Internal Combustion Engine MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)

1. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to ___________

a) 4pLAN
b) pLAN/2
c) pLAN
d) 2pLAN

Answer: b
Explanation: Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to pLAN/2.
where p = mean effective pressure,
L = stroke
A = area of piston and
N = rpm of engine.

2. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about ___________

a) 65%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 70%

Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about 70% while the thermal
efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about 30%.

3. What is the combustion in spark ignition engine?

a) heterogeneous
b) laminar
c) homogeneous
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: The combustion in spark ignition engine is homogeneous while the
combustion in compression ignition engine is heterogeneous.

4. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 litre of fuel by a four stroke
engine is?
a) 5-6m3
b) 9-10m3
c) 2.5m3
d) 1m3

Answer: b
Explanation: 9-10m3 volume of air is required for consuming 1 litre of fuel by a four
stroke engine.
5. The major loss in a S.I. engine is due to ____________
a) variation in specific heat and chemical equilibrium
b) pumping
c) exhaust blow down
d) incomplete combustion

Answer: a
Explanation: The major loss in a S.I. engine is due to variation in specific heat and
chemical equilibrium while the major loss in a C.I. engine is loss due to incomplete
combustion.

6. What is the firing order of a six stroke I.C. engine?

a) 1-5-3-4-2-6
b) 1-3-6-5-2-4
c) 1-4-2-5-6-3
d) 1-6-2-5-4-3

Answer: a
Explanation: The firing order of a six stroke I.C. engine is 1-5-3-4-2-6 and the firing
order in the case of four cylinder in-line I.C. engine is 1-3-4-2.

7. Which of the following is the most preferred S.I. engines fuel?

a) napthenes
b) olefins
c) aromatics
d) paraffins

Answer: c
Explanation: For S.I. engines fuel most preferred are aromatics while for C.I. engines
fuel most preferred are paraffins.

8. Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to alcohols as alternate
fuel in IC engines?
a) alcohol contains about half the heat energy of gasoline/litre
b) alcohol does not vaporize as easily as gasoline
c) alcohols are corrosive in nature
d) anti-knock characteristics of alcohol is poor

Answer: d
Explanation: Anti-knock characteristics of alcohol is good.
9. Which of the following is the anti-knock for compression ignition engines?
a) amyl nitrate
b) naphthene
c) hexadecane
d) tetra ethyl lead

Answer: a
Explanation: Amyl nitrate is the anti-knock for compression ignition engines.

10. Which of the following does not relate to spark ignition engine?
a) Spark plug
b) Carburetor
c) Fuel injector
d) Ignition coil

Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel injector is not related to spark ignition engine as there is no fuel
injection in spark ignition engine.

11. Which is the most effective air cleaner in the case of diesel engines?
a) whirl type
b) oil bath type
c) wet type
d) dry type

Answer: b
Explanation: Oil bath type is the most effective air cleaner in case of diesel engines.

12. An SI engine sometimes continues to run for a very small period even after the
ignition is switched off. This phenomenon is called?
a) throttling
b) idling
c) dieseling
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Dieseling is the phenomenon in which an SI engine sometimes continues
to run for a very small period even after the ignition is switched off.
13. Which are the most important requirements of an automobile carburetor?
a) ensuring full torque at low speeds
b) good fuel economy
c) absence of racing of the engine under idling conditions
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: The important requirements of automobile carburetors are
i) ease of starting the engine, particularly under low ambient conditions
ii) ability to give full power quickly after starting the engine
iii) equally good and smooth engine operation at various loads
iv) good and quick acceleration of the engine
v) developing sufficient power at high engine speeds
vi) simple and compact in construction
vii) good fuel economy
viii) absence of racing of the engine under idling conditions
ix) ensuring full torque at low speeds

14. The number of holes in a multi-hole nozzle, varies from ___________

a) 4 to 8
b) 4 to 18
c) 4 to 12
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The number of holes in a multi-hole nozzle, lies between 4 to 18
depending on the size and requirement of the engine.

15. Gasoline engines are _____________ than diesel engines.

a) lighter
b) unpredictable
c) heavier
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: In comparison to diesel engine, gasoline engines are heavier.

16. Formation of ice on the _____________ plate is eliminated in electronic fuel

injection.
a) engine
b) throttle
c) nozzle
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, the formation of ice on the throttle plate is eliminated in
electronic fuel injection and not of nozzle.
17. The timing of injection has to be advanced as the speed _____________
a) increases
b) stables
c) decreases
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: The timing of injection is directly dependent on engine speed, so it has to
be advanced as the speed increases.

