FSSAI

Previous Year Paper

002 rd
SET-A
3 FOOD ANALYST EXAMINATION
PAPER-II
Important : Please refer your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Name & Roll
No. on the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet

Name of the Candidate I I I I I I I II I I I I II I I I I I I I I II I I

Roll No. IFIAIEl3II._--'------'l�I _.__,_____,
Signature of the Candidate
Time : 2 Hours No. of Questions : 100 Max. Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Write your Name and Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer
Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else and darken the corresponding bubbles
with Black Ball Pen in OMR Answer Sheets. Also put your signature on OMR Answer
Sheet in the space provided therein.
2. w,:ite candidate's status (fresh/reappearing) in the OMR Answer Sheet
3. While writing your name leave one blank box between first, second and surname in the
same order as mentioned in your admit card.
4. Do not make any identification mark on the OMR Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
5. Each question has four alternative answers (a, b, c, cl) of which only one is correct. For
each question darken only one bubble, which ever you think is the correct answer, on
the OMR Answer Sheet.
6. There is negative marking for wrong answers. For every correct answer one mark shall
be awarded and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks shall be deducted.
7.. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that
. question blank in the OMR Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. For rough work, only blank sheet attached at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
9. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow
the· instructions given therein, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any
resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e. not following the
instructions completely, shall be the responsibility of the candidate only.
10. Hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Room Invigilator on duty before leaving
the Exam Hall.
11. In no case the OMR Answer Sheet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any
candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination.
12. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her· seat or is found in
possession of any material having possibility of any assistance or found giving or
receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will
be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent whose decision shall be
final.
13. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner etc. 1s
not permitted inside the examination hall.

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 PAPER-II

1. Lactofenin is an iron binding _____ that is inhibitory to a number of food-borne

bacteria.
(a) Lipoprotein (b) Glycoprotein
(c) Lactoprotein (d) Dipeptide
2. Milk is deficient in one ofthe following vitamin
(a) A (b) B complex
� C � D
3. Yellow co lour in cow milk is due to
(a) Xanthophyll (b) Riboflavin
(c) Carotene (d) Bixin
4. Lactose is composed ofD-galactose and D-glucose linked through
(a) a (5-8) (b) a (1-4)
(c) � (5-8) (d) � (1-4)
5. The following is not a potent anti-oxidant
(a) Capsaicin (b) Nordihydroguaretic acid
(c) Tertiary butyl hydro quinone (d) Casoxin
6. Sorbates and benzoates preservatives are most active at following pH offood system
(a) 7.0 (b) 9.0
(c) 4.5 (d) 2.0
7. Incorporation ofsoy flour to wheat flour would enrich the bread with following constituent
(a) Lysine (b) Fiber
(c) Lactose (d) Iron
8. Amongst derivatives oflactose, is an anomer oflactose.
(a) Lactobinic acid (b) Lactulose
(c) Epilactose (d) Lactitol
9. Relation between pH and pOH is expressed as
(a) pH - pOH= 14 (b) pH - pOH = 7
(c) pH+ pOH=7 (d) pH+pOH= 14
10. Gluten is very unique food protein present in
(a) Barley (b) Oat
(c) Rice (d) Wheat
11. In Kjeldahl method ofnitrogen estimation, indicator comprises
(a) Methyl red+ Methylene blue (b) Methyl orange+Bromophenol blue
(b) Methyl orange+ Methylene blue (d) Methyl red+Bromophenol blue
12. Enzyme lipase is likely to attack fat globules
(a) Before homogenization (b) After homogenization
(c) Before cream separation (d) After pasteurization

