AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL and SYSTEMS

1. Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and
q=dynamic pressure)
a) pt = ps + q
b) pt = ps - q
c) pt = q - ps
d) pt = ps / q

2. The unit of density is:

a) kg/m³
b) psi
c) kg/cm²
d) Bar

3. The unit of measurement of pressure is:

a) psi
b) kg/m³
c) lb/gal
d) kg/dm²

4. The total pressure is:

a) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
b) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
c) ½ rho V²
d) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.

5. The (subsonic) static pressure:

a) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
b) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
c) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
d) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

6. The true airspeed (TAS) is:

a) lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below
sea level.
b) higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.
c) equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level.
d) lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.

7. The difference between IAS and TAS will:

a) decrease at decreasing altitude.
b) increase at decreasing temperature.
c) increase at increasing air density.
d) decrease at increasing speed.

8. What is the unit of measurement for power ?

a) Nm/s
b) kgm/s²
c) Pa/m²
d) N/m

9. The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as :

a) Newton
b) Pascal
 c) Joule
d) Watt

10. The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the
subsonic and incompressible flow inside is
a) decreasing.
b) not changing.
c) increasing.
d) sonic.

11. If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if
the cross sectional area of a tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and
incompressible flow)
a) rho1 = rho2
b) rho1 < rho2
c) rho1 > rho2
d) The density depends on the change of the tube area.

12. Bernoulli's equation can be written as :(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q
= dynamic pressure)
a) pt - q = ps
b) pt = ps - q
c) pt + ps = q
d) pt = q – ps

13. The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is:
a) angle of attack.
b) glide path angle.
c) climb path angle.
d) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.

14. Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is:
a) negative (pitch-down).
b) equal to zero.
c) infinite
d) positive (pitch-up).

15. On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is:
a) zero
b) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.
c) positive (pitch-up)
d) negative (pitch-down)

16. Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:

a) relative wind/airflow.
b) chord line.
c) horizon.
d) longitudinal axis.

17. The correct drag formula is:

a) D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
b) D= CD 2 RHO V² S
c) D= CD 1/2 RHO V S
d) D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S

18. Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the
a) relative wind/airflow.
b) chord line.
c) longitudinal axis.
d) horizon.
19. The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle
between the:
a) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow.
b) bottom surface and the horizontal
c) bottom surface and the relative airflow.
d) bottom surface and the chord line.

20. The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between :
a) the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.
b) the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
c) the fuselage core line and the free stream direction.
d) the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.

21. The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:
a) angle of incidence.
b) glide path angle.
c) angle of attack.
d) climb path angle.

22. The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
a) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
wind/airflow.
b) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
c) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
b) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio

23. Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?

a) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
b) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
c) for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
d) for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0

24. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:

a) % chord.
b) camber.
c) meters.
d) degrees cross section tail angle.

25. ""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :
a) the camber line
b) the chord line
c) the mean aerodynamic chord line
d) the upper camber line
26. What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
a) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at
different weights and altitudes.
b) The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.
c) The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.
d) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different
weights and altitudes.

27. The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable

loadfactor because exceeding that altitude:
a) turbulence may induce Mach buffet.
b) turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.
c) a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.
d) Mach buffet will occur immediately.
28. Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset'
Mach number?
a) No, this is not acceptable
b) Yes, this causes no problems.
c) Yes, but only during approach.
d) Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.

29. A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a
buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g
incremental the pilot must :
a) fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number
b) extend the flaps to the first selection
c) fly at a higher Mach-number
d) fly at a larger angle of attack

30. The buffet margin :

a) increases during a descent with a constant IAS.
b) is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.
c) decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
d) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.

31. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
a) decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.
b) increase the critical Mach Number.
c) decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.
d) increase the magnitude of the shock wave.

32. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:

a) decrease wave drag.
b) increase wave drag.
c) increase critical Mach Number.
d) decrease critical Mach Number.

33. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will

a) decrease the shock wave induced separation.
b) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
c) decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
d) increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.

34. How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position
in front of a shock wave to behind it ?
a) Density will increase, temperature will increase.
b) Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
c) Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
d) Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.

35. At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?
a) The ground speed of the aeroplane.
b) The speed of sound at ground level.
c) The speed of sound at flight level.
d) The true air speed of the aeroplane.

36. In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:

a) in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.
b) outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.
c) in front of the aeroplane.
d) very weak and negligible.
37. ""Tuck under"" may happen at:
a) high Mach numbers.
b) low Mach numbers.
 c) all Mach numbers.
d) only at low altitudes.

38. Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?

a) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing
aeroplane above a certain Mach number.
b) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to
MMO.
c) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high
Mach numbers.
d) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up.

39. In case the Mach trimmer fails:

a) the Mach number must be limited.
b) try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.
c) the speed must be kept constant.
d) the aeroplane weight must be limited.

40. A Machtrimmer:
a) corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers.
b) increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.
c) is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers.
d) has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully
hydraulic controlled aeroplane.

41. The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected
by:
a) (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position.
b) (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
c) (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position.
d) (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim.

42. Which statement about stick force per g is correct?

a) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure
acceptable control characteristics.
b) The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.
c) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability
augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value.
e) If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for
control of an aeroplane.

43. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in
straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the
load factor of 2.5 is:
a) 225 N.
b) 375 N.
c) 450 N.
d) 150 N.

44. An aeroplane has static directional stability, in a side-slip to the right, initially the:
a) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.
b) right wing tends to go down.
c) nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.
d) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.

45. The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
a) Stabilizing effect
b) No effect
c) Destabilizing dihedral effect
d) Negative dihedral effect
46. The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:
a) Positive dihedral effect
b) Negative dihedral effect
c) Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading
d) Zero dihedral effect

47. Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral
stability ?
a) High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.
b) Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.
c) Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.
d) Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.

48. Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an
aeroplane?
a) Anhedral.
b) Dihedral.
c) High wing.
d) Increased wing span.

49. The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows :
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)
a. 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive
b. 1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negative
c. 1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positive
d. 1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative

50. Dihedral of the wing:

a. increases the static lateral stability.
b. is the only way to increase the static lateral stability.
c. is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings.
d. decreases the static lateral stability.

51. Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip
angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ?
a. the required lateral control force increases.
b. the required lateral control force decreases.
c. the required lateral control force does not change.
d. the stick force per g decreases.

52. Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?

a. The ""effective dihedral"" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of
that component to the static lateral stability.
b) Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line and the lateral axis of the
aeroplane.
c) Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.
e) Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns.

53. Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is
correct?
a. An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static
lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive. (spiral instability)
b) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of
each other because they take place about different axis.
c) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
stability, will be prone to ""Dutch roll"".
d) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.

54. Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when :

 a. the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is
relatively weak.
b) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.
c) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
d) the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.

55. Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to ""Dutch roll""?
a. Yaw damper.
b. Roll spoilers.
c. Spoiler mixer.
d. Rudder limiter.

56. Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?

a. Dutch roll.
b. Tuck under.
c. Spiral dive.
d. Buffeting.

57. What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?

a. An increased static lateral stability.
b. An increased static directional stability.
c. A forward movement of the centre of gravity.
d. An increased anhedral.

58. With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the
dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:
a. (1) increase (2) decrease.
b. (1) increase (2) increase.
c. (1) decrease (2) decrease.
d. (1) decrease (2) increase.

59. Rotation about the lateral axis is called :

a. pitching.
b. rolling.
c. yawing.
d. slipping.

60. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:

a. longitudinal axis.
b. vertical axis.
c. lateral axis.
d. wing axis.
61. The centre of gravity moving aft will:
a. increase the elevator up effectiveness.
b. decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
c. not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
d. increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

62. In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the
centre of gravity could be limited by the:
a. elevator capability, elevator control forces.
b. engine thrust, engine location.
c. trim system, trim tab surface.
d. wing surface, stabilizer surface.

63. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre
with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
a. larger.
b. smaller.
c. unchanged.
 d. dependent on trim position.

64. An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to
a location beneath the wing, is :
a. less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.
b. easier maintenance of the engines.
c. a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.
d. lighter wing construction.

65. What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing
mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating
propellers:
a. More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
b. The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.
c. The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.
d. Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.

66. A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its
normal cruise Mach number. In this case
a. only the inboard ailerons are active.
b. only the outboard aileron are active.
c. the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.
d. only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.

67. Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as

a. ailerons and flaps.
b. ailerons and elevator.
c. flaps and speed brakes.
d. flaps and elevator.

68. When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ?

a. Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.
b. Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value..
c. Landing gear retracted.
d. Landing gear extended.

69. During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function
induces a spoiler deflection:
a. downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.
b. upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.
c. on the upgoing wing only.
d. on the downgoing wing only.

70. Differential aileron deflection:

a. equals the drag of the right and left aileron.
b. is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
c. increases the CLmax.
d. is required to achieve the required roll-rate.

71. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:
a. Left aileron: 5° upRight aileron: 2° down
b. Left aileron: 2° upRight aileron: 5° down
c. Left aileron: 5° downRight aileron: 2° up
d. Left aileron: 2° downRight aileron: 5° up

72. How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn ?
a. Differential aileron deflection
b. Horn-balanced controls
c. Anti-balanced rudder control
d. Servo tabs
73. One method to compensate adverse yaw is a
a. differential aileron.
b. balance tab.
c. antibalance tab.
d. balance panel.
74. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?
a. In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger
upward than downward maximum deflection.
b) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
c) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.
d) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.

75. Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

a. Adverse yaw.
b. Aileron reversal.
c. Sensitivity for spiral dive.
d. Turn co-ordination.

76. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes:

a. a roll to port (left).
b. a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
c. an increase in lift on the port (left) wing.
d. a roll to starboard (right).

77. Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

a. Rolling and yawing.
b. Pitching and yawing.
c. Pitching and rolling.
d. Pitching and adverse yaw.

78. Which statement is correct about a spring tab ?

a. At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab
b. At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab
c. At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator
d. Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g

79. Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered
flight controls ?
a. Servo tab
b. Spring tab
c. Balance tab
d. Anti-balance tab

80. An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the
elevator jams during flight ?
a. Pitch control reverses direction.
b. Pitch control has been lost.
c. The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
d. The pitch control forces double.

81. A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:

a. to decrease stick forces.
b. to prevent flutter.
c. to obtain mass balancing.
d. to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.

82. Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is
correct ?
a. The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
 b. The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
c. The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
d. Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

83. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

a. seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn
balance
b) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control
surface
c) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance
d) Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder

84. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

a. servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge
of control surface.
b) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
c) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
d) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.

85. When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this:
a. ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.
b. makes trimming superfluous.
c. makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless.
d. can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.

86. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal
stabilizer of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim ?
a) The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position
of the centre of gravity.
b) The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero.
c) At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected
downward.
d) The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining
flare capability.

87. How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for
speed increase ?
a) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim
tab
b) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
c) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliser
d) The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change

88. In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with
an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because :
a) effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
b) the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
c) mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems
d) trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

89. How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a
speed decrease ?
a) The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected
trimtab.
b) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser.
c) Nothing changes in the exterior view.
 d) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trimtab.

90. If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents:
a) nose-down.
b) neutral.
c) nose-up.
d) nose-left.

91. One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer

system is that:
a) it is a more powerful means of trimming
b) the structure weighs less
c) it leads to greater stability in flight
d) the system's complexity is reduced

92. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in
the cruise flight position ?
a) choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting for
landing.
b) choose a lower landing speed than normal.
c) if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.
d) use the Mach trimmer until after landing.

93. Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the
maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable
Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND
(Aeroplane Noise Down) position.
a) The rotation will require extra stick force.
b) If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system
will be activated.
c) Early nose wheel raising will take place.
d) Nothing special will happen.

94. Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and
adjustable stabiliser position ?
a) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than
compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
b) Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the
need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only.
c) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared
with a tail heavy aeroplane.
d) At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum Nose Down to
obtain maximum elevator authority at take off rotation.

95. ""Flutter"" may be caused by:

a) distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration
in the resonance frequency.
b) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
c) roll control reversal.
d) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

96. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach

Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a) VMO.
b) VNE.
c) VD.
d) MMO.
97. VMO :
a) should be not greater than VC.
 b) should be chosen in between VC and VD
c) is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.
d) is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35 000 ft.

98. A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a) MMO.
b) VMO.
c) VA.
d) MD.

99. Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?

a) At constant IAS the Mach number increases
b) At constant IAS the TAS decreases
c) At constant Mach number the IAS increases
d) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases

100.The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport
aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:(SQRT= square root)
a) VA= VS SQRT(2.5)
b) VS= VA SQRT(2.5)
c) VS= VA SQRT(3.75)
d) Va= VA SQRT(3.75)

101.By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by
19%?
a) 10% lower.
b) 4.36% lower.
c) no change
d) 19% lower.

102.Which load factor determines VA?

a) manoeuvring limit load factor.
b) manoeuvring ultimate load factor.
c) gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.
d) manoeuvring flap limit load factor.

103.What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ?
a) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards
b) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
c) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic
pressure.
d) It will collapse if a turn is made.

104.What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring
diagram?
a) 2.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.75
d) 6

105.VA is:
a) the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.
b) the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
c) the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.
d) the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.

