ADF

ADF 1.

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order
to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?

A. Six
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Four

ADF 2.

Night Effect’ which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to :

A. Skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk.
B. Interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB.
C. Static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band.
D. The effect of the Aurora Borealis.

ADF 3.

Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by :

A. Skywave/ground wave contamination.

B. Signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces.
C. Signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring.
D. Misalignment of the loop aerial.

ADF 4.

An aeroplane is tracking away from an NDB maintaining track 020 degrees with 5 degrees starboard (right) drift. The
relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a bearing of?

A. 185 degrees relative.

B. 175 degrees relative.
C. 180 degrees relative.
D. 015 degrees relative.

ADF 5.

What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 365 kHz?

A. 8.2 m.
B. 82 m.
C. 822 m.
D. 8200 m.
ADF 6.

Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

A. Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night.

B. Frequency drift at the ground station.
C. Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day.
D. Mutual interference between aircraft aerials.

ADF 7.

There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.

Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a
position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be ?

A. The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°.
B. Greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland.
C. The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°.
D. Greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland.

ADF 8.

Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is :

A. Inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.

B. Near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles.
C. Inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles.
D. Near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.

ADF 9.

An aeroplane is tracking towards an NDB maintaining track 120 degrees with 15 degrees starboard (right) drift. The
relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a bearing of ?

A. 105 degrees relative.

B. 345 degrees relative.
C. 015 degrees relative.
D. 135 degrees relative.

ADF 10.

What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?

A. 800 m
B. 8000 m
C. 8 m
D. 80 m
ADF 11.

An aeroplane is tracking away from an NDB maintaining track 120 degrees with 15 degrees starboard (right) drift.
The relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a bearing of ?

A. 180 degrees relative.

B. 015 degrees relative.
C. 185 degrees relative.
D. 175 degrees relative.

ADF 12.

ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum
error of :

A. +/- 2°.
B. +/-5°.
C. +/-10°.
D. +/-2.5°.

ADF 13.

Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

A. 200 – 1750 kHz

B. 255 – 455 kHz
C. 300 – 3000 kHz
D. 200 – 2000 kHz

ADF 14.

In order to obtain an ADF bearing the :

A. Signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials.

B. Sense aerial must be tuned separately.
C. Mode selector should be switched to ‘loop’.
D. BFO switch must be selected to ‘ON’.

ADF 15.

Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include :

A. Static interference – station interference – latitude error.

B. Height error – station interference – mountain effect.
C. Coastal refraction – lane slip – mountain effect.
D. Static interference – night effect – absence of failure warning system.
ADF 16.

Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?

A. Coastal effect.
B. Quadrantal error.
C. Precipitation interference.
D. Local thunderstorm activity.

ADF 17.

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to :

A. Hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal.
B. Stop loop rotation.
C. Hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON.
D. Find the loop ‘null’ position.

ADF 18.

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :

A. Omnidirectional.
B. Bi-lobal circular.
C. A cardioid balanced at 30 Hz.
D. A beam rotating at 30 Hz.

ADF 19.

If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090 degrees, and the ADF pointer indicates 225 degrees, the relative bearing o the
station will be ?

A. 225 degrees.
B. 315 degrees.
C. Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.
D. 135 degrees.

ADF 20.

What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?

A. The BFO circuit is activated.

B. The BFO circuit imposes a tone onto the carrier wave to make the NDB’s ident audible.
C. The BFO is activated, and the receiver accepts only A1A modulated signals.
D. The BFO circuit oscillates at an increased frequency in order to allow identification of A2A NDB’s.
ADF 21.

An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316 degrees from an aircraft. Given : Compass heading 270. Deviation = 2W.
Variation at the aircraft = 30 E. Variation at the station = 28E. calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft?

A. 072 degrees.
B. 252 degrees.
C. 074 degrees.
D. 254 degrees.

ADF 22.

A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of
090 degrees through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct ?

A. The VOR needle moves, the ADF needle does not.

B. Both VOR and ADF needles move.
C. Neither the VOR nor the NDB needles move.
D. The ADF needle moves, the VOR needle does not.

ADF 23.

If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090 and the ADF pointer indicates 225, the relative bearing of the station will be?

A. 225 degrees.
B. Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.
C. 135 degrees.
D. 315 degrees.

ADF 24.

An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316 degrees from the aircraft. Given : Compass heading 265 degrees. At aircraft
deviation = 3W, Variation = 36E. At station variation = 34E. calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft?

A. 254 degrees.
B. 252 degrees.
C. 074 degrees.
D. 072 degrees.

ADF 25.

What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 KHz?

A. 8 m.
B. 8000 m.
C. 80 m.
D. 800 m.
ADF 26.

Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

A. Frequency drift at the ground station.

B. Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night.
C. Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day.
D. Mutual interference between aircraft aerials.

ADF 27.

You are on a magnetic heading of 055 degrees, and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325 degrees. The QDM
is?

A. 020 degrees.
B. 235 degrees.
C. 200 degrees.
D. 055 degrees.

ADF 28.

Given : W/V (T) = 230/20 kts. Variation = 6E. TAS = 80 kts. What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained
in order to achieve an outbound course of 257(M) from overhead the beacon?

A. 008 degrees.
B. 352 degrees.
C. 172 degrees.
D. 188 degrees.

ADF 29.

On the QDR of 075 degrees, (in the vicinity of the station) with magnetic heading of 295 degrees, the relative bearing
on the ADF indicator is ?

A. 040 degrees.
B. 220 degrees.
C. 320 degrees.
D. 140 degrees.

ADF 30.

A VOR and an NDB are co-located. You cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360 (M). In the vicinity of the
station you should read an ADF bearing of?

A. 300
B. 120
C. 240
D. 60
ADF 31.

What does ADF stand for?

A. Automatic Direction Finding.

B. Airport Direction Finding.
C. Airborne Direction Finding.
D. Aeroplane Direction Finding.

ADF 32.

On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no calculation is necessary from the pilot) of
the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB?

a. Moving and fixed card ADF.

b. Fixed card AF only.
c. Fixed card ADF and RMI.
d. Moving card ADF and RMI.

ADF 33.

The quadrantal error of an ADF?

A. Is caused by the refraction from the aircraft’s fuselage and is compensated for.
B. Is caused by interference from sky waves.
C. Is caused by aircraft magnetism and varies with the deviation as shown on the deviation table.
D. May be caused by interference of VORs within range of the ADF receiver and cannot be compensated for.

ADF 34.

Night effect in an ADF may cause?

A. Noise in the received EM-wave, which hardly will be noticed by the pilots looking at the RMI.
B. Fluctuating indications of the needle on the rim.
C. A constant error in the indicated heading.
D. No bearing error because of the built-in compensator unit.

ADF 35.

The reading of the RMI bearing is 300 degrees. At the tip of the needle. The magnetic variation at the DR position is
24W, the magnetic variation at the NDB is 22W and deviation is -2 degrees. The compass heading is 020 degrees.
The true bearing is?

A. 294 degrees.
B. 094 degrees.
C. 272 degrees.
D. 274 degrees.
ADF 36.

With regard to the range of NDBs and the accuracy of the bearings they provide it can be stated that in general at
night?

A. The range increases and the accuracy decreases.

B. The range and the accuracy both decreases.
C. The range and the accuracy both increases.
D. The range decreases and the accuracy increases.

ADF 37.

Which statement with respect to the range of an NDB?

A. With propagation over sea the range will be greater than the range with propagation over land.
B. In order to double the range of an NDB, the transmission power should be increased by a factor of 16.
C. The range depends on the altitude of the aircraft.
D. During the night the range of an NDB will decreases due to the interference of the direct and earth reflected
waves.

ADF 38.

Which statement with respect to the range of an NDB in an area with constant wind and constant magnetic variation?

A. The relative bearing of the NDB should be equal to the QDM.

B. The relative bearing of the NDB should be kept 000 degrees.
C. The relative bearing of the NDB should be equal (in magnitude and sign) to the applied wind correction
angle.
D. The relative bearing of the NDB should be equal (in magnitude and sign) to the experienced drift angle.

ADF 39.

Which statement is correct for tracking towards an NDB in an area with constant wind and constant magnetic
variation?

A. The relative bearing of the NDB should be equal (in magnitude and sign) to the experienced drift angle.
B. The relative bearing of the NDB should be equal (in magnitude and sign) to the applied wind correction
angle.
C. The relative bearing of the NDB should be kept 000 degrees.
D. The relative bearing of the NDB should be equal to the QDM.

ADF 40.

Allocated frequencies for NDB are?

A. 19 Hz to 17500 Hz.
B. 1.90 kHz to 17.50 kHz.
C. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz.
D. 1900 kHz to 17500 kHz.
ADF 41.

ADF is the abbreviation for?

A. Automatic Direction Finder.

B. Automatic Detection Finder.
C. Aircraft Direction Finder.
D. Aircraft direction Finding.

ADF 42.

The ADF indication in the cockpit is a?

A. True bearing on an RMI.

B. Relative bearing on an RMI.
C. Relative bearing on a fixed card.
D. Magnetic heading on a fixed card indicator.

ADF 43.

NDB is the abbreviation for?

A. Non Directional Beacon.

B. Night Directional Beacon.
C. Non Directional Bearing.
D. Navigation Director Beacon.

ADF 44.

Concerning ADF and NDB?

A. NDB is a locator and ADF is an en route nav-aid.

B. ADF is a ground equipment and NDB can be a ground equipment or an airborne equipment.
C. ADF is a civilian equipment whereas NDB is a military equipment used by civilians too.
D. NDB is a ground equipment, and ADF is an airborne equipment.

ADF 45.

What causes the so called “night effect”?

A. A change in the direction of the plane of the polarization due to reflection in the ionosphere.
B. The difference in velocity of the EM waves over land and over sea at night.
C. The absence of the surface wave at distances larger than the skip distance.
D. Interference between the ground and space waves.
ADF 46.

Which statement about the errors and effects on NDB radio signals is correct?

A. Shore line effects may cause a huge bearing error due to reflection of the radio signals onto steep coasts.
B. Lightning during atmospheric disturbances may cause a reduction of the signal strength that may result in
only slight bearing errors.
C. Night effect is a result of interference of the surface wave and the space wave causing a reduction is range.
D. The mountain effect is caused by reflections onto steep slopes of mountainous terrain which may cause big
errors in the bearing.
 AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 1.

Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 2 cm in order to :

A. Transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range.

B. Obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam.
C. Detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large.
D. Detect the larger water droplets.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 2.

The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to :

A. Detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud.

B. Give an indication of cloud tops.
C. Inhibit unwanted ground returns.
D. Extend the mapping range.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 3.

In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilizes a:

A. Fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM.

B. Fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range.
C. Pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM.
D. Pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 4.

Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather
beam'?

A. Cirrocumulus.
B. Cumulus.
C. Stratus.
D. Altostratus.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 5.

In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern?

A. CONTOUR.
B. WEATHER.
C. MAPPNG.
D. MANUAL.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 6.

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are
indicated on the screen by:

A. Colour zones being closest together.

B. Blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour.
C. Large areas of flashing red colour.
D. Iso-echo areas, which are, coloured black.
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 7.

Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilization axes?

A. Roll, pitch and yaw.

B. Pitch and yaw.
C. Roll and pitch.
D. Roll and yaw.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 8.

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence
is generally shown by a change of colour from:

A. Green to yellow to red.

B. Yellow to amber to blue.
C. Green to red to black.
D. Yellow to orange to red.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 9.

A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because :

A. Greater detail can be obtained at the more distance ranges of the smaller water droplets.
B. The larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small.
C. Static interference is minimized
D. Less power output is required in the mapping mode

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 10.

In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is :

A. Only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment.
B. Permitted anywhere
C. Totally prohibited
D. Unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 11.

The pencils shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the
determination of ground features:

A. Beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the Mapping mode.
B. Beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
C. When approaching coast-lines in polar regions
D. Beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 12.

A frequency of airborne weather radar is :

A. 9375 MHz.
B. 9375 GHz.
C. 9375 kHz.
D. 93.75 MHz.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 13.

A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return
on the radar screen should :
 A. Increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen.
B. Increase in area and move to the top of the screen.
C. Decrease in area but not change in position on the screen.
D. Decrease in area and move to the top of the screen.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 14.

In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:

A. Better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea.

B. A greater radar range to be achieved.
C. Higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture.
D. Scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent of distance.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 15.

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
A. Size of the water drops and the wavelength/frequency used.
B. Range from cloud and the wavelength/frequency used.
C. Size of the water droplets and the diameter of the scanner.
D. Rotational speed of radar scanner and the range from cloud.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 16.

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are :
A. Rotational speed of radar scanner.
B. Diameter of radar scanner.
C. Wavelength/frequency used.
D. Range from cloud.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 17.

In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the
aircraft, the tilt control should be set to?
(Assume a beam width of 5°)

A. 2.5° up.
B. 0°.
C. 2.5° down.
D. 5° up.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 18.

When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line appears on the screen. This means
that the?

A. Transmitter is faulty.
B. Scanner is not rotating.
C. Scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty.
D. Receiver is faulty.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 19.

Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?

A. Dry hail; clear air turbulence

B. Snow; clear air turbulence
C. Clear air turbulence, turbulence in cloud with precipitation
D. Snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 20.

The “gain” control knob of an AWR adjusts?

A. The power level of the transmitted energy is made dependent on the selected range.
B. The brightness of the display.
C. The automatic gain control of the AWR is activated.
D. The receiver sensitivity in order to achieve optimum target acquisition.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 21.

Airborne Weather Radars are generally based on the use of?

A. Secondary radar in the SHF band.

B. Primary radar in the UHF band.
C. Primary radar in the SHF band.
D. Secondary radar in the VHF band.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 22.

In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilizes a?

A. Fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 nm.

B. Fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum range of 50 nm to 60 nm.
C. Pencil beam effective from zero to 150 nm.
D. Pencil beam effective to a maximum range of 60 nm.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 23.

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) the main factors that determine whether or not a cloud will be detected are?

A. Range to the cloud, wavelength/frequency used.

B. Size of the water droplets and the diameter of the radar scanner.
C. Size of the water droplets, and the wavelength/frequency used.
D. Rotational speed of the radar scanner, range from cloud.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 24.

In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the
aircraft, the tilt control should be set to (assume a beam width of 5 degrees)?

A. 2.5 degrees down.

B. 2.5 degrees up.
C. 5 degrees up.
D. 0 degrees.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 25.

In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on the screen by?

A. Colour zones of red or magenta.

B. Blank areas where there is no colour.
C. Colour zones of green or yellow.
D. Areas which are coloured black.
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 26.

To improve the detection of precipitation area(s) in e.g. Thunderstorms, in which the top of the cloud lies at or
slightly above the level of flight?

A. The tilting setting should be lower when the aircraft climbs to a higher altitude.
B. The tilting setting should be higher when the aircraft climbs to a higher altitude.
C. The tilting setting should be higher when the selected range decreases.
D. The tilting setting should be lower when the selected range increases.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 27.

Which statements relating to the stabilization system of airborne weather radar antennae is true?

A. They are stabilized with respect to the pitch, roll and yaw axes.
B. They are stabilized with respect to the yaw axis, but not with respect to the pitch and roll axes.
C. They are stabilized with respect to the pitch and roll axes but not with respect to the yaw axis.
D. The pilot can choose the axes of stabilization with the system’s stabilization selector switch.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 28.

Airborne Weather Radar has been primarily developed to detect?

A. Areas of wind sheer and severe aircraft icing.

B. Areas of severe clear air turbulence.
C. The kinds of precipitation, which are usually accompanied by turbulence.
D. All kinds of frozen precipitation such as hail, snow and graupel.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 29.

The antennae of modern airborne weather radars are stabilized by means of?

A. Mercury switches.
B. Inputs from the aircraft’s altitude system.
C. Artificial gravity switches.
D. Feedback from the antenna accelerometers.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 30.

The heaviest turbulence is likely to be encountered?

A. Where the area of heaviest precipitation is closest to the edge of the thunderstorm cell.
B. About half way between two thunderstorm cells.
C. In the very core of a thunderstorm cell.
D. In the very core of a thunderstorm cell.
E. In the area of heaviest precipitation.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 31.

When using airborne weather radar in the mapping mode in polar areas one runs the risk?

A. Of getting a distorted because of the ice reflections.

B. Of aurora borealis (polar light) causing false returns.
C. Of underestimating distances because the cold seawater is causing super refraction.
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 32.

The pictures in the diagram are showing an aircraft’s position with respect to some thunderstorm cells and the
image the pilot is getting from the radar. To detect this “blind alley” the pilot should?

A. Select the cosecant square beam fro better alley detection.

B. Switch over from normal to X mode.
C. Initiate a steep climb.
D. Increase the range setting of the radar.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 33.

Is it possible for weather radar to be operated on the ground?

A. No, never,
B. Yes, always.
C. Yes, if operating within regulations and guidelines.
D. Only whilst taxiing.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 34.

In which frequency band do most Airborne Weather radars operate?

A. VHF.
B. UGH.
C. SHF.
D. EHF.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 35.

The theoretical maximum range for an airborne weather radar is determined by the ?

A. Pulse length.
B. Beam width.
C. Pulse repetition frequency.
D. Carrier wave frequency.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 36.

On the airborne weather radar display in WX mode, different colours use used?

A. To display ground height differences.

B. To display echoes from other aircraft.
C. To display different intensity of precipitation.
D. To display clouds, indicating different levels of visibility.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 37.

Grounds checks of AWR are?

A. Allowed under specific health and safety regulations.

B. Allowed only when the aircraft has undergone major servicing.
C. Unrestricted.
D. Prohibited at all times.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 38.

The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect?

A. Snow.
 B. Wet hail.
C. Dry hail.
D. Moderate rain.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 39.

Which of the following list of phenomena are least likely to be detect by airborne weather radar?
A. Clear air turbulence.
B. Precipitation.
C. Turbulence in cloud that has precipitation.
D. Wet snow and turbulence in cloud that has precipitation.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 40.

While using the AWR in the weather mode, the strongest returns on the screen indicate?

A. Areas of severe icing.

B. Areas of probable windshear.
C. Areas of high concentration of large water droplets.
D. Areas of severe turbulence.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 41.

On a colour airborne weather radar, a bright red echo indicates?

A. Strong rising air currents.

B. An area of extreme turbulence.
C. An area of strong windshear.
D. Heavy concentrations, of liquid/solid water.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 42.

The ISO-ECHO feature of an airborne weather radar can be used to detect?

A. CAT.
B. Wake turbulence.
C. Turbulence in cloud.
D. Areas of possible turbulence in cloud.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 43.

On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown?

A. By steep colour gradients.

B. In flashing red.
C. By a black hole.
D. Alternating red and white stripes.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 44.

Airborne weather radar uses a particularly radar signal, at 9 to 12 GHz, in order to ?

A. Get good returns from droplets of water and other sorts of precipitation.
B. Get the most accurate range and bearing information.
C. Make it possible to present a colour display of the weather situation.
D. A1 of the answers in this question are correct.
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 45.

An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5 degrees beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If the
weavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is?

A. 20 cm.
B. 56 cm.
C. 87.5 cm.
D. 87.5 in.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 46.

An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 4 degrees beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If the
wavelength is 3 cm, the diameter of the dish is?

A. 20 in.
B. 20 cm.
C. 52.5 in.
D. 52.5 cm.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 47.

An airborne weather radar, with a beam with of 4 degrees in azimuth, is being used in the mapping mode. At what
maximum range will it be able to detect a 1 nm wide opening in a sea cliff?

A. 4 nm.
B. 15 nm.
C. 45 nm.
D. 60 nm.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 48.

The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4 degrees up. If the beam
width is 5 degrees and the range to the cloud is 40 nm use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the approximate height of
the cloud relative to the aircraft?

A. 4000 ft above.
B. 4000 ft below.
C. 6000 ft above.
D. 6000 ft below.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 49.

An aircraft flying at 25 000 feet is equipped with AWR. The beam width is 5 degrees. With the radar tilted 3.5
degrees up, the radar is showing top of a cloud return at 105 nm.
The approximate height of the cloud is.

A. 14 300 ft.
B. 25 600 ft.
C. 30 300 ft.
D. 35 600 ft.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 50.

In an AWR with a 5 degree beam width how do you orient the scanner to receive returns from clouds that are at
or below your level?

A. 2.5 degrees down tilt.

B. 2.5 degrees up tilt.
C. 5 degrees down tilt.
 D. 0 degrees tilt.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 51.

The airborne weather radar is using a 5 degrees beam. The cloud is detected at a range of 60 nm. If the scanner is
tilted up to 5 degrees, the cloud disappears. Using trigonometry to determine the height of the tops of the cloud,
in relation to the aeroplanes cruising level, select the nearest answer from the following?

A. 15900 ft above the aircraft.

B. 15900 below the aircraft.
C. 31900 ft above the aircraft.
D. 31900 ft below the aircraft.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 52.

An airborne weather radar is using a 3 degree beam. A cloud is detected at a range of 40 nm. If the scanner is
tilted up to 3 degrees the cloud disappears. The top of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplane’s cruising level is
approximately?

A. At the same level.

B. 6000 ft above the level.
C. 12000 ft above the level.
D. 18000 ft above the level.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 53.

What frequency is typical chosen for AWR systems?

A. 9375 kHz.
B. 93.75 MHz (93 decima 5 kHz).
C. 9.375 GHz (9 decimal 375 GHz).
D. 93.75 GHz (93 decimal 75 GHz).

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 54.

The AWR can be used on the ground provided:

1. The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles.

2. The conical beam is selected.
3. Maximum up tilt is selected.
4. The AWR must never be operated on the ground.

A. 4.
B. 1, 2.
C. 2, 3.
D. 1, 2, 3.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 55.

The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because?

A. It allows cloud detection to be effected while mapping.

B. A greater range can be achieved.
C. A larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam.
D. A wider beam is produce din azimuth to give a greater coverage.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 56.

On a weather radar, the greatest turbulence is likely in an area where targets are?

A. Coloured red.
 B. Coloured magenta.
C. Show a clearly defined hole.
D. Show a rapid gradient of change from magenta to yellow.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 57.

Weather radar is used by the pilot to assist in the ?

A. Detection of other aircraft through clouds.

B. Detection and avoidance of potentially turbulence cloud cells.
C. Detection and avoidance of turbulence.
D. Detection and determination of a route through active cloud cell formations.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 58.

The stabilization of the weather radar aerial is effective?

A. For up to +/- 5 degrees in pitch and roll.

B. For up to +/- 20 degrees of combined pitch and roll.
C. For up to +/- 30 degrees of combined pitch and roll.
D. For up to +/ 40 degrees of combined pitch and roll.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 59.

On a AWR the sequence of colours indicating increasing water droplet size is?

A. Blue, green, red.

B. Green, Yellow, red.
C. Black, amber, red.
D. Blue, amber, red.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 60.

The colours used on a conventional AWR to indicate increasing intensity of returns are?

A. Blue, Green, Red.

B. Green, Amber, Red
C. Green, Yellow, Orange.
D. Blue, Amber, Red.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 61.

A height ring is used?

A. As a range marker.
B. As a zero point for range measurement.
C. To determine that the weather radar is functioning.
D. To determine the exact Aeroplane height above the surface.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 62.

A side lobe from an aerial of a weather radar may produce an echo on the screen known as a “height ring”. The
pilot can use this?

A. As a range marker.
B. To determine the aeroplane’s height above the surface.
C. The size of the water droplets and the wavelength/ frequency.
D. The size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector.
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 64.

The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR?

A. To display area of turbulence.

B. To allow ground mapping.
C. To alert pilots to the presence of cloud.
D. To allow simultaneous mapping and detection of clouds.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 65.

When the airborne weather radar is operating in its primary mode, to detect precipitation ?

A. The radar beam is a cosecant beam.

B. The radar beam is pencil shaped.
C. Maximum tilt on the aerial will often be used.
D. The range will be limited, compared to the range obtainable in the ground mapping mode.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 66.

Airborne weather radars use a frequency of approximately 9 GHz because?

A. The frequency penetrates clouds quite easily enabling good mapping of ground feature in the mapping
mode.
B. The short wavelength allows signals to be reflected from cloud water droplets of all sizes.
C. The wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water droplets.
D. It has a short wavelength, so producing higher frequency returns.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 67.

When using the AWR to detect long range ground features the most suitable mode of operation or beam selected
would be?

A. The manual mode.

B. The mapping mode.
C. The contour mode.
D. The fan shaped beam.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 68.

Using the airborne weather radar, before take-off?

A. The gain control should be adjusted according to the light conditions expected after take-off.
B. The contrast control should be adjusted to maximum contrast.
C. The radar transmitter should not be operated when personnel are observed in the sector ahead of the
aircraft.
D. The antenna tilt control should be set to maximum negative tilt.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 69.

If the AWR transmitter is to be switched on before take-off the scanner should be tilted up with?

A. The weather mode selected.

B. The mapping mode selected.
C. Either of the modes selected.
D. None of the above
AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 70.

AWR in the …. Mode progressively …… As distances ….. To equalize screen brightness?

A. Weather, decreases gain, increases.

B. Weather, increases power, decreases.
C. Mapping, increase gain, decreases.
D. Mapping, decreases power, decreases.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 71.

The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelength?

A. Myriametric.
B. Metric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 72.

Before commencing a flight the weather radar should?

A. Be kept at stand-by until line-up with the runway.

B. Not be switched on until clear of buildings.
C. Be switched to stand-by, but not used until airborne.
D. Be switched to stand-by, but not used until airborne.
E. Be switched to a range function after push-back to make sure it is functioning.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 73.

The use of AWR on the ground is?

A. Not permitted.
B. Permitted provided reduced power is used.
C. Permitted provided special precautions, to safeguard personnel and equipment.
D. Only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 74.

In an AWR with a colour CRT areas of greater turbulence are indicated by?

A. Iso-echo areas coloured black.

B. Large areas of flashing red.
C. Iso-echo areas with no clour.
D. Most rapid change of colour.

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR 75.

AWR contour mode is used for?

A. Identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud.

B. Identifying rain bearing clouds.
C. Short range mapping.
D. Long range mapping.
 BASIC PRINCIPLES 1.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 1.

Wavelength is the distance from?

A. Wave crest to wave crest.

B. Through to next wave crest.
C. The E and H fields superimposed onto the system reactance background scatter.
D. Wave crest to next trough.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 2.

The emission characteristics A3E describe?

A. ILS.
B. VOR.
C. HF communications.
D. VHF communications.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 3.

Electromagnetic waves travel at?

A. The speed of sound.

B. 300 000 metres per second.
C. The speed of light.
D. 162 000 miles per hour.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 4.

In regard to radio what does the term frequency mean?

A. The number of wave form in one hour.

B. The number of complete wave form passing a point in one second.
C. The speed of radio waves in metres per second.
D. The length of a complete waveform in metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 5.

The Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) uses the following wavelength?

A. Metric.
B. Decimetric.
C. Centimetric.
D. Hectometric or Kilometric.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 6.

According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator transmit?

A. HF.
B. LF/MF.
C. HF/VHF.
D. MF/HF.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 7.

The VHF Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths?

A. Hectometric.
B. Decimetric.
C. Metric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 8.

The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths?

A. Hectometric.
B. Decametric.
C. Metric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 9.

The frequency band for the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) is?

A. Hectometric.
B. Decametric.
C. Metric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 10.

The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths?

A. Myriametric.
B. Metric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 11.

Into what range does ILS localizer wavelength fall?

A. Kilometric.
B. Metric.
C. Nanometric.
D. Millimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 12.

A transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 metres is in which frequency band?

A. MF.
B. LF.
C. HF.
D. VHF.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 13.

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths?

A. Decimetric.
B. Metric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 14.

The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths?

A. Decimetric.
B. Metric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 16.

What is the wavelength of a VOR?

A. Decimetric.
B. Metric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 17.

Frequency is define as the?

A. Number of complete cycles recurring in one unit of time.

B. Distance between a crest and a crest.
C. Number of complete cycles recurring in ten units of time.
D. Distance from axis to peak value.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 18.

A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2.22 cm. the facility could be a ……….. operating on a frequency of
……… ?

A. VDF, 135 MHz.

B. DME, 1350 MHz.
C. Doppler 13500 MHz.
D. Radio Altimeter 13500 kHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 19.

The Marker beacons use the following wavelengths?

A. Myriametric.
B. Metric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 20.

The Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths?

A. Myriametric.
B. Decametric.
C. Hectometric.
D. Centimetric.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 21.

The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter (RADAL T) uses the following wavelengths?

A. Decimetric.
B. Metric.
C. Myriametric.
D. Centimetric.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 22.

A radio transmitter modulator?

A. Tunes the aerial only.

B. Ensures receiver compatibility.
C. Couples the RF signal to an aerial.
D. Superimposes an audio frequency signal (AF) onto a radio frequency signal (RF).

BASIC PRINCIPLES 23.

SELCAL is an equipment that?

A. Functions as a frequency modulator.

B. Is coupled with TCAS II and is concerned with TA warnings systems.
C. Automatically receives incoming signals.
D. Automatically transmits data signals.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 24.

What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz?

A. 8 metres.
B. 80 metres.
C. 800 metres.
D. 8000 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 25.

What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 75 MHz?

A. 4 metres.
B. 40 metres.
C. 7.5 metres.
D. 75 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 26.

A wavelength of 8.5 metres corresponds to a frequency of?

A. 2 833.3 MHz.
B. 3 594.4 MHz.
C. 28 333 MHz.
D. 35 294 MHz.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 27.

The VHF frequency band is in the ?

A. 3 to 30 kHz range.
B. 30 to 300 kHz range
C. 3 to 30 MHz range.
D. 30 to 300 MHz range.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 28.

The VHF frequency band is in the ?

A. 3 to 30 kHz range.
B. 30 to 300 kHz range.
C. 3 to 30 MHz range.
D. 30 to 300 MHz range.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 29.

Assuming a wavelength of 1 centimetre, the frequency will be ?

A. 30 MHz.
B. 0.3 GHz.
C. 3.0 GHz.
D. 30 GHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 30.

Decimetric waves correspond to a frequency of?

A. 300 to 3 000 kHz.

B. 3 000 to 30 000 kHz.
C. 300 to 3 000 MHz.
D. 3 000 to 30 000 MHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 31.

The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at a frequency of 118.7 MHz?

A. 2.53 metres.
B. 25.3 metres.
C. 2.53 centimetres.
D. 25.3 centimetres.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 32.

The wavelength of a radio signal with a frequency of 121.95 MHz?

A. 26.60 metres.
B. 24.60 centimetres.
C. 2.46 centimetres.
D. 2.46 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 33.

In the diagram below what is the phase difference of the higher amplitude signal from the reference signal?

A. 135 degrees.
B. 225 degrees.
C. 315 degrees.
D. 045 degrees.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 34.

What is the frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 12 centimetres is?

A. 2500 kHz.
B. 2500 MHz.
C. 360 MHz.
D. 3600 MHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 35.

Assuming a frequency of 20 MHz, the wavelength will be?

A. 1.5 metres.
B. 1.50 metres.
C. 0.15 metres.
D. 15 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 36.

What is the wavelength of a radio signal with a frequency of 375 kHz?

A. 1.25 metres.
B. 12.5 metres.
C. 800 metres.
D. 80 metres.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 37.

A frequency of 2400 kHz is equivalent to a wavelength of?

A. 8 metres.
B. 0.8 metres.
C. 125 metres.
D. 105 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 38.

The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is?

A. 1 metres.
B. 10 metres.
C. 100 metres.
D. 1000 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 39.

The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is its frequency?

A. 1.5 kHz.
B. 1.5 MHz.
C. 1.5 GHz.
D. 15 MHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 40.

A radio signal has a frequency of 3 GHz, What is its wavelength?

A. 1 metres.
B. 10 centimetres.
C. 100 centimetres.
D. 1.0 centimetres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 41.

The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of?

A. 100 m to 10 m.
B. 1 m to 100 cm.
C. 10 m to 1 m.
D. 100 cm to 10 cm.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 42.

In the diagram, the phase difference between the two signals is ?

A. 90 degrees.
B. 180 degrees.
C. 270 degrees.
D. 360 degrees.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 43.

A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an effective length of?

A. 8.33 metres.
B. 16.67 metres.
C. 83.33 metres.
D. 166.67 metres.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 44.

The gain of an aerial is its ability to?

A. Focus power.
B. Compensate for attenuation.
C. Transmit intelligence.
D. Overcome transmitter line resistance.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 45.

A horizontally polarized electromagnetic wave?

A. Has the E field horizontal.

B. Has the E field vertical.
C. Has the Z field horizontal.
D. Has the H field horizontal.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 46.

Which of the following statements is correct in respect to a RF signal?

A. The plane of polarization is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter.

B. The electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
C. The magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
D. Both the electrical component and the magnetic component of the signal are parallel to the aerial.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 47.

A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a ……. Aerial ?
A. Vertical.
B. Horizontal.
C. Parabolic.
D. Magnetic.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 48.

An electromagnetic wave has two types of energy field?

A. An H electrical field and an E magnetic field.

B. A Z electrical field and an H magnetic field.
C. A Z magnetic field and an E electrical field.
D. An E electrical field and an AH magnetic field.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 49.

Feeder lines are of the following types ?

A. Co-axial – up to 3000 MHz, wave guides – above 3000 MHz.

B. Co-axial – above 3000 MHz, wave guides – up to 3000 MHz.
C. Co-axial – up to 300 kHz, wave guides – above 300 kHz.
D. Wave guides – up to 20 MHz, co-axial – above 20 MHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 50.

Comparing a parabolic reflector with a flat plate antenna of the same size?

A. The flat plane has a considerably smaller beam width.

B. The parabolic reflector has a considerably smaller beam width.
C. The flat plate antenna generates less side lobes than the parabolic reflector.
D. The parabolic reflector generates less side lobes that the flat plate antenna.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 51.

What causes the so called “night effect”?

A. The difference in velocity of the EM waves over land and over sea at night.
B. A change in the direction of the plane of polarization due to reflections in the ionosphere.
C. Interference between ground waves and space waves.
D. The absence of the surface wave at distances larger than the skip distance.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 52.

A Doppler shift will occur?

A. If a receiver is moving during reception of transmission from a fixed position transmitter.

 B. If a transmitter is moving during transmission to a fixed position transmitter
C. When the distance between a transmitter and a receiver is changing during a transmission.
D. All of the options are correct.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 53.

An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when?

A. Both transmitter and receiver move towards each other.

B. The transmitter moves away from the receiver.
C. The transmitter moves towards the receiver.
D. The receiver moves towards the transmitter.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 54.

An apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter velocity, will occur when?

A. Both transmitter and receiver move away from each other.

B. The transmitter moves away from the receiver.
C. The transmitter moves towards the receiver.
D. The transmitter and the receiver move towards each other.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 55.

When a transmitter is moving towards a receiver, the correct description of Doppler effect is?

A. There is an increase in apparent wavelength, which is independent of transmitter velocity.

B. There is a decrease in apparent wavelength, which is independent of transmitter velocity.
C. There is an increase in apparent wavelength, which is dependent of transmitter velocity.
D. There is a decrease in apparent wavelength, which is dependent of transmitter velocity.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 56.

Refraction of an electromagnetic radiation is?

A. Loss of power through reflection from objects.

B. The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over area of different electrical conductivity.
C. the loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity.
D. bending resultant from reflection from objects.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 57.

Which statement is true?

A. The lower the frequency the greater the ionospheric attenuation.

B. The attenuation of an HF ground wave is worse over the land than over ice.
C. The ionosphere will attenuate and refract signals up to 30 GHz.
D. None of the above options are true.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 58.

Attenuation of radio waves means?

A. The weakening of radiated waves.

B. The atmospheric bending of waves.
C. Only the scattering of waves in the troposphere.
D. Only the absorption of energy by the sea.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 59.

The term Doppler shift refers to?

A. The change in speed measured at the receiver.

B. The change in angle measured at the receiver.
C. The change in depression angle measured at the receiver.
D. The change in frequency measured at the receiver.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 60.

When an LF radio wave passes over the Earth’s surface it?

A. Speeds up, picks up electrons and becomes stronger.

B. Slows down, picks up electrons and becomes stronger.
C. Slows down and is attenuated.
D. Speeds up and is attenuated.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 61.

To establish and maintain effective HF communication, frequency at a given range?

A. Should be decreased at night.

B. Should be increased at night.
C. Should remain constant.
D. Should only be varied by season, decreased in summer and increased in winter.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 62.

Skip distance is the ?

A. Thickness of the ionosphere.

B. Highest critical frequency distance.
C. Range from the transmitter to the first returning sky wave.
D. Wavelength distance of a certain frequency.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 63.

Diffraction of an FR signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to ?

A. Passing through ionized regions of the upper atmosphere.

B. Reflection from the surface.
C. Passing over or through mediums of different conductivity.
D. Passing over obstacle with dimensions close to the wavelength.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 63.

Using a medium frequency band when is fading likely to occur?

A. Night with sky and ground waves.

B. Night time when snowing.
C. Day time when snowing.
D. Day with sky and ground waves.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 65.

Complete the following statement. ……….. radio signals have a ……….. range by …….. wave over …….. than over
…… ?

A. MF, shorter, sky, sea, land.

B. MF, greater, ground, sea, land.
C. VHF, shorter, sky, sea, land.
D. MF, greater, ground, land, sea.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 66.

The frequency at which sky waves should least affect reception?

A. VLF.
B. LF.
C. MF.
D. HF.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 67.

The skip distance of HF transmissions will increase with?

A. Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting layer.

B. Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer.
C. Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer.
D. Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting layer.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 68.

Attenuation is a generic term for?

A. Loss of power but is only relevant to space waves.

B. Increase in power.
C. Refraction.
D. Loss of power.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 69.

Reflection from the ionospheric layers is used in the following radio frequencies?

A. VLF.
B. HF.
C. VHF.
D. UHF.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 70.

MF fading is most common?

A. During the day due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves.
B. During the day and during heavy rain.
C. At night and during heavy rain.
D. At night due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 71.

As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will?

A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Decrease by night only.
D. Increase over the sea.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 72.

Skip distance is longest by ….. and with a ….. frequency?

A. Day, low.
B. Day, high.
C. Night, low.
D. Night, high.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 73.

Attenuation of a radio wave is the?

A. Reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading.

B. Increase of is power by the combination of mutli-path signals.
C. Change of its frequency by use of sidebands.
D. Change of amplitude by use of sidebands.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 74.

A radio signal loses strength as the range from the transmitter increases. This effect is called?

A. Ducting.
B. Amplification.
C. Attenuation.
D. Refraction.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 75.

In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found?

A. By day and when raining.

B. At night and when raining.
C. By day due to the combination of sky waves and ground waves.
D. At night, due to the combination of sky waves and ground waves.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 76.

Fading happens?

A. In daytime when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other.
B. At night when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other.
C. At night when the signal is received by ground waves only.
D. At daytime when the signal is received by sky waves only.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 77.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. A transmission’s bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial.

B. Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise.
C. A narrow bandwidth improves beam width.
D. A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width.
BASIC PRINCIPLES 78.

Diffraction is the process by which ?

A. A direct wave is bent around the form of the Earth.

B. A space wave penetrates the ionosphere.
C. Radio waves travel over and around objects.
D. A ground wave is attenuated over rough ground.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 79.

What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be guaranteed?

A. 3 MHz.
B. 30 MHz.
C. 300 MHz.
D. 3 GHz.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 80.

An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that refracts from the E layer in the ionosphere.

The maximum distance of the first returning sky wave is ?

A. 599 km.
B. 1500 km.
C. 599 nm.
D. 1500 nm.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 81.

The approximate maximum range of ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ….. and …. Respectively, with ….
Suffering more from atmospheric attenuation?

A. 1500 nm, 1000 nm, MF.

B. 1000 nm, 500 nm, LF.
C. 1000 nm, 300 nm, MF.
D. 500 nm, 100 nm, LF.

BASIC PRINCIPLES 82.

An aircraft travelling at 300 metres per second transmits a radio signal at 10 GHz to a stationary receiver. If the aircraft
is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at the same height, the received signal frequency
will be ?

A. 11 MHz.
B. 10.000011 GHz.
C. 9.999989 GHz.
D. 11 GHz.
 DME
DME 1.

A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL.

An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of ?

A. 14 NM.
B. 15 NM.
C. 16 NM.
D. 17 NM.

DME 2.

Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed ?

A. An ADF sited on the flight route.

B. A DME station sited on the flight route.
C. A VOR station sited on the flight route.
D. A DME station sited across the flight route.

DME 3.

In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely
represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?

A. When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more.

B. When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it.
C. When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transmit.
D. When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM.

DME 4.

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 microsecond. The slant range from
the ground transponder was?

A. 165 NM.
B. 186 NM.
C. 296 NM.
D. 330 NM.

DME 5.

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 3000 microsecond. The slant from the
ground transponder was?

A. 186 NM.
B. 243 NM.
C. 296 NM.
D. 330 NM.
DME 6.

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 4000 microsecond. The slant range from
the ground transponder was?

A. 186 NM.
B. 296 NM.
C. 324 NM.
D. 330 NM.

DME 7.

A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 310, 20 NM away from the DME
station, will have a DME reaching of ?

A. 20.61 NM.
B. 21.35NM.
C. 15 NM.
D. 17 NM.

DME 8.

A DME station is located 7000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL430, 20 NM away from the DME
station, will have a DME reading of ?

A. 15 NM.
B. 17 NM.
C. 20.88 NM.
D. 21.35 NM.

DME 9.

A DME station is located 2000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 200, 10 NM away from the DME
station, will have a DME reading of ?

A. 10.44 NM.
B. 11.35 NM.
C. 13.44 NM.
D. 12 NM.

DME 10.

An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because :

A. DME transmits twin pulses.

B. They are not on the receiver frequency.
C. The pulse recurrence rates are varied.
D. DME uses the UHF band.

DME 11.

The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies :

A. 108 to 118 MHz.

B. 329 to 335 MHz.
 C. 962 to 1213 kHz.
D. 962 to 1213 MHz.

DME 12.

A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a
DME range of approximately?

A. 7 NM.
B. 11 NM.
C. 6 NM.
D. 8 NM.

DME 13.

During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located
approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the ?

A. Aeroplane is below the ‘line of sight’ altitude.

B. Aeroplane is circling around the station
C. Altitude is too high
D. Range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM

DME 14.

A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is :

A. 10 MHz.
B. 1000 MHz.
C. 100 MHz.
D. 100 GHz.

DME 15.

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the :

A. VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison.

B. UHF band and is a primary radar system.
C. SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques.
D. UHF band and is a secondary radar system.

DME 16.

For a conventional DME facility ‘Beacon Saturation’ will occur whenever the number of simultaneous
interrogations exceeds:

A. 100.
B. 200.
C. 60.
D. 80.
DME 17.

On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:

A. Airborne equipment failure.

B. The airborne receiver is conducting a range search.
C. Ground equipment failure.
D. The airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search.

DME 18.

The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft
interrogations because :

A. Pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration.

B. Pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft.
C. Aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other.
D. Transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft.

DME 19.

The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because :

A. Aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies.
B. Reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift.
C. DME transmits twin pulses.
D. DME pulse recurrence rates are varied.

DME 20.

The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should
not exceed:

A. + or – 1.5 NM.
B. + or – 3 NM.
C. + or – 0.25 NM.
D. + or – 1.25 NM.

DME 21.

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses radar principles to measure distance?

A. Horizontally.
B. Vertically.
C. Slant range.
D. Plan Range.

DME 22.

ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not
exceed :

A. + or – 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater.

B. + or – 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured.
C. + or – 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured.
D. + or – 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured upto a maximum of 5 NM.
DME 23.

What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the
same morse code identifier?

A. 600 m.
B. 2000 m.
C. 60 m.
D. 300 m.

DME 24.

A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in
the first instance to :

A. Memory mode.
B. Search mode.
C. Standby mode.
D. Signal controlled search.

DME 25.

Of what use, if any, is a military TACANA station to civil aviation ?

A. It is of no use to civil aviation.

B. It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing.
C. It can provide DME distance.
D. It can provide a magnetic bearing.

DME 26.

A DME that has difficulty obtaining a “lock-on”?

(NOTE : PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, PPS = pulses per second)

A. Stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF.

B. Stays in search mode but reduces PRFT to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds.
C. Alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds.
D. Stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted.

DME 27.

DME channels utilize frequencies of approximately:

A. 1000 MHz.
B. 300 MHz.
C. 110 MHz.
D. 600 MHz.
DME 28.

A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the
same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the?

A. DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation.
B. DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times VOR and DME callsigns
were the same and broadcast with the same pitch.
C. The VOR IDENT is transmitted three times followed by the DME IDENT transmitted once.
D. DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once.

DME 29.

Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME system?

A. Operates on the principle of phase comparison.

B. Range within “line of sigh” and maximum 200 nm.
C. Operates on VHF.
D. Has unlimited range due to ground wave propagation.

Talking all of the above factors into account it can be seen that “Range within “line of sight” and maximum 200
nm” is the most accurate option. It should however be noted that this range will not be available in all cases.

DME 30.

The indicated range from a DME station is?

A. Slant range.
B. Ground range only if the beacon is co-located with a VOR.
C. 0 when passing overhead the station.
D. Ground range.

DME 31.

Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?

A. The DME measures the phase difference between the reference and the variable signals to calculate the
distance.
B. DME operates in the VHF frequency band.
C. The transponder reply carrier frequency differs by 63 MHz from that of the interrogation signal.
D. When passing overhead the DME station the DME will indicate 0.

DME 32.

The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 nm the maximum systemic error should not
exceed?

A. Not more than +/- 1.25 nm.

B. Note more than +/- 1.5 nm,.
C. Not more than +/- 3 nm.
D. Not more than +/- 0.25 nm.
DME 33.

A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level 360 will obtain a DME
range of approximately?

A. 11 nm.
B. 8 nm.
C. 7 nm.
D. 6 nm.

DME 34.

A DME station is located 1000 ft above MSL. An aircraft which is flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions, is 15 nm
away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of?

A. 14 nm.
B. 15 nm.
C. 16 nm.
D. 17 nm.

DME 35.

In which situated will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely
represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL440?

A. When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 10 nm or less.

B. When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 nm or more.
C. When passing abeam the station within 5 nm of it.
D. When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transmit.

DME 36.

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 microseconds. The slant range
from the ground transponder is ?

A. 158 nm.
B. 330 nm.
C. 296 nm.
D. 186 nm.

DME 37.

An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 ft above the station. At that time the DME reading will be ?

A. FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.

B. Approximately 2 nm.
C. Fluctuating and not significant.
D. 0 nm.

DME 38.

When flying 6000 ft above a ground level, the DME indicates 5 nm. What is the horizontal distance from the
aircraft to overhead the DME?

A. 4.9 nm.
 B. 4.3 nm.
C. 4.6 nm.
D. 5.2 nm.

DME 39.

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the ?

A. UHF band and uses one frequency.

B. VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison.
C. UHF band and uses two frequencies.
D. SHF and uses the frequency modulation techniques.

DME 40.

An aircraft at FL 300, with a groundspeed of 300 kts, is about to pass overhead a DME station at MSL. The
dame receiver is capable of determining ground speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed and
distance indication respectively are?

A. 300 kts and 5 nm.

B. Less than 300 kts and 5 nm.
C. 300 kts and 7 nm.
D. Less than 300 kts and 7 nm.

DME 41.

An aircraft at FL410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The DME indication will be
approximately?

A. 6.8 nm.
B. 6.1 nm.
C. 6.8 km.
D. 6.1 km.

DME 42.

An aircraft is flying directly overhead a DME station at FL380. The indicated range will be approximately?

A. 6.3 nm.
B. 6.3 km.
C. 5.1 nm.
D. 5.1 km.

DME 43.

Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?

A. The indicated distance is the ground distance measured from the aircraft’s projected position on the
ground to the DME ground installation.
B. The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band.
C. Two lines of position obtained from two different DE’s give an unambiguous fix.
D. The DME ground station is always co-located with a VOR station.
DME 44.

The selection of the DME frequency for a ILS/DME installation is as follows ?

A. The pilot has to insert the channel number and also the X or Y.
B. When an ILS/DME is flown then the selection of the DME has always to be done manually.
C. The DME frequency has to be selected by the pilot.
D. The DME frequency is paired with the localizer frequency so only the localizer frequency is set.

DME 45.

The effect of masking the DME antenna of the aircraft from the ground installation is that interruption of
reception of DME signals results in ?

A. The ground installation not sending any pulse-pairs.

B. The airborne installation switching to the memory mode for about 10 to 15 seconds.
C. The airborne installation switching directly to the search mode.
D. The signal controlled search circuit (SCS) blanking the DME display.

DME 46.

Which statement about the interrogation by DME interrogator is correct?

A. The interrogation starts when the interrogator has been warmed up sufficiently, whether pulse-pairs are
received or not.
B. The interrogation does not start before pulse-pairs of the tuned DME station are received.
C. The interrogation can only take place if the Echo Protection Circuit has been locked.
D. The interrogation starts directly after the correct DME frequency has been selected on the frequency-
selecting panel by the pilot.

DME 47.

The ident of a DME in case of collocation with a VOR is as follows ?

A. In 30 seconds the DME ident comes up 3 times at an audio frequency of 1350 Hz.
B. In 40 seconds the DDME ident will sound once.
C. In case of collocation the DME ident is not necessary if the VOR ident is present.
D. The DME ident comes every 10 seconds at an audio frequency of 1020 Hz.

DME 48.

With respect to the principle of distance measurement equipment DME it can be stated that :

A. The interrogation signal is transmitted on the same frequency as the reply signal.
B. The DME station always has a transponder delay of 50 milliseconds.
C. The time between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal is at random.
D. In the search mode more pulse pairs per second are transmitted than in the tracking mode.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

A. 1, 2, 2 and 4.
B. 1 and 2
C. 2, 3 and 4.
D. 3 and 4.
DME 49.

A fix obtained by rho-rho navigation is based on information from two?

A. NDBs.
B. VDFs.
C. DMEs.
D. VORs.

DME 50.

The reason for using different frequencies for the airborne and ground equipment of DME is?

A. To avoid second trace returns when a DME is more than 200 nm away.
B. That more DME frequencies are available from different beacons.
C. That side lobes can be suppressed by the Side Lobe Suppressor (SLS).
D. To prevent that DME interrogation pulse pairs from being received by the aircraft after reflection on
the earth’s surface.

DME 51.

How can a DME interrogator distinguish between its own reply pulse-pairs and the reply pulse-pairs of other
aircraft in the area, using the same DME station?

A. The pulse repetition frequency of the pulse-pairs transmitted by the interrogator varies, for each
interrogator there is a unique rhythm.
B. On the Y-channel the time interval between the pulses of an interrogator pulse-pair is 36 m/sec an of a
transponder pulse-pair 30 m/sec.
C. The DME transponder uses a slightly different, randomly varying, delay for each interrogating aircraft.
D. The time-interval between both pulses of consecutive pulse-pairs transmitted by the interrogator varies,
for each interrogator there is a unique rhythm.

DME 52.

The DME Line Of Position is a circle with radius?

A. The slant range and centre t he aircraft.

B. The slant range and centre the DME station.
C. A ground distance and centre the DME station.
D. The ground distance and centre the aircraft.

DME 53.

What is the function of the Echo Protection Circuit (EPC)?

A. The EPC has to detect if the interrogator-receiver has been locked on, by reflected pulse-pairs.
B. The EPC has to detect if unwanted squitter-pulses are interfering with the well functioning of the
interrogator-receiver.
C. The EPC has to detect if pulse-pairs reflected by the ionosphere are interfering with directly received
pulse-pairs.
D. The EPC has to protect the transponder-receiver against reflected pulse-pairs.
DME 54.

During a flight at FL260, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located
approximately 220 nm away. The reason for this is that?

