FIITJEE – (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: TEST - 4
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examina tion Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
BATCHES – All – 2022
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.
(i) Part-A (01-06) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.
(ii) Part-A (07-12) – Contains seven (06) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-B (01-06) contains Six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________
Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________
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IT−2022− PET-4-(PCM) 2
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A ball of mass 1 kg strikes a wedge of mass 4 kg horizontally with
a velocity of 10 m/s. Just after collision, velocity of wedge
becomes 4 m/s. Friction is absent everywhere and collision is
perfectly elastic. Select the correct alternative(s).
(A) speed of ball just after collision is 6 m/s.
(B) speed of ball just after collision is 8 m/s.
(C) impulse between ball and wedge during collision is 32 N-s.
(D) the given data are incorrect
2. A chain of length ‘’ and mass ‘m’ lies on the surface of a P
smooth sphere of radius R > with one end held at the point P
as shown in figure. If the chain is released from this position,
then the tangential acceleration of the chain just after release
Rg
(A) 1 − cos R
Rg
(B) cos R − cos
Rg
(C) cos − cos + R
(D) none of these
3. Two identical beads of m = 100 gram are connected by
an inextensible massless string of length 0.5 m can slide along the A 0.5m
C
two arms AC and BC of a rigid smooth wire frame in a vertical 2
plane. If the system is released from rest as shown in figure, the 1 String
kinetic energy of the first particle when they have moved such that
displacement of bead 1 is 0.1 m is 4x3 10–3 J. Find the value of
‘x’. ( g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 1 (B) 2 B
(C) 3 (D) 4
4. A ball of mass 1 kg strikes a wedge of mass 4 kg horizontally
with a velocity of 10 m/s. Friction is absent everywhere and
collision is elastic. Then 30°
(A) Speed of wedge after collision is (20/17) m/s
(B) Speed of wedge after collision is (10/17) m/s
(C) Speed of wedge after collision is 4 m/s
(D) Speed of wedge after collision is 10 m/s
5. Two blocks of equal mass are tied with a light string which passes
over a massless pulley as shown in figure. The magnitude of
acceleration of centre of mass of both the blocks is (neglect friction
everywhere) 60
o
30
o
( )
2
3 −1 3 − 1
(A)
2 2
g (B) ( 3 −1 g ) (C)
g
2
(D)
2 2
g
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6. The spring block system lies on a smooth horizontal
surface. The free end of the spring is being pulled 1 m/s
towards right with constant speed v0 = 2 m/s. At t = 0 k = 100N/cm
M
sec, the spring of constant k = 100 N/cm is unstretched 4 kg
v0 = 2 m/s
and the block has a speed 1 m/s to left. The maximum
extension of the spring is
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. A ball P collides elastically with an another identical ball Q at
rest with velocity 10 m/s at an angle of 30° from the line joining
their centres c1 and c2. Select the correct alternative(s)
(A) Velocity of ball P after collision is 5 m/s
(B) Velocity of ball Q after collision is 5 3 m/s
(C) both the ball move at right angle after collision
(D) kinetic energy will not be conserved since collision is not a
head-on collision.
8. Choose the correct statement or statements regarding elastic collision.
(A) The kinetic energy of the system is conserved.
(B) Momentum of the system is conserved
(C) Mechanical energy of the system is conserved
(D) Total energy of the system is conserved
9. A heavy mass M resting on the ground is connected to a lighter
mass m through a light inextensible string passing over an ideal
pulley. The string connected to mass M is loose. Let lighter
mass m be allowed to fall freely through a height h such that the
string becomes taut. If t is the time from this instant onward
when the heavier mass again makes contact with the ground
and E is change in kinetic energy then
2m 2h 2m 2h
(A) t = (B) t =
M+m g M−m g
Mm
(C) E = − gh (D) E = –Mgh
M+m
10. Three identical blocks kept in a straight line on a
friction less horizontal surface. The coefficient of u
1
restitution of them e = . If the left mass block
2
has been given a velocity ‘u’ towards right as
shown in figure, then finally
1 13
(A) speed of left most block = u (B) speed of left most block = u
4 64
3 15
(C) speed of middle block = u (D) speed of middle block = u
16 16
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11. A projectile is fired from a horizontal ground. Coefficient of
restitution between projectile and ground is e. Let a, b and c be
T H
the ratio of time of flight 1 maximum height 1 and
T2 H2
R
horizontal range 1 in first two collisions with the ground.
