1.

An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the
Interior and Local Government and for Other Purposes,” gave way to the creation of the
country's police force that is national in scope and civilian in character. It is administered and
controlled by the National Police Commission.
a. R.A 6975
b. R.A 8551
c. R.A 7456
d. Act 4864

2. A graduate of the U.S. Military Academy, a regular captain but then a Lieutenant Colonel of
the U.S. Cavalry Volunteers in the Philippines officially designated and confirms by the
Commission as Chief of Constabulary in 1901.
a. Howard Taft
b. Henry T. Allen
c. Lapu-Lapu
d. Marcos

3. “Philippine National Police Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998,” the PNP was
envisioned to be a community and service oriented agency. As mandated by law, the PNP
activated the Internal Affairs Service (IAS) on June 1, 1999. It is an organization within the
structure of the PNP, and it is headed by Inspector General.
a. R.A 6975
b. R.A 8551
c. R.A 7456
d. Act 4864

4. By the coming of the Spaniards, the country’s police system started. The police were then
called____
a. Guardillo
b. Guardia civil
c. Safe guard
d. Manpowers

5. In 1852, it took over the peace keeping duties in the island under a Royal Decree.
a. Guardillo
b. Guardia civil
c. Safe guard
d. Manpowers

6. Manila Police was formally organized by virtue of what actof the Philippine Commission.?
a. Act no. 433
b. Act no. 413
c. Act no. 175
d. Act no. 987

7. When was Manila Police was formally organized?

a. Dec. 3, 1900
b. Jan. 9, 1901
c. Dec. 4, 1903
d. Mar. 6, 1967

8. He was appointed PC Chief in December 1917. Thus, for the first time in sixteen (16) years of
existence, the Constabulary was placed under Filipino leadership.
a. Taft
b. Henry T. Allen
c. Brig. Gen. Rafael T. Crame
d. Marcos

9. He issued an Executive Order creating all insular police called Military Police Command,
USAFFE pursuant to USAFFE General Orders Nos. 50 & 51, re-designated it as Military Police
Command, AFWESPAC. This idea was conceived to restore the bad image of the Constabulary
during the Japanese occupation when these constables were made to run after the guerrillas.
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. ElpidioQuirino
c. Sergio Osmeña
d. DiosdadoMacapagal

10. The Administrative Code of the Philippines, promulgated on____________, provided for the
constitution of police forces in every cities and municipalities with the officers and members
thereof being appointed by the Mayors with the consent of the City or Municipal Council. Under
this set-up the police are primarily a political entity that tended to serve the wills of those in
power.
a. October 4, 1990
b. August 5, 1903
c. September 10, 1955
d. January 4, 1978

11. Known as the Police Act of 1966 was enacted, by virtue of which, National Police
Commission was created, vested with the power to supervise and control the police forces all
over the country. Under this act the administration, control and disciplinary measures, including
training of each member are placed under the exclusive jurisdiction of the NAPOLCOM.

a. R.A 6975
b. R.A 8551
c. R.A 7456
d. R.A 4864

12. He proclaimed Martial Law throughout the country by virtue of Proclamation No. 1081, and
subsequently Presidential Decree No. 765 was put into effect on August 8, 1975.
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. ElpidioQuirino
c. Ferdinand Marcos
d. DiosdadoMacapagal

13. “The state shall establish and maintain one police force, which shall be national in scope and
civilian in character, to be administered and controlled by the NAPOLCOM. The authority of
local executives over the police units in their respective jurisdiction shall be provided by the law
a. Sec. 6, Art XVI in the 1987 Constitution
b. Sec 3, ART X in the 1935 Constitution
c. Sec 6, Art XI in the 1987 Constitution
d. Sec 6, Art XVIII in the 1987 Constitution

14. It is a form of human association for the attainment of a goal or objective. It is the process of
identifying and grouping the work to be performed, defining and delegating responsibility and
authority establishing relationships for the purpose of enabling people work effectively.
a. Administration
b. Organization
c. Police Organization
d. Management

15. Is a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace and order,
protection of life and property, enforcement of the laws and the prevention of crimes?
a. Administration
b. Organization
c. Police Organization
d. Management

