keloids
(iii)Marjolins ulcers (malignant)
(iv) Nerve compression
(v) Psychological effects- cosmetic effect
(g) The following is the criteria for admitting patients with burns:
TBSA >10% - for CHILDREN
TBSA <5% - in SPECIAL AREAS (Face, Hands, perineum, joint)
TBSA >20% - for ADULTS
If deep >20% = give blood
20% - 70mls/Kg
Unit 450mls/Kg
For each of burn give 20% of exposed blood volume for 30 min to an hour.
Give blood on 2nd day
(i) In a child with full thickness burns of 10% or more
(ii) Adult with full thickness burns of 20% or more
(3) Mixed
Clean and apply wet soaks
These respond well to --- healing. In deep burns- wait for 3 days for granulation to form then do skin
graft
(i) The pathophysiology of burns is as follows:
Burns injuries results in both local and systemic response
Local response
The three zones of burns were described by Jackson in 1947
Zone of coagulation- this occurs at the point of maximum damage. There is irreversible
tissue loss due to coagulation
Zone of stasis- characterized by decreased tissue perfusion. This is zone is potentially
salvageable. The aim of resuscitation is to increase tissue perfusion here and prevent any
damage becoming irreversible.
Zone of hyperaemia- in this outermost zone tissue perfusion is increased and the tissue
here will invariably recover unless sepsis or prolonged hypotension
Systemic response
The release of cytokines and other inflammatory mediators at the injury has systemic effect once
burns reaches 30% TBSA
CVS
capillary permeability is increased leading to loss of intravascular protein and fluids into
interstitial compartment
Peripheral and splanchnic vasoconstriction occurs. Myocardial contractility is decreased
possibly due to release of TNF
These changes+ fluid loss from the burn wound results in systemic hypotension and end
organ hypoperfusion
R/S- inflammatory mediators cause bronchoconstriction and severe burns in adult results RDS
METABOLIC- the basal metabolic rate increases up to three times. This plus splanchnic
hypoperfusion, necessitates early and aggressive enteral feeding to decrease catabolism and maintain
gut integrity
IMMUNOLOGICAL CHANGES- nonspecific down regulation of the immune response occurs,
affecting both cell mediated humoral pathways
STATION 3
(a) Look at the abdominal x-ray below and give us you diagnosis?
(b) How does small intestinal obstruction differ from large intestinal obstruction on the plain x ray
(c) Which X-ray is important for evaluation of patient with acute intestinal obstruction?
(d) How many fluid levels in abdomen X-ray may be regarded as normal?
(e) What is intestinal obstruction? And how do you classify it?
(f) What are the mechanical causes and the causes of paralytic?
(g) How are you going to manage this patient?
Answers:
(a) This is likely to be a X-ray of patient with small bowel obstruction because of the multiple
are-fluid levels.
(b) The difference between small and large bowel obstruction is as follows:
Small bowel Large bowel
Central position Peripheral position
Valvulae conniventes( complete rings) Haustrations (incomplete rings)
Many loops Few loops
(c) A supine abdominal film gives better delineation of the gas filled gut loop and an erect film
is not required routinely
(d) In adults three inconstant fluid levels—one at duodenal cap another at terminal ileum may
be regarded as normal. In infants few fluid levels (2–4) in small gut may be regarded as
normal
(e) This is a pathological condition in which the content of the intestines cannot be pushed
download. And it can be classified as follows:
clinically
1. Plain X – Ray
- Erect- check for the air fluid levels
- Supine- check where the obstruction is. Able to see distended bowel
- Dicubitus- alternative if erect cannot be done
2. U/E
3. Ultrasound
4. CT
5. MRI
So first you have to canulate the patient and start fluids normal saline and also put NGT and
catheterize the patient
TREATMENT
1Gastric solution 2.IV 3. Prophylactic Antibiotic 4. Conservative treatment 5. Surgery
INDICATION:
Dead Bowel:
. Loss of peristalsis, Loss of normal sheen, Colour, Loss of pulsation
STATION 4.
(a) Exam the abdomine of this patient?
(b) What is a colostomy?
(c) From which part of a colon can you easily make a colostomy and why?
(d) What are the indications of colostomy
(e) What are the complications
(f) What are the different types of colostomy?
ANSWERS:
(a) Examination of a stoma
Expose the pt.
1. Inspection
(f) Types
Temporary
(i) Loop
(ii) Spectacle
(iii)Double barrel
(iv) Hartmann
Permanent
(i) End colostomy
STATION 5
(a) What is the name of the set below?
(b) What is the amount of weight needed in relation to body weight
(c) What are the indications?
(d) Give 3 advantages
(e) Give 3 disadvantages
(f) What are the complications?
(g) How the dunlop traction is set up in upper extremity?
ANSWERS:
(a) Skin traction
(b) 1/10th of the body weight
(c) Indications
-Extreme of age
years (longitudinal bone growth may be arrest)
- fragile bones
-Those reacting to pin
-Fixed flexion deformity
-Fractures
(e) Disadvantages
(f) Complications
-Compartment syndrome
-Skin avulsion
-Allergic rxn
-Gangrene or ischemia
-Joint stiffness
Hypostatic pneumonia
STATION 6
1. What is name of this set - up and give the specific name of the traction � (1)
2. What is the amount of weight needed in relation to body weight � (2)
3. Give 3 advantages of perkins traction
4. Give 3 disadvantages of perkins traction
5. How is pin tract infection is prevented �
6. How to do insert the pin
ANSWERS
1. Skeletal tractions- perkins tractions
2. 1/7 th
3. Advantages:
a. prevents development of contractures � (3)
b. prevents atrophy of muscles � (3)
c. early healing and mobilization � (3)
4. Disadvantages;
a. injury to the common peroneal nerve � (3)
b. fracture of tibia at the site of insertion of the pin � (3)
c. pin tract infection�(3)
5. daily inspection and cleaning
6. Inserted 2 cm distal 2cm lateral to the tibial tuberosity
STATION 6
(a) What is the function of this tube in this picture?
