1.

Underpinning of foundations is

(a) a temporary structure constructed to provide a lateral support to a wall

(b) the process of placing a new foundation under an existing one or strengthening an existing foundation
to the growth or spread of fire

(c) a temporary structure constructed to support the platform over which the workman can sit and carry on
the construction

(d) the bottom most transverse members, placed at right angles to the wall with one end supported on
ledgers of scaffolding and another end on the wall.

2. Which one of the following is NOT the defect of plastering.

(a) Blistering

(b) Flaking

(c) Peeling

(d) Grinning

3. Which one of the following is NOT the characteristic of a fire resisting material ?

(a) Expansion due to heat should not be such that it Leads to instability

(b) contraction of material due to sudden cooling after it has been heated to high temperature should not
be rapid.

(c) the material should disentrigated due to a great heat

(d) the material should not be contribute to the growth or spread of fire

4. which one of the following is generally not considered for the design of form work.

(a) live load due to labor.

(b) earthquake load

(c) hydrostatic pressure of the fluid concrete

(d) impact due to poring concerted

5. which one of the following is not a general rule of natural ventilation .

(a) equal areas of opening may be provided in all sides

(b) greatest flow can be achieved by keeping more outlet area compared to into area
(c) outlet opening should be located on the lewd side near the top

(d) inlet opening should not be obstructed by any other structure or trees or sign boards in the path of air
flow

6. an estimate which is required to be prepared for incorporate the additional works while the project's is
under progress is known as

(a)2: Preliminary Estimate

(b) Detailed Estimate

(c) Supplementary Estimate

(d) Revised Estimate

7. How many numbers of cement bags are required for 10 m’ volume of 1: 2:4 cement concrete ?

(a) 64 bags

(b) 44 bags

(c) 74 bags

(d) 54 bags

8. according to the employment of skill/ semi skilled workers the number of qualified tradesman shall not
be less than which one of the following percentage of total workers required in each trade at any stage of
work.

(a)25

(b)20

(c)30

(d)45

9. considered the following statement regarding the purpose of estimation:

1. to asceration the source required to complete the project

2. to fix up the time of completion of the project

3. to draw up a construction schedule and program

Which of the above statement are correct

(a) 1 and 2 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

10. what is the work ‘done in blowing a soap, bubble ‘of diameter 12cm if . the surface tension of soap
solution is 0.040 N/m.

(a) 36.2*10-4 N/m

(b) 36.2*10-4 N/m
(c) 3.62*10-4 N/m
(d) 3.62*10-4 N/m

12. What is the force on one side of a semi-circular plate of radius 1 m immersed in water vertically with its
base downwards, if the base is at a depth of 4 m below the water surface ? (Consider specific weight of
water = 9:79 kN/m3)

(a) 15 KN

(b) 55

(c) 85 KN

(d) 105 kN

14. the ratio of inertial force to surface tension is called

(a) Mach number

(b) Reynold number
(c) Euler number
(d) Weber number

15. very slow motion of an object is in infinite expense of viscous fluid is know as :

(a) Coquette flow

(b) Viscous flow
(c) Laminar flow
(d) Creeping motion

16. in centrifugal pumps ratio of power is actually delivered by impeller to power supplied to the shaft is
called

(a) Manometric efficiency

(b) Mechanical efficiency
(c) Overall efficiency
(d) Volumetric efficiency
17. which one of the following states that the pressure is transmitted undiminished is an enclosed static
fluid.

(a) Newton law

(b) Bernollis principle
(c) Pascal law
(d) Euler law

18. Conceptually which one of the following is the inverse of a hydraulic pump .

(a) Hydraulic ram

(b) torque converter

(c) Hydraulic press

(d) Hydraulic motor

19. For a supercritical flow, sum of pressure force and momentum will

(a) increase with an increase in depth

(b) decrease with a decrease in depth

(c) always remain constant with an increase in depth

(d)increase with a decrease in depth

20. A 5 m wide rectangular channel is laid at longitudinal slope of 1 in 4000 and completely

carries water at a uniform flow depth of 1.5 m. What is the hydraulic radius.

(a) 0.9375 m

(b) 0.4848 m

(c) 0.6424 m

(d) 0.7484 m

21. The total arca within an irrigation project where the cultivation can be done and crops can be. grown is
called

(a) Gross Command Area

(b) Uncultivable, Command Area

(c) Cultivable command area

(d) cultivable area

22. which of the following method is used for supplying water for crops sown in rows

(a) Furrow method

(b) Contour method
(c) Basin method
(d) Flooding method

23. which one of the following statements is the measure to reduce the absorption loss of water from the
reservoir.

