Electric Charges and Fields Overview
Uploaded by
Sahana BhatElectric Charges and Fields Overview
Uploaded by
Sahana BhatELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
1. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, a glass rod is said to be charged
*a) positively b) negatively c) either positive or negative d) none
2. When the ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, the rod is said to be charged
a) Negatively *b) positively c) either positive or negative d) none
3. The concept of positive and negative charge was introduced by
a) Newton b) Maxplank *c) Benjamin franklin d) Faraday
4. The fundamental metjods of charging are ____
a) charging by friction b) charging by conduction
c) charging by induction *d) All the above
5. In charging by friction
*a) Law of conservation of charge holds good
b) Law of conservation of energy holds good
c)) Law of conservation of momentum holds good
d) None of the above
6. In charging by conduction , nature of charge acquired by the conductor.
a) is opposite as that of charging body *b) is same as that of charging body
c) both (a) and (b) d) nothing can be said
7. In charging by induction, nature of charge acquired by the conductor
*a) is opposite as that of charging body b) is same as that of charging body
c) either (a) or (b) d) none
8. When charge is given to an insulator
a) charges flows on its surface *b) charges remains to localized
c) charges enter into the body d) charges disappear
9. Coulomb’s law is applicable for
a) Two neutral bodies b) Any two bodies
*c) two point charges d) two insulators
10. When two point charges are take from vacuum to water, the force between them.
a) increases *b) decreases c) remains same d) becomes zero
11. The force between two point charges varies as
1 1
a) distance
2
*b) distance 2 c) distance d)
distance
12. Force between two point charges is
a) attractive b) repulsive
*c) atractive or repulsive d) both attractive and repulsive
13. Charge is
a) additive *b) cnserved c) quantised d) All the above
14. charge is a
*a) scalar b) vector c) tensor d) fundamental physical quantity
15. Gold leaf electroscope is used to detect
a) current *b) charge c) potential d) capacitance
16. S.I unit of permittivity is
*a) C 2 N 1m 2 b) C 2 Nm 2 c) Nm 2C 2 d) Nm 2C 2
1
17. The value of 4 is nearly
0
a) 8.1 10 12 b) 9 109 *c) 9 109 d) 3 108
18. Coulomb’s law follows
a) Faraday’s law *b) Newton’s 3rd law c) Newton’s 2nd law d) Newton’s 1st law
19. 1 coulomb =_________________ electrons
a) one b) 106 *c) 6.25 1018 d) 6.25 1020
1
20. S.I unit of charge is
a) farad b) ampere c) newton *d) coulomb
21. Charge on a body may be
2 2 10 5
a) e b) e *c) e d) e
3 3 2 2
22. When a body is negatively charged, its mass
*a) increases b) decreases c) remains same
d) may increases or decrease
23. Force between two point charged at some distance in vacuum is F. The force between the same
charged in a medium of dielectric constant k at the same distance is
a) KF *b)F/ K c) (K+1) F d) F/(K+1
24. The value of relative permittivity for metals is
a) zero b) one *c) infinity d) negative
26. Force experienced by a unit charge at a point is called ___________ at that point
a) Electric potential b) Electric current c) Electric, field lines *d) Electric field
27. Identify the wrong statement?
a) Electric field lines never intersect each other
*b) Electric field lines always forms closed loops
c) Electric field lines starts from positive charge and ends at negative charge
d) Electric field lines are normal to the conductors
28. Identify the correct representation of electric field lines
a) b)
*c) d)
29. Electric field lines due to an isolated negative charge are represented by
*a) b) c) d)
30. An electron released from rest in a uniform electric field moves
a) in a circular path
b) in a helical path
c) in a straight line along the direction of electric field
*d) none of the above
31. For a non - uniform electric field shown below
A C
B
D
a) E A ED b) E A EB *c) E A EC d) ED E A EB EC
2
32. S.I unit of electric dipole moment is
a) mC *b) Cm c) CM d)mc
33. An electric dipole placed in a non - uniform electric field experiences
a) only force b) only torque
*c) both force & torque d) neither force nor torque
34. Electric field due to a short dipole at a point on equatorial line is given by
1 2P 1 2P 1 P 1 P
a) E b) E c) E *d) E
4 0 r 3 4 0 r 3 4 0 r 3 4 0 r 3
35. The angle between dipole moment and electric field at a point on axial line is
*a) 00 b) 900 c) 1800 d) 2700
36. Electric flux through a surface is given by
a) E A *b) E A c) E A d) E A
37. The total electric flux through the given closed surface
q1 q2 q3 q4 q5 q4 q5 q1 q2 q3 q1
a) b) *c) d)
0 0 0 0
38. Electric flux is a
*a) scalar b) vector c) dimensionless quantity d) constant
39. Electric flux through a cube enclosing a dipole is
q 2q q
a) b) c) 2 *d) zero
0 0 0
40. Choose the correct option for the following
q
cube
sphere
a) cuve sphere b) sphere cube *c) cube sphere d) None
41. The electric flux through the cube is
q
q q q q
a) 16 *b) 8 c) 4 4) 2
0 0 0 0
3
42. Choose the correct option
q
a) 1 2 3 4 0 b) 1 2 0, 3 4
0
q q
*c) 1 2 , 3 4 0 d) 1 2 3 4
0 0
43. S.I unit of linear charge density is
a) cm 3 b) cm 2 *c) cm 1 4) cm
44. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled the flux
through surface is
a) increases four times b) reduced to half
c) doubled *d) remains same
45. The charge q is enclosed as shown below below, the electric flux is
q q q
q
A B C D
a) maximum in B b) minimum in D c) Minimum in C and D *d) Equal in all
46. Electric field due to an infinitely charged straight wire at a distance r is
1 1 1
*a) E b) E 2 c) E 3 d) E constant
r r r
47. Electric field inside a charged spherical shell is
1 q 1 q 1 q
*a) E 0 b) E 4 r 2 c) E 4 R 2 d) E 4 r 3
0 0 0
48. Variation of E and r for a charged spherical conductung shell is
E E E
E
a) *b) c) d)
r r r r
O O O O
49. The dielectric constant of metal is
a) 1 *b) c) 0 d) None of these
50. The unit of intensity of electric field is
*a) Newton / Coulomb b) Joule/ Coulomb c) Volt- metre d) Newton/ metre
51. Which of the following is deflected by electric field
a) X- rays b) rays c) Neutrons *d) particles
52. An electron is moving towards x-axis. An electric field is along y - direction then path of electron is
a) Circular b) Elliptical *c) Parabola d) None of these
53. A proton enters in an electric field with its velocity in the direction of the electric lines of force. Then
a) The path of the proton will be a circle b) The path of the proton will be a parabola
*c) The path of the proton will be a straight line d) The path of the proton will be helix
4
54. A region surrounding a stationary electric dipoles has
a) Magnetic field only *b)Electric field only
c)Both electric and magnetic fields d)No electric and magnetic fields
55. Gauss’s law in electrostatics should be invalid if
a)There were magnetic monopoles
*b)The inverse square law were not exactly true
c)The velocity of light were not a universal constant
d)None of these
56. A spherical conductor has the charge on it. Then total flux emitted through the gaussian surface drawn
around conductor will be
1
*a) (the charge enclosed by surface) b) 0 (charge enclosed by surface)
0
1
c) 4 (charge enclosed by surface) d) 0
0
57. Gauss’s law is true only if force due to a charge varies as
a) r 1 *b) r 2 c) r 3 d) r 4
58. A metallic sphere of radius R has a uniform distribution of electric charge on its surface. At a distance
x from its centre, for x > R, the electric field is directly proportional to
1 1
*a) b) c) x d) x 2
x2 x
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. A body can be charged by the method of __________. (A: Induction)
2. _______ is the simple apparatus with which the presence of electric charge on a body is detected
(A: Electroscope)
3. SI unit of linear charge density is ____________.(A: coulomb per metre)
4. The direction of electric field is ______ from the positive charge. (A: away)
5. The direction of electric field is ______ the negative charge. (A: towards)
6. Electric Field lines do not exist inside a ________.(A: conductor)
7. If (q1q2<0 ) then nature of force between charges is ________.(A: attractive)
8. SI unit of dipole moment is _____.(A: coulomb-metre)
________________________________________________________________________________________
2. ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
1. Work done in taking a charge q once round a circle of radius R is
a) positive b) Negative *c) zero d) none
2. Workdone in taking a charge q from point A to B is
q
a) W q VA VB *b) W q VB VA c) W V V d) zero
A B
3. Work done in taking a unit positive charge from infinity to a point without acceleration against electric
field is called _____________ at that point
a) Electric field b) Electric force *c) Electric potential d) Electric flux
4. Electrostatic force is a
*a) conservative force b) non - conservative force
c) Frictional force d) Restoring force
5. Electric potential due to a point charge varies with distance as
1 1
a) V r *b) V c) V r 2 d) V
r r2
5
6. Electric potential due to a short - dipole varies with distance as
1 1
a) V r b) V c) V r 2 *d) V 2
r r
7. Potential at any point on an equipotential surface is
a) increases with distance b) decreases with distance
*c) remain same d) nothing can be said
8. Work done in moving a charge from one point to another point on an equipotential surface is
*a) zero b) depends on the points c) depends on the path followed d) none
9. Equipotential surface due to a single point charge are
a) parallel planes b) concentric circles *c) concentric sphere d) of any shape
10. Choose the wrong statement / statements
(i) Equipotential can intersect each other
(ii) Direction of electric field is always parallel to the equipotential surfaces
a) (i) only b) (ii) only *c) both (i) and (ii) d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
11. The relation between electric field and electric potential is
dV dV dE dE
*a) E b) E c) E d) E
dx dx dx dx
12. Potential energy of two charges is given by
1 q1 q2 1 q1 q2 1 q1 q2 1 q1 q2
a) U *b) U c) U 4 d) U
4 0
2 2
4 0 r 2 4 0 r 0 r1 r2 r1 r2
13. Electric field near the surface of a charged conductor
2 4
*a) E nˆ b) E ˆ
n c) E nˆ d) E nˆ
0 2 0 0 0
14. Excess charge given to the conudctor resides
a) inside the conductor *b) on the surface of the conductor
c) outside the conductor d) at the centre of the conductor
15. The electric field inside the cavity of the conductor is always zero. This is known as_______
a) Magnetic shielding b) Magnetic coupling
*c) Electrostatic shielding d) Electrosttaic coupling
16. S.I unit of dielectric strength is
a) Vm 1 b) NC 1 c) Nm 2C 2 *d) both (a) and (b)
17. The correct expression for charge on a conductor
C V2 V
*a) Q CV b) Q c) Q d) Q
V C C
18. Capacitance of a conductor depends on
*a) size and shape of the conductor b) charge on the conductor
c) potential of the conductor d) all the above
19. Capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius R is air is
1 Q 1 1
a) C 4 R *b) C 4 0 R c) C 4 R d) C 4 R
0 0 0
20. Capacitance of earth is nearly
*a) 711 F b) 791 F c) 989 F d) 919 F
21. A system of two conductor separated by a dielectric medium is called
a) resistor *b) Capacitor c) inductor d) Oscillator
6
22. Electrical symbol for variable capacitor is
a) b) *c) d)
23. The electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is
a) E 4 b) E 2 *c) E d) zero
0 0 0
24. Electric field outside the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
a) E 4 b) E 4 c) E *d) zero
0 0 0
25. Electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capaitor is
*a) uniform b) non - uniform c) E = 0 d) None
26. The bending electric field lines at the edge of parallel plate capacitor is called_____________
a) plate effect b) line effect *c) edge effect d) plane effect
27. Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is given by
d 0 A d A
a) C 0 *b) C c) C A d) C d
A d 0 0
28. If we increase distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor then its capacitance
a) increases *b) decreases c) remains constant d) none
29. If we increase charge on the plates of a parallel plate capacitor then its capacitance
a) increases b) decreases *c) remains constant d) none
30. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant is iserted into a parallel plate capacitor then its capacitance
*a) increases by K b) decreases by K c) increases by K 2 d) decrease by K 2
31. In series combination of capacitors ____________ on each capacitor remains same
a) potential b) capacitance *c) charge d) force
32. If n identical capacitors are connected in series, then their equivalent capacitance is
C C
a) nC *b) c) n 1 C d) n 1
n
33. In parallel combination of capacitors,
a) charge on each capacitor is same b) P.d across each capacitor is same
c) total capaitance increases *d) Both (b) and (c)
34. In nidentical capacitors are connected in parallel then their equivalent capacitance is,
C
*a) nC b) c) n 1 C d) n 2 C
n
35. Energy stored in the capacitor is given by
1 1 Q2 1
a) U CV 2 b) U c) U QV *d) All the above
2 2 C 2
36. Energy density between the plates of parallel plate capacitor is given by
1 1 1 1
*a) 0 E2 b) 0 CE
2
c) 0 CV
2
d) 0 Q
2
2 2 2 2
37. ‘A’ represents a molecule in which centers of positive and negative charges coincide. ‘B’ represents a
molecule in which centers of positive and negative charges are separate. Then, which of the following
is TRUE for A and B?
a) A and B are both polar molecules
b) A and B are both non-polar molecules
c) A is a polar molecule, B is a non-polar molecule
*d) A is a non-polar molecule, B is a polar molecule
7
38. An example for polar molecule is:
a) Oxygen (O2) molecule b) Nitrogen (N2) molecule
c) Hydrogen (H2) molecule *d) Water (H2O) molecule
39. Capacitors are used to
a) Destroy electric charges *b) Store electric charges
c) Produce electric charges d) Produce high potential differences
40. For three capacitors connected in series, which of the following formulae is INCORRECT?
a) Vs V1 V2 V3 b) Qs Q1 Q2 Q3
*c) C s C1C2C3 / C1 C2 C3 d) C s C1C2C3 / C1C2 C2C3 C3C1
____________________________________________________________________________________________
3. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. S.I unit of electric current is
a) coulomb b) henry c) farad *d) ampere
2. Current is a _______________ quantity
*a) scalar b) vector c) tensot d) none
3. The current at points a,b & c are I a , I b & I c respectively for the following diagram. choose the
current option.
b c
a Ic
Ia Ib
a) I a I b I c b) I a I b I c *c) I a I b I c d) I a I b I c
4. The net charge of a current carrying conductor is
a) positive b) negative *c) zero d) can not be determined.