106.Load factor is :
a) Lift/Weight
b) Weight/Lift
 c) 1/Bank angle
d) Wing loading

107.For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is :

a) the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at
MTOW.
b) the maximum speed in smooth air
c) the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without
exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor
d) just another symbol for the rough air speed

108.The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with
flaps extended is:
a) 2.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.75

109.The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility
category in the clean configuration is:
a) 4.4
b) 2.5
c) 3.8
d) 6.0
110.Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all
other factors of importance being constant) ?1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the
wing will increase the gust load factor.2. Increasing the speed will increase the
gust load factor.
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
b) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
d) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

111.Which of the following statements is true?

a) Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin
to the structural limitations
b) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is possible to reduce the speed and
increase the margins to the structural limits
c) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall speed will be reduced and the
risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased
d) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the centre of pressure will move aft
which will increase the margins to the structural limits

112.The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase
in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly
changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be :
a) 1.71
b) 0.74
c) 1.49
d) 2.49

113.The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase
of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly
changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be :
a) 2.13
b) 1.09
c) 2.0
d) 3.18

114.The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three
 vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration) :
a) 25, 50, 66
b) 15, 56, 65
c) 25, 55, 75
d) 35, 55, 66

115.Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean

configuration) ?
a) 50 ft/sec and VC.
b) 66 ft/sec and VD.
c) 65 ft/sec at all speeds.
d) 55 ft/sec and VB.

116.The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is
created by the speed:
a) VD
b) VC
c) Vflutter
d) VMO

117.The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase
in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly
changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load factor will be :
a) 1.45
b) 0.9
c) 0.45
d) 1.9

118.Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being
constant)
a) Vertical gusts
b) Increased aeroplane mass
c) Increased air density
d) Rearward CG location

119.What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :

a) swept wings
b) straight wings
c) wing dihedral
d) winglets

120.Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other
factors of importance remaining constant) ?1. the gust load increases, when the
weight decreases.2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.
a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
b) 1 and 2 are correct.
c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
d) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

121.The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and:
a) Local air speed vector.
b) Direction of propeller axis.
c) Aeroplane heading.
d) Principal direction of propeller blade.
122.Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?
a) geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is
travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution
b) Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axis
c) Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical plane
d) Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of
 propeller blade occurs.

123.Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?

a) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio
of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the
aeroplane.
b) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that
segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.
c) To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
d) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.

124.Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch

propellers because they:
a) produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.
b) have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.
c) produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.
d) have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.

125.If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide
with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
b) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
c) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.

126.Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal

turbulence?
a) Yes slightly.
b) Yes strongly.
c) No.
d) Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.

127.Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?

a) The blade angle increases with increasing speed.
b) The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.
c) The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.
d) The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.

128.The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when :
a) RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
b) velocity and RPM increase
c) forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing
d) velocity and RPM decrease

129.If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS
the lift to drag ratio will
a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.

130.If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS
the lift to drag ratio will
a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.

131.For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade,
132.measured at the reference section:
 a) is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.
b) decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).
c) is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).
d) is always positive during idling descent.

133.Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:

a) usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power.
b) the thrust and the maximum thrust.
c) the usable (power available) power and the maximum power.
d) the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.

134.If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle
power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
135.When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position:
a) the drag of the propeller is then minimal.
b) the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.
c) the windmilling RPM is the maximum.
d) the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.

136.Increasing the number of propeller blades will:

a) increase the maximum absorption of power.
b) increase the propeller efficiency.
c) increase the noise level at maximum power.
d) decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power.

137.Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades ?

a) decrease propeller efficiency
b) Increased noise
c) Less power can be absorbed by the propeller
d) Higher tip-speed

138.A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The torque effect in the take-off
will:
a) roll the aeroplane to the left.
b) pitch the aeroplane nose down.
c) roll the aeroplane to the right.
d) pitch the aeroplane nose up.

139.Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by:

a) pitching and yawing.
b) pitching and rolling.
c) increasing RPM and yawing.
d) increasing RPM and rolling.

140.A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect
is mainly induced by:
a) high angles of attack.
b) high speed.
c) large angles of yaw.
d) large angles of climb.

141.A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect
in the climb will:
a) yaw the aeroplane to the left.
b) roll the aeroplane to the left.
c) yaw the aeroplane to the right.
 d) roll the aeroplane to the right.

142.An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min
vertical speed. In this condition:
a) weight is greater than lift
b) lift is equal to weight
c) lift is less than drag
d) drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward

143.What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a
glide ?
a) The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack
b) The wind and the aeroplane's mass
c) The wind and CLmax
d) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the
weight

144.Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?

a) The gliding angle is minimum.
b) The CL/CD ratio is minimum.
c) Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
d) Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.
145.A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
a) increase thrust and angle of attack.
b) increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
c) increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
d) increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.

146.An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of
45°. Its turning radius is equal to:(given: g= 10 m/s²)
a) 2381 metres.
b) 4743 metres.
c) 9000 metres.
d) 3354 metres.

147.By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of
bank, compared to straight and level flight?
a) 41%.
b) 19%.
c) 31%.
d) 52%.

148.A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy
aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:
a) turn at the same turn radius.
b) turn at a bigger turn radius.
c) turn at a smaller turn radius.
d) turn at a higher turn rate.
149.81.8.1.5 (5676)
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
a) TAS.
b) weight.
c) load factor.
d) wind.
150.The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is left of neutral. To
coordinate the turn:
a) more right bank is required.
b) more right rudder is required.
c) less right bank is required.
d) a higher turn rate is required.

151.What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50

000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ?
a) 70 000 N
b) 60 000 N
c) 50 000 N
d) 80 000 N

152.Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine
failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings
level ?
a) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.
b) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
c) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
d) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.

153.Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?

a) Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery
runways.
b) Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
c) Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
been lifted off the ground.
d) Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

1. An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :

a) generating lift.
b) flying at high speed.
c) using a high engine R.P.M.
d) flying with its gear and flaps extended.
154. The static pressure is acting:
a. in all directions.
b. only in direction of the flow.
c. only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
d. only in the direction of the total pressure.

155.Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is V. An
increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will:
a. decrease the mass flow.
b. increase the mass flow.
c. not affect the mass flow.
d. increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.

156.Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?

a. The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
b. The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
c. The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
d. The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
157.On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the
vertical bending moments Mx are:
a. the spars.
b. the ribs.
 c. the webs.
d. the skin.

158.The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is :

a. to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence
b. to a have greater effectiveness at high speed
c. that it does not require a de-icing system
d. to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation

159.A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to :

a. avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
b. absorb the spring tension.
c. control the wheels.
d. lock the landing gear.

160.In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
a. Hydraulically driven.
b. Mechanically driven.
c. Pneumatically driven.
d. Electrically driven.

161.Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended
if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.
a. Mechanically
b. Electrically.
c. Pneumatically.
d. By hydraulic accumulators.

162.If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:
a. Repaired several times.
b. repaired once.
c. Never repaired.
d. Used on the nose wheel only.

163.The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will
be :
a. Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
b. Increased on the faster turning wheels.
c. Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
d. Increased on the slower turning wheels.

164.The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

a. Multiple disk brake.
b. Drum type brake.
c. Single disk brake.
d. Belt brake.

165.The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :
a. release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
b. prevent the brakes from overheating.
c. prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
d. release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.

166.Thermal plugs are installed in:

a. wheel rims.
b. fire warning systems.
c. cabin windows.
 d. cargo compartments.

167.When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 0.1

168.Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:1. the wheels
tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground2. the wheels no longer respond
to the pilot's actionsThis effect is overcome by means of:3. the torque link4. an
accumulator associated with the steering cylinderThe combination of correct
statements is:
a. 1, 3.
b. 1, 4.
c. 2, 4.
d. 2, 3.

169.The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is :
a. locked-down.
b. in the required position.
c. locked-down and its door is locked.
d. not in the required position.
170.A tubeless tyre has :1- a built-in-air tube.2- no built-in-air tube.3- a crossed side
casing.4- a radial side casing.The combination of correct statements is:
a. 2, 4.
b. 1, 4.
c. 2, 3.
d. 1,3.

171.In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

a. an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic
failure.
b. a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic
braking system.
c. designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent
wheel blocking.
d. a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity
braking.

172.Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on
larger aircraft ?
a. Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
b. Nitrogen.
c. Oxygen.
d. Springs.

173.In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of :
a. A latch located in the landing gear lever.
b. An aural warning horn.
c. A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
d. A bolt.

174.A tubeless tyre is a tyre:1. which requires solid or branched wheels2. whose valve
can be sheared in sudden accelerations3. whose mounting rim must be flawless4.
which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device5.
which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture6. which eliminates internal
friction between the tube and the tireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :
 a. 1, 5, 6.
b. 3, 4, 5.
c. 1, 2, 5.
d. 2, 3, 6.

175.Landing gear torque links are used to:

a. prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
b. take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
c. prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
d. maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

176.A main landing gear is said to be ""locked down"" when:

a. the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
b. it is in the down position.
c. the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.
d. the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.

177.The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
data is:1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake
temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressureThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
c. 2, 4.
d. 1, 3.

178.On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
derived from :
a. the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
b. the master cylinders.
c. pressure to the rudder pedals.
d. the brake actuators.

179.""Nose wheel shimmy"" may be described as :

a. a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
b. the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
c. the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
d. aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

180.The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie
181.gear is
a. Taxiing with a small turning radius.
b. Touch down with crosswind
c. Gear down selection
d. Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

182.Tyre ""creep"" may be described as the :

a. circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
b. the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature.
c. the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.
d. gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
183.The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing ..
a. by pilot action
b. automatically
c. at a certain low speed
d. the system is always armed

184.The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are :
 a. the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring
function
b) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping
function.
b. the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heatdissipation
function.

185.The function of a fusible plug is to

a. protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.
b. protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
c. function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
d. protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

186.A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to :

a. prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.
b. create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
c. transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of
the nosewheel.
d) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.

187.On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

a. will wear at the shoulders
b. it's tread will deteriorate faster
c. will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
d. will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

188.The trim tab :

a. reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
b. reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.
c. increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
d. increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

189.The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

a. reduce or to cancel control forces.
b. trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
c. trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
d. lower manoeuvring control forces.

190.An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:

a. the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
b. the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
c. there is a trimmable stabilizer.
d. the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

191.An artificial feel unit system:

a. must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.
b. must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.
c. is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.
d. is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.

192.A Yaw Damper is :

a. A rudder damper designed to avoid the ""Dutch roll"".
b. An elevator augmentor.
c. An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
d. A roll trim tab.
193.Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers?
a. Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.
b. Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
c. Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.
d. Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.

194.On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:

a. leading edge flap
b. trailing edge flap
c. leading edge flap close to the wing root
d. leading edge flap close to the wing tip

195.The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate
switches is
a. To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
b. To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
c. Because there are two trim motors.
d. To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate
at low speed

196.On an aeroplane, spoilers are :

a. upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
b. lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
c. upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
d. lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

197.On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

a. leading edge flaps close to the wing root
b. trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
c. trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
d. leading edge flaps close to the wing tip

198.Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:1. thermal stability2. low
emulsifying characteristics3. corrosion resistance4. good resistance to
combustion5. high compressibility6. high volatility7. high viscosityThe combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 5, 7
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 4, 6

199.In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi.An

electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of
3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of
the accumulator, reads:
a. 3000 psi
b. 1200 psi
c. 4200 psi
d. 1800 psi

200.Hydraulic fluids :
a. Are irritating to eyes and skin.
b. Cause high fire risk.
c. Do not require special care.
d. Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

201.Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:

a. Phosphate ester base fluids.
b. Water base fluids.
 c. Vegetable base fluids.
d. Mineral base fluids.

202.Hydraulic power is a function of :

a. System pressure and volume flow.
b. Pump RPM only.
c. System pressure and tank capacity.
d. Pump size and volume flow.
203.In a modern hydraulic system, ""hydraulic fuses"" can be found. Their function is :
a. To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
b. To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
c. To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.
d. To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without
further damage to the system.

204.In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:

a. prevent pump cavitation
b. seal the system
c. keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature
d. reduce fluid combustibility

205.The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:

a. Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.
b. Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.
c. Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.
d. Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.

206.Shuttle valves will automatically:

a. Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.
b. Shut down systems which are overloaded.
c. Guard systems against overpressure.

207.In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used :
a. for damping pressure surges in the system.
b. for fluid storage.
c. for pressure storage.
d. as a pressure relief valve.

208.The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a :

a. check valve.
b. flow control valve.
c. distribution valve.
d. shutoff valve.

209.The function of the selector valve is to:

a. communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
b. select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
c. automatically activate the hydraulic system.
d. discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

210.Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic
system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
a. 1500 psi.
b. 2500 psi.
c. 1000 psi.
d. 500 psi.

211.An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :

a. store fluid under pressure.
b. increase pressure surges within the system.
 c. reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d. reduce fluid temperature only.

212.In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :

a. allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
b. is a self-lapping non-return valve.
c. allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
d. regulates pump delivery pressure.