(a) Soil stabilization method should be adopted if the basin is composed of permeable bed soil
(b) The weeds and plants at the periphery of the reservoir should be removed completely
(c) The reservoir basin should be surrounded by plantation or forest area
(d) Suitable treatment should be adopted to stop the leakage of water

24. which one of the following method is not used to measure the velocity of flow of a river.

(a) The surface float method

(b) The pilot tube method
(c) The current meter method
(d) The sounding cable method

25. super passage is the hydraulic structure

(a) in which the drainage is taken over the irigation canal .

(b)in which the irrigation canal is taken over the drainage

(c) in which the beds of the drainage

and canal are constructed at the same level

(d) in which the canal water is taken over. the drainage through Siphonic action.

26. Which one of the following continents in the ‘world with only 20 percentage of the precipitation going
as runoff.

(a) Asia

(b) Australia

(c) Africa

(d) Europe

27. The probable maximum precipitation is defined as

(a) the lowest or minimum rainfall for given duration that is physically possible over a station or basin

(b) the greatest or extreme rainfall for a given duration that is physically possible over a station or basin

(c) the rainfall over a basin which would produce a flood flow with high risk of being exceeded

(d) the recognition that there is a physical lower limit to the amount of precipitation.

28. isopluvial map is

(a) A line joining the equal intensities of rainfall

(b) A line joining the equal duration of rain fall
(c) A line joining the equal frequency of rain fall
(d) A line joining the equal depth of rain fall

30. which one of the following method techniques is used in the indirect determination of stream flow

(a) Dilution techniques

(b) Electromagnetic method
(c) Slope area method
(d) Area velocity method

31. The BOD of wastewater is determined to be' 150° mg/L at 20°C and the-K value is 0-2 per day. What is
the Ultimate BOD? (Take e-1 value as 0.3679)

(a) 237 mg/L

(b) 337 mg/L

(c) 437 mg/L

(4) 137 mg/L

32. Which one of the following processes .destroys pathogens in the distnbution system ?

(a) Mixing

(b) Filtration

(c) Disinfection

(d) adsorption

34. The water samples were collected in delhi from three different sources and tested for hardness the
values observed were ranges between 200-250 mg/L the water is

(a) Soft water

(b) Hard water
 (c) Moderately hard
(d) Very hard

35. the operation of agitating the water violently to ensure uniform mixing is called

(a) Flocculation
(b) Coagulation
(c) Rapid mixing
(d) Sweep coagulation

37. Excess lime softening is an effective disinfectant due to

: and tested for hardness. The Vales disinfectant « ~ a

(a) the low ph value involved

(b) the medium ph involved
(c) the high ph involved
(d) zero ph involved

38. Which of the following processes is NOT a type of treating/removing the pathogens ?

(a) Chlorination

(b) Ozonation

(c) Land treatment systems

(d) Chemical-polymer addition

39. In case of anaerobic digesters, the range of BOD, in mg/L for tackling

filters is

(a) 400-600

(b)500-5000

(c) 300-1000 (

(d)_ 300-400

40. What is the volume in litres occupied by 2 mol of gas at 25°C and pressure at 820 mm of mercury ? (At
273 K and 1 atm pressure (760 mm of mercury), standard conditions with volume is 22.4 L/mol

(a) 45

(b) 35

(c) 55
(d) 65

41. considered the following assumption in rankines theory:

1. the soil mass is semi infinite homogeneous dry and cohesion less

2. the ground surface is a plane which may be horizontal and inclined

3. the face of the wall in contact with the back fill is vertical and smooth

Which of the above assumptions are correct

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

42. if there interruption of strain then the shear stress could

(a) Increase steadily by a creep in saturated clays

(b) Increase steadily by a creep in unsaturated clays
(c) decrease steadily by a creep in saturated clays
(d) decrease steadily by a creep in saturated clays

43. which one of the following statements is not correct with regards to consolidation of undestribute
specimen ?