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13. Fat molecules exhibit different crystal fonns which is called as
(a) Pleomorphism (b) Polymorphism
( c) Polymers (d) Stereoisomer
14. Inhibitory effect of milk peptides on the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE inhibition)
is used for making products for controlling
(a) Cholesterol (b ) Hypertension
(c) Immune functions (d) Osteoporosis
15. Which of the following is not a natural colour
(a) Canidine 3 glucoside (b) Chlorophyll
(c) Sunset yellow (d) Annato
16. The principal acid fanned on heating oflactose at temperature above 100° C.
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Lactic acid
( c) Lactobionic acid (d) Fonnic acid
17. Linoleic and linolenic acid are not synthesized in the mammary gland and have to be
supplied in the diet; they are therefore called
(a) Unsaturated fatty acids (b) Essential fatty acids
( c) Polyenoic acids (d) None ofabove
18. Retrogradation can lead to............... to expel water from polymer network
(a) Gelling (b) Syneresis
(c) Dextrinization (d) Annealing
19. The increase in volume, viscosity and translucency ofstarch granules when they are heated
in a liquid is called
(a) Retrogradation ( b) Dextrinization
( c) Inversion (d) Gelatinization
20. Trypsin hydrolyses a peptide bond on the carboxyl side of
(a) Leucine (b) Phenylalanine
( c) Arginine (d) Praline
21. Dominant sugar present in hemicelluloses is
(a) Ribose (b) Ribulose
( c) Xylulose (d) Xylose
22. Celiac disease is a manifestation of
(a) Lactose intolerance (b) Tropical sprue
(c ) Chronic constipation (d) Gluten intolerance
23. Element that acts as an antioxidant and have synergistic effect with Vitamin Eis
(a) Selenium (b) Iron
(c ) Copper (d) Iodine
24. The naturally occurring fonn ofamino acid in proteins
(a) L-amino acids only (b ) D-amino acids only
( c) both L and D amino acids (d) none ofthese

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25. Conversion of Casein to Paracasein requires
(a) Proteases and Renin (b) Papain and Renin
(c ) Magnesium ions and Rennin (d) Calcium ions and Rem1in
26. Reducing sugars and Non reducing sugars can be differentiated by
(a) Benedicts test (b) Barfoed's test
(c) Fehlings test (d) None of the above
27. Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to ........... in children
(a) Scurvy (b) Rickets
(c) Osteomalacia (d) Osteoporosis
28. The milk proten casein is
(a) Nucleoprotein (b) Glycoprotein
(c) Phosphoprotein (d) Lipoprotein
29. Cyanacobalamine is another name for
(a) Bl (b) B6
(c) B12 (d) B2
30. Neutraceutical is a food, food component that has been shown to
(a) Curative effect on disease (b) Beneficial effect on health b eyond
b asic nutrition
(c) Preventive effect on diseases (d) Antiaging effect
31. Residues of Aflatoxin Ml would b e found in
(a) Dried fruits and nuts (b) Cereals and grains
(c) Honey (d) Milk and dairy products
32. Which of the following processes creates free radicles in food which can destroy cell
membranes and attack DNA and proteins, thus preventing microorganism growth
( a) Pasteurization (b) Reduction
(c) Irradiation (d) Oxidation

33. Maillard reaction products which are mutagenic and carcinogenic in nature and formed
during food processing involves
(a) acid and protein (b) Amino acids and reducing sugars.
(c) Protein, moisture and heat (d) None of the above

34. The major amount of fatty acid present in coconut oil is

(a) Oleic acid (b) Laurie acid
(c) Palmitic acid (d) Myristic acid

35. Residues ofBisphenol A in foods are due to

( a) migration from packaging made from (b) Frying of food at high temperature
plastics and epoxy resins
(c) Use of organophosphorus pesticides (d) Enviromnental contamination