213.To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a
hydraulic system often incorporates
a. a high pressure relief valve.
b. a stand-by hydraulic pump.
c. an accumulator.
d. auxiliary hydraulic motors.

214.The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to :

a. prevent cavitation in the pump
b. ensure sufficient pump output
c. prevent overheating of the pump.
d. prevent vapour locking.
215.The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
a. by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
b. in flight only.
c. by the air conditioning system.
d. by an auxiliary system.

216.The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if :

a. the pump output pressure is insufficient.
b. the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.
c. there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
d. the pump power accumulator is deflated.

217.If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.

218.During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

a. cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure
b. the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached
c. the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
d. absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft

219.Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
a. a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
b. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
c. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
d. the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

220.During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased,
even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
a. Partially open.
b. fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
c. At the pre-set position for take-off.
 d. Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

221.The purpose of a ditching control is to:

a. close the outflow valve(s).
b. achieve rapid depressurisation.
c. open the outflow valve(s).
d. direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

222.The cabin pressure is regulated by the:

a. Outflow valve.
b. Air cycle machine.
c. Air conditioning pack.
d. Cabin inlet airflow valve.
223.The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by :
a. The cabin outflow valve.
b. The cabin inlet airflow.
c. The engine's RPM.
d. The engine's bleed valves.

224.Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:

a. cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.
b. cockpit and passenger cabin.
c. cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
d. actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.

225.Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to
exceed:
a. 8000 ft
b. 4000 ft
c. 6000 ft
d. 10000 ft

226.Cabin altitude means the:

a. cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
b. difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
c. flight level the aircraft is flying at.
d. flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.

227.A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
a. 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
b. 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
c. 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
d. 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)

228.On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
pressure is approximately:
a. 7 - 9 psi
b. 3 - 5 psi
c. 13 - 15 psi
d. 22 psi

229.On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
a. Airflow leaving the cabin.
b. Airflow entering the cabin.
c. RPM of the engine.
d. Bleed air valve.

230.If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized

 cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
a. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
b. Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
c. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
d. Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

231.The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:

a. cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
b. approximately 5 psi at maximum.
c. approximately 15 psi at maximum.
d. the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

232.The cabin rate of descent is:

a. a cabin pressure increase.
b. always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.
c. a cabin pressure decrease.
d. is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

233.The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is

approximately:
a. 9.0 psi
b. 3.5 psi
c. 13.5 psi
d. 15.5 psi

234.The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :

a. has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
b. is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
c. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
d. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.

235.Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :

a. regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
b. pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
c. engine rpm.
d. inward relief valve(s).

236.Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained :
a. a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
b. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
c. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
d. the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

237.Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should
indicate :
a. a rate of climb.
b. a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
c. zero.
d. a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

238.Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow
valve(s) would close. The result would be that:
a. the pressure differential would go to the maximum value
b. the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
c. the air supply would automatically be stopped
d. the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

239.A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the :
 a. position of the outflow valve(s).
b. mass air flow into the cabin.
c. position of the inward relief valve.
d. position of the duct relief valve(s).

240.If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
pressure the :
a. negative pressure relief valve will open.
b. negative pressure relief valve will close
c. outflow valve open completely.
d. air cycle machine will stop.

241.The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:

a. wings.
b. pitot tubes.
c. propellers.
d. engine intakes.

242.With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against
the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
a. The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.
b. The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and
easy to maintain.
c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular
to the leading edges.

243.A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..

a. When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
b. When entering areas with icing conditions.
c. When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
d. Only at take-off and during approach.
244.In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is
regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
a. low pressure bleed air valve
b. high pressure bleed air valve
c. fan bleed air valve
d. intermediate pressure check-valve

245.In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:
a. in the turbine.
b. in a pressure relief valve.
c. of Freon in a heat exchanger.
d. of Freon in the turbine.

246.Main cabin temperature is:

a. controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.
b. controlled by individual passenger.
c. not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
d. Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

247.Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is
placed:
a. after the cooling turbine.
b. before the heat exchangers.
c. before the cooling turbine.
d. just after the heat exchangers.
248.""Conditioned"" air is air that has:
a. been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.
b. oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
c. oxygen content increased.
d. oxygen content reduced.

249.When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen

content is:
a. unaffected.
b. decreased.
c. increased.
d. dependent on the degree of pressurisation.

250.The term ""bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
a. cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
b. source of the charge air.
c. means by which pressurisation is controlled.
d. charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

251.In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is
routed via the:
a. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
b. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
c. turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
d. compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

252.Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet
aeroplanes is usually taken from the:
a. compressor section.
b. fan section.
c. turbine section.
d. by-pass ducting.
253.The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:
a. main engine compressors.
b. piston compressors.
c. roots type compressors.
d. single radial compressors.

254.In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
a. humidity.
b. purity.
c. pressure.
d. temperature.

255.In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:

a. cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
b. allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups
in operation.
c) cool bleed air.
d) allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.

256.The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):

a. drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the
conditioning air.
b) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.
c) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
 d) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.

257.In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air
temperature and pressure is achieved by:
a. an expansion turbine.
b. a compressor.
c. a condenser.
d. an evaporator.

258.In a ""bootstrap"" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air
unit to:
a. ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
b. increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
c. ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
d. maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

259.A turbo-fan cold air unit will:

a. cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge
air.
b) not affect the charge air pressure.
c) increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
d) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.

260.The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from :
a. hot air coming from the engine's compressors.
b. hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
c. a fuel heater system.
d. an electrical heater system.

261.The pack cooling fan provides:

a. cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and
ground operation.
b) cooling air to the pre-cooler.
c) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
d) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.

262.The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit :

a. outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
b. inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
c. outlet and uses an evaporation process.
d. inlet and uses an evaporation process.

263.The term ""Bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the :
a. cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
b. source of the charge air.
c. means by which pressurisation is controlled.
d. charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
264.The function of an air cycle machine is to :
a. cool the bleed air.
b. decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
c. remove the water from the bleed air.
d. pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

265.""Conditioned"" air is air that has :

a. been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
b. had any moisture removed from it.
c. had the oxygen content increased.
 d. had the oxygen content reduced.

266.In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern
commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is:
a. Thermal (use of hot air).
b. Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).
c. Electrical (electrical resistances).
d. Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).

267.The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
a. Hot air system.
b. Pneumatic system with expandable boots.
c. Liquid de-icing system.
d. Electrical de-icing system.

268.During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect

a. leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.
b. the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
c. slats and the leading edge flaps only.
d. leading edges only.

269.In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by

a. bleed air from the engines.
b. turbo compressors.
c. ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
d. the APU.

270.The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern
turboprop aeroplanes is :
a. Pneumatic boots.
b. Electrical heating.
c. Thermal anti-icing.
d. Fluid de-icing.

271.The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works

a. electrically.
b. pneumatically.
c. with hot air.
d. with anti-icing fluid.

272.The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :1. Simple and reliable system2. Profiles
maintained3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor4. Direct use of
the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrustThe
combination of correct statements is:
a. 1,2
b. 3,4
c. 1,3
d. 2,4

273.On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by :
a. Electric heating.
b. Vinyl coating.
c. Anti-icing fluid.
d. Rain repellent system.
274.Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:
a. Pitot tubes.
b. Elevator leading edges.
c. Slat leading edges.
d. Fin leading edges.
275.On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
a. Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
b. A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
c. Bleed air from the engines.
d. The return lines of the fuel pumps.

276.The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
a. Integral tanks.
b. Cell tanks.
c. Combined fuel tanks.
d. Fixed built-in tanks.

277.The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to :

a. prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
b. damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.
c. close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
d. prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.

278.The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:

a. vent system.
b. tank drains.
c. top off unit.
d. dump system.

279.The automatic fuelling shut off valve:

a. stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
b. cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
c. stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.
d. stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

280.The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to

a. increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
b. trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
c. distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
d. ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure

281.On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a. centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.
b. electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.
c. mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
d. removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.

282.supplied with electric power of the following type:

a. 115 V AC
b. 28 V AC
c. 28 V DC
d. 115 V DC

283.The fuel crossfeed system:

a. allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
b. is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
c. is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
d. is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

284.On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a. Centrifugal pumps.
b. Gear type pumps.
c. Piston pumps.
d. Diaphragm pumps.
285.On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :
a. Located on the engines.
b. Installed in each tank.
c. Installed only in the center tank.
d. not necessary at all.

286.During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply
287.system when:
a. the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
b. fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
c. the surge vent tank is filled.
d. there is fire.

288.The cross-feed fuel system is used to :

a. feed every engine from any fuel tank.
b. allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency
c. allow the unusable fuel elimination.
d. automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

a. c

295.A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :

a. allow a short term overload before rupturing.
b. limit the current in the field circuit.
c. instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
d. limit the current in the armature.

296.The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law
is :
a. Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.
b. The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
c. power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
d. current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force.

297.A condenser in parallel with breaker points will

a. intensify current in secondary winding
b. permit arcing across points
c. assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
d. assist in collapse of secondary winding.
e.
298.The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit
with the following characteristics,
a. 12 volt / 80 amp hours
b. 12 volt / 40 amp hours
c. 24 volt / 80 amp hours
d. 24 volt / 40 amp hours

299.The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent
resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
a. 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
b. Req = R1 + R2
c. Req = R1 x R2
d. 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
300.If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:
a. is unserviceable.
b. has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.
c. has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
d. has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
301.In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because...
a. they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.
b. their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries.
c. their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.
d. they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.

302.On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their
advantages are:1. low risk of thermal runaway2. high internal resistance, hence
higher power3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating4. wider
permissible temperature range5. good storage capability6. sturdiness owing to its
metal casing7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The
combination of correct statement is:
a. 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d. 3, 4, 6, 7

303.The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :

a. 2,2 volts.
b. 1,4 volts.
c. 1,8 volts.
d. 1,2 volts.
e.
304.Batteries are rated in :
a. Amperes.hours.
b. Amperes/volts.
c. Watts.
d. Ohms.
e.
305.When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter :
a. a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of
condition.
b. no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.
c. the battery should be isolated.
d. the load condition is unimportant.

306.Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a

total voltage and capacity respectively of :
a. 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
b. 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
c. 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
d. 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.

307.The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :

a. ampere-hours.
b. volts.
c. watts.
d. internal resistance.
308.21.2.1.2 (724)
309.A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve :
a. comparing the ""on-load"" and ""off-load"" battery voltages.
b. checking the level of the electrolyte.
c. checking the discharge current of the battery ""on-load"".
d. checking the battery voltage ""off-load"".

310.When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the :

a. voltage to decrease under load.
b. voltage to increase due to the current available.
c. current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
d. electrolyte to ""boil"".
311.Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on,
an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery :
a. would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
b. indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
c. indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
d. indicates a faulty reverse current relay.

312.A relay is :
a. a magnetically operated switch.
b. another name for a solenoid valve.
c. a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.
d. a device which is used to increase electrical power.
313.A circuit breaker :
a. may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
b. is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.
c. can only be reset after major maintenance.
d. can be reset on the ground only.
314.Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :
a. used in AC and DC circuits.
b. used only in AC circuits.
c. used only in DC circuits.
315.In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required
in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
a. 4
b. 24
c. 12
d. 8
316.In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):1- may be disconnected from the
engine shaft.2- may be disconnected from the generator.3- is a hydro-mechanical
system.4- is an electronic system.5- may not be disconnected in flight.6- may be
disconnected in flight.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 3, 6
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 4, 5
317.In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
a. AC.
b. Three-phase AC.
c. Only induced current.
d. DC.
318.Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the
electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will :
a. increase the intensity of the excitation current.
b. change the direction of the excitation current.
c. maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.

319.A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :

a. air via a ram air intake.
b. water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system.
c. a fan located before the generator.
d. air tapped from the low pressure compressor.

320.The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :

a. series with the shunt field coil.
b. series with the armature.
c. parallel with the shunt field coil.
d. parallel with the armature.
321.The output of a generator is controlled by :
a. varying the field strength.
 b. varying the speed of the engine.
c. varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
d. the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

322.In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in
parallel, it is necessary to ensure that :
a. their voltages are almost equal.
b. the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
c. equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
d. adequate voltage differences exists.

323.The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...

a. its rotation speed
b. the strength of the excitation current
c. its load
d. its phase balance

324.The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the :
a. generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
b. battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
c. alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
d. battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

325.The so-called ""hot buses"" or ""direct buses"" are:

a. directly connected to the battery.
b. kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.
c. automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
d. providing an alternative current.

326.The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are :

a. series wound.
b. shunt wound.
c. series shunt wound.
d. compound wound.
e.
327.A bus-bar is :
a. a distribution point for electrical power.
b. a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
c. the stator of a moving coil instrument.
d. a device which may only be used in DC circuits.

328.In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that :

a. generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.
b. only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.
c. generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.
d. one generator comes ""on-line"" before the other.

329.A static inverter is a:

a. transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.
b. device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
c. static discharger.
d. filter against radio interference.

330.The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..

a. To change DC into AC.
b. To change the DC voltage.
c. To change AC into DC.
d. To avoid a short circuit.
331.In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation
may be obtained from :
 a. an inverter.
b. a rectifier.
c. a contactor.
d. a TRU.