5. The direction of convectional current is along
*a) direction of flow of positive charges
b) direction of flow of negative charges
c) direction opposite to the flow of positive chrages
d) current has no direction, since it is a scalar
6. Even though current has direction , it is a scalar. The reason is
a) it obeys laws of vector addition
*b) it does not obeys laws of vector addition
c) it some time obeys and some times does not obeys laws of vector addition
d) current has dual nature
7. Match the followings
Substances charge carries
A) Metal p) positive ions & free electrons
B) Liquid electrolytes q) Free electrons
C) Gases r) positive ions & negative ions
D) semiconductors s) Free electrons & holes
a) A p, B s, C q, D r b) A r , B q, C p, D s
*c) A q, B r , C p, D s d) A s, B p, C q, D r
8. The V - I graph for ohmic devices is
V V
V V
a) *b) c) d)
I I I
O O O O I
8
9. The slope of the flowing graph gives
V
O I
1
a) potential difference b) current *c) resistance d)
resistance
10. The slope of the following graph gives
V
O I
1
a) potential difference b) current c) resistance *d)
resistance
11. Ohmic device among the following
a) semiconductor b) Transistor *c) resistor d) thermistor
12. The expression for drift velocity is
eEm e eE mE
a) Vd b) Vd *c) Vd d) Vd
m m e
13. The order of drift velocity is about
*a) 104 ms 1 b) 103 ms 1 c) 103 ms 1 d) 104 ms 1
14. Choose the correct option Vd drift velocity
Vd2
Vd1
i i2
A2
A1
*a) Vd1 Vd2 b) Vd1 Vd2 c) Vd1 Vd2 d) Vd1 Vd2
15. Drift velocity of free electrons depends on,
a) nature of material b) electric field c) temperature *d) all the above
16. For the fig, choose the correct option,
A2
A1
J2
J1
J1 J 2
*a) J1 A1 J 2 A2 b) J1 A1 J 2 A2 c) J1 A1 J 2 A2 d) A A
1 2
9
17. Choose the correct option
1) electric field inside a charged conductor is zero
2) electric field inside a current carrying conductor zero
a) both (1) & (2) are correct *b) (1) is correct (2) is wrong
c) both (1) & (2) are wrong d) (1) is wrong (2) is correct
18. With the increase in temperature, the drift velocity of free electrons
a) increases *b) decreases c) remains same d) nothing can be said
19. S.I unit of electron mobility is
a) m 2 / volt / sec b) m 2 / volt sec c) m 2 / volt *d) m 2 / volt
20. Resistance of conductor depends on
a) length b) Area of cross- section c) temperature *d) all the above
21. Resistivity of a material depends on
a) length b) area of cross- section c) both (a) & (b) *d) none
22. S.I unit of resistivity is
*a) m b) m 1 c) d) ampere
23. Reciprocal of resistance is called
a) impedance b) reactance c) admittance *d) conductance
24. The resistance of the following conductor is
b i
b
l
l h b bh
*a) R b) R c) R d) R
bh bl hl l
25. Resistance of a carbon resistor is 12 103 10% . Its fourth color band is
a) Gold *b) silver c) no color d) red
26. The third colour band on a carbon resistor represents
a) Tolerance b) resistance value c) Percentage variation *d) Decimal multiplier
27. In parallel combination of resistors, the total resistance
a) increases *b) decreases c) remains same d) mass increase or decrease
28. For the following circuit.
I1 R1
I R2 I
I2
I3
R3
a) I1 I 2 I 3 b) I1 I 2 I 3 c) I1 R1 I 2 R2 I 3 R *d) both (b) and (c)
29. For the following circuit the ratio V1 : V2 : V3 is
R1 R2 R3
V1 V2 V3
1 1 1
a) R : R : R *b) R1 : R2 : R3 c) [Link] d) 1: 2 : 3
1 2 3
10
30. When the length & area of cross - section both are doubled the its resistance will
a) become half b) be doubled *c) remain same d) becomes four times
31. The device which c onverts chemical energy into electrical energy is
a) generator *b) cell c) transformer d) dynamo
32. The maximum P.d between two terminals of a cell in an open circuit is
a) terminal P.d b) maximum P.d *c) electromative force d) open P.d
33. For a charging cell the correct relation is
i
*a) V ir b) V ir c) V d) V r i
r
34. For a discharging cell
*a) V b) V c) V d) none
35. For a discharging cell terminal [Link] always less than
a) external resistance *b) internal resistance c) temperature change d) skin effect
36. The current through a simple circuit is given by
R r
a) i b) i c) i *d) i
Rr Rr Rr Rr
37. Power transferred in a network is maximum if
a) R r *b) R r c) R r d) none
38. If n identical cells are connected in parallel , then equivalent emf and internal resistance are
r r
a) n , nr b) , *c) , d) , nr
n n n
39. If n identical cells are connected in series, then equivalent emf and internal resistance are
r r
*a) n , nr b) , c) , d) , nr
n n n
40. For two cells connected in parallel,
1r1 2 r2 1r1 2 r2 1r2 2 r1 1r2 2 r1
a) eff r1 r2 b) eff r1 r2 *c) eff r1 r2 d) eff r1 r2
41. The significance of KCL is, law of conservation of
a) mass b) energy *c) charge d) momentum
42. The significane of KVL is, law of conservation of
a)mass *b) energy c) charge d) momentum
43. The wheatstone network is balanced if
a) current through the circuit is zero b) current through the circuit is maximum
*c) current through the galvanometer is zero d) current through the galvanometer is maximum
44. Meter bridge works on the principle of
*a) Balance wheatstone’s bridge b) Balanced Wien’s bridge
c) Balanced Kelvin’s bridge d) Balanced Maxwell’s bridge
45. If the temperature of resistor connected in the left gap of meter ridge is increased, then balancing point
a) shift towards left *b) shifts towards right
c) does not change d) both (a) & (b)
46. Use of potentiolmeter is
a) to measure potential drop b) to compare emf two cells
c) to determine internal reisstance of a cell *d) all the above
47. S.I unit of electric power
a) joule *b) watt c) kelvin d) ohm
48. The electric power is given by
V2
a) P b) P I 2 R c) P I 2 R *d) All the above
R
11
49. The commercial unit of power is
a) watt *b) Kwh c) Mw d) GW
50. Ohm's law is true
*a) For metallic conductors at low temperature
b) For metallic conductors at high temperature
c) For electrolytes when current passes through them
d) For diode when current flows
51. The example for non-ohmic resistance is
a) Copper wire b) Carbon resistance *c) Diode d) Tungsten wire
__________________________________________________________________________________________
4. MOVING CHARGES & MAGNETISM
1. A charge at rest produces
*a) only electric field b) only magnetic field c) both electric & magnetic field d) none
2. A moving charge produces
a) electric field b) magnetic field *c) both electric & magnetic field d) none
3. Force on a charge moving in a magnetic field is
*a) F q B
b) F q E B
c) F q P E
d) F q M B
4. Magnetic force on a moving charge is maximum when the angle between and B is
a) 00 b) 1800 *c) 900 d) 3600
5. When a charged particle moves perpendicular to the magnetic field, it follows _____path
a) straight line *b) circular c) elliptical d) helical
6. The radius of the circular path followed by a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by
mV 2 qB qB mv
a) r b) r c) r *d) r
qB mV 2
m qB
7. A compass needle is placed above a straight conducting wire. If a current passes through the
conducting wire from south to north . Then deflection of the north pole of the compass __________
*a) is towards west b) is towards east c) is towards north d) is towards south
8. Lorentz force is given by
a) F q E B b) F q B E *c) F q E B d) F q B E
9. Velocity selector condition is
E B mE mB
*a) b) c) d)
B E B E
10. Time period of revolution of a charged particle in a magnetic field is independent of _____
a) mass b) charge c) magnetic field strength *d) velocity
11. Kinetic energy of a charged particle revolving in a magnetic field is
1 q 2 B 2 m2 1 q2 B2 R2 1 q2 B2 R2 1 q2
a) K b) K *c) K d) K
2 R 2 m2 2 m 2m
12. A current carrying conductor experiences a force in a magnetic field. This is known as ______
a) Magnetic effect of electric current
*b) Mechanical effect of electric current
c) Electric effect of magnetic field
d) None of the above
13. Biot -Savart’s law is given by the expression
0 Idl cos 0 Idl sin 0 Idl sin 2 0 Idl sin
a) dB *b) dB c) dB d) dB
4 r 2
4 r 2
4 r 2
4 r3
14. Magnetic field lines due to a straight current carrying conductor are
a) straight lines b) Elliptical *c) circular d) parabolic
12
15. Magnetic field due to a current carrying straight conductor at a distance r from its centre on axial line
is
0 2 I 0 I 0 I
a) B b) B c) B *d)Zero
4 r 4 r 4 r 2
16. A current carrying conductor produces
a) Electric field around it *b) Magnetic field around it
c) Both electric and magnetic fields around it d) none
17. Magnetic field due to a current coil at a point on its axis given by
0 2 Ir 2 0 2 Ir 2
B B
a) 4 r 2 x 2 3/2 *b) 4 r 2 x 2 3/2
0 2 Ir 0 2 I
B B
c) 4 r 2 x 2 3/2 d) 4 r 2 x 2 3/2
18. The magnetic field due to a circular current coil at its centre is given by ______
0 2 I 0 2 I 0 2 I 0 I
*a) B b) B c) B d) B
4 r 4 r 2
4 r 3 4 r
19. Force between two parallel current carrying conductors is given by
F 0 2 I1 I 2 F 0 I1 I 2 F 0 2 I1 I 2 F 0 I1 I 2
*a) b) c) d)
l 4 d l 4 d l 4 d 2
l 4 d 2
20. If two parallel straight conductors carrying current in the same direction, then nature of force between
them is
*a) Attractive b) repulsive c) both attractive & repulsive d) None
21. Magnetic dipole moment of a coil of area A and carrying I is given by
*a) M IA b) M I 2 A c) M NIA2 d) M NI 2 A
22. The value of Bohr magnetion is
a) 9.1 10 31 Am 2 *b) 9.27 10 24 Am 2 c) 9.1 10 28 Am 2 d) 9.27 10 28 Am 2
23. The value of gyromagnetic ratio for electron is
a) 8.8 1012 C kg 1 *b) 8.8 1010 C kg 1 c) 8.8 108 C kg 1 d) 8.8 106 C kg 1
24. Ampere’s circuital law is mahematically given by
1 1
a) [Link] 0 I e b) [Link] I e *c) [Link] 0 I e d) [Link] I e
0
0
25. The correct expression for the following fig. is
a) [Link] i i i
0 1 3 5 b) [Link] i i i
0 1 5 3
c) [Link] i i i
0 2 4 6 *d) [Link] i i i
0 2 4 6
26. The magnetic field due to a current carrying straight infinite conductor at a point ‘r’ m from it is
0 i 0 2i 0 i 0 2i
a) B *b) B c) B d) B
4 r 4 r 4 2r 4 r 2
13
27. The variation of magnetic field from the axis of a cylindrical conductor to any point is represented by
the graph
B B B B
a) b) c) d)
r r r r
O R O R O R O R
28. The magnetic field due to an ideal long solenoid inside it is
a) uniform b) strong c) along the axis of solenoid *d) all the above
29. The magnetic field due to an ideal long solenoid out side it is
a) strong b) uniform c) along the axis of solenoid *d) zero
30. The magnetic field due to an ideal long solenoid is given by
0
a) B 0i *b) B 0 ni c) B ni d) B 0 n2i
4
31. The magnetic field due to a toroid inside it is given by
0
*a) B 0 ni b) B ni c) B 0 n 2i d) B 0 ni 2
4
32. A current carrying coil placed in a uniform magnetic field experiences
*a) only torque b) only force c) both torque & force d) none
33. The torque acting on a coil in a uniform magnetic field is given by
a) MB cos *b) MB sin c) MB tan d) MB cot
34. The torque acting on a coil in a uniform magnetic field is maximum when
*a) plane of the coil is parallel to magnetic field
b) plane of the coil is making an angle of 1500 with magnetic field
c) plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
d) plane of the coil is making an angle 900 with magnetic field
35. Moving coil galvanometer works on the principle of
a) A current carrying coil experiences a force in a uniform magnetic field
*b) A current carrying coil experiences a torque in a uniform magnetic field
c) A current carrying coil experiences a frictional force in a uniform magnetic field
d) none of the above
36. In a moving coil galvanometer the magnetic pole pieces are made concave because
a) To produce uniform magnetic field
b) To produce circular magnetic field
*c) To produce radial magnetic field
d) To produce both electric and magnetic field
37. Current sensitivity of a galvanometer depends on
a) Number of turns b) Area of the coil c) couple per unit twist *d) All the above
38. Voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer is independent of
*a) Number of turns b) Area of the coil
c) Couple per unit twist d) Strength of magnetic field
39. Ammeter is used to measure
a) potential difference *b) current c) Electric power d) speed of a body
40. Resistance of an ideal ammeter is
*a) zero b) Infinity c) finite d) 100
41. How an ammeter could be connected in a circuit to measure electric current
*a) series b) parallel c) perpendicular d) at 300
14
42. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting
a) A high resistance in series to it b) A low resistance in series to it
c) A high resistance in parallel to it *d) A low resistance in parallel to it
43. A device used to measure potential difference between two points in a circuit is
a) Ammeter *b) voltmeter c) galvanometer d) power meter
44. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
a) zero *b) infinity c) low resistance d)100
45. How a voltmeter could be connected in a circuit to measure potential difference.
a) series *b) parallel c) perpendicular d)at 450
46. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting
*a) A high resistance in series to it b) A low resistance in series to it
c) A high resistance in parallel to it d) A low resistance in parallel to it
_______________________________________________________________________________________
5. MAGNETISM AND MATTER
1. Magnetic field lines _____________
*a) are always closed loops b) are always open loops
c) intersect each other d) do not exist
2. Direction of magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet is always from
a) East pole to west pole *b) South pole to north pole
c) West pole to east pole d) North pole to south pole
3. By cutting a bar magnet , its magnetic moment
a) increase
*b) decreases
c) remains same
d) Increases or decreases depending on how we cut the magnet
4. If we bend a bar magnet its dipole moment decreases it is because
a) pole strength decreases b) pole strength increases
c) magnetic length increases *d) magnetic length decreases
5. The net magnetic dipole moment is maximum for
a) N S S N *b) N S N S
S
S N
c) d) N
N S 600
N S
6. Dimensional formula for magnetic dipole moment is
*a) M 0 L2T 0 A1 b) M 0 L1T 0 A2 c) M 0 L2T 0 A2 d) M 0 L0T 1 A1
7. The correct representation of magnetic field lines :
a) S N *b) N S
c) S N d) N S
15
8. The time period of oscillation of a bar magent in a magnetic field is given by
M IB I MB
a) T b) T *c) T d) T
IB M MB I
9. Torque acting on a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field is given by
*a) M B b) B M c) M . B d) B . M
10. Magnetic dipole moment for a circular current loop of radius r is
i
a) M ir *b) M ir c) M d) M 0
r2
11. S.I unit of magnetic flux is
a) tesla b) gauss *c) Weber d) maxwell
12. Relative permeability of free space is
a) zero *b) one c) less than one d) more than one
13. Maathematic expresison for Gauss’s law in magnetism
1 m
*a) [Link] 0 b) [Link] c) [Link] 0 I d) [Link]
0 0
14. Earth’s magentism is best explained by
a) Rotational effect *b) Dynamo effect c) Meissner’s effect d) Curie effect
15. Angle of declination at equator is
a) 00 b) 900 *c) 17 0 d) 450
16. Angle of dip at equator is
*a) 00 b) 900 c) 450 d)1800
17. Angle of dip at poles is
a) 00 *b) 900 c) 450 d) 450
18. The line joining the places of equal angle of dip is
*a) Isoclinic lines b) Aclinic lines c) Isogonic lines d) Agonic lines
19. Magnetic susceptibility is negative for ___________ materials
*a) Diamagnetic b) Paramagnetic c) Ferromagnetic d) Ferrimagnetic
20. The relation between relative permeability and magnetic susceptibility is
1
a) r 1 m *b) r 1 m c) r m 1 d) r
m
21. Perfect diamagnetism is shown by
a) conductors b) insulators c) semiconductor *d) super conductors
22. The graph for curies law for paramagnetic materials is
a) b) *c) f)
T T T T
O O
O O Tc
23. The graph for curies law for ferromagnetic materials
a) * b) c) d)
T T T T
O O Tc O O
16
24. Identify the paramagnetic material
*a)Aluminium b) Iron c) Cobalt d) Nickel
25. If the susceptibility of ida, para and ferromagnetic materials are d , p and d then
*a) d p f b) p d f c) d f p d) f d p
26. When a ferromagnetic material is heated to temperature above its curie temperature the material
*a) Remains ferromagnetic b) Behaves like diamagnetic material
c) Behaves like paramagnetic material d) is permanently magnetised
27. The material which shows the following effect when placed in a uniform magnetic field is
a) Diamagnetic materials b) Paramagnetic materials
c) Ferro magnetic materials *d) super conductor
28. The material which shows the following effect when placed in a uniform magnetic field is
a) Diamagnetic materials b) Paramagnetic materials
*c) Ferro magnetic materials d) super conductors
29. The variation of magnetic susceptilibility with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
represented by
a) b) *c) d)
T T T T
O O O O Tc
30. The magnetic induction left in the ferro magnetic material even when the magnetic intensity is zero is
called
a) Retentivity b) Remanence c) Residual magnetic field *d) All the above
31. The materials used for making permanent magnets should have
a) High retentivity b) High permeability
c) High coercivity *d) All the above
32. The core of teh electromagnets are made of ferro magnetic material which have
a) High permeability b) High retentivity
c) Low retentivity *d) Both (a) and (c)
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1.