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36. Sudan dyes are found as an adulterant in
(a) Hot paprika (b) Coriander powder
( c) Tea (d) Coffee powder
37. Arhar dal is washed with water. The water solution yellow in colour. To the same water
solution, a few drops of HCl is added and the solution turns pink in colour. This indicates
that the dal is adulterated with
(a) Metanil yellow (b) Turmeric powder
( c) Chrome yellow (d) Amaranth yellow
38. Dioxin is a
(a) Pesticide (b) Heavy metal
(c ) Adulterant (d) Environmental contaminant
39. Added sugar in milk is considered as
(a) adulterant (b) preservative
( c) additive (d) None of the above
40. BHA is a
(a) Antioxidant (b) Flavor enhancer
(c) Pesticide (d) Permitted color
41. DON is a
(a) Natural toxicant (b) Mycotoxin
(c) Permitted flavour (d) Heavy metal contaminant
42. Organochlorine pesticide residues can by analyzed by
(a) ECD (b) FPD
(c) HPLC ( d) AAS
43. As per FSS Act limit for individual pesticide residue in packaged drinking water is
(a) l.0ppm (b) 0.lppm
(c ) 1.0ppb (d ) 0.l ppb
44. Lathyrism is caused by
(a) Argemone seeds (b) Kesari dhal
(c ) Aflatoxin (d ) Heavy metals
45. Nitrofurans are
(a) Permitted colors (b) Permitted antibiotics
(c) Unpermitted colors (d ) Unpennitted antibiotics
46. Sulfonamides are permitted in
(a) Marine products (b) Dairy products
(c) Oils (d ) Spices
47. Urea is added to milk to increase
(a) Thickness (b) Shelf-life
(c) Nitrogen content ( d) Brightness
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48. is a unpermitted color
(a ) Ponceau (b) Brillian blue FCF
(c) Tartrazine (d) Rhodamine
49. Lead chromate is a common adulterant found in
(a) Water (b) Soft drinks
(c) Turmeric (d) Vegetable oils
50. TBHQ in oils
(a) Enhances color (b) Retards oxidation
(c) Enhances flavour (d) All of the above
51. According to Beer-Lambert law, absorbance does not depend on
(a ) Colour of the solution (b) Solution concentration
(c) Extinction coefficient of the sample (d) Distance. that the light has travelled
through the sample
52. Lead levels in drinking water could be determined by using
(a) IR (b) HPLC
(c) GC-MS (d) AAS
53. Tomatoes contain lycopene (},max = 444, 470 and 502 nm) and P-carotene (J,max = 442 and
472 nm ). Which technique could be used for the analysis of lycopene and P-carotene in
tomatoes, after suitable sample preparation?
(a) GC with FID detector (b) HPLC with UV detection
(c) AAS (d) HPLC with UV-VIS detection
54. The purpose of flame in Flame Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to
(a) Purify the sample (b) Excite the analyte atoms
(c) Desolvate and atomize the analyte (d) Ionize the analyte atoms
atoms

55. Which of the following compounds would be the most suitable for making a stock solution
+
of Pb2 ion for calibration purpose in AAS?
(a ) PbCh (b)
( c) Pb(N03)2 (d)
56. Headspace analysis is carried out in order to
(a) Determine the solvent composition of (b) Determine non-volatiles
mobile phase
(c) Analyse the column contents ahead of (d) Analyse volatile compounds from
the sample solid or liquid sample
57. Resolution is proportional to the
( a) Number of theoretical plates in a (b) Cube root of the number of
column theoretical plates in a column
(c) Square root of the number of (d) Square of the number of theoretical
theoretical plates in a column plates in a column