R2
Then
1 1
(A) a = (B) b = 2
e e
1
(C) c = 2 (D) all of the above
e
12. Choose the correct statement or statements regarding inelastic collision.
(A) The kinetic energy of the system is conserved.
(B) Momentum of the system is conserved
(C) Mechanical energy of the system is conserved
(D) Total energy of the system is conserved
PART – B
(Numerical based)
1. A ball of mass m moving with a kinetic energy 5 J undergoes a head on elastic collision
with another stationary ball of mass 3m. During the impact, maximum change in potential
energy of the system will be (in J)
2. A small ball moving with a velocity 10 m/s, horizontally 10 m/s
(as shown in figure) strikes a rough horizontal surface
having = 0.5 . If the coefficient of restitution is e = 0.7.
Horizontal component of velocity of ball in m/s after Ist impact 5m
will be (g = 10 m/s2) =0.5
3. In the situation shown in the figure, blocks A and B each of
mass m are placed on a large, fixed and smooth inclined plane F =0
of inclination = 30°. The blocks are initially at rest and B
connected to spring of stiffness k at its natural length when a
force F = mg is applied on the block parallel to the plane. What A
is the difference between maximum and minimum separation
mg = 300
between the blocks in cm? (take = 8 cm )
k
4. A disc of radius r and mass m moving on perfectly smooth
v
15 O
surface at a speed v= m/s undergoes an elastic
17 d
collision with an identical stationary disc of mass 2 m. The
O’
magnitude of velocity (in m/s) of the first disc after the
8r
collision will be ( given d= )
5
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IT−2022− PET-4-(PCM) 5
5. A long, thin carpet is laid on a floor. One end of the carpet is
bent back and then pulled backwards with constant unit v = 1m/s
velocity. The speed of centre of mass of the moving part, just
above the part of the carpet which is still at rest on the floor,
is u m/s, then find the value of ‘u’ is
6. In situation shown in figure a small body of mass ‘m’ = 1kg
placed over a large mass M = 3 kg, whose surface is
horizontal near the smaller mass and gradually curves to h
become vertical. The smaller mass is pushed on the larger
one at a speed u = 11 m/s towards right. Assume that all the
surfaces are frictionless. The maximum speed of larger mass m
in m/s will be
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IT−2022− PET-4-(PCM) 6
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SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--2
2 :: C
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EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If acetylene gas is passed into Ca in liquid NH3 at -80oC, followed by decomposition of
complex under reduced pressure at 325oC, which of the following compound is formed?
(A) C2H4 (B) CaH2
(C) CaC2 (D) C2H6
2. Which of the following oxide have highest melting point?
(A) BeO (B) MgO
(C) CaO (D) SrO
3. NaH reacts with SO2(l) to give
(A) Na2S (B) Na2S2O4
(C) Na2S2O3 (D) Na2SO3
4. " X "+ C + Cl2 ⎯⎯ → Chloride salt + CO
“X” can be
(A) Na2O, CaO (B) SrO, Cs2O
(C) BeO, Al2O3 (D) MgO, K2O
5. BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This
is because
(A) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(B) N−F bond is more polar than B−F bond
(C) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(D) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not
6. Which of the following statements concerning a covalent bond is false?
(A) The electrons are shared between atoms
(B) The bond is non−directional
(C) The strength of the bond depends upon the extent of overlapping
(D) The bond formed may be polar or non−polar.
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. Which of the following compound(s) is/are coloured?
