re gfe wa we a ae orm ew sara ya fer Feta a fear ora DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO. ‘wet Wa/ QUESTION PAPER ‘eiftta ferent afreirtt wet 2014 / LIMITED DEPARTMENTAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION 2014 varie Gr.-ll (T) ¥@ % fer / FOR THE POST OF CHARGEMAN Gr.-tl (T) fama / SUBJECT : S3xc Sit. te Afra Hi. GENERAL ENGG & MECHANICAL ENGG Q.P. Series- [A] ‘wars / Sr. No. 000433" ‘wis /CODE:- 2.01/221 [LaarxrrounoT TT | ji] raft / Duration:- 3 #2 / 3 Hours sftrara st 100 / Max. Marks:- 100 E a at | Instructions:- Please read the following Instructions carefully before writing your answer, ‘FAT Time:- 14:00 to 17:00 Hrs 1. wit wea siftard @ | All questions are compulsory. 2. wets wet 1 sta aT & | Each question carries 1 mark. 3, Weta wer 3 4 afer sa fers & (A),(6)(C) (0) PA S ew sae TE | TT Se wT SUAS. SAT ‘fever oe site HTH aiff FT | There are four options-(A),(B),(C),(D) given against each question, out Cf which only one is correct. Mark your answer by filing bubble on the OMR answer sheet. 4 mend a3 sae at Fact srert B St ng [Link], sae yferar HK Ft sifawa |t | Candidate has to mark all his responses only on the separated OMR answer sheet provided. 5. Sa ate ar art ae ale FH wr GF aver st | Shae H ave at aagaft TH t | Use only blue or black ball point pen. Use of pencil is not allowed, 6. sae wae ye Haat sift wet SoS, are weer or A aga fet AR sh LAT sae yeaT ‘8 faerm arauritqts wt | Before you proceed to mark your response in OMR answer sheet, you have to fil in some particulars carefully in the OMR answer sheet as per your admit card. ‘wei yferat 4 & Ste TT ater 7 TI No sheet from the question paper should be detached. ww ard &t & fore wer va & sis F vite wer at we F | Sheet for rough work is appended in the question Paper at the end. 98. BURT TT / ater. sae year wet area ae ae fen ae wer a / sue MPT SCAT rae Fee Ge Ter & at sere st ardteq wx feat STET | Do not write your name anywhere in the {question paper/OMR answer sheet. If name is found marked on the question paper/OMR answer sheet, this will make the candidate disqualified. 10. era aut Be fer whe ee a Mr | al ave wa sie se or tat Sk er aT eT & Ste ot cw Ta Te A | There will be no penalty for wrong answer. If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of given answer happens to be correct. 14. Wer wares eH are sre wer va site stan. Jat yfecrar Shit Fader | st | After completion of examination, you have to hand over your question paper and OMR answer sheet both to Invigilator. fare #i feat 4 sift desc ar WT, In case of dispute English version will prevail. ]GENERAL ENGINEERING Questions - 25 1. Iftwo forces of magnitude are 8 N and 6 N, the maximum resultant will be (A) 2N (B) 8N (C) 14N (D) None of these 2. Centroid of a hollow circular plate lies of the body. (A) inside (B) outside (C) centre (D) None of these 3. The ratio of the perimeters of two squares is 3 : 1, the ratio of their areas is (A) 1:9 (B) 16:1 (C) 9:1 (D) 1:16 4. Ifthe diameter of the wheel of simple wheel & axle is increased, then its efficiency will (A) increase (B) decrease (C) remain unchanged —_(D) not be predicted 5. A force of 100 N acts 0.5 sec. on a body of mass 20 kg which is initially at rest. The velocity attained by the body is (A) 5 m/sec (8) 2.5 msec (C) 20 msec (D) None of these 6. The expression of longitudinal stress for thin cylinder pressure vessel is given by poi ot por @) or © oa OF (D) None of these 7. The bell crank lever is a (A) straight lever (B) compound lever (C) simple bent lever (D) None of these 8. A live load is one which (A) remains constant (B) varies with time (C) varies continuously (D) All of these 9. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to (A) limiting friction (8) kinetic friction (C) coefficient of friction (D) None of these 10. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere of radius ‘r’ lies on the central radius at a distance of 3 ‘ 3 ()5r ®>5 © 3 (D) None of these 11. Abody is allowed to fall from a tower of height ‘h’. The total sum of energy possessed by itis maximum at (A) the top of tower (B) the bottom of tower (C) the middle of tower (D) None of these 12. Which of the following is dimensionless ? (A) specific speed (B) specific volume (C) specific gravity (D) specific weight GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE MECH 12-14 A 120. 21. 23. 24, 25. tan® tan@ ) jane@+o ©) tan @-0) (A) lathe (B) milling (A) Cutterno-A (B) Cutter no-H (A) same direction as that of job (C) job stationary (A) high speed steels . High speed steel should have . Efficiency of a screwjack is given by the relation tan (0+) tan@ (c) (D) None of these _ Brown and Sharpe standard tapers are mostly used in (C) drilling (D) None of these . For cutting a rack with cycloidal gear teeth, the following cutter is to be used : (C) Cutter no.-M (D) Cutter no.-x . Ininternal grinding, grinding wheel is to be rotated (B) opposite direction as that of job (D) None of these -. Aluminium oxide is employed as an abrasive for grinding materials such as (8) wrought iron (A) toughness (B) wear resistance (C) hardenability (D) Both (B) and (C) Constantan is an alloy of (A) nickel, iron, chromium (©) copper and aluminium (B) copper and nickel (D) copper and tin Cast iron becomes ductile with the addition of (A) sulphur (B) silicon (C) magnesium (D) phosphorus Under standard atmospheric condition, the temperature and pressure of gas is taken as (A) 0°C & 760 mm of Hg (C) 273°C & 760 mm of Hg MECH 12-14 A (B) 15°C & 76 om of Hg (D) None of these GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE (C) tough bronze (0) Allof these . Enlarging of previously drilled hole is called (A) boring (8) broaching —(C) reaming (0) None of these . An undercut shoulder is produced by using (A) facing tool (8) squarenose tool _(C) parting off tool (D) None of these In induction hardening the is high. (A) voltage (8) current (C) frequency (0) None ofthese ' The product of a cupola is known as (A) pig iron (8) castiron (C) steel (0) malleable irona: 28. 29. 30. 31. 33. 35. MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Questions : 75 The value of Gas Constant (R) in S.1. unit is % (A) 0.287 J/kgK — (B) 2.87 Wkgk —(C) 28.7 Jikgk (D) 287 Jikgk Hooke's Law holds good upto (A) yield point (8) elastic limit (C) plastic limit (D) breaking point Which of the following is a scalar quantity ? (A) Force (8) Speed (C) Velocity (D) Acceleration ‘A pendulum which executes one beat per second is known as (A) simple pendulum (B) compound pendulum (C) second's pendulum (D) None of these The wheels of a moving car possess (A) potential energy only (8) kinetic energy of transtation (C) kinetic energy of motion (D) Both (B) and (C) Unit of energy in SI units is (A) dyne (B) watt (C) kg-m (0) joule . A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m. If there is no loss of velocity after rebounding, then the ball will rise upto a height of (a) 3m (8) 4m (©) 5m (D) 10m The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in which of the following number of revolutions of crankshaft ? (a) 12 (8) 1 (©) 2 (0) 4 . Ina diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by (A) spark (B) injected fuel (C) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion (0) ignitor Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged ? (A) Yes (8) No (C) Tosome extent (D) Unpredictable 36. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of (A) Kal (8) Keavkg (©) Kealim? (D) None of these 37. All heat engines utilise (A) low heat value of oil (8) high heat value of oil (C) net calorific value of oil (D) calorific value of fuel . The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a conventional thermal power plant is (A) same (8) more (C) less (D) may be less or more depending on size GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE MECH 12-14 A 3——$—$—$__— 39. Which is NOT identical for an atom and an isotope ? (A) Mass number (B) Atomic number (C) Chemical properties (0) Position in periodic table 40. The mass of electron as compared to that of neutron is (A) same (8) 172 (©) 1100 (0) 