18. The ignition timing is affected by _____________

a) engine speed
b) mixture strength
c) compression ratio
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: The ignition timing is affected by
i) compression ratio
ii) engine speed
iii) mixture strength
iv) combustion chamber design
v) throttle opening
vi) engine temperature
vii) type of fuel.

19. Which of the following factors affecting combustion in the CI engine?

a) intake temperature
b) jacket water temperature
c) compression ratio
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: The factors affecting combustion in CI engine are
i) ignition quantity of fuel
ii) injection pressure of droplet size
iii) injection advance angle
iv) compression ratio
v) intake temperature
vi) jacket water temperature
vii) intake pressure
vii) engine speed
ix) load and air to fuel ratio
x) engine size
xi) type of combustion chamber.
20. Blow by losses are reduced as the engine speed is ____________
a) reduced
b) unpredictable
c) increased
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Blow by losses are indirectly proportional to engine speed and it is reduced
as the engine speed is increased.

21. The mechanical friction ___________ with increase in speed.

a) reduces
b) unpredictable
c) increases
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical friction is directly proportional to engine speed, so mechanical
friction increases with an increase in speed.

22. Which of the following is the outlet cooling water temperature for small engines?
a) 60 to 65ºC
b) 80ºC
c) about 50ºC
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The outlet cooling water temperature for small engines is 80ºC while the
outlet cooling water temperature for medium engines is 60 to 65ºC and the outlet
cooling water temperature for small engines is 80ºC.

23. The weight per B.P. of air-cooled engine is ___________ than that of water-cooled
engine.
a) less
b) unpredictable
c) greater
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: In comparison with water-cooled engine, the weight per B.P. of air-cooled
engine is less.
24. Which of the following is/are the correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake
thermal efficiency of the three given basic types of engines?
a) 4-stroke S.I. engine, 4-stroke C.I. engine, 2-stroke S.I. engine
b) 4-stroke C.I. engine, 4-stroke S.I. engine, 2-stroke S.I. engine
c) 4-stroke S.I. engine, 2-stroke S.I. engine, 4-stroke C.I. engine
d) 2-stroke C.I. engine, 4-stroke C.I. engine, 4-stroke S.I. engine

Answer: b
Explanation: The brake thermal efficiency of the three given basic types of engines
decreases in the order 4-stroke C.I. engine, 4-stroke S.I. engine, 2-stroke S.I. engine.

25. For which of the following engines a prony brake is used to measure brake power?
a) low speed engine
b) variable speed engine
c) single cylinder engine
d) low power engine

Answer: b
Explanation: Prony brake is used to measure the brake power of variable speed
engines.

26. Which one of the following event would reduce the volumetric efficiency of a vertical
compression ignition engine?
a) exhaust valve closing after top dead center
b) inlet valve closing after bottom dead center
c) inlet valve closing before bottom dead center
d) inlet valve opening before top dead center

Answer: c
Explanation: Volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression ignition engine is reduced
by closing inlet valve before bottom dead center.

27. Which of the following is the main aim of an engine management system to
achieve?
a) low levels of gaseous and particulate emissions
b) high reliability and durability with lowest possible initial cost
c) high power output and torque
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: The main aims of an engine management system is to achieve
i) high reliability and durability with lowest possible initial cost
ii) high power output and torque
iii) low levels of gaseous and particulate emissions
iv) low fuel consumption
v) low noise levels and vibrations.
28. The ignition timings and thermal load on the engine affect the knock limit of
_____________ engine.
a) CI
b) SI
c) Both SI & CI
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The ignition timings and thermal load on the engine affect the knock limit of
SI engine while there is no such case in CI engine.
29. Which of the following engines will have a heavier flywheel than the remaining
ones?
a) 30 kW four stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m
b) 30 kW two stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m
c) 30 kW four stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
d) 30 kW two stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m

Answer: c
Explanation: The flywheel in a four stroke petrol engine is heavier than in a two stroke
petrol engine and there is no flywheel in a diesel engine.
 IC Engine Questions and Answers – Two-Stroke Engine
1. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the
crankshaft.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in one
revolution of the crankshaft.

2. A two stroke cycle engine gives _____________ the number of power strokes
as compared to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) four times

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: A two stroke cycle engine occupies less floor area than a four stroke
cycle engine.

4. A two stroke engine gives _____________ mechanical efficiency than a four

stroke cycle engine.
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to a four stroke cycle engine, the mechanical
efficiency of two stroke engine gives higher.
5. The two stroke cycle engine have lighter flywheel.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _____________ a four

stroke cycle engine.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the __________
a) beginning of suction stroke
b) end of suction stroke
c) end of compression stroke
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: In a petrol engine, only at the end of the suction stroke, the mixture
has the lowest pressure.

8. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a __________

a) haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) radial motion of the gases in the chamber
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a rotary motion of the
gases in the chamber as swirl is always related to rotary motion.
9. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at
sufficiently high pressure in order to __________
a) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of the compression stroke
b) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization
c) ensure that penetration is not high
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to
inject fuel at a sufficiently high pressure in order to
i) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke.
ii) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization.
iii) ensure that penetration is not high.

10. Which of the following engines will have a heavier flywheel than the
remaining ones?
a) 30 kW four stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
b) 30 kW two stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
c) 30 kW two stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m
d) 30 kW four stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m

Answer: a
Explanation: The flywheel in a four stroke petrol engine is heavier than in a two
stroke petrol engine and there is no flywheel in a diesel engine
 Farm Machinery Questions and Answers – I.C Engine – Working
Principles of 4-stroke Engine

1. What is the degree of crank rotation during the completion of a four-stroke cycle?
a) 90°
b) 279°
c) 180°
d) 360°

Answer: c
Explanation: In a four-stroke engine, the cycle of operations is completed in four strokes of
the piston or two revolutions of crankshaft. Each stroke consists of 180° of crankshaft
rotation and hence a four-stroke cycle is completed through 720° of crank rotation.

2. What is the compression ratio in SI engine?

a) 6 – 10
b) 3 – 5
c) 1 – 2
d) 11 – 15

Answer: a
Explanation: Gasoline, a highly volatile fuel is used in SI engines and upper limit is fixed by
antiknock quality of fuel. Compression ratio in SI engine is 6 – 10.

3. What is the firing order of a four cylinder engines?

a) 1-3-4-2
b) 1-4-3-2
c) 1-2-3-4
d) 4-3-2-1

Answer: a
Explanation: The firing order of a four cylinder engines is 1-3-4-2. The sequence in which
the power stroke in each cylinder of an engine occurs is called firing order. The
arrangement of the crank pin on the crankshaft a design of the camshaft both determines
the firing order.

4. Which of the following describes the firing interval in a four-stroke engine?

a) F.I. = 720°/Number of cylinders
b) F.I. = 360°/Number of cylinders
c) F.I. = 270°/Number of cylinders
d) F.I. = 180°/Number of cylinders

Answer: a
Explanation: The interval between successive power strokes in different cylinders of the
engine is called firing intervals. During the first 180° rotation of crankshaft, the cylinder 1
gets the power stroke, cylinder 2 gets the compression stroke and cylinder 3 & 4 gets the
exhaust and suction stroke respectively.
5. What is the efficiency of compressed charge engine?
a) 40%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 10%

Answer: c
Explanation: As engine RPM rises, the speed of the flame front does not change so the
spark point is advanced earlier in the cycle to allow greater proportions of the cycle for the
charge to combust before the power stroke commences. Efficiency of compressed charge
engine is 30%.

6. Diameter and stroke length of the piston of a 4 stroke-4-cylinder diesel engine are 10 cm
and 12 cm respectively and speed of crank shaft is 2000 rpm. Calculate brake power.
a) 18.90 KW
b) 12.89 KW
c) 12.98 KW
d) 18.98 KW

Answer: d

7. A six-cylinder engine has 130 mm stroke and 109.4 mm bore. The displacement of the
engine at a compression ratio is 17:1 is equal to _________
a) 5.4 litres
b) 7.32 litres
c) 8.27 litres
d) 6.96 litres

Answer: b
𝜋
Explanation: Vd= D2Ln
4
𝜋
= 4 (109.4)2(130)(6) ; mm=1x106 liters
=7.32 litres.

8. What per cent of supplied energy is converted into mechanical work by an IC engine?
a) 10%-20%
b) 30%-40%
c) 50%-60%
d) 70%-80%

Answer: b
Explanation: An IC engine on average is capable of converting just 30-40% of the supplied
energy into mechanical work because a large part of the waste energy is in the form of heat
that is released to the environment through coolant, fins etc.
 Automobile Engineering Questions and Answers – Steering System
1. The front axle of a car has pivot centers 1.3 m apart. The angle of inside lock is 40℃ and
the angle of the outside lock is 35℃. What is the wheelbase of the car?
a) 5.5 m
b) 3.5 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 6.5

Answer: a
Explanation: For correct steering, cot α – cot θ = c / b where c = pivot center, b =
wheelbase, α = angle of outside lock, and θ = angle of inside lock. Cot α – Cot θ = c / b ⇒
Cot 35 – Cot 40 = 1.3 / b ⇒ b = 5.49 m.