16. Which is not belonging to the functional units?

a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section

17. Which is not belonging to the territorial units?

a. Post
b. Beat
c. area
d. unit

18. Functional group within a section; or the smallest functional group within an organization.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. area
d. unit

19. The largest organic functional unit within a large department. It comprises of numbers of
divisions
a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section

20. Functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization

a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section

21. Primary subdivision of a bureau

a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section

22. A section or territorial division of a large city each comprised of designated districts.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. area
d. unit

23. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. Sector
d. District

24. An area containing two or more beats, routes, or posts.

a. Post
b. Beat
c. Sector
d. District

25. An area assigned for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.

a. Post
b. Beat
c. Sector
d. District

26. A length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is also called LINE BEAT
a. Post
b. Route
c. Sector
d. District
27. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk
or office or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty. It is a spot location for general guard
duty.
a. Post
b. Route
c. Sector
d. District

28. It is usually a written communication unless otherwise specifies to be verbal; verbal should
be confirmed by written communication.
a. Data
b. Record
c. Report
d. Files

29. An instruction given by a ranking officer to a subordinate.

a. command
b. required
c. order
d. direction

30. All personnel of the police department who have oath and who possess the power to arrest.
a. Arresting officer
b. Officer in charge
c. Sworn officer
d. power officer

31. One having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over officers of
lower rank.
a. Supervisor
b. Superior officer
c. Superintendent
d. Chief

32. An officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an area, or a district.
a. Superior officer
b. Commanding officer
c. Ranking officer
d. Chief officer

33. The officer who has the more senior rank/higher rank in a team or group.

a. Superior officer
b. Commanding officer
c. Ranking officer
d. Chief officer

34. The period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was administered. Previous active
services may be included or added.
a. length of service
b. service oriented
c. service period
d. police service

35. The period when an officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
a. off duty
b. on duty
c. present duty
d. 24 hours duty

36. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty.
a. off duty
b. on duty
c. free time duty
d. 24 hours at home

37. The police service, its nature, which requires that the officer be excused from the
performance of his active regular duty.
a. Special duty
b. Sick leave
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter

38. Period, which an officer is excused from active duty by any valid/acceptable reason,
approved by higher authority.
a. Valid excuse
b. Leave of absence
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter

39. Period which an officer is excused from active duty by reason of illness or injury.
a. Disability excused duty
b. Sick leave
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter

40. A consequence of an act which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of
performing his duties as result of violating directives or other department regulations.
a. Consequence duty deprivation
b. Suspension
c. Deprivation duty
d. Temporary off duty

41. Rules established by department directors/supervisors to control the conduct of the members
of the police force.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d. Duty manual

42. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specified post or
position.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d. Duty manual

43. Which is not belonging to the following orders by ranking officer?

a. General order
b. Special order
c. Court order
d. Personal order

44. The straight line organization, often called the individual, military or departmental type of
organization.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

45. Rarely found in present day organizations, except at or near the top of the very large
organizations.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

46. The simplest and perhaps the oldest type; but it is seldom encountered in its channels of
authority and responsibility extends in a direct line from top to bottom within the structures,
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

47. Combination of the line and functional types. It combines staff specialist such as the
criminalists, the training officers, the research and development specialists, etc.
a. Staff organization
b. Line and staff organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

48. Authority is definite and absolute.

a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

49. Limited to the particular activity over which he has control, regardless of who performs the
function.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

50. Channels of responsibility is to “think and provide expertise” for the line units.
a. Staff organization
b. Line and staff organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

51. It also has some inherent weaknesses which, for many organizations, make its use
impractical. Perhaps its greatest advantage is that, it is utterly simple.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

52. It involves a division of the work into units of eighth person with a person in charge who has
complete control and who can be hold directly responsible or accountable for results, or lack of
them.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

53. It combines staff specialist or units with line organization so that service of knowledge can
be provided line personnel by specialist.
a. Staff organization
b. Line and staff organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization

54. The “backbone” of the police department.

a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

55. Those operations designed to support the line functions.

a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

56. The logistical operations of the department.

a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

57. These include training, communications, jailing, maintenance, record keeping, motor
vehicles, and similar operations.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

58. They include such operations as patrol, criminal investigation, and traffic control, as well as
supervision of the personnel performing those operations.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

59. Patrol officer, the detective, the sergeant, the lieutenant, the captain, and the chief of police.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members

60. Advisors who are typically assigned to planning, research, legal advice, budgeting, and
educational services.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members

61. Carrying out the majors’ purposes of the police department.

a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members

62. Delivering the services provided by the department.

a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members

63. Often civilians with specialized training who serve within the department but do not deal
with daily operations on the street.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members

64. Their main function is to study police policies and practices and to offer proposals to the
chief executive of the department.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

65. Highly specialized, involved in an advisory capacity. Detached from the public and not
directly responsible for the decisions made by department executive.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

66. Dealing directly with the department’s clientele. Making final decisions with respect to the
activities they perform.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members

67. The grouping of activities and segregation of line, staff, and auxiliary functions are large-
scale examples.
a. Line functions
b. Specialization
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
68. Important in all organizations, since it must be expected that some members will know more,
perform better and contribute more in one area of activity than in others, Disparities in job ability
among persons may be the result of physical attributes, mental aptitude, skills, interests
education, training, motivation, or adaptation, among other factors.
a. Line functions
b. Specialization
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions

69. The norms and values that characterize a culture.

a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces

70. The ideas behind the concept of a market economy such as private ownership of property,
economic freedom, competitive markets and a limited role for government.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces

71. Governmental regulations play significant role in how organizations choose to manage
themselves.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces

72. Influenced management theory in areas such as motivation and leadership.

a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces

73. Influenced management theory in the areas of environmental analysis, planning, control,
organization design and employee rights.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces

74. If all persons within an organization were given the freedom to do what they like and to
refuse to do what they dislike, there would be little likelihood of accomplishment.
a. Hierarchy of authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

75. The maximum number of subordinates at a given position that superior can supervise
effectively.
a. Span of Control
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

76. The right to command and control the behavior of employees in lower positions within an
organizational hierarchy.
a. Authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

77. Any collaborative effort such as that in a police department thus requires a system of checks
and controls on individual behavior. Hence, the department must have a person or persons with
authority to direct the actions of workers and ensure compliance with standards in order to
achieve the department’s goals.
a. Hierarchy of authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

78. The formal relationship among superiors and subordinates in any given organization.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control

79. It can be illustrated by the situation in which a subordinate abstains from making his or her
choice among several courses of action and instead automatically accepts the choice made by the
supervisor regardless of whether one personally agrees.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control

80. Effective organization requires that only a manageable number of subordinates be supervised
by one person at any given time.
a. Span of Control
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
81. It can be visualized as a ladder, with each rankrepresenting a higher or lower level of
authority.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control

82. A hierarchy thus serves as the framework for the flow of authority downward and obedience
upward through the department.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control

83. Any particular position of the ladder is expected to direct and control the activities of the
ranks, while obeying the directions and instructions received from higher ranks.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control

84. This number will, of course, vary not only from one organization to another depending on
each organization’s definition of “effective supervision” but also within each organization
depending on the number of task and the size of personnel available at a given time.
a. Span of Control
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

85. The conferring of an amount of authority by a superior position onto a lower-level position.
a. Delegation
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

86. The process of sharing understanding and information on common subjects. More precisely,
it is an intercourse between, through or more people by means of words, letters symbols, or
gestures for the purpose of exchanging information.
a. Procedure
b. Communication
c. Globalization
d. Bluetooth

87. These are the essential to effective communication within such large organization. Except
a. Procedure
b. Channels
c. Standardized language
d. Rapport

88. The backbone of any organizational structure.

a. Delegation
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

89. The person to whom authority is delegated becomes responsible to the superior for doing the
assigned job. However, they remain accountable for accomplishment of the job within the
guidelines and quality standards of the agency.
a. Delegation of authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command

90. Organizations that are highly structured.

a. Formal organizations
b. Proper organization
c. Informal organization
d. Good organization

91. Organizations that are those without structure.

a. Formal organizations
b. Proper organization
c. Informal organization
d. Good organization

92. Which statement is true?

a. The police organization are governed by only principle of unity of command
b. No formal or informal police organization governed by principles.
c. Every formal police organization whether small or large are governed by principles.
d. Every police organization has few principles.

93. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an unbroken chain of units
from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle

94. Organization is effective if it enables the individuals to contribute to the organization’s

objectives.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle

95. Organization structure is effective if it is structured in such a way to aid the accomplishment
of the organization’s objectives with a minimum cost.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle

96. This is the scalar principle.

a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command
e. All of the above

97. This principle of organization suggests that communications should ordinarily go upward
through established channels in the hierarchy. Diverting orders, directives, or reports around a
level of command usually has disastrous effects on efficiency of the organization.
a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command

98. A supervisor over personnel or units shall not mean more than what he can effectively direct
and coordinate. In span of control, levels of authority shall be kept to a minimum.
a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command

99. Shall carry with it a commensurate authority and the person to whom the authority is
delegated shall be held accountable therefore. It implies that delegation must carry with it
appropriate responsibility.
a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command

100. Explains that subordinates should only be under the control of one superior.
a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command
101. Division of work according to type, place, time and specialization.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results

102. System of varied functions arrange into a workable pattern. The line organization is
responsible for the direct accomplishment of the objectives while the staff is responsible for
support, advisory or facilitative capacity.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results

103. The main traditional purpose of the police.

a. To protect the celebrities
b. To protect the authority or the government
c. To protect the president only
d. To protect the property

104. The application of principles must be balanced to ensure the effectiveness of the structure
in meeting organization’s objectives.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results

105. Police organization is effective and efficient.

a. The police is 24 hours duty
b. The more people arrested and thrown in jail
c. The more victims of crime
d. Crime prevention
106. Authority delegated should be adequate to ensure the ability to accomplish expected results.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results

107. Explains that the responsibility of the subordinates to their superior for performance is
absolute and the superior cannot escape responsibility for the organization on activities
performed by their subordinates.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principles of Absoluteness of Responsibility
d. Principle of delegation by results
108. Role of police that focused on solving crimes.
a. Traditional
b. Community
c. National
d. International

109. Explains that responsibility for action cannot be greater than that implied by the authority
delegated nor should it be less.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of Parity and Responsibility

110. Implies that decisions within the authority of the individual commander should be made by
them and not be returned upward in the organizational structure.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Authority Level Principle

111. The more flexible the organization, the more it can fulfill its purpose.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of Flexibility
d. Principle of delegation by results

112. The role of police that focused on crime control.

a. Traditional
b. Community
c. National
d. International

113. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is S?

a. Salute
b. Special
c. Situation
d. Smart

114. A piece or pad of blotting papers of a book in which transaction happenings are noted
before being permanently recorded.
a. Police blotter
b. Police report
c. Police handbook
d. Blotter
115. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is C?
a. Cooperation
b. Conduct
c. Command/Control
d. Cops

116. The book of records, public records which every police station/officer is mandated to
possess for future reference.
a. Police blotter
b. Police report
c. Police handbook
d. Blotter

117. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is M.E.A?

a. Management, Exercise, Action
b. Mission, Execution, Administration/Equipment
c. Must, Exercise, Action
d. Management, Execution, Administration

118. The force should be organized primarily according to the nature of the basis to be
performed. It should be divided into groups so that similar and related duties may be assigned to
each.
a. According to function
b. According to level of authority
c. According to time frame
d. According to place of work

119. The elements are divided into many shifts or watches according to the time of the day. This
is the most elementary form of police organization. Any large functional unit can also be
organized according to time if the demand exists.
a. According to function
b. According to level of authority
c. According to time frame
d. According to place of work

