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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023

MOCK CLAT - 32
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE wheel as used in chariots, have also been found,
suggesting the usage of chariots.’
1. (c) A title catches the essence of the passage in brief. It The entire exercise by the author has been to
must be pertinent to the passage apart from carrying disprove the theory of the Aryan invasion, and
clarity. Option (c) is the best pick as elements in the option (c) is thereby a false statement.
passage indicate that the Aryan invasion was only a 3. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer. The fifth paragraph
legendary theory that lacks a strong basis. Refer to states that ‘Muller assumed.’ Also, refer to the lines,
the words, ‘so-called pre-Aryan invasion’ that the ‘Max Muller believed in Biblical chronology. This
author uses liberally in the text. This justifies this placed the beginning of the world at 4000 BC and
title as a pertinent choice. Option (a) is too general; the Flood around 2500 BC. Assuming those two
the passage doesn’t expound on the Aryan invasion; dates, it became difficult to get the Aryans in India
it explores certain other significant and related before 1500 BC.’ Hence, the conclusion arrived at
aspects. The mention of the noun ‘flaw in option (b) was hypothetical. Option (a) is baseless. Option (b)
invalidates it. Since the author has not stated any can be disproved by the last part of the fifth
consequences of the Aryan invasion, option (d) can paragraph Option (d) is far-fetched and is not
be eliminated. supported by the passage.
2. (d) Option (d) is the answer, as a thorough reading of 4. (d) Option (d) is the correct conclusion, as it contests
the passage indicates the same. The author clears the the earlier assumptions that horse-driven chariots
misconception and controversy regarding the were introduced in ancient urban cultures by the
invasion of the Aryan theory. Option (a) can be Aryans, thereby making the theory inclusive.
refuted from the first paragraph of the passage. Option (a) is incorrect as the mere presence of
Refer to the lines, ‘The Aryan invasion theory, thus, physical remains of a horse can’t confirm that
turned the ‘Vedas’ and Indo-Aryans, into more than Aryans were not European nomads. Option (b) is a
primitive poems of uncivilized plunderers.’ bit arbitrary. The fact of the horse remains has not
Option (b) is erroneous, as proven by the been stated as a confirmation of having been
penultimate paragraph of the passage. Refer to the introduced to the ancient cultures by foreign
lines, ‘Further excavations discovered horses not invasion. It refutes the claims of the Aryan invasion
only in Indus Valley sites but also in pre-Indus sites. theory. Option (c) states the reverse and can be
The use of the horse has thus been proven for the eliminated.
whole range of ancient Indian history. Evidence of 5. (c) None except option (c) can be inferred from the
the wheel, and an Indus seal showing a spoked passage. Refer to the lines, ‘The only basis for this
was a rather questionable interpretation of the ‘Rig

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 Veda’ that they made, ignoring the sophisticated 10. (c) 'Outperform' means 'perform better than', and words
nature of the culture presented within it.’ If the such as to surpass, outdo, defeat and overtake all
scholars’ ignored the sophisticated nature of the conform to the meaning of 'outperform', but
culture presented within it.’ If the scholars’ ignored flounder does not. Flounder, which means to fail or
the sophisticated nature of the culture presented stumble, goes against the meaning. So, clearly, it
within it, it means that their study was one- cannot replace the given word.
dimensional. They did not have an in-depth Hence, option (c) is correct.
understanding of the cultural aspect, making option 11. (d) Only I and III
(c) the correct answer. The very first paragraph of Referring to paragraph one, the statement I is true.
the passage mentions light-skinned Indo-European Refer to the lines, ‘That this deal comes just a
tribes’, which refutes option (a). There is no fact in month after India signed the Communications
the passage on which option (b) can be based and Compatibility and Security Agreement
drawn. Option (d) can be refuted from the last (COMCASA) for better interoperability with the
sentence of the first paragraph, and the first of the U.S. military is a sign that India will not be forced
second paragraph. or even persuaded into putting all its eggs in one
6. (d) Only option (d) is correct. Refer to the entire last strategic basket.’
paragraph; it gives an overview that though Danone, Referring to the same paragraph- though the two
for the sake of nature, agreed to shift its business sides didn’t announce an agreement between ONGC
model to a sustainable one, it had to face its Videsh and Gazprom as expected, several billions of
repercussions- like- protests from shareholders in dollars worth of investment and energy deals are in
view that the company would face losses. Hence, the pipeline. Thus, statement II is false. Referring to
option (d) is correct. Options (a) and (b) are extreme the same paragraph one, statement III is clearly
conclusions; hence, ruled out. In option (c), the latter visible. Refer to the lines, ‘Much of the fresh
part of the sentence that a purpose-driven model is momentum in bilateral engagement will come from
ignored is contrary to what is stated in the passage. the energy sector.’ Hence, the correct answer is
The passage states in the last lines that while option (d). Option (a) is incorrect because it does not
Danone's share price has underperformed those of include the true statement III. Option (b) is incorrect
its rivals, the company is not in the red. Therefore, as it does not include the true statement I. Option (c)
one cannot conclude that the purpose-driven model is incorrect because it includes the false statement II,
is ignored. whereas the question asks for only true statements.
7. (b) 'Unbridled' means 'uncontrolled' and 'rampant' also 12. (b) The passage mentions that this deal comes just a
means 'unrestrained in action or performance', so month after India signed the Communications
'rampant' can replace 'unbridled' as the rest of the Compatibility and Security Agreement
words mean 'careful/mild/controlled' and all directly (COMCASA) for better interoperability with the
or indirectly, are antonyms of 'unbridled'. U.S. military is a sign that India will not be forced
Hence, option (b) is correct. or even persuaded into putting all its eggs in one
8. (d) Only option (d) is true because the crux of the strategic basket. But it does not state in the passage
passage is to act in a responsible way to preserve our that the particular deal was an act of defiance. It is
nature; therefore, the companies must incorporate too extreme a conjecture, making statement I false.
more environmentally sustainable models. The rest Statement II is true. Refer to the lines, ‘On Friday,
of the options are contrary to what has been stated the two countries announced a number of
in the passage. They go against the gist of the agreements, including a $5.43 billion S-400 Triumf
passage. Options (a) and (b) can be refuted by the missile system deal, a space cooperation
lines, ‘Many businesses, recognising the perils arrangement to put an Indian in space, and an action
facing the planet, are changing the way they plan for a new nuclear plant.’ The passage also
operate.’ Option (d) contradicts what has been stated clearly mentions that more defence deals with
in the second paragraph. Russia will make it increasingly difficult for the U.S.