2. If the wheelbase, the pivot center, and wheel track of the are 2.5 m, 1.1 m, and 1.3 m
respectively. The angle of the inside lock is 42℃. What is the circle radius of the outer front
wheel?
a) 2.6 m
b) 3.6 m
c) 4.6 m
d) 1.6 m

3. What is the angle between the steering axis and the vertical in the plane of the wheel?
a) Castor
b) Camber
c) Steering axis inclination
d) Kingpin inclination

Answer: a
Explanation: Castor is the angle between the steering axis and the vertical in the plane of
the wheel. Positive castor improves the straight-line stability of the car.

4. If the front of the front wheels is inside and rear of front wheels are apart when the
vehicle is at rest, then the configuration is called?
a) Toe-in
b) Toe out
c) Positive camber
d) Positive castor

Answer: a
Explanation: Toe-in is the amount by which the front wheels are set closer together at the
front than at the rear when the vehicle is stationary. Toe-in provided generally less than 3
mm.
5. What is the name of the angle through which the wheel has to turn to sustain the side
force?
a) Slip angle
b) Castor angle
c) Camber
d) Kingpin inclination

Answer: a
Explanation: The slip angle is the angle through which the wheel has to be turned to sustain
the side force on the wheel. The force produced due to this which counters the side thrust is
known as cornering force.

6. What is called the cornering force over the slip angle?

a) Castor trail
b) Cornering power
c) Self-righting torque
d) Pneumatic trail

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of cornering force to the slip angle is called the cornering power. The
cornering power increases due to tire stiffness.

7. What is a condition called when the vehicle will try to move away from its normal direction
and to keep it on the right path there is need to steer a little?
a) Understeer
b) Oversteer
c) Reversibility
d) Irreversibility

Answer: a
Explanation: When the slip angles of the front wheels are greater than those for the rear
wheels, the radius of the turn is increased. Due to which there is the need to steer more
than required which is called understeer.

8. What is the purpose of the reciprocating ball type steering gear?

a) To reduce the operating cost
b) To reduce the number of parts
c) To reduce the operating friction
d) To reduce the toe-out during the turns

Answer: c
Explanation: The reciprocating ball type steering gear serve the purpose of reducing the
friction and wear of the gear.
9. What is the angle between the vertical when the top of the wheel slants outward?
a) Negative camber
b) Negative castor
c) Positive camber
d) Positive castor

Answer: c
Explanation: The angle between the vertical when the top of the wheel slants outward is
called positive camber. Positive camber will lead to decrease in turning radius and thus lead
to a decrease in the steering effort.

10. The furniture rollers are provided with negative castor.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The furniture rollers are provided with positive castor. The positive castor gives
more directional stability. In positive castor, steering axis would meet the ground ahead of
the center of the roller. The later wheel would always follow the former wheel.
 Automobile Engineering Questions and Answers – Braking System
1. In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?
a) Bleed screw
b) Piston
c) Caliper
d) Piston seal

Answer: d
Explanation: Piston seal provides the pad-to-disc adjustment in a disc brake. When the
brake is applied, the piston seal deforms.

2. What is the braking torque at leading shoe if resultant frictional force acts at a distance of
250 mm from the brake drum center, coefficient of friction between the shoe and the drum
as 0.5, the free ends of the two shoes are pushed apart with a force of 300 N which is
acting at a distance of 320 mm from anchor, and two shoes are anchored together 170 mm
away from the brake drum center?
a) 276.6 Nm
b) 256.6 Nm
c) 266.6 Nm
d) 246.6 Nm

3. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?

a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force

Answer: a
Explanation: Frictional force is the main force which acts and plays an important role in the
braking system. The disc pads get to rub against the drum and which creates the friction
and opposes the motion of the rotational motion of the drum.

4. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?

a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake

Answer: b
Explanation: Disk brakes are used usually on the front wheels. When the brakes are applied
the 70% of the weight is transferred to the front wheels. Because of which the brakes on the
front wear out faster.
5. If the car is moving on the level road at a speed of 50 km/h has a wheelbase 3 m, a
distance of C.G. from ground 700 mm and distance from rear wheels is 1.1 m. Coefficient of
friction is 0.7. What is the retardation if the brakes are applied to the rear wheels?
a) 3.7 m/s2
b) 2.7 m/s2
c) 1.7 m/s2
d) 4.7 m/s2

6. If the car is moving on the level road at a speed of 50 km/h has a wheelbase 4 m, a
distance of C.G. from ground 800 mm and distance from rear wheels is 1.2 m. Coefficient of
friction is 0.8. What is the retardation if the brakes are applied to the front wheels?
a) 3.4 m/s2
b) 2.4 m/s2
c) 1.4 m/s2
d) 4.4 m/s2