1/1839 41, The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is (A) heavy water (B) deutrium —(C) graphite (D) concrete and bricks 42. The commonly used material for shielding is (A) lead or concrete (B) lead and tin (C) graphite or cadmium (0) thick galvanised sheets 4a, The Young's Modulus of a material is 125 GPa and Poisson's ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of the material is . (A) 30 GPa (B) 50 GPa (c) 80 GPa (0) 100 GPa 44, ‘The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force Is (A) minimum (8) maximum (C) changing sign (0) zero 45. The lathe spindles at the nose end have (A) internal screw threads. (B) external screw threads (©) no threads (D) tapered threads 46. The standard value of atmospheric pressure taken at sea level Is (a) 1.013 bar (@) 760mm of Hg (C) 101310 Nim? (D) All of these 47, The ratio of RIMS velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular temperature is (A) 0.086 (8) 1.086 (c) 3.086 © 4006 48. The unit of force in SI system of units is, le (A) dyne (8) Kilogram (©) Newton (0) watt 49. The resultant of two forces P & @ (such that P > Q) acting along the same straight line but in opposite direction is given by (a) P+Q (®) P-a (©) PIA (0) oP 50. The point through which the whole weight ofthe body acts respective of its position is known as (A) moment of inertia (8) centre of gravity (C) centre of percussion (0) centre of mass 51. The friction experienced by a body when at rest is known as (A) static friction (®) dynamic friction (C) limiting friction (D) co-efficient of friction 52. An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is (A) between 60% and 70% (B) between 70% and 80% (C) between 80% and 90% (D) 100% 4 MECH 12-14 A GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE53. 54, 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. The head utilised by the runner of a reaction turbine is UV = UN eH = UM =UaWe 9 9 UM, - UV, 9 (a) H= fie dn (H= 9 where, W, V;.and V, are the relative velocity, velocity of flow and the velocity of whirl respecti ly. Suffix 1 and 2 represent inlet and outlet points of the vane respectively. . The discharge through a sharp-crested rectangular weir is given by 2 2 2 (A) cB 20H (8) 5CBY20H (0) SC.BY20H# (0) o.8 gH? In laminar flow through a circular tube, the Darcy-Weis bach friction factor depends ‘only on the Reynold's number and the two are related by 1 16 0-316 6 AR 8 FR (c) RE (0) f=e Hagen-Poisenille equation for expressing laminar flow through pipes is given by nd‘Ap rd2Ap 128 ul 128 pL ) 428 nL ®) toe ut (©) aeap () a#Ap A pitot-tube is an instrument for measuring (A) pressure of flow (8) discharge of fluid (C) velocity of flow (0) total energy of flow The hydraulic grade-line is one which indicates the variation of (A) velocity head in flow-direction (8) pressure head in the direction of flow (C) piezometric head in the direction of flow (D) total energy of flow in the direction of flow Deformation per unit length is called (A) tensile stress (B) compressive stress (C) shear stress (D) strain Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then (A) work is said to be done (B) power is being transmitted (C) body has kinetic energy of translation _ (D) None of these ‘Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the ball with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a velocity (A) v (B) v2 (©) w4 (D) ws The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is (A) @ (8) or (C) or (0) or GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE MECH 12-14 A 563. 64. 65. 66. 67. 69. 70. nm 72. 73. 