Hence, option (d) is correct. to give India a waiver from sanctions under
9. (c) Only option (c) is true because we run businesses CAATSA, its legislation aimed at curtailing defence
through the resources available in our ecosystem, and energy dealings with Russia, Iran and North
without which we are nothing. Thus, the rest of the Korea, which makes statement III false. Hence, this
options are vague and incorrect. Option (a) is makes option (b) the correct answer.
misconstrued. The author does not mention external 13. (b) The correct match is option B. In the pipeline means
factors. Option (b) defies the reasoning presented in to be in the process because it is incomplete. To put
the passage by stating that economies can thrive all one egg means to put all one’s means into doing
without nature. Option (d) is far-fetched as a one thing, and to go into force means to be effective
statement, for nothing is presented that nature is part or to have been executed. The rest of the options are
of our economies. a mismatch.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

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14. (a) Option A is the correct answer. Refer to the line, factor, the author indicates that the differences in
‘New Delhi’s assertion of “strategic autonomy” and unemployment across education groups can also be
desire for multipolarity will be seriously tested in a combination of both, making option (d) the only
the coming months.’It is evident from the line that pair that makes the sentence coherent. In option (a),
strategic autonomy is not fool-proof, as it is a stand the word ‘rose’ ( is in the past tense, which will not
that India has taken recently in the wake of its go with the auxiliary verb ‘can’. In option (b), the
strained relations with the US. Also, India may have word ‘distinction’ (division) goes against the
made a deal with Russia, but it evaded certain major context. In option (c), both the words ‘arisen’(which
negotiations which, as per the passage, Russia will should have the verb ‘have’, for arisen is a
not let go easily; therefore, it is yet to be seen participle) and ‘separation’ are incorrect,
whether the stance taken by India will go ints favour. contextually.
Options B is far-fetched as an inference. It is too Hence the correct answer is option D.
early to predict. The same is the case with option D. 18. (b) According to the passage, This article systematically
Option C is confusing. ‘Remain suspended’ could and quantitatively investigates possible
mean that it will not move forward, which cannot be explanations for greater employment stability of
derived from the given sentence. more educated people by using recent empirical and
15. (a) The beginning of the concluding paragraph carries theoretical advances in the area of worker‐flow
the intention behind India’s alliance with Russia on analysis and search and matching models.
various deals. Whether strategic autonomy and Options A, C and D are false according to the
multipolarity will work is another matter, but the passage. Option A is contrary to the stated facts.
entire passage focuses on why India went ahead with Option C is incorrect, for the author has not
the deal and where it must not bow down to pressure. disapproved of the given hypothesis. In fact, he has
Option (a) is the correct answer. Option (b) is championed the empirical outcome. Option D is
incorrect because the strained relationship between incorrect because the author supports the arguments
India and US is just a part of the passage and does without nullifying them.
not cover the whole scenario. Option (c) is incorrect, Hence the correct answer is option B.
for though India and Russia have been mentioned as 19. (b) Option B is correct as per the statement above. The
having old ties, it still is not comprehensive enough empirical studies in the passage aim to assess why
to be the title. Option (d) is close, but it does not education brings on more retention and stability in
mention the kind of strategic stand India takes, and jobs compared to the instability in the jobs because
is incomplete in terms of leaving out multipolarity of less education. The purpose is to examine the
as the thought behind the strategic signing. value of education in today’s job market; whether
16. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘More educated individuals fare more education is directly proportional to more
much better in the labour market than their less stability. Option (b) is the underlying purpose of the
educated peers. High school graduates in the United author’s contentions. Option (a) is ruled out, as no
States, on average, experience two times higher such arguments support the given comparison
probability of being unemployed than college between the old millennials with those of other
graduates, and educational attainment appears to generations. Option C is ruled out, for the author
have been a good antidote to joblessness for the does not weaken the findings. Option D, even if true,
whole period of data availability. Moreover, the is not the study matter (widening earnings gaps); the
volatility of employment decreases with education research has been on enhanced job security due to
as well, making options (c) and (d) correct, thereby more education.
agreeing with the author’s thought process. Option 20. (d) The highlighted word is a modifier modifying an
(b), too, has been provided as an information in the adverb ‘frequently’. An adverb modifies an adverb;
passage. Refer to the lines, ‘…employment stability therefore, option D is the correct answer. Less is an
rises with education because more educated workers adverb of degree. An adjective only modifies a
also receive more on‐the‐job training and thus noun, making option C incorrect. ‘Less is not a
accumulate more match‐specific human capital.’ noun, nor a preposition.
Option (a) goes against the crux of the passage; 21. (b) The Bullingdon Club gained notoriety because of
therefore, it is the correct answer. For option (a), being toffee-nosed. A toffee-nosed
refer to the lines for options (c) and (d). person/institution thinks that he/she/it is better than
Hence the correct answer is option A. any other personal institution because of his/her/its
17. (d) The interpretation of the statement is that the social position. In the given context, the adjective is
differences in unemployment occur (arise)because used to show disapproval of the club members. The
the more educated find jobs faster; the second adjective can be found in the last sentence of the first
condition being the less educated get fired more paragraph. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
often, or it is the combination of the two factors. Options (a) and (b) are not inferred from the passage
Since options suggest either- or, and the first two and therefore, are incorrect choices. Option (d)
conditions have been given as one differentiating

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 though true, is not about the members so it is ruled knowledge of human nature. The believer reasoned
out. from his own prejudiced and mythopoeic conception
22. (d) The answer to the question is in the penultimate of people whom he disliked. If the question had been
sentence of the 5th paragraph. Cameron showed one of religion, the believer might be called
Churchillian defiance in refusing to rescue the euro. superstitious; the sceptic might be called scientific if
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Option (a) he was ready to yield his doubts to the evidence of
is contrary to what is mentioned in the 5th paragraph capable observers of the alleged fact.’ This defies
and therefore, is an incorrect choice. Referring to the the logic that ‘all’ skeptics are superstitious.
same paragraph options (b) and (c) are false, making 27. (a) Option A is the right answer, as the entire passage
them incorrect choices. revolves around discussing the differences in
23. (c) In order to further human rights and to promote concepts of science and superstition.
national interest he favoured foreign military Option B is not true as the passage didn't mention or
intervention. The answer can be found in the last imply any of it.
paragraph of the passage. Hence, option (c) is the Option C is not true as the passage didn't mention or
correct answer. Option (a) is true but not a crux of imply that ONLY intelligent people are science-
his foreign policy, making it an incorrect choice. oriented.