7. If the car is moving on the level road at a speed of 50 km/h has a wheelbase 4 m, a
distance of C.G. from ground 800 mm and distance from rear wheels is 1.2 m. Coefficient of
friction is 0.8. What is the retardation if the brakes are applied to all wheels?
a) 7.8 m/s2
b) 6.8 m/s2
c) 5.8 m/s2
d) 4.8 m/s2
8. The car is moving up on the 12o inclined road with horizontal at 36 km/h which is having
wheelbase 1.4 m. The C.G. of the car is 0.9 m above the road. The coefficient of friction is
0.7. What is the retardation of the car if the brakes are applied to all the four wheels?
a) 8.75 m/s2
b) 8.81 m/s2
c) 7.71 m/s2
d) 6.81 m/s2

Answer: a
Explanation: α is the inclination angle in degree = 12°, μ is the coefficient of friction = 0.7.
When the vehicle is moving up on the inclined road and brakes are applied to all four
wheels than the retardation a = g*(μ*cosα + sinα) = 9.81*(0.7*cos12° + sin12°) = 8.75 m/s2.
9. The car is moving down on the 14° inclined road with horizontal at 36 km/h which is
having wheelbase 1.4 m. The C.G. of the car is 0.9 m above the road. The coefficient of
friction is 0.75. What is the retardation of the car if the brakes are applied to all the four
wheels?
a) 4.76 m/s2
b) 5.76 m/s2
c) 6.76 m/s2
d) 7.76 m/s2

Answer: a
Explanation: α is the inclination angle in degree = 14° μ is the coefficient of friction = 0.75.
When the vehicle is moving down on the inclined road and brakes are applied to all four
wheels than the retardation a = g*(μ*cosα – sinα) = 9.81*(0.75*cos14° – sin14°) = 4.76 m/s2.

10. The metering valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the front and the
rear axle.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The proportioning valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the
front and the rear axle.
 Automobile Engineering Questions and Answers – Ignition System
1. Which instrument is used for adjusting the ignition timing?
a) Accurate clock
b) Tachometer
c) Stopwatch
d) Stroboscopic light

Answer: d
Explanation: Stroboscope is used for adjusting the ignition timing. It is the light-emitting
device which is connected to the spark plug of the cylinder for setting the ignition timing.

2. Which of the following firing order is commonly used for the four-cylinder vertical engine?
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 3-4-1-2
c) 4-3-2-1
d) 1-3-4-2

Answer: d
Explanation: 1-3-4-2 firing order is commonly used for a four-cylinder engine. For the four-
cylinder engine, the firing order is decided such that a power stroke occurs every 180
degrees.

3. What is the dwell time?

a) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain closed
b) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain open
c) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves open
d) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves close

Answer: a
Explanation: The dwell time is the time for which the contact breaker points remain closed.
Dwell is the time for which the coil turned on.

4. Which of the following is not considered while deciding the optimum firing order of the
engine?
a) Engine vibration
b) Engine cooling
c) Development of the backpressure
d) Engine configuration

Answer: d
Explanation: Engine vibration, engine cooling, and development of back pressure are
considered while deciding the optimum firing order of the engine. The reduced vibration is
required for optimum firing order of the engine.
5. Why is the Dwell meter used?
a) To set the spark plug gap
b) To set the ignition advance
c) To set the contact breaker gap
d) To set ignition timing

Answer: c
Explanation: The dwell meter used for setting the contact breaker gap. It uses the dwell
angle as the parameter to set the contact breaker gap. To set the ignition timing
stroboscope is used.

6. Which of the following is the disadvantage of the magneto ignition system?

a) Magneto ignition system has a poor quality of spark during starting
b) Magneto ignition system occupies more space
c) Magneto ignition system has more maintenance problems
d) Magneto ignition system is used largely in four wheels

Answer: a
Explanation: During starting, the quality of the spark is poor due to low speed. Magneto
ignition system is mainly used in racing cars and two-wheelers. The main advantage is that
it does not require a battery.

7. For how many times the contact breaker must make and break the circuit for a four-
cylinder engine operating at N rpm?
a) N times
b) 1.5N times
c) N/2 times
d) 2N times

Answer: d
Explanation: The cam is having the same number of lobes as there are engine cylinders.
They are used with two contact breakers in parallel.