(b) State 3 indications
(c) State 4 complications/problems associated with the use
(d)State 2 contraindications to use of this tube
(e) What are the types
ANSWERS:
(a) Gastrostomy feeding tube
(b) Oesophageal obstruction, severe malnutrition, major surgeries, severe sepsis, trauma, head
and neck surgeries,. It is done if feeding is required for more than one month.
(c) Leak-gastric fistula, displacement, blockage of tube, tube migration, diarrhea, bloating,
abdominal cramp, wound infection.
(d) Previous gastric surgeries, intestinal obstruction, gastric outlet obstruction
(e) Types of gastrostomy are as follows:
Base on technique;
Stamm temporary gastrostomy
Kader-Senn temporary gastrostomy
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
Janeway’s mucus lined permanent gastrostomy
Base on duration;
Temporal
Permanent
Base on lining;
Mucus lined (permanent )
Serosal lined (temporal)
STATION 7
(a) What can you see in this patient?
(b) What are the indications
(c) What are the different types of amputations do you know?
(d) What are the complications of amputations
(e) How do you rehabilitate the patient?
ANSWERS
(d) Complications
Immediate / early
(a) associated with spinal anesthesia
-Hypotension
- Failure to breathe because it can affects phrenic nerve
- Compression of nerve- paralysis
(b) Surgical complications
- Reactionary hemorrhage
- Hematoma
Intermediate
-Wound infection usually associated with hematoma
-Abscess formation
-Wound dehiscence
-Gangrene of the flaps due to ischemia
-Higher amputation leading to Gas gangrene in mid-thigh stump due to fecal contamination
-Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
-Pulmonary embolism
-Psychological effect – depression
Late
-Pain due to unresolved infection (sinus, osteomyelitis, and sequestrum)
-A bone spur
-A scar adherent to bone
-Amputation neuroma stump
-Phantom limb pain
-Ulceration of the stump due to pressure effects of prosthesis or increased ische
ANSWERS:
(a) HYDROCEHALUS-Excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles
and subarachnoid spaces due to disturbance in its formation, flow or absorption
(b) Classification;
1. Communicating(non-obstructive) or non-communicating(obstructive)
2. Congenital or acquired
3. Hydrocephalus with increased ICP or Normal pressure Hydrocephalus
(c) Causes ;
Increase CSF production; choroid plexus papilloma and choroid plexus carcinoma
CSF flow obstruction; aqueductal stenosis, brain lesion and tumour, infections,
intraventricular bleeds, Dandy Walker cyst
Reduce CSF absorption; obstruction at the arachnoid granulations, otitic hydrocephalus,
sinus thrombosis, arachnoiditis
Familial causes; Bicker’s Adam syndrome, an X-linked recessive abnormality
(d) Associated abnormalities
Dandy-Walker syndrome
Arnold-Chiari malformation
Spina bifida
Aqueductal stenosis
(e) Investigations include: The CT scan and/or MRI along with ultrasonography in an infant are
the most important studies to identify the specific cause and severity of hydrocephalus
(d) Treatment;
Medical; pre-operatively is commenced;
Acetazolamide- a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Furosemide- has synergistic action with acetazolamide
Surgery
Shunting procedure ;
Ventriculo-peritonel
Ventriculo-pleural
Ventriculo-atrial
Lumboperitoneal
Torchedsen shunt
(g) Differential diagnosis;
Hydrocephalus ex-vacuo
Hydrancephaly
Familial big head
(h) The following is how CSF is formed and flow: The CSF is formed primarily in the
ventricular system by the choroid plexus, which is situated in the lateral, third, and fourth
ventricles. Normally, CSF flows from the lateral ventricles through the foramina of
Monro into the 3rd ventricle. It then traverses the narrow aqueduct of Sylvius, which is
approximately 3 mm long and 2 mm in diameter in a child, to enter the fourth ventricle.
The CSF exits the fourth ventricle through the paired lateral foramina of Luschka and the
midline foramen of Magendie into the cisterns at the base of the brain.
(i) OFC- occipito-frontal circumference
At birth average 35cm
1st year it increase by 12cm to 47cm
In the 1st 3months, increase by 2cm/month (gain of 6cm)
In the next 3months increase by 1cm/month (gain of 3cm)
In the last 6months increase by 0.5cm/month (gain of 3cm
STATION 9
(a) What can you see?
(b) What are the different types?
(c) What are the indications
(d) What is the absolute contraindication?
ANSWERS:
(a) Suprapubic cystostomy
(b) Open and closed cystostomy
(c) Indications for suprapubic cystostomy
Retention of urine when transurethral catheterization has failed
Rupture of the urethra
Urethral cutaneous fistula
Per urethral abscess
Extravasations of urine
Chronic retention in neurogenic bladder
(d) Bladder ca.
STATION 10
(a) Take hx of this pt
(b) What are the causes of obstructive jaundice?
(c) How do you investigate?
(d) How do you treat?
(e) What is courvoisier’s law?
(f) Is urobilinogen present or absent in urine?