74. . A measure of the effect of compressibility in fluid flow is the magnitude of a The maximum acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is (A) o (B) or (C) or (D) or The ratio of Bulk Modulus to Young’s Modulus for a Poisson's Ratio of 0.25 is (A) 1/3 (8) 23 (c) 1 (D) 3/2 A localized compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as. (A) tensile stress (B) bending stress (C) crushing stress (D) shear stress The point through which the resultant hydrostatic force acts is called (A) metacentre (B) centre of buoyancy (C) centre of gravity (D) centre of pressure The piezometric head in a static fluid is expressed by (A) yz+p (8) z+ (©) gz +2 (0) pz +2 . P 9 dimensionless parameter known as (A) Reynold's number (8) Weber number (C) Mach number (D) Froude number One stoke is equal to (A) 1 cm/sec (8) 1 m/sec (C) 1 ft/sec (D) 1 mm2/sec During orthogonal cutting of mild steel with a 10° orthogonal rake tool, the clip reduction coefficient obtained was 2.5. The shear angle (in degrees) evaluated will be - (A) 50.00 (B) 20.22 (C) 653 (D) 22.94 A Straight tooth slab milling cutter of 100 mm diameter and 10 teeth rotating at 200 rpm is used to remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from a steel bar. If the table feed is 400 mm/ min, the feed per tooth in the operation will be (A) 0.2 mm (8) 0.4 mm (C) 05 mm () 0.6 mm For the manufacture of full depth spur gear by hobbing process, the number of teeth to be cut = 30, module = 3 mm and pressure angle = 20°. The radial depth of cut to be employed should be equal to (A) 4.50 mm * (8) 600 mm (C) 6.75 mm (D) 3.75 mm In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a taylor tool-life exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then the tool life will become (A) sixteen times (B) halved (C) two times (D) eight times Designation of a turning tool in ASA nomenclature is, 8-14-6-6-8-15-F. Back rake and side rake respectively are (A) 149 and 6° (B) 87 and 149 (C) 6° and 6° (D) 6 and 8° MECH 12-14 A GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE75. 76. 78. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84, 85. 86. 87. 88. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE MECH 12-14 A - If modulus of elasticity for a given material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then bulk modulus is equal to (A) 2c (8) 3c (C) 20/3 (0) aca A cantilever beam is one which is . (A) fixed at both ends (B) fixed at one end and free at the other end (C) supported at its ends (0) supported on more than two supports - Columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80 are known as. (A) short columns (8) long columns (C) weak columns (D) medium columns Heat and Mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This statement was established by (A) Boyle (8) Charles (C) Joule (D) None of these ; The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete is known as (A) vapour (8) perfect gas (C) air (D) steam An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following : (A) Newton's law of motion (8) Newton's law of viscosity (C) Pascal's law (0) Continuity equation Practical fluids (A) are viscous (8) possess surface tension (C) are compressible () possess all the previous properties Fluid is a substance which offers NO resistance to change of (A) pressure (8) flow (C) shape (0) volume Fluid is a substance that (A) cannot be subjected to shear forces (B) always expands untiit fils any container (C) has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion (0) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by (A) evaporator —_(B) safety relief valve (C) dehumidifier (D) driers The boiling point of ammonia is (A) -100°C (B) -50°C. (C) -33.3°C (D) 0°C An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is (A) noisy operation (B) quiet operation (C) cooling below 0°C (D) None of these Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant 2 (A) Ericsson (8) Stirling (C) Carnot (0) Bell-Coleman Vapour compression refrigeration is somewhat like (A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle (C) Reversed Carnot cycle (D) None of thesea1. 92. 94, 95. 96. 