332.A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is :

a. an inverter.
b. an AC generator.
c. a transformer rectifier unit.
d. a thermistor.

333.The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:1.
Weight saving2. Easy fault detection3. Increase of short-circuit risk4. Reduction of
short-circuit risk5. Circuits are not single-wired linesThe combination regrouping
all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 3, 5

334.Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:1. protect the aircraft against lightning
effects.2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0
volt3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems4. set the aircraft
to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 2, 4

335.It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if :

a. static noises can be heard on the radio.
b. a circuit breaker pops out.
c. there is interference on the VOR receiver.
d. there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

336.The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :

a. provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
b. provide a single earth for electrical devices.
c. prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
d. isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.

337.The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :

a. 400 Hz.
b. 200 Hz.
c. 50 Hz.
d. 60 Hz.

338.The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:1. simple

connection2. high starting torque3. flexibility in use4. lighter weight of
equipment5. easy to convert into direct current6. easy maintenance of
machinesThe combination of correct statements is:
a. 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 4, 6

339.If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current
 flowing in the circuit will :
a. increase.
b. be zero.
c. decrease.
d. remain the same.
340.When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced
by means of the:
a. energizing current.
b. frequency.
c. voltage.
d. torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
341.The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
a. maintain a constant frequency.
b. take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
c. mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
d. take part in the voltage regulation.

342.In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc
the:
a. pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.
b. pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
c. pilot has to throttle back.
d. pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.

343.On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator

is activated by:
a. a set of permanent magnets.
b. the main field winding.
c. the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
d. the auxiliary winding.

344.A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for
disconnection are :
a. low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
b. excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
c. illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
d. slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

345.A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :

a. may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
b. may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
c. automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
d. automatically resets at engine shut-down.

346.The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the :

a. rotor.
b. stator.
c. oscillator.
d. slip ring.

347.The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the :

a. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
b. number of individual poles and the field strength.
c. field strength and the speed of the rotor.
d. number of individual poles only.

348.The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :

a. drive the generator at a constant speed.
b. vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
c. directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
 d. vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

349.If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the
phase relationship of each generator:
a. is unimportant.
b. must be synchronised.
c. must be 120° out of phase.
d. must be 240° out of phase.

350.The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the :

a. generator at varying loads and speeds.
b. batteries at varying loads.
c. generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.
d. output of the TRU.

351.A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at :

a. 120°.
b. 60°.
c. 45°.
d. 90°.

352.On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of
monitoring the:
a. oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
b. oil temperature and synchronous speed.
c. output speed and oil pressure.
d. low oil temperature and low oil quantity.

353.An AC generator driven by a CSD unit :

a. requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.
b. does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.
c. does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.
d. requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.
354.Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected :
a. during engine operation only.
b. at flight idle engine rpm.
c. in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator.
d. on the ground only.

355.The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are :

a. kVA and kVAR.
b. volts and amperes.
c. volts and kilowatts.
d. amperes and kilowatts.

356.""Frequency wild"" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator :

a. output frequency varies with engine speed.
b. output frequency is too high.
c. voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
d. output frequency is too low.

357.The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:

a. drive the generator at a constant speed.
b. vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
c. vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
d. directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.

358.The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the :

a. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.
b. number of individual poles and the field strength.
 c. field strength and the speed of the moving part.

359.In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted,
the changover relay allows :
a. power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
b. connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
c. connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.
d. connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.

360.Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect
of the AC generator it can be said that the:
a. exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
b. exciter control relay opens.
c. generator breaker opens.
d. exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.

361.As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for
paralleling AC generators:1. Equal voltage2. Equal current3. Equal frequencies4.
Same phase rotation5. Voltages of same phaseThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is :
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 1, 4, 5

362.A magnetic circuit-breaker is:

a. a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
b. permits an overcurrent limited in time.
c. can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
d. is a system with a slow response time.

363.When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the

mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:
a. the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
b. the tie breaker.
c. the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
d. the generator breaker.

364.When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the

protection device opens the :
a. exciter breaker and generator breaker.
b. exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
c. tie breaker.
d. generator breaker and tie breaker.

365.When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft

AC busbar, the protection device opens the:
a. generator breaker.
b. exciter breaker.
c. exciter breaker and generator breaker.
d. exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.

366.The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in:

a. parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current
consumption.
b) series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption.
c) parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage.
d) series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage.

367.To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel :

 a. both real an reactive loads must be matched.
b. the matching of loads is unimportant.
c. only reactive loads need to be matched.
d. only real loads need to be matched.

368.When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each

generator:
a. is unimportant.
b. must be synchronous.
c. must be in opposition.
d. must be 90° out of synchronisation.
e.
369.When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same:
a. voltage and frequency.
b. amperage and kVAR.
c. voltage and amperage.
d. frequency and amperage.

370.Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :

a. automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
b. controlling the generator field current.
c. carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
d. monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.

371.Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :

a. adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
b. carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
c. controlling the generator field current.
d. monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.

372.The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
a. 12000 revolutions per minute.
b. 6000 revolutions per minute.
c. 800 revolutions per minute.
d. 1600 revolutions per minute.

373.In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is

obtained from a :
a. Transformer Rectifier Unit.
b. static inverter.
c. 3 phase current transformer unit.
d. rotary converter.

374.In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally
controlled by :
a. a rate of change selector.
b. the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the
aeroplane altitude.
c) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller
and ambient barometric pressure.
e) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

375.The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :

a. has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
b. is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
c. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
d. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
e.
376.Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :
a. regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
 b. pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
c. engine rpm.
d. inward relief valve(s).

377.Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained :
a. a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
b. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
c. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
d. the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

378.Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should
indicate :
a. a rate of climb.
b. a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
c. zero.
d. a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
e.
379.Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow
valve(s) would close. The result would be that:
a. the pressure differential would go to the maximum value
b. the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
c. the air supply would automatically be stopped
d. the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

380.A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the :
a. position of the outflow valve(s).
b. mass air flow into the cabin.
c. position of the inward relief valve.
d. position of the duct relief valve(s).

381.If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
pressure the :
a. negative pressure relief valve will open.
b. negative pressure relief valve will close
c. outflow valve open completely.
d. air cycle machine will stop.

382.The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:

a. wings.
b. pitot tubes.
c. propellers.
d. engine intakes.

383.With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against
the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
a. The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.
b. The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and
easy to maintain.
c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular
to the leading edges.

384.A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..

a. When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
b. When entering areas with icing conditions.
c. When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
d. Only at take-off and during approach.

385.The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:

 a. by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
b. in flight only.
c. by the air conditioning system.
d. by an auxiliary system.

386.The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if :

a. the pump output pressure is insufficient.
b. the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.
c. there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
d. the pump power accumulator is deflated.

387.If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.

388.During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

a. cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure
b. the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached
c. the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
d. absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft

389.Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
a. a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
b. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
c. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
d. the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
e.
390.During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased,
even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
a. Partially open.
b. fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
c. At the pre-set position for take-off.
d. Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

391.The purpose of a ditching control is to:

a. close the outflow valve(s).
b. achieve rapid depressurisation.
c. open the outflow valve(s).
d. direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

392.The cabin pressure is regulated by the:

a. Outflow valve.
b. Air cycle machine.
c. Air conditioning pack.
d. Cabin inlet airflow valve.

393.On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are
supplied with electric power of the following type:
a. 115 V AC
b. 28 V AC
c. 28 V DC
 d. 115 V DC

394.The fuel crossfeed system:

a. allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
b. is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
c. is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
d. is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

395.On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a. Centrifugal pumps.
b. Gear type pumps.
c. Piston pumps.
d. Diaphragm pumps.

396.On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :

a. Located on the engines.
b. Installed in each tank.
c. Installed only in the center tank.
d. not necessary at all.

397.During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply
system when:
a. the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
b. fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
c. the surge vent tank is filled.
d. there is fire.

398.The cross-feed fuel system is used to :

a. feed every engine from any fuel tank.
b. allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency
c. allow the unusable fuel elimination.
d. automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

399.The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel ..

a. To prime the pumps.
b. Because their efficiency is greater.
c. To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
d. To cool the pumps.

400.The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...

a. Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
b. Through the refueling cap of every tank
c. By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
d. By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refueling
center).

401.The vapor lock is :

a. A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble.
b. The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.
c. The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation
d. The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the
carburettor.

402.The cross-feed fuel system enables:

a. the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.
b. the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
c. the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.
d. only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.

403.Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:

 a. centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
b. low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
c. centrifugal high pressure pumps.
d. high pressure variable swash plate pumps.

404.The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring
the:
a. dielectric change between fuel and air.
b. density variation of the fuel.
c. resistivity variation of the fuel.
d. electrical resistance change.

405.In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge
of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise
increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would :
a. remain the same.
b. increase by 5 %.
c. decrease by 5 %.
d. increase by 10 %.
e.
406.Fuses are rated to a value by :
a. the number of amperes they will carry.
b. the number of volts they will pass.
c. their wattage.
d. their resistance measured in ohms.

407.The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is:
a. (1)not resettable, (2)resettable.
b. (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker
c. (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker
d. (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable.

408.An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to
earth, may be defined as a
a. single pole circuit.
b. complete negative system.
c. double pole circuit.
d. semi-negative system.

409.When an ""open circuit"" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :

a. loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
b. fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.
c. component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
d. load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.

410.If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field :

a. a force will be exerted on the conductor.
b. the current will increase.
c. there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.

411.A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :

a. allow a short term overload before rupturing.
b. limit the current in the field circuit.
c. instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
d. limit the current in the armature.
e.
412.The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law
is :
a. Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.
b. The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
 c. power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
d. current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force.

413.A condenser in parallel with breaker points will

a. intensify current in secondary winding
b. permit arcing across points
c. assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
d. assist in collapse of secondary winding.
e.
414.The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit
with the following characteristics,
a. 12 volt / 80 amp hours
b. 12 volt / 40 amp hours
c. 24 volt / 80 amp hours
d. 24 volt / 40 amp hours

415.The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are :
a. intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.
b. both valves open.
c. both valves closed.
d. exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.

416.The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the
following gas state change lines
a. 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.
b. 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
c. 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
d. 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.

417.The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is :

a. piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders
b. piston area * piston stroke
c. cylinder volume * number of cylinders
d. cylinder length * cylinder diameter

418.In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a :
a. lighter construction.
b. lower fuel consumption.
c. better piston cooling.
d. cheaper construction

419.The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :

a. induction, compression, power, exhaust.
b. induction, power, compression, exhaust.
c. compression induction, power, exhaust.
d. induction, compression, expansion, power.

420.The crank assembly consists of

a. crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
b. propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
c. Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
d. crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

421.The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead
Center)
a. before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
b. before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
c. behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
d. behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
422.The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :
a. Torque times RPM.
b. Work times velocity.
c. Force times distance.
d. Pressure times arm.

423.The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is :
a. Brake horse power.
b. Friction horse power.
c. Heat loss power.
d. Indicated horse power.

424.The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:

a. gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
b. propeller blades.
c. accessory gear box.
d. camshaft.
e.
425.On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are
readjusted in order to increase the:
a. overall efficiency
b. compression ratio
c. piston displacement
d. engine r.p.m.

426.In a four-stroke piston engine, the only ""driving"" stroke is :

a. firing-expansion
b. intake
c. compression
d. exhaust

427.A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the :

a. total volume to the clearance volume.
b. clearance volume to the swept volume.
c. total volume to the swept volume.
d. swept volume to the clearance volume.

428.The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary
motion is termed the :
a. crankshaft
b. piston
c. camshaft
d. reduction gear

429.The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:

a. pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
b. difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
c. pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
d. pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

430.For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:

a. oil temperature.
b. outside pressure.
c. oil pressure.
d. quantity of oil

431.For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:

a. the circulation of lubricating oil
b. a rich fuel/air mixture
 c. a properly functioning thermostat
d. a lean fuel/air mixture

432.In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided
because :
a. it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls
b. it fouls the spark plugs
c. it drains the carburettor float chamber
d. the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

433.The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted :
a. in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge
pump
b) between the oil tank and the pressure pump
c) after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
d) after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump

434.Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a

a. worn oil pump
b. too large oil pump
c. restricted oil passage
d. too small scavenger pump.

435.The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:

a. secondary current to the sparking plugs.
b. primary current to the condenser.
c. secondary current to the condenser.
d. primary current to the sparking plugs.

436.The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto
are accomplished by the:
a. contact breaker points opening.
b. distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
c. contact breaker points closing.
d. rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.
e.
437.If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
a. the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the ""OFF""
position
b) a still operating engine will run down
c) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ""ON"" position
d) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced

438.The purpose of an ignition switch is to :

a. control the primary circuit of the magneto
b. connect the secondary coil to the distributor

485.Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current :

a. from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.
b. from the booster coil.
c. directly from the aircraft batteries.
d. from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.
486.Ignition systems of piston engines are :
a. independant from the electrical system of the aircraft.
b. dependant on the battery.
c. dependant on the DC-Generator.
d. dependant on the AC-Generator.