The direction of magnetic dipole moment M ) of a magnet is from …….. inside the magnet.
2. In the northern hemisphere, magnetic lines of force due to earth’s field points……….
3. The net magnetic flux through a closed surface is……..
4. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field exists everywhere except at…………
17
5. The materials which develop feeble magnetization in the direction of the magnetizing field are
called………. Surface
6. The susceptibility of a ……….substance is independent of magnetizing field and temperature.
7. The phenomenon of exhibiting diamagnetic property by the superconductors is called………
(1. South and North 2. Towards earth 3. zero 4 . Magnetic equator
5. Paramagnetic 6. Diamagnetic 7. Meisner effect)
________________________________________________________________________________________
6. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. The phenomenon in which an emf is induced in the coil due to the variation of magnetic flux linking the
coil is called
*a) self induction b) Mutual induction
c) Electromagnetic induction d) Eddy current
2. Acocridng to Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induciton the induced emf is given by
dI dL d dV
a) b) *c) d)
dt dt dt dx
3. Lenz’s law is based on
a) Law of conservation of charge
*b) Law of conservation of energy
c) Law of conservation of linear momentum
d) Law of conservation of angular momentum
4. Induced emf always
*a) Opposes the change in magnetic flux
b) Supports the change in magnetic flux
c) Sometimes opposes & some time supports the change in magnetic flux
d) None
5. The direction of induced current in the following case is
rear side
S N
a) Clockwise *b) Anti- clockwise
c) No current is induced d) Nothing can be said
6. Magnetic flux through a surface is given by
*a) B B. A b) B B A c) B BA sin d) B BA tan
7. Motional emf is given by
*a) Blv b) B c) Bl d) l
8. When an open loop moves through a uniform magnetic field 0 then
a) a current induces *b) An emf induces
c) both emf and current induced d) none
9. When a disc of radius is rotating in a uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the
magnetic field, then emf induced between the centre of the disc and a point on its circumference is
given by
1 1
a) B r 2 *b) B r 2 c) B r d) Br
2 2
10. The induced currents in the bulk pieces of conductors when they are subjected to charging magnetic
flux are called
a) AC current b) DC currents *c) Eddy currents d)Fluctuating current
18
11. Induction furnace works on the production of
*a) Eddy current b) Pressure variation
c) change in kinetic energy d) change in momentum
12. S.I unit of self induction is
a) Weber b) Farad *c) Henry d) Maxwell
13. Emf induced in an inductor is given by
d dI dV dq
*a) L b) L c) L d) L
dt dt dx dt
14. Energy stored in the inductor is given by
1 1 Q2 1 2 1
a) U CV b) U *c) U d) U
2
LI LQ 2
2 2 C 2 2
15. Energy stored in an inductor is in the form of
a) Mechanical energy *b) Magnetic potential energy
c) Electric potential energy d) Kinetic energy
16. Magnetic energy density is given by
B2 2B 2 0 0
*a) u b) u c) u B2 d) u B
2 0 0 2 4
17. Self - inductance of solenoid is given by
0 n 2 r 2 0 n1n2 r 2
*a) L b) L c) L 0 n 2 r 2l d) L 0 n1n2 r 2l
l l
18. Mutual - inductance of two co- axial solenoids of same is given by
0n1n2 r 2 0n1n2 r 2 0 n1n2 r 2
*a) M 0 n1n2 r l 2
b) M c) M d) M l1l2
l l2
19. AC generator converts
a) chemical energy into electrical energy b) magnetic energy into electrical energy
*c) mechanical energy into electrical energy d) solar energy into electrical energy
20. AC generator works on the principle of
a) Electromagnetic b) Self - induction c) Mutual indution d) Electrostatic shielding
21. Induce emf in a coil depends on
a) Area of the loop b) No. of turn in the coil
c) Rate of change of magnetic flux *d) all the above
22. Lenz’s law gives
*a) polarity of induced emf b) magnitude of induced emf
c) both polarity and magnitude of induced emf d) none of the above
23. If M 12 is the mutual inductance of coil 1 due to coil 2 and M 21 is the mutual inductance of coil 2 due
to coil 1 if r1 r2 the coils are of same length and co -axial , then
a) M 12 M 21 b) M 12 M 21 *c) M 12 M 21 d) None
24. The peak emf induced in an AC generator is given by
*a) 0 NBA b) 0 INBA c) 0 BAN d) 0 MBA
25. In the coil magnet experiment, the deflection in the galvanometer is larger when,
a. A Coil moves faster towards or away from the magnet.
b. Magnet moves faster towards or away from the coil.
a) a only. b) b only. *c) Both a and b . d) None of the above.
26. Self-inductance plays the role of.
*a) Inertia. b) Impedance. c) Mutual inductance. d) None of the above.
_________________________________________________________________________________________
19
7. ALTERNATE CURRENT
1. Identify the AC waveform
V,I
V,I
a) O
t
b) O
t
V,I
O t
c) *d) All the above
2. AC current is
a) unidirectional *b) Bidirectioanl c) Multidirectional d) Has no direction
3. RMS current is given by
2 I0 2I 0
a) I rms 2 I 0 b) I rms *c) I rms d) I rms
I0 2
4. Mean AC current is given by
2I0 2 2I 0 I0
*a) I mean b) I mean I c) I mean d) I mean
0 2
5. The voltages of domestic AC is 230 V. It represents
a) Mean voltage b) Peak voltage
c) Root mean voltage *d) Root mean square voltage
6. In pure resistor the voltgae and currents
*a) are in phase b) are out of phase c) differ by d) differ by
2 4
7. The waveforms of AC voltage and AC current in a pure resistor is given by
V,I
V,I
t
a) O t
b) O
V,I V,I
V
I
O t t
*c) d) O
I
8. When AC voltage is applied to a pure inductor then
a) current and voltage are in same phase b) current leads the voltage by 900
*c) current lags the voltage by 900 d) current does not flow
20
9. When AC voltage is applied to a pure capacitor, then
a) the current and voltages are in same phase *b) the current leads the voltage by
2
c) the current lags the voltage by d) the current leads the voltage by
2 4
10. Alternating current can not be measured by DC ammeter because
a) AC can not pass through DC ammeter *b) Average value of complete cycle is zero
c) AC is virtual d) AC changes its direction
11. The variation of capacitive reactance with frequency is best represented by
XC XC
XC XC
a) b) *c) d)
f f f f
O O O O
12. The variation of resistance with frequency is best represented by
R R
R
R
*a) b) c) d)
f f f
O f O
O O
13. The variation of inductive reactance with frequency is best represented by
XL XL XL
XL
a) *b) c) d)
f f
f O f
O O O
14. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactances are respectively given by
1 1 1 1
a) , C b) C , *c) L, d) ,L
L L C C
15. Frequency of AC in India is
a)60 Hz *b) 50 Hz c) 40 Hz d) 70 Hz
16. The total opposition offered by series LCR circuit to the flow of AC current through it is called
a) Reactance b) Admittance *c) Impedance d) Resistance
17. Impedance of series LCR circuit is given by
a) Z R 2 X C2 X L2 b) Z R 2 X L2 X C2
c) Z R X C X L *d) Z R X C X L
2
18. The reciprocal of impedance is called
a) Reactance *b) Admittance c) Resistance d) Acceptance
19. The voltage across series LCR circuit is given by
a) V VR2 VL2 VC2 b) V VR2 VL2 VC2
*c) V VR2 VL VC d) V VR VL VC
2
21
20. In series LCR circuit if X L X C , then
a) current and voltages are in same phase b) current leads the voltage by same angle
*c) current lags the voltage by same angle d) nothing can be said, since data is insufficient
21. In series LCRcircuit if X L X C , then
a) current and voltages are in same phase *b) current leads the voltage by same angle
c) current lags the voltage by same angle d) nothing can be said, since data is insufficient
22. In series LCR circuit if X L X C , then
*a) current and voltages are in same phase b) current leads the voltage by
2
c) current lags the voltage by d) Nothing can be said, since the data is insufficient
2
23. In series LCR circuit, the phase angle between the current and voltage is given by
XC X L XC X L
a) tan *b) tan
Z R
Z R
c) tan X X d) tan X X
C L C L
24. In series LCR circuit the variation of impedance with frequency is given by
Z Z
Z Z
Z
a) b) *c) d) 2
O 0 O 1 2 O O
0 0
25. For the given series LCR circuit, select the correct of
L R
VL VR
VC
i
V V0 sin t
a) VL iL b) VC iC *c) VR iR d)All the above
26. Identify the correct option for the series LCR circuit at resistance
a) current is maximum b) power factor is unity
c) phase difference between current voltage is zero
*d) all the above
27. power factor is given by
R R Z Z
*a) cos b) sin c) cos d) sin
Z Z R R
28. Powe factor for a pure resistance is
*a) 1 b) 0 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
29. Power factor for a pure capacitor is
a) 1 *b) 0 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
22
30. For series LCR circuit, the resonant frequency is given by ( in rad s 1 )
1 1
a) 0 LC b) 0 *c) 0
d) 0 2 LC
2 LC LC
31. In series LCR circuit, the variation of current of current with frequency is given by
i i i i
*a) b) c) d)
O O O O
0 0 0 0
32. In series LCR circuit , the resonant frequency is independent of
a) inductance b) capacitance *c) resistance d) none
33. Power dissipated through AC circuit is given by
a) P Vrms I rms b) P V0 I 0 c) P V0 I 0 cos *d) P Vrms I rms cos
34. The variation of power dissipated in AC circuit with frequency is represented by
P P
P P
P0 P0 P0 P0
2 2 2 2
a) *b) c) d)
O O
1 0 2
O
1 0 2 1 0 2 O
1 0 2
35. The difference between half - power frequencies is called
a) power width b) power band *c) band width d) frequency
36. The ratio of resonant frequency to the band width is called
a) P - factor *b) Q- factor c) R- factor d) S- factor
37. Quality factor is given by
0 L 1 1 L
a) Q b) Q CR c) Q *d) All the above
R 0 R C
38. S.I unit of quality factor is
a) rads 1 b) rad c) m *d) Has no unit
39. Wattless current is given by
a) I rms cos *b) I rms sin c) I rms tan d) I rms cot
40. For the following figure, At resonance
L R
VL VR
VC
i
V V0 sin t
*a) VL VC b) VL VR c) VC VR d) All the above
41. The device used to increase or decrease AC voltage is
a) transistor b) Rectifier *c) transformer d) general
42. Transformer works on the principle of
a) self - induction *b) mutual - induction c) Alternating current d) direct current
23
43. Circuit symbol for transformer is
a) b) c) *d)
44. Transformers are used in
a) DC circuit only *b) AC circuit only
c) Both AC & DC circuits d) Integrated circuits
45. For step- down transformer
*a) N S N P b) N S N P c) N S N P d) None
46. For step - up transformer
a) N S N P *b) N S N P c) N S N P d) None
47. For an ideal transformer, efficiency is
a) 100% b) 100% *c) 100% d) 99%
48. For a real transformer efficiency is
a) 100% *b) 100% c) 100% d) None
49. To increase AC voltage of 220 V to 480 V, the transformer to be used is
a) step- down transformer b) step-up transformer
c) sit-down transformer d) stand up transformer
50. For an ideal transformer
VS N S VS N P VS N S VS N P
*a) V N b) V N c) V N d) V N
P P P S P P P S
51. For an ideal transformer
IS NS IS NP IS NS IS NP
a) I N *b) I N c) I N d) I N
P P P S P P P S
52. When the frequency of AC is doubled, the impedance of an LCR circuited
a) Is doubled *b) increase c) Decreases d) is halved
53. A metal ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the
axis of the ring .the acceleration of the falling magnet is.