A. Altitude is too high.

B. Aeroplane is circling around the station.
C. Range to DME stations is always less than 200 nm.
D. Aeroplane is below the line-of-sight altitude.

DME 55.

An aircraft flying at FL180 is 190 nm from a DME (located at 0 feet AMSL). The aircraft equipment fails to
lock on, this is because?

A. The aircraft is too low to receive the signal.

B. The beacon is saturated.
C. DME is limited to 200 nm.
D. The aircraft is too high to receive the signal.

DME 56.
DME is a radar type of facility and its maximum range is limited by ?

A. The receiver sensitivity.

B. The pulse repetition interval.
C. The height of the aeroplane.
D. The transmitter power only.

DME 57.

An aircraft at FL310 cannot receive a signal from a DME 240 nm away. Why?

A. The DME is saturated.

B. The aircraft is too high.
C. DME is never more than 200 nm.
D. He aircraft is not in line-of-sight of the DME.

DME 58.

The time interval between a transmitted DME pulse and the reply pulse is 120 microsecond. The slant range is?

A. 5.7 nm.
B. 5.7 km.
C. 9.7 nm.
D. 9.7 km.

DME 59.

When an aircraft at FL360 it is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range display will be ?

A. 0 nm.
B. 6 nm.
C. 9 nm.
D. 12 nm.
DME 60.

An aircraft flying at FL430 obtains a DME range of 25 nm. The true range from the DME is between?

A. 24.5 and 25.5 nm.

B. 23.25 and 24.75 nm.
C. 25.2 and 26.8 nm.
D. 22.5 and 23.5 nm.

DME 61.

The time from the transmission of a DME interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME ground
station is 1000 microseconds (ignore the delay in the DME ground station). The slant range is ?

a. 81 nm.
b. 162 nm.
c. 300 nm.
d. 300 km.

DME 62.

Given : Aircraft height = 32000 feet, DME indicated range = 16 nm. The actual true range is ?

A. 6.6 nm.
B. 151 nm.
C. 16.6 nm.
D. 22.8 nm.

DME 63.

The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should
not exceed:

A. + or – 3.5 NM.
B. + or -2.25 NM.
C. + or – 1.5 NM.
D. + or – 1.25 NM.

DME 64.

The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation of 167 feet. The
plan range is?

A. 13.3 nm.
B. 15 nm.
C. 16.5 nm.
D. 17.6 nm.

DME 65.

An aircraft flying at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DM. The DME reading in the aircraft will be ?

A. 8 nm.
B. 10 nm.
C. 11.7 nm.
D. 13.6 nm.
DME 66.

An enroute DME and VOR hat have the same morse code identification are associated and are?

A. Within 600 feet of each other.

B. Within 100 feet of each other.
C. Always co-located.
D. Within 2000 feet of each other.

DME 67.

Which of the following provides distance information?

A. VOR.
B. ADF.
C. VDF.
D. DME.

DME 68.

The airborne DME equipment will transmit pulse pairs at a comparatively high PRF?

A. When first switched on and after channel change.

B. At all times, except when the panel control “LO” is operated.
C. When the distance presented is above 50 nm.
D. Whenever a stable is being received from the selected ground station.

DME 69.

When VOR and DME stations are associated?

A. Their aerials will be mounted on top of each other.

B. Their IDS will be in all respects identical.
C. They may be separated by as much as 600 metres if they are meant for enroute Navigation.
D. Their signals must be tuned in by VOR and DME sets in the aircraft having common frequency
control.

DME 70.

A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase. Which of the following is true?

A. The PRF increase and the range counters count up to the maximum.
B. The PRF increases and the range counters count down from the maximum and the power decreases.
C. The PRF decreases and the range counters count down from the maximum and the power increases.
D. The PRF increases and the power is increased.

DME 71.

The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates?

A. The DME is trying to lock onto a frequency.

B. The DME is unserviceable.
C. The DME is trying to lock onto a range.
D. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station.
DME 72.

Where a DME uses mechanical counters for displaying the range, continuous rotation of the counters means?

A. The DME is in the search mode.

B. The DME is in tracking mode due to a turn.
C. The DME is in memory mode.
D. None of the above.

DME 73.

Consider the following statements on horizontal/slant distance when using DDME?

A. The horizontal distance is always slightly longer than the slant distance.
B. The difference between the two is automatically compensated for in all DME equipment.
C. The difference between the two distance will be negligible for enroute Navigation when the indicated
distance in NM is more than the height of the aircraft in thousands of feet.
D. The operator in the aircraft should always make a mental increase to the indicated range, in order to
compensate or the difference between the horizontal distance and slant distance.

DME 74.

A VOR and DME are frequency paired. The DME identification ends with Z. This denotes that?

A. That two beacons are greater than 2000 metres apart.

B. The two beacons are co-located.
C. The two beacons are supporting the same site, but are not co-located.
D. The beacons are at the same location but more than 1000 metres apart.

DME 75.

The most accurate measurement if ground speed by DME for an aircraft at 30000 feet will be when he aircraft
is?

A. Overhead the beacon.

B. Passing abeam the beacon at 50 nm.
C. Tracking towards the beacon at 10 nm.
D. Tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm.

DME 76.

In which of the following bands does DME operate?

A. VHF.
B. UHF.
C. SHF.
D. EHF.

DME 77.

DME is a ….. Radar which, provides ….. Distances between the aircraft and a ground ….?

A. Primary, slant, transponder.

B. Secondary, earth, transponder.
C. Secondary, slant, transponder.
D. Primary, accurate, transmitter.
DME 78.

DME pulses are transmitted a pulse pairs. This is done?

A. To increase the range.

B. To prevent lock onto the ground.
C. So that pulses are square and easily identified.
D. So that any radar emissions do not interfere with the DME equipment.

DME 79.

By using a random PRG the airborne DME can?

A. Recognize a beacon’s reply among a mass of ground returns.

B. Prevent interference from random transmissions.
C. Distinguish between its own replies and those relies triggered by other aircraft.
D. Reduce the effect of weather interference.

DME 80.

The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft
interrogators because ?

A. Pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration.

B. Transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft.
C. Aircraft interrogation signals and transponder response signals are 63 MHz removed from each other.
D. The time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that aircraft.

DME 81.

What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?

A. It says in the search mode at 150 PPPS.

B. It stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse-pairs per second (PPPS) after 100 seconds.
C. It stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse-pairs per second (PPS) after 15000 pulse pairs.
D. It alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds.

DME 82.

Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate when flying?

A. From the station at long range.

B. Towards the station at short range.
C. Directly over the station.
D. Past the station at short range.

DME 83.

Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

A. A DME on the flight plan route.

B. A DME off the flight plan route.
C. A VOR on the flight plan route.
D. A VOR off the flight plan route.
DME 84.

What is the approved frequency band assigned to DME?

A. 108 to 118 MHz.

B. 329 to 335 MHz.
C. 962 to 1213 kHz.
D. 962 to 1213 MHz.

DME 85.

When in tracking mode, the DME airborne interrogator operates at? Note : PRR = Pulse Recurrence Rate.
A. A PRR of 2700 PPS (Pulse Per Second).
B. A PRR of 150 PPS.
C. A PRR variable between 5 and 25 PPS.
D. A PRR fixed at a rate selected from the range 5 to 25 PPS.

DME 86.

The DME ground transponder has a PRF of?

A. 2700 pulses per second.

B. 27 pulses per second.
C. 150 pulses per second.
D. 1500 pulses per second.

DME 87.

DME is a secondary radar operating in the (i) …. Band using frequencies between (ii) …..?

A. (i) UHF, (ii) 960 to 1215 GHz.

B. (i) SHF, (ii) 960 to 1215 GHz.
C. (i) UHF, (ii) 920 to 1215 MHz.
D. (i) SHF, (ii) 960 to 1215 MHz.

DME 88.

DME uses (i) …. Radar principles in the (ii) … band?

A. (i) primary, (ii) UHF.

B. (i) primary, (ii) SHF.
C. (i) secondary, (ii) UHF.
D. (i) secondary, (ii) SHF.

DME 89.

Aircraft position 34 degrees 15 minutes N 098 degrees E, magnetic variation 28 degrees W, FL280.

PTV VOR/DME position 36 degrees 12’ N 098 degrees, E, magnetic variation 13 degrees E.

In order to read the most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from his present position, the pilot
must fly on which PTC radial?

A. 167 degrees.
B. 332 degrees.
 C. Aircraft will not receive DME information from PTC due to the line of sight.
D. 193 degrees.

DME 90.

Aircraft position 52 degrees 09 minutes S 024 degrees E, magnetic variation 14 degrees W, FL310.

BIT VOR/DME position 54 degrees 42’ S 024 degrees E, magnetic variation 14 degrees E.

In order to read the most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from his present position, the pilot
must fly on which BIT radial?

A. 346 degrees.
B. 194 degrees.
C. 166 degrees.
D. 166 degrees.

DME 91.

Aircraft position 36 degrees 15 minutes S 178 degrees E, magnetic variation 21 degrees, W, FL310.

UEB VOR/DME position 36 degrees 15’ S 178 degrees W, magnetic variation 21 degrees E.

In order to read the most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from his present position, the pilot
must fly on which UEB radial?

A. 069 degrees.
B. 111 degrees.
C. 249 degrees.
D. 291 degrees.

DME 92.

The maximum number of aeroplanes that can be responded to by the DME ground facility is?

a. 10.
b. 100.
c. 150.
d. Unlimited.

DME 93.

What are the DME frequencies?

A. 960 to 1090 MHz.

B. 1030 to 1090 MHz.
C. 690 to 1215 MHz.
D. 960 to 1215 MHz.

DME 94.

In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR station is identified as “STN” and the DME station is identified as
“STZ”. This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of ?

A. 100 m.
B. 300 m.
 C. 600 m.
D. 2000 m.

DME 95.

How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation?

A. 50.
B. 100.
C. 120.
D. 150.

DME 96.

What is the slant range error or an aircraft at 9000 feet absolute altitude above a DME located at elevation 2000
feet, when the slant range is 12 nm?

A. 0.09 nm.
B. 0.31 nm.
C. 0.57 nm.
D. 1.42 nm.

DME 97.

The nominal maximum coverage of a DME station is?

A. 190 nm at 20 000 feet.

B. 215 nm at 25 000 feet.
C. 210 nm at 30 000 feet.
D. 230 nm at 30 000 feet.

DME 98.

Ground DME responders respond at a frequency?

A. 63 MHz higher than the interrogation signal.

B. 63 MHz lower than the interrogation signal.
C. The same as the interrogation signal.
D. 63 MHz different from the interrogation signal, above or below.

DME 99.

If a DME beacon becomes saturated by interrogation it?

A. Replies to the nearest 100 aircraft.

B. Adjusts its PRF to cope with all aircraft.
C. Switches off is identification.
D. Adjusts the gain to reply to the 100 strongest signals.
DME 100.

The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system is to ?

A. Avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft.

B. Prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter.
C. Prevent overload of the system.
D. Permit more channels in the system.
 DOPPLER 1
DOPPLER 1.

An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur
when :

A. The transmitter moves away from the receiver.

B. The transmitter moves towards the receiver
C. The receiver moves towards the transmitter
D. Both transmitter and receiver move towards each other.

DOPPLER 2.

The Doppler Navigation System is based on :

A. Radio waves refraction in the ionosphere.

B. Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System.
C. Phase comparison from ground station transmission.

DOPPLER 3.

Due to ‘Doppler’ effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the
transmitter’s velocity, will occur when :

A. The transmitter moves away from the receiver.

B. The transmitter and receiver move towards each other.
C. The transmitter moves toward the receiver.
D. Both transmitter and receiver move away from each other.
 FMS
FMS 1.

The Flight Management System (FMS) is organized in such a way that?

A. The pilot is able to modify the navigation database in the FMC between two updates.
B. The navigation database of the FMC is created by the pilot.
C. The navigation database of the FMC is valid for one year.
D. The navigation database is read only to the pilot.

FMS 2.

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to
waypoints is stored in the?

A. Performance database.
B. Navigation database.
C. Auto flight database.
D. Air data computer.

FMS 3.

A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non-
precision approach equal to or less than?

A. 0.3 nm.
B. 0.5 nm.
C. 0.06 nm.
D. 1 nm.

FMS 4.

The Flight Management System (FMS) is organized in such a way that the pilot can?

A. Insert navigation data between two database updates.

B. Read and write at any time in the database.
C. Modify the database every 14 days.
D. Modify the database between two updates.

FMS 5.

In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?

A. The Primary Flight Display (PFD).

B. The Symbol Generator.
C. The Navigation Display (ND).
D. The Control Display Unit (CDU).
FMS 6.

Which of the following are stored in the navigation database of the Flight Management System (FMS)?

1. Waypoints.
2. Details of radio navigation aids.
3. Optimum altitudes.
4. Company routes.
5. Landing reference speeds.

A. 1, 2, 3.
B. 2, 4, 5.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4.

FMS 7.

The Control Display Unit (CDU) on an FMS is?

A. Used by the crew to input data to the FMC.

B. The autopilot control panel.
C. Used on the ground only to monitor the maintenance procedure.
D. The system used to update the navigation database.

FMS 8.

On a modern commercial aircraft, the FMS provides?

A. Lateral and vertical navigation, and guidance and performance management.

B. Traffic alert information.
C. A 3D are navigation and an air/ground datalink.
D. An air/ground datalink.

FMS 9.

The FMS navigation database usually contains:

1. Airport reference data.

2. ATC frequencies.
3. Company routes.
4. Nav aid frequencies.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?

A. 1 and 3.
B. 1, 2 and 3.
C. 1, 2 3 and 4.
D. 1, 3 and 4.
FMS 10.

What is Cross Track Distance (XTK distance) in an Area Navigation System?

A. Distance between the actual position and great circle track between active waypoints.
B. Distance between the actual position and next waypoint.
C. Distance between the air position and great circle track between active waypoints.
D. Distance between the air position and the planned track.

FMS 11.

Area Navigation is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the
limits of the capability of self-contained systems. Which of the following systems is such a self-contained
system?

A. VOR/DME system.
B. DME/DME system.
C. Global Positioning System.
D. Inertial reference system.

FMS 12.

Output from which of the following combination of navigation sources provides enough information to the
RNAV equipment to calculate the wind vector?

A. Inertial reference system and the air data computer.

B. Inertial reference system and the Global Positioning System.
C. Compass system and the inertial reference system.
D. Global positioning system and the compass system.

FMS 13.

By which of the following flight deck equipment are the waypoints inserted into an FMS RNAV system by the
pilot?

A. Course Deviation Indicator.

B. Control Display Unit.
C. Symbol Generator.
D. Navigation Display.

FMS 14.

On modern passenger aircraft, the navigation database usually contains?

A. Airport reference data.

B. ATC frequencies.
C. Aircraft performance data.
D. Obstacle altitudes.
FMS 15.

Which of the following data can be found in the navigation database?

1. SIDs and STARs.

2. Radio aids.
3. Optimum flight levels.
4. Company routes.
5. Cruise speeds.

A. Only 2, 3 and 4.
B. Only 2, 3 and 5.
C. Only 3 and 5.
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
 GNSS/GPS 1.
GNSS/GPS 1.

In a Satellite- Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

A. The aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known
position.
B. Timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft’s transmitter/receiver to reach and
return from a satellite in a known position.
C. Timing t he period that is taken for a satellite’s transmission to reach the aircraft’s receiver.
D. The aircraft’s receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum
number of satellites.

GNSS/GPS 2.

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information
that is available to civil aircraft?

A. SHF.
B. UHF.
C. EHF.
D. VHF.

GNSS/GPS 3.

What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?

A. 3.
B. 5.
C. 4.
D. 6.

GNSS/GPS 4.

What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigations System (GNSS/GPS) to
carry out two-dimensional operation?

A. 3.
B. 4.
C. 5.
D. 2.

GNSS/GPS 5.

Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three-
dimensional operation, Receivers Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite
and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is :

A. 7.
B. 6.
C. 4.
D. 5.
GNSS/GPS 6.

Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three-dimensional
operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (Raim) function. The number of satellites is :

A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 6.
D. 3.

GNSS/GPS 7.

Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted
Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?

A. Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation.

B. Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation.
C. Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock.
D. Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag.

GNSS/GPS 8.

In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by :

A. Measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites ‘transmissions, in known positions, to
reach the aircraft’s receiver.
B. The aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in
known positions.
C. Measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known
positions, and return to the aircraft’s receiver.
D. Measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites received in a
specific sequential order.

GNSS/GPS 9.

GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals.

Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?

A. L2-coarse acquisition (C/A).

B. L1 – precise (P)
C. L1- coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A).
D. L2- for communications purpose.

GNSS/GPS 10.

Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude,
longitude and altitude)?

A. ED 87.
B. ED 50.
C. EUREF 92.
D. WGS 84.
GNSS/GPS 11.

Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4
different satellites?

A. Latitude and longitude.

B. Latitude, longitude and time.
C. Latitude, longitude and altitude.
D. Latitude, longitude, altitude and time.

GNSS/GPS 12.

Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in
air navigation?

A. NA VSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit.

B. NA VSTAR/GPS and GLONASS.
C. NNSS – Transit and GLONASS.
D. GLONASSS and COSPAS-SARSAT.

GNSS/GPS 13.

The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

a. 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane.

b. 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane.
c. 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane.
d. 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary
orbital plane.

GNSS/GPS 14.

Which of the following statements about the ‘visibility’ of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?

A. It is the same throughout the globe.

B. It is greatest at the equator.
C. It varies, depending on the time and observer’s location.
D. It is greatest at the poles.

GNSS/GPS 15.

How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS?

A. 18.
B. 24.
C. 12.
D. 30.

GNSS/GPS 16.

GPS systems transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible
codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation uses?

A. Only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code.

B. Only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes.
 C. Only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code.
D. The two carrier waves and one public code.

GNSS/GPS 17.

Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for
specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?

A. NNSS – Transit.
B. COSPASS-SARSAT.
C. NAVSTAR/GPS.
D. GLONASS.

GNSS/GPS 18.

The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the :

A. Main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas,
B. Antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU).
C. Atomic clock, power supply and transponder.
D. Control, space and user segments.

GNSS/GPS 19.

One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to :

A. Manufacture and launch the satellites.

B. Monitor the status of the satellites.
C. Manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix.
D. Grant and monitor user authorisations

GNSS/GPS 20.

The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to calculate
receiver position by :

A. Select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals
from the satellites to reach the receiver.
B. Transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite.
C. To monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time.
D. Monitor the orbital planes of the satellites.

GNSS/GPS 21.

One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to :

A. Transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes Autonomously.
B. Computer the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position
back to the user segment.
C. Monitor the satellite’s orbits and status.
D. Transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity.
GNSS/GPS 22.

The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as
WGS 84, is :

A. A mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth.

B. A sphere.
C. An ellipsoid.
D. Flight level.

GNSS/GPS 24.

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term ‘inclination’ denotes the angle between
the ?

A. Horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite.
B. Orbital plane and the equatorial plane.
C. Orbital plane and the earth’s axis.
D. Horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite.

GNSS/GPS 25.

How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?

A. Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day).

B. Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day).
C. 12 days.
D. 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit.

GNSS/GPS 26.

At what approximate height above the WGS – 84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?

A. 10900 km.
B. 36000 km.
C. 19500 km.
D. 20200 km.

GNSS/GPS 27.

The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are :

A. Inclined 55° to the equatorial plane.

B. Inclined 55° to the earth axis.
C. Inclined 90° to the equatorial plane.
D. Parallel to the equatorial plane.

GNSS/GPS 28.

In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?

A. VHF.
B. EHF.
C. UHF.
D. SHF.
GNSS/GPS 29.

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly
describes the term ‘Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)’ signal?

A. PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites.
B. PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetic background noise that exists in space.
C. PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different
directions (multipath effect).
D. PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the
signal to reach the receiver.

GNSS/GPS 30.

Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by ‘unauthorised’
civil aviation receivers?

A. P.
B. C/A.
C. C/A-and P.
D. P and Y.

GNSS/GPS 31.

Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the :

A. Fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites.

B. Recognition whether Selective Availability (SA) is operative.
C. Assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite.
D. Correction of receiver clock error.

GNSS/GPS 32.

How does a NAVSTART/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognize which of the received signals
belongs to which satellite?

A. The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite.

B. The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information
with the calculated positions of the satellites.
C. Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency.
D. Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise
code.

GNSS/GPS 33.

Which of the following data in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called
‘Navigation Message’ transmitted by NAVSTART/GPS satellites?

A. Time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix.

B. Almanac data; satellite status information.
C. Data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data.
D. Time; positions of the satellites.
GNSS/GPS 34.

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set
of almanac data from all satellites?

A. 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit).

B. 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame).
C. 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame).
D. 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame).

GNSS/GPS 35.

Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and
codes is correct?

A. The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes.
B. C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies.
C. The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code.
D. The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes.

GNSS/GPS 36.

Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2
frequencies?

A. Ionospheric.
B. Multipath.
C. Tropospheric.
D. Receiver noise

GNSS/GPS 37.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the correction of one of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1
and L2)?

A. The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies.
B. The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of both
frequencies.
C. The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the carrier
frequency squared.
D. The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency
squared.

GNSS/GPS 38.

Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term ‘Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring’ (RAIM)?

A. It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring
stations of the ground segment.
B. It is a technique by which a receiver checks the reliability of the signal it is receiving and can detect if
one of the signals is incorrect,
C. It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
transmitted by the satellites.
 D. It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground segment)
automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message.

GNSS/GPS 39.

The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is :

A. Calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies

B. Calculated, using the WGS – 84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the
receiver.
C. Determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of light.
D. Determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light.

GNSS/GPS 40.

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ‘All in View’ is a term used when a receiver:

A. Is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with another
already being monitored.
B. Is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best geometric
coverage.
C. Is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously.
D. Requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes.

GNSS/GPS 41.

The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a
receiver is called a ˈPseudo-Rangeˈ is because the :

A. Measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code.

B. Movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account.
C. Calculated range is based on an idealized Keplerian orbit.
D. Calculated range includes receiver clock error.

GNSS/GPS 42.

What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?

A. Sequential.
B. Multi-channel.
C. Multiplex.
D. Any hand held type.

GNSS/GPS 43.

What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D
position fix?

A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 24.
D. 3.
GNSS/GPS 44.

The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:

A. On the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity.
B. Inside the tail fin to minimize the influence of reflections from the wing and Fuselage.
C. In the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines.
D. Under the fuselage in order to receiver correction data transmitted by D-GPS Stations.

GNSS/GPS 45.

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, ˈSelective Availabilityˈ (SA) gives the option to artificially
degrade the accuracy by :

A. Shutting off selected satellites.

B. Using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing.
C. Dithering the satellite clock.
D. Offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount.

GNSS/GPS 46.

In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?

A. It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are
selected by the receiver.
B. It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals.
C. It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the
receiver is quicker.
D. It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites.

GNSS/GPS 47.

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error :

A. Is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected.

B. Is corrected by using signals from four satellites.
C. Can be minimized by synchronization of the receive clock with the satellite clocks.
D. Is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites.

GNSS/GPS 48.

The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is :

A. Minimized by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals transmitted by the
satellites.
B. Minimized by computing the average of all signals.
C. Only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon.
D. Negligible.

GNSS/GPS 49.

Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation
satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?

A. The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS.

B. The activation of ˈSelective Availabilityˈ can be recognized by the INS.
 C. The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy.
D. The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy.

GNSS/GPS 50.

What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

A. It causes multi-path propagation.

B. It may prevent the reception of signals.
C. The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using and algorithm and
information from unaffected signals.
D. It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected.

GNSS/GPS 51.

Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position
fix?

A. 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other together
with a fourth directly overhead.
B. 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon.
C. 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon.
D. 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon.

GNSS/GPS 52.

In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-
GPS)?

A. The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver
to determine an error correction.
B. Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the
aircraft.
C. Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver
noise error.
D. Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart.
This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognize and correct for multi-path errors.

GNSS/GPS 53.

Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-
GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?

A. The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS
ground station.
B. A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix.
C. Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for ˈNon Precision Approachesˈ.
D. The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix.

GNSS/GPS 54.

How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth
data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
 A. It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites.
B. The data is stored in the receiver together with Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code.
C. The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna.
D. The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message.

GNSS/GPS 55.

In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, ˈSearch the Skyˈ is a:

A. Continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites.

B. Procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data available.
C. Procedure performed by the receiver to recognize new satellites becoming Operational.
D. Continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the
horizon.

GNSS/GPS 56.

What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring) function are not available?

A. The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions.

B. A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are again available.
C. The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems.
D. The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the
GPS-System manually.

GNSS/GPS 57.

Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is
to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?

A. The prescribed IFR- equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information
continuously displayed.
B. The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational.
C. The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systems.
D. Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions.

GNSS/GPS 58.

Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs
from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?

A. It may be continued using conventional navigation systems.

B. It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems must be checked.
C. It must be continued under VFR conditions.
D. The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty
system.

GNSS/GPS 59.

What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
 A. If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric
altitude.
B. Radar altitude.
C. GPS altitude.
D. Barometric altitude.

GNSS/GPS 60.

Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on
airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?

A. Barometric altitude.
B. The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude.
C. GPS altitude.
D. GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude.

GNSS/GPS 61.

How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?

A. 12.
B. 36.
C. 24.
D. 6.

GNSS/GPS 62.

How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?

A. 1.
B. 4.
C. 2.
D. 3.

GNSS/GPS 63.

GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different type of signal. Which of these are generally
available for use by civil aviation?

A. L1 = coarse acquisition.
B. L2 = coarse acquisition (C/A).
C. L2 – precise (P).
D. L1 – precise (P).

GNSS/GPS 64.

In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed.

A. Geo-stationary.
B. Elliptical.
C. Nearly Circular.
D. Pole to Pole.
GNSS/GPS 65.

In accordance with ICAO Annex 10, the NAVSTAR GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should
be ?