Option (b) is nowhere to be found and thus, it is an Option D is not true as the passage briefly tried to
incorrect answer. Option (d) is completely irrelevant connect religion and superstition by saying both
and out of scope as not found in the text. resort to a hypothesis but with a different approach.
24. (b) The fundamental policy goal of the David At the same time, the entire passage does not
Cameron’s government is to ‘remake the world, revolve around that one topic.
promote democracy, rights and freedoms’. The 28. (c) Option C is the right answer. Refer to the lines, ‘Her
answer to this question can be found in the last aim is the acquisition of reasoned and orderly
sentence of the penultimate paragraph. Hence, the knowledge. Presented with a collection of verified
correct answer is option (b). According to the facts facts, it is the part of science to reduce them to order,
of the passage, option (a) is not true. Options (c) and and to account for their existence in accordance with
(d) are not relevant and are out of context. Therefore, her recognised theory of things.’ Also, ‘Superstition,
they are incorrect choices. like science, has her hypotheses, and, like science,
25. (d) Cameron favours democracy, freedoms and rights she reasons from experience.’
overseas. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. In the given lines, the author uses the pronoun ‘her’
Referring to the understanding of the passage, as a replacement to address ‘science’; therefore, he
option (a) is definitely false and therefore, is an uses personification as a literary device. A
incorrect choice. Referring to para 4, option (b) is personification is to put life and intelligence in an
false because it says Cameron lifestyle could hardly inanimate object. An ‘alliteration’ is the repetitive
be more different. Referring to the 5th paragraph, use of the initial letter of each word in a sentence.
option (c) is false, making it an incorrect choice. For example, ‘Betty bought a bit of butter. ’
26. (b) Option A is not right as the passage states, ‘When Metonymy is a figure of speech in which the name
we call a man 'superstitious,' we usually mean that of an object or concept is replaced with a word
evidence which satisfies him does not satisfy us. We closely related. For example, a crown’ means a king
see examples daily of the dependence of belief on a or a queen. ‘Her is not a replacement, as it is a
bias. One man believes a story about cruelties general substitution as a pronoun. A synecdoche is a
committed by our adversaries; another, disbelieving figure of speech in which a part of speech represents
the tale, credits a narrative about the misconduct of the whole. For example, I bought a new set of
our own party. Probably the evidence in neither case wheels (a car or a two-wheeler.)
would satisfy the historian or be accepted by a jury. 29. (a) In the context of the passage, the word is associated
Option B is true as the passage states that with the experience of superstition as being
Superstition, like science, has her hypotheses, and, imaginary or something not credible; therefore, its
like science, she reasons from experience. antonym would be ‘plausible’, which means
Option C is not true as the passage states, ‘A man believable because it is logical. All of the other
comes in at night, and says he has seen a ghost in words as synonyms define ‘fantastic’, which means
white. That is merely his hypothesis; the existence not real and difficulty to believe.
of ghosts in white is not demonstrated. You 30. (a) Option A is the only suitable title for the passage as
accompany him to the scene of the experience and the passage deals with discussing the difference in
prove to him that he has seen a post, not a ghost. His the basic concepts of science and superstition.
experience was real but was misinterpreted by dint Option B is unsuitable, for it is narrow enough not
of a hypothesis resting on no demonstrated fact of to be the title. Option C is vague. It does not provide
knowledge.’ an insight into what the passage is about. Option D
Option D is not the right answer as the passage is a distortion; therefore, unsuited as a title.
states, ‘The skeptic reasoned from his general

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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING schools can choose the areas where up to 40 per cent
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE of the total funds are to be spent.
38. (d) The outbreak of Covid-19 has created massive gaps
31. (b) A vostro account is an account a correspondent bank in learning, especially for girls in non-urban areas.
holds on behalf of another bank. These accounts are It has forced the entire education industry to bring
an essential aspect of correspondent banking in the inevitable changes in its functioning. Rajasthan
which the bank holding the funds acts as custodian government has successfully completed a pilot for
for or manages the account of a foreign counterpart. Mission Buniyaad - an ambitious PAL programme
For example, if a Spanish life insurance company (Personalised and Adaptive Learning) aiming to
approaches a U.S. bank to manage funds on the recoup learning level loss due to Covid-19 for 1
Spanish life insurer's behalf, the account is deemed million adolescent girls and 2 million students in
by the holding bank as a vostro account of the Rajasthan. The education minister of Rajasthan, Dr
insurance company. From the perspective of Bulaki Das Kalla, and Minister of State, Education,
domestic banks, the funds deposited at Zahida Khan, announced the state-wide scale-up of
correspondent banks are referred to as nostro Mission Buniyaad at an event on Monday to
accounts. Nostro, translated from Latin, means commemorate Teachers’ Day.
"our," as in our accounts. Nostro accounts are 39. (b) After opposing National Education Policy (NEP)
denominated in the foreign currency of the 2020, especially the three-language formula and
correspondent bank. entrance test for all undergraduate courses, the
32. (c) This move will help reduce India’s dependency on Tamil Nadu government constituted a 13-member
US dollars. Since India is a net importer and the panel to evolve its own State Education Policy
value of the Indian rupee has been declining (SEP).The panel headed by former chief justice of
consistently, RBI’s latest decision to allow Delhi high court Justice D Murugesan, includes such
international trade in rupees is expected to reduce diverse people as former world chess champion
the pressure on India’s forex reserves. At a time Viswanathan Anand and musician T M Krishna.
when the rupee’s value is declining every week 40. (d) Geo-tagging of schools for the selection and
against the US dollar, saving dollar outflows monitoring of PM SHRI schools will be done. The
becomes even more critical for the RBI. services of Bhaskaracharya National Institute for
33. (d) As per reports, banks are reluctant to go ahead with Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-
this mechanism and only a few banks have opened N) will be taken for geo-tagging and other related
Vostro accounts of Russian banks till now. Banks tasks. An Expert committee would be constituted for
want RBI and the government to give clear final selection of schools. The PM SHRI Schools
guidance to shield them from any action by the US will be developed as Green schools, incorporating
authorities. environmentally friendly aspects like solar panels
34. (d) The recently-formulated international trade and LED lights, nutrition gardens with natural
settlement mechanism in rupees has made a steady farming, waste management, plastic free, water
start with as many as 118 correspondent banks conservation and harvesting, study of
evincing interest in opening INR Vostro accounts in traditions/practices related to protection of the
various Indian banks. These 118 correspondent environment, climate change related hackathon and
banks are primarily from partner countries in CIS awareness generation to adopt a sustainable
(Commonwealth of Independent States), Russia, Sri lifestyle. The focus will be on the learning outcomes
Lanka and Bangladesh. of every child in every grade. Assessment at all
35. (b) The US dollar is stronger than most currencies in the levels will be based on conceptual understanding
world which makes imports expensive for countries and application of knowledge to real life situations
such as Sri Lanka whose economy has come to a halt and will be competency-based.
due to a drastic fall in forex reserves. The fall of Sri 41. (b) Silchar has been redacted by [1].