a) more than g b)equal to g
*c) less than g d) depends on the diameter of the ring and length of the magnet
________________________________________________________________________________________
8. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
1. A velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is
a) 3 10 8 ms 1 *b) 3 108 ms 1 c) 3 108 kms 1 d) 3 108 kms 1
2. Maxwell in his famous equation of electromagnetism introduced the concept of
a)AC current *b) displacement current c) DC current d) impedance
3. One of the inconsistencies of ampere’s circuital law
a) Fails to determine magnetic field to conduction current
*b) Fails to determine magnetic field due to displacement current
c) Fails to explain both (A) and (B)
d) None of these
4. Which of the following rays is not an electromagnetic wave
a) X rays b) rays c) rays *d) heat rays
5. The part of the spectrum of the electromagnetic radiation used to cook food is
a) UV- rays b) cosmic rays c) rays *d) microwaves
24
6. The wave used by artificial satellites for communication is
*a) Microwaves b) infrared waves c) radio waves d)x-rays
7. Which of the electromagnetic waves has smallest wavelength
a) X-rays b) microwave c) radio waves *d)x-rays
8. The decreasing order in wavelength in this electromagnetic wave is , Infrared, microwave, UV rays
and gamma rays is
*a) Microwave, Infrared, Ultraviolet, Gamma rays
b) Infrared, Microwave, Ultraviolet, Gamma rays
c) Gamma, Infrared, Microwave, Ultraviolet rays
d) Infrared, Gamma, Microwave, Ultraviolet rays
9. The ultra-high frequency band of radio waves in electromagnetic wave is used as in
a) television waves *b) cellular phone communication
c) commercial FM radio d) both (A) and (C)
10. The quantity 0 0 represents
*a) Inverse of speed of light in vacuum b) speed of light
c) speed of sound d) Speed of electromagnetic wave
11. Which radiation is used in the treatment of muscle pains
a) Infrared rays b) Ultraviolet rays *c) microwave d) X-rays
12. Which of the following electromagnetic wave used in the treatment of cancer
a) IR –rays b) visible rays c) Gamma rays *d) Ultraviolet rays
13. Which of the following has the maximum energy?
a) Micro waves b) IR-rays c) Ultraviolet rays *d) Gamma rays
14. Which of the following has the minimum energy?
a) Micro waves b) IR-rays c) Ultraviolet rays *d) radio waves
15. Which of the following laws was modified by Maxwell by introducing the displacement current?
a) Gauss’s law *b) Ampere’s law c)Biot-Savart’s law d) none of these
16. What is the nature of electromagnetic waves
*a) Transverse wave b) longitude wave c) mechanical wave d) sound wave
17. What is the angle between electric field vector and magnetic field of electromagnetic waves?
*a) 900 b) 300 c) 450 d) 150
18. Displacement current is a
a) it is the current due to time varying magnetic field
*b) it is the current due to time varying electric field
c) it is the current due to time varying both magnetic field and electric field
d) it is the current due to constant magnetic field
19. Correct expression for displacement current is
d d d d
*a) I d 0 b) I d c) I d 0 d) I d 0 0
dt dt dt dt
20. Expression for speed of light in terms of permittivity and permeability in free space
1 1 1
*a) 0 0 b) c) d) 0 0
0 0 0 0
21. What is the wave length range of electromagnetic spectrum
a) 10 Hz to 1010Hz b) 8Hz to 6 Hz *c) 10 Hz to 1022Hz d) 10 Hz to 1024Hz
22. The maximum frequency wave in the spectrum is
*a) Gamma ray b) X-ray c) UV- rays d) IR-rays
23. The minimum frequency wave in the electromagnetic spectrum is
a) Gamma ray *b) Radio wave c) UV- rays d) IR-rays
24. Which ray is used in photosynthesis
a) X-rays *b) UV –rays c) IR –rays d) visible ray
25
25. For dehydrated fruits the ray used
a) X-rays b) UV –rays *c) IR –rays d) visible ray
26. Fundamental source of electromagnetic wave is
a) Alternating current *b) oscillating charged particles
c) changing magnetic field d) none of these
27. Among the following, which of the ray is used in photocells
*a) UV-rays b) visible rays c) X-rays d) micro waves
28. RADAR system use
a) Radio wave *b) micro waves c) IR-rays d) UV-rays
_______________________________________________________________________________________
9. RAY OPTICS
1. A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror
*a) All the reflected rays meet at a point when produced backward
b) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a point when produced backward
c) only the reflected rays making a small angle with the mirror
d) all the reflected rays does not meet at a point when produced backward.
2. In image formation from spherical mirrors, only paraxial rays are considered because they
a) are easy to handle geometrically
b) contain most of the intensity of the incident light
*c) form nearly a point image of a point source
d) show minimum dispersion effect
3. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected by a mirror and going as A and B . The mirror
A
B
A
B
*a) is plane b) is convex c) is concave d) may be any spherical mirror
4. The image formed by a concave mirror
a) is always real
b) is always virtual
*c) is certainly real of the object is virtual
d) is certainly virtual if the object is real.
5. Ray optics is valid, when the dimensions of object interacting with light
a) of the same order as the wave length of light b) much smaller than the wave length of light
*c) much larger than the wave length of light d) none of these
6. Which of the following statements wrong for a real object
a) The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less than one
b) A virtual , inverted, same - sized image can be obtained using a plane mirror
c) A virtual , erect, magnified image can be formed using a concave mirror
*d) A real, inverted, same sized image can be formed using a convex mirror
7. The mirror which is used as a rear view mirror is
*a) convex mirror b) concave mirror c) plane mirror d) parabolaidal mirror
8. A real, inverted and equal in size image is formed by
*a) a concave mirror b) a convex mirror
c) a plane mirror d) none of these
9. When an object is placed between two parallel mirrors, then number of images formed are
a) 1 b) 4 c) 8 *d) infinite
10. A plane mirror reflects a beam of light to form a real image. The incident beam is
a) parallel *b) convergent c) divergent d) any one of these
26
11. The distance of real object when a concave mirror produce a real image of magnification ‘m’ is ( f is
focal length)
m 1 m 1
a) f *b) f c) m 1 f d) m 1 f
m m
12. Advanced sunset and delayed sunset is due to
a) atmospheric reflection *b) atmospheric refraciton
c) atmospheric scattering d) atmospheric dispersion
13. If lifeguard sitting outside a swimming pool observes a boy drowing in water, has travel with maximum
possible speeds in air and water to reach the boy in shortest time
a) along shortest path from his initial position to boy
b) parallel to bank of the pool on ground and normal to it to reach the boy
*c) along the path followed by a refracted light ray from his position to the boy
d) along any path of his choice
14. The colour of light is determined by its
a) velocity *b) frequency c) amplitude d) intensity
15. a , b , c are refractive indices of the media A,B,C respectively , so that a b c . The critical
angle arises when a ray of light travels from
a) C to A b) C to B c) B to A *d) A to C
16. A, B and C are three optical media of respective critical angle C1 , C2 and C3 . Total internal reflection
of light can occur from A to B and also from B to C but not from C to A. Then the correct relation
between critical angles is
a) C1 C2 C3 b) C1 C2 C3 c) C3 C1 C2 *d) C1 C2 C3
17. Which of the following is used in optical fibres?
a) refraction b) scattering c) diffraction *d) Total internal reflection
18. The phenomenon used in optical fibres for transmission of light energy is
*a) total internal reflection b) scattering c) diffraction d) refraction
19. Consider the telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true?
a) optical fibres can be graded refractive index
*b) optical fibres are subjected to electromagnetic interference from outside
c) optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding
d) optical fibres have extremenly low transmission loss.
20. Relation between critical angles of water and glass is :
*a) Cw C g b) C w C g c) Cw C g d) Cw C g 0
21. A plane glass slab is kept ver various coloured letters: the letter which appears least raised is
a) blue b) violet c) green *d) red
22. If 0 and 0 are respectively, the electric permitivity and the magnetic permeability of free space
and the corresponding quantities in a medium, then the refractive index of the medium is
0 0 0
a) *b) c) 4)
0 0 0 0 0
23. If a spherical mirror is immersed in a liquid. It’s focal length will
a) increase b) decrease *c) remain unchanged d) depend on the nature of lliquid
24. Light of frequency n, wave length travelling with a velocity v enters into a glass slab of refractive
index then frequency, wave length and velocity of the wave in glass slab respectively are
n v v v n
a) , *b) n, c) n, , d) , ,v
27
25. Absolute refractive index of a material depends upon
a) nature of material
b) nature , wavelength and size of material
c) density, temperature, wavelength of material
*d) nature, temperature , wavelength of material
26. If a ray of light takes t1 and t 2 time in two media of absolute refractive indices 1 and 2
respectively to travel same distance, then
a) 1t1 2t2 *b) 1t2 2t1 c) t1 1 t2 2 d) t1 2 t2 1
27. In cold countries, the phenomenon of looming takeesplace , because refractive index of air
a) decreases with height b) increases with height
c) does not change with height d) become infinity at the surface.
28. A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices 1, 2 , 3 and 4 as
shown in figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel . If the emergent ray is parallel to the incident
ray, we must have
1 2 3 4
a) 1 2 b) 1 2 c) 3 4 *d) 4 1
29. A rectangular solid piece is placed in a lqiuid whose refractive index is the same as that of the solid
a) the sides of the solid will appear to be bent inward
b) the sides of the solid will appear to be bent outward
*c) the solid will not be seen at all
d) the solid will appear as in air.
30. As temperature of medium increases the critical angle
a) increases b) decreases c) remain same d) first increases than decreases
31. A ball coated with lamp black put in a glass tank containing water appears silvery white due to
a) refraction b) diffraction c) interfernece *d) total internal reflection
32. In an optical fibre
a) core region is transparent, cladding is opaque b) core region is opaque, cladding is transparent
*c) both core and cladding regions are transparent d) both core and cladding regions are opaque
33. In an optical fibre during transmission of light
a) energy increases b) energy decreases
*c) no loss of propagation of energy takes place d) light partially reflects and refracts
34. If i j represents refractive index when a light rays goes from medium i into j, then 2 1 3 2 4 3
is equal to
1
a) 3 1 b) 3 2 *c) d) 4 2
1 4
35. The fig shows a mixture of blue, green , red colours incident on a right angled prims. The cirtical
angles of the material of prism for red, green and blue colours are 460 , 440 , 430 respectively. The
arrangement will separate
28
B
G
R
450
*a) Red from green and blue b) Blue from green and red
c) Green from red and blue d) all the colours
36. White light in incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If figure light is just
totally internally reflected then the emergent ray in air contain
*a) yellow, orange, red b) violet, indigo, blue
c) all colours d) all colours except green
37. If the angle of incidence is twice the angle of refraction in a medium of refractive index ‘ ’ then the
angle of incidence is
1 1 1 1
a) cos b) sin c) 2sin *d) 2 cos
2 2 2 2
38. By placing the prism in minimum deviation position, images of the spectrum.
a) becomes inverted b) becomes broader *c) becomes distinct d) become intensive
39. In the position of minimum deviation when a ray of yellow light passes through the prism , then its
angle of incidence is
a) less than the emergent angle b) greater than the emergent angle
c) sum of angle of incidence and emergent angle is 900 *d) Equal to the emergent angle
40. When a white light passes through a hollow prism, then
*a) there is no dispersion and no deviation b) dispersion but no deviation
c) deviation but no dispersion d) there is dispersion and deviation both
41. A plot of angle of deviation (D) versus angle of incidence
(i) for a triangular prism is shown below. The angle of incidence for which the light ray travels parallel
to the base
*a) 300 b) 600 c) 450 d) 250
42. Lens maker’s formula is applicable to
*a) thin lenses and paraxial rays which subtend very small angles with the principal axis
b) thick lenses and paraxial rays which subtend very small angles with the principal axis.
c) thin lenses and for marginal rays
d) thick lenses and for marginal rays
29
43. The focal length of lens depends upon
a) nature of the material of lens
b) colour of light
c) the medium in which lens is placed
*d) all of the above
44. A point source of light is placed at a distance of 2f from a converging lens of focal length f. The
intensity on the other side of the lens is maximum at a distance
a) f b) between f and 2f *c) 2f d) more than 2f
45. A thin lens is made with a material having refractive index 1.5 . Both the sides are convex. It is
dipped in water 1.33 . It will behave like
*a) convergent lens b) a divergent lens c) a rectangular slab d) a prism
46. A convex lens is made of a material having refractive index 1.2 both the surfaces of the lens are
convex. If it is dipped into water 1.33 it will behave like
a) convergent lens *b) a divergent lens c) a rectangular slab d) a prism
47. For which of the following colour, the magnifying power of a microscope will be maximum.
a) white colour b) red colour *c) violet colour d) yellow color
48. When the length of a microscope tube increases, its magnifying power
a) decreases *b) increases
c) does not change d) may decrease or increase
49. The magnifying power of a simple microscope can be increased. If we use an eye piece of
a) higher focal length *b) smaller focal length
c) higher diammeter d) smaller diameter
50. Finger prints are observed by the use of
a) telescope *b) microscope c) gallilean telescope d) concave lens
51. In order to increase the magnifying power of a compound microscope
*a) the focal lengths of the objective and the eye piece should be small
b) objective should have small focal length and the eye piece large
c) both should have large focal lengths.
d) the objective should have to large focal length and eye piece should have small.
52. If the focal length of the objective lens is increased, then
a) magnifying power of microscope will increases, but that of telescope will decrease.
b) magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will increases
c) magnifying power of microscpe and telescope both will decrease
*d) magnifying power of microscope will decrease, but taht of telescope will increase
53. Rising and setting of the sun appears to be reddish because of
a) reflection b) refraction c) total internal reflection
*d) scattering due to dust particles and air molecules.
54. The objective of a compound microscope is essentially
a) a concave lens of small length and small aperture
b) convex lens of small focal length and length large aperture
c) convex lens of large focal length and large aperture
*d) convex lens of small focal l ength and small aperture
55. If the red light is replaced by blue light illuminating the object in a microscope then the resolving power
of the microscope
a) decreases *b) increases c) gets halved d) remains unchanged
56. In a compoun d microscope . The cross- wires are fixed at the point
*a) where the image is formed by the objective
b) where the image is formed by the eye piece
c) where the focal point of the objective lies
d) where the focal point of the eye piece lies
30
57. In a compound microscope , the intermediate image is
a) virtual, erect and magnified b) real, erect and magnified
*c) real, inverted and magnified d) virtual, erect and reduced
58. The angular magnification of a simple micoscope can be increased by increasing
a) focal length of lens b) size of object c aperture of lens *d) power of lens
59.
60. The maixmum focal length of the eye - lens of a person is greater than its distance from the retina. The
eye is
*a) always strained in looking at an object
b) strained for objects at large distances only
c) strained for objects at short distances only
d) unstrained for all distances
61. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
a) virtual and enlarged b) virtual and diminished
c) real and diminished *d) real and enlarged.
62. The magnifying power of a telescope can be increased by
a) increasing focal length of the system *b) fitting eye piece of high power
c) fitting eye piece of low power d) none of these
63. A photograph of the moon was taken with a telescope later on, it was found that a housefly was sitting
on the objective lens of the telescope. In photograph
a) The image of housefly will be reduced
*b) There is a reduction in the intensity of the image.
c) There is an increase in the intensity of the image
d) The image of the housefly will be enlarged.