120. A territorial distribution of a platoon, accomplished by assigning patrolman on beats, is

necessary to facilitate the direction and control of the officers and to ensure suitable patrol
service at every point within the jurisdiction. Patrolman on street duty is usually under the
supervision of a patrol sergeant. When the number of patrolmen is great, it may be desirable to
divide them into squads assigned to specific sectors of jurisdiction, with a sergeant in charge of
each squad.
a. According to function
b. According to level of authority
c. According to time frame
d. According to place of work
121. A police department is always divided according to the level of authority. Example, there
will be some patrolmen, sergeants, some lieutenants, some captains, and so on. Vertical
combinations of superior officers, with each rank at a different level of authority from any other,
from channels through which operations may be directed and controlled can be adopted in
certain cases to ensure coordination.
a. According to function
b. According to level of authority
c. According to time frame
d. According to place of work

122. Work specialization can increase efficiency with the same amount of effort.
a. Discipline
b. Unity of Command
c. Division of Work
d. Centralization

123. Compensation should be fair to both the employee and the employer.
a. Discipline
b. Unity of Command
c. Remuneration of personnel
d. Centralization

124. Employees should be treated with kindness and justice.

a. Equity
b. Unity of Command
c. Remuneration of personnel
d. Centralization

125. The objective is to pursue the optimum utilization of the capabilities of personnel.
a. Discipline
b. Unity of Command
c. Division of Work
d. Centralization

126. How many deputy chiefs that will assist the Chief PNP?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5
d. 1

127. Power to supervise and control the police forces all over the country.
a. NBI
b. NAPOLCOM
c. AFP
d. Legislative
128. Equivalent rank of Director General in AFP ranks?
a. Director
b. General
c. Brigadier General
d. Deputy director

129. How many directorial staff in PNP organization?

a. 13
b. 10
c. 15
d. 16

130. What is the AFP rank of PO1?

a. Private
b. Private first class
c. Sergeant
d. Corporal

131. What is the AFP rank of SPO1?

a. Private
b. Private first class
c. Sergeant
d. Corporal

132. How many administrative units of PNP organization?

a. 13
b. 11
c. 12
d. 15

133. The process of setting performance objectives and identifying the actions needed to
accomplish them.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling

134. The process of directing and coordinating the work efforts of other people to help them
accomplish the task.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling

135. What is the AFP rank of Inspector?

a. Captain
b. Major
c. Lieutenant
d. Master Sergeant

136. The process of dividing work to be done and coordinating results to achieve desired purpose
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling

137. How many operational units in PNP organization?

a. 13
b. 11
c. 12
d. 15

138. What is the AFP rank of superintendent?

a. Colonel
b. Lieutenant colonel
c. General
d. Brigadier general

139. An act extending for five years the reglementary period for complying with the minimum
educational qualification for appointment to the PNP and adjusting the promotion system thereof
is amending for the purpose pertinent provisions of R.A 6975 and R.A. 8551 and for other
purposes.
a. Act no. 175
b. R.A 6507
c. R.A 9708
d. Act no. 768

140. A law for honor students

a. P.D 093
b. P.D 907
c. R.A 6507
d. R.A 6506

141. Police-to-population ratio in highly urbanized cities.

a. 1:500 to 700
b. 1: 650 to 800
c. 1:750 to 1000
d. 1: 850 to 1050

142. Board and Bar examination.

a. P.D 093
b. R.A 1080
c. R.A 6507
d. R.A 6506

143. Police-to-population ratio in component cities.

a. 1:500 to 700
b. 1: 650 to 800
c. 1:750 to 1000
d. 1: 850 to 1050

144. What is the AFP rank of SPO2?

a. Captain
b. Major
c. Staff sergeant
d. Master Sergeant

145. Police-to-population ratio in municipalities.

a. 1:500 to 700
b. 1: 650 to 800
c. 1:750 to 1000
d. 1: 850 to 1050

146. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of.
a. 1:500
b. 1: 650
c. 1:750
d. 1: 850

147. Who will head the five (5) Police District Offices (PDO) of the National Capital Region
(NCR)?
a. Director general
b. District director
c. Regional director
d. Provincial director

148. Who will head the Police Provincial Office (PPO) corresponding to all provinces
throughout the country?
a. Director general
b. District director
c. Regional director
d. Provincial director