(a) a clay is said to be pre consolidated if it has ever been subjected to a pressure in excess of its
present
(b) a normally consolidated soil is one which has ever been subjected to an effective pressure greater
than the exciting over burden pressure which is fully consolidated by the existing over burden
pressure
(c) a soil is not fully consolidated by the existing over burden pressure called an under consolidated
soil
(d) Every process involving a decrease in the water content of a saturated soil with replacement of the
water by air is called process of consolidation

44. which one of the following is a field test to determine the ultimate bearing capacity of soil and the
probable set element under a given loading?

(a) Plate load test

(b) Sand replacement method
(c) Unconfined compression test
(d) Proctor test

45. which of the following statements is correct regarding the determination of index properties?
 (a) Consistency index is the ratio of plastic limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index
of the soil
(b) Plasticity of a soil is the property which allows the soil to deform rapidly without rapture without
elastic rebound and without volume change
(c) Liquidity index in the ratio of liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of
the soil
(d) Liquidity index in the ratio of liquid limit minus the natural water content to the consistency index
of the soil

46. which one of the following is not Terzaghi assumption for one dimensional consolidation?

(a) Darcy’s law for the velocity of flow of water through soil is perfectly valid
(b) Excess pore water drain out in all the directions
(c) Coefficient of permeability is constant during consolidation
(d) The load is applied in one direction only and deformation occurs only in the direction of the
application of load

47. which one of the following statements is correct regarding quick sand condition?

(a) When the flow of water through the pores of cohesion less soil acts in the upwards
direction then the seepage pressure acts in down ward direction
(b) When the flow of water through the pores of cohesion less soil acts in downwards direction
then the seepage pressure acts in upwards direction
(c) When the flow of water through the pores of cohesion less soil acts in upward direction
then the seepage pressure acts in upward direction
(d) When the flow of water through the pores of cohesion less soil acts in downward direction
then the seepage pressure became zero

48. consider the following statements:

1. as compared to triaxial test direct shear test has little control to the drainage of soil.

2. indirect shear test there is effect of lateral restraint by the side walls of the shear box.

3. in direct shear test always , pre- determined failure plane is the actual weakest one.

Which of the statement are correct disadvantages of direct shear test.

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and3 only
(d) 1 and 2only

49. which one of the following will not be considered for cases of cohensionless backfill.
 (a) Submerged backfill
(b) Backfill with uniform surcharge
(c) Perpendicular to the surface of the backfill
(d) Backfill with slopping surface

50. which one of the coffer dams is suitable for small heights.

(a) Double wall coffer dam

(b) Cellular coffer dam
(c) Cantilever sheet pile coffer dam
(d) Embankment protected coffer dam

51. Ceylon ghat tracer is an instrument used for

(a) Measuring the length of field

(b) Measuring the height of contours
(c) Setting out the area of track
(d) Setting out gradients

52. a solid whose end faces lie in parallel planes and consists of any two polygons not necessarily of the
same number of sides the longitudinal face being surface extended between the end planes is called

(a) Trapezoidal prism

(b) Prismoid
(c) Hexagonal prism
(d) Cone

53. in the context of chain surveying a line which joins subsidiary station on the main lines is called

(a) Check line

(b) Tie line
(c) Swing offset
(d) Random line

54. A surveyor measure a distance between two points on the plane drawn to the scale of 1 cm = 40 m and
the result was 468 m later however he discovered that he used a scale of 1cm =20 m what is the true
distance between the point

(a) 936 m
(b) 234 m
(c) 468 m
(d) 800 m

55. the technical team given to a combined set of escapement and dip slope occurring adjacently in an area
of escarpment topography is
 (a) Mesa
(b) Kopjees
(c) Hogback
(d) Cuesta

56. the types of dunes with a typically half moon shape developed by winds blowing in the same direction
for considerable length of time are called

(a) Sigmoidal dunes

(b) Bachans
(c) Transverse dunes
(d) Loess

57. sedimentary rocks which the individual grams whether rounded or angular in shape are of the size of
common sand are defined as

(a) Arenaceous rocks

(b) Rudeceous rocks
(c) Silt rocks
(d) Argillaceous rocks

58. in a general soil profile cross section the mineral horizon which is rich is in organic matter formed either
at or adjacent in the surface is called

(a) Zone of elevation

(b) Zone of alleviation
(c) Zone of crystallization
(d) Zone of deposition

59. a pair of folds that are apparently related to each other and may have mutually inclined axial planes are
known as

(a) Conjugate folds

(b) Is clinical folds
(c) Recumbent folds
(d) Box folds

60. what is the magnetic declination at a plane if the magnetic bearing of the sun at noon time is 180 030’ ?