Lanka’s currency against the Indian Rupee is 42. (a) The Ganga river dispute has been a source of
lower than that of the US dollar so it would be contention between the two countries for the past 35
better for the country to trade in the Indian rupee. years. There hasn't been a long-term solution for
36. (b) The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the PM sharing water offered despite several rounds of
SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) scheme under bilateral negotiations failing. In order to establish a
which 14,500 schools, to be identified in water sharing arrangement for the following 30
consultation with states and Union Territories, will years, a treaty was signed between Indian Prime
be upgraded at a cost of Rs 27,360 crore over the Minister HD Deve Gowda and Bangladeshi
next five years. counterpart Sheikh Hasina in 1996. This deal is
37. (b) The Education Minister said that under the scheme, about to expire.
which is expected to cover 18 lakh students, money The Teesta water-sharing disagreement between
will be transferred “directly to school authorities”. the two countries, which has been a source of
Moreover, flexibility will be provided so that hostility between India and Bangladesh since 1986,

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 has not yet been resolved by signing a treaty. A said Ashwini Hingne, programme manager at World
pact that was previously intended to divide the Resources Institute (WRI), India.
river into equal portions for each nation was The big silence of the NDCs is on India’s stance
abandoned at the last minute by West Bengal Chief on forest cover. India’s 2015 NDCs mentioned
Minister Mamata Banerjee. increasing carbon sink by 2.5-3 billion tonnes of
43. (c) PM Modi and Bangladeshi PM Sheikh Hasina CO2-equivalent by 2030. There has been no update
Hasina virtually inaugurated the 1,320 MW (660×2 since the Cabinet’s approval in 2019.
MW) Maitree super thermal power project at 50. (a) India’s transition to carbon neutrality by 2070 could
Rampal in Bangladesh’s Khulna and four other boost annual GDP by 4.7 per cent by 2036 and
projects, including a rail bridge on Rupsa River and create 15 million new jobs by 2047, said a fresh
Khulna-Darsana and Parbatipur-Kaunia rail link report by the New York-based think tank, Asia
projects. Society Policy Institute. Released Friday by the
44. (b) India is Bangladesh’s second biggest trade partner institute’s High-level Policy Commission, the report
and its largest export market in Asia. Despite the added that this transition would require at least USD
pandemic, bilateral trade grew at an unprecedented 10.1 trillion in investments. The commission
rate of almost 44 per cent from $10.78 billion in comprised former Australian prime minister Kevin
2020-21 to $18.13 billion in 2021-22. But the Rudd, former UN general secretary Ban Ki-moon,
Dhaka has traditionally relied on Beijing for its economist Dr Arvind Panagariya, and Vivek Pathak,
defence needs. As there is greater trust in the global head and director, climate business,
relationship with Delhi, there is every chance that International Finance Corporation.
strategic cooperation can keep pace with economic 51. (c) The 14 members of the IPEF are -- Australia,
ties. Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, Korea,
PM Hasina graciously described the India- Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore,
Bangladesh relationship as “a role model for Thailand, Vietnam and the US. The framework is
neighbourhood diplomacy worldwide”. But such a structured around four pillars relating to trade,
relationship — for it to stay strong and grow — supply chains, clean economy, and fair economy.
needs to be carefully nurtured. Hasina has done 52. (b) The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) can
much to deal with terrorism and extremism, and to change the economic dynamics of the Asia-Pacific
deny a haven to anti-India groups. On the other region, especially Pakistan as the group is
hand, there has been concern in Bangladesh about ostensibly created to encourage regional
the CAA and proposed National Register of economies to “decouple” from the Chinese market
Citizens in India. by providing them alternative supply chains. Asia
45. (b) The Kushiyara River is a distributary river in Pacific region remains the world’s growth engine
Bangladesh and Assam, India. It forms on the India- despite the weathering effects of Covid-19 and
Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River, stringent waves of global climatic fluctuations. The
when the Barak separates into the Kushiyara and regional dynamics have been a focal point since the
Surma. The waters that eventually form the Asian economic giant China has been engaged in
Kushiyara originate in the uplands of the state of expanding regional trade routes and supply chains
Assam and pick up tributaries from Nagaland and with initiatives like Belt and Road Initiative (BRI),
Manipur. connecting the region with silk-route, etc.
46. (c) India has targetted to reduce emissions intensity of 53. (c) The US Department of Commerce will lead an
its GDP by 35% from 2005 levels by the year 2030. Education Trade Mission to three cities in India —
47. (b) India wants to have installed capacity for non-fossil Mumbai, Bengaluru, and New Delhi — with an aim
fuel-based power sources equivalent to the country’s to identify and promote opportunities for
50% requirement by 2030. collaboration between Indian and American
48. (b) India’s updated climate pledge to the Paris institutes of higher education, US Embassy in India
Agreement has been ranked fifth in compliance and said in a statement.
fourth in ambition by a new study. European Union 54. (a) India for now refrained from joining the declaration
(EU) took the lead while the United States was on trade, due to concerns over commitments
ranked last in compliance and second to last in required on environment, labour, digital commerce
ambition. and public procurement.
49. (a) The other NDC is to meet 50% of energy needs from 55. (b) The US launched the IPEF to counter China’s
non-fossil sources by 2030. India has crossed its economic influence in the Indo-Pacific with greater
existing 40% target, though that did not include economic engagement among the countries in the
hydro power, which makes the new target more region. The 14 participating nations of the IPEF
ambitious. However, achieving this would require represent over 40 per cent of the global economy.