ANSWERS:
(a) hx taking:
How did it start, when did start and how has been the progress of jaundice (sudden with
biliary colic or slow and progressive
Have you had any previous dyspeptic symptoms and relation to fatty food
Have had any previous similar episode - (recurrent)
any backache
any weight loss
color and consistency of the stool
color of the urine
any itching of the skin
(b) the causes are as follows:
Obstructive (surgical )
Extra hepatic and intrahepatic (hepatitis/cirrosis)
i. Gallstones
ii. Sclerosing cholangitis
iii. Carcinoma of Ampulla of Vater
iv. Carcinoma of Pancreas ( head )
v. Carcinoma of bile ducts
vi. Post-traumatic stricture
vii. Metastatic
viiiLymph nodes of porta hepatis
ix Parasitic infestation: as ascaris & fasciola.
(c) I will do some investigations for confirmation of diagnosis.
„ Liver function test
Serum bilirubin: (a) total, (b) conjugated, (c) unconjugated
Alkaline phosphatase
Serum enzymes ALT/AST
Serum protein:total/albumin/globulin
Prothrombin time.
„ Ultrasonography of hepatobiliary system.
Further investigations will be guided by the USG report
(d) Treatment is basically surgical to remove the cause of obstruction. Preoperative
preparations then
- ERCP: Sphincterotomy + dormia basket
- Open: if failed ERCP Cholecystectomy + Choledocholithotomy
(a) courvoiser’s law: If in a jaundice patient, the gallbladder is palpable, then it is not due
to choledocholithiasis as the gallbladder would have been fibrosed by previous
cholecystitis
(b) it is not present
STATION 11
(a) Examine the how ulcer
(b) What is you clinical diagnosis?
(c) How are going to make the confirmatory diagnosis?
ANSWERS:
(a) On inspect
there is a ulcer on lateral malleolar of the right foot
it has regular margin
it has undermined edges
there is pus on the floor
the surrounding area looks swollen
On palpation
regional lymph nodes examination
sensation examination
pulses examination
(b) Tuberculous ulcer
(c) Biopsy
STATION 12
a) What are your differential diagnosis
b) What are the various types of malignant melanoma
c) Which has the worst prognosis
d) What are other site lesion could be found
e) What features make a lesion suspicious
f) How is it staged
g) Treatment options
h) Prognosis
ANSWERS:
(a) Differential diagnosis;
Malignant melanoma, Squamous cell ca, Basal cell ca, Seborrhoeic keratosis,
Cuteneous agiomata, Pyogenic granuloma, Kaposi sarcoma
(b) Types of malignant melanoma
Superficial spreading (55%)
Nodular (15-30%)
Lentigo maligna(10%)
Acral lentiginous (29-72% in blacks and 2-8% in whites)
(c) The nodular melanoma has the worse prognosis, then the acral lentigenous type. The
lentigo maligna has the best prognosis
(d) Common sites; skin, uveal coat of the eye, GI tract, leptomeninges, perianal skin.
(e) Signs of malignant changes in a benign naevus;
Pain, Itching, Satellitism, >6mm, Deepening of pigmentation, Crust formation,
Inflammatory changes, ulceration, Bleeding, Irregularities of edges, Lymph node
metastesis
(f) Staging
TNM – see text
(g) Treatment;
Excision
Excision + elective lymph node dissection (ELND) ELND is recommended
only in patient with palpable or proven lymphadenopathy
Immunotherapy; cytokine and interferon as adjuvant
New immune and gene therapies; vaccine and gene therapy
Melanoma are radio and chemo- resistant
(h) Prognosis
Clinical indicators
Sex ; better in females
Age ; better in younger < 60years
Site; worse in scalp, feet, hands and trunk
Pre-existing naevus ; better prognosis
Skin colour ; non- white poorer prognosis
Pathological indicators;
Tumour thickness (Breslow’s level); < 0.7mm good,>1.5mm
likelihood to metastesis, >3.5mm greater tendency to met.
Ulceration; poor prognosis
Nodular, acral lentigenous and genital; unfavorable prognosis
Clark’s level (invasion)
Size of tumour; <2cm without spread good
Type of melanoma; lentigo maligna good prognosis
STATION 13
(a) What is the name this tool?
(b) What are the indications
(c) What are the complications?
ANSWERS:
(a) Ryles tube (NG)
(b) Indications include:
Feeding in absence of swallow reflex in unconscious pt.
Decompression of GIT e.g. paralytic ileus
Gastric lavage
Analysis of stomach content
Physical injury to oral cavity
Inflammation or ca esophagus
Premature babies to prevent aspiration
(a) Complications:
Complications
I. Early (during insertion)
(i) Mucosal damage (ii) Laryngo- tracheal obstruction? (iii)Esophageal or gastric perforation (iv)
Bleeding (v) Accidental naso-tracheal intubation (vi) Accidental transbrochial perforation
(vii) Nausea and vomiting
II. Late (during use)
(i) Aspiration pneumonia (ii) Gastro- irritations (iii)Pharyngitis/esophagitis (iv) Vocal cord paralysis
(v) Stenosis or stricture of esophagus (vi) Ca esophagus (vii) Infection (viii) Loss of electrolytes due
to vomiting (ix) Necrosis:- retro- or nasopharyngeal
STATION 14
(a) What is this?
(b) What are the indications?
(c) What are the complications?