A. 30 m horizontally.
B. 13 m horizontally.
C. 5 m vertically.
D. 22m is 3D.

GNSS/GPS 66.

Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by “unauthorized”
civil aviation receivers?

A. C/A.
B. C/A and P.
C. P and Y.
D. P.

GNSS/GPS 67.

In order to carry out an independent three-dimensional fix, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
and failure detection and exclusion of any faulty satellite, signal reception is required from a minimum number
of how may satellites?

A. 7.
B. 6.
C. 4.
D. 5.

GNSS/GPS 68.

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to
artificially degrade the accuracy by?

A. Shutting off selected satellites.

B. Offsetting satellite clocks by a predetermined constant amount.
C. Dithering the satellite clock.
D. Using less accurate atomic clocks in a satellite for signal processing.

GNSS/GPS 69.

In a Satellite – Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by?

A. Timing the period that is taken for the satellite’s transmission to reach the aircraft receiver.
B. The aircraft receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in known
position.
C. Timing the period that is taken fro a transmission from the aircraft’s transmitter/receiver to reach and
return from the satellite in a known position.
D. The aircraft receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number
of satellites.
GNSS/GPS 70.

What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?

A. Wide Area Differential GPS (WADGPS).

B. GLONASS.
C. Local Area Augmented System (LADGPS).
D. Local Area Differential GPS (LADGPS).

GNSS/GPS 71.

The inclination to the equatorial plane of the NAVSTAR GPS orbits is?

A. 65 degrees.
B. 55 degrees.
C. 35 degrees.
D. 45 degrees.

GNSS/GPS 72.

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR GPS, “All in View” is a term used when a receiver?

A. Is tracking all currently visible satellites above the receiver’s mask angle and is using them to compute
position.
B. Is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with best geometric
coverage.
C. Requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes.
D. Is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellite simultaneously.

GNSS/GPS 73.

In accordance with ICAO Annex 10, the GPS NAVSTAR position accuracy in SPS should be for 95% of the
time?

A. 30 metres horizontally.
B. 5 metres vertically.
C. 2 metres in 3-D.
D. 13 metres horizontally.

GNSS/GPS 74.

One of the tasks of the GPS control segment is ?

A. To detect the malfunctioning of satellites.

B. To calculate and transmit differential corrections to users.
C. To calculate the accuracy of GPS.
D. To control continuously the motion of GPS satellites.

GNSS/GPS 75.

One of the tasks of the GPS control segment is ?

A. To regulate the transmitted power of the satellites.

B. To calculate and transmit differential corrections to users which are able to receive Wide Area
Differential GPS systems.
C. To control continuously the position and motion of GPS satellites.
 D. To determine and send new ephemeris and new satellite clock error data to the GPS satellites.

GNSS/GPS 76.

For what reason is a mask angle set-up in a GPS receiver?

A. To deny the receiver the use of GPS satellites with an elevation less than the mask angle.
B. To make the receiver select GPS satellites with a certain optimum elevation which is about equal to the
mask angle.
C. To select from the visible GPS satellites the satellite-configuration which results in the smallest GDOP.
D. To eliminate the reception of the signal from GPS satellites with an elevation of about 90 degrees.

GNSS/GPS 77.

What is the function of the control segment in GPS NAVSTAR?

A. To monitor and ensure that the transmitted signals are saved and processed to utilize WAAS.
B. To ensure that the transmitted data of the satellites is controlled and updated from time to time by
ground stations.
C. It calculates the aircraft position.
D. To transmit a signal used by a suitable receiver to calculate position.

GNSS/GPS 78.

EGNOS (European Geostationary Navigation Overlay System) is a form of ?

A. Wide Area Differential GPS (WADGPS).

B. Local Area Differential GPS (LADGPS).
C. Stand alone Global Navigation Satellite System (BNSS).
D. Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS).

GNSS/GPS 79.

What is the maximum latitude of a GPS satellite ground track?

A. 90 N/S.
B. 67.5 N/S.
C. 35 N/S.
D. 55 N/S.

GNSS/GPS 80.

The GPS control segment consists of?

A. A Master Control Station, Monitor Stations and Ground Antennas.

B. A Master Control Station, Monitor Stations, Ground Antennas, and geostationary satellites.
C. A Master Control Station, Monitor Stations and geostationary satellites.
D. A Master Control Station, and Monitor Stations.

GNSS/GPS 81.

The height of the NAVSTAR/GPS system above the Earth in km is?

A. 10250 km.
B. 10900 km.
 C. 19000 km.
D. 20200 km.

GNSS/GPS 82.
The number of satellites required for a fully operational NACSTAR/GPS system is?

A. 12.
B. 21.
C. 24.
D. 30.

GNSS/GPS 83.

Differential GPS (D-GPS)?

A. Means to use the GPS receiver while in a known position, and register the difference.
B. Is used to differentiate between signals different satellites.
C. Means to find the difference between a DR position and the real position and the GPS position.
D. Is used to improve the accuracy of GPS signals within an area, by using data from a receiver placed at a
known as a correction to data received in the aircraft from the satellites.

GNSS/GPS 84.

Which of the following statements concerning DGPS is true?

A. DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors.

B. Local area DGPS gives the same improvement in accuracy regardless of the distance from the ground
station.
C. DGPS can improve the accuracy of position information.
D. Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to the ground station.

GNSS/GPS 85.

Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (Local Area
Augmentation System) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR GPS is correct?

A. The closer the receiver is to the LAAS ground reference station, the more accurate is the aircraft
position fix.
B. A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information via a geostationary satellite.
C. A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing or orbital position errors.
D. The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft position in relation to the
LAAS ground station.

GNSS/GPS 86.

A Pseudo range in GNSS is a range based on?

A. Time measurement using secondary radar principles.

B. Time measurement using UTC.
C. Time measurement using the satellite clock.
D. Time measurement using the receiver clock.
GNSS/GPS 87.

A pseudo range in GNSS is in error to the actual range because?

A. Ionospheric delays.
B. Receiver clock error.
C. Satellite clock error.
D. All of these errors.

GNSS/GPS 88.

Clock bias is a process of correcting pseudo range for?

A. Receiver clock errors.

B. UTC errors.
C. Satellite clock errors.
D. Receiver and satellite clock errors.

GNSS/GPS 89.

Using GPS, the primary position information is in the form of ?

A. Spheres with the aircraft at the centres of the spheres.

B. Spheres with the satellites at the centres of the spheres.
C. Bearing and distance from the satellites.
D. Three-dimensional position, with the Earth’s centre as the reference point.

GNSS/GPS 90.

What is the time taken to receive a complete navigation message (complete data set) from a satellite?

A. 12 hours (= satellite orbit time).

B. 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame).
C. 12.5 minutes (=30 seconds per data frame).
D. 24 seconds (=1 second per data frame).

GNSS/GPS 91.

The time taken for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for NAVSTAR GPS is?

A. 12 hours.
B. 15 minutes.
C. 30 seconds.
D. 12.5 minutes.

GNSS/GPS 92.

What are the data elements transmitted by NAVSTAR GPS satellites?

1. Offset of the satellite clock from UTC

2. Ephemeris data.
3. Health data
4. Ionospheric delays.
5. Solar activity.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
 B. 2, 3, 4 only.
C. 1, 2, and 3 only.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only.

GNSS/GPS 93.

RAIM is achieved?

A. Within the receiver.

B. By ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed to receivers via
geostationary satellites.
C. By ground stations determining he X, Y and Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers using
pseudolites.
D. All of the above.

GNSS/GPS 94.

In NAVSTAR GPS the PRN codes are used to ?

A. Remove receiver clock error.

B. Determine satellite range.
C. Reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors.
D. Eliminate satellite clock error and ephemeris error.

GNSS/GPS 95.

In order for a GPS receiver to perform basic RAIM functions it must use a minimum of ?

A. Three satellites plus a barometric unit.

B. Four satellites.
C. Five satellites.
D. Five satellites plus a barometric unit.

GNSS/GPS 96.

What is RAIM and what is its function?

A. Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate navigation.

B. GPS integrity monitoring of master and slave stations to ensure correct alignment.
C. Resolution and intensity monitoring for increased accuracy.
D. Integrity monitoring of satellites by the master station to increase accuracy.

GNSS/GPS 97.

In NAVSTAR GPS the PRN codes are used to?

A. Differentiate between satellites.

B. Pass satellite ephemeris information.
C. Pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information.
D. Pass satellite time and ephemeris information.

GNSS/GPS 98.

The GPS system uses L1 and L2 frequency bands. Which band is used for the P code and which for the C/A
code?
 A. L1 is modulated with P code only.
B. L1 is modulated with P and C/A codes.
C. L2 is modulated with the C/A code only.
D. L2 is modulated with the P and C/A codes.

GNSS/GPS 99.

In GPS on which frequencies are the C/A and P codes transmitted?

A. The lower frequency.

B. The higher frequency.
C. Neither frequency.
D. Both frequencies.

GNSS/GPS 100.

Unauthorized civilian users of NAVSTAR GPS can access?

A. The C/A code.

B. The P code.
C. The P and Y codes.
D. The C/A and P codes.

GNSS/GPS 101.

Concerning NAVSTAR GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage.

B. The inclination of the orbits is 55 degrees with an orbital period of 24 hours.
C. The inclination is 55 degrees with an orbital period of 12 hours.
D. The orbits are inclined at 65 degrees with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes.

GNSS/GPS 102.

Which of the following statements is true in respect of GNSS?

A. The P code is for authorized (military) use only. It is transmitted only on L1.
B. The C/A code is for authorized (military) use only. It is transmitted both on L1 and L2.
C. The P code is the only code authorized for civilian use. It is transmitted on L.
D. The C/A code is the only code available for civilian use. It is transmitted only on L1.

GNSS/GPS 103.

Of the types of GPS receivers available for civilian aviation, which are the most advanced type?

A. The multiplex receiver.

B. The single channel receiver.
C. The continuous tracking receiver.
D. The multiple satellite receiver.

GNSS/GPS 104.

The height derived from the NAVSTAR GPS is?

A. Pressure altitude.
B. Above mean sea level.
 C. Above ground level.
D. Above the WGS84 ellipsoid.

GNSS/GPS 105.

The inclination of a satellite (SV) is?

A. 90 degrees minus the angle between the SV orbit and the Equator.
B. 90 degrees minus the angle between the SV orbit and the Polar Plane.
C. The angle between the SV orbit and the Equator.
D. The angle between the SV orbit and the Polar Plane.

GNSS/GPS 106.

Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR GPS position. This is achieved
by?

A. Introducing offsets in the broadcast satellites X, Y and Z co-ordinates.

B. Introducing an offset in the satellite clocks.
C. Random dithering of the broadcast satellite clock time.
D. Random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y and Z co-ordinates.

GNSS/GPS 107.

What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?

A. Laser.
B. Quartz.
C. Mechanical.
D. Atomic.

GNSS/GPS 108.

How is the distance between the NAVSTAR GPS SV (Space Vehicle) and the receiver determined?

A. By measuring the tine from transmission to reception and multiplying this by the speed of light.
B. By reference to the SV and receiver positions to WGS84.
C. By synchronizing the receiver clock with the SV clock.
D. By measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed of light.

GNSS/GPS 109.

The NAVSTAR GPS system transmits in the L1 and 12 frequency bands. Which bands are used for the P codes
and which for the C/A codes?

A. Lower frequency for the C/A code and higher frequency for the P code.
B. Lower frequency for the P code and higher frequency for the C/A code.
C. Higher frequency for the C/A and P codes.
D. Higher frequency for the P code only.

GNSS/GPS 110.

The sky search carried out by GNSS receiver?

A. Is done prior to each fix.

B. Is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data.
C. Involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites
are in view.
D. Is done when the receiver position is in error.
 GROUND RADAR
GROUND RADAR 1.

What is the typical range of a Terminal area Surveillance Radar (TAR)?

A. Up to 25 nm.
B. Up to 80 nm.
C. Up to 250 nm.
D. Up to 2500 nm.

GROUND RADAR 2.

PAR at a military airfield has both an azimuth and an elevation element. It must be able to provide accuracy
within?

A. +/- 20 feet elevation and azimuth.

B. +/- 30 feet elevation and azimuth.
C. +/- 30 feet elevation and +/- 20 feet azimuth.
D. +/- 20 feet elevation and +/- 30 feet azimuth.

GROUND RADAR 3.

What is a typical range for an Enroute Surveillance Radar (RSR)?

A. Up to 25 nm.
B. Up to 80 nm.
C. Up to 250 nm.
D. Up to 2500 nm.

GROUND RADAR 4.

In which frequency band do most Airfield Surface Movement radar systems operate?

A. VHF.
B. UHF.
C. SHF.
D. EHF.

GROUND RADAR 5.

A radar used by ATC has the following characteristics. Long wavelength and aerial rotation rate of 5 RPM. It is
most likely to be ?

A. Airfield surface movement radar.

B. Precision approach radar.
C. Enroute surveillance radar.
D. Terminal surveillance radar.
GROUND RADAR 6.

During a surveillance radar approach, the vertical position of the aeroplane, unless advised otherwise, is given in
terms of?

A. Height above aerodrome QNH level.

B. Height above aerodrome level.
C. Height above QNH datum.
D. Height above QFE threshold.

GROUND RADAR 7.

An aerodrome Ground Movement Radar is likely to operate in the band with a scan rate of ….. revolutions per
minute.

A. UHF 20.
B. SHF 60.
C. EHF 20.
D. EHF 1000.

GROUND RADAR 8.

Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not EHF?

A. EHF is potentially hazardous to personnel in the area. This was completely overcome by switching to
SHF.
B. The power requirements of EHF were unsustainable in Europe.
C. SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF.
D. EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air. Switching to SHF reduced this problem.

GROUND RADAR 9.

Surface movement radars operate mainly in the SHF band as opposed to the EHF band because?

A. EHF is more expensive.

B. EHF is likely to detect more moisture in the atmosphere.
C. The EHF band does not provide sufficient frequency spacing.
D. EHF radiated power is more dangerous to users’ health.

GROUND RADAR 10.

A moving target indicator (MTI)?

A. Rejects all stationary targets.

B. Rejects all moving targets.
C. Is only effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit.
D. Is not effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit.
GROUND RADAR 11.

Short range aerodrome radars will have ….. wavelengths?

A. Millimetric.
B. Centimetric.
C. Decametric.
D. Metric.

GROUND RADAR 12.

Two types of radar approach may be available?

A. Surveillance approach and final approach.

B. Final approach and precision approach.
C. Surveillance approach and precision approach.
D. Terminal approach and surveillance approach.

GROUND RADAR 13.

Precision Approach radars (PAR) are required under the ICAO specifications to indicate an aircraft within the
following parameters?

A. Azimuth 10 degrees, vertical 4 degrees range 7 nm.

B. Azimuth 20 degrees, vertical 7 degrees range 9 nm.
C. Azimuth 30 degrees, vertical 10 degrees range 10 nm.
D. Azimuth 40 degrees, vertical 15 degrees range 15 nm.

GROUND RADAR 14.

An area surveillance radar is mot likely to have a frequency of?

A. 350 MHz.
B. 600 MHz.
C. 100 Hz.
D. 150 Hz.

GROUND RADAR 15.

The maximum range obtainable from an ATC en-route surveillance radar is approximately?

A. 50 to 100 nm.
B. 100 to 200 nm.
C. 200 to 300 nm.
D. 300 to 400 nm.

GROUND RADAR 16.

The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by?

A. Pulse width.
B. Average power.
 C. Pulse recurrence rate.
D. Peak power.

GROUND RADAR 17.

A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses per second will have a maximum unambiguous range of
approximately?

A. 27 nm.
B. 67 nm.
C. 135 nm.
D. 270 nm.

GROUND RADAR 18.

If a radar has a beam width of 3 degrees and a pulse length of 4 microsecond, the target azimuth resolution at a
range of 60 nm will be approximately?

A. 1 nm.
B. 2 nm.
C. 3 nm.
D. 4 nm.

GROUND RADAR 19.

A surveillance radar element (SRE) used to provide approach guidance?

A. Does not have a height determination capacity.

B. Can only be used to a point 3 miles from the threshold.
C. May not be used in heavy rain because of the high levels of signal loss.
D. Can be used to give guidance both horizontally and vertically.

GROUND RADAR 20.

On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape and to some extent the
type, of the aircraft generating the returns?

A. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).

B. Airborne Weather Radar (AWR).
C. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR).
D. Aerodrome Surveillance Approach Radar.

GROUND RADAR 21.

A surveillance radar installation will often consist of?

A. An SSR and a precision radar.

B. A primary radar and a VDF.
C. A primary radar and a secondary surveillance radar (SSR)
D. A primary radar and a precision radar.
GROUND RADAR 22.

In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have?

A. A high PRF.
B. A short wavelength.
C. A long wavelength.
D. A high frequency.

GROUND RADAR 23.

An SRA may be flown to ?

A. 2 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises he controller that the approach is to be flown on QNH.
B. 0.5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller that the approach is to be flown on QFE.
C. 0.5 nm using QNH only.
D. 2 nm using QFE only.

GROUND RADAR 24.

A long range ATC surveillance radar will typically use a frequency of ?

A. 600 MHz.
B. 1000 MHz.
C. 3000 MHz.
D. 10 GHz.

GROUND RADAR 25.

Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface Movement Radar operates on frequencies in the … (i) band
employing an antenna that rotates at approximately …. (ii) revolutions per minute; it is …. (ii) possible to
determine the type of aircraft from the returns on the radar screen.

A. (i) SHF, (ii) 10, (iii) always.

B. (i) EHF, (ii) 30, (iii) never.
C. (i) SHF, (ii) 60, (iii) sometimes.
D. (i) EHF, (ii) 100, (iii) never.
 ILS
ILS 1.

The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is :

A. 3000 Hz, blue.

B. 1300 Hz, blue.
C. 400 Hz, blue.
D. 400 Hz, amber.

ILS 2.

A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage
limit down to :

A. 200 feet above the runway threshold.

B. 50 feet above ILS reference point.
C. Runway surface.
D. 200 feet above the inner marker.

ILS 3.

The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2
and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is :

A. Heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals.

B. To increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations.
C. Aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals.
D. To increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions.

ILS 4.

An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localizer inbound on the approach side,
outside the published ILS coverage angle:

A. Will not normally receive signals.

B. May receive false course indications.
C. Will receive signals without identification coding.
D. Can expect signals to give correct indications.

ILS 5.

The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a
series of :

A. Alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing.

B. Two dashes per second and a blue light flashing.
C. Dots and a white light flashing.
D. Dashes and an amber light flashing.
ILS 6.

The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of :

A. 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse.

B. 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse.
C. 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second.
D. 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second.

ILS 7.

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?

A. 550 FT/MIN.
B. 600 FT/MIN.
C. 800 FT/MIN.
D. 950 FT/MIN.

ILS 8.

The outer marker of an ILS with a 3°glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold.

Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the
outer marker is :

a. 1400 FT.
b. 1350 FT.
c. 1450 FT.
d. 1300 FT.

ILS 9.

What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?

A. Blue – amber – white.

B. Amber – white – green.
C. White – amber – blue.
D. Blue – green – white.

ILS 10.

What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a
distance of 10 NM?

A. 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localizer centerline.
B. 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localizer centerline.
C. 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localizer centerline.
D. 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localizer centerline.

ILS 11.

ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from :

A. Spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles.

B. Multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane.
 C. Back-scattering of antennas.
D. Ground returns head of the antennas.

ILS 12.

An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the
localizer and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:

A. Fly left and fly down.

B. Fly right and fly down.
C. Fly right and fly up.
D. Fly left and fly up.

ILS 13.

An aircraft carrying out a 3° glide path ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the
outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft’s rate of
descent will be a decrease of approximately:

A. 250 FT/MIN.
B. 50 FT/MIN/
C. 150 FT/MIN.
D. 100 FT/MIN.

ILS 14.

The principle of operation of an ILS localizer transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted
on (i) ……. Frequencies and carry different (ii)………

A. (i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies.

B. (i) the same (ii) phases.
C. (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies.
D. (i) different (ii) phases.

ILS 15.

In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

A. VHF.
B. SHF.
C. UHF.
D. EHF.

ILS 16.

Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display
represent :

A. 0.5 degrees.
B. 1.5 degrees.
C. 2.5 degrees.
D. 2.0 degrees.
ILS 17.

Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of :

A. 1300 Hz.
B. 400 Hz.
C. 2000 Hz.
D. 3000 Hz.

ILS 18.

Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate :

A. Increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN.

B. Decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN.
C. Decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN.
D. Increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN.

ILS 19.

Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ……° each side of the localizer
centre – line to a distance of (ii) ….. NM from the threshold.

A. (i) 25 (ii) 17.

B. (1) 35 (ii) 25.
C. (i) 5 (ii) 8.
D. (i) 8 (ii) 10.

ILS 20.

The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately :

A. 800 FT/MIN.
B. 850 FT/MIN.
C. 670 FT/MIN.
D. 700 FT/MIN.

ILS 21.

Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localizer transmitting aerial normally situated?

A. At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the Centreline.
B. On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centerline.
C. At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended
centerline.
D. At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown.

ILS 22.

A Cat III ILS glide path transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to :

A. A maximum height of 200 ft above the runway.

B. A maximum height of 100 ft above the runway.
C. A maximum height of 50 ft above the runway.
D. The surface of the runway.
ILS 23.

Which of the following is an ILS localizer frequency?

A. 108.25 MHz.
B. 109.15 MHz.
C. 110.20 MHz.
D. 112.10 MHz.

ILS 24.

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 90 kt?

A. 450 FT/MIN.
B. 400 FT/MIN.
C. 600 FT/MIN.
D. 700 FT/MIN.

ILS 25.

The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.

Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be ?

A. Left of centre.
B. Right of centre.
C. Centered with the ‘fail’ flag showing.
D. Centered.

ILS 26.

What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation in relation to the localizer beam on an ILS?

A. The difference in depth between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz modulations.

B. The difference in time between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz modulations.
C. The bearing of the localizer antenna found by means of a loop antenna.
D. The difference in phase between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz modulations.

ILS 27.

What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?

A. 90 Hz 150 Hz.
B. 63 MHz 123 MHz.
C. 75 kHz 135 kHz
D. 328 MHz 335 MHz

ILS 28.

Full scale deflection of the localizer needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately?

A. 2.5 degrees offset from the localizer centerline.

B. 10 degrees offset from the localizer centerline.
C. 1.25 degrees offset from the localizer centerline.
D. 5 degrees offset from the localizer centerline.
ILS 29.

On an ILS approach, the localizer needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?

A. 2.5 degrees.
B. 0.7 degrees.
C. 5 degrees.
D. 10 degrees.

ILS 30.

False beams on the ILS glide path are?

A. Only found below the correct glide slope.

B. Only found if more that 10 degrees left or right of localizer centerline.
C. Only found if flying the back beam ILS approach.
D. Only found above the correct glide slope.

ILS 31.

The middle market transmits on?

A. 1300 Hz.
B. 1300 MHz.
C. 75 Hz.
D. 75 MHz.

ILS 32.

A locator?

1. Is a low powered beacon.

2. Is a high powered beacon.
3. Has range of 10 nm to 25 nm.
4. Has a range of 10 nm to 200 nm.

A. 1 and 4.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1 and 3.
D. 2 and 4.

ILS 33.

According to the ILS coverage areas as defined in ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the
pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localizer?

A. 19 nm from touchdown inbound and 13 degrees displaced from the localizer centerline.
B. 27 nm from touchdown inbound and 8 degrees displaced from the localizer centerline
C. 10 nm from touchdown inbound and 38 degrees displaced from the localizer centerline.
D. 20 nm from touchdown inbound and 8 degrees displaced from the localizer centreline.

ILS 34.

What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localizer beam on an ILS?

A. The difference in phase between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz modulations.

 B. The difference in depth between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz modulations.
C. The difference in time between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz modulations.
D. The bearing to the localizer antenna found by means of a loop aerial.

ILS 35.

Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio and visual signals in the cockpit when passing
overhead the middle marker?

A. Audio : 74 MHz 2 dots per second. Visual : Blue light flashes.

B. Audio : 1300 Hz alternating dots and dashes. Visual : Amber light flashes.
C. Audio : 400 Hz, 2 dashes per second, Visual : Blue light flashes.
D. Audio : 3000 Hz alternating dots and dashes. Visual : Amber light flashes.

ILS 36.

If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a ?

A. Non precision approach on the precision approach runway.

B. Precision approach on the reciprocal runway of the precision approach runway.
C. Non precision approach on the reciprocal runway of the precision approach runway.
D. Precision approach on the precision approach runway.

ILS 37.

The audio modulation of the middle marker is keyed to give?

A. Alternating dots and dashes at a rate of 2 dashed per second and 6 dots per second.
B. Continuous dots at a rate of 6 dots per second.
C. Continuous dashes at a rate of 2 dashes per second.
D. A sequence of 3 dashes, 3 dots and 3 dashes every second.

ILS 38.

On an ILS approach, the glide slope needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate ?

A. 0.7 degrees.
B. 2.5 degrees.
C. 5 degrees.
D. 10 degrees.

ILS 39.

Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is ?

A. 0.7 degrees above or below the correct glide path.

B. 1.25 degrees above or below the correct glide path.
C. 2.5 degrees above or below the correct glide path.
D. 0.5 degrees above or below the correct glide path.
ILS 40.

On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?

A. Same frequency as the glide path.

B. 3000 Hz.
C. 75 MHz.
D. Same frequency as the localizer.

ILS 41.

Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display. What is the angular displacement
of the aircraft from the localizer centerline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?

A. 1.0 degrees to the left.

B. 1.0 degrees to the right.
C. 2.0 degrees to the left.
D. 2.0 degrees to the right.

ILS 42.

Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localizer radiation pattern?

A. Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency.

B. Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency.
C. Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the same modulation.
D. A pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying different modulation.

ILS 43.

According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS
approaches?

A. One quarter scale deflection.

B. Full scale deflection.
C. Three quarters scale deflection.
D. Half scale deflection.

ILS 44.

Which of these markers has the highest audible frequency?