64. For a telescope to have large resolving power, then the
a) focal length of its objective should be large b) focal length of its eye piece should be large
c) focal length of its eye piece should be small *d) aperture of its objective should be large
65. To increase the magnifying power of telescope ( f 0 focal length of the objective and f e focal
length of the eye lens)
*a) f 0 should be large and f e should be small b) f 0 should be small and f e should be large
c) f 0 and f e both shoul be large d) f 0 and f e both should be small
66. If the telescope is reversed i.e., seen from the objective side
*a) object will appear very small
b) object will appear very large
c) There will be no effect on the image formed by the telescope
d) image will be slightly greater than the earlier one
67. In Gallilean telescope, the final image formed is
a) Real, erect and enlarged *b) virtual, erect and enlarged
c) Real, inverted and enlarged d) virtual, inverted and enlarged
68. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
a) reduce spherical aberration *b) have high resolution
c) increase span of bservation d) have low dispersion
Fill in the blanks
1. The ratio of the velocity of red colour light to the velocity of violet colour of light in vacuum is
__________ (A: one)
2. Concave mirror can produce both real and virtual images of ___________(A: real object)
3. The geometric centre of the spherical surface is a ___________(A: pole)
4. All the distances are measured from the __________ of a mirror (A: pole)
5. Any incident light ray parallel to the principal axis, after reflection passes through the _____(A: focus)
31
R
6. The relation between radius of curvature and focal length of mirror is ______(A: f or R 2 f
2
7. Convex mirror can produce only virtual image of a __________(A: real object)
8. The Relation between object distance u, focal length f and magnification of mirror m is ____
f
(A: m )
f u
9. The relation between image distance V, focal length of and magnification of mirror m is ___
f V
(A: m )
f
10. A stick partially immersed in water appears to be bent due to _____________(A: refraction of light)
11. Twinkling of starts at night are because of the apparent shift in their position due to ________
(A: refraction of light)
12. Rain bow is a natural phenomenon due t o the combined effect of _______________ of sun light by
spherical water droplets of rain. (A: dispersion, refraction and reflection)
13. S.I unit of power of lens is _________(A: diopter (D)
14. One diopter is the power of a lens whose focal length is __________(A: one meter)
15. The magnifying power of simple microscope, when the image is formed at near point
D
(Normal adjust ment) is ________(A: m 1 )
f
16. The magnifing powe rof simple microscope, when the image is formed at far point (At intinity ) is
D
_________(A: m )
f
17. The nature of focal length of concave lens is ___________ (A: Negative)
18. The nature of power of convex lens is _______________(A: Positive)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
10. WAVE OPTICS
1. Wave theory of light is not initially accepted because
a) it does not explain reflection and refraction
b) it does not explain photoelectric effect
c) it doe not explain doppler’s effect
*d) it does not explain propagation of light through vacuum
2. Which one of the following phenomena is not explained by Huygens construction of wave front?
a) refraction b) reflection c) diffraction *d) origin of spectra
3. In newton’s corpuscular theory, no attempt was made to explain
a) the different colours of light b) the speed of light
c) the laws of reflection d) interference diffraction and polarization
4. The magnetic splitting spectral lines are called zeeman effect was confirmed by
a) Newton’s corpuscular theory b) Huygen’s wave theory
*c) Electromagnetic theory d) Quantum theory
5. Rotation of plane of polarization under influence of magnetic field called Faraday effect was con
formed by
a) Newton’s corpuscular theory b) Huygen’s wave theory
*c) Electromagnetic theory d) Quantum theory
6. A wave front is an imaginary surface
*a) phase is same for all points
b) phase changes at constant rate at all points along surface
c) constant phase difference contineously changes between the points
d)phase changes all over the surface
32
7. A rectangular illuminated slit priduces
a) spherical wave front b) plane wave front
c) cylindrical wave front d) all the above
8. Huygen’s principle is used
a) to determine the velocity of light *b) to find the position of a wave front
c) to determine the wave length of light d) to find the focal length of a lens
9. Geometrical shadow is formed due to the phenomenon of
a) diffraction of light b) polarisation of light
c) interference of light *d) rectilinear propagation of light
10. Nature of wave front depends on
a) shape of source b) distance of source
*c)both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
11. When a light wave in a rarer medium is reflected from the surface of an optically denser medium. it
suffers a phase change of
a) 2 b) *c) d) zero
2
12. Two waves are said to be coherent if they have
a) different frequency, and same phase
*b) same frequency and same phase
c) same frequency but different phase
d) different frequency and different phase
13. A pair of coherent sources may be
a) one virtual and the other real b) both real c) both virtual *d) A and c
14. Two coherent waves of light produce
a) constructive interference if the phase difference between them is 900
*b) destructive interference if the path difference between them is
2
c)either constructive or destructive interference only if they are of same amplitude
d) either constructive or destructive interference even though they are of different wavelengths
15. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference we required two source which emit radiation of
a) nearly the same frequency b) the same frequency
c) different wave length *d) the same frequency and having a difinite phase relationship
16. The phenomenon of interference is possible in the case of
a) longitudinal waves b) transverse waves
*c) both d) none
17. During interference of light
a) energy is destroyed at the dark bands
b) energy is created at the bright bands
*c) energy is conserved but distributed among bright and dark bands
d) all the above are true
18. In the young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width depends upon
a) distance between the two slits
b) wave length of light
c) distance between the slits and the screen
*d) all the above
19. Colours of soap film in sun light is due to
a) dispersion b) diffraction *c) interference d) double refraction
20. In YDSE, sodium light is replaced by blue lamp, then the fringe width.
1) increases *b) decreases c) remains same d) becomes zero
21. In YDSE, the band width is minimum for the colour
a) red b) yellow c) green d) blue
33
22. Interference is produced with two coherent sources of same intensity. If one of the sources is covered
with a thin film so as to reduce the intensity of light coming out of it, then
*a) Bright fringes willbe less bright and dark fringes will be less dark
b) Bright fringes will be more bright and dark fringes will be
c) The brightness of the bright fringes and the darkness of the dark fringes remain same
d) cannot be decided
23. The graph between the separation of the slits and fringe width in young’s double slit experiment is
( assume that the distance between the source and screen and the wave length of the source are kept
constant)
a) straight line with negative slope b) rectangular hyperbola
c)straight line with positive slope d) parabola
24. In YDSE, both the slits are similar. If with of one of the slits is doubled then
a) Dark fringes become narrower b) Bright fringes become less bright
*c) Dark fringes become slightly brighter c) Bright fringes become narrower
25. The contrast between the fringes in any interference pattern depends on
a) fringe width *b) Intensity ratio of the sources
c) Distance between the slits d) wavelength
26. If young’s double slit apparatus is shifted from air to water, then
*a) Fringe width decreases b) Fringe width increases
c) Fringe width remains same d) Fringe system disappears
27. Alternate bright and dark fringes appear in young’s double slit experiment due to the phenomenon of
a) polarisation b) diffraction *c) interference d) none
28. In young’s double slit experiment the phase difference between the waves reaching the central fringe
and fourth bright fringe will be
a) zero b) 4 c) 6 *d) 8
29. Interference pattern is obtained using white light, then
a) the central fringe is dark
*b) the bright fringe nearest the central white fringe is voilet
c) the bright fringe nearest the central white fringe is red
d) the fringe system is not formed
30. In YDSE, if one of the slits is closed
a) the contrast between the bright and dark bands decreases
b) the width of the bands decreases
c) the central becomes dark band
*d) the interference bands disappear producing uniform
31. Youngs experiment establishes that
a) light consist of particles *b) light consist of waves
c) light is both particle and wave d) none of above
32. In YDSE a mica plate of thickness ‘t’ and refractive index ‘ ’ is introduced in one of the interfering
beams. Then the cnetral fringe will be displaced through ( d= distance between the slits ; D= distance
between the slits and the screen)
dt 1 tD Dt dt
a) D 1 *b) c) d)
d d D
33. Two coherent sources S1 and S 2 produce interference fringes. If a thin mica plate is introduced in the
path of light from S1 then the central maximum
a) shift towards S 2 b) shift towards S1 c) do not shift to any side d) disappear
34. When a thin metal plate is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams of light
a) the fringes become blurred b) the fringes become brighter
c) the fringes disappear d) the fringe width increase
34
35. In YDSE uses a monochromatic source the shape of interference fringes formed on a screen is
a) straight line b) parabola *c) hyperbola d) circle
36. In YDSE, the central bright fringe can be identified
a) As it has greater intensity than the other bright fringes
b) As it is wider than the other bright fringes
c) As it is narrower than the other bright fringes
d) By using white light instead of monochromatic light
37. The phenomenon of diffraction of light was discovered by
a) Fresnel b) Fraunhofer c) young d) Grimaldi
38. Diffraction of light is
a) the bending of light at the surface of separation when it travels from rarer medium to denser medium
b) the bending of light at the surface of separation when it travels from denser medium to rarer medium
c) encroachment of light into the geometrical shadow of the obstacle placed in its path
d) emergence of a light ray grazing the surface of separation when it travels from denser to rarer
medium
39. Both light and sound waves produce diffraction. it is more difficult to observe the diffraction with light
waves because
a) light wave do not require meidum
*b) wavelength of light waves is far smaller
c) light waves are transverse
d) speed of light is far greater
40. When a compact disc is illuminated by a source of white light, coloured lines are observed. This is due
to:
a) dispersion *b) diffraction c) interference d) refraction
41. Golden view of sea- shell is due to:
a) diffraction b) dispersion *c) polarisation d) reflection
42. The structure of crystals can be studied using
a) diffraction of visible light *b) diffraction of x- rays
c) interference of sound waves d) refraction of radio waves
43. In Fresnel’s diffraction wave front must be
a) spherical b) cylindrical c) plane *d) both A and B
44. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. what happens if the red light is replaced by
blue light
a) no change
*b) diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together
c) bands become broader and farther apart
d) bands disappear
45. In a diffraction pattern the width of any fringe is
a) directly proportional to slit width
*b) inversely proportional to slit width
c) independent of the slit width
d) none of the above
46. The correct relation between limit of resolution and resolving power is
1
*a) limit of resolution
resolving power
b) limit of resolution resolving power
1
c) limit of resolution
resolving power
d) limit of resolution 1 resolving power
35
47. In telescope, the radius of the central bright region r0 is
0.61 f 0.75 f 1.94 f 2.43 f
*a) b) c) d)
a a a a
48. For better resolution, a telescope must have a
*a) large diameter objective b) small diameter objective
c) may be large d) neither large nor small
49. In Fresnel experiment, a quantity Z F is given by
2 a2 a
a) Z F 2 b) Z F 2 c) Z F d) Z
a a
50. Transverse wave nature is established by
a) interference b) diffraction *c) polarization d) all the above
51. Which one of the waves cannot be polarized
a) radiowaves b) x- rays c) ultraviolet rays *d) sound waves
52. In the propagation of electromagnetic waves the angle between the direction of propagation and
plane of polarization is
*a) zero b) 450 c) 900 d) 1800
53. In the case of light waves the angle between plane of vibration and plane of polarization is
a) 1800 b) 900 c) 450 *d) zero
54. polarization can be produced by
a) reflection b) double refraction c) scattering *d) all the above
55. In case of linearly polarized light, the magnitude of the electric field vector:
a) is parallel to the direction of propagation
b) does not change with time
c) increases and decreases linearly with time
*d) varies periodically with time
56. The tangent to polarizing angle is numerically equal to
a) diversity of the reflecting medium
*b) refractive index of the reflecting medium
c) velocity of light in reflecting medium
d) elastic modulus of reflecting medium
57. The intensity of the polarized light transmitted through the analyzer is given by
a) Brewster’s *b) Malus law
c) Fresnel’s assumptions d) Law of super position
58. If polaroids are to be used to avoid glares of in coming light then
*a) visibility will decreases b) transmittivity of windhield will decrease
c) vehicles will move slowly d) cost will increase
59. Polaroid sunglasses are preferred because they
*a) reduce the intensity of light b) have soothing colours
c) are cheaper d) can change colours
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Wavefront is the locus of all the particles of the medium which oscillates in the _____________
(A: same phase)
2. The phase difference between any two points on the given wave front is ___________(A : Zero)
3. The angle between the direction of propagation of light energy and the surface of wavefront is
___________________(A: 900 )
36
4. If the source of light is a point source, the wave fronts emerging from the source at smaller distances
from it are ______________________(A: spherical wave fronts)
5. When a wave travells from rarer medium to denser medium the speed of light _____________
(A: decreases)
6. When a wave travels from rarer medium to denser medium. The frequency of light
_________________________ (or) __________________ (A: remains constant , doesnot change)
7. The intensity at any point is directly proportional to the ___________(A: square of the amplitude)
8. The condition for constructive interference of phase difference between two waves is __________
(or) __________( A: 2n , even integral multiples of )
9. The condition for constructive interference of path difference between two waves is
______________ (or) _____________
(A: n (or) integral multiples of , even integral multiples of )
2
10. The conditions for destructive interference of phase different between two wave is ___________
(A: 2n 1 (or) integral multiples )
11. Th condition for destructive interference of path difference between two waves is _______________
(A: 2n 1 (or) odd integral multiples of
)
2 2
12. The principle of interference in youngs double slit experiment is _______________
(A: Division of wave front)
13. If the two waves coming from two coherent sources superpose at a point in phase to give maximum
intensity , then it is called _______________ interference (A: constructive)
14. If the two waves coming from two coherent sources superpose at a point in phase to give minimum
intensity , then it is called _______________(A: destructive inteference)
15. The idea of secondary wavelets for the propagation of a wave was first given by _________
(A: Huygens)
16. In YDSE, the fringe width _______________ on increasing the separation between two slits
(A: decreases)
17. In YDSE, the fringe width ___________________ on increasing the separation between slits &
screen. (A: increase)
18. In YDSE is one of the slit is covered by the opaque substances the fringes are _________
(A: disappear)
19. When the entire young’s boulde slit apparatus is immersed in water, the fringe width is
_________(A: descreases)
20. The resolving power of a microscope is given by the reciprocal of its ____________
(A: limit of resolution )
21. Resolving power of a microscope can be increased by decreasing the _________ used
(A: wavelength)
22. The resolving power of a telescope is given by the reciprocal of its ___________
(A: limit of resolution)
23. Resolution power of a telescope can be increased by decreasing the __________used
(A: wavelength)