ANSWERS:
(a) The first one is A 2-way Foley‘s urinary catheter (1 channel for drainage and the
other for inflating the balloon)
The second one A 3-way Foley‘s urinary catheter (an additional channel for irrigating
the bladder and are used when ongoing hematuria is expected e.g. after transurethral
resection of the prostate (TURP))
(b) Indications
(i) Therapeutic- Urine retention, Urine incontinence
(ii) Diagnostic- Bladder rupture, Renal failure
(iii)Pre- operative -For monitoring urine output before operation
(iv) Unconsciousness
(v) Monitoring purposes - Spinal injury, Urine output, Abdominal pressures
(c) Complications
(i) Early:-Traumatic injury to urethra, Bleeding, By – pass
(ii) Late:-Infections- UTI, Urethral strictures, Incontinence (urine), Paraphimosis, Blockage,
Failure of balloon to deflate, Balloon size – 3-5ml , Excursion of catheter if suprapubic
STATION 15
(a) What is this?
(b) What are the indications?
(c) What are the complications?
ANSWERS:
(a) Endotracheal tube
(b) Indication:
Facilitate artificial ventilation
Facilitate surgery around face or neck
Protect lungs if risk of pulmonary aspiration
Cardiac arrest
Serious Head Injury
Inhalational burn
(c) Complications
Early
(i) Accidental esophageal intubation loss of airway control
(ii) Accidental intubation of main bronchus or RT
(iii)Trauma to larynx, tracheal or teeth
(iv) Aspiration of vomitus during intubation
(v) Laryngo- tracheal perforation bleeding
Late
(i) Disconnection or blockage of tube
(ii) Infection
(iii)Delayed tracheal stenosis due to prolonged intubation
STATION 16
(a) What are these?
(b) What are the indications
(c) What are the complications
ANSWERS:
(a) Guedel Airway or Oropharyngeal airway
(b) Indication:
(i) Prevent tongue from falling back in unconscious patient
(ii) Endotracheal intubation
(iii)Prevent gastric aspiration
(iv) Administration of drugs- anesthetic, asthma, apneic patients prevent aspiration
(v) Major operation e.g. cardiac
(c) Complication:
(i) Trauma to mounting pharynx
(i) Blockage of airway
(ii) Get blocked
(iii)Misplacement
(iv) Break teeth
(v) Infection
STATION 17
(a) What is this?
(b) What are the anatomical positions?
(c) What are the types of acute appendicitis
(d) Pt presented with Rt iliac fossa pain. Was taken to theatre were it was removed. How did the
patient present?
(e) What are the complications?
(f) What is the differential?
(g) What are the investigations you are going to do?
(h) How are you going to treat the patient?
ANSWERS:
(a) Blind ended muscular tube: Appendix specimen
(b) Anatomical positions: i. Retrocaecal(common) ii. Preileal(least) iii. Postileal iv. Pelvic
v. Subcaecal vi. Paracaecal
(c) Types
Catarrhal (Non obstructive)
obstructive
(d) Clinical features
Symptoms
Pain – visceral pain starts around the umbilicus due to distension of appendix, later
after few hours, somatic pain occurs in RIF due to irritation of parietal peritoneum
due to inflamed appendix
Anorexia- if good appetite not appendicitis
Malaise, Fever (low grade), Mild diarrhea, Abdomen pain caused by coughing,
Nausea and reflex vomiting
Signs
Tachycardia
Abdominal tenderness- maxima at Mac Burney‘s point
Pointing sign
Psoas test – for retrocaecal appendix, hyperextension of right
Obturator test – for pelvic appendix, internal rotation of right hip causes pain in RIF due
to irritation of obturator internus muscle
Rovsing sign – on pressing left iliac fossa, pain occur in RIF due to shift of bowel loops
which irritate the peritoneum
Blumberg sign – tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa
Baldwing test - +ve in retrocaecal appendix-when legs are lifted off bed with knee
extended, the pt. complains of pain while pressing on abdomen(Ribs-Ilium)
Bastede sign
(e) Complications
Perforation (peritonism) – local or generalized peritonitis
RIF appendix Mass, (appendicitis + densely adherent caecum and omentum)
RIF abscess
Pelvic abscess
(f) DDx
GIT:i. Cholecystitis ii. Ruptured PUD (Peptic Ulcer Disease) iii. Pancreatitis iv.
Intersucception v. Crohn‘s disease vi. Caecal tumors vii. Caecal diverticulitis viii. Meckel‘s
diverticulitis ix. Sigmoid volvulus
Other abdominal: i. Ovarian cyst/ Torsion of ovarian cyst ii. Ovarian abscess iii. Ectopic
pregnancy iv. Oophoritis v. Salpingitis vi. Renal colic vii. Psoas abscess viii. Rectus sheath
hematoma
Extra-abdominal: i. Lobar pneumonia ii. Herpes zoster
(g) Investigations
May be normal and are non diagnostic
(i) FBC
(ii) U/S
(iii)CT
(iv) Laparoscopy
(v) Gravid index in female
(h) Treatment
(i) Resuscitation (ii) Operation – Appendicectomy (iii)Drugs - Benzyl penicillin 2mu 6 hourly iv -
Metronidazole 500mg 8 hourly iv - Gentamycin 80mg 8 hourly iv
All these for five days.
ANSWERS:
(a) External fixator
(b) Indications
Fractures associated with severe soft-tissue damage where internal fixation is risky,
or to allow the wound to be left open for inspection, dressing or definitive coverage.
Severely comminuted and unstable fractures, which can be held out to length while
healing.
Patients with multiple severe fractures.
Fractures of the pelvis, which often cannot be controlled quickly by any other
method.
Fractures associated with major vessel damage.
Infected fractures, for which internal fixation might not be suitable.