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58. Thin Layer Chromatography is
(a) Partition Chromatography (b) Electrical mobility of ionic species
(c) Adsorption chromatorgraphy (d) None of the above
59. HPLC methods include
(a) Liquid/liquid (partition) (b) Liquid/solid (adsorption)
chromatography
(c) Ion exchange and size exclusion (d) All of the above
chromatography
60. Which of the following statements is true for a refractive index detector in HPLC?
(a) It is more sensitive than a UV (b) It can only be used for isocratic
detector elutions
(c) It does not respond to many solutes. (d) None of above
61. A strong signal at 1700 cm-• in an IR spectrum indicate the presence of a(n)
(a) Alcohol (b) Ether
(c) Carbonyl (d) Amine
62. A mass spectrometer is often linked to a gas chromatograph (GC) so that the
(a) Substance can be separated in mass (b) Substance can be separated in the
spectrometer and then passed through GC and then passed through the
the GC for analysis mass spectrometer for analysis
(c) Gas used as the mobile phase in the (d) Exact mass of the mixture is
GC is first purified by the mass detennined by mass spectrometer
spectrometer before it is passed into GC
63. High perfonnance liquid chromatography cannot be used to
(a) Determine the caffeine content of (b) Detennine mercury content of a fish
coffee sample sample
(c) Identify various pigments from a leaf (d) None of the above
extract
64. A milk sample was found to contain 0.01 % by weight of a toxic residue. In other words
content of toxic residue in milk is
(a) 100 ppm (b) 100 ppb
(c) 10 ng/kg (d) 100 ppt
65. Heavy metals can be analysed by
(a) Gas chromatograph (b) HPLC
(c) pH meter (d) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
66. To calculate relative standard deviation
(a) only standard deviation value 1s (b) only mean value is required
required
(c) both mean and standard deviation (d) both mean and standard deviation
values are required values are NOT required
67. 0.1 N NaOH solution is a
(a) primary standard solution (b) secondary standard solution
(c) stock solution (d) none of the above

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68. Total ash content provides information on
(a) salt content (b) mineral content
(c) siliceous matter (d) all ofthe above
69. Absorbed wavelengths in atomic absorption spectrnm appear as
(a) dark background (b) dark lines
(c) light background (d) light lines
70. SIN ratio c01Tesponds to
(a) sensitivity of the instrument (b) repeatability ofthe instrument
(c) accuracy ofthe instrument (d) none ofthe above
71. Which ofthe following acid will have higher bacteriostatic effect at a given pH?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Citric acid (d) Maleic acid
72. A psychrophillic halophile would be a microbe that prefers
(a) Cold temperatures and increased (b) Warm temperatures and increased
amounts ofsalt amounts ofpressure
(c) Cold temperatures and the absence of (d) Warm temperatures and increased
oxygen amounts ofacid
73. Which of the following species of Clostridium is responsible for formation of dark green
to black colours in cheese?
(a) Clostridium tyrobutyricum (b) Clostridium 5porogenes
(c) Clostridium herbarum (d) None ofthese
74. Pseudomonas nigrifaciens in mildely salted butter may cause
(a) Black smudge (b) Greenish areas
(c) Pink colour (d) None ofthese
75. Yeast are most likely to grow in frozen fruits during
(a) Slow thawing (b) refrigeration
(c) Ambient temperature (d) None ofthese
76. Bacterial soft rot is caused due to
(a) Fermentation ofpectin (b) Fermentation ofsugar
(c) Formation ofketones (d) Formation of amino acids
77. Lactic acid bacteria in meats may be responsible for
(a) Slime formation at the surface or (b) Production ofgreen discoloration
within especially in presence of
sucrose
(c) sourmg (d) All ofthe above
78. Which ofthe following statements are true regarding botulinal toxins
(a) a neurotoxin (b) Water soluble exotoxin
(c) Produced by Clostridium botulinum, a (d) All ofthese
gram positive anerobic bacteria