8. Which of the following is the wrong statement?

a) In the exhaust, retarded timing causes burning of the hydrocarbons
b) The retarded timing improves fuel economy
c) The retarded timing requires the small opening for correct burning of the fuel
d) The exhaust gas temperature becomes higher due to retarded time

Answer: b
Explanation: The retarded timing reduces fuel economy. Due to spark retardation, the fuel
burns slowly and after some time than it should be burned.
9. On which condition does the vacuum advance mechanism shift the ignition point?
a) Under part-load operation
b) Under full load operation
c) Under no-load operation
d) Under sudden acceleration

Answer: a
Explanation: The vacuum advance mechanism shifts the ignition point under part-load
operation. The adjustment system is designed so that its operation results in the part-load
advance curve.
10. The optimum spark timing must be retarded for the engine operating with a rich mixture.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum spark timing must be advanced for the engine operating with a
rich mixture. The larger throttle opening size means better mixing and combustion.
Automobile Engineering Questions and Answers – Alternative Fuels for IC Engines

1. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to alcohols as alternate fuel?
a) Anti-knock characteristics of alcohol are poor
b) Alcohol contains about half the heat energy of gasoline/liter
c) Alcohol does not vaporize as easily as gasoline
d) Alcohols are corrosive in nature

Answer: a
Explanation: Alcohol is a high octane fuel. It has an anti-knock index number of over 100.
The engines which use the high octane fuel run more efficiently by using higher
compression ratios.

2. Why a small amount of gasoline is added to alcohol?

a) To reduce the emission
b) To increase the power output
c) To increase the power efficiency
d) To improve cold-weather starting

Answer: d
Explanation: When a small amount of gasoline is added to alcohol, it improves cold-weather
starting. Alcohols have low energy content. This means that almost twice as much alcohol
as gasoline must be burned to give the same energy input.

3. What is gasohol?
a) 90% ethanol + 10% gasoline
b) 10% ethanol + 90% gasoline
c) 40% ethanol + 60% gasoline
d) 50% ethanol + 50% gasoline

Answer: b
Explanation: Gasohol is 10% ethanol and 90% gasoline. Gasohol is also known for E10.
E10 reduces the use of gasoline with no modification needed to the automobile engine. E10
is basically an alcohol fuel with 90% gasoline added to eliminate some of the problems of
pure alcohol.

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC engine?

a) Storage is easy
b) Low NOx emissions
c) Detonating tendency
d) Easy handling

Answer: c
Explanation: The disadvantage of hydrogen fuel is that the detonating tendency. The other
disadvantages of hydrogen fuel are high NOx emissions because of high flame temperature
and difficult to refuel.
5. Which of the following is the advantage of the hydrogen as a fuel?
a) High volumetric efficiency
b) Low fuel cost
c) No HC and CO emissions
d) Relatively safe

Answer: c
Explanation: The advantage of hydrogen fuel is no hydrocarbon and CO emissions. The
most exhaust gases would be H2O and N2 and NOx.

6. What is the major disadvantage of LPG as a fuel in the automobile?

a) Reduction in the life of the engine
b) Less power compared to gasoline
c) Reduction in the life of the engine and less power compared to gasoline
d) Knocking tendency

Answer: c
Explanation: The major disadvantage of LPG is the reduction in the life of the engine and
less power compared to gasoline. The other disadvantage of LPG is a special fuel feed
system is required for liquid petroleum gas (LPG).

7. Why alcohols cannot be used in CI engines?

a) Alcohols have a high self-ignition temperature
b) The latent heat of vaporization is low
c) Alcohols have high self-ignition temperature and low latent heat of vaporization
d) High efficiency

Answer: c
Explanation: Alcohols have high self-ignition temperature and low latent heat of
vaporization. That is why they cannot be used in CI engines.

8. Which of the following is the major constituent of natural gas?

a) Methane
b) Ethane
c) Butane
d) Propane

Answer: a
Explanation: Methane is the major constituent of natural gas. The composition varies from
place to place and from time to time. Natural gas is a mixture of components, consisting,
mainly of methane (65-95%) with small amounts of other hydrocarbon fuel components.
9. Why methanol is not used in CI engine?
a) Its octane number is high
b) Its cetane number is low
c) Its octane number is high and the cetane number is low
d) Its octane number is low and the cetane number is high

Answer: c
Explanation: Methanol is not used in CI engines because of its high octane number and low
cetane number. Pure methanol and gasoline in various percentages have been extensively
tested in engines and vehicles for a number of years.