Ununited fractures which require bone reconstruction
(c) ADVANTAGES
Less damage to blood supply of the bone
Minimal interference with soft tissue cover
Useful for stabilizing open fractures
Rigidity of fixation adjustable without surgery
Good options in situation with risk of infections
Quiet safe to use in cases of bone infections
(d) Complications of external fixation
Damage to soft-tissue structures by transfixing pins or wires. Nerves or vessels
may be inadvertently injured, or ligaments may be tethered. The surgeon must be
thoroughly familiar with the cross sectional anatomy before operating.
Over-distraction may prevent contact between the fragments, making union
unlikely.
Pin-track infection is unlikely with good operative technique; nevertheless,
meticulous pin-site care is essential, and antibiotics should be administered
immediately if infection occurs.
(e) Staphylococci epidermidis and s. aureus
STATION 20
(a) What is this?
(b) How do you classify open fractures?
(c) How do you manage open fractures?
ANSWERS:
(a) This is an open tibial fracture
(b) Gustillo-anderson classification
(c) Debridement and irrigation, ATT, antibiotics then fracture later
STATION 21
(a) Describe the apparatus?
(b) What are the Indications?
(c) What are the complication?
(d) What care is required?
ANSWERS:
(a) Tracheostomy
(b) Indications include:
1. Upper respiratory tract obstruction ( mechanical obstruction ):
Laryngeal obstruction: causes of stridor.
Supralaryngeal obstruction:
Retropharyngeal abscess.
Ludwig's angina.
Tumours of the tongue base.
Infralaryngeal obstruction:
Malignant thyroid.
Cellulitis in the neck.
2. Lower respiratory tract obstruction ( secretory obstruction ):
Any condition causing abolished or weak cough reflex leads to accumulation of
secretions inside the alveoli. This prevents gas exchange leading to hypoxia and acidosis.
The patient is said to be drowned in his own secretions.
(c) complications
1. Anaesthetic complications:
Shock from local anaestheisa (idiosyncrasy or overdosage).
2. Haemorrhage:
Primary hemorrhage: Occurs during operation. Treated by ligation or coagulation.
Reactionary hemorrhage: Occurs within the first 24 hours due to slipped ligature. Treated
by ligation.
Secondary hemorrhage: Occurs between the 5th and 10th day due to sepsis. Treated by
antibiotics and ligation.
3. Pulmonary complications:
Apnea: arrest of respiration due to sudden wash of CO2 after tracheostomy. The
respiratory centre fails because it has been accommodated on a high level of CO2.
Treatment: Close the tube for a while or give a mixture of O2 and CO2 10 %.
Pulmonary oedema: Intra-alveolar exudation causing noisy respiration, froth and
cyanosis. It occurs due to sudden drop of intra - alveolar pressure after opening the
trachea leading to increased capillary permeability and intra- alveolar exudation.
Treatment:Respiratory and cardiac stimulants and connect the tube to under water seal system
making expiration under pressure.
Pneumothorax: Due to injury of the pleura leading to entery of the air in the pleural
cavity. The right pleura apex is high, specially in children and females, and may by
injured during operation.
Treatment: Aspiration of the air through an intercostal needle and connected to under water seal.
Surgical emphysema: -
In the neck: It is air spreading under the skin. It occurs due to leakage of air from around
the tube if it is small in relation to a wide tracheal opening or tight closure of the wound.
Treatment: Remove the sutures of the wound and insert a suitable tracheostomy tube. Very
rarely, multiple skin incision may be needed.
In the mediastinum:
Air extending down to the mediastinum causing cardiac
embarrassment. It occurs due to forgetting to incise the pretracheal
fascia before opening the trachea.
4. Injury of important structures:
• Injury of blood vesseles causes haemorrhage.
• Injury of pleura causes pneumothorax.
• Injury of the cricoid cartilage in high tracheostomy leads to perichondritis
and permanent subglottic stenosis.
• Injury of oesophagus posteriorly by deep incision of trachea or by long
tube causes tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
5. Complications of tracheostomy tube: Fig. (29)
• Small tube leads to surgical emphysema.
• Long tube causes tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
• Obstructed tube by mucous or crustations causes stridor.
• Slipped tube specially in low tracheostomy causes stridor.
• Epithelialization of the site of the tube → tracheocutaneous fistula.
• Failure of decannulation due to laryngeal or tracheal stenosis.
2.Microscopy and gram stain RBCs, WBCs, crystals, May indicate infection or
bacteria renal disease
(f) Rigid cervical collar: stabilizing the neck in cervical spine injuries(prevents rotations)
.
STATION 24
(a) What can you see?
(b) What are the indications?
(c) How do you insert it?
(d) How do you remove it?
(e) What is the physiology behind it?
(f) What is the purpose of underwater seal drainage?
(g) How do you tell when it function?
(h) How do you tell when its active?
(i) How do you transfer the patient?
(j) What are the complications?
Answers:
(a) Underwater seal intercostal drainage: it is a closed chest drainage system used to
allow air and fluid to escape from the plural space with each exhalation and to prevent
their return flow with each inhalation
(b) Indications :
(i) Pleural effusion
Haemothorax
Chylothorax
Malignant/Recurrent pleural effusion
Empyema thoracis
(ii) Gas in Pleura
Pneumothorax
In any hypoventilated patient
Tension pneumothorax
Persistent recurrent pneumothorax
(iii)Post operations
Thoracotomy
Oesophagectomy
Cardiac surgery
(iv) Surprise content
Bowel/Gastric content
(c) The patient is placed in the lateral position with the unaffected side down, and the head of
the bed is inclined 10—15 degrees. The patient‘s arm on the affected side is extended
forward or above his or her head.
Triangle of safety – Anterior-lateral border of pectoralis major, posteriorly-mid axillary line
(anterior aspect of lattisimus dorsi), apex-just below the axilla, inferior-just below the nipple.