India to almost triple non-fossil capacity in eight 56. (d) Himank, also styled Project HIMANK, is a project
years, which is much faster than the historical pace, of the Border Roads Organisation in the Ladakh
region of northernmost India that started in August

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 1985. It is known for constructing some of world's SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
highest motorable roads across the Khardung La,
Tanglang La and Chang La passes. 66. (b) The correct answer is Option A.. Though both A and
57. (d) The strategic road connectivity in eastern Ladakh is R are correct in the context of the passage, however,
set to get a major boost with the construction of a R is not the correct explanation of A because A is
bridge by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) focused on the bail, whereas R comments on the
across the Shyok river. The BRO on Wednesday burden proof during the trial. Since, both the
tweeted: “The construction of the iconic 120-mtr statements talk about separate stages R is not an
permanent bridge is in progress over the mighty explanation of A.
Shyok, eastern Ladakh.” 67. (a) The correct answer is Option A. The author in the
58. (d) The Chinese have been objecting to the important passage contends that the bail shall be decided upon
DSDBO Road. The strategically important 255-km with the presumption of innocence of the accused,
Darbuk-Shyok-Daulat Beg Oldie (DSDBO) ends at rather than the reverse onus followed in the UAPA.
16,614 ft high DBO, about 20 km short of the The passage itself neither mentions nor the author
18,700-ft high KK Pass. contends that bail shall be granted on humanitarian
59. (a) The SCO Heads of State Council will be held on grounds. In the present case, the bail has been
September 15-16 in Samarkand. Uzbekistan took granted on humanitarian grounds, which the author
over the chairmanship of the organization from has not put forth in the passage. Therefore, Option
Tajikistan on September 17, 2021. It is expected that A is correct.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Xi Option B is incorrect for the same reasons as stated
Jinping are likely to meet on the sidelines and the in the above paragraph, as author does not argue
border issue would be one of the agenda points. humanitarian ground to be a basis for bail. Option C
60. (b) The BRO was set up on 7 May 1960, as the Border is incorrect as first of all the question expects the
Roads Development Board. Currently, the answer from author’s perspective and secondly the
organisation maintains operations in twenty-one law given is incorrect as prosecution has to prove the
states, one UT (Andaman and Nicobar Islands), and prima facie case against the accused, and there is
neighbouring countries such as Afghanistan, liability on the defense to establish that accused is
Bhutan, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka. The BRO innocent. Option D is incorrect as the bail has not
operates and maintains over 32,885 kilometres of been granted on grounds of cooperation.
roads and about 12, 200 meters of permanent 68. (a) The correct answer is Option A . The general tone
bridges through the country. of the passage is against or negative towards the
61. (a) India has been ranked third globally for total provisions of the UAPA which have been
renewable power capacity additions with 15.4 GW characterized as arbitrary by the author. Thus, the
in 2021. author believes that these provisions breach the
62. (c) India has been ranked fourth for total installations presumption of innocence which is the standard part
(60.4 GW), overtaking Germany (59.2 GW) for the of the law. Therefore, Option A is correct.
first time. Option D is incorrect for the same reasons for which
63. (b) In heating and cooling, the renewable share in final A is correct. The passage does not expect the answer
energy consumption increased from 8.9 percent in as per the UAPA but as per the tone of the passage
2009 to 11.2 percent in 2019. which criticizes the arrest. Option C is incorrect as
64. (a) The inaugural edition of the World Energy who shall be made liable for the offence is not under
Employment Report, published by the International consideration in the present case but the bail of
Energy Agency (IEA), maps energy sector Father Grahm. Option D is incorrect as the passage
employment by technology and value chain concerns with the bail provision and not the
segment. The report provides a “data-rich” adjudication guilt or elements of the offence.
foundation for policy makers and industry decision 69. (b) The correct answer is Option B. An activity which
makers to understand the labour-related impacts of disrupts the sovereignty and integrity, or causes
clean energy transitions and shifts in energy supply disaffection against India is unlawful within the
chains following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. statute. Therefore, including mere criticism of a
65. (d) Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 10 government policy within the definition of unlawful
launched a second generation (2G) ethanol plant activity would be unjustly stretching its meaning. In
built at an estimated cost of Rs 900 crore in the present case, Pravish has merely trolled the State
Haryana's Panipat. Speaking via video government for suggesting use of cow urine, which
conferencing, the PM dedicated it to the nation and is unlawful within the meaning of UAPA. Thus,
said the plant will aid in increasing the nation's Option B is correct and Option A is incorrect.
production and use of biofuels and also help in Option D might be true but not the correct answer to
lowering pollution levels in Delhi and Haryana. the asked question, which cannot be given merely on
assumed facts. Option C is incorrect as assuming
severe repercussions of an action, irrespective of

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 whether it is justified or not, is not a consideration on the part of X. Option C is not correct as the
while determining whether an act is unlawful statement given is suggestive moreover no
activity or not. reasoning is provided to conclude a reasonable
70. (d) The correct answer is Option D. Unlawful activity conclusion. Hence, not considered. Option D would
includes any action which disrupts or is intended to have been correct if there was some damage suffered
disrupt the sovereignty and integrity, or causes by the plaintiff as a result of prosecution.
disaffection against India. In the present case, Noor 74. (b) As per the passage, if there is a reasonable cause for
asked the members of the protests to not only defy the prosecution, it won’t amount to malicious
the government orders but also to take over the prosecution. There was a reasonable cause in filing
government machinery which would disrupt the the proceeding against the neighbor by X as he saw
sovereignty of the nation. Therefore, Option D is the neighbour jump off the building with the bag.
correct and Option A is incorrect. Option B is Thus, option B is correct along with it facts does not
incorrect as the purpose of the question is not to shows that plaintiff suffered any damage. Option A
determine the correct way to criticize a policy but to is neglected as the prosecution has a reasonable and
determine what constitutes an unlawful activity. probable cause. Option C is not correct as the
Option C is incorrect as intention is not a material statement is factual based. Option D is not correct as
consideration as per the definition if the unlawful for instituting a case of malicious prosecution
activity has been committed. termination of proceedings in the favour of the
71. (b) There must be termination of proceedings in the plaintiff. Hence, no suit for malicious prosecution
favour of the plaintiff. It is one of the essentials to would succeed.
constitute the said offence that the proceedings have 75. (a) As per the passage, Following are the essential
not ended in his favour. In the present case the elements which the plaintiff is required to prove in a
proceedings have not ended in his favour ye. Hence, suit for damages for malicious prosecution:- 1.
option B is correct as he cannot file a suit of Prosecution by the defendant. 2. Absence of
malicious prosecution at this stage and can only go reasonable and probable cause. 3. Defendant acted
after jasmine only after the final order of the court. maliciously. Termination of proceedings in the
Option A is not correct for similar reason i.e., the favour of the plaintiff. 4. Plaintiff suffered damage
case is still pending and verdict is yet to come. as a result of the prosecution. In the present acse, the
Option C is not correct as the facts do not provide plaintiff incurred cost of attending the proceeding
any information on the subject of loss suffered by and the result came in favor of the plaintiff. Thus,
any party. Hence, not correct. Option D is not option A is correct. there was prosecution. Option B
correct as No action can be brought when the is not correct as in the present case, all the ingredient
prosecution or the proceedings are still pending. necessary to constitute the office of malicious
Thus, the given statement is incorrect. prosecution against the defendant has been satisfied.