487.Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
a. sparking plugs.
b. carburettor.
c. oil pump.
d. fuel filter.

488.An aircraft magneto is switched off by

a. grounding the primary circuit
b. opening the primary circuit
c. opening the secondary circuit
d. grounding the secondary circuit.

489.An impulse magneto coupling

a. gives a retarded spark at starting
b. reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
c. advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
d. gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

490.If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may
be :
a. excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
b. switch wire grounded
c. defective condenser
d. fouled spark plugs

491.If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
a. cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
b. will not operate at the left magneto
c. will not operate at the right magneto
d. cannot be started with the switch in the ON position

492.An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for

a. providing a retarded spark for engine starting.
b. advancing ignition timing
c. quick removal and installation
d. absorbing starting loads

493.In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/
air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in :
a. breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current
which is distributed to the spark plugs.
b. obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.
c. accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.

494.When the magneto selector switch is set to ""OFF"" position, the piston engine
continues to run normally.The most probable cause of this failure is that:
a. On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
b. There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
c. A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
d. There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder
 heads).

495.On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the
adjustment of :
a. fuel flow.
b. air flow.
c. fuel flow and air flow.
d. fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

496.A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned :

a. upstream of the needle valve.
b. between the needle valve and the metering jet.
c. between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.
d. downstream of th discharge nozzle.
497.In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
a. venturi and the throttle valve
b. float chamber and fuel inlet filter
c. accelerator pump and main metering jet
d. main air bleed and main discharge nozzle

498.The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

a. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
b. automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
c. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure
d. measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system

499.In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that
causes carburettor ice is normally the result of:
a. vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
b. freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
c. compression of air at the carburettor venturi
d. low volatility of aviation fuel

500.Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor

heat?
a. it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air
mixture
b. it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
c. it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture

501.Vapour lock is :
a. vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
b. the formation of water vapour in a fuel system
c. vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor
d. the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor

502.With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor :

a. may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
b. will only form at OAT's below +10°C.
c. will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
d. will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.

503.To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air
flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel
as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with :
a. a diffuser
b. a power jet
c. an accelerator pump
d. a mixture control
504.Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:
a. faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
b. slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
c. faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs
d. faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.

505.The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever
setting, because of the decreasing :
a. air density.
b. engine temperature.
c. humidity.
d. temperature.

506.The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are :
a. cold and dry air at high pressure.
b. warm and humid air at low pressure.
c. cold and humid air at high pressure.
d. warm and dry air at high pressure.

507.The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing
altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :
a. lower back pressure.
b. lower losses during the gas change.
c. lower friction losses.
d. leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

508.The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
data is:1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake
temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressureThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
c. 2, 4.
d. 1, 3.

509.On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
derived from :
a. the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
b. the master cylinders.
c. pressure to the rudder pedals.
d. the brake actuators.

510.""Nose wheel shimmy"" may be described as :

a. a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
b. the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
c. the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
d. aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

511.The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie
gear is
a. Taxiing with a small turning radius.
b. Touch down with crosswind
c. Gear down selection
d. Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

512.Tyre ""creep"" may be described as the :

a. circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
b. the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature.
c. the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.
 d. gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
513.The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing ..
a. by pilot action
b. automatically
c. at a certain low speed
d. the system is always armed

514.The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are :
a. the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring
function
b) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping
function.
b. the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heatdissipation
function.

515.The function of a fusible plug is to

a. protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.
b. protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
c. function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
d. protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

516.Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

a. Adverse yaw.
b. Aileron reversal.
c. Sensitivity for spiral dive.
d. Turn co-ordination.

517.If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes:

a. a roll to port (left).
b. a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
c. an increase in lift on the port (left) wing.
d. a roll to starboard (right).

518.Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

a. Rolling and yawing.
b. Pitching and yawing.
c. Pitching and rolling.
d. Pitching and adverse yaw.

519.Which statement is correct about a spring tab ?

a. At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab
b. At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab
c. At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator
d. Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g

520.Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered
flight controls ?
a. Servo tab
b. Spring tab
c. Balance tab
d. Anti-balance tab

521.An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the
elevator jams during flight ?
a. Pitch control reverses direction.
b. Pitch control has been lost.
c. The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
d. The pitch control forces double.
522.A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:
a. to decrease stick forces.
b. to prevent flutter.
c. to obtain mass balancing.
d. to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.

523.Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is

correct ?
a. The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
b. The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
c. The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
d. Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

525.Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

a. Adverse yaw.
b. Aileron reversal.
c. Sensitivity for spiral dive.
d. Turn co-ordination.

526.If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes:

a. a roll to port (left).
b. a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
c. an increase in lift on the port (left) wing.
d. a roll to starboard (right).

527.Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

a. Rolling and yawing.
b. Pitching and yawing.
c. Pitching and rolling.
d. Pitching and adverse yaw.

528.Which statement is correct about a spring tab ?

a. At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab
b. At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab
c. At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator
d. Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g

529.Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered
flight controls ?
a. Servo tab
b. Spring tab
c. Balance tab
d. Anti-balance tab

530.An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the
elevator jams during flight ?
a. Pitch control reverses direction.
b. Pitch control has been lost.
c. The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
d. The pitch control forces double.

531.A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:

a. to decrease stick forces.
b. to prevent flutter.
c. to obtain mass balancing.
d. to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.

532.Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is

 correct ?
a. The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
b. The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
c. The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
d. Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

535.Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to
exceed:
a. 8000 ft
b. 4000 ft
c. 6000 ft
d. 10000 ft

536.Cabin altitude means the:

a. cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
b. difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
c. flight level the aircraft is flying at.
d. flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.

537.A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
a. 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
b. 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
c. 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
d. 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)

538.On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
pressure is approximately:
a. 7 - 9 psi
b. 3 - 5 psi
c. 13 - 15 psi
d. 22 psi

539.On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
a. Airflow leaving the cabin.
b. Airflow entering the cabin.
c. RPM of the engine.
d. Bleed air valve.

540.If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized

cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
a. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
b. Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
c. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
d. Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

541.The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:

a. cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
b. approximately 5 psi at maximum.
c. approximately 15 psi at maximum.
d. the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

542.The cabin rate of descent is:

a. a cabin pressure increase.
b. always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.
c. a cabin pressure decrease.
d. is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.
543.The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is
approximately:
a. 9.0 psi
b. 3.5 psi
c. 13.5 psi
d. 15.5 psi

544.The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :

a. has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
b. is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
c. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
d. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.

545.Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :

a. regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
b. pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
c. engine rpm.
d. inward relief valve(s).

546.Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained :
a. a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
b. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
c. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
d. the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

547.Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should
indicate :
a. a rate of climb.
b. a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
c. zero.
d. a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

548.Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow
valve(s) would close. The result would be that:
a. the pressure differential would go to the maximum value
b. the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
c. the air supply would automatically be stopped
d. the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

549.A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the :
a. position of the outflow valve(s).
b. mass air flow into the cabin.
c. position of the inward relief valve.
d. position of the duct relief valve(s).

550.If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
pressure the :
a. negative pressure relief valve will open.
b. negative pressure relief valve will close
c. outflow valve open completely.
d. air cycle machine will stop.

551.The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:

a. wings.
b. pitot tubes.
c. propellers.
d. engine intakes.
552.With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against
the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
a. The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.
b. The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and
easy to maintain.
c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular
to the leading edges.

553.A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..

a. When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
b. When entering areas with icing conditions.
c. When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
d. Only at take-off and during approach.
554.In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is
regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
a. low pressure bleed air valve
b. high pressure bleed air valve
c. fan bleed air valve
d. intermediate pressure check-valve

555.In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:
a. in the turbine.
b. in a pressure relief valve.
c. of Freon in a heat exchanger.
d. of Freon in the turbine.

556.Main cabin temperature is:

a. controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.
b. controlled by individual passenger.
c. not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
d. Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

557.Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is
placed:
a. after the cooling turbine.
b. before the heat exchangers.
c. before the cooling turbine.
d. just after the heat exchangers.

558.The global output of a piston engine is of:(global output = Thermal energy

corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total thermal energy
produced).
a. 0.30
b. 0.50
c. 0.75
d. 0.90

559.A turbocharger system is normally driven by:

a. the exhaust system.
b. an electric motor.
c. an hydraulic motor.
d. an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.

560.A turbocharger consists of a :

a. compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
b. compressor and turbine on individual shafts.
 c. compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
d. turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.

561.The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor :

a. enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery.
b. enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.
c. enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
d. enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.

562.In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by :

a. a manifold pressure gauge only.
b. a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm
readings.
c. both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
d. both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.

563.The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :

a. maintain power at altitude
b. increase quantity of fuel at metering jet
c. provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft
d. provide a richer mixture at high altitudes

564.The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is :

a. a radial compressor.
b. an axial compressor.
c. a hybrid compressor.
d. a piston compressor.

565.What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the
waste gate is seized ?
a. The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.
b. The power of the motor will decrease.
c. The turbine shaft will break.
d. The turbine blades will separate.

566.One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :

a. it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.
b. it has a better propulsive efficiency.
c. there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
d. there is no danger of knocking.

567.The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :

a. the anti-knock capability
b. fuel volatility
c. quantity of heat generated by its combustion
d. fuel electrical conductivity

568.Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to
minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to :
a. keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
b. drain tanks at end of each day's flight
c. use only high octane gasoline
d. keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight

569.The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of
the following relations?
a. the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
b. the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
c. the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is.
d. compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
570.A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
a. provided that the grade is higher
b. provided that the grade is lower
c. never
d. provided that it is an aeronautical petrol
571.A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a
a. lower cylinder head temperature.
b. higher efficiency.
c. slight loss of power.
d. higher torque.

572.Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with :

a. Mass ratio of 1/15.
b. Cruising mixture setting.
c. Full rich setting.
d. Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.

573.For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the :

a. mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
b. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
c. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
d. mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

574.Specific fuel consumption is defined as the :

a. mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
b. designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.
c. quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating
conditions.
d. maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.

575.In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to :

a. correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at
altitude.
b) prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
c) weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.

576.The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:

a. varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.
b. moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.
c. altering the depression on the main discharge tube.
d. varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.

577.An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :

a. black smoke from exhaust.
b. high cylinder head temperatures
c. white smoke from exhaust.
d. a long purple flame from exhaust.

578.When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive
leaning will cause :
a. high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
b. high engine rpm
c. low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
d. high manifold pressure

579.The main purpose of the mixture control is to:

a. adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
b. decrease the air supplied to the engine
 c. increase the oxygen supplied to the engine
d. decrease oxygen supplied to the engine

580.Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:

a. mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
b. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
c. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
d. mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor

581.Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively :

a. weak mixture.
b. rich mixture.
c. low barometric pressure.
d. high barometric pressure.

582.In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the
mixture is said to be :
a. rich
b. weak
c. too weak to support combustion
d. normal

583.For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is

obtained for a weight ratio of:
a. 1/15 th
b. 1/9 th
c. 1/10th
d. 1/12th
584.The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :
a. real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
b. mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.
c. volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.
d. volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.

585.Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.During deceleration :

a. when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.
b. at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.
c. when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.
d. with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.

586.The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller

a. increases with increasing true air speed.
b. only varies with engine RPM.
c. decreases with increasing true air speed.
d. is independent of the true air speed.

587.A propeller blade is twisted, so as to

a. keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
b. avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
c. decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.
d. allow a higher mechanical stress.

588.A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during :

a. Take-off and landing.
b. Cruise.
c. Take-off.
 d. Landing.

589.When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of
a fixed pitch propeller :
a. reduces.
b. increases.
c. stays constant.
d. stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.

590.When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP
levers are not moved) :
a. increases.
b. reduces.
c. first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.
d. stays constant.

591.The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch

propeller is a :
a. higher efficiency in all operating ranges.
b. constant efficiency in all operating ranges.
c. lower propeller blade stress.
d. higher efficiency in cruising range.

592.To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :

a. use the electric unfeathering pump.
b. manually release the blade latch.
c. gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
d. gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.

593.In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in
a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system
a. move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
b. move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
c. move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.
d. move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force.

594.For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever
position (2) at brake release is :
a. (1) low (2) forward.
b. (1) low (2) aft.
c. (1) high (2) aft.
d. (1) high (2) forward.
595.An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists ..
a. If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.
b. If there is an unbalanced propeller.
c. Only for counterrotating propeller
d. Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.

596.In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers

a. the left engine is the critical motor.
b. the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.
c. the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine.
d. the right engine is the critical motor.

597.In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller'

a. the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
b. the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
c. the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
 d. the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

598.In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by :

a. pulling the RPM lever backwards.
b. pushing the RPM lever forward.
c. pushing the power lever forward.
d. pulling the power levers backwards.

599.Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at :

a. cruising speed
b. idling
c. full throttle
d. take-off

600.Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for
cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
a. blade is relatively high.
b. blade is relatively small.
c. airfoil section is negative.
d. blades reduces to zero.

601.What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a ""constant speed propeller""
if the manifold pressure is increased ?
a. It will increase
b. It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
c. It will decrease so that the engine can increase
d. It will remain the same

602.The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:

a. low airspeeds with high power setting.
b. high airspeeds with low power setting.
c. high airspeeds with high power setting.
d. low airspeeds with low power setting.