This is not reliable in female
With the skin prepared, 1% lidocaine is infiltrated over the 5th or 6th rib in the middle or
anterior axillary line.
A 2- to 3-cm transverse incision is made through the skin and subcutaneous tissue. A curved
clamp is used to bluntly dissect an oblique tract to the rib.
With careful spreading, the clamp is advanced over the top of the rib. The parietal pleura is
punctured with the clamp, and an efflux of air or fluid is usually encountered.
A finger introduced into the tract to ensure passage into the pleural space and to lyse any
adhesions at the point of entry.
With the clamp as a guide, the chest tube is introduced into the pleural space. It is directed
apically for pneumothorax and basally and posterior for dependent effusions.
A clamp placed at the free end of the chest tube prevents drainage from the chest until the
tube can be connected to a closed suction or water-seal system.
The chest tube is advanced until the last hole of the tube is clearly inside the thoracic cavity
When the tube is positioned properly and functioning adequately it is secured to the skin with
two heavy silk sutures and covered with an occlusive dressing to prevent air leaks. Some
surgeons place a U-stitch around the chest tube to be used as a purse-string suture when the
tube is removed.
A chest X-ray is obtained after the procedure to assess re-expansion of the lung and the tube
(d) Ask the patient to breath in and on end expiration pull the tube and occlude the insertion
site by tighten the suture
(e) Normally Negative intrapleural pressure keeps the lungs expand
In expiration it is about -8mmhg and in inspiration it is about -4mmhg
But this negative intrapleural pressure is disrupted when air, fluid or blood is in
the pleural cavity which leads to lung collapse
(f) Purposes:
To permit drainage of air and fluid from the pleural cavity
To establish normal negative pressure in the pleural cavity for lung expansion
To equalize pressure on both sides of the thoracic cavity
To provide continuous suction to prevent tension pneumothorax
(e) Investigation
(1) General
o FBC
o U/E‘s
o CXR
(2) Specific
- Barium swallow
- Endoscopy
- Biopsy
-Esophageal manometry (if none then Barium swallow)
(f) barium shows;
- Ca esophagus - rat tail sign, Irregular stricture and Shuldered margins
- Achalasia beak sign and Megaesophagus proximal to stricture
ANSWERS:
(a) On inspection:
1. There is Symmetry of the breasts and an obvious mass on the right breast
2. evident Skin changes and skin puckering on the right breast
3. Position and condition of the nipples, areola and no discharge from the nipples
(b) on palpation:
4. Site and size of the lump or lumps
Surgical
a. Lumpectomy
b. Quadrantectomy
c. Semi- mastectomy
d. Simple mastectomy + chemotherapy
e. Radical mastectomy
f. Modified radical mastectomy
STATION 27
a. look at the x-ray and say what you can see?
b. What is the likely diagnosis?
c. What are the predisposing factors for development of sigmoid volvulus?
d. what are types of sigmoid volvulus
e. What are the sites where volvulus may occur in the gastrointestinal tract?
f. What are the presentation of a patient with sigmoid volvulus?
g. what are the complications?
h. Apart from plain X-ray of abdomen what other investigations may help in sigmoid volvulus?
i. What is bird’s beak deformity?
j. How will you manage this patient of sigmoid volvulus?
k. What operation will you do?
l. If there is no signs of strangulation, what should be the management strategy?
ANSWERS:
(a) This is a straight X-ray of abdomen along with upper part of the pelvis taken in erect
posture showing a hugely distended large gut loop extending from the pelvis to the
upper abdomen.
(b) This is a typical X-ray appearance of sigmoid volvulus.
(c) The following factors are important for development of volvulus of sigmoid colon:
Bands
Long redundant sigmoid colon
Long pelvic mesocolon
narrow attachment of pelvic mesocolon
High residue diet and chronic constipation is also an important factor.
(d) Types:
i. Sub-acute
ii. Acute
iii. Compound
(e) Sites:
Sigmoid colon
cecum
Transverse colon
Small intestine
Stomach.
(f) Presentation: „ Abdominal pain „ Distension„ constipation „ There may be similar
history of pain and distension earlier, Vomiting – late, Tympanic, Fever due to abs
infection and Dehydration
(g) Complication
i. Strangulation
ii. Gangrene
iii. Perforation
iv. Hemorrhage
v. Dehydration
vi. Shock
vii. Electrolytes imbalance
(h) If the clinical evaluation of the patient reveals that there are signs of strangulation, no
further imaging investigations are required.
If there are no signs of strangulation and the features are of subacute obstruction the
following investigations may be helpful:
Contrast enema: A contrast enema using water soluble contrast gastrograffin
may be done.The important findings in contrast enema may be:
• In pseudo-obsruction—the dye flows freely into the cecum.
• In sigmoid volvulus—bird's beak sign.
• In neoplastic obstruction—a shouldered cut off sign.
The contrast media is hyperosmolar and draws fluid into the lumen of the colon,
softening the inspissated fecal matter and allowing it to pass through the obstruction
thereby relieving the obstruction.
Ultrasonography of abdomen—not very helpful in diagnosis of large bowel
obstruction.USG may provide information if there is a palpable mass in
abdomen, or if there is hepatic metastasis.
CT scan of abdomen—Very useful in localizing the site of obstruction. The
palpable mass may be delineated well and any invasion of bowel mass to the
surrounding structures may be demonstrated. Lymph nodes and liver
metastasis may be seen well. May also visualize small quantity of free gas in
the peritoneal cavity.