10. What is octane number of natural gas?

a) 60-80
b) 80-100
c) >100
d) <60

Answer: b
Explanation: The octane number of natural gas ranges between 80 and 100, due to which it
is used as SI engine fuel. The advantages of natural gas are low engine emissions.
 I.C Engines Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
MCQ IC Engines
Practice Test: Question Set - 01
1. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
(A) Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
(B) Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(C) Opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead center
(D) May open or close anywhere

2. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure into the engine cylinder is known as
(A) Supercharging
(B) Carburetion
(C) Turbulence
(D) Delay period

3. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is

(A) The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression
stroke
(B) Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
(C) Ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
(D) Swept volume/cylinder volume

4. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ =
Ratio of specific heats)
(A) 1 - 𝑟 𝛾 - 1
(B) 1 + 𝑟 𝛾 - 1
(C) 1 - (1/𝑟 𝛾 - 1)
(D) None of these
5. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging
(A) Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
(B) There can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of detonation
(C) Supercharging at high altitudes is essential
(D) Supercharging results in fuel economy

6. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are _________ the speed
of the engine in r.p.m.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four-times

7. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of
(A) 6: 1
(B) 9: 1
(C) 12: 1
(D) 15: 1

8. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the
combustion chamber of the engine cylinder is known as
(A) Scavenging
(B) Detonation
(C) Supercharging
(D) Polymerisation
9. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located
(A) Above the piston
(B) Below the piston
(C) Between the pistons
(D) There is no such criterion

10. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of
spark is called

(A) Pre-ignition
(B) Detonation
(C) Ignition delay
(D) Auto-ignition

11. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

(A) Fuel injection starts at 10° before top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center
(B) Fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center
(C) Fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just after top dead center
(D) May start and end anywhere

12. Which one of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?
(A) 30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
(B) 30 kW two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
(C) 30 kW two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
(D) 30 kW four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
13. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Fuel oil
(D) Gasoline

14. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine
is _________ as compared to a steam engine.
(A) Low
(B) Very low
(C) High
(D) Very high

15. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will
(A) Increase linearly
(B) Decrease linearly
(C) Increase parabolically
(D) Decrease parabolically
Practice Test: Question Set - 02
1. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency
will
(A) Remain same
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) None of these

2. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
(A) Scavenging
(B) Turbulence
(C) Supercharging
(D) Pre-ignition

3. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

(A) Cetane number
(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) All of these

4. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
(A) Maximum pressure developed
(B) Minimum pressure
(C) Instantaneous pressure at any instant
(D) Average pressure
5. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by
(A) High self-ignition temperature
(B) Low volatility
(C) Higher viscosity
(D) All of these

6. Pour point of fuel oil is the

(A) Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in
sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
(B) Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
(C) It catches fire without external aid
(D) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

7. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression

(A) Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 30° before top dead centre
(B) Starts at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after bottom dead centre
(C) Starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre
(D) May start and end anywhere

8. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of

(A) 500-1000°C
(B) 1000-1500°C
(C) 1500-2000°C
(D) 2000-2500°C
9. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a
(A) Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
(B) Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
(C) Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
(D) None of the above

10. Supercharging is the process of

(A) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
(B) Providing forced cooling air
(C) Injecting excess fuel for raising more loads
(D) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully

11. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

(A) Retarding the spark
(B) Increasing the engine speed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

12. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

(A) Speed
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume of cylinder
(D) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
13. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve
(A) Opens at 30° before bottom dead centre and closes at 10° after top dead centre
(B) Opens at 30° after bottom dead centre and closes at 10° before top dead centre
(C) Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
(D) May open and close anywhere

14. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of
(A) 6 kg/cm
(B) 12 kg/cm
(C) 20 kg/cm
(D) 35 kg/cm

15. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are
(A) Paraffin, aromatic, napthene
(B) Paraffin, napthene, aromatic
(C) Napthene, aromatics, paraffin
(D) Napthene, paraffin, aromatic
 Starting System

1. Which device is used to check the current?

a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Odometer

2. Which device is used to check the voltage?

a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Odometer

3. Continuity in the field windings can be tested in which device?

a) Voltmeter
b) Multimeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Ammeter

4. If there is a wear or damage is more than the permissible limits, what has to be done?
a) Replace the brushes
b) Grind the brushes
c) Skim the brushes
d) Mill the brushes

5. In the case of shift, it must be noted that the test should not be continued for more than how many
seconds?
a) 31-40min
b) 5-7sec
c) 30-55min
d) 10-15seconds

6. Which accessory in the car is used to indicate the working condition of starter motor?
a) Speaker
b) Light
c) Alternator
d) Battery
7. Lights go off completely, what does this indicate concerning Starter motor?
a) Low battery power
b) Loose connection
c) Open circuit in the field winding
d) Defective starter motor

8. Lights get dim heavily, what does this indicate concerning Starter motor?
a) Weak battery
b) Loose connection
c) Open circuit in the field winding
d) Defective starter motor