72. (a) Option C is not correct. There was no malice on the Thus, not correct. Option C provides a statement
part of Mr. Khali. There was reasonable and which though is correct as the test is such
probable cause, defendant did not act maliciously. proceedings have reached a stage at which damage
Hence, option A is correct. Option B is eliminated to the plaintiff results. Option D is not correct as no
for same reason as the elements (i.e. prosecution by such information can be inferred from the passage.
the defendant, absence of reasonable and probable 76. (d) Option D is the correct answer because according to
cause, defendant acted maliciously, termination of the passage Article 19 of the Constitution of India
proceedings in the favour of the plaintiff and guarantees freedom of expression, subject only to a
plaintiff suffered damage as a result of the narrow range of ‘reasonable restrictions’ which do
prosecution) which are necessary to the plaintiff to not remotely apply to criticism or satire. Sections
prove in a suit for damages for malicious 153B imply imputations, and assertions prejudicial
prosecution must be fulfilled. Option D would have to national integration. It is meant to criminalise the
been correct if Mr. Khali had without any reasonable targeting of a group on the basis of their religion,
cause filed the prosecution against the car driver. language, caste etc and cannot be stretched to cover
73. (b) As per the passage, termination of proceedings in criticism of an individual, even if he is the prime
the favour of the plaintiff and plaintiff suffered minister. In the given case, Anil did not target any
damage as a result of the prosecution. In the present group based on the criteria mentioned above. He
case the proceedings held him guilty and there was was just posting on his social media website and
no such incident mentioned in the passage that he employing his freedom of speech and expression.
suffered damage as a result of the prosecution, Hence, he cannot be booked under Section 153B.
therefore he cannot file for malicious prosecution Option A is incorrect because posting a photo on a
hence, option B is correct. The facts do not indicate social media page does not necessarily imply
that it was X who maliciously prosecuted the national disintegration. The freedom of speech and
neighbour. Hence, it cannot be said that this amounts expression guaranteed to a citizen has to be taken
to malicious prosecution as there was clearly malice into consideration as well. Also, as mentioned

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 earlier that none of the essentials of Section 153B is caveat of reasonable restrictions. And Nanhe Bhau’s
fulfilled. Option B is incorrect because the option statements fell under that category.
does not take into consideration that every freedom Option C is incorrect because Nanhe Bhau did not
guaranteed under the Constitution comes with a set criticize the activity of Aman Khera on the floor of
of reasonable restrictions. Even as a citizen, Anil the Legislative Assembly. He chose to defame him
does not have the right to post something which falls in front of the public and that cannot be counted as
under the category of restrictions. Option C is criticism. Option D is incorrect because Article 19
incorrect because Article 19 of the Constitution of of the Indian Constitution applies only to Indian
India guarantees freedom of expression, subject citizens.
only to a narrow range of ‘reasonable restrictions’ 79. (c) Option C is the correct answer as one of the
which do not remotely apply to criticism or satire. essential aspects of the freedom of speech and
77. (c) Option C is the correct answer because as the expression is the right to remain silent. In the given
passage suggests Article 19 of the Constitution of scenario, Jhelum did not disrespect the national
India guarantees freedom of expression, subject anthem. She was standing for the same in the
only to a narrow range of ‘reasonable restrictions’. morning assembly. However, because she had a
These reasonable restrictions include protecting the different religious belief, she did not participate in
security of the State and maintaining public order. the singing of the anthem. A is the incorrect answer
In the given situation, many protests and because from the facts in hand it cannot be stated
demonstrations started in the state. Locals became that Jhelum disrespected the national anthem. She
violent and started burning public property as well. just chose to remain silent because of a different set
The government of Scindia decided of restricting the of beliefs. B is the incorrect answer because first of
internet connection in the state to stop the spread of all, Jhelum did not violate any law of the land. She
wrong information. Hence, this falls under the head was merely enforcing her freedom of speech and
of reasonable restrictions imposed by the Scindian expression. Hence, holding her father responsible
government. for an offence she never committed is wrong. Option
Option A is incorrect because as already explained D is the incorrect answer because the Constitution is
that even though Article 19 guarantees freedom of a living law. And it has expanded the horizons of
expression, it comes with a list of reasonable freedom of speech and expression to include the
restrictions. And the government of Scindia acted right to remain silent.
within the scope of the latter. 80. (a) Option A is the correct answer as according to the
Option B is incorrect because the facts mention that given passage Article 19 of the Constitution of India
the state of Palamu and Nanded fell in the territory guarantees freedom of expression. This freedom is
of Scindia. And the special status provided by the guaranteed to every citizen of India. Bhansali in the
latter was removed. exercise of this right made the trailer of the movie as
Option D is incorrect because as soon as Article 370 it is his right as a director to make movies. There is
was scrapped, the special status of having a separate no fact given to prove that he depicted any wrong
Constitution by Palamu and Nanded was removed. information in the trailer. Hence, the people had no
Hence, it is not required to assess whether the right to take the law into their own hands without
Constitution of Palamu and Nanded guaranteed giving Bhansali an opportunity to present his side of
freedom of speech and expression. the story.