CT colonography—Provides a three dimensional endoluminal image of the
entire colon and can diagnose any intraluminal lesion better. Any
synchronous tumor may be diagnosed.
MR colonography—May provide information like cT colonography.
(i) bird’s beak deformity is the column of water soluble or barium contrast stops at the
obstruction and tapers to a point.
(j) If strangulation is suspected and there are signs of peritoneal irritation—reduction
should not be attempted and patient should undergo emergency laparotomy after
resuscitation.
(k) Operation:
„ Exploratory laparotomy and derotation of the volvulus.
„ The condition of the gut is assessed—
• If the gut is gangrenous, resection has to be done and if the patient's general
condition is good, a primary anastomosis may be safely done.
„ If patient's general condition is very poor, other options are:
• Hartmann's procedure—The proximal end after resection is brought out as
colostomy and the distal end of colon is closed, which is reanastomosed at a later
date.
• Proximal loop brought out as colostmy and distal loop brought out as a
mucous fistula
If the gut is viable a primary resection anastomosis of the sigmoid colon may
be safely done.
(l) non-operative decompression may be tried:
Pushing a soft rubber catheter beyond the point of volvulus if successful,
decompression may occur.
Decompression of the volvulus by passing a rigid sigmoidoscope beyond the
point of volvulus.
Decompression may also be achieved by passing a flexible sigmoidoscope
beyond the point of volvulus.
STATION 28
A 40-year-male patient sustained road traffic accident and brought to ER with suspicion
of head injury.
(a) How will you proceed to manage?
(b) How will you assess level of consciousness in a patient with head injury?
(c) How do you classify head injury?
(d) How does a patient with HI present?
(e) What is cerebral concussion?
(f) What are the features of cerebral contusion?
(g) What investigations will you suggest in patients with head injury?
(h) What is extradural hematoma?
(i) What are the features of extradural hematoma?
(j) What investigations may help in diagnosis of extradural hematoma (EDH)?
(k) How will you treat EDH?
(l) What are the features of subdural hematoma?
(m)What investigations may help in diagnosis of SDH?
(n) How will you treat acute subdural hematoma?
ANSWERS:
(a) The initial management of patient with head injury will include:
Primary survey and resuscitation
Secondary survey.
Definitive management.
(b) This is done by Glasgow coma scale. This needs to be recorded hourly to monitor any
deterioration during the period of observation. The coma scale involves evaluation of
following:
Eye opening (E):
Spontaneously – 4.
To speech – 3.
To pain – 2.
Nil – 1.
Motor response (M):
Obeys commands – 6.
Localizes pain – 5.
Withdraws to pain – 4.
Abnormal flexion – 3.
Extension to pain – 2.
No response – 1.
(e) Cerebral concussion is a condition of temporary dysfunction of brain without any structural
damage following head injury. The manifestations are transient and usually resolves after a
variable period. The manifestations includes:
- Transient loss of consciousness.
- Transient loss of memory.
- Autonomic dysfunction like bradycardia, hypotension and sweating.
(f) Cerebral contusion is a more severe degree of brain injury manifested by areas of
hemorrhage in the brain parenchyma but without any surface laceration. There is
neurological deficit that persist longer than 24 hours. There may be associated cerebral
edema and defects in blood-brain barrier. Contusion may resolve after a variable time
along with associated neurological deficit or the neurological deficit may be persistent.
(g) Investigations:
„„ Baseline investigations.
„„ Special investigations:
• X-ray of skull—AP and lateral view.
• Plain X-ray may show fracture, foreign bodies or air in the cranial cavity.
„„ X-ray of cervical spine—AP and lateral view. May show fracture and dislocation.
„„ CT scan brain. The indications of CT scan in head injury are:
• History of loss of consciousness or patient is unconscious.
• Patient has disturbance of memory.
• Presence of neurological deficit.
• CSF leakage.
• Pupillary asymmetry.
• Penetrating injury.
„„ CT scan may show:
• Skull fracture
• Intracranial hematomas (Intracerebral, subdural or extradural)
• Midline shift
• Cerebral edema
• Cerebral contusion.
Sometimes CT scan immediately after injury may be normal and hematoma develop
hours after the injury. So serial CT scan may be required in patients who are deteriorating
during observation.
(h) Extradural hematoma is collection of blood between the cranial bones and the dura
matter is called extradural hematoma. The extradural hematoma causes increase in
intracranial pressure, distortion and herniation of brain with compression of brainstem.
The source of bleeding may be:
o Rupture of the middle meningeal artery due to fracture of the temporal
bone.
o Fracture bone edges.
o Tearing of dural venous sinuses.
STATION 29
(a) Look at the picture below and say what it is?
(b) What is the scientific name?
(c) What deformities are there?
(d) How do you diagnose it?
(e) What do you use to score the severity?
(f) How to you treat it?
ANSWERS:
(a) Club foot
(b) Congenital talipes equino-varus
(c) Club foot is associated with the following deformities:
1. Hind foot
-Equinus (Ankle joint)
-Varus (Subtalar joint)
2. Fore foot
-Adduction (Med tarsal joint)
-Cavus
(d)Diagnosis:
o You can diagnose it in utero by u/s
o Clinically:
-Empty heel
-Equinus
-Posterior crease
-Medial crease/s
-Talus head palpable laterally
-Curve of lateral border
(e) The pirani score is used to measure the severity of club foot.