100. ). Heat is closely related with (A) liquids (B) energy (C) temperature (D) entropy ). Heat is transferred in liquids and gases takes place by (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) scattering When heat is transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by (A) conduction (8) convection (C) radiation (D) conduction and radiation The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to another is called conduction wherein the particles of the body (A) move actually (B) do not‘move actually (©) affect the intervening medium —(D)_does not affect the intervening medium |. The heat of sun reaches to us according to the principle of (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) None of these The amount of radiation mainly depends upon the (A) nature of the body (B) temperature of the body (©) type of surface of the body (0) All of these The emissive power of a body depends on its (A) temperature (B) physical nature (C) wave length (D) Alll of these A Refrigeration system (A) removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body (B) removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temper (C) rejects energy to a low temperature body a . The setonrant cen er (A) CO, (8) NHg (© R120 ‘these The ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact loads is called (A) strength (8) stiffness (C) toughness (0) brittieness 99. The property of a material which enables it to retain the deformation permanentiy is called (A) brittleness (8) ductility (C) malleability (0) plasticity Which of the following property is desirable for materials used in tools and machines ? (A) Elasticity (8) Plasticity (C) Duetilty (0) Malleability MECH 12-14 A GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGEGENERAL ENGINEERING WET 25 1. aff @& act ar oar BNoie ONE, aftear ofoa——erm (A) 2N (B) 8N (C) 14N (D) ert & ate are 2. wm Ghat gia Se a tee———aattus dat BI (A) gy Rae (8) aq ee (C) ag wT (D) ert & whe et 3. a aa st afer ar gat 3:1 Bl sae dasa et ag-————#i (A) 1:9 (B) 16:1 (C) 9:4 (0) 1:16 4. aft ae om ate gh ww aT are age one &, at eat aT Ferm (A) gfe (8) tr (C) saftaffr (0) acer mt ot aaa 5. 20 feet carr st aay sit fe cet a fax @, 100NaT wH amt O.5 aes % fy va oe arf wat Bl ag are sr at bl (A) 5 ttre (B) 257 — (C) 20a eS (D) ert & ate ae 6. cect fietse zara adit at satef zara———— are are fa oer Fl pDi Pts ppl. A ®) 25) © a (D) SH & ate at 7. ta He cfae ow #1 (A) Bz oraz (B) warss eax (C) frre fe cae (0) at & ae at 8. UH area are ot f——_@ (A) ferz wear & (B) aaa % arr agaar & (C) ware aaaat wear & (D) 4 aft 9, air str at anita agex #1 (A) aif air (B) afar ator (C) stor aie (D) att & ate we 10. Prom “f% we ate sitar yer er tog hatha foe wea gat ae afer am & 3 ar @5 (©) 3 (0) eH & ate ae 11. We aay crx & free © feet See WR see or cpt sor aot———_aftrean 1 A) aa Sox (8) a eae Cp ae = (D) srt & ae ae 12. freafafaa #3 sit or oftaaen 7 ss (A) safes a (8) artis sta (C) Sees oe= (D) arate ore GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE MECH 12-44 &23. 24. 25. 10 Ue ag ote a eT ———_4 wearer amet at art Bi tan@ tane tan (0+) ® an@- © tn@-9 © tans (0) ert & aE et arse afte am ara eee srrere—————# etre feat ore (A) a (B) afer (C) feferr (D) ert & ate ret = ae Fae art ava ww Se at aed & fore, feafefer see at eae fea oat I (A) Fx FAEA (8) HER EH (C) wax HM (D) az Fiex . sere are, ref efte———agarer ore 1 (A) sta fort fee # yaar & aet fer # (B) sta fore faer # gar & sak favta fem # (C) sia feat F (D) wa & ate a . mearifrar ataares vareit at aft Fo ce aoede } eo F feather fear one B, oe A (A) set nf et (8) fteat ater (C) wer ier (0) @ wt . Tet & fg fey me fox st agrt—searm @1 (A) afer (8) afer (©) fer (D) ert & ate net . UR aewee wivex-—————wait are fare fear ater @1 (A) fi ger (8) wees gr (C) ates ais ee se ter witin ; (A) ait get (8) fur sae ser © (C) agie (0) eH a ate art ue agian & saver at ae ar FI 7 = (A) wer ater (8) wast at (C) Sw (D) rear ater vet aft te ¥——eit Tea (A) eer (B) faa sfete (C) ge ere (0) ai (B) afte (C) aiqeiver——ar um fier erg 21 (A) fare, citer, after (8) aia sik free (C) star ate srephfirr (0) star site fea weet ate datert & ara aria a oa (A) Fore _ (B) Ferfersir (©) axffrar (D) wreerer are agdecta sae sree fa ar arse site aara—— ey Ff fear ore BI (A) 0°C afte Hg. @T 760 mm (8) 15°C aft Hg. at 76cm (C) 273°C site Hg. 760mm (0) rt & ae MECH 12-14 A GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 33. 35. 36. 