(a) 2030’ E
(b) 1800 E
(c) 2030’ W
(d) 1850 W

61. According to PIEV theory the total reaction time of driver is split into
 (a) Two parts
(b) Three parts
(c) Four parts
(d) Five parts

62. which of the following methods is adopted for the alignment of railway line in steep sides slope ?

(a) Zigzag line

(b) Valley alignment
(c) Cross country alignment
(d) Switch back alignment

63. the spacing of sleeper is fixed depending upon

(a) The length of train

(b) The track condition
(c) The average weight of passenger
(d) The sleeper density

64. cant deficiency means

(a) The difference between actual cant provided and theoretical cant Required for a train moving more
than equibalirium speed at horizontal curve.
(b) The difference between actual cant provided and theoretical cant required for a train moving less
than equilibrium speed at horizontal curve
(c) The difference between actual cant provided and theoretical cant required for a train equibalirium
speed at horizontal curve
(d) The speed at which the effect of the centripetal force is completely balanced by the cant provided

65. sleeper density for a particular case is represented by M+7, where M is the rail length if M= 13 m and
sleeper width is 27 cm then what is the depth of ballast?

(a) 22cm
(b) 17 cm
(c) 19 cm
(d) 29 cm

66. according to the earliest edition of highway capacity manual (1950) the maximum number of vehicle
that can pass through a given point on a lane of roadway during the hour without the traffic density being
so good as to cause unreasonable delay hazard or restriction to the driver freedom to monocurve under
prevailing roadways and traffic condition is called

(a) Practical capacity

(b) Possible capacity
(c) Basic capacity
 (d) Capacity

67. the portion of the roadway contiguous with the travelled way and is intended for accommodation of
stopped vehicle emergency use and lateral support of base and the surface course is called

(a) Kerb
(b) Shoulders
(c) Lateral clearance
(d) Camber

69. rate of usage of the available parking spce is called

(a) Parking turn- over

(b) Parking index
(c) Parking lord
(d) Parking volume

70. the effective speed of a vehicle between two points in the distance between two points divided by the
total time taken by the vehicle to complete the journey including all delay ensured en-route is called

(a) Running speed

(b) Journey speed
(c) Time mean speed
(d) Space mean speed

71. which one of the following tests is suitable for stiff concrete mixes having low very low workability ?

(a) Vee-bee test

(b) Rebound hammer test
(c) Ultrasonic pulse test
(d) Modified slump test

72. consider the following statement for shot create:

1. it is very useful for the restoration and repairing of concrete structures.

2. it is use full for stabilization of rock slope.

3. it has wide application in the construction of curved and folded section

Which of the above statement are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
73. the high temperature of mass concrete due to the heat hydration may lead to

(a) Strong construction

(b) Support external compaction
(c) Exportation
(d) Extensive and serious shrinkage cracks

74. which one of the following statement is not correct related to fire resistance ?

(a) Learner mixes of concrete appears to suffer a lower loss of strength and rich ones
(b) The loss of strength of concrete is consideberly lower when the aggregates of concrete do not
contain silica.
(c) Compressive strength is more affected as compared to flexural strength of concrete.
(d) The loss of strength at higher temperature is greater in saturated than in dry concrete

75. which one of the following application is not used for ultrasonic testing ?

(a) Estimating of strength

(b) Measurement of transient stress
(c) Measurement of layer thickness
(d) Measurement of elastic modulus

76. the index of an aggregate is the percentage by weight of particles in it whose least dimensions
( thickness) is less than three fifth of the mean dimensions ( not applicable for aggregates smaller than 6.3
mm ) is called

(a) Flakiness index

(b) Elongation index
(c) Angularity index
(d) Soundness index

77. consider the following statement in respect of clamp burnt and kilo burnt bricks:

1. clamp burn bricks have low initial cost whereas kilo burnt bricks have high initial cost

2. local fuel can be used for clamp burnt and kilo burnt bricks

3. for clamp burnt bricks no skilled supervision is needed where as for kilo burnt bricks skilled supper vision
is continuously needed

Which of the following statement are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
78. consider the following statement for bull’s trench kill and hoffman’s kin :

1. initial cost is low involving ordinary type construction as compared to hoffman’s kin

2. it requires more space for drying of bricks as compared of hoffman’s kin

3. percentage of best quality of bricks are less as compared to hoffman’s skin

Which of the above statement are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only

79. As per IS 1077 -1992 what is the range of crushing strength of grade a bricks?

(a) Less than 35 kg/cm2

(b) 36 kg/cm2 to 140 kg/cm2
(c) 70 kg/cm2 to 140 kg/cm2
(d) More than 140 kg/cm2

80. which one of the following is not a natural light weight aggregate?