A. Outer.
B. Middle.
C. Airways.
D. Inner.

ILS 45.

which of the following is an ILS Localiser frequency?

A. 108.25 MHz.
B. 109.15 MHz.
C. 110.20 MHz.
D. 112.10 MHz.
ILS 46.

The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200 degrees. Lined up with the ILS of runway 25, the localizer will be ?

A. Right of centre.
B. Left of centre.
C. Centered.
D. Centred with the “Fail” flag showing.

ILS 47.

The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25 degree glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kts is
approximately.?

A. 670 ft/min.
B. 700 ft/min.
C. 760 ft/min.
D. 850 ft/min.

ILS 48.

An aircraft is flying a 3 degree glide path and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kts at the outer
marker to 120 kts over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft’s rate of descent
will be a decrease of approximately?

A. 50 ft/min.
B. 150 ft/min.
C. 100 ft/min.
D. 250 ft/min.

ILS 49.

What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3 degree path out to a
minimum distance of 10 nm.
A. 0.70 degrees above the glide path and 2.5 degrees each side of the localizer centerline.
B. 0.45 degrees above the horizontal to 1.75 degrees above the glide path, and 8 degrees each side of the
localiser centerline.
C. 3 degrees above the horizonal to 5.25 degrees above the horizontal, and 8 degrees each side of the
localizer centerline.
D. 1.35 degrees above the horizontal to 5.25 degrees above the horizontal, and 8 degrees each side of the
localizer centerline.

ILS 50.

What according to ICAO Annex 10, is the range of a locator?

A. 100 to 300 nm.

B. 10 to 25 nm.
C. 25 to 50 nm.
D. 50 to 100 nm.

ILS 51.

According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does the locator normally transmit?

A. MF/HF.
 B. HF.
C. HF/VHF.
D. LF/MF.

ILS 52.

Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two – letter identification group?

A. Locator.
B. Glide Path.
C. Outer Marker.
D. Inner Marker.

ILS 53.

The ILS marker identified visually by a white flashing light is the?

A. Outer marker.
B. Inner marker.
C. Middle marker.
D. Locator.

ILS 54.

The ILS marker with the higher aural frequency is the?

A. Inner marker.
B. Outer marker.
C. Middle marker.
D. Locator.

ILS 55.

In an ILS system, concerning the glide path principle of operation, the difference in depth of modulation
(DDM).

1. Decreases with angular displacement below the glide path.

2. Increases with angular displacement above the glide path.
3. Decreases with angular displacement above the glide path.
4. Increases with angular displacement below the glide path.

A. 2 and 4.
B. 1 and 4.
C. 1 and 3.
D. 2 and 3.

ILS 56.

On final on ILS approach, at 0.6 nm from the threshold, which marker are you likely to hear?

A. The outer marker.

B. The middle marker.
C. The inner marker (if available).
D. NO markers can be located at this distance.
ILS 57.

Regarding ILS which of the following is true?

A. All markers transmit at 75 MHz.

B. The glide path transmitter is located 300 m from the departure end of the runway.
C. The DME paired with the ILS channels are usually zero reference next to the departure end of the
runway.
D. The localizer part of the frequency band is shared with the DME.

ILS 58.

The three different markers can be used in the ILS to determine the distance to the ILS touchdown point of the
runway as follows ?

A. The outer marker indicates the position where normally the descent has to commence.
B. The inner marker warns the pilot of the last chance to commence the missed approach procedure.
C. The markers are only important in the situation when glide path transmission has ceased.
D. The middle marker indicates the position for the decision for a missed approach during a CAT1
approach due to bad visibility.

ILS 59.

The UHF band is assigned to the.

1. Locator.
2. Localizer.
3. Outer Marker.
4. Glide path.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is ?

A. 1.
B. 3 and 4.
C. 4.
D. 1 and 3.

ILS 60.

One of the possible disturbances of the ILS signals is “scalloping. Which statement is correct?

A. Scalloping are minor changes or bends, which can be followed by the aircraft.
B. Scalloping are major changes or bends, which cannot be followed by the aircraft.
C. Scalloping are rapid changes or bends, which can be followed by the aircraft.
D. Scalloping causes rapid indicator changes from side to side of the intended approach path, which can
not be followed by the aircraft.

ILS 61.

The ILS marker identified visually by an amber flashing light is the?

A. Middle marker.
B. Outer marker.
C. Inner marker.
D. Locator.
ILS 62.

An ILS marker beacon operates in the ?

A. VHF band.
B. UHF band.
C. LF/MF band.
D. HF band.

ILS 63.

If the (angular) displacement of an aircraft (with respect to the localizer centerline) doubles, (e.g. From 1 degree
to 2 degrees) measured difference in the depth of modulation?

A. Doubles.
B. Remains unchanged.
C. Is halved.
D. Increases fourfold.

ILS 64.

Concerning the localizer principle of operation in an ILS system, the difference in depth of modulation (DDM)?

A. Decreases with respect to the angular displacement from the centerline.

B. Increases linearly with respect to the angular displacement from the centerline.
C. Decreases proportionally with respect to the angular displacement from the centerline.
D. Increases linearly with respect to the distance from the centerline.

ILS 65.

The ILS marker identified visually by a blue flashing light is the?

A. Outer marker.
B. Middle marker.
C. Inner marker.
D. Locator.

ILS 66.

The ILS marker identified audibly by a series of two dashes per second is the?

A. Outer marker.
B. Middle marker.
C. Inner marker.
D. Locator.

ILS 67.

The ILS marker with an aural frequency of 400 Hz is?

A. Outer marker.
B. Inner marker.
C. Middle marker.
D. Locator.
ILS 68.

The ILS receiver of an aircraft flying down the exact runway centerline will receive?

A. 90 Hz and 150 Hz lobes at equal depth.

B. No modulated signal because the left and right lobes cancel each other along the centerline.
C. The same frequency modulated signal from both lobes with the maximum of magnitude.
D. The maximum magnitude of the difference between the 90 Hz and the 150 Hz amplitudes.

ILS 69.

The ILS receiver of an aircraft on approach and flying on the glide path will receive?

A. The modulation from both lobes at equal depth.

B. The same modulation frequency signal from both lobes with the maximum of magnitude.
C. No modulated signal because the left and right lobes cancel each other along the centerline.
D. The maximum magnitude of the difference between the two amplitudes.

ILS 70.

The principle of operation of an ILS is?

A. The difference in depth of modulation.

B. Modulation of the ILS frequency by amplitude of two modulating signals.
C. The phase comparison.
D. The difference between the frequencies of the tow tones.

ILS 71.

The back CRS of an ILS may give?

A. Precision approach guidance for the reciprocal of the main approach runway.
B. Non-precision approach guidance for the main approach runway.
C. Precision approach guidance for the main approach runway.
D. Non-precision approach guidance for the reciprocal of the main approach runway.

ILS 72.

Which answer states the typical distances along the centerline of the runway of the various ILS components?

A. Localizer transmitter 300 metres behind end of runway. Glide path transmitter 300 metres behind the
threshold. Middle marker 1000 metres from the threshold. Outer marker 4 nm from the threshold.
B. Localizer transmitter 300 metres behind end of runway. Glide Path transmitter 300 metres behind the
threshold. Middle marker 1.5 nm from the threshold. Outer marker 10 nm from the threshold.
C. Localizer transmitter 100 metres behind end of runway. Glide Path transmitter 300 metres behind the
threshold. Middle marker 1000 metres from the threshold. Outer marker 4 nm from the threshold.
D. Localizer transmitter 1000 metres behind end of runway. Glide Path transmitter 100 metres behind the
threshold. Middle marker 1.5 nm from the threshold. Outer marker 10 nm from the threshold.

ILS 73.

The ILS marker identified by a series of alternate dots and dashes is the?

A. Middle marker.
B. Inner marker.
C. Outer marker.
 D. Locator.

ILS 74.

The ILS marker with the lower aural frequency is the?

A. Outer marker.
B. Inner marker.
C. Middle marker.
D. Centerline marker.

ILS 75.

“Beam bends” in the ILS approach path are?

A. Curves in the normal approach because of noise abatement.

B. Curves in the glide path that are visible on the indicator, but change too fats to be followed by large
aircraft.
C. Curved approaches made with the aid of the instrument landing system.
D. Slight curves that can be followed by large aircraft.

ILS 76.

Locators are ?

A. LF/MF NDBs used as an aid for the approach.

B. Low powered ADFs use for airfield or runway approach.
C. Beacons with a rage of 10 to 250 nm.
D. High powered NDBs used for en route and airways navigation.

ILS 77.

The UHF band is the assigned frequency band of the?

A. ILS glide path transmitter.

B. All the 3 ILS marker beacons.
C. ILS localizer transmitter.
D. Outer marker beacon.

ILS 78.

Performing an ILS approach, you will fly overhead the markers in a specific order. The order is?

A. OM, IM (if available), MM.

B. OM, MM, IM, (if available).
C. MM, IM (if available), OM.
D. IM (if available), MM, OM.

ILS 79.

The type of modulation used for the ILS frequency carrier is ?

A. Amplitude modulation.
B. Phase modulation.
C. Dual modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
ILS 80.

In an ILS, concerning the localizer principle of operation, the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) will?

A. Increase with displacement from the centreline.

B. Decrease with displacement from the centreline.
C. Increase with left displacement from the centreline, and decrease until full scale of the needle.

ILS 81.

In an ILS, concerning the glide path principle of operation, the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) will?

A. Increase with displacement above or below the glide path.

B. Decreases with displacement above or below the glide path.
C. Increase with above displacement from the glide path, and decrease with displacement below the glide
path.
D. Increase from centre position to half full scale of the needle of the indicator and decrease until full
scale of the needle.

ILS 82.

The ILS outer marker modulation frequency is?

A. 400 Hz.
B. 3000 Hz.
C. 1500 Hz.
D. 1300 Hz.

ILS 83.

On final on an ILS approach, you are flying overhead the outer marker. You can expect to be at?

A. 4 nm from the threshold.

B. 25 nm from the threshold.
C. 10 nm from the threshold.
D. 1 nm from the threshold.

ILS 84.

The basic principle of operation of the ILS is the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) between the two
lobes.

1. If the aircraft strays right, the higher tone lobe will be received at a higher intensity than the lower one
lobe.
2. A DDM of zero indicates the exact runway centerline.
3. The depth of modulation increases away from the centerline.
4. A DDM of zero indicates a balance between modulations.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is ?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 2, 3 and 4.
D. 2 and 3.
ILS 85.

The basic principle of operation of the ILS is the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) between the 90 Hz
and the 150 Hz lobes. A DDM of zero indicates :

1. The higher tone lobe is received at a higher strength than the lower tone lobe.
2. The exact runway centerline.
3. Aircraft is one the glide path.
4. A balance between modulations.

A. 1, 2 and 4.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 2 and 3.
D. 2, 3 and 4.

ILS 86.

Which of the following list use the VHF band?

1. Locator.
2. Localizer.
3. Outer Marker.
4. Glide path.

The combination that regroups all the correct statements is?

A. 2 and 3.
B. 2 and 4.
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
D. 1 and 3.

ILS 87.

The audio frequency modulation of the middle marker shall be keyed as follows?

A. A continuous series of alternate dots and dashes, the dashes keyed at a rate of 2 dashes per second, and
the dots keyed at a rate of 6 dots per second.
B. 2 dashes per second continuously.
C. 3 dashes, 3 dots, and 3 dashes per second continuously.
D. 6 dots per second continuously.

ILS 88.

The localizer transmitters operate in a frequency band between?

A. 108 MHz and 111.975 MHz

B. 111.975 MHz and 117.975 MHz.
C. 329.15 MHz and 335 MHz.
D. 108 MHz and 117.975 MHz.

ILS 89.

The ILS inner marker (if available) modulation frequency is?

A. 3000 Hz.
B. 1300 Hz.
 C. 240 Hz.
D. 400 Hz.

ILS 90.

According to ICAO Annex 10 a locator has a range of ?

A. 75 to 250 nm.
B. 10 to 25 nm
C. 75 to 150 nm.
D. 7.5 to 15 nm.

ILS 91.

The ILS middle marker modulation frequency is?

A. 1300 Hz.
B. 3000 Hz.
C. 400 Hz.
D. 800 Hz.

ILS 92.

Inner marker beacon of an ILS transmit at?

A. 75 MHz
B. 150 MHz
C. 90 Hz.
D. It depends on the modulating frequency.

ILS 91.

All ILS marker beacons transmit at?

A. 75 MHz.
B. 150 MHz.
C. 90 MHz.
D. It depends on the modulating frequency.

ILS 94.

Middle marker beacon of an ILS transmit at ?

A. 75 MHz.
B. 150 MHz.
C. 90 Hz.
D. It depends on the modulating frequency.

ILS 95.

ILS produces?

A. A radiation pattern which is amplitude modulated by the VHF frequency of the ILS.
B. A radiation pattern which is amplitude modulated by a 90 Hz and a 150 Hz signal.
C. Two lobes modulated in frequency by 90 Hz and 150 Hz signals.
D. A 90 Hz lobe and a 150 Hz lobe which are amplitude modulated by the VHF frequency of the ILS.
ILS 96.

The ILS receiver of an aircraft on approach and flying on the right of the exact runway centreline will receive?

A. The left lobe modulation only.

B. The modulation from both lobes at equal amplitude.
C. A modulated signal and will shift the localizer needle to the right according to the magnitude of the
difference between the two amplitudes.
D. More 150 Hz localizer signal than the 90 Hz localizer signal.

ILS 97.

On an ILS approach, when flying overhead the middle marker the colour of the flashing light will be?

A. Amber.
B. Blue.
C. Green.
D. White.

ILS 98.

On an ILS approach, when flying overhead the middle marker the colour of the flashing light will be ?

A. White
B. Blue.
C. Green.
D. Amber.

ILS 99.

A VOR is situated at the far end of the runway on which an aircraft is making an ILS approach. Nav 1 is
switched to the localizer frequency and Nav 2 to the VOR frequency. At the moment that the needle of #1
indicator reaches the outer dot the deflection needle of #2 indicator will be at?

A. approximately a halfway the scale.

B. The outer dot.
C. Approximately a three quarters of the scale.
D. Approximately a quarter of the scale.

ILS 100.

On an ILS approach, when flying overhead the outer marker the colour of the flashing light will be ?

A. Blue.
B. Green.
C. White.
D. Amber.

ILS 101.

108.35 MHz can only be?

A. An ILS frequency.
B. A VOR frequency.
 C. An ATC frequency.
D. A NDB frequency.

ILS 102.

Outer marker beacon of an ILS transmit at?

A. 75 MHz.
B. 150 MHz.
C. 90 Hz.
D. It depends on the modulating frequency.

ILS 103.

The audio frequency modulation of the outer marker shall be keyed as follows?

A. 2 dashes per second continuously.

B. A continuous series of alternate dots and dashes.
C. 6 dots per second. Continuously.
D. 3 dashes, 3 dots, and 3 dashes per second continuously.

ILS 104.

The audio frequency modulation of the inner marker shall be keyed as follows?

A. 6 dots per second. Continuously.

B. A continuous series of alternate dots and dashes.
C. 2 dashes per second continuously.
D. 3 dashes, 3 dots, and 3 dashes per second continuously.

ILS 105.

The localizer transmits in ?

A. The VHF band.

B. The UHF band.
C. Both the UHF ad the VHF bands.
D. The HF band.

ILS 102.
Outer marker beacon of an ILS transmit at?

A. 75 MHz
B. 150 MHz.
C. 90 Hz.
D. It depends on the modulating frequency.

ILS 103.

The audio frequency modulation of the outer marker shall be keyed as follows?

A. 2 dashes per second continuously.

B. A continuous series of alternate dots and dashes.
C. 6 dots per second. Continuously.
D. 3 dashes, 3 dots, and 3 dashes per second continuously.
ILS 104.

The audio frequency modulation of the inner marker shall be keyed as follows ?

A. 6 dots per second. Continuously.

B. A continuous series of alternate dots and dashes.
C. 2 dashes per second continuously.
D. 3 dashes, 3 dots, and 3 dashes per second continuously.

ILS 105.

The localizer transmits in?

A. The VHF band.

B. The UHF band.
C. Both the UHF and the VHF bands.
D. The HF band.

ILS 106.

The transmission of the glide slope beacon is characterized by?

A. UHF frequency with a minimum range of 10 nm.

B. 300 to 3000 Hz Amplitude Modulation fro the ATIS.
C. UHF carrier frequency with a possible “voice ident”.
D. VHF frequency modulated with a 90 Hz AM and 150 Hz AM navigation signal.

ILS 107.

Classify the marker from lower aural frequency to higher aural frequency:

1. Inner marker (if available).

2. Middle marker.
3. Outer marker.

A. 3, 2, 1.
B. 1 3, 2.
C. 2, 1, 3.
D. 1, 2, 3.

ILS 108.

locators are :

1. High powered NDBs used for en route and airways.

2. Low powered NDBs used for airfield runway approach.
3. Beacons with a usually range of 10 to 250 nm.
4. Beacons with a usually range of 10 to 25 nm.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is ?

A. 2 and 3.
B. 1 and 4.
C. 1 and 3.
D. 2 and 4.
ILS 109.

Concerning the localizer principle of operation in an ILS, the difference in depth of modulation (DDM):

1. Decreases with respect to the angular displacement from the centreline.

2. Increases with right displacement from the centreline.
3. Decreases with left displacement from the centreline.
4. Increases linearly with displacement from the centreline.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statement is ?

A. 2 and 4.
B. 1 and 4.
C. 1 and 3.
D. 2 and 3.

ILS 110.

What is the function of the FM-immune filter?

A. To make the ILS localizer receiver less susceptible to interference from earth reflected localizer
signals.
B. To make both the ILS localiser and the glide slope receiver less susceptible to interference from earth-
reflected localizer signals.
C. To make both the ILS localizer and the glide slope receive less susceptible to interference from
commercial FM-Stations (radio and television).
D. To make the ILS localizer receiver less susceptible to interference from commercial FM-station (radio
and television).

ILS 111.

A locator beacon differs from an NDB with respect to :

1. Operation use.
2. Transmission power.
3. Presentation in the cockpit.
4. Frequency band.

From the above stated difference the following numbers are correct?

A. 1 and 4.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 2, 3 and 4.
D. 1, 2 and 3.

ILS 112.

ILS transmitters use the?

A. UHF and VHF bands.

B. VHF, UHF, and HF bands.
C. VHF band only.
D. UHF band only.
ILS 113.

What is the effect of FM broadcast stations that transmit on frequencies just below 108 MHz on the performance
of ILS?

A. These transmissions may interference with the ILS localizer and glide path signal which may lead to
erroneous deviation indications.
B. These transmissions may activate the FM immune filter which results in the appearance of the localizer
and glide path failure flag.
C. These transmissions may activate the FM immune filter which results in the appearance of the localizer
failure flag.
D. These transmissions may interfere with the ILS localizer signal which may lead to erroneous deviation
indications.

ILS 114.

Concerning the localizer principle of operation in an ILS, the needle of the aircraft indicator is centred when the
difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is?

A. Null.
B. More than 150 Hz.
C. Maximum.
D. Less than 90 Hz.

ILS 115.

Concerning the glide path principle of operating in an ILS, the needle of the aircraft indicator is centred when
the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is?

A. Null.
B. More than 150 Hz.
C. Maximum.
D. Less than 90 Hz.

ILS 116.

An ILS receiver?

A. Measures the difference in depth of modulation of the transmitted signals.

B. Measures the phase difference of the transmitted signals.
C. Measures the difference in frequency of modulation of the transmitted signals.
D. Measures the phase rotation of the two transmitted signals.

ILS 117.

The ILS marker with an aural frequency of 3000 Hz is the?

A. Inner marker (if available).

B. Middle marker.
C. Outer marker.
D. Centreline marker.
ILS 118.

The ILS marker identified by a series of dots (6/sec) is the?

A. Inner marker.
B. Outer marker.
C. Middle marker.
D. Locator.

ILS 119.

The ILS marker with an aural frequency of 1300 Hz is the?

A. Middle marker.
B. Outer marker.
C. Inner marker.
D. Locator.
 MLS
MLS 1.

The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizonal approach zone
which is usually:

A. + or - 5° of the runway centre-line.

B. + or - 40° of the runway centre-line.
C. + or - 60° of the runway centre-line.
D. + or - 30° of the runway centre-line.

MLS 2.

Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A. It does not require a separate azimuth (localizer) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter.
B. The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker becomes or DME) to determine
range.
C. There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an
unlimited number of frequency channels available.
D. It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILS.

MLS 3.

MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:

A. + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM.

B. + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM.
C. + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM.
D. + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM.

MLS 4.

In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?

A. EHF.
B. VHF.
C. SHF.
D. UHF.

MLS 5.

Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from
the runway threshold?

A. A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters.

B. Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to
MLS station.
C. Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions.
 D. Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to
the aircraft.

MLS 6.

Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System
(MLS)?

A. Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons.
B. Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility.
C. Combined azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility.
D. Combined azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and inner marker beacon.

MLS 7.

A MLS without DME-P provides?

A. An ILS-like approach.
B. A staged approach but not with a curved path.
C. An approach with a curbed path but not staged.
D. A category 3 approach.

MLS 8.

MLS is primarily being installed at airports where?

A. The main approach paths lead over water.

B. Topographical conditions preclude the installation of ILS marker beacons.
C. Meteorological conditions are likely to cause ILS ducting by super refraction.
D. ILS encounters difficulties because of surrounding buildings and/or terrain or interference from local
music stations.

MLS 9.

The MLS frequencies and available channels are?

A. In the SHF band for MLS elements and the VHF band for the DME, 100 available channels.
B. In the SHF band, 300 kHz frequency separation giving 200 available channels.
C. In the range 5060 to 5090 MHz, 200 kHz separation giving 150 available channels.
D. In the VHF and UHF bands, 40 available channels.

MLS 10.

MLS can minimize multi path errors because?

A. The transmissions can be interrupted to avoid reflection by stationary objects.

B. MLS has a larger beam width than ILS.
C. The frequency of MLS is much higher than the frequency of ILS.
D. The transmission reverts to circular polarization when the beam is reflected by stationary objects.
MLS 11.

The addition of DME-P to MLS is necessary to?

A. Obtain three dimensional positions.

B. Allow linear approaches.
C. Support the time referenced scanning beam.
D. Assure a constant angular velocity of the azimuth and elevation sweeps.

MLS 12.

MLS not equipped with DME P?

A. Provides basically the came approach capabilities as ILS.

B. Provides the capability for segmented approaches but not curved approaches.
C. Provides the capability for CAT3 approaches.
D. Provides the capability for curved approaches but not segmented approaches.

MLS 13.

In an MLS system, the azimuth coverage is?

A. +/- 10 degrees.
B. +/- 8 degrees.
C. +/- 35 degrees.
D. +/- 40 degrees.

MLS 14.

The frequency band of MLS is?

A. UHF.
B. VHF.
C. SHF.
D. VLF.

MLS 15.

Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

A. Can be used in inhospitable terrain.

B. Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS.
C. Has a selective access capability.
D. Is not affected by heavy precipitation.

MLS 16.

In an MLS the azimuth information is available in the approach sector?

A. To a distance of 10 NM in an 80 degrees wide sector.

B. To a distance of 20 NM in an 80 degree wide sector.
C. To a distance of 10 NM in a 110 degree sector.
 D. To a distance of 20 NM in a 110 degree sector.

MLS 17.

Making an MLS approach, the aircraft?

A. Receives elevation information 2 times per second.

B. Receives elevation information 13 times per second.
C. Receives elevation information 3 times as frequently as the azimuth information.
D. Receives elevation information 39 times as frequently as the azimuth information.

MLS 18.

Microwave Landing Systems (MLS) use guidance signals formed from?

A. Time referenced scanning beams.

B. Radar beams.
C. Intersecting modulated signals transmitted on very narrow beams.
D. Phase difference between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated variable
signal.

MLS 19.

The MLS uses a technique based on ?

A. Frequency modulated duplex.

B. Pulse modulation.
C. Time referenced scanning beam
D. Magnetic referenced scanning beam system.

MLS 20.

The MLS utilizes a?

A. Frequency referenced scanning beam system.

B. Phase referenced scanning beam system.
C. Magnetic referenced scanning beam system.
D. Time referenced scanning beam system.

MLS 21.

The scanning beam of the MLS system is called?

A. Frequency referenced scanning beam system (FRSB).

B. Phase referenced scanning beam system (PRSB).
C. Magnetic referenced scanning beam system (MRSB).
D. Time referenced scanning beam system (TRSB).
MLS 22.

The principle of operation of MLS is?

A. Time referenced scanning beams.

B. Phase comparison directional beams.
C. Lobe comparison scanning beams.
D. Frequency comparison of reference beams.

MLS 23.

MLS consists of?

A. An azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared frequency and a DME.
B. An azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on separate frequency and a DME.
C. A common azimuth and elevation transmitter.
D. Overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to provide glide slope information.

MLS 24.

A microwave landing system operates?

A. On one of 200 channels in the band 5030 to 5090 GHz.

B. On one of 200 channels in the band 5.03 to 5.09 GHz.
C. On one of 400 channels in the band 5030 GHz. To 5090 GHz.
D. On one of 400 channels in the band 5.03 to 5.09 GHz.

MLS 25.

Which answer correctly completes the following statement? The characteristics of an MLS station are that it
uses.

A. An azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the upwind end
of the runway, and two frequencies.
B. An elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the upwind end
of the runway, and a single frequencies.
C. One transmitter for both azimuth and elevation and two frequencies.
D. One transmitter for both azimuth and elevation and a single frequency.

MLS 26.

In a MLS, the time that elapses between the passage of the TO scan and the FRO scan at the aircraft position is?

A. Not related to the angular position of the aircraft.

B. Directly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft.
C. Indirectly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft.
D. None of the above.
MLS 27.

Distance on MLS is measured by?

A. Co-located DME.
B. Measurement of the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the
aircraft receiver.
C. Measurement of the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the
aircraft receiver.
D. Phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams.

MLS 28.

Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by means of?