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79. Suspected colonies of Staphylococcus aureus when grown on Baird Parker medium shall
show
(a) Coagulase activity (b) Protease activity
(c) Catalase activity (d) None of these
80. Which of the following is true about ISO 2002 method for Salmonella detection
(a) Selenite cystine broth is replaced by (b) Rappaport vassiliadis broth has been
Muller Kauffman tetrathionate replaced by Rappaport Vassiliadis
novobiocin broth Soya broth
(c) XLD is the first isolation medium (d) All of these
rather than BGA
81 . Bacterial flagella is made up of
(a) microtubules (b) tubulin
(c ) flagellin (d) spinin
82. Yeast and mold count detennination requires
(a) Nutrient agar (b) Acidified potato glucose agar
(c ) MacConkey agar (d) Violet Red Bile Agar
83. Fluid mosaic model is used to explain the cell structure of
(a) Yeast (b) Mold
(c) Bacteria (d) Virus
84. Ropiness in bread is due to
(a) Bacillus cereus (b) Bacillus lichenformis
(c) Geotrichum auranticum (d) Bacillus subtilis

85. Rhizopus stolonifer is also known as

(a) Dairy mold (b) Meat mold
(c) Bread mold (d) Machi

86. Choose the correct statement

(a) Growth of aerobes takes place at a (b) Growth of aerobes takes place at a
lower water activity in the presence of higher water activity in the presence
air of air
(c) Growth of anaerobes takes place at a (d) Growth of both aerobes and
lower water activity in the presence of anaerobes takes place at a higher
arr water activity in the presence of air

87. Thermal death times of Salmonella typhi at 60 °C is---- minutes

(a) 3.4 (b) 4.3
(c) 2.3 (d) 3.2
88. Most food and microbial enzymes are destroyed at oc
(a) 62.5 (b) 65.2
(c) 74.9 (d) 79.4

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89. Choose the correct statement
(a) High freezing temperatures are more (b) High freezing temperatures are more
lethal like more microorganisms are lethal like more microorganisms are
inactivated at -4 to - l 0°C than at -15 inactivated at -15 to -30°C than at -4
to -30° C to -10 °C
(c) Low freezing temperatures. are more (d) High freezing temperatures are more
lethal like more microorganisms are lethal like more microorganisms are
inactivated at -4 to - l 0°C than at -15 inactivated at -15 to -30 °C than at -4
to -30 °C to -10 ° C
90. The pH at which sodium benzoate is most effective_________ to inhibit the
growth of most bacteria
(a) 2.5 - 4.0 (b) 4.5 - 5.5
(c ) 6.5 (d) 7.0
91. The approximate acidity developed in sauerkraut is
(a) 1.2% Lactic acid (b) 1.2% Acetic acid
(c) 1.7% Lactic acid ( d) 1. 7% Acetic acid
92. Neurospora sitophila is also known as
(a) Dairy Mold (b) Machinery Mold
(c ) Red Bread Mold ( d) Red meat Mold
93. is a osmophilic yeast
(a) S. cerevisiae var. ellipsoideus (b) S. uvarum
( c) Kluyveromyces marxianus ( d) S. rouxii
94. _______ test organism for penicillin detection in milk
(a) B. sterothennophilus (ATCC 7953) (b) B. pumilus (ATCC 27142)
(c ) B. subtilus (ATCC 6633) (d) B. subtilus var niger (ATCC 9372)
95. Asepsis is
(a) Keeping out microorganisms (b) Removal of microorganisms
( c) Hindring the growth of (d) Killing the microorganisms
microorganisms

96. The rate during which the rate of multiplication is decreasing is also known as
(a) Maximum stationary phase (b ) Accelerated death phase
(c ) Negative acceleration phase ( d) Survival phase
97. Yellow discoloration in meat are caused by bacteria with yellow pigments usually species
of
(a) Micrococcus (b) Flavobacterium
(c ) Both (a) and (b) (d) Pseudomonas syncyanea
98. Which organization is used as indicator of fecal pollution in water
(a) Clostridium (b) E. coli
(c) Bacillus subtilis (d) Salmonella

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99. The acidity of medium acid foods lies in between
(a ) Above 6.5 (b) 6.5 to 5.3
(c) 5.3 to 4.5 (d) Below 4.5
100. Laminar air flow bench contain
(a ) Cellulose filter (b) Nitrocellulose filter
(c ) MEGA Filter (d) HEPA Filter

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