9. Lights dim but slightly, what does this indicate concerning Starter motor?
a) Weak battery
b) Loose connection
c) Open circuit in the field winding
d) Defective starter motor

10. Lights remain unaffected, what does this indicate concerning Starter motor?
a) Weak battery
b) Loose connection
c) Open circuit in the field winding
d) Defective starter motor

11. In modern starters, the pole shoes are replaced with which component?
a) Titanium coil
b) Carbon brushes
c) Permanent magnet
d) Electro-magnet

12. How is the drive system between the engine and gearbox in modern starter motor?
a) Shaft drive
b) Belt drive
c) Belt drive or connected directly to the flywheel
d) Connected directly to the flywheel

13. What is the minimum cranking speed for a C.I engine without glow-plugs?
a) 150-180rpm
b) 60 to 140rpm
c) 60-90rpm
d) 100-200rpm
 Automobile Engineering Questions and Answers – Wheel and Tire

1. Which types of wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tire?

a) Disc wheel
b) Light alloy wheel
c) Wire wheel
d) Composite wheel

Answer: c
Explanation: Wire wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tire. Wire wheels are expensive
due to their construction. The rim of a wired wheel has holes, due to which it is not possible
to fit tubeless tires on wire wheels.

2. Which type of wheels is preferred in sports cars?

a) Disc wheel
b) Wire wheel
c) Magnesium alloy wheel
d) Aluminum alloy wheel

Answer: c
Explanation: Magnesium alloy wheels are preferred in sports cars. Magnesium alloy wheels
have high impact and fatigue strength so that they can stand vibration and shock loading
better.

3. In case of a wire wheel, the vehicle weight is supported by the wire in _________
a) Tension
b) Bending
c) Shear
d) Compression

Answer: a
Explanation: The vehicle weight is supported by the wire in tension in case of a wire wheel.
The side forces on cornering are taken up by the spoke forming triangular arrangement.

4. What does the ‘ply rating’ refer to?

a) Aspect ratio
b) Rated strength
c) Recommended inflation pressure
d) The actual number of plies

Answer: b
Explanation: The ‘ply rating’ refers to rated strength. It is referred to the number of layers of
cotton from which the ply is made. The ply rating is high that means the size of the tire is
tough.
5. Where will an underinflated tire wear the thread most?
a) Near center
b) Near the edge
c) In the cross direction
d) In the lateral direction

Answer: b
Explanation: An underinflated tire will wear the thread near the edge most. It is sometimes
visible in the shape of sidewall cracking.

6. Where will an overinflated tire wear the thread most?

a) Near center
b) Near the edge
c) In the cross direction
d) In the lateral direction

Answer: a
Explanation: An overinflated tire will wear the thread near the center. This type of tire break
is caused when an object is hit with a force.

7. What do the permissible of mixing cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tires allow?
a) Cross-ply tires on left wheels
b) Cross-ply tires on right wheels
c) Cross-ply tires on front wheels
d) Cross-ply tires on rear wheels

Answer: c
Explanation: The permissible of mixing cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tires allow cross-
ply tires on front wheels. In cross-ply type tires, the ply cords are woven at an angle to the
tire axis.

8. What is the purpose of tire rotation on automobiles?

a) Avoid ply separation
b) Equalize wear
c) Get better ride
d) Reduce bump

Answer: b
Explanation: Equalize wear is the purpose of tire rotation on automobiles. The advantage of
tires wearing uniformly is wear reduces a tire’s tread depth equally if all the tires wear at the
same rate.
9. A car is fitted with 6 * 14 wheels and 185/65 R 14 tires on them. What is the rolling radius
of the original tire?
a) 398.05 mm
b) 298.05 mm
c) 288.05 mm
d) 278.05 mm

Answer: b
Explanation: Radius of the wheel = ½ * 14 = 7 in = 177.8 mm. Section height of tire = 0.65 *
185 = 120.25 mm. Rolling radius of the original tires = 177.8 + 120.25 = 298.05 mm.
10. What does the code 145 SR -13 tire designation represent?
a) 145” width, 13” diameter, cross-ply
b) 145 mm width, 13” diameter, radial-ply
c) 145” width, 13 cm diameter, radial-ply
d) 145 mm width, 13 cm diameter, cross-ply

Answer: b
Explanation: The tire designation is of the form width (mm), speed rating, type of ply, and
diameter (in) in the same order. So 145 SR – 13 signifies that width = W = 145 mm, speed
rating = S which is up to 170 Kmph, the ply is of radial type, and diameter = 13” or 13 in =
330 mm.