24. The angle of incidence at which the reflected light is completely plane polarised is called
___________ angle (A: polarising angle (or) Brewter’s angle)
25. The device used to produce and analyse the plane polarised light is called __________(A:polaroid).
_________________________________________________________________________________________
37
11. DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
1. Photo electric effect involves
a) Conversion of nuclear energy into electrical energy
b) Conversion of atomic energy into electrical energy
c) Conversion of electronic energy into electrical energy
*d) Conversion of light energy into electrical energy
2. Visible region of electromagnetic spectrum is not suitable for photoemission from
a) Caesium b) Zinc c) lithum *d) rubidium
3. While studying effect of variation of intensity on the photo current, intensity of light is changed in a
photo cell by
a) using a prism in the path of light beam
b) using a thickn glass sheet
c) tilting the cathode
*d) changing the distance of light source from the emitter
4. To observe the effect of intensity of light on photocurrent
a) collector is maintained at positive potential with respect to emitter
b) frequency of incident light is kept fixed
c) accelerating potential is fixed
*d) distance of source from emitter is kept constant
5. Variation of photoelectric current with intensity of light is
a) b) c) *d)
6. When stopping potential is applied in an experiment of photoelectric effect, no photo current is
observed . This means that
a) The emission of photo electrons is stopped
*b) The photo electrons are emitted but are reabsorbed by the emitter
c) The photoelectrons are accumulated near the collector
d) The photoelectrons are dispersed from the sides of the apparatus
7. If the frequency of incident ligh is tripled , the stopping potential will
a) be tripled b) become one third
*c) become more than triple d) become less than triple but more than doubled
8. A point source of light is used in a photo electric effect. If the source is moved farther away from the
emitting metal the stopping potential
a) will increase b) will decrease
*c) will remain same d) either increases or decreases
9. A non- mono chromatic light is used in an experiment on photoelectric effect. The stopping potential is
related to the
a) mean wavelength b) longest wave length
*c) shortest wave length d) distance of the source from the metal
10. If the wavelength of light in an experiment on photoelectric effect is doubled keeping the intensity
constant
a) The photo electrons may or may not be emitted
b) The stopping potential decreases if electrons are emitted
c) The photoelectric current does not change if electrons are emitted
*d) all the above
38
11. Photo electric current
a) does not obey ohm’s law b) does not depend on exposure time
c) does not depend on frequency of incident light *d) all the above
12. The best photo electric substance is
a) Nickel b) Sodium *c) Cesium d) Potassium
13. It is easier to remove an electron from sodium than from copper. If 0 s and 0 C are their thresh
old frequencies respectively . Then
a) 0 s 0 C b) 0 s 0 C *c) 0 s 0 C d) 0 s 0 C
14. Blue light can eject photo electron from a photosensitive surface while orange light cannot. Then
a) violet light can eject electron b)red light cannot eject electron
c) green and yellow lights may *d) all the above
15. Will photo electron be wmitted by a copper surface, whose threshold wave length is 2800A0 when
illuminated by visible light
*a) No b) Yes c) Yes if light is very intense d) Yes , if light is very bright
16. Intensity of light incidenct on a photo sensitive surface is doubled . then
a) The number of emitted electrons is trebled *b) The number of emitted electrons is doubled
c) The KE of emitted electrons is doubled d) The momentum of emitted electron is doubled
hc
17. Light of wave length falls on a metal having work function , photoelectric effect will take place
0
only of
0
a) 0 b) 20 *c) 0 d)
2
18. Relation between the stopping potential V0 of a metal and the maximum velocity V of the photo
electrons is
1 1
*a) V0 2 b) V0 V 2 c) V0 V d) V0
V V
19. Stopping potential depends on
*a) Frequency of incident light b) Intensity of incident light
c) Number of emitted electrons d) Number of incident photons
20. The saturation of photoelectric current depends on
a) Work function b) Frequency of radiation
*c) Intensity of radiation d) stopping potential
21. A photo electric cell converts
a) light energy into heat energy b) light energy into sound energy
*c) light energy into electrical energy d) electrical energy into light energy
22. Photo electric effect can be explained only by assuming that light
a) is a form of transverse waves b) is a form of longitutinal waves
c) can be polarized *d) consists of quanta
23. If the energy and momentum of a photon are E and P respectively, then the velocity of photon will be
2
E E
*a) b) c) EP d) 3 107 m / s
P P
24. The number of electrons emitted by a surface exposed to light is directly proportional to
a) frequency of light b) work function of metal
c) threshold wave length *d) Intensity of light
25. In photoelectric phenomenon, the number of photoelectros emitted depends on
*a) The intensity of incident radiation b) the frequency of incident radiation
c) The velocity of incident radiation d) The work function of photo cathode
39
26. When frequency of incident light is lower then threshold frequency then
*a) photoelectric current is zero b) photoelectric current increases
c) photoelectric current decreases d) photoelectric emission takes wave but with zero
velocity
27. With increase in intensity f incident light having frequency less than threshold frequency then
*a) no photoelectric effect takes place
b) photo electric effect takes place with low current
c) photoelectric effect takes place with low current
d) photoelectric effect takes place but electrons have zeor KE
28. The slope of the graph drawn between stopping potential and frequency of incident radiation will be
h
*a) b) he c) eh 2 d) e 2 h
e
29. The relation between stopping potentials V0 and frequency of incident light is
e h h h
a) V0 0 *b) V0 0 c) V0 0 d) V0 0
n e e e
30. The pprinciple of photo cell is
a) To convert electrical energy into light energy *b) To convert light energy into electrical energy
c) To convert light energy into heat energy d) To convert electrical energy into heat energy
31. Stopping potential is more negative for
*a) higher frequency of incident radiation
b) lower frequency of incident radiation
c) higher intensity of incident radiation
d) lower intensity of incident radiation
32. The correct curve between the stopping potential V0 and of incident light (I) is
a) *b) c) d)
33. For the graph of collector potential very photoelectric current shown if I denotes intensity of incident
radiation, then
a) I A I B I C b) I A I B I C *c) I A I B I C d) I B I A and I C
34. For the graph shown if f denotes frequency incident light
*a) f A f B f C b) f A f B f C c) f A f B f C d) f B f C and f B f A
40
35. V0 versus V curve is a
0
a) straight line with slope 0 b) straight line with slope
e
h
*c) straight line with slope d) straight line with zero slope
e
36. A point source of light is used in an experiment on photoelectric effect. which of the following curves
best represents the variation of photoelectric current ‘i’ with distance ‘d’ of the source from the
matter?
i
a
b
c
d
x
a) a b) b c) c *d) d
37. The mass of electron varies with
*a) electron velocity
b) the size of cathode ray tube
c) variation of g
d) the size of electron
38. The wavelength of a photon an electron and a uranium nucleus are same - maximum energy will be of
*a) photon b) electron
c) it will depend on their properties and wavelength d) uranium nucleus
39. The matter waves are
a) light waves b) sound waves c) stationary waves *d) probabilistic waves
40. The wavelength of a proton and a photon are same, then
a) velocity of photon = velocity of proton *b) momentum of photon = momentum of proton
c) momentum of photon < momentum of proton d) momentum of photon > momentum of proton
41. The wave nature of electron was verified by
a) photoelectric effect b) compton effect
c) the incidence of electron on metallic surface *d) diffraction of electron by crystal
42. The frequency of a photon of momentum P will be
PC Ph mh mC
*a) b) c) d)
h C C h
43. If the value of plank’s constant is more than its present value then the De Broglie wavelength associ-
ated with a material particle will be
*a) more b) less c) same d) more for light particles and less for heavy particles
44. The wavelength of matter waves does not depend on
a) momentum b) velocity c) mass *d) charge
45. The ratio of wavelength of a photon and that of an electron of same energy will be
m E 2m EC
a) b) *c) d)
E 2m E 2m
46. Neglecting the variation of mass with energy, the De Broglie wavelength of an electron with energy E
will be proportional to
*a) E 1/ 2 b) E c) E d) E1/ 2
41
47. The De broglie wavelength of a particle is equal to that of a proton, then the energy of photon will
be
a) equal to the kinetic energy of the particle
b) less than the kinetic energy of particle
c) equal to the total energy of the particle
*d) more than the kinetic energy of the particle
48. The phenomena of interference and diffraction of light will contain
*a) wave theory of light b) particle nature of light
c) Dual nature of light d) corpuscular theory of light
49. The phenomena of photoelectric effect and compton effect wil confirm
a) wave theroy of light *b) particle nature of light
c) Dual nature of light d) electromagnetic theory
50. De -Broglie suggested that the elementary particles like electrons , protons and neutrons will exhibit
*a) dual nature i.e., thye behave like particles & waves b) only particle nature
c) only wave nature d) electromagnetic waves
51. A positron (m & proton (M) are accelerated by the same accelerating potential. Then the ratio of the
associated wavelength of positron and proton will be
M M m m
a) *b) c) d)
m m M M
52. Davison and Germer’s and G.P Thomson’s experiments gives
*a) evidence of de Broglie’s waves associated with electrons
b) evidence of particle nature of electrons
c) evidence of -ve charge on electrons
d) evidence of specific charge of electron
53. The photon of frequency V has a momentum associated with it if C is the velocity of light, the
momentum is
h h
*a) b) c) h C d)
C C C2
54. de- Broglie hypothesis is a conclusion drawn from
a) photoelectric effect b) convertibility of mass into energy
c) symmetry of matter and energy *d) compton effect
55. Wave is associated with matter
a) when it is stationary b) when it is in motion with velocity of light
*c) when it is in motion with any velociyt d) never associated with matter
56. A particle which has zero rest mass and non - zero energy and momentum must travel with a speed
*a) equal to C , the speed of light in vaccum b) greater than C
c) less than C d) tending to infinity
57. An electron, an particle and a proton have the same kinetic energy shortest de Broglie wave
length is assciated with
a) electrons *b) particle c) proton d) all produces same wavelength
58. Davision - germer experiment confirms de Broglie relation by
a) converting electrons into waves
b) converting light into particles
c) varying angle of incidence of an electron beam over a metal targer and observing scattering pattern
*d) comparing theoretical value of wave length associated with moving electrons and partial value of
wavelength measured by observing diffraction pattern produced by electrons
59. de- Broglie hypothesis is true for
a) particle which are very light like electrons
b) only subatomic particles
c) only for photons and electrons
*d) fast moving particles much - much heavier than electrons
42
60. Wave nature of electrons is exploited in
a) mass spectrometer b) coolidge tube
c) synhrotons *d) electron microscopes
61. In Davison experiment , if applied accelerating voltage is increased .
a)will be larger than the earlier value b) will be same as earlier value
*c) will be less than the earlier value d) will depend on target
62. Photoelectric effect is based upon
*a)energy b) mimentum c) mass d) charge
63. Photons are electrically
a) positive b) negative *c) neutral d) all of these
64. Work function isthe energyrequired
a) to produce x-rays b) to exhibit an atom
*c) to eject an electron just out of thesurface d) explore an atom
65. The photoelectric effect occurs only when the incident light has more than certain minimum
a) wavelength b) speed c) charge *d) frequency
66. The maximum number of photo electrons released in a photocell is independent
a) nature of the cathode surface *b) frequency of the incident ray
c) intensity of radiation incident oncathode surface d) none of the above
67. If the frequency of light in photoelectric experiment is doubled, the stopping potential will
a) be doubled b) be halved
*c) become more than doubled d) become less than doubled
68. The best metal to be used for photo emission is
a) potassium b) sodium *c) caesium d) lithium
69. de Brogile wavelength depends on the mass and energy according to the relation
*a) mass enegy b) mass enegy c) mass / enegy
1/2 1/ 2 1/2
d) mass enegy
70. If wavelength of an electron and a photon is same then they will have same
a) velocity *b) momentum c) energy d) all of these
71. A proton and an electron move with a same velocity. The associated wavelength for proton is
*a) shorter than that of the electron b) longer than that of the electron
c) the same of as that of the electron d) zero
72. For a given metal, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in a photoelectric effect does
not depend upon
*a) intensity b) stopping potential d) wavelength d) frequency
73. In photoelectric effect, the number electrons ejected per second is directly
a) proportional to the wavelengthof the light *b) proportional to the intensity ofthe light
c) proportional to the workfunction of the light d) proportional to the frequencyof the light
74. The electromagnetic theory of light failed to explain
*a) photoelectric effect b) polarisation c) diffraction d) interference
75. The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered by
a) R. A Millikan b) Albert Einstein c) Roentgen *d) Heinrich hertz
76. Which of the followings is the type of electron emission?
a) Thermionic emission b) field emission
c) Photoelectric emission *d) all of the above
77. The work function depends on the
a) properties of the metal b) the nature of metal surface
*c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
78. _____metal has highest workfunction of 5.65eV
*a) platinum b) caesium c) iron dD) cobalt
79. Dual nature of matter is proposed by
* a) louis de Brogile b) Albert Einstein c) Heinrich Hertz d) R. A Millikan
80. Photoelectric current is directly proportional to
a) time b) velocity *c) intensity of incident radiation d) distance
43
12. ATOMS
1. Rutherford’s experiments suggested that the size of the nucleus is about
a) 10 14 m to 10 12 m b) 10 15 m to 10 13 m
*c) 10 15 m to 10 14 m d) 10 15 m to 10 12 m
2. In the Geiger - Marsden scattering experiment in case of head on collision the impact parameter
should be
a) maximum *b) minimum c) infinite d) zeor
3. In the Geiger -Marsden scattering experiment of the number of scattered particles detected are
maximum and minimum at the scattering angles respectively at
*a) 00 and 1800 b) 1800 and 00 c) 900 and 180 0 d) 450 and 90 0
4. The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about
a)101 b)105 c) 1010 *d) 1015
5. According to Bohr principle the relation between principle quantum number (n) and radius of the orbit
(r) is
1 1
a) r b) r n *c) r n 2 d) r 2
n n
6. The region of electromagnetic spectrum that contains lyman series
*a) ultraviolet b) infrared c) visible d) x- ray
7. Visible region contains
a) Lyman lines *b) Balmer lines c) Paschen lines d) All of the above
8. The wavelength involved in the spectrum of deuterium 1 D 2 are slightly different from that of
hydrogen spectrum because
a) the size of the nuclei are different
b) the nuclear forces are different in two cases
*c) the masses of the two nuclei are different
d) the attraction between electron and the nulceus is different in the two cases
9. Hydrogen atom does not emit X- rays because
*a) its energy levels are zero close to each other b) its energy levels are too far apart
c) it has a very small mass d) it has a single electron
10. Atomic hydrogen is excited from the ground state to the nth states . The number of lines in the emission
spectrum will be
n n 1 n n 1 n 1 n 1
2 2
a) *b) c) d)
2 2 2 2
11. The Bohr’s model of atoms :
*a) assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantized
b) uses einstein’s photoelectric equation
c) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms
d) predicts the same emission spectra for are types of atoms
12. Bohr’s model for the hydrogen atom predicts that the absorption spectra involve
a) accelerating electrons
b) dccelarting electrons
c) electrons going to highe kinetic energy levels
*d) electrons going to lower momentum levels
13. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series
a) it need not emit any more photon
b) it may emit another photon in the Paschen series
*c) it may emit another photon in the Lyman series
d) it may emit another photon in the Balmer series
44
14. If n 1 then the dependence of frequency of photon emitted as a result of transition of an electron
nth orbit to n 1 orbit on n will be
th
1 1 1 1
a) b) 2 *c) 3 d) 4
n n n n
15. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to fifth state:
a) both KE & PE increase b) both KE & PE decrease
*c) PE increase and KE decrease d) PE decrease and KE increase
16. When an electron jumps from n1th orbit to n2th orbit the energy radiated given by
a) h E1 / E2 b) h K 2 / E1 *c) h E1 E2 d) h E2 E1
17. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state
a) both kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) increase
b) both KE and PE decrease
*c) PE increase, KE decrease
d) PE decreases , KE increases
18. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, let PE represent potential energy and TE the total energy. In
going to a higher orbit
a) PE increases, TE decreases b)PE decreases, TE increases
*c) PE increases, TE increase d) PE decreases, TE decreases
19. If the radius of an orbit is r and the velocity of electron in it is V, then the frequency of electron in the
orbit will be
2 vr v
a) 2 rv b) c) *d)
vr 2 2 r
20. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between conservative energy level
*a) decreases b) increases c) first decreases and then increases d) remains the same
21. The angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is proportion to
1 1
a) b) *c) r d) r 2
r r
22. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state Which
of the following statements is true?