149. Who will head City/Provincial Public Safety Company (C/PPSC)?

a. Director general
b. District director
c. Regional director
d. Group director

150. Who shall have the command and direction over City Police Office (CPO) of highly
urbanized cities outside of NCR?
a. Director general
b. District director
c. Regional director
d. Group director
 CRIMINOLOGY LICENSURE EXAMINATION
SAMPLE QUESTIONNAIRE

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examination is;
a. RA 2260 c. RA 6040
b. RA 4864 d. RA 6141

2. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is;
a. 4 years c. 6 years
b. 5 years d. 7 years

3. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional Director is ;
a. 4 years c. 6 years
b. 5 years d. 9 years

4. The end product resulting from evaluation analysis, integration and interpretation of
information is called
a. Police Intelligence c. Intelligence
b. Military Intelligence d. Undercover Intelligence

5. The Law that provides for the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine National Police.
a. RA 6975 c. RA 8551
b. RA 4864 d. RA 6141

6. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction
of the regional Trial Court?
a. Inquest proceeding c. Preliminary conference
b. Preliminary investigation d. Search and Seizure

7. When does the court acquire jurisdiction over a case filed by the law enforcement agencies?
a. the moment the case is filed with the fiscal office
b. the moment that it is filed with the court
c. the moment that the trial or the case begins
d. the moment that the parties presents their evidence

8. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by law is the
protection against self-incrimination and right is found on the grounds of ;
a. public policy and morality d. humanity and conscience
b. public policy and humanity e. all of the above
c. humanity kindness

9. What rule or doctrine in criminal jurisprudence requires mandatory pre-interrogation

warnings concerning self-incrimination and the right to counsel of the suspect.
a. Doctrine of the First of the Poisonous Tree
b. Doctrine on the Presumption of Innocence
c. Rule of Law
d. Miranda Doctrine
 e. Due Process Law

10. Miranda Law is a law that is applied to every citizen. This is otherwise known also as;
a. RA 6975 d. The Philippine 1987 Constitution
b. RA 8551 e. The Rules of Court
c. RA 7438

11. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?

a. Mens Rea d. Magna Culpa
b. Inflagrante Deleto e. Mala Vise
c. Gamacta

12. In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it is to be
accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action.
a. operations c. management
b. planning d. administration

13. A standard operating procedures, that is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds,
and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field.
a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. field procedures d. characteristics of plans

14. A standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the duties of
dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty
manual.
a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. field procedures d. operational plans

15. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special divisions like, patrol, traffic,
vice, and juvenile delinquency control.
a. Policies or procedures c. tactical plans
b. Operational plans d. extra-office plans

16. A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific situations at known
locations, such plans for dealing with an attack against building with alarm systems and an
attack against. Headquarters of the PNP.
a. tactical plans c. management plans
b. extra-office plans d. operational plans

17. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in the organization,
management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money,
etc.
a. management of plans c. operational plans
b. extra-office plans d. characteristics of plans

18. A step in planning, that calls for identification of the problem, understanding both records
and its possible solution; a situation must exit for which something must and can be done.
a. collecting all pertinent facts c. analyzing the facts
b. clarifying the problems d. developing alternative plans
19. A steps in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to develop a plan until all facts
relating to it have been gathered.
a. collecting all pertinent facts c. developing alternative plans
b. analyzing the facts d. selecting the most appropriate alternative

20. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been gathered, a careful
study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan or plans are
evolved.
a. developing alternative plans c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
b. developing the facts d. selling the plan

21. One of the steps in planning, where a careful consideration of facts usually leads to the
selection of a best alternative proposals.
a. analyzing the facts
b. selecting the most appropriate alternative
a. selling the plan
b. arranging for the execution of the plan.