603.The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the :

a. reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
b. propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.
c. propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.

604.When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is
near 90°, the propeller is said to be...
a. feathered.
b. windmilling.
c. transparent.
d. at zero drag.

605.During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a

wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
a. high manifold pressure and low RPM.
b. low manifold pressure and high RPM.
c. high manifold pressure and high RPM.
d. low manifold pressure and low RPM.

606.From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to
maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
607.When applying carburettor heating :
a. the mixture becomes richer.
b. a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
c. the mixture becomes leaner.
d. no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

608.When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position
the :
a. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.
b. volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.
c. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.
d. volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.

609.When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine
performance is affected because of a :
a. decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel.
b. constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel.
c. increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.
d. decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.

610.When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine

overload is avoided by :
a. increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
b. adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
c. reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
d. increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.

611.The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is
operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for
continuous operation is termed :
a. rated power.
b. maximum power.
c. take-off power.
d. critical power.

612.With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted
with a fixed pitch propeller?
a. RPM indicator.
b. RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
c. RPM and MAP indicator.
d. RPM and EGT indicator.

613.An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to :
a. assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.
b. control the cylinder head temperature.
c. control the carburator inlet air flow.
d. control the fuel temperature.

614.During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being
constant) the :
a. Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.
b. RPM decreases.
c. Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
d. RPM increases.

615.The conditions which can cause knocking are :

 a. High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
b. High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
c. Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
d. Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

616.On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure

gauge always indicates...
a. a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
b. a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
c. zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
d. a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.

617.Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :

a. the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
b. the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.
c. power is increased too abruptly.
d. the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.

618.With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you:

a. Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
b. Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture
c. Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
d. Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture

619.In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...

a. drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases
b. clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
c. compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
d. drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.

620.The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:

a. provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.
b. provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.
c. feed cooling air to the engine cowling.
d. serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.

621.In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

a. rotor - stator
b. stator - rotor
c. rotor - rotor - stator
d. stator - stator - rotor

622.In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :

a. the same as turbine rpm.
b. independent of turbine rpm.
c. greater than turbine rpm.
d. less than turbine rpm.

623.In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its
shape is calculated so as to:
a. maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
b. maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
c. reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
d. reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

624.The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the :

a. Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
b. inlet guide vanes.
c. surge bleed valves.
 d. variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

625.Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a device in

which the:
a. pressure rises and velocity falls.
b. pressure rises at a constant velocity.
c. velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
d. velocity rises and pressure falls.

626.The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:

a. the greater part of the thrust.
b. half the thrust.
c. the lesser part of the thrust.
d. none of the thrust.

627.In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position
when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running
due to :
a. the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
b. oil pressure.
c. thermal expansion.
d. blade creep.

628.The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to :
a. reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
b. control the acceleration time of the engine.
c. spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.
d. enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.
629.A stage in an axial compressor:
a. is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades
b. has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1
c. is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
d. has a compression ration in the order of 0.8

630.In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:

a. within the combustion chamber.
b. across the turbine.
c. in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.
d. at the entry to the exhaust unit.

631.When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :

a. pressure drops.
b. pressure rises.
c. velocity decreases.
d. temperature increases.

632.In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
a. V increases, Ps decreases.
b. V decreases, Ps increases.
c. V increases, Ps increases.
d. V decreases, Ps decreases.

633.An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:

a. fully in the stator.
b. fully in the rotor.
c. in the stator and in the rotor.
d. in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.

634.A ""fan"" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:

a. the low pressure turbine.
 b. the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.
c. the high pressure turbine.
d. airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.

635.For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:

a. external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
b. internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass
c. internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
d. fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

636.A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates
when:
a. the reverser doors are unlocked.
b. the reverser doors are locked.
c. reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.
d. the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.

637.pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that :
a. EPR decreases and EGT increases.
b. both EPR and EGT decrease.
c. EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.

638.Using compressor bleed air to power systems:

a. decreases aircraft performance
b. has no influence on aircraft performance
c. increases aircraft performance
d. is limited to the phases of take-off and landing

639.The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are
the :1. tacho-generator N12. tacho-generator N23. thrust reverser pneumatic
motors4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)5. oil pumps6. hydraulic
pumps7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :
a. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
c. 2, 4, 5, 6.
d. 4, 5, 6, 7.

640.For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which
the engine :
a. will run without any external assistance.
b. is designed to idle after starting.
c. operates most efficiently in the cruise..
d. will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.

641.An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in
starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
a. centrifugal force
b. engine oil pressure
c. a coil spring
d. electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

642.The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system
is within the following range:
 a. 20 to 50 psi
b. 5 to 10 psi
c. 3000 to 5000 psi
d. 300 to 500 psi

643.The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:

a. maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases.
b. reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
c. increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
d. maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.

644.In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the
amount of:
a. fuel supplied.
b. air entering the compressor.
c. air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves.
d. air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.

645.In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:

a. jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.
b. fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles.
c. fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
d. automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter.

646.The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type
oil system is to:
a. cool the oil and heat the fuel.
b. cool the oil only.
c. cool both the oil and the fuel.
d. heat the fuel only.

647.In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal
oil pressure.This higher pressure :
a. is normal, if it decreases after startup.
b. is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
c. is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
d. requires an oil change.

648.The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in
contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the:
a. flash point
b. combustion point
c. fire point
d. self ignition point

649.An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:
a. jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
b. jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.
c. combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
d. compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

650.The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:

a. the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
b. the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
c. the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
d. the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
651.On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:
a. ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit.
b. ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.
c. ground power unit, the starting system.
d. ground power unit.

652.A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground
starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification
limitations) and on the ground :
a. air conditioning and electrical services.
b. air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
c. either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
d. air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up
services (in the air).

653.Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants
to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground
greater than:
a. 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
b. 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
c. 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
d. 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.

654.The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes

a. must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the
aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits.
b. must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2
minutes.
c. depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.
d. must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.

655.A manual inflation handle:

a. serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails
b. serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails
c. operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
d. is generally not applied on slides.

656.The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is
to :
a. replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with
a thick smoke.
b) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
c) mark only the exits at the floor level.

657.An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are
inoperative the:1. external door opening mechanism2. internal door opening
mechanism3. door opening aid device4. open door locking system5. auxiliary
means of evacuation6. emergency lightingThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 5, 6
c. 2, 3, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 4, 5

658.Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :

a. a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.
b. the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.
c. a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
 d. pressurized air from the air conditioning system.

659.Smoke detector systems are installed in the

a. upper cargo compartments (class E).
b. wheel wells.
c. engine nacelles.

660.Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect :
a. smoke.
b. overtemperature.
c. fire.
d. overtemperature and fire.

661.Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type :

a. optical or ionization
b. chemical
c. electrical
d. magnetic

662.When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated:1. its resistance

decreases.2. its resistance increases.3. the leakage current increases.4. the
leakage current decreases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 4

663.A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:

a. inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
b. activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
c. automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of
fire.
d) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.

664.When a wire type fire system is tested:

a. the wiring and the warning are tested.
b. Only the warning function is tested.
c. a part of the wire is totally heated.
d. the wire is totally heated.

665.A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by

a. heating up the sensor with test power connection.
b. checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.
c. checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
d. checking the sensor with pressurized gas.

666.In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the:

a. landing gear bays / wheel wells.
b. cabin.
c. fuel tanks.
d. tyres.

667.The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:

a. warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
b. warning bell.
c. warning light.
d. gear warning.
668.On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes :
a. a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
b. a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
c. a single warning light and a single alarm bell
d. both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

669.In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors
are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are :1. the
main landing gear wheel wells2. the fuel tanks3. the oil tanks4. the auxiliary power
unit5. around the enginesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1,4,5
b. 2,3
c. 2,5
d. 1,2,3,4,5

670.Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in
temperature produces :
a. a decrease in resistance
b. an increase in resistance
c. a decrease in the reference current
d. a decrease in pressure

671.A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:
a. Fire detection system
b. Smoke detection system
c. Carbon dioxide warning system
d. Fire fighting system

672.On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire
detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:
a. at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops
b. only at an isolated point of the loops
c. only in a uniform way along the loops
d. on at least one loop

673.When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is
triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
a. avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
b. allow temperatures to equalise
c. delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiency

674.The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection
system is:
a. Freon.
b. Water.
c. CO2.
d. Powder.

675.If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire, the
following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting:
a. BCF and CO2 type extinguishers
b. Water type extinguishers
c. Dry and water type extinguishers
d. CO2 and water type extinguishers
676.In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must
be conveniently located containing :
a. halon.
b. powder.
c. water.
 d. special fluids.

677.Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is

pulled, the effects are :1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system2. opening of
the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned3. setting of
extinguishing systems4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves5. isolation of
the associated electric current generators6. immediate discharge of extinguishing
agentThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1,3,4,5
b. 1,2,5,6
c. 2,3,4,5
d. 1,3,4

678.With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge:

a. is the pilot's task
b. is automatic and immediate
c. is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
d. does not need the engine to be stopped

679.The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they :

a. act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
b. use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
c. are electrical conductors.
d. are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

680.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30

seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d. 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

681.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60

seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

682.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to

200 seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

683.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to

300 seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d. 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

684.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to

400 seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
 d. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

685.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to

686.500 seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d. 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

687.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater

than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b. 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c. 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d. 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

688.An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater

than 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
a. 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.
b. 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.
c. 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.

689.The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The
oxygen flow starts :
a. after pulling the oxygen mask downwards
b. immediately
c. only above FL200
d. After the system has been switched on by a crew member

690.When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:

a. able to radiotelephone.
b. only able to receive.
c. only able to transmit.
d. not able to do any radio communication.

691.In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:

a. give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
b. protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
c. protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
d. protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
692.From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen
mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
a. FL 250.
b. FL 300.
c. FL 390.
d. FL 100.

693.What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?

a. Cabin air and oxygen.
b. 100% oxygen.
c. Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.

694.The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:1. refrain from
smoking, avoid sparkes.2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.3.
Slowly operate oxygen system valves.4. Avoid greasy matter.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :
 a. 1, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 4.

695.The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers
is :1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,2. electrical for the chemical
oxygen system,3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,4. electrical for the
gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4

696.The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes
is stored is :
a. Gaseous.
b. Chemical compound.
c. Liquid.
d. Gaseous or chemical compound..

697.If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:
a. oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.
b. oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
c. passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
d. oxygen bottles will explode.

698.The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to :

a. deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
b. deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.
c. is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.
d. mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

699.The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :

a. switching the passenger oxygen ON.
b. switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
c. opening the oxygen-bottle valves.
d. switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.

700.The passenger oxygen mask will supply :

a. a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
b. 100 % oxygen.
c. a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.
d. a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

701.The chemical oxygen generator is a system:1. which is inexpensive2. requiring no

external input3. which is lightweight4. requiring no maintenance5. with adjustable
flow rate6. which is unsafeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 4, 6
d. 2, 4, 5

702.Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen
regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:1. decrease oxygen pressure
from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)2.
supply pure oxygen3. supply diluted oxygen4. supply oxygen at normal pressure5.
 supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure6. trigger the continuous cabin
altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitudeThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a. 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4, 6
703.A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with
individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the
masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
a. 15000 ft.
b. 13000 ft.
c. 12000 ft.
d. 14000 ft.

704.Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during
commercial flight.
a. 410.
b. 300.
c. 250.
d. 490.

705.A diluter demand oxygen regulator :

a. delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
b. delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.
c. is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
d. mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

706.As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be

given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at
Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before :
a. take-off.
b. the aircraft reaches FL 100.
c. the aircraft reaches FL 140.
d. the aircraft reaches FL 250.

707.In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following
state:
a. gaseous.
b. liquid.
c. chemical.
d. chemical or gaseous.

708.Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :1. an emergency in

the case of depressurization.2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
passenger.3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.5. an emergency in
the case of smoke or toxic gases.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a. 1,4
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 3
d. 2, 3

709.Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin,
the system is activated by
a. firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.
b. activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.
 c. firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed.
d. pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.

710.The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly :
a. a continuous flow system
b. a pressure demand system
c. portable equipment only
d. an air recycle system

711.The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode,

operates when the :
a. user breathes in
b. diluter control is in normal position
c. user requires 100 percent oxygen
d. pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi

712.The purpose of the ""Pressure Relief Valve"" in a high pressure oxygen system is to

a. relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions

b. reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator
c. act as a manual shut-off valve
d. maximize the charging pressure of the system

713.The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

a. provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an
emergency descent following a depressurization.
b) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.
c) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.
d) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization.

714.Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that :

a. with setting on ""NORMAL"", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air.
b. the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers.
c. the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.
d. the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen.

715.The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240

flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.As concerns the
regulatory requirements about oxygen:1. each crew member will have available a
quick fitting inhaler device.2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system
indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.3 . the quantity of oxygen
on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the
whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization.4.
the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers
during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 2,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 2
d. 3,4

716.When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture

 supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:
a. increases when the altitude increases.
b. decreases when the altitude increases.
c. is constant whatever the altitude.
d. is 100 %.