A. Directional aerial and DME.

B. Information from four satellites transmitting microwaves.
C. Timing of the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME.
D. Timing of the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach
the aircraft to define range.

MLS 29.

Compared to the ILS, MLS has the following advantages?

A. No special receivers are required in the aircraft.

B. Many different approaches to the same runway may be defined by 1 set of ground equipment
C. Aircraft separation will automatically be arranged by the ground equipment.
D. All approaches to all airfields will use the same channel, which means that the aircraft equipment will
be a single channel receiver.

MLS 30.

Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A. There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an
unlimited number of channels available.
B. It does not require a separate azimuth (localizer) and elevation (glideslope) transmitter.
C. It is insensitive to geographical site conditions and can be installed in sites where it is not possible to
use an ILS
D. The installation does not require a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine range.

MLS 31.

MLS frequencies and available channels are ?

A. In the VHF and UHF band, 40 channels available.

B. In the range 5060 to 5090 MHz, 200 kHz spacing, giving 150 available channels.
C. In the SHF band, 300 kHz frequency separation, giving 200 channels available.
D. In the SHF band for the MLS elements and the VHF band for the DME, 100 channels available
MLS 32.

Which of the following statements is true in respect to the Microwave Landing System (MLS)?

A. Range information is provided by precision DME operating in the UHF band.

B. A special precision DME, operating in the SHF band, provides range information.
C. Azimuth and elevation signals use the same aerial on a time sharing basis.
D. Azimuth and elevation signals are transmitted on the same UHF frequency.

MLS 33.

The coverage of MLS is …… either side of the centreline to a distance of ……?

A. 40 degrees, 20 nm.
B. 40 degrees, 40 nm.
C. 20 degrees, 20 nm.
D. 20 degrees, 40 nm.

MLS 34.

MLS can minimize multi-path errors because?

A. The transmission reverts to circular polarization when the beam is reflected by a stationary object.
B. The transmission can be interrupted to avoid reflection from stationary objects.
C. MLS has a larger beam width than ILS.
D. The frequency of MLS is much higher than the frequency of ILS.

MLS 35.

The addition of DME-P to MLS is necessary to ?

A. Obtain three dimensional positions.

B. Allow linear approaches.
C. Support the time referenced scanning beams.
D. Assure a constant angular velocity of the azimuth and elevation sweep.

MLS 36.

MLS is primarily being installed in airports where?

A. Meteorological conditions are likely to cause ILS ducting by super refraction.

B. The main approach paths lead over water.
C. ILS encounters difficulties because of surrounding buildings and/or terrain or interference from local
music station.
D. Topographical conditions preclude the installation of ILS marker beacons.

MLS 37.

MLS not equipped with DME-P?

A. Provides basically the same approach capabilities as ILS.

B. Provides the capability for CAT 3 approaches.
C. Provides the capability for segmented approaches but not for curved approaches.
D. Provides the capability for curved approaches but not for segmented approaches.
 RADAR THEORY
RADAR THEORY 1.

The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i) …..; the maximum
unambiguous range by the (ii)…..

A. (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

B. (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
C. (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
D. (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

RADAR THEORY 1.

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave
transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?

A. A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used.

B. It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars.
C. It eliminates the minimum target reception range.
D. The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by greater
reliability and accuracy.

RADAR THEORY 3.

A primary radar operates on the principle of :

A. Transponder interrogation.
B. Pulse technique.
C. Phase comparison.
D. Continuous wave transmission.

RADAR THEORY 4.

The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:

A. Length.
B. Amplitude.
C. Repetition rate.
D. Frequency.

RADAR THEORY 5.

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar
facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is? (pps = pulses per second)

A. 308 pps.
B. 375 pps.
C. 405 pps.
D. 782 pps.
RADAR THEORY 6.

The maximum range of primary radar depends on :

A. Wave length.
B. Frequency.
C. Pulse length.
D. Pulse recurrence frequency.

RADAR THEORY 7.

For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary are the power output must be
increased by a factor of :

A. 2.
B. 4.
C. 8.
D. 16.

RADAR THEORY 8.

The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the :

A. Power output.
B. Pulse recurrence rate.
C. Size of parabolic receiver aerial.
D. Height of the transmitter above the ground.

RADAR THEORY 9.

Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation?

A. Primary continuous wave.

B. Centimetric pulse.
C. Millimetric pulse.
D. Secondary continuous wave.

RADAR THEORY 10.

In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?

A. UHF.
B. EHF.
C. VHF.
D. SHF.

RADAR THEORY 11.

In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term ‘Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)’ signifies the :

A. Number of pulses per second.

B. Delay after which the process re-starts.
 C. The number of cycles per second.
D. Ratio of pulse period to pulse width.

RADAR THEORY 12.

In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:

A. Target discrimination.
B. Maximum measurable range.
C. Minimum measurable range.
D. Beam width.

RADAR THEORY 13.

In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR)
determines:
A. Maximum theoretical range.
B. Target discrimination.
C. Minimum range.
D. Beam width.

RADAR THEORY 14.

In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of :

A. Aerial rotation rate.

B. Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR).
C. Pulse length.
D. Beam width.

RADAR THEORY 15.

Which of the following radar equipments operates by means of the pulse technique?

1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar.

2. Airborne Weather Radar.
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
B. 1, 2 and 4 only.
C. 2, 3 and 4 only.
D. 2 and 4 only.

RADAR THEORY 16.

Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition
frequency of 450 pulses per second is : (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/second)

A. 666 km.
B. 1333 km.
 C. 150 km.
D. 333 km.

RADAR THEORY 17.

A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1500 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:

A. 135 NM.
B. 54 NM.
C. 270 NM.
D. 27 NM.

RADAR THEORY 18.

A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of
approximately:

A. 67 NM.
B. 135 NM.
C. 270 NM.
D. 27 NM.

RADAR THEORY 19.

Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) ….. band
employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) …. Revolutions per minute; it is (iii) … possible to
determine they type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.

A. (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never.

B. (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes.
C. (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always.
D. (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never.

RADAR THEORY 20.

The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect
targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is?
(pps = pulses per second)

A. 3240 pps.
B. 610 pps.
C. 1620 pps.
D. 713 pps.

RADAR THEORY 21.

Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km
will have a PRF (pulses per second) of :

A. 3000.
 B. 6000.
C. 167.
D. 330.

RADAR THEORY 22.

Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?

A. Long pulse length and wide beam.

B. Short pulse length and narrow beam.
C. Long pulse length and narrow beam
D. Short pulse length and wide beam.

RADAR THEORY 23.

The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:

A. 300 NM.
B. 200 NM.
C. 100 NM.
D. 400 NM.

RADAR THEORY 24.

On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the
type, of the aircraft generating the return?

A. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).

B. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar.
C. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR).
D. Airborne Weather Radar (AWR).

RADAR THEORY 25.

Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?

A. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).

B. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME).
C. Airborne weather radar (AWR).
D. Global Positioning System (GPS).

RADAR THEORY 26.

What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?

A. Aircraft position only.

B. Aircraft position and SSR code.
C. Aircraft position, SSR code and altitude.
D. Aircraft altitude.
RADAR THEORY 27.

In a primary pulse radar you have?

A. A directional aerial for transmission and an omni directional aerial for receptions.
B. A directional aerial for transmission and another one for reception.
C. A directional aerial for both transmission and reception.
D. An omni directional aerial for transmission and a directional one for reception.

RADAR THEORY 28.

A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have ?

A. A directional aerial for transmission and an omni directional aerial for reception
B. A directional aerial for both transmission and reception.
C. An omni directional aerial for transmission and a directional one for reception.
D. A directional aerial for transmission and another one for reception.

RADAR THEORY 29.

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar
facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 nm is ?
(pps = pulses per second).

A. 782 pps.
B. 405 pps.
C. 375 pps.
D. 308 pps.

RADAR THEORY 30.

The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets
unambiguously to a range of 50 nm is?
(pps = pulses per second).

A. 713 pps.
B. 1620 pps.
C. 3240 pps.
D. 610 pps.

RADAR THEORY 31.

Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition rate of
450 pulses per second is? (Given : Velocity of light = 300 000 km/sec).

A. 333km.
B. 1333km.
C. 150 km.
D. 666 km.
RADAR THEORY 32.

Ignoring the pulse length and the fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of
50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of?

A. 330.
B. 167.
C. 3000.
D. 6000.

RADAR THEORY 33.

The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long range Surveillance Radar is approximately?

A. 50 to 100 nm.
B. 100 to 200 nm.
C. 200 to 300 nm.
D. 300 to 400 nm.

RADAR THEORY 34.

A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of
approximately?

A. 67 nm.
B. 135 nm.
C. 27 nm.
D. 270 nm.

RADAR THEORY 35.

Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerial are used?

A. A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omni directional antenna for receiving.
B. One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving.
C. One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving.
D. An omni directional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving.

RADAR THEORY 36.

Comparing a parabolic reflector with a flat plate antenna of the same size?

A. The parabolic reflector generates less side lobes than the flat plate antenna.
B. The parabolic reflector has a considerably smaller beam width.
C. The flat plate antenna generates less side lobes than the parabolic reflector.
D. The flat plate antenna has a considerably smaller beam width.

RADAR THEORY 37.

When an operator increases the range on a radar display, in general?

A. The PRF becomes higher and the pulse length smaller.

 B. The PRF becomes lower and the pulse length larger.
C. Both the PRF and the pulse length decrease.
D. Both the PRF and the pulse length increase.

RADAR THEORY 38.

Echoes that do not change in distance from the antenna (relative speed zero) of a ground radar with a Moving
Target Indicator (MTI) are dangerous for the following reason?

A. The moving target indicator eliminates such echoes.

B. The radar is not able to display two echoes moving in the same direction.
C. The MTI does not recognize this as a moving object due to the blind speed.
D. The frequency of the transmitted radar signals changes too much by the Doppler effect.

RADAR THEORY 39.

The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the :

A. Transmission power.
B. Size of the aerial.
C. Transmission frequency.
D. Pulse recurrence frequency.

RADAR THEORY 40.

The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to :

A. Virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beam.
B. Simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams.
C. Have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection.
D. Eliminate the need for azimuth slaving.
 RNAV
RNAV 1.

Which of the following statements regarding B-RNAV is correct?

A. For 95% of the flight time, the track keeping accuracy must not exceed 5 nm.
B. B-RNAV is only applicable when flying in TMAs.
C. In case of B-RNAV, RNP1 is required.
D. B-RNAV can be used up to FL95. Above FL95 P-RNAV is required.

RNAV 2.

Which statement about RNAV is correct?

A. RNAV routes are only used in terminal areas in order to make more efficient use of the approach and
landing facilities of an airport.
B. A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path.
C. In general RNAV routes coincide with standard route in order to make optimum use of the available
VOR/DME stations.
D. All waypoints of RNAV routes are called phantom stations.

RNAV 3.

The IRS is a self-contained system because?

A. It operates independently of navigational aids outside the aircraft.

B. It operates off its own power supply.
C. The calculation of the position does not require any software.
D. The system generates a warming in case of a failure.

RNAV 4.

One of the benefits of RNAV is?

A. RNAV allows aircraft to take a more direct flight path without requiring to fly over ground based
facilities.
B. RNAV allows aircraft to fly at RNAV flight levels with a 500 ft separation.
C. RNAV allows pilots to manage horizontal and vertical separation with other aircraft without obtaining
ATC clearance.
D. RNAV allows to obtain ATC clearance by HF radio without the requirement to establish any radio
contact.

RNAV 5.

Which component of an Area Navigation System displays the Cross Track Distance?

A. Attitude Display.
B. DME Indicator.
C. Navigation Display.
D. Radio Magnetic Indicator.
RNAV 6.

A 3-dimentional RNAV system has capability in ?

A. The horizontal plane and the cruise management system.

B. The horizontal plane and the sped management system.
C. The horizontal plane, the vertical plane, and the timing function.
D. The horizontal plane and the vertical plane.

RNAV 7.

The navigational function of the horizontal situated indicator (HIS) in relation to area navigation systems is?

A. The indicator of the cross track distance (XTK).

B. The indication of the RNP.
C. The indication of the wind component.
D. The indication of the cross track angle error (TKE).

RNAV 8.

What is true about the FMC database?

A. The data can be customized for the specific airline operations.

B. The navigation database contains the company’s cost index strategy.
C. The performance database contains aeronautical information for the planned area of operations of the
aircraft.
D. The data includes SIDs, STARs, and runway approaches.

RNAV 9.

Concerning FMC databases?

A. The navigation database may be customized for the specific airline operations.
B. Only the performance database may be customized by the company.
C. Only the navigation database may be customized for the company’s cost index strategy.
D. Company databases and FMC databases can not be used at the same time.

RNAV 10.

Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints
from a RNAV equipment?

A. ETO.
B. ETD.
C. ATA.
D. Elapsed time on route.

RNAV 11.

The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is :

A. The actual position of the aircraft at any point in time.

 B. The computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc.)
C. The same as that given on the No. 1 IRS.
D. Another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc.).

RNAV 12.

The track-line on the Electronic Horizonal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic
Flight Instrument System:

A. Corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns.

B. Indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection.
C. Indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown.
D. Represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it coincides with the desired track. Wind
influence is compensated for.

RNAV 13.

In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management
Computer (FMC) be correct?

A. When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS.
B. When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to the
FMC calculated Mach number.
C. When the FMC positions and GS are accurate.
D. When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time.

RNAV 14.

Radar returns, on a B737 – 400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation indicator (EHSI) screen
modes of an electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:

A. FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN.

B. EXP VOR/ILS, PLAN and MAP.
C. FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP.
D. FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN.

RNAV 15.

The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organized in such a way that the pilot can:

A. Only read the database.

B. Insert navigation data between two updates.
C. Can modify the database every 28 days.
D. Read and write at any time in database.

RNAV 16.

Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?

A. DME/DME.
B. VOR/DME.
 C. NDB/VOR.
D. VOR/VOR.

RNAV 17.

ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation
on any desired flight path:

A. Within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-
contained aids, or a combination of these.
B. Outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum
of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
C. Within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum
of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
D. Outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum
of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids.

RNAV 18.

Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of :

A. 0.25 NM standard deviation or better.

B. 1.0 NM standard deviation or better.
C. 1.5 NM standard deviation or better.
D. 0.5 NM standard deviation or better.

RNAV 19.

Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of :

A. +/- 3 NM or better for 90% of the flight time.

B. +/- 2 NM or better for 75% of the flight time.
C. +/- 5 NM or better for 95% of the flight time.
D. +/- 5 NM or better throughout the flight.

RNAV 20.

Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-
board, system?

A. VOR/DME radial/distance.
B. Magnetic heading.
C. Inertial navigation system (INS) position.
D. Pressure altitude.

RNAV 21.

Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained and obtains no external information?

A. Pressure altitude.
B. Inertial Navigation System (INS) position.
C. Magnetic heading.
 D. VOR/DME radial/distance.

RNAV 22.

In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?

A. True airspeed.
B. Inertial Navigation System (INS) position.
C. VOR/DME radial/distance.
D. Doppler drift.

RNAV 23.

In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:

A. Does not have to be in range when entered or used.

B. Must be in range.
C. Has to be positively identified by one of the pilots.
D. Does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used.

RNAV 24.

Which of the following statements is true for a basic Area Navigation System?

A. The VHF NAV frequency is tuned and the equipment automatically selects the paired DME
frequencies.
B. The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always tunes the DME
stations closest to the aircraft.
C. The VOR/DME Area Navigation System uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft’s normal
VHF radio.
D. The pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range of the VOR/DME Area Navigation
System.

RNAV 25.

When the Area Navigation system is coupled to an FMS, the VOR/DME tuner provides DME information by?

A. Tuning the VOR station selected and automatically tuning the paired DME frequency.
B. Automatically tuning to the two DME,s that are within range and that provide the best fixing geometry.
C. Automatically tuning the 2 closest DME beacons.
D. Tuning the frequencies that have previously been put into the system by the pilot during the pre flight
setting up process.

RNAV 26.

Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?

A. Crosstrack distance; along track distance; angular course deviation.

B. Aircraft position in latitude and longitude.
C. Wind velocity.
D. True airspeed; drift angle.
RNAV 27.

Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or ‘Phantom Station’ into a basic
VOR/DME- based Area Navigation System?

A. Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or ‘Phantom Station’.
B. Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or ‘Phantom Station’.
C. Radial from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or ‘Phantom Station’.
D. Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or ‘Phantom Station’.

RNAV 28.

Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System
‘Phantom Station’:

A. Because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it
takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information.
B. When operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station.
C. When in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station.
D. When the Phantom Station is out of range.

RNAV 29.

What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?

A. 5 NM.
B. 1 NM.
C. 2 NM.
D. 10 NM.

RNAV 30.

What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?

A. 0.5°.
B. 10°.
C. 0.5 NM.
D. 10 NM.

RNAV 31.

Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation
(RNAV) system?

A. It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme.

B. It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working
by memory in case one of the wo necessary station goes off the air.
C. It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches.
D. It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any
chosen Phantom Station/waypoint.
RNAV 32.

A 3D RNAV system has capability in?

A. A horizontal plane and the vertical plane.

B. A horizontal plane and speed management system.
C. A horizontal plane and cruise management system.
D. A horizontal plane, and vertical plane and timing function.

RNAV 33.

What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?

A. The distance along a track between two waypoints.

B. The distance between the actual position and the great circle track between two active waypoints.
C. The distance between the air position and the planned track.
D. The distance between the air position and the great circle track between two active waypoints.

RNAV 34.

In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data from two waypoints. What do you use to work
out the cross track errors when an-route from one to the other?

A. Use the automatically computed values on the CDI/HSI.

B. The pilot is presented with VOR/DME information which must then be correlated to the pressure
instruments to determine the effect of altitude.
C. The pilot takes VOR and DME information and computes it himself.
D. The pilot will have to calculate the wind and apply it to the VOR/DME information.

RNAV 35.

Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of?

A. Plus or minus 5.0 nm for 95% of the flight time.

B. Plus or minus 8.0 nm for 95% of the flight time.
C. Plus or minus 10.0 nm for 95% of the flight time.
D. Plus or minus 1.0 nm for 95% of the flight time.

RNAV 36.

On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation System operating in the dead reckoning mode?

A. TAS from the Air Data Computer, heading from the compass.
B. TAS from the Air Data Computer, heading from the compass and the last computed W/V.
C. Radial from one VOR and distance for tow DME.
D. Radial from one VOR, distance from two DME, TAS from the air data computer, heading from the
compass.
RNAV 37.

3D RNAV fixing gives you?

A. Horizonal and vertical profile guidance.

B. 2D RNAV plus time guidance.
C. Horizontal, vertical and time guidance.
D. 2D RNAV plus speed control.

RNAV 38.

When entering and using a phantom waypoint in area navigation equipment you?

A. Don’t need to be within range of the referenced station to enter the waypoint but you must be to use it.
B. The referenced station must be positively identified but at least 1 pilot.
C. Don’t need to be in range of the referenced station to enter or use it.
D. Must be in range of the referenced station to enter or to use it.

RNAV 39.

Which statement is true regarding a compass when directly overhead the north magnetic pole?

A. The compass tail points down.

B. The magnetic variation is 90 degrees.
C. The compass tip will point directly down.
D. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is horizontal.

RNAV 40.

Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints
from a RNAV equipment?

A. ETO.
B. ETD.
C. ATA.
D. Elapsed time en route.

RNAV 41.

The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with?

A. Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

B. Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
C. Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
D. Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

RNAV 42.

From which of the following combination of navigation sources provide enough information to the RNAV
equipment to calculate the wind vector?

A. Compass system and IRS.

 B. GPS and compass output.
C. IRS and GPS.
D. IRS and air data computer.

RNAV 43.

Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?

A. Inertial Navigation System.

B. Basic RNAV system.
C. VOR/DME.
D. GPS.

RNAV 44.

A pilot is flying between two waypoints defined by suitably located VOR/DMEs. Equipped with a simple 2 D
RNAV system, this pilot?

A. Enters relative position between his aircraft and the VOR/DMEs on the CDU to calculate the cross
track error.
B. Must update any altitude change in RNAV system to have correct cross track error.
C. Reads VOR/DME bearing and distance on CDI or HSI to compute himself the cross track error.
D. Read cross track error and the distance to go on CDI or HIS.

RNAV 45.

IRS is a self-contained system because?

A. The system has a battery back-up which guarantees the well-functioning of the system in case of power
failure.
B. The system calculates the position of the aircraft without reference to externally generated (man made)
signals.
C. The system has the ability to calculate the aircraft position with an accuracy comparable to the gaps
position.
D. The system has the ability to calculate the position of the aircraft without reference to either man-made
or natural information.

RNAV 46.

A 2-dimensional RNAV system has a capability in the ?

A. Horizontal plane.
B. Vertical plane.
C. Horizontal and vertical planes.
D. Timing function.

RNAV 47.

The inputs of information used to achieve the RNAV required accuracy may be:

1. NDB.
2. IRS.
 3. VOR/DME.
4. GNSS.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statement is?

A. 2 and 4.
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
C. 2, 3 and 4.
D. 1, 2 and 3.

RNAV 48.

Benefits of Area Navigation include:

1. Shorter flight distances.

2. Reduction in fuel and flight time.
3. No radio contact within RNAV airspace.
4. Reduction in the number of ground training facilities.
5. Pilot choice of vertical and horizontal separations.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

A. 2, 4 and 5.
B. 3, 4 and 5.
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5.
D. 1, 2 and 4.

RNAV 49.

A phantom station (as used in a 2D RNAV system) is?

A. A waypoint defined by a radial and a DME distance from a VOR/DME station.

B. An existing VOR/DME station created in the memory of the navigation computer unit of the RNAV
system.
C. A waypoint defined by two DME distances from two different VOR/DME stations.
D. A non-existing VOR/DME station defined by two DME distances.

RNAV 50.

Which of the following Nav Aids will provide an RNAV system with position?

A. NDB.
B. ADF.
C. VOR/DME.
D. VDF.

RNAV 51.

Kalman filtering is used within?

A. Navigation computer.
B. DME receiver.
 C. Electronic Flight Instrument (EFIS).
D. VOR receiver.

RNAV 52.

Benefits of Area Navigation include :

1. Shorter flight distances.

2. Reduction in fuel and flight time.
3. No radio contact within RNAV airspace.
4. Improved safety due to more accurate navigation.
5. Pilot choice of vertical and horizontal separations.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

A. 2, 4 and 5.
B. 3, 4 and 5.
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5.
D. 1, 2 and 4.

RNAV 53.

3D RNAV fixing gives you?

A. Horizontal and vertical profile guidance and time guidance.

B. 2D RNAV plus time guidance.
C. Horizontal, vertical and time guidance.
D. 2D RNAV plus speed control.
 SSR
SSR 1.

When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is :

A. Altitude based on regional QNH.

B. Aircraft height based on sub-scale setting.
C. Height based on QFE.
D. Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa.

SSR 2.

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively
operating in the following frequencies?

Transmitter Receiver?

A. 1090 MHz 1030 MHz.

B. 1030 MHz 1090 MHz.
C. 1090 MHz 1090 MHz.
D. 10030 MHz 1030 MHz.

SSR 3.

Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

A. The principle of ‘echo’ return is not used in secondary radar.

B. The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources.
C. A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns.
D. The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources.

SSR 4.

In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:

A. 7700.
B. 7000.
C. 7500.
D. 7600.

SSR 5.

In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to :

A. 7600.
B. 7500.
C. 7700.
D. 7000.
SSR 6.

When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller’s presentation
gives information regarding the aircraft’s indicated flight level that is accurate to within ;

A. + or – 50 FT.
B. + or – 75 FT.
C. + or – 100 FT.
D. + or – 25 FT.

SSR 7.

The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is :

A. 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz.

B. 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz.
C. 1030 +/- 0.6 Mhz.

SSR 8.

The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are :

A. Collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
B. Continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision
avoidance using TCAS II.
C. The elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between
aircraft using TCAS II.
D. Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance
capability.

SSR 9.

The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains :

A. Four modes, each 1024 codes.

B. Two modes, each of 4096 codes.
C. Four modes, each 4096 codes.
D. Two modes, each 1024 codes.

SSR 10.

A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes.

These 4096 codes can be used in?

A. All modes.
B. Mode A only.
C. Mode C only.
D. Mode S.
SSR 11.

The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of :

A. Pulses.
B. Phase differences.
C. Frequency differences.
D. Amplitude differences.

SSR 12.

Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?

A. 7600.
B. 4096.
C. 9999.
D. 0.

SSR 13.

Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering
airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?

A. 5000.
B. 2000.
C. 7000.
D. 0.

SSR 14.

What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?

A. 4096.
B. 3600.
C. 1000.
D. 760.

SSR 15.

Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle?

A. Global Positioning System (GPS).

B. Airborne Weather Radar (AWR).
C. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).
D. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar.

SSR 16.

In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should
be set to :

A. 7600.
 B. 7500.
C. 7000.
D. 7700.

SSR 17.

Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the Transponder?

A. IDENT (Identification).
B. NORMAL.
C. STBY (Standby).
D. OFF.

SSR 18.

The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates :

A. Entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required.
B. An emergency.
C. Transponder malfunction.

SSR 19.

Most aeroplanes are fitted with a transponder which is an essential aspect of ….. Radar?

A. Primary.
B. Precision approach.
C. Security surveillance.
D. Secondary surveillance.

SSR 20.

Secondary surveillance radar (SSR) information is?

A. Not displayed on a screen but received by fax at the radar controller’s station.
B. Displayed on the same screen as primary radar information.
C. Displayed on a screen next to the primary radar screen.
D. Not mandatory for aircraft operating in controlled airspace.

SSR 21.

The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates :

A. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.

B. An emergency.
C. Transponder malfunction.
D. Radio communication failure.
SSR 22.

The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates :

A. An emergency.
B. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.
C. Radio communication failure.
D. Transponder malfunction.

SSR 23.

The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates :

A. Radio communication failure.

B. An emergency.
C. Transponder malfunction.
D. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.

SSR 24.
Mode A or C garbling may occur to ?