78. (b) Option B is the correct answer because Article 19 as Option B is incorrect because freedom of speech
mentioned in the passage guarantees freedom of and expression is not an absolute right. It comes with
expression, subject only to a narrow range of a list of reasonable restrictions as mentioned in the
‘reasonable restrictions’. Even though the list of passage. The right to express oneself ends when the
reasonable restrictions is limited in number, it public order or morality is threatened as it is one of
includes defamation. Defamation is ruining the the restrictions that can be imposed upon by the
reputation of another in the minds of the right- State. By assaulting Bhansali, the mob was doing
thinking members of society. Nanhe Bhau ended up exactly that. And hence, they cannot be said to have
talking about the personal life of Aman Khera and their freedom of speech and expression.
stated statements like “I heard that he used to Option C is incorrect because as already mentioned
physically abuse his wife. I fear for the future of our Bhansali was utilizing his freedom of expression in
state when its representatives are like him”. Such making the movie and the mob simply tried to
statements cannot be said to be fair and there is no violate his right. Hence, this option is invalid.
proof to establish that these were established facts. Option D is incorrect because A is the correct
Hence, Nanhe Bhau cannot take the plea that his option.
statement fell under the purview of freedom of 81. (b) The passage, is clear on the expression that the
speech. servant committed the tort while acting in the course
Option A is incorrect because as stated above of employment of his master. Hence, here, bhavesh
freedom of speech and expression comes with a will be held liable as he and the driver shares a

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 master servant relationship. Hence, option B is question asks for the liability of the company rather
correct. Option D is close but option B provides for than Joe's.
the liability of bhavesh as asked in the question. 86. (a) Option A is correct. Jack only gave Manu the
Hence, option B is considered. Option A is not possession of his property and here Manu converts
correct as the facts do not presents any connection Jack property and gave it to Neel. Thus, it will be
between the supervisors and the divers, hence option held to be criminal breach of trust. Hence, correct.
A and C is eliminated. Option C though close but provides additional
82. (b) It is stated in the last Para of the passage that the information that he can only provide them to Neel
relationship between partners resembles that of an with Jack’s permission. Hence, not correct. Option
agent and a principal, therefore, the liability here is B is not correct as the passage do not provides that a
also derived from the principle of the rule of agency. situation of emergency can be taken as a defence in
Thus, in the case of a partnership firm, for the case of criminal breach of trust. Hence, not correct.
wrongs committed by one partner, all the other Option D is not correct as the facts do not state
partners are equally liable for the act, as the guilty anything on the permission given by jack to use his
partner. Hence, option B is correct. Option A is items. Hence, not considered.
incorrect as per the rule of agency. Option C though 87. (b) As per the passage, Whoever, being in any manner
correct but then it do not specifically answers the entrusted with property, or with any dominion over
factual question. Option D is incorrect as it is in property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to
accordance with rule of agency and not under the his own use that property, or dishonestly uses or
principle of vicarious liability that all the partners disposes of that property in violation of any
are held liable for the act of one. direction of law prescribing the mode in which such
83. (a) It is stated in the last Para of the passage that the trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract,
relationship between partners resembles that of an express or implied, which he has made touching the
agent and a principal, therefore, the liability here is discharge of such trust, or willfully suffers any other
also derived from the principle of the rule of agency. person so to do, commits criminal breach of trust. In
Thus, in the case of a partnership firm, for the the present case, sushi was not entrusted with the
wrongs committed by one partner, all the other cake, hence the very first essential is absent here.
partners are equally liable for the act, as the guilty Hence, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect as
partner. Hence, option A is correct. Option B though the facts do not state that she was not permitted to
correct but it only provides for a possibility by take the cake home. Option C is not correct as the
stating that both partners “can” be held liable. Thus, reasoning given is absurd however she is not liable
not correct. Option C is incorrect as it is factually for the offence of criminal breach of trust. Option D
derived solution. Option D is incorrect as in the is not correct as theft has not been made the context
present scenario principle of the rule of agency will of the passage. Thus, not correct.
be applied and both partners will be held liable. 88. (b) Option A is incorrect as the given statement do not
84. (d) In the present case, Rachel gave Monica coffee after provide with any omission on part of Manish.
her working hours, i.e., she was not in her course of Whereas, option B it states that Manish will be
employment. As, according to the passage, master is charged with criminal breach of trust since he
answerable for the wrong of the person so entrusted dishonestly kept Mickey for himself. For
either in the manner of doing such an act or in doing constituting an offence of Criminal breach of trust,
such an act under circumstances in which it ought “whosoever in-charge or has been entrusted with
not to have been done, provided what is done is not property or any dominion over that property
done from any caprice of the servant but in the dishonestly misappropriated or converts the same to
course of the employment. Thus, option D is correct. his own use as the case may be…”. Hence, Manish
option B is close but language of option D is more will be charged with criminal breach of trust since
close towards what has been stated in the passage. he dishonestly kept Mickey to himself. Option C is
Option C is not correct as Rachel was not in the not correct as not losing but dishonestly
course of employment she served Monica coffee. misappropriated or converts the same to his own use
Option A is irrelevant as for a master to be held can be termed as criminal breach of trust. Thus, Not
liable for the cats of his servant, it should be proved C but option B is correct. Option D is not correct as
that the servant was acting in the course of the word “dishonestly” is missing from the
employment. reasoning given. Hence, not correct.
85. (d) The passage solely discusses the liability of the 89. (d) In the present scenario Manish only had dishonest
partners involved in the firm's management, not the intention of keeping Mickey with him, but he ended
corporation as a whole. As a result, option A is up losing her. Thus, it cannot be said that he
inaccurate. Option B would have been correct on the dishonestly misappropriated the property entrusted
rule of agency principle, but the factual inquiry with him or converted it to his own use as mickey is
requires the liability of the company, not Harry. lost before converting to his own use. Hence, option
Option C is also incorrect because the factual D would be correct. Option C though close but

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 option D gives a better answer. Option A and B is pay damages by way of compensation to the person
not the answer as though he was authorized to take so affected.
care of Mickey but he did not dishonestly 92. (b) Option B is the correct answer because as per the
misappropriated or converts the same to his own passage, Section 43(h) makes a person liable for
use, as described in the section 405. Hence, cannot charging services availed to the account of another
be considered correct. option B is not correct as only by tampering with or manipulating any computer
having an dishonest intention will not attract system. Although the access to the library card by
liability under section 405. Prinku in respect of issue of one book is
90. (b) Option A is incorrect. The definition itself states unauthorized and by doing this, he has denied access
that, ‘Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with to the card to Debby who is the owner of the card,
property….”. In the present case the police officer the specific liability of Debby arises under Section
seized the currency and hence was having the 43(h).