717.In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger
breathes :
a. a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
b. pure oxygen under pressure.
c. pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
d. cabin air under pressure.

718.Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the :

a. cabin only.
b. cockpit and the cabin.
c. cockpit only.
d. toilets only.
719.The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about :
a. 15 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 2 hours.
d. 5 minutes.

720.The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1.
reduced weight and volume,2. easy storage and maintenance,3. greater
autonomy,4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning,6. no maintenance.The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 3, 4, 5

721.The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a
flow which cannot be modulated,2. a heavy and bulky system,3. non reversible
functioning,4. risks of explosion,5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all
the correct statements is:
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 5

722.The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a
greater autonomy,2. no risk of explosion,3. reversible functioning,4. easy storage
and maintenance,5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is :
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 2, 3, 4

723.When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is
controlled from the outside, the slide:
a. is disarmed automatically.
b. unfolds and becomes inflated.
 c. unfolds but does not become inflated.
d. becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding.

724.A passenger emergency mask is a :

a. continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
b. mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
c. continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
d. mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke.

725.A smoke mask is a :

a. mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
b. continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
c. mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
d. continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

726.In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a. 100%
b. normal.
c. emergency.
d. on demand.

727.In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:

a. protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases.
b. gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.
c. protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.
d. protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.

728.An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in
which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance
greater than :
a. 90 minutes at cruising speed.
b. 60 minutes at cruising speed.
c. 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d. 120 minutes at cruising speed.
729.The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger
cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :
a. seats in the cabin.
b. seat rows in the cabin.
c. passengers in the cabin.
d. emergency exits in the cabin.

730.The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an

airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 0
731.In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated :
a. when leaving the airplane.
b. immediately on the opening of the exits.
c. immediately on ditching.
d. once the passegers are in the water.
732.There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its
speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is
at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum
equipment complying with regulations is :
a. 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
b. 60 life jackets
c. One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats

733.The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level
of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least:
a. 10 minutes
b. 90 seconds
c. 5 minutes
d. 30 minutes

734.An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200
seats must be equipped with:
a. 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
b. 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
c. 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
d. 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

735.The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to

the emergency teams are a flare:
a. which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.
b. and a smoke device which are only used at night.
c. which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night.
d. and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.

736.The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or
ditching have a duration of :
a. 48 h
b. 24 h
c. 12 h
d. 72 h

737.In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
a. equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
b. independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
c. higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
d. lower than the true airspeed (TAS).

738.The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :
a. total pressure.
b. static pressure.
c. total pressure plus static pressure.
d. dynamic pressure.

739.A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to :
a. react like an altimeter.
b. read a little high.
c. read a little low.

740.The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The
 carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a. Degraded
b. Improved
c. Unchanged
d. Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted

741.What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?

a. No affect
b. Tailwind only effects holding speed.
c. The IAS will be increased.
d. The IAS will be decreased.

742.At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
a. 130 kt
b. 115 kt
c. 125 kt
d. 120 kt

743.The critical engine inoperative

a. increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the
744.windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect.
a. does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
b. decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.

745.A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which
746.parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?
a. Straight flight
b. Straight flight and altitude
c. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
d. Altitude

747.The speed V1 is defined as

a. take-off decision speed.
b. take-off climb speed.
c. speed for best angle of climb.
d. engine failure speed.

748.The speed VLO is defined as

a. landing gear operating speed.
b. design low operating speed.
c. long distance operating speed.
d. lift off speed.

749.VX is
a. the speed for best angle of climb.
b. the speed for best rate of climb.
c. the speed for best specific range.
d. the speed for best angle of flight path.

750.The speed for best rate of climb is called

a. VY.
b. VX.
c. V2.
d. VO.

751.Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
a. Lift-off groundspeed.
b. Lift-off IAS.
c. Lift-off TAS.
 d. Lift-off EAS.

752.Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in :
a. a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
b. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
c. a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
d. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

753.If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
a. lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
b. independent from the centre of gravity position.
c. lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
d. higher with a forward centre of gravity position.

754.The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is

a. a shorter ground roll.
b. an increased acceleration.
c. a higher V1.
d. a longer take-off run.
755.Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb
performance ?
a. High temperature and high relative humidity
b. Low temperature and high relative humidity
c. High temperature and low relative humidity
d. Low temperature and low relative humidity

756.What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
a. decreases the take-off speed V1.
b. decreases the TAS for take-off.
c. increases the IAS for take-off.
d. has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

757.Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a. lower.
b. higher.
c. unaffected.
d. only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

758.On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased

a. by uphill slope.
b. by headwind.
c. by low outside air temperature.
d. by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
759.What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
a. The speed for best angle of descent increases.
b. There is no effect.
c. The gliding angle decreases.
d. The lift/drag ratio decreases.

760.A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature

a. decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
b. decreases the take-off distance.
c. increases the climb limited take-off mass.
d. has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

761.The take-off distance required increases

 a. due to slush on the runway.
b. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
c. due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
d. due to lower gross mass at take-off.

762.A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is

nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in
relation to a dry runway will be:
a. increased
b. unchanged
c. decreased
d. very significantly decreased

763.A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light
twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance
will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
a. increased
b. unchanged
c. reduced
d. substantially decreased

764.The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

a. the accelerate-stop distance available.
b. the take-off run available.
c. the take-off distance available.
d. the landing distance available.

765.For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination

aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should
not exceed:
a. 1339 m.
b. 1771 m.
c. 1540 m.
d. 1147 m.

766.Field length is balanced when

a. take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
b. calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
c. all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
d. one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are

767.The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0

ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field
elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / %
runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off
distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25
hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
a. 755 m
b. 715 m
c. 555 m
d. 685 m

768.An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses
35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
a. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
 b. a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d. an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

769.Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a

gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway
(horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance
margin of:
a. 105 m
b. 90 m
c. 75 m
d. it will not clear the obstacle

770.If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet
runway, the landing distance must be increased by:
a. 15%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%

771.Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin
772.climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high
obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50
ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
a. 115 m
b. 100 m
c. 85 m
d. It will not clear the obstacle
773.During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
a. decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
b. increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
c. increases the climb time.
d. decreases the climb time.

774.The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
a. Smaller.
b. Larger.
c. Not change.
d. Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

775.Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent
in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
a. Configuration and angle of attack.
b. Mass and altitude.
c. Altitude and configuration.
d. Configuration and mass.

776.When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means

a. a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
b. the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
c. a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
d. a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

777.In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting
on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
a. T + W sin GAMMA = D
b. T - W sin GAMMA = D
 c. T - D = W sin GAMMA
d. T + D = - W sin GAMMA

778.An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent
/ Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
a. increases / increases / decreases
b. decreases / constant / decreases
c. increases / increases / constant
d. increases / constant / increases

779.An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases
pitch attitude the glide distance:
a. decreases.
b. increases.
c. remains the same.
d. may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.

780.Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

a. The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
b. 1.2Vs.
c. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d. The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.

781.Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a. Tailwind.
b. Increase of aircraft mass.
c. Decrease of aircraft mass.
d. Headwind.
782.During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
a. decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
b. increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
c. increases the climb time.
d. decreases the climb time.

783.The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
a. Smaller.
b. Larger.
c. Not change.
d. Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

784.Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent
in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
a. Configuration and angle of attack.
b. Mass and altitude.
c. Altitude and configuration.
d. Configuration and mass.

.
785.When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means
a. a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
b. the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
c. a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
d. a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

786.In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting
on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
 a. T + W sin GAMMA = D
b. T - W sin GAMMA = D
c. T - D = W sin GAMMA
d. T + D = - W sin GAMMA

787.An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent
/ Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
a. increases / increases / decreases
b. decreases / constant / decreases
c. increases / increases / constant
d. increases / constant / increases

788.An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases
pitch attitude the glide distance:
a. decreases.
b. increases.
c. remains the same.
d. may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.

789.Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

a. The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
b. 1.2Vs.
c. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d. The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.

790.Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a. Tailwind.
b. Increase of aircraft mass.
c. Decrease of aircraft mass.
d. Headwind.
791.A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:
a. to decrease stick forces.
b. to prevent flutter.
c. to obtain mass balancing.
d. to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.
e.

792.Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is

correct ?
a. The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
b. The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
c. The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
d. Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

793.Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to
exceed:
a. 8000 ft
b. 4000 ft
c. 6000 ft
d. 10000 ft

794.Cabin altitude means the:

a. cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
b. difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
c. flight level the aircraft is flying at.
d. flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
795.A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
a. 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
b. 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
c. 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
d. 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)

796.On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
pressure is approximately:
a. 7 - 9 psi
b. 3 - 5 psi
c. 13 - 15 psi
d. 22 psi

797.On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
a. Airflow leaving the cabin.
b. Airflow entering the cabin.
c. RPM of the engine.
d. Bleed air valve.

798.If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized

cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
a. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
b. Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
c. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
d. Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

799.The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:

a. cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
b. approximately 5 psi at maximum.
c. approximately 15 psi at maximum.
d. the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

800.The cabin rate of descent is:

a. a cabin pressure increase.
b. always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.
c. a cabin pressure decrease.
d. is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

801.The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is

approximately:
a. 9.0 psi
b. 3.5 psi
c. 13.5 psi
d. 15.5 psi
802.In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
a. AC.
b. Three-phase AC.
c. Only induced current.
d. DC.
803.Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the
electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will :
a. increase the intensity of the excitation current.
b. change the direction of the excitation current.
c. maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.

804.A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :

a. air via a ram air intake.
b. water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system.
 c. a fan located before the generator.
d. air tapped from the low pressure compressor.

805.The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :

a. series with the shunt field coil.
b. series with the armature.
c. parallel with the shunt field coil.
d. parallel with the armature.
806.The output of a generator is controlled by :
a. varying the field strength.
b. varying the speed of the engine.
c. varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
d. the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

807.In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in
parallel, it is necessary to ensure that :
a. their voltages are almost equal.
b. the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
c. equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
d. adequate voltage differences exists.

808.The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...

a. its rotation speed
b. the strength of the excitation current
c. its load
d. its phase balance

809.The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the :
a. generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
b. battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
c. alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
d. battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

810.The so-called ""hot buses"" or ""direct buses"" are:

a. directly connected to the battery.
b. kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.
c. automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
d. providing an alternative current.

811.The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are :

a. series wound.
b. shunt wound.
c. series shunt wound.
d. compound wound.
e.
812.A bus-bar is :
a. a distribution point for electrical power.
b. a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
c. the stator of a moving coil instrument.
d. a device which may only be used in DC circuits.

813.In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that :

a. generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.
b. only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.
c. generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.
d. one generator comes ""on-line"" before the other.

814.A static inverter is a:

a. transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.
b. device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
 c. static discharger.
d. filter against radio interference.

815.The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..

a. To change DC into AC.
b. To change the DC voltage.
c. To change AC into DC.
d. To avoid a short circuit.
816.In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation
may be obtained from :
a. an inverter.
b. a rectifier.
c. a contactor.
d. a TRU.
817.he maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration, compared to flaps up is:
A) smaller.
B) unchanged.
C) smaller or greater, depending on CG position.
D) greater.

818.In recovery from a spin:

A) ailerons should be kept neutral.
B) airspeed increases.
C) ailerons used to stop the spin.
D) rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin rotation.

819.An aircraft is flying at sea level with an indicated airspeed of 210kts. What will be the true airspeed
at
that time?
a. 210 kts.
b. Less than 210 kts.
c. More than 210 kts.
d. 0 kts.

820.Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the:

a. longitudinal axis.
b. chord line.
c. relative wind/airflow.
d. horizon.

821.What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s squared?
a. Watt
b. Newton
c. Joule
d. Psi

822.Load factor is the actual lift supported by the wings at any given time:
a. divided by the surface area of the wing.
b. divided by the aircrafts empty weight
c. divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
d. subtracted from the aircraft’ s total weight.

823.If an aircraft is pitching up:

a. the incidence angle increases.
b. the incidence angle decreases.
c. the incidence angle first increases and than decreases.
 d. the incidence angle remains fixed.

824.What causes deep stall in a swept back wing?

a. Span wise flow from tip to root on wing upper surface.
b. Root stall.
c. CP moves forward.
d. CP moves aft.

825.The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and
incompressible flow inside is:
a. increasing.
b. decreasing.
c. sonic.
d. not changing.

826.The formula for lift is:

a. L = W
b. L = RHO V S CL
c. L = 1/2 RHO V2 S CL
d. L = 2 RHO V2 S CL

827.A high aspect ratio wing:

a. has a short span and short chord.
b. has a long span and short chord.
c. has a short span and long chord.
d. has a long span and long chord.

828.Which of the following statements is true?

a. Energy can be created but not be destroyed.
b. Energy can be created and destroyed.
c. Energy can not be created but destroyed.
d. Energy can not be created nor destroyed.