A. Two or more aircraft in the same direction from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less
than 1.7 nm.
B. Two or more aircraft in different directions from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less
than 1.7 nm.
C. Two or more aircraft in the same direction from the ground station with a difference in slant range of
less than 1.7 nm.
D. Two or more aircraft in different directions from the ground station with a difference in slant range of
less than 1.7 nm.

SSR 25.

A TCAS II equipped aircraft will have mode S because?

A. The datalink is required to transmit relative position.

B. Mode S transmits a 3D position.
C. True altitude is obtained from mode S.
D. The datalink is required to co-ordinate evasive manoeuvres.

SSR 26.

How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?

A. A 24 bit identifier, giving over 16 million combinations.

B. The our letter SELCAL code.
C. The P3 pulse.
D. An eight bit identifier, which gives 212 unique combinations.
SSR 27.

With Mode S, each aircraft can be uniquely interrogated and identified by using the ?

A. Twelve-pulse train giving 212 possible codes.

B. 24 bits address code, giving more than 16 million possible combinations.
C. Special Position Identification (SPI) pulse.
D. Long (30.25 m/sec) P3 pulse.

SSR 28.

Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?

A. With ON selected a reply in the modes A, C, and S, can be transmitted.

B. With the selector knobs the four digits of the squawk can be selected using the decimal symbols 0
through 9.
C. With ALT selected a reply in the modes A, C, and S, can be transmitted.
D. The correct ICAO 24 bits aircraft address code must be inserted on the control panel.

SSR 29.

Garbling in Mode A and C may occur?

A. Two or more aircraft in different directions from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less
han 1.7 nm.
B. Two or more aircraft in the same direction from the ground station with a difference in slant range of
less than 1.7 nm.
C. Two or more aircraft in different directions from the ground station with a difference in slant range of
less than 1.7 nm.
D. Two or more aircraft in the same direction from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less
Than 1.7 nm.

SSR 30.

Which statement with respect to interrogation modes is correct?

A. Mode S only all-call will trigger transponder replies of all A/C/S transponders.
B. Mode S Selective will trigger replies of all mode S transponders. Mode A/C transponders are
suppressed.
C. Intermode A/C/S all call and intermode A/C only all call, differ in the pulse spacing used between the
P1 and P3 pulses.
D. Mode S Broadcast will transmit information to all mode S transponders.

SSR 31.

The accuracy of SSR height as displayed to the air traffic controller is

A. +/- 25 feet.
B. +/- 50 feet.
C. +/- 75 feet.
D. +/- 100 feet.
SSR 32.

Why do clouds not appear on the secondary radar screens

A. Too low a frequency.

B. Too high a frequency.
C. The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies.
D. They do not provide an echo by returning signals.

SSR 33.

SSR is not affected by weather clutter because ?

A. The frequency used penetrates clouds.

B. It uses different frequencies for transmission and reception.
C. The equipment uses a moving target indicator.
D. The wavelength is too short to be reflected from cloud droplets.

SSR 34.

What most affects the range available from secondary surveillance radar?

A. The RRP.
B. The transmission power of the aircraft interrogator.
C. The transmission power of the ground interrogator.
D. The height of the aircraft and the height of the ground interrogator.

SSR 35.

The spacing between two pulses transmitted by an SSR interrogator decides?

A. What mode is used.

B. The ATC code to be sent to the aircraft.
C. The identification of the SSR.
D. What service may be provided by the SSR.

SSR 36.

With regard to SSR?

A. The interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is on the ground.

B. The interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is in the aircraft.
C. The interrogator is in the aircraft and the transponder is on the ground.
D. The interrogator is in the aircraft and the transponder is in the aircraft.

SSR 37.

Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?

A. The PPF is jittered.

B. The frequency is too high.
C. SSR does not us the echo principle.
 D. By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns.

SSR 38.

SSR in ATC use?

A. Replaces primary radar.

B. Uses primary radar techniques.
C. Is complementary to primary radar.
D. Suffers from greater attenuation than primary radar, due to the higher frequencies used.

SSR 39.

When both SSR and primary radar is presented on the controller’s display?

A. Altitude information is presented for all targets.

B. The SSR information is more accurate in bearing and distance.
C. The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance.
D. The primary radar information is superfluous.

SSR 40.

With SSR interrogation and response signals?

A. Are separated by 63 MHz.

B. Are at variable frequencies set by the controller but are always 63 Mhz apart.
C. Must be set by the pilot but are always 63 Mhz. apart.
D. Are standard frequencies separated by 63 MHz.

SSR 41.

What SSR modes are frequently used by ATC.

A. Mode C and mode D.

B. Mode A and mode B.
C. Mode A and mode C.
D. Mode A, mode B and mode C.

SSR 42.

Data transmission and exchange is conducted on?

A. Mode A.
B. Mode D.
C. Mode C.
D. Mode S.

SSR 43.

A mode S transponder will?

A. Not respond to interrogations on mode A.

 B. Respond normally to mode A or C interrogations.
C. Respond to mode A interrogations but not to mode C.
D. Not respond to modes A or C because it is on a different frequency.

SSR 44.

Which of the following statements regarding Mode S is most correct?

A. Mode S and Mode A/C transponders use different frequencies in operation.

B. Mode S is used to assist GPS calculations.
C. Mode S transponder are used with the radio altimeter.
D. Mode S transponders reduce R/T traffic and also provide the aircraft with a datalink facility.

SSR 45.

In SSR, the interrogations use different modes. If altitude reporting is required, the aeroplane’s transponder
should be set to “ALT” and will respond to?

A. Mode C interrogations only.

B. Mode A interrogations only.
C. Mode A and C interrogations.
D. Mode C and Ident interrogations.

SSR 46.

Which statement regarding Mode S transponders is most correct?

A. Mode S transponders are used with TCAS II.

B. Mode S transponder are used to assist GPS positioning.
C. Mode S and mode C transponders operate on different frequencies.
D. Mode S transponders reduce R/T traffic and provide a datalink facility.

SSR 47.

When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode C will
report a pressure altitude of 35 064 feet as?

A. FL350.
B. FL35064.
C. FL3506.
D. FL351.

SSR 48.

When a Mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is encoded and transmitted. This
vertical position is referred to ?

A. 1013.2 hPa.
B. Area QNH.
C. The sub-scale setting on the altimeter.
D. Any of the above as directed by ATC.
SSR 49.

Selection of Mode C on the SSR provides ATC with information based on?

A. Aircraft height above QFE.

B. Aircraft pressure altitude.
C. Aircraft height above the surface.
D. Aircraft altitude as indicated on the captain’s altimeter.

SSR 50.

The SSR code for a total radio failure is?

A. 7500.
B. 7600.
C. 7500 plus mode C.
D. 7600 plus mode C.

SSR 51.

If an aircraft is hijacked it is recommended that the pilot sets transponder code?

A. 7700.
B. 7500.
C. 7600.
D. 0000.

SSR 52.

The SSR conspicuity code is?

A. 7000.0
B. 2000.
C. 0033.
D. 760.

SSR 53.

When an aircraft is operating its secondary surveillance radar SSR in Mode C an air traffic controller’s
presentation gives information regarding the aircraft’s indicated flight level in increments of ?

A. 100 ft.
B. 150 ft.
C. 200 ft.
D. 250 ft.

SSR 54.

The SSR transceiver interrogates on …. And receives on …..?

A. 1030 MHz 1030 MHz.

B. 1090 MHz 1090 MHz.
 C. 1090 MHz 1030 MHz.
D. 1030 MHz 1090 MHz.

SSR 55.

The vertical position provided by SSR Mode C is referenced to ?

A. QNH.
B. WGS 84 Datum.
C. 1013.2 hPa.
D. QNH unless QFE is in use.

SSR 56.

What are the frequencies used for interrogation and response for SSR?

A. 1090 MHz for interrogation from the ground, 1030 MHz for response from aircraft.
B. 1090 MHz for interrogation from the ground, 1090 MHz for response from aircraft.
C. 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground, 1030 MHz for response from aircraft.
D. 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground, 1090 MHz for response from aircraft.

SSR 57.

With normal SSR Mode A coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of 12 pulses contained between 2
framing pulses with?

A. Up to 4096 codes in 4 boxes.

B. Up to 2048 codes in 4 boxes.
C. Up to 4096 codes in 12 boxes.
D. Up to 4096 code in 8 boxes.

SSR 58.

The transponder code set in an SSR system consists of ?

A. 4 digits, forming any of 7777 different codes.

B. 4 digits, forming any of 4096 different codes.
C. 4 digits, forming any of 9999 different codes.
D. 2 digits and 2 letters, forming any of 4096 different codes.

SSR 59.
What SSR Mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area where no code has
been allocated?

A. 0000.
B. 2000.
C. 7000.
D. 7500.
SSR 60.

Consider the following statements on SSR Mode S?

A. Mode S will have the ability to transmit short messages from the ground to a particular aircraft.
B. A Mode S interrogator, when installed, also collect data from old Mode A and C transponders.
C. Mode S will be able to address any particular one of some 16 million aircraft.
D. All of the statements are correct.

SSR 61.

The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to Mode?

A. A.
B. C.
C. S.
D. All of the answers are correct.

SSR 62.

A radar which employs an interrogator/transponder technique is?

A. Primary radar.
B. Doppler radar.
C. Secondary radar.
D. Continuous wave radar.

SSR 63.

What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?

A. Aircraft altitude.
B. Aircraft positions only.
C. Aircraft positions and SSR code.
D. Aircraft position, SSR code and altitude.

SSR 64.

“Fruiting” is caused by?

A. Aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogator.

B. Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR.
C. An aeroplane’s transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the interrogation signal.
D. Aeroplanes at range responding to interrogations from another ATC SSR units.

SSR 65.

Garbling is caused by?

A. Aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogator.

B. Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR.
C. An aeroplane’s transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the interrogation signal.
 D. Aeroplanes at range responding to interrogations from another ATC SSR units.

SSR 66.

In the SSR terminology “de-fruiting” means?

A. Removing all different colours from the display, making it a mono-colour display.
B. The removal from the display of random responses.
C. Displaying only aeroplanes changing altitude.
D. Displaying only aeroplanes with a selected destination.

SSR 67.

On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight, will be shown?

A. Squawk code, flight level, true heading, aeroplane callsign.

B. Squawk code, magnetic heading, ground speed, aeroplane callsign.
C. Squawk code, flight level, ground speed, aeroplane callsign.
D. Destination, flight level, ground speed, Aeroplane callsign.

SSR 68.

In special conditions signals, to signify radio failure, which of the following codes should you select on your
transponder?

A. IDENT.
B. 7500.
C. 7600.
D. 7700.

SSR 69.

When the ATC transponder “IDENT” button is pressed by the pilot?

A. Mode A will automatically be selected.

B. The controller will be urged to identify the aeroplane.
C. The aeroplane’s identification will be sent to all SSR within range.
D. The aeroplane’s echo on the controller’s display will flash or “fill in”.

SSR 70.

In the SSR response, the operation of the transponder ident button?

A. Sends out a special pulse in the X position in the pulse train.

B. Sends out a special pulse before the normal pulse train.
C. Sends out a special pulse after the normal pulse train.
D. Transmits the aeroplane’s registration or flight number as a data sequence.
 VDF
VDF 1.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a
VDF facility, which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?

A. 180 NM
B. 220 NM
C. 120 NM
D. 150 NM

VDF 2.

VDF accuracy may be decreased by ?

A. Diurnal variation.
B. Site and propagation errors.
C. Night effect.
D. Coastal effect.

VDF 3.

VDF is not affected by the other options listed in this question.

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325
FT above MSL is :

A. 158 NM
B. 107 NM
C. 114 NM
D. 134 NM

VDF 4.

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range o 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a
VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

A. FL60
B. FL50
C. FL80
D. FL100

VDF 5.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL140 could receive information from a
VDF facility, which is sited 1050 FT above MSL?
 A. 220 NM
B. 125 NM
C. 155 NM
D. 193 NM

VDF 6.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL240 could receive information from a
VDF facility, which is sited 1023 FT above MSL?

A. 120 NM
B. 150 NM
C. 223 NM
D. 210 NM

VDF 7.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL120 could receive information from a
VDF facility, which is sited 6000 FT above MSL?
A. 234 NM
B. 210 NM
C. 175 NM
D. 150 NM

VDF 8.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL200 could receive information from a
VDF facility, which is sited 6000 FT above MSL?

A. 210 NM
B. 295 NM
C. 250 NM
D. 274 NM

VDF 9.

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 153 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a
VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

A. FL120
B. FL150
C. FL180
D. FL100

VDF 10.

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 170 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a
VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

A. FL190
B. FLl80
 C. FL100
D. FL151

VDF 11.

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 112 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a
VDF bearing from an airport sited 144 FT above MSL?

A. FL100
B. FL60
C. FL90
D. FL100

VDF 12.

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 133.5 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for
a VDF bearing from an airport sited 144 FT above MSL?

A. FL90
B. FL60
C. FL80
D. FL100

VDF 13.

An aircraft is “homing” to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero.

If the magnetic heading increases, the aircraft is experiencing?

A. Right drift
B. Left drift
C. Zero drift
D. A wind from the west

VDF 14.

What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?

A. VHF radio
B. VOR
C. None
D. VOR/DME

VDF 15.

Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

A. It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

B. It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
C. It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
 D. It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the
ground.

VDF 16.

In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft’s
position?

A. On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary

B. When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR
C. When declaring an emergency on any frequency
D. When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

VDF 17.

What is a VDF referenced to?

A. Relative bearing to the aircraft.

B. True north at the aircraft.
C. Magnetic north at the station.
D. Magnetic north at the aircraft.

VDF 18.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 130 could receive information from a
VDF facility, which is sited 1024 ft above MSL?

A. 180 nm.
B. 150 nm.
C. 120 nm.
D. 220 nm.

VDF 19.

In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings
from a ground VDF facility sited 325 ft above msl?

A. 107 nm.
B. 158 nm.
C. 114 nm.
D. 134 nm.

VDF 20.

What is the maximum level that an aircraft at a range of 113 nm, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a
VDF bearing from an airport sited at 169 ft above MSL?

A. FL60.
B. FL80.
 C. FL50.
D. FL100.

VDF 21.

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 nm. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order
to achieve an operational range of 20 nm?

A. Four.
B. Eight.
C. Two.
D. Six.

VDF 22.

VDF is the abbreviation for?

A. VDF Direction Finder.

B. Very Direction Finder.
C. Very High Frequency Deviation Finding Station.
D. VHF Direction Finder.

VDF 23.

To provide a pilot with the position of the aircraft in the absence of radar, ATC must have at its disposal at least?

A. Two VDFs at different locations, able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency.
B. Three VDFs at different locations, able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies.
C. Two co-located VDFs, able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency.
D. One VDF able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies.

VDF 24.

Range of VDF depends on?

1. Line of sight formula.

2. Power of transmitter.
3. Intervening high ground.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?

A. 2.
B. 1, 2 and 3.
C. 1 and 2.
D. 1 and 3.
VDF 25.

Range of VDF depends on?

1. Loudness of he voices of the pilots and he operator when transmitting.

2. Power of airborne and ground transmitters.
3. Power of pilot voice when transmitting.
4. Aircraft altitude and ground transmitter elevation.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?

A. 2 and 4.
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3 and 4.

VDF 26.

One of the uses of the VDF is providing aircraft with?

A. Ground speed.
B. Homing.
C. Altitude.
D. Heading.

VDF 27.

A VDF may be used?

A. To provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar.
B. In emergency type situations when the aircraft is unable to transmit on VHF.
C. In combination with radar to solve a 180 degree ambiguity.
D. In lieu of ILS for precision approach purposes.

VDF 28.

What is the effect of multipath signals (coming from the same aircraft) at the Ground VHF Direction Finder
Station?

A. It reduces the range at which the Ground VDF Direction Finder station receives signals from the aircraft.
B. Regardless of the difference in distance travelled by these signals, it results in their extinction of the signals
at the Ground VHF Direction Finder station.
C. It may result in an increase in the distance at which Ground Direction Finder station receive signals from the
aircraft, if the Ground Station is situated in the skip zone.
D. They may result in bearing errors.
VDF 29.

In flight, a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by?

A. Speaking louder.
B. Flying out of clouds.
C. Increasing altitude.
D. Decreasing altitude.

VDF 30.

An aircraft is “homing” to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading
decreases, the aircraft is experiencing?

A. Right drift
B. Left drift
C. Zero drift
D. A wind from the west

VDF 31.

Given :

Compass heading 270°.

Deviation 2°W.
Variation 30°E.
Relative bearing of VDF station from the aircraft 316°.

What is the QDR?

A. 044°
B. 226°
C. 046°
D. 224°

VDF 32.

By selecting one VHF frequency, in the range 108 to 112 MHz, on the Nav receiver?

A. Rho-theta information from an enroute VOR/DME can be obtained.

B. Rho-theta information from an ILS/DME can be obtained.
C. Rho-theta information from a terminal VOR/DME can be obtained.
D. Rho-theta information from enroute VORs can be obtained.

VDF 33.

VDF measures the bearing of the aircraft with?

A. Reference to the aircraft relative bearing.

 B. Reference to the true and magnetic north at the station.
C. Reference to the true and magnetic north at the aircraft.
D. Reference to magnetic north at the aircraft.

VDF 34.

The VDF Class B bearing is accurate to within?

A. +/- 1 degrees.
B. +/- 5 degrees.
C. +/- 3 degrees.
D. +/- 2 degrees.

VDF 35.

When would VDF be used for a position fix?

A. When declaring an emergency on 121.5 MHz.

B. When the aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.
C. When first talking to an FIR on crossing an international boundary.
D. When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace.

VDF 36.

What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted on order that a VDF let-down may be flown?

A. VOR/DME.
B. VHF Radio.
C. None.
D. VOR.

VDF 37.

An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must?

A. By within 10 nautical miles of the VDF aerial.

B. Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established.
C. Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit.
D. Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the bearing.

VDF 38.

What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF let-down?

A. None.
B. VOR.
C. VOR/DME.
D. VHF Radio.
VDF 39.

The minimum airborne equipment required for operation off a VHF Direction Finder is a?

A. VHF Transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

B. VHF Compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
C. Cathode ray tube.
D. VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

VDF 40.

When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with …… And on a QDM
approach responsibility rests with ………?

A. The controller, the controller.

B. The pilot, the pilot.
C. The pilot, the controller.
D. The controller, the pilot.

VDF 41.

Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilizes which frequencies?

A. VHF at civil aerodromes, VHF at military aerodromes.

B. VHF at civil aerodromes, UHF at military aerodromes.
C. UHF at civil aerodromes, VHF at military aerodromes.
D. UHF at civil aerodromes, UHF at military aerodromes.

VDF 42.

The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by?

A. Intensity of ionization.
B. Surface type.
C. Aircraft height.
D. Time of day.

VDF 43.

What is the purpose of a ground direction finder?

A. To map airfields.
B. To aid ground movements.
C. To aid pilot navigation
D. To assist planners in the construction of airfield approaches.
VDF 44.

Which of the following affects VDF range?

A. Coastal refraction.
B. The height of the transmitter and the receiver.
C. The strength of the pilot’s voice when transmitting.
D. Sky wave propagation.

VDF 45.

Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by?

A. Efficient VDF antennas.

B. Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to the one being used by the VDF station.
C. Super refraction of the signals in the atmosphere.
D. The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft.

VDF 46.

In VDF service the report “QDR 235, Class C” means?

A. The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235 +/- 10 degrees.
B. The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/- 15 degrees.
C. The true bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/- 10 degrees.
D. The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/- 10 degrees.

VDF 47.

If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it means?

A. The service will be limited to bearings, no position will be given by the DF station.
B. The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based on VDF bearings.
C. The VDF service will be handled by a different DF unit, operating on the same frequency.
D. The bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level.

VDF 48.

Which Q code would give a magnetic heading from a VDF station?

A. QDM.
B. QDR.
C. QUJ.
D. QTE.

VDF 49.

Which Q code would give a true track from a VDF station?

A. ADM.
 B. QDR.
C. QUJ.
D. QTE.

VDF 50.

Which Q code would give a magnetic heading to steer (in nil wind) to a VDF station?

A. QDM.
B. QDR.
C. QUJ.
D. QTE.

VDF 51.

With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a?

A. QUJ.
B. QTE.
C. QDR.
D. QDM.

VDF 52.

You intercept a QDM with aright crosswind component. Is your intercept heading greater or smaller than it would be
without wind influence?

A. Greater.
B. Smaller.
C. Remains the same.
D. Not enough information to give an answer.

VDF 53.

If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: “your true bearing is 256 degrees, class Alpha.” This means?

A. QTE accurate to +/- 2 degrees.

B. QTE accurate to +/- 5 degrees.
C. QDR accurate +/- 2 degrees.
D. QUK accurate +/- 3 degrees.

VDF 54.

What is QTE?

A. Magnetic track to the station.

B. Magnetic track from the station.
C. True track from the station.
D. True track to the station.
VDF 55.

In the VDF system directional antennas are used?

A. At the ground installation.

B. In the aircraft.
C. In the aircraft and at the ground installation.
D. No directional antennas are used.

VDF 56.

The pilot of an aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should?

A. Avoid banking when transmitting.

B. Not pass over the VDF station.
C. Transmit on 121.5 MHz.
D. Ensure that radio silence is maintained.

VDF 57.

Which of the following statements regarding VHF Direction Finding (VDF) is most accurate?

A. It is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground.

B. It is simple and requires a VHF radio and direction finding equipment in the aeroplane.
C. It is simple and requires a VHF radio on the ground and in the aeroplane.
D. It uses line of sight propagation.

VDF 58.

Which of the following is an advantage of VDF?

A. No equipment is required in the aircraft.

B. No special equipment is required in the aircraft or on the ground.
C. Only a VHF radio is required in the aircraft.
D. It is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required.

VDF 59.

With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give a bearing if?

A. The requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country.

B. The pilot does not use the prescribed terminology.
C. Conditions are poor and bearings do not fall the station’s classifications limits.
D. None of the above.

VDF 60.

An aircraft receives a Class a true bearing from a VDF station. This is ?

 A. QTE accurate to +/- 2 degrees.
B. QUJ accurate to +/- 2 degrees.
C. QUJ accurate to +/- 5 degrees.
D. QTE accurate to +/- 5 degrees.

VDF 61.

A Class C magnetic bearing is received from a station. This is ?

A. QUJ accurate to +/- 5 degrees.

B. QDM accurate to +/- 10 degrees.
C. QTE accurate to +/- 5 degrees.
D. QDR accurate to +/- 10 degrees.

VDF 62.

When the pilot is conducting a QDM/QGH procedure, he will require?

A. No operator on the ground for either VDF or QGH procedures.

B. An operator on the ground only for VDF procedure.
C. An operator on the ground only for QGH procedure.
D. An operator on the ground for both VDF and QGH procedures.

VDF 63.

The VDF homer service provides?

A. Accurate bearings on demand.

B. Bearings, which may be affected by synchronous transmissions.
C. A QGH procedures to transiting aircraft.
D. Bearings, which will normally be within +/- 5 degrees accuracy to a 20 nm range.

VDF 64.

The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF Direction Finder is a?

A. VHF Compass operating in the 500 kHz to 1000 kHz range.

B. Course Deviation Indicator (CDI).
C. VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
D. VHF Transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

VDF 65.

At a height of 5000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter located at sea level, at a range
of ?

A. 88.4 nm.
B. 88.4 km.
 C. 70.7 nm.
D. 200 km.

VDF 66.

What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 235 feet can provide a service to an aircraft at FL 100?

A. 91 nm.
B. 114 nm.
C. 134 nm.
D. 144 nm.

VDF 67.

A Class B bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus?

A. 2 degrees.
B. 3 degrees.
C. 5 degrees.
D. 7 degrees.

VDF 68.

VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency range?

A. 108 to 118 MHz.

B. 108 to 136 MHz.
C. 118 to 136 MHz.
D. 130 to 300 MHz.

VDF 69.

In flight a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by?

A. Increasing altitude.
B. Decreasing altitude.
C. Speaking louder.
D. Flying out of clouds.

VDF 70.

What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?

A. QNH.
B. QTE.
C. QDR.
D. QDM.
 VOR
VOR 1.

A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial :

A. 195°.
B. 190°.
C. 185°.
D. 180°.

VOR 2.

An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct
combination for the application of magnetic variation is :

A. NDB: beacon position VOR : beacon position.

B. NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position.
C. NDB: aircraft position. VOR: beacon position.
D. NDB: aircraft position. VOR: aircraft position.

VOR 3.

An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic
variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.

The aircraft is on VOR radial?

A. 225°
B. 278°
C. 262°
D. 285°

VOR 4.

Given:
Magnetic heading 280°.
VOR radial 090°.

What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle
with a “TO” indication ?

A. 270°
B. 280°
C. 100°
D. 090°
VOR 5.

A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.

An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. the aircraft is on
VOR radial?

A. 208
B. 212
C. 360
D. 180

VOR 6.

The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is :

A. Phase comparison
B. Envelope matching
C. Beat frequency discrimination
D. Difference in depth of modulation

VOR 7.

A VOR is sited at position A (35°00'N, 020°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (34°00'N, 020°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 15°W and at B is 20°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

A. 195°
B. 175°
C. 185°
D. 180°

VOR 8.

A radial is the …… (i) bearing …… (ii) a VOR ground station?

A. Magnetic To.
B. Relative From.
C. Magnetic From.
D. True From.

VOR 9.

Tuned to a VOR station, with OBS needle central, the instrument reads 140 degrees with FROM indicated.
Relative to the VOR station the receiver is in the?

A. Northwest sector.
B. Northeast or Southeast sector, depending on the heading of the aircraft when the reading is taken.
C. Southwest sector.
D. Southeast sector.
VOR 10.

The VOR to obtain CDI (course deviation indicator) indications in the correct sense when tracking towards a
VOR on radial 255 degrees, the pilot should set on the OBS (Omni bearing selector)?