*a) its kinetic energy increases and its potential & total energies
b) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases, and its total energy remain the same
c) its kinetic and total energies decrease and its potential energy increases
d) its kinetic potential and totale energies decrease
23. The number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is
a) infinite b) 3 *c) 6 d) 15
24. An electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is revolving in anti clockwise direction in circular
orbit of radius R, the orbital magnetic dipole moment of the electron will be
eh eh eh 2 e2 h
*a) b) c) d)
4 m 2 m 4 m 4 m
25. When electron falls from a higher energy to a lower energy level the difference in the energies
appears in the form of
*a) electromagnetic radiation only b) Thermal radiation only
c) Both electromagnetic and thermal radiations d) none of these
26. The de- Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is
a) equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit
b) equal to half the circumference of first orbit
c) equal to twice the circumference of first orbit
*d) equal to the circumference of the first orbit
45
27. The excitation energy of Lyman last line is
a) The same as ionization energy
b) The same as the last absorption line is lyman series
*c) Both (A) and (B)
d) Different from (A) and B)
28. The series corresponding to minimum wavelength transition in H - atom
a) Balmer series *b) Lyman series
c) paschen series d) Brackets series
29. The minimum magnetic dipole moment of electron in hydrogen atom is
2h eh eh
a) b) *c) d) 0
2 m m 4 m
30. Total energy of the electron in hydorgen atom above 0 eV leads to
*a) continuation of energy states b) Larger number of discrete ionised states
c) Balmer series d) Paschen series
31. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom , which of the following is quanlized
a) Linear momentum of electron b) Linear velocity of electron
*c) Angular momentum of electron d) Angular velocity of electron
_______________________________________________________________________________________
13. NUCLEI
1. The distance of closest approach of particle to the nucleus was taken as a measure of
a) atomic radius b) diameter of the nucleus
*c) nuclear radius d) size of atom
2. The nuclear mass density is of the order of
a) 1010 kg / m3 *b) 1017 kg / m3 c) 1015 kg / m3 d) 108 kg / m3
3. A particle having no charge and almost norest mass
*a) neutrino b) neutron c) electron d) positron
4. The mass number of a nucleus is
a) always less than its atomic number
b) always more than its atomic number
c) equal to its atomic number
*d) sometimes more than and some times equal to atomic number
R
5. The graph between log and log A ( R - radius of nucleus ‘A’ mass number) is
R0
*a) straight line b) parabola c) ellipse d) hyperbola
6. Density ‘D’ of nuclear matter varies with nuclear number as
a) D A3 b) D A2 c) D A *d) D A0
7. The ratio of volume of atom to that of nucleus
*a) 1015 b) 1010 c)105 d)107
8. In heavy stable nuclei, neution number is more than proton number. It is because
a) neutrons are heavier than proton
*b) electrostatic force between protons are repulsive
c) neutrons decay in to through beta decay
d) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than between protons
9. The nuclear forces are
a) attractive b) repulsive *c) A to B d) always attractive
10. Nuclear forces are
a) non - central forces b) saturated c) spin dependent *d) all the above
11. The relative strengths of gravitational, coulomb’s and nuclear forces of protons are in he ratio (nearly)
a) [Link] *b) 1:1036 :1038 c)1038 :1036 :1 d) 1:1030 :1034
46
12. The origin of nuclear force between nucleons is due to the exhange of
*a) mesons b) photons c) positions d) electrons
13. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 1015 m . The net force between them is F1 , if both are
neutrons, F2 if both are protons and F3 if one is a proton and other is a neutron. In such a case
a) F2 F1 F3 b) F1 F2 F3 c) F1 F2 F3 *d) F1 F3 F2
14. If FP P FP n , Fn n are nuclear forces given two protons , a proton and a neutron, two neutrons
respectively inside a nucleus , then
a) FP P FP n Fn n *b) FP P FP n Fn n c) FP P FP n Fn n d) FP P FP n Fn n
15. Binding energy per nucleon is more for
*a) intermediate nuclei b) lighter nuclei c) heavier nuclei d) none of the above
16. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum at A = 56 and its value is around _________ MeV/
Nucleon
a)8.4 *b) 8.7 c) 9 d) 7.8
17. As the mass number ‘A’ increases, the binding energy per nucleon in a nucleus
a) increases b) decreases *c) first increases and then decreases d) remains same
18. The stability of a nucleus can be measured by
a) average binding energy b) packing fraction
c) ratio of umber of neutrons and protons *d) all the above
19. In nuclear reaction 42 He ZA X Z 2 Y A3 R , Re denotes
a) electron b) positron c) proton *d) neutron
20. The penetrating powers of and and rediatiosn in decreasing order are
a) , , *b) , , c) , , d) , ,
21. When , , radiation pass through a gas their ionizing powers, in decreasing order are
a) , , b) , , *c) , , d) , ,
22. In a radioactive series, 238
92 U changes to 206
82 Pb through n1 decay processes and n2 decay
processes
a) n1 8, n2 8 b) n1 6, n2 6 *c) n1 8, n2 6 d) n1 6, n2 8
23. A radioactive nuclei can decay simultaneously by two different processes which have decay constants
1 and 2 . The effective decay constant of the nucleide is
1 1 1 1
*a) 1 2 b) 12 c) d) 1 2
1 2 2
24. A fraction f1 of a radioactive sample decays in one mean life, and a fraction f 2 decays in one half life
*a) f1 f 2 b) f1 f 2 c) f1 f 2 d)may be (1),(2) or (3)
25. The half life period of a radioactive sample depends upon
a) temperature b) pressure *c) nature of substance d) all the above
26. Which of the following radioactive substance is used in archeological surve?
*a) 6 C 14 b) 11 H 235
c) 92 U d) 2 HC 3
27. Which of the following changes in the artificial transmutation of elements
a) number of neutrons b) number of electrons c) atomic weight *d) nucleus
28. A free neutron decays spontaneously into
*a) a proton, an electron and an anti neutrino
b) a proton, an electron and a neutrino
c) a proton and electron
d) a proton, an electron, a neutrino and an anti neutrino
47
29. Neutron was discovered by the experiment of
*a) artificial transmutation of 94 Be by alpha particles
b) artificial transmutation of 11
7 N by alpha particles
c) rutherford scattering of alpha particles by heavy nuclei
d) becquerel with ratio activity
30. Thermal neutrons energy is
*a) 1eV b) 1eV c) 2MeV d) 4MeV
31. The particle which is more effective for bombarding
*a) neutron b) proton c) particle d) neutron
32. What is missing in the following nuclear reaction H H He ?
2
1
2
1
3
2
a) positron b) meson *c) neutron d) electron
33. The - rays are
a) electromagnetic radiation b) stream of electrons
c) stream of uncharged particles *d) stream of positively charged particles
34. rays, emitted from a radioactive material, are known as
*a) charged particles emitted by nucleus
b) neutral particles
c) electrons orbiting around the nucleus
d) electromagnetic radiations
35. A nucleus of 94 Be absorbs an alpha particle and emits a neutron. The resulting nucleus will be
a) 13
5 C *b) 12
6 C c) 13
6 C d) 84 B
36. Emissions of - rays in radioactive decay results in the change of
a) both mass and charge b) mass but not in charge
c) either mass and charge *d) charge but not in mass
37. Gamma decay takes place
a) prior to alpha decay b) prior to beta decay
*c) prior to positron decay d) due to de- excitement of nuclei levels
38. The average number of neutrons released per fission in the fission of U 235 is
a) 7 b) 3.5 c) 1.5 *d) 2.5
39. The fission of uranium nuclide
a) always leads to the same pair of fission produce say barium and krypton
*b) doesn’t always produce barium and krypton but different pair of fission produces
c) produce barium and any other fission product
d) always produces at last one radioactive fission product
40. Most of energy released in the fission is carried by
a) neutrons *b) fission fragments c) neutrons and fragments cary equally d) positrons
41. Nuclear reactions obey the law of conservation of
a) mass and energy b) charge c) momentum *d) all the above
42. The working principle in atom bomb is
a) under - critical chain reaction b) critical chain reaction
*c) super- critical chain reaction d) all the above
43. In a critical chain reaction
a) energy is released at increasing rate *b) energy is released at steady rate
c) enegry is released at decreasing rate d) energy is not released
44. Chain reaction can be initiated by
a) prompt neutrons b) delayed neutrons
*c) slowed prompt neutrons d) B or C
48
45. Heavy water is used as moderator in a nuclear reactor. The function of the moderator is
a) to control the energy released in the reactor *b) to slow down the neutrons to thermal energies
c) to cool the reactor faster d) to absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
46. In fission of U - 235, the percentage of mass converted into energy is about
*a) 0.1% b) 0.25 % c) 0.01 % d) 2%
47. To surtain the chain reaction, the mass of the material should be
a) less than the critical mass b) equal to critical mass
c) less than or equal or critical mass *d) greater than critical mass
48. Nuclear fission can be explained by
a) optical model of the nculeus b) shelll model of nucleus
c) collective model of the nucleus *d) liquid drop model of the nucleus
49. The main source of sun’s energy
*a) nuclear fusion b) nuclear fission c) gravitation contraction d) combustion
50. Fusion reaction take place at high temperature because
a) atoms are ionized at high temperature
b) molecules break up at high temperature
c) nuclei break up at high temperature
*d) kinetic energy is high enough to over come coulomb repulsion between nuclei
51. Nuclear fusion is possible
*a) only between light nuclei b) only between heavy nuclei
c) between both light and heavy nuclei d) only between nuclei which are stable against decay
52. In sun, the important source of energy is
*a) proton proton cycle b) carbon - nitrogen cycle
c) carbon - carbon cycle d) nitrogen - nitrogen cycle
53. When two deuterium nuclei fuse together to form a tritium nuclei, we get a
a) neutron b) deuteron c) paticle *d) proton
54. Particle and their antiparticles have
a) the same masses but opposite spins
*b) the same masses but opposite magnetic moment
c) the same masses and same magnetic moment
d) opposite spins and same magnetic moment
55. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus
a) only the neutron number changes
b) only the proton number changes
c) both the neutron a nd the proton number changes
*d) there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number
56. 1 e 0 1 e0 2 . The above equation satisfies the law of conservation of
a) charge b) energy and mass c) momentum *d) all the above
57. Nuclear energy is released in fission because binding energy per nucleon is
*a) greater for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
b) smaller for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
c) same for fission fragments and nucleus
d) none of the above
58. As the age of star increases
*a) helium quantity increased b) helium quantity decreases
c) helium quantity doesnot change d) helium, hydrogen both quantities increases
59. 1
1H 11 H 12 H X 1 e 0 energy . The emitted particles is
a) Neutron b) proton c) particle *d) neutron
60. During radioactive decay of a nucleus, the mass number decreases by 4 units and atomic number
decreases by 2 units. Then the type of radioactive decay is
a) decay *b) decay c) decay d) decay
49
61. In a radioactive decay, neither the atomic number nor the mass number changes. Following particle is
emitted in the decay
a) proton b) neutron *c) photon d) electron
62. Which of the following are not emitted by radioactive substance
a) electron *b) protons c) rays d) helium nuclei
FILL IN BLANKS
1. _________________ number remains same in isotope (A: atomic)
2. _________________ number remains same in isotone (A: neutron)
3. _________________ number remains same in isobar (A: mass)
4. The difference between the sum of the masses of the nucleons forming a stable nucleus and the rest
mass of the nucleus is called _________ defect (A: mass)
5. |a.m.u (or) | u= _____________ (A: 931.5 MeV)
6. ________________________is the significance of binding energy per nucleon
(A: the stability of a nucleus)
7. The process of producing a new stable nucleus from the other stable nucleus is called
___________________________(A: artificial transmutation)
8. The process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei of comparable masses is called
_____________ (A: nuclear fission)
9. In nuclea reactors, the control rods are made of _________________ (A: Cadmium)
10. The principle of atomic bomb is __________________(A: Nuclear fission)
11. The principle of hydrogen bomb is _____________(A: nuclear fusion )
12. The reciprocal of the decay constant of a radioactive sample gives it __________(A: mean life)
13. _________________ is the source of energy out put in the interior of stars (A: thermonuclear fusion)
0.693
14. Half life period __________________(A: T1 )
2
15. Relation between half life and average life _______________(A: T12 0.693 )
16. Cadmium and Boron rods are used in a nuclear reactor to ____________________
(A: Absorb excess number of thermal neutrons)
17. Unstable fission fragments decay by emitting neutrons and electrons , neutrons so emitted are called
_____________(A: delayed neutrons)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
14. SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES
1. Carbon silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterized by valence
and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to Eg c , Eg Si and
Eg Ge . Which of the following statements is true?
a) Eg Si Eg Ge Eg C b) Eg C Eg Ge Eg Si
*c) Eg C Eg Si Eg Ge d) Eg C Eg Si Eg Ge
2. Carbon silicon and germanium have same lattice structure. But carbon is an insulator, silicon and
germanium are semiconductors because
a) number of free electrons for conduction in carbon is negligibly small
b) more energy is requered for the electron to remove in carbon
c) the bonding electrons exist in first orbit in case of carbon
*d) all the above
50
3. The bond that exists in a semi conductor is
*a) covalent bond b) ionic bond c) metallic bond d) hydrogen bond
4. At absolute zero, si acts as
a) non metal b) metal *c) insulator d) none
5. The condution band and valence band in a good conductor
a) are well separated by a forbidden band *b) are overlapped
c) some time overlap and sometimes separated d) have forbidden band
6. By increasing the temperature the sepcific resistance of a conductor and semi conductor
a) increases for both b) decreases for both
*c) increases decreases d) decreases, increases
7. A solid which is transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature is
formed by
a) metallic bonding b) ionic bonding
c) covalent bonding d) vander walls bonding
8. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
a) each of these decreases
b) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
*c) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
d) each of these increases
9. In a condution , the forbidden energy gap is of the order of
a) 1.1 eV *2) zero c) 0.7 eV d) 6.7 eV
10. In a semiconductors the separation between condution band and valence band is of the order of
a) 100 eV b) 10 eV *c) 1 eV d) 0 eV
11. The intrinsic semi conductor behaves as insulator at
a) 00 C b) 1000 C c)100 K *d) 0 K
12. The forbidden energy gap in an insulator is of the order of
a) 0.7 eV b) 0.1 MeV 3) 1.1 eV *d) 5 eV
13. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to
a) electrons only b) holes only
*c) both electrons and holes d) neither electrons nor holes
14. An electric field is applied to a semiconductor . Let the number of charge carriers be n and the
average drift speed be V. if the temperature is increased
a) both n and v will increase *b) n will increase but v will decrease
c) v will increase but n will decrease d) both n and v will decrease
15. Let n p and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor
a) n p ne *b) n p ne c) n p ne d) n p ne
16. When an impurity is depend into an intrinsic semiconductor the conductivity of the semiconductor
*a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same d) becomes zero
17. If the two ends of an p - n junction are joined by a wire
a) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
b) there will be a steady current from the n - side to the p - side
c) there will a steady current from the p-side to the n-side
d) there may or may not be current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire.