(A) Li2O (B) Na2O
(C) Rb2O (D) Cs2O
8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for alkali metal Li?
(A) Among all alkali metals, the least reactivity of Li towards water have kinetic reason
rather thermodynamic reason.
(B) Among all alkali metals, the least reactivity of Li towards water have thermodynamic
reason rather kinetic reason.
(C) Among all alkali metals, the least reactivity of Li towards water is due to both
thermodynamic and kinetic reasons.
(D) Li reacts with N2 at 298 K spontaneously to give red-brown moisture sensitive solid.
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9. Select all the compounds that is/are formed when NaNO2 is heated in the absence of air.
(A) NaNO3 (B) Na2O
(C) N2 (D) O2
10. Select all the species that are formed by passing N2O(g) into a solution of Na in liquid NH3
(A) N2 (B) NaOH
(C) NaNH2 (D) NH2NH2
11. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for beryllium hydride?
(A) It can be made by reaction between dimethylberyllium and diborane followed by
decomposition with Ph3P
(B) BeH2 can be made by direct combination
(C) By thermolysis of Be(CMe3)2
(D) By reaction between BeMe2 and LiAlH4
12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Ortho-H2 and Para-H2 are nuclear spin isomers.
(B) At 0K, H2 contains entirely Para-H2
(C) At room temperature, Ortho H2 : Para H2 ratio is 3 : 1
(D) The thermal conductivity of Para H2 is greater than Ortho H2
PART – B
(Numerical based)
1. The two angular nodes take the form of two cones, one inclined at xo and one at 125.3o to
the z-axis for dz2 orbital. What is the value of x?
o
2. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment 1.2 D. If its bond distance is 1.0 A , what fraction
of an electronic charge, e, exists on each atom?
o
3. BI3 is symmetrical planar molecule. The distance between iodine atoms is 3.54 A . The
o
covalent radius of iodine is 1.33 A , then what is covalent radius of boron in the same unit?
Z
4. The algebraic sum of the bond order in O2+ ,O2 ,O2− and O2− − is Z. What is the value of
3
o
5. The bond length in an HI molecule is 1.61 A and the measured dipole moment is 0.44 D.
What is the magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on I in HI?
(1 debye = 3.34 10–30 coulomb-meters; e = 1.6 10–19 coulombs)
6. The dihedral angle in solid H2O2 crystal is Yo, What is the value of Y?
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IT−2022− PET-4-(PCM) 8
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A circle is described whose centre is the vertex and whose diameter is three-quarters of
the latus rectum of the parabola y2 = 4ax. If PQ is the common chord of the circle and the
parabola and L1L2 is the latus rectum, then the area of the trapezium PL1L2Q is
(A) 3 2a2 (B) 2 2a2
2+ 2 2
(C) 4a2 (D) a
2
2. Through the vertex O of the parabola y2 = 4ax two chords OP & OQ are drawn and the
circles on OP & OQ as diameter intersect in R. If 1, 2 & are the angles made with the
axis by the tangents at P & Q on the parabola and by OR, then cot1 + cot2 is equal to
(A) −2tan (B) −2tan ( - )
(C) 0 (D) 2 cot
3. Let P & Q be points (4, -4) and (9, 6) of the parabola y2 = 4a (x – b). Let R be a point on
the arc of the parabola between P & Q. then the area of PRQ is largest when
(A) PRQ = 900 (B) the point R is (4, 4)
1
(C) the point R is ,1 (D) none of these
4
4. If x + y + z = 5 and xy + yz + zx = 3, then least and largest value of x are
10 13
(A) ,5 (B) −1,
3 3
17
(C) ,7 (D) none of these
3
5. If x1 and x2 are the arithmetic and harmonic mean of the roots of the equations
ax2+bx+c=0, then quadratic equation whose roots are x1 and x2 is
(A) abx2 + (b2 + ac) x + bc = 0 (B) 2ab x2 + (b2 + 4ac) x + 2bc = 0
2 2
(C) 2abx + (b + ac) x + bc = 0 (D) none of these
6. S1: If P(x) = ax2 + bx + c and Q(x) = −ax2 + bx + c, where ac 0, P(x) Q(x) has at least
two real roots.