A. 075 degrees with TO indicated

B. 235 degrees with FROM indicated.
C. 055 degrees with FROM indicated.
D. 235 degrees with TO indicated.

VOR 11.

In order to obtain CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) indications in the correct sense when tracking towards a
VOR on radial 235 degrees, the pilot should set on the OBS (Omni bearing selector)?

A. 235 degrees with FROM indicated.

B. 055 degrees with TO indicated.
C. 055 degrees with FROM indicated.
D. 235 degrees with TO indicated.

VOR 12.

A VOR is sited at position A (35°00'N, 020°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (34°00'N, 020°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 15°E and at B is 20°E, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

A. 165°
B. 195°
C. 160°
D. 180°

VOR 13.

The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 250 NM represents a width of :

A. 2.0 NM.
B. 2.5 NM.
C. 4.4 NM.
D. 3.0 NM.

VOR 14.

The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 300 NM represents a width of :

A. 5.2 NM.
B. 4.0 NM.
C. 4.5 NM.
D. 3.0 NM.

VOR 15.

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 180° out of phase on magnetic :
 A. East.
B. West.
C. North.
D. South.

VOR 16.

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 270° out of phase on magnetic:

A. West.
B. East.
C. South.
D. North.

VOR 17.

Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

A. UHF.
B. VHF.
C. SHF.
D. HF.

VOR 18.

Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by :

A. Static interference.
B. Night effect.
C. Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces.
D. Quadrantal error.

VOR 19.

If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by :

A. Interference from other transmitters.

B. Noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter.
C. Sky wave interference from the same transmitter.
D. Sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency.

VOR 20.

An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot =
2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of this instrument will represent the limits of the
airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)

A. 1.5.
B. 1.15.
C. 1.7.
D. 2.5.
VOR 21.

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are in phase on magnetic :

A. East.
B. North.
C. South.
D. West.

VOR 22.

An airway 12 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus
5.5°.

In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately?

A. 50 NM.
B. 165 NM.
C. 210 NM.
D. 124 NM.

VOR 23.

An airway 15 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus
5.5°.

In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately?

A. 50 NM.
B. 165 NM.
C. 210 NM.
D. 155 NM.

VOR 24.

An airway 20 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus
5.5°.

In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately?

A. 208 NM.
B. 50 NM.
C. 165 NM.
D. 210 NM.

VOR 25.

An aeroplane flying on a heading of 280 degrees magnetic is on a bearing of 180 degrees magnetic from of
VOR.
The bearing to the VOR that should be selected on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
deviation needle is ?

A. 360.
B. 270.
C. 180.
D. 90.

VOR 26.

An aeroplane flying on a heading of 280 degrees magnetic is on a bearing of 180 degrees magnetic from of
VOR.

The bearing from the VOR that should be selected on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
deviation needle is?

A. 90.
B. 180.
C. 270.
D. 360.

VOR 27.

Given :
VOR station position N66° E025°, variation 20°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N56° E025°, variation 25°E.

What VOR radial is the aircraft on?

A. 160°.
B. 345°.
C. 165°.
D. 195°.

VOR 28.

An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus
5.5°.

In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately?

A. 50 NM.
B. 105 NM.
C. 165 NM.
D. 210 NM.

VOR 29.

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made
on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
 A. 284° with the FROM flag showing.
B. 284° with the TO flag showing.
C. 104° with the TO flag showing.
D. 104° with the FROM flag showing.

VOR 30.

An aircraft on a heading of 280° (M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR.

The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation
needle with a ‘TO’ indication is?

A. 270°.
B. 090°.
C. 100°.
D. 280°.

VOR 31

Given :
Aircraft heading 045°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 080° from a VOR,
Selected course on HIS is 090°.

The HIS indications are deviation bar?

A. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.

B. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
C. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
D. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.

VOR 32.

Given :
Aircraft heading 300°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 280° from a VOR.
Selected course on HIS is 270°.

The HSI indications are deviation bar

A. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.

B. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
C. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
D. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showng.

VOR 33.

Given :
Aircraft heading 150°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 100° from a VOR,
Selected course on HSI is 090°.
The HSI indications are deviation bar?

A. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.

B. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
C. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
D. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.

VOR 34.

What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the
same morse code identifier?

A. 2000 m.
B. 60 m.
C. 300 m.
D. 600 m.

VOR 35.

A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the
same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the?

A. DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
B. DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
C. DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
D. VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

VOR 36.

In order to plot a bearing from VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:

A. At the aircraft location.

B. At the VOR.
C. At the halfway point between the aircraft and the station.
D. At both the VOR and aircraft.

VOR 37.

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications
the deviation indicator should be set to :

A. 064° with the FROM flag showing.

B. 064° with the TO flag showing.
C. 244° with the FROM flag showing.
D. 244° with the TO flag showing.

VOR 38.

What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated from a
VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?

A. 220 NM.
 B. 147 NM.
C. 184 NM.
D. 156 NM.

VOR 39.

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°.
The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is :

A. Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown.

B. Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°.
C. Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°.
D. Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown.

VOR 40.

Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is
correct?

A. The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates.
B. The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz
amplitude modulation.
C. The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated
frequency each time it rotates.
D. The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal.

VOR 41.

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at
mean sea level is :

A. 190 NM.
B. 230 NM.
C. 170 NM.
D. 151 NM.

VOR 42.

If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a :

A. Rhumbline track.
B. Line of constant bearing.
C. Great circle track.
D. Constant magnetic track.

VOR 43.

An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of :

A. 90 NM.
B. 100 NM.
 C. 110 NM.
D. 120 NM.

VOR 44.

A VOR and NDB are co-located. An aeroplane fitted with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial
of 090 degrees. The variation is changing rapidly.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The ADF needle will not move, but the VOR needle will move as the variation changes.
B. The VOR needle will not move, but the ADF needle will move as the variation changes.
C. Both the VOR needle and the ADF needle will move as the variation changes.
D. Neither the VOR needle nor the ADF needle will move.

VOR 45.

A VOR and NDB are co-located. An aeroplane fitted with an RBI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of
090 degrees. The variation is changing rapidly.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The VOR needle will not move, but the ADF needle will move as the variation changes.
B. The ADF needle will not move, but the VOR needle will move as the variation changes.
C. Both the VOR needle and the ADF needle will move as the variation changes.
D. Neither the VOR needle nor the ADF needle will move.

VOR 46.

An aeroplane flying on a heading of 180 degrees magnetic is on a bearing of 270 degrees magnetic from of
VOR. The bearing to the VOR that should be selected on the OMN bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
deviation needle is ?

A. 90.
B. 270.
C. 180.
D. 360.

VOR 47.

An aeroplane flying on a heading of 180 degrees magnetic is on a bearing of 270 degrees magnetic from of
VOR. The bearing from the VOR that should be selected on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the
VOR/ILS deviation needle is ?

A. 90.
B. 180.
C. 270.
D. 360
VOR 48.

An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of :

A. 135 NM.
B. 123 NM.
C. 130 NM.
D. 142 NM.

VOR 49.

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL120 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340
feet above mean sea level is approximately:

A. 245 NM.
B. 163 NM.
C. 183 NM.
D. 204 NM.

VOR 50.

In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operator?

A. UHF.
B. VHF.
C. SHF.
D. EHF.

VOR 51.

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic :

A. South.
B. East.
C. West.
D. North.

VOR 52.

An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and
FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?

A. SW.
B. NW.
C. SE.
D. NE.

VOR 53.

An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR.
What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
 A. 10° or more.
B. Less than 10°.
C. 1.5° or more.
D. 2.5 or more.

VOR 54.

An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':

A. Left with 'TO' showing.

B. Right with 'TO' showing.
C. Right with 'FROM' showing.
D. Left with 'FROM' showing.

VOR 55.

Given :
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.
From/To indicator indicates “To”.
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.

On what radial is the aircraft?

A. 85.
B. 265.
C. 95.
D. 275.

VOR 56.

The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :

A. 108 to 111.95 MHz.

B. 108 to 117.95 MHz.
C. 118 to 135.95 MHz.
D. 108 to 135.95 MHz.

VOR 57.

If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :

A. 030°.
B. 330°.
C. 210°.
D. 150°.

VOR 58.

Given :
VOR station position N61° E025°, Variation 13°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, VARIATION 20°e.

What VOR radial is the aircraft on ?

A. 167°
B. 347°
C. 160°
D. 193°.

VOR 59.

The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from
the airfield’s VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?

A. 123 km.
B. 12.3 NM.
C. 125 NM.
D. 1230 km.

VOR 60.

Given :
Aircraft heading 160°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,
Selected course on HIS is 250°.

The HSI indications are deviation bar?

A. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.

B. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
C. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
D. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.

VOR 61.

You are on a compass heading of 090 degrees on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190 degrees on
your OBS. The deviation bar will show?

A. Full scale deflection right with a “from” indication.

B. Full scale deflection left with a “to” indication.
C. Full scale deflection right with a “to” indication.
D. Full scale deflection left with a “from” indication.

VOR 62.

How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system select the DME station to be used for positioning?

A. The pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area Navigation control
panel.
B. The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own NAV tuner and the system itself tunes the DME
stations closest to the aircraft.
 C. The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own NAV tuner and the system itself tunes the DME
stations providing the most accurate position.
D. The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft’s normal VHF
NA selector.

VOR 63.

In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver?

A. Measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the variable phase of the signal.
B. Measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and receiving the transponder
signal.
C. Uses the pulse technique to determine the radial.
D. Measures the time difference between reception of the two signals transmitted from the ground station.

VOR 64.

Apart from radial and distances from VOR/DME stations, what information is required by the VOR/DME Area
Navigation computer in order to calculate the wind?

A. True airspeed from the Air Data Computer.

B. Heading from the aircraft compass system.
C. Vertical speed from the air data computer.
D. Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the Air Data Computer.

VOR 65.

An aircraft, on a heading of 180 (M) is on a bearing of 270 (M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on
the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right needle with a TO indication is?

A. 090 degrees.
B. 360 degrees.
C. 270 degrees.
D. 180 degrees.

VOR 66.

An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 ft above msl at an approximate
maximum range of ?

A. 145 nm.
B. 123 nm.
C. 130 nm.
D. 137 nm.

VOR 67.

An aircraft at 6400 ft should be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 ft above msl at an approximate
maximum range of ?

A. 113 nm.
B. 90 nm.
 C. 123 nm.
D. 98 nm.

VOR 68.

An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing full right deflection.
Approximately what radial are you on ?

A. 058 degrees.
B. 238 degrees.
C. 218 degrees.
D. 038 degreees.

VOR 69.

An aircraft on a heading of 180 (M) is on bearing 270 (M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the
OMNI Bearing Selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation bar is?

A. 360 degrees.
B. 270 degrees.
C. 090 degrees.
D. 180 degrees.

VOR 70.

Given : Aircraft heading 160 (M), aircraft is on radial 240 from a VOR. Selected course on the HSI is 250
degrees. The HSI indications are deviation bar?

A. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.

B. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
C. Behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
D. Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.

VOR 71.

Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation System switch to Dead
Reckoning Mode?

A. The system is receiving information from only one VOR and one DME.
B. The system is receiving information from only one VOR.
C. The system is receiving information from the two DME’s.
D. The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DME’s.

VOR 72.

A pilot flying an aircraft at FL80, tunes in a VOR, which has an elevation of 313m.
Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which the pilot might expect to receive the
VOR signals?

A. 10 nm.
B. 180 nm.
C. 120 nm.
 D. 151 nm.

VOR 73.

An aircraft is on the 120 degree radial from a VOR. Course 340 degrees is selected on the HSI (Horizontal
Situation Indication). If the magnetic heading is 070 degrees, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model
will be

A. Behind.
B. In front.
C. Right.
D. Left.

VOR 74.

The OBS is set to 048 degrees “TO” appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The
VOR radial is approximately?

A. 238 degrees.
B. 038 degrees.
C. 058 degrees.
D. 218 degrees.

VOR 75.

The OBS is set to 235 degrees. “TO” appears in the window. The needle is close to half scale left deflection.
The VOR radial is approximately?

A. 230 degrees.
B. 060 degrees.
C. 240 degrees.
D. 050 degrees.

VOR 76.

Your aircraft is heading 075 (M). The OBI is set to 025. The VOR indications are “TO” with the needle
showing right deflection. Relative to the station, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials?

A. 025 degrees and 115 degrees.

B. 205 degrees and 295 degrees.
C. 115 degrees and 205 degrees.

VOR 77.

You are on compass heading 090 on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190 on your OBS. The
deviation bar will show?

A. Full scale deflection left with a “TO” indication.

B. Full scale deflection right with a “FROM” indication
C. Full scale deflection left with a “FROM” indication.
D. Full scale deflection right with a “TO” indication.
VOR 78.

An aircraft is flying on the true track 090 degrees, towards a VOR station located near the equator where the
magnetic variation is 15 degrees East. The variation at the aircraft position is 8 degrees East. The aircraft is on
the VOR radial?

A. 255 degrees.
B. 278 degrees.
C. 262 degrees.
D. 285 degrees.

VOR 79.

Given : Magnetic heading 280 degrees, VOR radial 090 degrees. What bearing should be selected on the omni-
bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with £TO” indication?

A. 100 degrees.
B. 270 degrees.
C. 280 degrees.
D. 090 degrees.

VOR 80.

A VOR is sited at position (58 00 N, 073 00 W), where the magnetic variation is 32 degrees West. An aircraft is
located at position (58 00 N, 073 00 W), where the magnetic variation is 28 degrees West. The aircraft is on
VOR radial?

A. 208 degrees.
B. 212 degrees.
C. 360 degrees.
D. 180 degrees.

VOR 81.

A VOR is sited at position A, (45 00 N, 010 00 E). An aircraft is located at position B, (44 00 N, 010 00 E).
magnetic variation at position A = 10 degrees West, and at position B it is 15 degrees West. The aircraft is on
VOR radial?

A. 180 degrees.
B. 195 degrees.
C. 190 degrees.
D. 185 degrees.

VOR 82.

An airway 10 nm wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus
5.5 degrees. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits, the maximum distance apart
from the transmitter is approximately?

A. 105 nm.
B. 210 nm.
C. 50 nm.
 D. 165 nm.

VOR 83.

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104 degrees radial. Which of the following settings should be
made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

a. 284 degrees with the TO flag showing.

b. 104 degrees with the TO flag showing.
c. 284 degrees with the FROM flag showing.
d. 104 degrees with the FROM flag showing.

VOR 84.

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 244 degrees radial. Which of the following settings should be
made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
A. 244 degrees with the TO flag showing.
B. 064 degrees with the TO flag showing.
C. 284 degrees with the FROM flag showing.
D. 064 degrees wit the FROM flag showing.

VOR 85.

What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated at 609
ft above MSL?

A. 220 nm.
B. 156 nm.
C. 184 nm.
D. 147 nm.

VOR 86.

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090
degrees. The tail of the VOR needle shows 135 degrees. The available information from the VOR is ?

A. Radial unknown, relative bearing 045 degrees.

B. Radial unknown, relative bearing 225 degrees.
C. Radial 135, relative bearing unknown.
D. Radial 315, relative bearing unknown.

VOR 87.

An aircraft at 6400 ft will be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 ft above MSL at an approximate range
of ?

A. 113 nm.
B. 90 nm.
C. 98 nm.
D. 123 nm.
VOR 88.

An aircraft at FL 100 ft will be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 ft above MSL at an approximate
range of ?

A. 137 nm.
B. 130 nm.
C. 145 nm.
D. 123 nm.

VOR 89.

An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300 degrees. The track selector (OBS) reads 330
degrees. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are “fly”?

A. Left with “FROM” showing.

B. Left with “TO” showing.
C. Right with “TO” showing.
D. Right with “FROM” showing.

VOR 90.

Given : Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is elected to 090 degrees. From/To indicator indicates
“TO”. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft ?

A. 85.
B. 95.
C. 275.
D. 265.

VOR 91.

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 can receive signals from a VOR facility sited at
MSL is?

A. 190 nm.
B. 170 nm.
C. 230 nm.
D. 151 nm.

VOR 92.

The VOR system is limited to about 1 degree of accuracy. On degree at 200 nm range represents a width of?

A. 2.5 nm.
B. 3.5 nm.
C. 2.0 nm.
D. 3.0 nm.
VOR 93.

An aircraft is situated at 30N 005E, with magnetic variation of 10W. A VOR is locate at 30 N 013E with a
magnetic variation of 15W. the aircraft is situated on the VOR radial?

A. 101.
B. 281.
C. 286.
D. 256.

VOR 94.

An aeroplane flies over position, A which is due north of a VOR station sited at position B. The magnetic
variation at A = 18W. The magnetic variation at B = 10W. What radial from B is the aircraft on?

A. 010 degrees.
B. 342 degrees.
C. 350 degrees.
D. 018 degrees.

VOR 95.

Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME. Area Navigation System switch to Dead
Reckoning mode?

A. VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the Air Data Computer.
B. VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data information from
the VOR/DME stations.
C. When “DR” is selected by the pilot.
D. VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the aircraft compass system.

VOR 96.

The identification of a DME in combination with a collocated VOR is as follows ?

A. In a period of 40 seconds the DME ident will be heard once on an audio frequency of 1350 Hz.
B. Every 30 seconds the DME ident will be repeated.
C. The VOR ident and the DME ident are the same and no difference can be heard.
D. The DME ident will repeat three times every period of 30 seconds.

VOR 97.

Two aircraft are located on (arbitrary) difference radials but at equal distances from a VOR station. Which
statement is true?

A. At a certain moment of time the phase of the reference signals is equal and the phases of the variable
signals is equal for both.
B. At a certain moment of time, both the phase of the reference signals and the phase of the variable
signals are equal for both aircraft.
C. At a certain moment of time, both the phase of the reference signals and the phase of the variable
signals are unequal for both aircraft.
 D. At a certain moment of time the phase of the reference signals is equal and the phases of the variable
signals is unequal for both.

VOR 98.

Two aircraft are located on the same radial but at (arbitrary) different distances from a VOR station. Which
statement is true?

A. At a certain moment of time the phase of the reference signals is equal and the phases of the variable
signals is unequal for both.
B. At a certain moment of time the phase of the reference signals is equal and the phases of the variable
signals is equal for both.
C. At a certain moment of time, both the phase of the reference signals and the phase of the variable
signals are equal for both aircraft.
D. At a certain moment of time, both the phase of the reference signals and the phase of the variable
signals are unequal for both aircraft.

VOR 99.

An aircraft has a magnetic heading of 290 degrees and is on VOR radial 280. Which value has to be selected on
the OBS to get a TO indication and the CDI centred?

A. 280
B. 290.
C. 100.
D. 110.

VOR 100.

Given : Aircraft position 34 15 N 098E, magnetic variation 28W, FL 280, PTC VOR/DME position 3612 N
098E, magnetic variation 13E. In order to read he most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from
his present position, the pilot must fly on which PTC Radial?

A. 193.
B. 167.
C. 332.
D. Aircraft will not receive DME information from PTC due to the line of sight rule.

VOR 101.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210 degrees. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5W and at the aircraft is
10W. According to the HIS in the diagram, the aircraft is on radial ?

A. 025 radial.
B. 205 radial.
C. 195 radial.
D. 195 radial.
VOR 102.

Unless otherwise specified a radial is ?

A. The magnetic great circle direction from the beacon.

B. The true great circle direction from the beacon.
C. The magnetic great circle direction to the beacon.
D. The true great circle direction to the beacon.

VOR 103.

On the RMI the tip of a VOR needle indicates 060. With the CRS set on 055 the indications on the HIS are?

A. To half-scale deflected to the left.

B. FROM half-scale deflected to the right.
C. FROM half-scale deflected to the left.
D. To half-scale deflected to the right.

VOR 104.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210 degrees. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5W and at the aircraft is
10W. According to the CDI in the diagram, the aircraft is on radial?

A. 205 radial.
B. 195 radial.
C. 015 radial.
D. 025 radial.

VOR 105.

An aircraft is on the 065 radial with a heading of 090M. The Course Reference Selector ICRSO is set on 240.
Which HSI in the diagram shows the correct indications ?

A. Diagram A.
B. Diagram B.
C. Diagram C.
D. Diagram D.

VOR 106.

Which statement is correct about the different types of VOR?

A. A TVOR has a limited range.

B. A VOT is located along an airway with the purpose to provide an in-flight check of the airborne
equipment.
C. A CVOR is primarily used for instrument approaches.
D. A DVOR is less accurate than a CVOR.
VOR 107.

A VOR and an NDB are located at the same position. Both the VOR and the ADF reading are displayed on the
RMI. The aircraft is tracking away from the beacons along the 090 radial. The magnetic variation is changing
rapidly. Which of the following is correct?

A. The direction of the VOR pointer will change, the direction of the ADF pointer will not change.
B. The direction of the ADF pointer will change, the direction of the VOR pointer will not change.
C. Both the direction of the ADF pointer and the direction of the VOR pointer will change.
D. Neither the direction of the ADF pointer nor the direction of the VOR pointer will change.

VOR 108.

An aircraft is flying on the 245 radial with a MH of 250 degrees. On the CDI the CRS is set to 060. Which of
the CDIs in the diagram shows the correct indications?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 109.

An aircraft is flying on the 170 radial with a MH of 315 degrees. On the CDI the CRS is set to 180. Which CDI
shows the correct indications?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 110.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210 degrees. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5Wand at the aircraft 10W.
Which VOR RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI shown in the diagram?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 11.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010 degrees. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10W and at the aircraft
12W. which VOR RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI shown in the diagram?

A. Figure D.
B. Figure A.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure B.
VOR 112.

An aircraft is flying on the 245 radial with a MH of 250 degrees. On the HIS the CRS is set to 060. Which HSI
shows the correct indications in the diagram ?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 113.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010 degrees. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10W and at the aircraft
12W. which VOR RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI in the diagram?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 114.

An aircraft is flying on the 050 radial with a MH of 250 degrees. On the HIS the CRS is set to 060. Which HIS
in the diagram shows the correct indications?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 115.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5W and at the aircraft it is 10W.
which VOR RBI corresponds to the indications on the HSI in the diagram?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 116.

An aircraft is flying with a MH of 010. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10W and at the aircraft it is 12W.
Which VOR RMI in the diagram corresponds to the indications on the VOR HSI ?

A. Figure B.
B. Figure A.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.
VOR 117.

An aircraft is flying on the 050 radial with a MH of 250. On the CDI the CRS is set to 060. Which CDI in the
diagram shows the correct indications?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 118.

An aircraft is flying on the 170 radial with a MH of 315. On the HSI the CRS is set to 180. Which HSI in the
diagram shows the correct indications?

A. Figure A.
B. Figure B.
C. Figure C.
D. Figure D.

VOR 119.

The three main components of VOR airborne equipment are ?

A. Receiver, Phase comparator, Range gates.

B. Display, Pulse generator, Phase comparator.
C. Receiver, Antenna, Display.
D. Demodulator, Antenna, CPU.

VOR 120.

In the VOR receiver the radial is determined by measurement of the ?

A. Time difference between the reception of the variable signal and the reference signal.
B. Doppler shift on the reference signal.
C. Phase of the variable signal.
D. Phase difference between the variable signal and the reference signal.

VOR 121.

On an RMI the font end of the VOR pointer indicates the ?

A. Radial.
B. Magnetic heading from the station.
C. Radial plus 180 degrees.
D. Magnetic bearing from the station.

VOR 122.

Which of the following statements about the scalloping (path deflection) of VOR radials, in relation to the
accuracy of navigation using a VOR/DME RNAV system is correct?
 A. Scalloping has a negative effect on the accuracy of navigation.
B. Scalloping has a positive effect on the accuracy of navigation.
C. Scalloping has no effect on the accuracy of navigation because the accuracy is independent of VOR or
DME measurements.
D. Scalloping has no effect on the accuracy of navigation because it only results in the movement of the
needle of the Course Deviation Indicator.

VOR 123.

TVOR is a?

A. Test VOR transmitting such a signal that the reference and variable signals are always sin phase.
B. High power VOR in the frequency used in the terminal area.
C. VOR with a limited range used in the terminal area.
D. Low power VOR in the frequency range 112 MHz to 118 MHz.

VOR 124

An aircraft is flying on a heading of 245 towards a VOR at FL300. The HIS displays a “selected course” of 255
with a TO indication. The variation at the VOR is 15E.
Variation at the aircraft is 16E. Compass deviation is +1. When the pilot keeps the CDI on the left inner dot on a
display with two dots on either side?

A. The VOR will be approached along the radial 070.

B. The VOR will be approached along the radial 080.
C. The aircraft will pass south of the VOR.
D. The aircraft will pass north of the VOR.

VOR 125.

Given : Aircraft position 52 09 S 024 E, magnetic variation 14W, L310. BIT VOR/DME position 54 42 S 024
E. Magnetic variation 14E. In order to read the most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from this
position, the pilot must follow which BIT radial?

A. 346 degrees.
B. 014 degrees.
C. 166 degrees.
D. 194 degrees.

VOR 126.

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10W and at the aircraft it is 12W.
which VOR RMI in the diagram shows the correct indications?

A. Figure C.
B. Figure A.
C. Figure B.
D. Figure D.
VOR 127.

You are flying along an airway, which is 10 nm wide (5 nm either side of the centerline). The distance to the
VOR/DME you are using is 100 nm. If you are on the airway boundary, how many dots deviation will the VOR
needle show if 1 dot represent 2 degrees?

A. 4.5.
B. 3.0.
C. 6.0.
D. 1.5.

VOR 128.

Which statement is true about the use of the Doppler VOR?

A. The Doppler effect is used to create a signal, which is received by the aircraft’s VOR receiver as a
frequency modulated signal.
B. The Doppler effect is used to create a signal which is received by the aircraft’s VOR receiver as an
amplitude modulated signal.
C. By using Doppler effect I is also possible to determine the aircraft’s approach speed to the VOR.
D. By using Doppler effect it is also possible to determine the range of the aircraft from the VOR. Station
more accurately.

VOR 129.

The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of :

A. 2.0 NM
B. 2.5 NM
C. 3.0 NM
D. 3.5 NM