829.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a. May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing
conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward
b. May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream
from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing
c. Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft
d. Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn

830.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a. Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
b. Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
b) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
D Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle
in a turn

831.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a. May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
b. Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
c. Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
d) Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps

832.A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:

a. improve the low speed characteristics.
b. improve the high speed characteristics.
c. increase the critical Mach Number.
 d. improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap.

833.Which of the following are used as stall warning devices?

a. Stick shaker and stallstrip .
b. Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator.
c. Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator.
d. Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip.

834.The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change
of the:
a. stagnation point.
b. centre of pressure.
c. centre of gravity.
d. point of lowest pressure.

835.The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is:
a. full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with
rudder.
b) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick.
c) idle power and stick roll-neutral nose-down and no other corrections.
d) idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nose-down tendency.

836.Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at

which stick shaker will be triggered is:
a. greater than VS.
b. 1.20 VS.
c. 1.30 VS.
d. 1.12 VS.

837.The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location
of the
a. stagnation point.
b. centre of lift.
c. transition region.
d. centre of gravity.

838.On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:
a. is caused by wingtip stall.
b. never occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.
c. is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
d. is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.

839.Low speed pitch up is caused by the:

a. spanwise flow on a swept back wing.
b. spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.
c. wing tip vortex.
d. Mach trim system.

840.The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is:
a. reduction in CLmax.
b. increase in weight.
c. increase in drag.
d. blocking of control surfaces.

841.Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?

a. Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
b. Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
c. Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
d. Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
842.Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?
a. During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.
b. An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root.
c. In the spin, airspeed continuously increases.
d. Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin.

843.During an erect spin recovery:

a. the ailerons are held in the neutral position.
b. the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.
c. the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.
d. the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.

844.Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?

a. Swept back wings and a T-tail.
b. Straight wings and a T-tail.
c. Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.
d. Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines

845.A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal
tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:
a. nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.
b. nose down tendency.
c. increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.
d. tendency to increase speed after initial stall.

846.The function of the stick pusher is:

a. to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of
attack.
b) to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.
c) to vibrate the controls.
d) to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.

847.Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics.

Dangerous stall characteristics include:
a. Excessive wing drop and deep stall.
b. pitch down and yaw.
c. pitch down and minor wing drop.
d. pitch down and increase in speed.

848.Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?

a. Deep stall.
b. Shock stall.
c. Accelerated stall.
d. Low speed stall.

849.Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?

a. A T-tail.
b. A canard wing.
c. Swept wings.
d. A low horizontal tail.

850.The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
a. wing tip stalling first.
b. aft movement of the centre of gravity.
c. forward movement of the centre of gravity.
d. wing root stalling first.

851.One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
stall :
a. tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
 b. wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
c. tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
d. leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

852.Trailing edge flap extension will:

a. decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
b. increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
c. decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
d. increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.

853.Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of

attack ?
a. flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.
b. clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.
c. slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended.
d. slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.

854.In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation
may be obtained from :
a. an inverter.
b. a rectifier.
c. a contactor.
d. a TRU.

855.A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is :

a. an inverter.
b. an AC generator.
c. a transformer rectifier unit.
d. a thermistor.

856.Static dischargers :1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same
electrical potential2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical
discharge3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volts4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence
with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum5. limit the risks of
transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified cloudsThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a. 2,4,5.
b. 1,2,5.
c. 1,3,4.
d. 3,4,5.

857.The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:1.
Weight saving2. Easy fault detection3. Increase of short-circuit risk4. Reduction of
short-circuit risk5. Circuits are not single-wired linesThe combination regrouping
all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 3, 5

858.Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:1. protect the aircraft against lightning
effects.2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0
volt3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems4. set the aircraft
to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
 c. 3, 4
d. 2, 4

859.a result of static electricity.

a. dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
b. provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
c. be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.

860.It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if :

a. static noises can be heard on the radio.
b. a circuit breaker pops out.
c. there is interference on the VOR receiver.
d. there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

861.The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :

a. provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
b. provide a single earth for electrical devices.
c. prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
d. isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.

862.The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :

a. 400 Hz.
b. 200 Hz.
c. 50 Hz.
d. 60 Hz.

863.The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:1. simple

connection2. high starting torque3. flexibility in use4. lighter weight of
equipment5. easy to convert into direct current6. easy maintenance of
machinesThe combination of correct statements is:
a. 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 4, 6

864.If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current
flowing in the circuit will :
a. increase.
b. be zero.
c. decrease.
d. remain the same.

865.When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced
by means of the:
a. energizing current.
b. frequency.
c. voltage.
d. torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

866.In a four-stroke piston engine, the only ""driving"" stroke is :

a. firing-expansion
b. intake
c. compression
d. exhaust

867.A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the :

a. total volume to the clearance volume.
b. clearance volume to the swept volume.
 c. total volume to the swept volume.
d. swept volume to the clearance volume.

868.The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary
motion is termed the :
a. crankshaft
b. piston
c. camshaft
d. reduction gear

869.The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:

a. pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
b. difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
c. pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
d. pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

870.For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:

a. oil temperature.
b. outside pressure.
c. oil pressure.
d. quantity of oil.

871.For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:

a. the circulation of lubricating oil
b. a rich fuel/air mixture
c. a properly functioning thermostat
d. a lean fuel/air mixture

872.In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided
because :
a. it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls
b. it fouls the spark plugs
c. it drains the carburettor float chamber
d. the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

873.Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a

a. worn oil pump
b. too large oil pump
c. restricted oil passage
d. too small scavenger pump.

874.The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:

a. secondary current to the sparking plugs.
b. primary current to the condenser.
c. secondary current to the condenser.
d. primary current to the sparking plugs.

875.The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto
are accomplished by the:
a. contact breaker points opening.
b. distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
c. contact breaker points closing.
d. rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.

876.If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
a. the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the ""OFF""
position
 b) a still operating engine will run down
c) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ""ON"" position
d) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced

877.A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:

a. two metal conductors of different type connected at one point.
b. two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.
c. a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.
d. a single-wire metal winding.

878.The total air temperature (TAT) is always :

a. higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed
(CAS).
b) higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed
(CAS).
c) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
d) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.

879.The static air temperature (SAT) is :

a. an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius
b. a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin
c. a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius
d. a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin

880.In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge
utilises a :
a. thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.
b. wheatstone bridge circuit.
c. ratiometer circuit.
d. bourdon tube.

881.To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped
with thermometers which work on the following principle:
a. thermocouple
b. bi-metallic strip
c. liquid expansion
d. gas pressure

882.The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the :
a. temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine
block.
b) average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.
c) temperature of the exhaust gases.
d) temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the outside air temperature is

883.A thermocouple can be made of:

a. two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points.
b. two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.
c. a three wire coil.
d. a single wire coil.

884.The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :

a. ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
static temperature.
b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.
 d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.

885.In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with :1-
resistance thermometers2- thermocouple thermometers3- reactance
thermometers4- capacitance thermometers5- mercury thermometersThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 5
d. 2, 3

886.The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it:

a. carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage.
b. is simple.
c. can operate without an electrical power supply.

887.The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several

intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that:
a. contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different
metals.
b) these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocouple.
c) these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold source.
d) these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source.

888.The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas
Temperature) indicators:
a. moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the
maximum value that has been reached.
b) shows the limit value not to be exceeded.
c) allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-off.
d) shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.

889.In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator :1- the transmitter is a
direct current generator2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed4- the speed
indicating element is a galvanometer5. the speed indicating element is an
asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometerThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is:
a. 3, 5
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 5
d. 1, 4

890.The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the :

a. necessity of providing a power supply source.
b. generation of spurious signals at the commutator.
c. influence of temperature on the indication.
d. high influence of line resistance on the indication.

891.On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator
enables :
a. control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM.
b. control of power.
c. selection of engine RPM.
d. on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation.
892.The operating principle of an ""electronic"" tachometer is to measure the:
a. frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a
magnetic field.
b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

893.The operating principle of the ""induction"" type of tachometer is to measure the:

a. rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
b. electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c. frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
d. magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator
894.Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy:
a. Both will increase.
b. Both will remain the same.
c. Both will decrease.
d. Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.

895.How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?

a. TAS decreases.
b. TAS increases.
c. TAS is constant.
d. TAS is not related to Mach Number.

896.A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will
the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
a. Reduce / decrease.
b. Reduce / remain constant.
c. Remain constant / decrease.
d. Remain constant / become larger.

897.With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:
a. The highest CL/CD ratio.
b. The highest CL/CD² ratio.
c. 1.2 Vs
d. 1.1 Vs

898.What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take
off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.)
a. The drag remains almost constant.
b. The drag increases considerably.
c. The drag decreases.
d. The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

899.Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from
low to high speeds)
a. Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
b. Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
c. Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
d. Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

900.A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which
of the following statements is correct?
a. IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
b. IAS increases and TAS increases.
c. IAS decreases and TAS increases.
 d. IAS increases and TAS decreases.

901.Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The
speeds for:
a. holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
b. maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
c. maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
d. maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.

902.What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

a. The lift coefficient increases.
b. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
c. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
d. The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

903.A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is
most likely to be reached?
a. The Maximum operating Mach number.
b. The Stalling speed.
c. The Minimum control speed air.
d. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

904.Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of
climb whereas
a. VY and VX are increased.
b. VX is increased and VY is decreased.
c. VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
d. VY and VX are decreased.

905.As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb

a. VX is always below VY.
b. VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
c. VX is always above VY.
d. VY is always above VMO.

906.The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass

a. decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to
the lower air density.
b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
d) is independent of altitude.

947.In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range
corresponds with:
a. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
b. the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
c. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
d. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.

948.The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two
airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
a. Maximum range.
b. Maximum endurance.
c. Holding.
d. Long range.

949.Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?

a. It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
 b. In order to achieve speed stability.
c. The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
d. In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

950.""Maximum endurance""
a. is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption.
b. is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.
c. can be flown in a steady climb only.
d. can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.

951.The speed for maximum endurance

a. is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
b. is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
c. can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
d. is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

952.Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?

a. SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
b. SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
c. SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
d. SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow

953.Long range cruise is selected as

a. the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.
b. the speed for best economy.
c. the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
d. specific range with tailwind.

954.The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum

a. is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
b. is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
c. is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag
speed in the descent.
d. is the same as the minimum drag speed.

955.Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude
and airspeed remain unchanged)
a. decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
b. increases the power required.
c. affects neither drag nor power required.
d. increases the induced drag.

956.The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
a. improves the maximum range.
b. increases the stalling speed.
c. improves the longitudinal stabiity.
d. decreases the maximum range.

957.The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
a. narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
b. decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
c. is only limiting at low altitudes.
d. increases with increasing mass.

958.The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
a. limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
b. can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
c. exists only above MMO.
d. has to be considered at take-off and landing.
959.Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
a. Maximum Cruise Thrust
b. Maximum Continuous Thrust
c. Go-Around Thrust
d. Maximum Take-off Thrust

960.Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best
fuel mileage) is correct?
a. An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC
normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.
b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can
occur.
b. An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive
from an economy point of view.
c. An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest
specific range.

961.An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :
a. 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine
inoperative.
b) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with
one engine inoperative.
c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
d) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the
second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

962.ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no
suitable airport is within an area of
a. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
b. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
c. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
d. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

963.Which of the following statements is correct?

a. When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel dumping may
be taken into account.
b) The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
cruising altitude.
c) The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down, because it is not
permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines operating.

964.With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly
the speed corresponding to:
a. the minimum drag.
b. the critical Mach number.
c. the minimum angle of descent.
d. the maximum lift.

965.After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What
is the procedure which should be applied?
a. Drift Down Procedure.
b. Emergency Descent Procedure.
c. ETOPS.
d. Long Range Cruise Descent.
966.'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
a. after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum
altitude.
b) after cabin depressurization.
c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.

967.If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down
procedure
a. fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
b. the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the
stall speed plus 10 kt.
c) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
d) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.

968.In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used
are:
a. Synthetic oil.
b. Mineral oil.
c. Vegetable oil.
d. Water and glycol.

969.The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:

a. synthetic oil
b. vegetable oil
c. mixture of mineral oil and alcohol
d. mineral oil

970.The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is :
a. Synthetic fluid.
b. Mineral oil based fluid.
c. Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
d. Water and glycol based fluid.

971.The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is
called ...
a. An actuator or jack.
b. A hydraulic pump.
c. An accumulator.
d. A Pressure regulator.

972.The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

a. high pressure and large flow.
b. high pressure and small flow.
c. small pressure and large flow.
d. small pressure and small flow.

973.Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:

a. purple.
b. pink.
c. blue.
d. red.

974.Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :

a. an increased fluid temperature.
b. fluid loss.
c. a decreased fluid temperature.
d. an increased fluid pressure.

975.Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :

 a. fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
b. always remain the same.
c. initially increase with system pressurisation.
d. increase as ambient temperature decreases.

976.Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the

hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the
indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be :
a. 3000 psi.
b. 2000 psi.
c. 1000 psi.
d. 4000 psi.

977.For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is :

a. the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the bypasses,
and the fire shut-off valve.
b) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to
210 /cm²).
c) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all
hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.
d) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a
pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.

978.Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?

a. At the pumps.
b. In the reservoirs.
c. At actuators.
d. At the coolers.