S2: Let S be the set of real values of ‘a’ for which the roots of x2 – 6ax + 2–2a + 9a2=0
exceed 3. Then S (11/9, ).
S3: If x2 + ax + b is an integer for every odd integer x, then a and b must be integers.
S4: There is no real x such that esinx – e-sinx – 4 = 0
(A) FTTT (B) TFTF
(C) TTFT (D) TTTF
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(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. If equation of tangent at P, Q and vertex A of parabola are 3x + 4y – 7 = 0, 2x + 3y – 10=0
and x – y = 0 respectively, then
(A) focus is (4, 5) (B) length of latusrectum is 2 2
9 9
(C) axis is x + y – 9 = 0 (D) vertex is ,
2 2
8. If A & B are points on the parabola y2 = 4ax with vertex O such that OA = r1, OB = r2 and
r14/3r24/3
AB subtends a right angle at vertex O, then the value of is
r12/3 + r22/3
(A) 16a2 (B) a2
(C) 4a (D) none of these
9. The locus of mid point of the focal radii of a variable point moving on the parabola, y2 = 4ax
is a parabola whose
(A) Latus rectum is half the latus rectum of the original parabola
(B) Vertex is (a/2, 0)
(C) Directrix is y-axis
(D) Focus has the co-ordinates (a,0)
10. The real value of t satisfying the equation (3t – 9)3 + (9t – 3)3 = (9t + 3t – 12)3 are
(A) – 1 (B) 1
(C) 1/2 (D) 2
11. The graph of the quadratic polynomial y = ax2 + bx + c is as shown in the figure. Then
y
(A) b2 − 4ac 0 (B) b < 0
(C) a > 0 (D) c < 0
e e + ee
12. + + = 0 has
x−e x− x−−e
(A) one real root in (e, ) and other in ( - e, e)
(B) one real root in (e, ) and other in (, + e)
(C) two real toots in ( - e, + e)
(D) no real roots
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PART – B
(Numerical based)
1. The chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax, whose equation is y − x 2 + 4a 2 = 0 is a normal to the
curve and its length is 3a , then find .
2. The two parabolas y2 = 4ax and y2 = 4(a – 1) (x – b) can not have common normal other
than axis unless b > , then find .
a2
3. From a point A common tangents are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = and the parabola
2
y2 = 4ax. Find the area of the quadrilateral formed by the common tangents, the chords of
a2
contact of the point A, w.r.t the circle and the parabola is , then find .
4
ax 2 + 2 ( a + 1) x + 9a + 4
4. If f(x) = is always negative and the range of values of a is a
( −a ) x2 + 3 ( −3 + 2a ) x − a
, , then find value of .
4
5. Find the integral value of a, for which the quadratic expression ax2 + (a – 2)x – 2 is
negative for exactly two integral value of x.
6. Find the absolute value of the difference of the real roots of the equation
(
x2 − 22010 x + x − 22009 + 2 24017 − 1 = 0 )
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IT−2022− PET-4-(PCM) 11
PERFORMANCE ENHANCEMENT TEST – 4
ANSWERS
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YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A
5. D 6. C 7. ABC 8. BCD
9. AC 10. BD 11. AB 12. BD
PART – B
1. 3.75 2. 1.5 3. 8 4. 3
5. 0.75 6. 2.75
S
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PART – A
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C
5. C 6. B 7. CD 8. AD
9. ABC 10. ABC 11. ACD 12. ABCD
PART – B
1. 54.70o 2. 0.25 3. 0.71 4. 2.33
5. 0.057 6. 90.20
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PART – A
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B
5. B 6. C 7. ABCD 8. A
9. ABCD 10. BCD 11. ABCD 12. BC
PART – B
13. 6 14. 2 15. 15 16. 3
17. 1 18. 2
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