18. The drift current in a p-n junction is
*a) from the n-side to the p-side
b) from the p-side to the n-side
c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward -biased and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse - biased
d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward biased and in the opposite direction if it
reverse- biased
51
19. The diflusion current in a p-n junction is
a) from the n-side to the p - side
*b) from the p -side to the n- side
c) from the n -side to the p -side if the function is forward biased and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse biased
d) from the p -side to the n -side if the junction is forward biased and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse - biased
20. Diflusion current in a p- n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
*a) if the junciton is forward biased b) if the junction i reverse- biased
c) if the junction is unbiased d) in no case
21. At absolute zero temperature a crystal of pure germanium
a) behaves as a perfect conductor b) behaves as semiconductor
*c) behaves as a perfect isnulator d) behaves as super conductor
22. Considering the band structure of Si or Ge crystal of N atoms, at zero Kelvin it has CB & VB
formed by
*a) 4N empty energy states, 4N filled energy states
b) 2N empty energy states, 6N filled energy states
c) 3N empty energy states, 5N filled energy states
d) 4N filled energy states, 4N empty energy states
23. At Ok, the CB and VB
a) Both are partially filled in the case of conductor
b) empty and completely filled in the case of semiconductor
c) empty and completely filled in the case of insulators
*d) all the above
24. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the fermi enegy level lies
a) nearer to valence band
b) nearer to conduction band
*c) exactly at the middle of the forbidden energy gap
d) cant say
25. The mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes because they
a) are lighter
b) have negative charge
*c) need less additional energy to move
d) experience collisions less frequently
26. The value indicated by fermi enegry level in an intrinsic semiconductor is
*a) the average energy of electrons and holes
b) the energy of electrons in conduction band
c) the energy of holes in valence band
d) the energy of forbidden region
27. A semiconducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistances. A current is
found to pass through the circuit if the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost
zero. The device may be
a) an intrinsic semiconductor
b) a p - type semiconductor
c) an n- type semiconductor
*d) a p-n junction
28. A pure semiconductor has
a) an infinite resistance at 00 C
b) a finite resistance which doesnt depend upon temperatue
c) a finite resistance which increases with increase of temperature
*d) a finite resistance which decreases with increase of temperature
52
29. The conductivity of semi conductors like Si or Ge
a) increases when it is doped with tetravalent impurity
b) increses when it is doped with trivalent impurity and decreases when it is doped with pentavalent
impurity
*c) increases when it is doped with trivalent or pentavalent impurity
d) increases whe it is doped with pentavalent impurity and decreases when it is doped with trivalent
impurity
30. A doped semiconductor
a) positively charged b) Negatively charged
*c) electrically neutral d) may be positive or negative
31. The polential in the depletion layer is due to
a) electrons b) holes *c) ions d) fobidden band
32. A hole is
a) A positively charge electron b) A electron in valence band
*c) An unfilled covalent bond d) An excess electron in covalent bond
33. The donor impurity to be added for doping germanium crystal will be of valency
a) 2 2) 3 c) 4 *d) 5
34. A p-type semiconductor can be formed by doping Si or Ge with
a) Boron b)Aluminium c) Galium *d) All the above
35. An n-type semi conductor can be formed by doping Si or Ge with
a) III group element b) IV group elements *c) V group element d) VI group elements
36. A n-type and p - type silicon can be obtained by doping pure silicon with
a) Arsenic and phosphorous b) Indium and Aluminium
*c) Phosphorous and Indium d) Aluminium and Boron
37. At room temperature a p- type semiconductor has
*a) large number of holes and few electrons b) large number of free electrons and few holes
c) equal number of free electrons and holes d) large number of holes and electrons
38. In an n-type semiconductor the fermi energy level lies
*a) in the forbidden energy gap nearer to the conduction band
b) in the forbidden energy gap nearer to the valence band
c) in the middle of forbidden energy gap
d) outside the forbidden energy gap
39. The element that can be used as an acceptor impurity to doped silicon is
a) Antimony b) Arsenic *c) Boron d) Phosphorous
40. In exterinsic semiconductors
a) The conduction band and valence band overlap
b) The gap between conduciton band and valence band is more than 16 eV
*c) The gap between C.B and V. B is nearly about 1 eV
d) The gap between C.B and V. B will be 100 eV and more
41. If an intrinsic semiconductor is heated the ratio of free electrons to holes is
a) gretaer than one b) less than one
c) equal to one d) decreases and becomes zero
42. The neutral region formed at p-n junction due to recombination of electrons and holes is
a) fermi layer *b) depletion layer c) acceptor layer d) all the above
43. The potential barrier at a p- n junction is due to the charge on either side of teh junction. These
charges are
*a) fixed ions b) mahority and minority carriers
c) majority carriers d) minority carriers
44. In an unbiase p-n junction holes diffuse form the p -region to n - region because
a) free electrons in the n - region attract then
b) they move across the junction by the potential differnce
*c) hole conecntration in p - region is more as compared to n - region
d) all the above
53
45. When a forward bias is applied to a P- n junction is
a) raises the potential barrier b) reduces the majority carrier current to zero
*c) lowers the potential barrier d) none of the above
46. If a p - n junction diode is not connected to any circuit
a) the potential is the same everywhere
b) the p- type side is at a heigher potential than the n-type side
*c) there is an electric field at the junction directed form the n- type side to p-type side
d) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the p- type side to the n-type side
47. The electrical resistance of deplection layer is large because
a) it contains electrons as charge carriers
b) it contains holes as charge carrier
c) it has large number of charge carriers
*d) it has no charge carrier
48. In a PN junction
*a) high potential at N side and low potential at P side
b) high potential at P side and low potential at N side
c) P and N both are at same potential
d) undetermined
49. The barrier potentials for silicon and germanium diodes are about
*a) 0.7 V; 0.3 V b) 0.2 V, 0.3 volts c) 1.1 V, 0.7 V d) 1.1 V, 0.3 V
50. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p - n
junctions are
a) drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias *b) diffusion in forward bias, drift in revrse bias
c) diffusion in both forward and reverse bias d) drift in both forward and reverse bias
51. In a semiconductor diode the barrier potential opposes diffusion of
a) free electrons from n - region b)holes from p -region
*c) majority carriers from both the region d) minority carriers from both regions
52. When p- n junction diode is forward biased
a) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
c) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
d) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased
53. The resistance of an ideal diode in forward biased condition is
*a) zero b) infinity c) finite d) negative
54. The resistance of an ideal diode in reverse biased condition is
a) zero *b) infinity c) finite d) negative
55. In forward biased condition the p-n junction diode behaves as
a) high resistance connection b) An off switch
*c) A low resistance connection d) A capacitor
56. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
a) lowers the potential barrier
*b) raises the potential barrier
c) increases the majority carrier current
d) increases the minority carrier current
57. In the middle of he depletion layer of a reverse biased p -n junction the
a) Electric field is zero b) potential is maximum
c) electric field is maximum *d) potential is zero
58. Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode occurs when
a) forward current exceeds a certain value
*b) reverse bias voltage exceeds a certain value
c) forward bias voltage exceeds a certian value
d) the potential barrier is reduced to zero
54
59. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the flow of current across the junction is mainly due to
a)) diffusion of charges *b) drift of charges
c) both drift and diffusion of charges d) neither diffusion nor drift of charges
60. The small currents in reverse biased condition of p- n diode are due to
a) electrons b) holes
c) majority charge, carriers *d) thermal agitation of minority charge carriers
61. The reverse stuation of pn junction depends on
a) doping concentration
b) diffusion lengths of carriers
c) doping concentration diffusion lengths
*d) doping concentration diffusion lengths and device temperature
62. In figure V0 is the potential barrier across a p- n junction when no battery is connected across the
junction then
1
2
3
V0
a) 1 and 3 both correspond to forward bias of junction
*b) 3 correspond to forward bias of junction and 1 corresponds to reverse bias of junction
c) 1 corresponds to forward bias and 3 corresponnds to reverse bias of junction
d) 3 and 1 both correspond to reverse bias of junction
63. A p- n junction diode can be used as
a) A sitch b) A capacitor c) Rectifier *d) All the above
64. A diode as a rectifier converts
*a) A.C into D.C b) D.C into A.C
c) varying D.C curret into constant D.C current
d) High voltage into low voltage and vice versa
65. In half - wave rectifier maximum percentage of A.C power that in be converted into D.C power is
a) 25% *b) 40.6 % c) 81.2 % d) 10%
66. In a half - wave rectifier the load current flows for
a) the complete cycle of the input signal
b) more than half cycle but less than the complete cycle of the input signal
c) less than half cycle of the input signal
*d) only for every half cycle of the input signal
67. Maximum efficiency of a full - wave rectifier is
a) 40.6 % *b) 81.2 % c) 25% d) 50%
68. In a full -wave rectifier the load current flows for
*a) the complete cycle of the input signal
b) only for the positive half cycle of the input signal
c) less than half cycle of the input signal
d) more than half - cycle but less than complete cycle of the input signal
69. Zener breakdown occurs
a) under forward biased condition *b) under reverse biased condition
c) under high temperature d) due to manufacturing defect
70. At breakdown region of a zener diode which of the following does not change much
a) current *b) voltage c) dynamic impedence d) capacitance
71. Zener diode can be used
*a) As voltage regulator b)As amplifier c) As oscillator d) All the above
55
72. The given graph represents V - I characteristics for a semicodnuctor device
I A
V
Which of the following is correct
*a) It is V- I characteristics of solar cell, whose point A represent open circuit voltage and B short
circuit current
b) It is of solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current respectively
c) It is for a photodiode and points A & B represent open circuit voltage and current respectively
d) It is for LEB, points A & B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively
73. Elmentory semiconductors are not used to make visible LED because
a) They have low conductivity
b) They have low melting point
*c) They have low boiling point
d) They have band gap such that emissions are in IR region
74. A solid which is transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases which temperature is
formed by
a) metallic binding b) ionic binding
*c) covalent binding d) vanderwadl’s binding
75. The reason for the photodiodes are operated in reverse bias condition when light falls on it
a) Current in forward bias is greater than in reverse
b) current in reverse bias is greater than in forward bias
c) the fractional change in reverse bias current is greater than the fractional change in forward bias
current
d) all
76. The I - V characteristic of an LED is
I V O I
B I R Y G B
G R
Y Y
R
a) b) c) G
*d)
O B
O V O
V I V
77. In the figure assuming the diodes to be ideal
A R D1
10 V
D2
a) D1 and D2 are the both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B
b) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B
c) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to B
*d) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A
56
78. The logic gate is an electric circuit which
*a) makes logic decisions b) allows electrons flow only in one
c) works binary algebra d) alternates between 0 & 1 value
79. The output of two input OR gate is 1
a) if both inputs are zero *b) if either or both the inputs are 1
c) only if both inputs are 1 d) if either input is zero
80. The output of a two input AND gate is one, only when its
a) either input is one b) either input is zero
*c) both inputs are one d) both inputs are zero
81. An OR gate
*a) implements logic addition b) is a univbersal gate
c) implements logic multiplication d) implements logic subtraction
82. An AND gate
a) implements logic addition b) is a universeal gate
c) implements logic multiplication d) implements logic subtraction
83. NAND and NOR gates are called universal gate primarily because they
a) are avaibale universitly
*b) can be combined to produce OR, AND & NOT gates
c) are widely used in integrated circuits
d) are easiest to manufacture
84. Digital circuit can be made by repetitive use of
a) OR gates b) NOT gates c) AND gates *d) NAND gates
85. The minimum number of NAND gates are used to form AND gate is
a) 1 *b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
86. Two input of NAND gate are shorted. This gate is equivalents to
a) OR b) AND *c) NOT d) NOR
87. An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
a) NOT gare b) OR gate *c) NAND gate d) AND gate
88. The value of A A in the Boolean algebra is
a) 0 *b) 1 c) A d) A
89. The valu of A. A in Boolean algebra is
*a) 0 b) 1 c) A d) A
90. If A 1, B 0 , then in terms of Boolean algebra A B equals
*a) A b) B c) A d) A B
91. In the Boolean expression A.B is equal to
a) A B b) A B c) A B *d) A B
92. Two NOT gates are connected at the two inputs of a NAND gate This combination will behave like
a) NAND gate b) AND gate *c) OR gate d) NOT gate
93. The minimum no of NOR gate require to get AND gate
a) 2 b) 5 *c) 3 d) 4
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The group of closely packed energy levels is called ______________(A: energy band )
2. The energy bands which are completely filled with electrons at zero Kelvin are called
___________(A: Valence band )
3. Valence band contains electrons and _________(A: holes)
4. Condution band contains only _____________(A: electrons)
5. The gap between valence band and the conduction band is called ___________(A: energy gap)
57
6. The atoms in a semiconductor are bonded by __________ band (A: Covalent)
7. Conductivity of a pure semiconductor ______________ with the increase of
temperature(A:Increase)
8. Semiconductors at ok behave as _________(A: insulator)
9. Number of holes in valence band is equal to number of electrons in conduction band are called
________________(A: intrinsic semiconductors )
10. Number of holes in valence band is not equal to number of electrons in conduction band are called
_____________________(A: extrinsic semiconduction)
11. The process of adding impurity to an intrinsic semiconductor is called ___________(A: doping)
12. The level formed due to impurity atom, in the forbidden energy gap, very near to the valence band in
a p- type semiconductor is called ______________ level (A: acceptor)
13. When electric field across a semiconductor is increased, the number of charge carriers will
_________(A: increase)
14. In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, the number of electrons and holes will be
__________(A: equal)
15. Majority charge carrier in n - type semiconductor is _____________(A: electrons)
16. majority charge carrier in p-type semiconductor is _______________(A: holes)
17. Resistance of ideal diode in forward bias is ________(A:Zero)
18. Rectification is approces of converting alternating current in to ___________current (A: Direct)
19. A heavity doped reverse biased p - n junction diode operated at breakdown potential is called
______(A: Zener diode)
20. ____________ is used as voltage regulators (A: Zener diode)
21. Solar cell iperated under _______________(A: Unbiased)
22. LED operated under ____________(A: Forward biased)
23. Photo diode operated under _____________ (A: reverse bias)
24. p-n junction under ___________ bias act as an open switch (A: Reverse)
25. The region of immobile positive and negative ions in a semiconductor is called _________ region
(A: depletion)
26. The potential in the depletion region is due to __________(A: ions)
27. IV characteristics of _________________ is drawn in the fourth quandrant of the co-r=ordinate
system (A: solar cell)
28. NAND and NOR gates are called _______gates (A: universal)
29. NAND gate is the combination of NOT and __________gate (A: AND)
30. NOR gate is the combination of NOT and ________gate (A: OR )
31. __________gate has only one input (A: NOT)
32. If A 0, B 1 the out put of OR gate ____________(A: 1)
33. If A 1, B 1 the out put of NAND gate ________(A: (0) Zero)
58
You might also like
- Understanding Electric Charges and FieldsNo ratings yetUnderstanding Electric Charges and Fields12 pages
- Class XII Physics Workbook & Question BankNo ratings yetClass XII Physics Workbook & Question Bank173 pages
- Class 12 Physics Test on ElectrostaticsNo ratings yetClass 12 Physics Test on Electrostatics10 pages
- Electrostatics Charge and Forces WorksheetNo ratings yetElectrostatics Charge and Forces Worksheet9 pages
- Physics Assignment: Electric Charges QuizNo ratings yetPhysics Assignment: Electric Charges Quiz5 pages
- Physics MCQs on Electric Charges and FieldsNo ratings yetPhysics MCQs on Electric Charges and Fields11 pages
- NEET Physics Model Paper: Electric ChargesNo ratings yetNEET Physics Model Paper: Electric Charges6 pages
- Electric Charge and Field Practice QuestionsNo ratings yetElectric Charge and Field Practice Questions7 pages
- NEET-UG Physics: Electric Forces & FieldsNo ratings yetNEET-UG Physics: Electric Forces & Fields12 pages
- CBSE Class 12 Physics Question Bank 2024No ratings yetCBSE Class 12 Physics Question Bank 202448 pages
- Electrostatics MCQs for Class 12 PhysicsNo ratings yetElectrostatics MCQs for Class 12 Physics12 pages
- Electric Charges and Fields DPP SolutionsNo ratings yetElectric Charges and Fields DPP Solutions7 pages
- Electric Field Analysis of Coaxial CylindersNo ratings yetElectric Field Analysis of Coaxial Cylinders3 pages
- Charge and Electron Gain in Physics MCQsNo ratings yetCharge and Electron Gain in Physics MCQs47 pages
- Class 12 Physics Worksheet: Electric ChargesNo ratings yetClass 12 Physics Worksheet: Electric Charges3 pages
- Physics Quiz: Electric Charges & FieldsNo ratings yetPhysics Quiz: Electric Charges & Fields10 pages
- Electric Charges and Fields MCQs with AnswersNo ratings yetElectric Charges and Fields MCQs with Answers76 pages
- Electric Field Lines with Conducting SphereNo ratings yetElectric Field Lines with Conducting Sphere3 pages
- Electric Charges and Fields Practice QuestionsNo ratings yetElectric Charges and Fields Practice Questions8 pages