(a) Pumice
(b) Foamed slag
(c) Volcanic scoria
(d) Asbestos

81. buckling load will be maximum for a column if

(a) Both ends are hinged

(b) One end is fixed and the other end is fire
(c) Both ends are fixed
(d) One end are hinged and the other end is free

82. a thin cylindrical tank having aradius of 25cm and wall thickness of 5 mm is subjected to an internal
pressure of 1 MPA if the youngs modulus is 200 GPA and the passions ratio is 0.2 what is the maximum
principle strain in the cylinder

(a) 2.25*10-4
(b) 2.25
(c) 22.5*10-4
(d) 22.5

83. a cantriviler beam of length 2 m is having cross section of 40 mm*60 mm this beam failed after applying
a force of 5 kN the free end what is the bending stress at the failure in N/mm 2
 (a) 342.48
(b) 34.16
(c) 44.86
(d) 416.66

84. a cantivilar beam of span 3 m is subjected to point load placed at mid span if the slope at the free end
of the bean is found to be 50 , then what is the slope at the mid span of the beam ?

(a) 2.50
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 4.50

85. the function of the notch in impact testing is to :

1. in crease the cross section

2. localize the rupture

3. concentrarte the stress

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

86. if the diameter of the bar is subjected to the shear stress r is doubled then the strain energy stored in
the body will become

(a) Two times the initial value

(b) Four time the initial value
(c) Half of the initial value
(d) One – forth of the initial value

[Link] a circular shaft subjected to the twisting moment the maximum shear stress will be at

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

88. a thin cylindrical shall is subjected to internal pressure of 50 bar shall material ragidity module is 80
mpa and passion’s ratio is 0.25 assume that thickness is 5 mm and internal diameter of the shall is 40 mm
what is the change in diameter of the shall due to internal pressure ?

(a) 3.5 mm
(b) 4.6 mm
(c) 4.2 mm
(d) 3.9 mm

89. the nature of distribution of shear stree in a rectangular beam is

(a) Linear
(b) Parabolic
(c) Hyperbolic
(d) Elliptic

90. if two shafts of same length and one of which hollow transmit equal torques and have maximum
strength then they should have equal

(a) Polar moment of inertia

(b) Polar module of section
(c) Diameter
(d) Angle of twist

91. column analog method can be conveniently applied in the analysis of statically indeterminate structure
in which the degree of redundancy does not exceed

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6

93. a two hinged arch is subjected to a rise at temperature (t) then the horizontal thrust at support

(a) will remain same

(b) will increase
(c) will decrease
(d) may increase or decrease

95. consider the following statement regading clapeyron’s theorem:

1. its derived based on two consecutive spans

2. it can not be applied to analyze a single span fixed fixed bean

3. it cannot applied to analyze a continuous bean having span more than two

Which of the above statement is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

96. two members of a frame rigidly connected with each other at a point the other end of one member is
fixed and for second member is hinged considering same length and same properties what will be the
distribution factor (DF) of the members at the joints?

(a) Member with fixed and DF = 4/7 and member with hinged and DF = 3/7
(b) Both the member having DF = 4/7
(c) Both the member having DF = 3/7
(d) Member with fixed and DF = 3/7 and member with hinged end DF = 4/7

97. Euler’s formula is not valid for a mild steel column having crushing stress for mild steel F e = 330 N/mm2
and young’s modulus of mild steel E =2*10 5 N/mm2, if the slenderness ratio is

(a) Less than 77.3

(b) Greater than 77.3
(c) Equal to 97
(d) Greater than or equal to 87.3

98. consider the following statements regarding conjugate beam method :

1. the slope at any section of the given beam is equal to the bending moment at the corresponding section
of the conjugate beam

2. the deflection at any section of the given beam is equal to the bending moment at the corresponding
section of the conjugate beam

3. fixed support of a given beam become roller support of the conjugate beam

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only
(c) 1 nad 3 only
(d) 2 only

99. a propped cantilever AB is fixed at A propped at B and subjected to a hogging couple M at B what is the
amount of bending moment and its nature (hogging/sagging) at A?