-each component may score 0, 0.5, 1
Hind foot contracture score
1. posterior crease
2. empty heel
3. rigid equinus
Mid foot contracture score
1. medial crease
2. curvature of lateral border
3. position of head of talus
-
(f) Treatment is:
1. Conservative/non –surgical
- Serial plaster casting from birth called ponsenti method is done
- 1st week cavus is corrected, 2nd week adduction is corrected,
- 3rd, 4th and 5th the varus is corrected
- Then the equinus is corrected via PTAT
2. Surgical intervention
STATION 30. Look at the image below
(a)What type of investigation is this?
(b)What is your diagnosis?
(c) What are the causes?
(d) How is the patient going to present?
(e) How are you going to manage this patient?
ANSWERS:
(a) Retrograde urethrogram
(b) Urethral strictures
(c) Causes: May be congenital or acquired
o Urethral injury, disease, catheterization or surgery that results in
inflammation or scar tissue.
o Urethral infections, such as gonorrhea.
o A tumor in the urethra (rarely)
o A complication of radiation treatment of the pelvis
(d) Presentation:
o Dysuria.
o Hematuria.
o Weak stream.
o Splaying of the urine stream.
o Nocturia.
o Incomplete emptying.
o Pain with bladder distention.
o Urinary tract infection (fever and malaise may be present with a urinary
tract infection.
(e) Treatment :
1. Optical urethrotomy—suitable for short segment urethral stricture.
2. Urethral dilatation
3. Urethroplasty
STATION 31
(a) Take a history of urinary obstruction symptoms from the examiner
(b) What are the possible differential diagnosis
(c) Which investigations may help in diagnosis?
(d) How will you plan definitive treatment?
ANSWERS:
(a) Hx taking:
ASK FOR AGE
ANY DYSURIA / SUPRA-PUBIC / PERINEAL / LOIN PAIN
FREQUENCY OF URINATION INCLUDING AT NIGHT
STATE OF THE STEAM OF URINE
EFFECT OF STRAINING ON THE STREAM
ANY RETENTION OF URINE IN THE PAST
ANY HESITANCY / URGENCY IN PASSING URINE
ANY URINARY INCONTINENCE OR POST MICTURATION DRIBBLING
ANY HAEMATURIA
ANY LUMP IN HYPOGASTRIUM OR LOIN.
HISTORY OF TRAUMA OR URETHRAL INSTRUMENTATION.
HISTORY OF OPERATION OR SPINAL ANESTHESIA.
DRUG HISTORY: SOME ANTIHYPERTENSIVE DRUGS (GANGLION
BLOCKING DRUGS), ANTICHOLINERGIC DRUGS OR
ANTIDEPRESSANT DRUGS MAY CAUSE RETENTION.
ANY SYSTEMIC SYMPTOMS DUE TO UNDERLYING MALIGNANT
DISEASE—ANOREXIA, ASTHENIA, WEIGHT LOSS, BONE PAIN.
(b) Possible differential diagnosis:
1. Bladder outlet obstruction due to:
• Benign hyperplasia of prostate.
• Carcinoma of prostate.
• Prostatic abscess or prostatitis.
• Carcinoma of bladder.
• Bladder stone.
• Bladder neck muscular hypertrophy.
• Bladder neck fibrosis.
2. Urethral causes:
• Stricture.
• Calculus.
• Tumors
• Urethritis.
3. Others:
• Rupture urethra following trauma.
• Meatal stenosis.
• Phimosis.
• Fecal impaction.
• Spinal injury.
• Postoperative especially after perianal operation.
• Following spinal anesthesia.
4. Drugs:
Anticholinergics.
Antihypertensives.
Tricyclic antidepressants
(c) The special investigation will be guided by findings of history and physical
examination.
For evaluation of prostatic enlargement:
• Ultrasonography of kidney ureter and bladder region.
• Transrectal ultrasonography.
• Urodynamics study.
• Serum prostate specific antigen.
For evaluation of bladder or urethral lesion:
• Micturating cystourethrography.
• Cystoscopy and urethroscopy
(d) The definitive treatment depends on the cause of retention.
Benign enlargement of prostate: Treatment may be:
• Drug treatment: Two classes of drugs are used for treatment of bladder outlet
obstruction.
−Alpha adrenergic blocking drugs (Finasteride): Inhibits contraction of smooth muscles of prostate.
−5 alpha reductase inhibitor (Terazosin): Inhibits conversion of testosterone to 5 dihydrotestosterone
(5 DHT).
−Tamulosin hydrochloride is also effective in relieving symptoms due to BPH.
Both these drugs improve flow rate and also cause shrinkage of the glands.
Drug of treatment is indicated when:
»» Symptoms are mild.
»» Patient with severe symptoms but surgery cannot be done for medical problems.
»» These drugs are expensive and a significant number of patients require surgical
treatment afterwards.
• Surgical treatment: Transurethral resection of prostate or open prostatectomy.
„„ Carcinoma of prostate:
• Early stage (Tl and T2 tumors): Radical prostatectomy along with pelvic lymph node
dissection.
• Advance disease with urinary retention: Transurethral resection of prostate followed by
hormone therapy.
• Radiotherapy: Radical radiotherapy to prostatic bed and pelvic lymph node is an alternative
option of treatment for localized disease. For disseminated disease radiotherapy has no role.
• Hormone treatment: Androgen ablation is indicated in patients with locally advanced or
metastatic disease.
−− Androgen ablation by drugs:
»» Phosphorylated diethylstilbestrol (Honvan).
»» Progestogens—Depo provera.
»» LHRH agonist (Goserelin)—down regulates pituitary and suppresses LH production,
thereby reducing serum testosterone concentration.
»» Flutamide—blocks the androgen receptor.
»» Cyproterone acetate blocks androgen receptor and also has some progestogenic effect.
»» Androgen ablation by bilateral orchiectomy.