37. 38. wet: 75 Ue ae. ae Hote wate (A) we ot (A) 0.287 W/kgK —(B) 2.87 JkgK —(C) 28.7 Jikgk (D) 287 J/kgk Gra a fram fea fag om oy vem &? (A) aie arée (B) zaften fate (C) often fafre (0) afer are freafefeer % a ate ow afer (eax) aft? (A) a (B) art (C) a7 ' (D) ae sft ae on fe ea ae gaa wear t (A) Rrra ger (B) Fenss gaa (C) He'a FerT (D) eA A aE TT We wat Ee wiee TE wae A cae (A) feafer sat (8) afta ena sat (©) after after sat (0) a (8) az (C) oat a wang. were war 8? (A) ser (8) ae (C) fear fa (0) 3 UF was & ig at Saf. at Sere & fre ore hh ae re ewot F ae AF aE waft et ect, at ae feat Sak ae soa? (A) oof. (B) 4+. (C) 5a. (D) 10. ww we gw dor ar afer arf ares B fer quin A gh ear 8? (A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4 . Sort Set H, tat feat eee ero? (A) ere (8) Sees HET (C) wert % fom fey my wes TY A oe oT (D) ereee aise & afte ara we erate ag at ad a grt quand &? (A) & (8) 7 (C) Fe ea ae (D) ver ae st eat fefta test ar Sent art feat arp fear ore & 7 (A) feeit ere (8) feet Sere/feat (C) Fret eines? (0) wa & ate et wht sor gaat etre ra & (A) aa a fer ser arr (8) aa wm St oe aT (C) ta a ge Fatt are (D) gat at Sat art we mate wae oie A ge H uw after Tae wie A amar et & (A) wart (8) sftre (C) (0) ae & ava oe ee at afte a aad & GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE MECH 12-14 A W4. 42, 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. we aaa afte me arectete & fey ate we aaa at io F? (A) zara der (B) Tea de (C) Trarafaw yr (D) srad areit # feat agian at gaat Fo gaagia ar zara tier & (A) aa (B) V2 (C) 1/100 (D) 1/1839 aaftea cote H wad are de ox seit e aver wtstex & (A) wre ott (8) sar (C) wee (D) ae siz te farfeet % faq ara oie oe wate fea ort aver vert & (A) ater at ete (8) Arar afte at (C) Heme at Saft (D) ster Hears afte we wart ar ar aTgaa 125 GPa af dias agua 0.25 & 1 ard ar nigaa ate effect & (A) 30 GPa (8) 50GPa (C) 80 GPa (0) 100 GPa Ue aa F afee ate afteca ctor & oet sftae ott tat & (A) ayrrr (8) freer (C) aanet Pre (D) a aim oe oo aa feica F ttm & (A) sere ag Hs (B) are | He (C) HE He aT (0) aud ae wat ae ve agiecia aaa aT ae eet & (A) 1.013 are (8) war = 760 frst. (C) 1013 x 102 Nim? (D) sade ait fet avers oe ow fe sat arcu A ate tet (A) 0.086 (B) 1.086 (©) 3.086 aa at uaa. soit F care sar &? (A) ste (8) fete (© a (D) are um tt aa tar veg fata fer F aad at at act Pate Q (ga wer fFP>Q) at afte ear er? : (A) P+Q (8) P-Q (Cc) P/Q (D) QP ae firg free are feet seq ar aah are ora & re seat fafa ge oh et, weaTAT t (A) ssa (8) Wea Fz (C) tat Fa (D) aerate fit ag & fern F wet ve we fer weer & (A) efea feet (B) srarnftre fart (C) ferferfér ferent (D) atefefaee ate Reet we are eft ae & faa amar ent & (A) 60% aftz 70% % att (B) 70% sfe'80% % ate (C) 80% aft 90% & ara (D) 100% MECH 12-14 A GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE54, 55. 56. a 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. we feat cater & eae art wae that & = UM, UMW, — ote ae n= UM =e 4 B=U py i= =e wet W, Vy ote Vy wae: omar ar, ware er ar site eaet (whirl) & aT 1 afar 1 site 2 mam: a (vane) % grate si onsets gu anit FI we donee amare dha are feet tt & i (*) cByaR (8) ZC.BY20H ) Zee eH 0) op agHd WH TMA aa % are afare Ft F, Darcy-Weis bach feat Han wares qa ae fait aeat & site ait frafefar oq F dafaa ta & 1 1 0-316 64 Wz oe © a (0) = edt & are after wit at ann wet aT Hagen-Poisenillo equation & adap ndeAp 128 uL 128 pL ) jee ut (©) t28 ut (©) yaeap (P) adap fice cae ue sewer & ot ama & (A) save ar are (8) am am (C) sare a ar (D) ware 4 ga oat wragifers atsaret ae & ott Prefer a freer sft wea & (A) ware fee & acitfedt te (B) wave # fen % Sore Be (C) save a fear # fioitige tz (D) save at fan # ga sare oat freon sft gard wang acorn & (A) Zant Ba (B) wifes Ga (C) wee Ge (0) Bt 3a aT Re aa aan @ sie oa ag F fren etm &, az (A) at at tier wer om & (B) wae aaa eer & (©) 7a 4 gsr afer oat at (0) aude a a wart Fare & site qf eenftes veri at az wef oe oe El oat ww iz atv ae are gee FF cae fer one 1 cae & ae at Fiz fee aa & a BAT? 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