(a) M and hogging

 (b) M and sagging
(c) M/2 and sagging
(d) M/2 and hogging

101. lacing bars shall be inclined to the axis of built up compression number at an angle of

(a) 150 to 300

(b) 300 to 350
(c) 400 to 700
(d) 800 to 900

102. number of hinges required to form a mechanism for a propped cantilever beam is

(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2

103. shape factor for rectangular cross section is

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.7
(c) 1.33
(d) 1.84

104. consider the following statements for shear lag :

1. one part of section lags behind the other part in transferring the sher forces is knows as shear lag

2. shear lag increase the effectiveness of the components plates of a tension member that are not directly
connected to a guest plate

3. shear lag effect reduce with increase in the connection length

Which of the above statement is are not correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

105. what is the maximum effective slenderness ratio of a member always in tension (other than pre-
tensioned member)

(a) 180
(b) 250
(c) 350
 (d) 400

106. the centre to centre distance between individual fasteners in a line in the direction of load/stress is
called

(a) Edge
(b) Spacing
(c) Pitch
(d) slotted hole

107. an intermediate transverse web stiffener mainly improves

(a) local buckling of web due to any concentrated load

(b) the buckling of web due to shear
(c) tensional effect
(d) crushing effect on web at the location of heavy concentrated load

108. strength of joint against bearing of rivets is

(a) bearing strength of one rivets * 4(number of rivets in the joint)

(b) bearing strength of one rivets * number of rivets in the joint
(c) bearing strength of one rivets * 2(number of rivets in the joint)
(d) bearing strength of one rivets * 3(number of rivets in the joint)

109. what is the are of base plate required to transfer an axial factored load of 800 kN received from a
column to the RCC foundation, if M20 grade of concrete is considered ?

(a) 88,888 mm2

(b) 8,888 mm2
(c) 888 mm2
(d) 88 mm2

110. the effective throat thickness of fillet weld shall not be

(a) Equal to the size of weld

(b) Equal to the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle
(c) The function of the angle between the fusion side
(d) Less than 3mm

111. which one of the following load combinations is not considered for the limit state of collapse it dead
load(DL) live load (LL) and wind load (WL) are considered?

(a) 1.2DL+1.2LL+1.2WL
(b) 1.5DL+1.5LL
(c) 1.0DL+1.0LL
(d) 1.5DL+1.5WL
112. to control the vertical deflection limit of a beam spanning not more than 10 m, the span to depth ratio
is restricted to

(a) Cantilever-7, simply supported-20

(b) Cantilever-20,simply supported-7
(c) Cantilever-7,simply supported-26
(d) Cantilever-10,simply supported-20

113. consider the following statement regarding unbalanced reinforced concrete section :

1. under reinforced section is section in which steel provided is less than what is required for a balanced
section

2. in over reinforced section steel is provided more than what is required for a balanced section

3. in over reinforced section steel reaches its permissible value before concerete reaches its permissible
value

Which of the above statements is are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

115. while assessing strength of a structural member for the limit state of collapse the value of partial
safety factor should be taken as

(a) 1.2 for concrete and 1.5 for steel

(b) 1.5 for concrete and 1.2 for steel
(c) 1.15 for concrete and 1.5 for steel
(d) 1.5 for concrete and 1.15 for steel

116. A simply supported beam is deep beam if the effective span to overall depth ratio is

(a) <2.5
(b) <2
(c) >2.5
(d) >2

117. which one of the following assump-tions is not correct analysis for limit state of collapse in flexure?

(a) The maximum strain in concerate at the outer most compression fiber is taken as 0.15 percentage
in bending regardless of the strength of concerete
(b) The tensil strength of concerete is ignored
(c) The steel and concerete are completely bounded
 (d) Plane section normal to the axis remains plane after bending

118. the maximum compressive stress of concerete for designing the column structure is equal to

(a) 0.67fek
(b) 0.28 fek
(c) 0.446fek
(d) 0.84fek

119. the percentage amount of steel reinforcement in a slab is

(a) More than that of a beam only

(b) More than that of a column only
(c) Less than that of a beam and column
(d) More than that of a beam and column

120. the failure in a reinforced concerete beam which occurs due to large shear force and less bending
moment is called

(a) Diagonal tension failure

(b) Flexural shear failure
(c) Diagonal compression failure
(d) Shear failure