22. One step in planning, that is necessary in order to know whether a correct alternative was
chosen, whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was poorly implemented, and
whether additional planning may be necessary.
a. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
b. arranging for the execution of the plan
c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
d. selling the plan

23.What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National
Police and its units subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other law
enforcement agencies of the government?
a. Police Executive Training c. Business – like Activity
b. Coordination and Cooperation d. Socialization

24. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community
through protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the
apprehension of criminals, the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of
conduct, and performing necessary services and inspections is;
a. Traffic Division c. Theft and Robbery Division
b. Patrol Force d. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
25.The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that involves one or both
of the elements namely;
a. motor vehicles and traffic way c. motor vehicle and victim
b. victim and traffic way d. victim and traffic unit

26. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law
enforcement is;
a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
b. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
c. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
27. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen automobile license plates. The
best reason for this practice is to;
a. permit the promote issuance of new plate
b. prevent cards from being stolen
c. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
d. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates.

28. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to;

a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
b. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes
c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident as a cause
d. look for the “key event” that cause the accident

29. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is

a. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
b. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
c. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
d. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for future violation

30. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how
the accident happened?
a. hole on the road pavement
b. the driver under the influence of liquor
c. point of impact
d. vehicle has break failure

31.A system of coordinated activities, group of people, authority and leadership and cooperation
towards a goal is called:
a. Formal Organizations b. Informal Organizations
c. Administration d. All of the above

32.An indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite subdivision and comprised of
unconscious group feelings, passions and activities of individuals is referred to as:
a. Formal Organizations b. Informal Organizations
c. Administration d. None of the above

33. The structured group of trained personnel that deals with achieving police goals and
objectives of an organization is called:
a. Police Management b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure d. Police Administration

34. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement pillar that is also called
“police in action”:
a. Police Management b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure d. Police Administration

35. The ability of police administrators in winning support for departmental programs from
people within the department as well as the citizens is called:
a. Community relation b. Police Leadership
 c. Police planning d. Community Policing

36. The performance of task that deals with commensurate authority to fulfill the responsibility is
known as:
a. Policy formulation b. Supervision
c. Direction d. Execution

37. The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is called:

a Unity of Direction b. Centralization
c Scalar of Chain d. Unity of Command

38. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward
and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy is;
a. Chain of Command b. Unity of Command
c. Span of Control d. Delegation of Authority

39. The principle of organization that results from the division of force into separate units to
perform individual task is called:
a. Specialization b. Chain of Command
c. Organizational Structure d. All of the above

40. The section or territorial division of a large city which comprises of designated districts is
referred as:
a. District b. Section
c. Unit d. Area
41. The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides service knowledge is known as:
a. Line and Staff Organization b. Functional Organization
c. Line Organization d. Structural Organization

42. A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made because of direct line
authority and discipline is easily administered is called:
a. Line and Staff Organization b. Functional Organization
c. Line Organization d. Functional and Staff Organization

43. A personnel of the police department who has taken oath of office and possess the power to
arrest is called:
a. Arresting officer b. Commanding Officer
c. Sworn Officer d. Superior Officer
44. The nature of task primarily performed according to organized force is called delegation of
task according to:
a. Place of Work b. Time Frame
c. Level of Authority d. Function
45. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their capabilities best fit them is
referred to as:
a. Staffing b. Organizing
c. Directing d. Planning

46. The structural changes to be made when need arises to provide a more effective medium of
work that can be performed and distributed is called:
a. Staffing b. Directing
c. Organizing d. Planning
47. The nature of service in which an employee shall receive order from only one superior is
called:
a. Scalar Chain b. Unity of Command
c. Chain of Command d. Unity of Direction

48. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is:
a. 15 years b. 25 years
c. 30 years d. 20 years

49. The nature of complaint against any PNP member is called;

a. Individual Complaint b. Public Complaint
c. Citizen’s Complaint d. Administrative Complaint

50. The consequence of an act, which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of
performing his duty, is referred to as:
a. Dismissal b. Retirement
c. Resignation d. Suspension

51. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the
administration of the PNP is referred to as:
a. Personnel Administration Service b. Planning and Research Service
c. Legal Affairs Service d. None of the above

52. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for
length of service is called:
a. Retirement b. Dismissal
c. Demotion c. AWOL

53. The following are considered minor offenses that may be committed by a PNP member
except:
a. Neglect of Duty b. Extortion
c. Habitual Drunkenness d. Gambling while on Duty

54. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM is:
a. 6 years b. 5 years
c. 4 years d. 9 years

55. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson, Commissioners and one
–
a. Ex-officio Chairman b. Secretary
c. Ex-officio Commissioner d. Ex- officio Chairperson

56. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance and
promotional examination is the:
a. Civil Service Commission b. NAPOLCOM
c. PNPA d. Qualifications Upgrading Program
57. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the:
a. NAPOLCOM b. Internal Affairs Service
c. PLEB d. Inspector’s Office
58. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise
of discretion as well as to achieve:
a. Reformation and rehabilitation b. Efficiency and effectiveness
c. Organization and Administration d. None of the above

59. The ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the:

a. Chief of the PNP b. Secretary of DILG
c. Commissioner from the civilian sector d. None of the above

60. The four regulars and fulltime Commissioners shall appointed for a term of:
a. 4 years b. 5 years
c. 6 years d. 9 years

61. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct management
audit, and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by:
a. DILG Secretary b. Congress
c. C/PNP d. President

62. The required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in the
PNP is:
a. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
b. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
c. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
d. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age

63. Anybody who will enter the PNP service with out a baccalaureate degree shall be given a
maximum period of:
a. 3 years to comply with the education qualification;
b. 4 years to comply with the education qualification;
c. 5 years to comply with the education qualification;
d. 6 years to comply with the education qualification.

64. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous service
shall be retired or separated if the said period of non promotion gained with in:
a. 20 yrs b. 10 yrs c. 18 months d. none of these

65. The body within the PNP organization tasked to take charge on investigation of complaints
filed against a PNP member is the:
a. IAS b. PLEB c. NAB d. RAB

66. A PNP member may also be dismiss from service if he/she will go on absence with out
official leave for a continuous period of:
a. 30 days or more b. 60 days
c. 90 days d. 6 months
67. The power to direct or oversee the day to day functions of police investigation of crime,
crime prevention activities and traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations
promulgated by the Commission is;
a. Employment b. Planning
c. Operational Supervision d. All of the above

68. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are
automatically deputized as representatives of the:
a. NAPOLCOM b. DND
c. PLEB d. None of the above

69. As a police officer, he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to serve as an example to
others. This statement is part of the:
a. PNP Code of Covenant b. Policeman’s Code
c. Police Officer’s Creed d. All of the above

70. Cadets in the PNPA are classified above the Senior Police Officer IV and below the
Inpector rank in the PNP. This statement is:
a. True b. False c. Neither true or false d. Doubtful

71. The rank of a Senior Police Officer IV is equivalent to:

a. Master Sergeant in the Military rank
b. Captain in the Military rank
a. Lieutenant in the Military rank
b. None of the above

72. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the following ground:
a. offense committed is serious
b. bringing the person to your custody
c. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation
d. if the person is under the imminent danger

73. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to traffic violation, the following
procedures are followed except:
a. bring the suspended person before the court
b. detention of the arrested person may take place
c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
d. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed

74. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but also the
productivity of individual is part of:
a. traffic engineering c. traffic environment
b. traffic economy d. traffic congestion

75. The method of training where the student is placed in the real life of driving is known as:
a. simulated training c. traditional training
b. comprehensive training d. commentary training
76. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by
the court?
a. traffic arrest c. traffic citation
b. traffic warning d. traffic violation

77. The law which expedite the methods of prescribing, refining, or modifying the lines and
modes of operations of public utility vehicle is:
a. P.D. 96 c. P.D. 101
b. P.D. 207 d. P.D. 612

78. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury, property
damage or even death is called:
a. accident c. key event
b. damage d. fatal

79. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as:
a. information sign c. instruction sign
b. direction sign d. caution sign

80. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision or accident is called:
a. traffic engineering c. reckless driving
b. traffic accident investigation d. hit and run

81. The combination of simultaneous and sequential circumstances without anyone of which
accident could not occur is;
a. key event c. cause
b. reason d. chain event

82. That event which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic accident
is;
a. accident c. key event
b. chain of accident d. all of these