dominion over the property. Thus, returning less Option A, C and D are incorrect because although
amount will amount to Criminal breach of trust. the act under the given factual situation is liable
Hence, option B is correct. The police officer will under all the given options, A, C and D are ancillary
be held accountable for breach of trust because the to the main act of tampering with the card of Debby
property was entrusted to him and was not returned so as to charge the services of issuing books of
in the amount specified. Option C is not correct as library to the account of Debby.
the passage provides no such information which 93. (d) Option D is the correct answer because in the given
suggests that money is not considered property factual situation, the act involved unauthorized
under the concept of criminal breach of trust. Option access to the electronic accounts of the customers as
D is not correct as only entrustment do not attract those employees had no authority to collect PIN
the offence of breach of trust, there must be codes of the customers. Such act falls under the
dishonest misappropriation. Hence, option B is ambit of cybercrime and the accused persons are
correct. liable to be charged under section 43(a) as well as
91. (c) Option C is the correct answer because as per the section 66 of the IT Act, 2000. Option A and C are
passage the ambit of section 43(c) of the Act is wide incorrect because as per the passage if any of the acts
and even a mere introduction or causing to introduce mentioned under Section 43 of the Act is done with
any computer contaminant or virus is sufficient to mala fide, the same is also punishable under Section
attract damages. It is immaterial whether the 66 of the Act. Meaning thereby, the civil liability
computer virus or contaminant has caused any does not extinguish merely due to the fact that the
financial loss or any security lapses. In the given act has been done with dishonest intention. Option
factual situation, the hard drive of Varun introduces B is incorrect because wrongful loss caused due to
virus to the computer of Aditi and this enough to the transfer of money is the result of the act of
attract Section 43(c). gathering PIN codes and transfer of money.
Option A is incorrect because denial of access is the Therefore, the unauthorized act of collecting PIN
result of introduction of computer contaminant or codes aptly establishes the liability of the accused
virus to the computer. Denial of access as provided persons under Section 43.
under Section 43(f) can be caused due to other 94. (a) Option A is the correct answer because as per the
reasons as well. Therefore, the specific clause under passage Section 43(b) makes a person liable for
which the stated action falls is that of introduction downloading, copying or extracting any data,
of computer contaminant. computer database or information from the
Option B is incorrect because as per the passage, computer, computer system or computer network of
Section 43 imposes the liability irrespective of another person without his/her permission. Here, the
knowledge or intention. Further, the given factual term “extract” means to copy the data and delete the
situation nowhere specifies or states anything about same from the main system.
knowledge of Varun regarding the Option B is incorrect because the act of using the
contaminant/virus. Here, Aditi has only asked for laptop for purpose other than that for which one has
sharing the episodes and not for the infected hard been authorized (surfing in the present situation)
drive. amounts to unauthorized access to computer and the
Option D is incorrect because as per passage the same is enough to attract Section 43(a) – access or
resultant damage to the computer database is not a secures access to computer, computer system or
condition for application of Section 43 of the Act. If computer network of another person without his/her
any person without permission of the owner or any permission. However, the principal act in the given
other person, who is in-charge of a computer, situation is extraction of data from Ram’s laptop
computer system or computer network – (c) without his permission and the same is aptly covered
introduces or causes to be introduced any computer under Section 43(b) of the Act, as stated above.
contaminant or computer virus, he shall be liable to Option C and D are incorrect because as per the
given factual situation, Shyam has not only copied

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 the data, but also deleted the same from Ram’s 99. (c) In the present case again as there was internal unrest
laptop and such act falls under ambit of “extracting in the party that could affect the internal peace of the
any data”. state. For proclamation of emergency external
95. (b) In the present case, Rama was given permission of aggression is the ground not internal ground. Hence,
browsing , but he wants to use it for purpose other option C is correct as the emergency is invalid as
than that of browsing i.e. copying the data. But internal aggression is a invalid ground for
instead of copying he accidently deleted it. Hence, invocation of emergency. Option A is incorrect as
the best option here is option B. Option A is not there was apprehension of internal unrest in the
correct as the facts do not state that he was state. Hence, not correct. Option B is not correct as
successful in copying the data. Option C is not the emergency can be declared even if there is no
correct as the facts do not state any such threat to the state's security. As a result, option B is
information. Option D is incorrect as intentional is also incorrect. Option D is not correct as there was
not a relevant factor, even if there is presence of eminent threat to normal functioning of the state as
intention he will also be punishable under section 66 per the facts.
along with Section 43 of the act. 100. (b) Option A is incorrect. As per the passage, to declare
96. (a) Option A is correct as it states that Both the central an emergency, both houses must pass it with the
government and the president have the authority to same majority required for amending the
declare an emergency. This can be inferred from the constitution, i.e., not less than a two-thirds majority
very first line of the passage that provides that of members present and voting in each house. If the
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution gives the right proclamation is not signed within one month, it is
to the Central government/ president. Option B is declared null and void. Here the parliament passed
incorrect as to declare a national emergency there is the proclamation after 2 months. Thus, the
a threat to the security of India or any part thereof, emergency in Cindia will not sustain. Hence, option
any of the following three conditions are present: B is correct. Option C is incorrect because the
War, External aggression or Armed Rebellion. But condition of proclamation, which must be made
the given statement does not present that either of within one month, is not met. Option D is incorrect
the three condition is fulfilled. Thus, not correct. because the facts do not indicate that the external
Option C is incorrect as passage do not discusses aggression was insignificant.
any such information related to 44th amendment of 101. (b) As per the passage, Assault occurs when X
the constitution. Option D is incorrect as the passage intentionally causes a) a reasonable apprehension of
states that during the proclamation, the state-centre b) an immediate harm to Y. An apprehension means
relation is stagnated. Hence, incorrect. an impression/notion/idea in that other person’s
97. (b) option A is incorrect. As per the passage, during the mind. Thus, assault does not necessitate the
proclamation, the state-centre relation is stagnated. occurrence of actual contact, but merely the
As the central government/parliament is vested with (reasonable) notion that there will be actual contact.
the power to make laws with respect to matters This kind of behavior clearly created a reasonable
enumerated in the State list. And the law so made apprehension in Aime’s mind. She even got off at
will be effective for a period of 6 months after the the next stop as she was so uncomfortable. Hence,
cessation of proclamation. Hence, the state of option B is correct. Option A is not correct as the
Assam cannot overturn the law made by the central facts suggests that the boy sitting next to her
government. Hence, option B is correct. Option C is whispered lewd remarks in her ears, and came so
not correct as the government cannot in the present close to her that it made her feel very uncomfortable.
case overturn the law made by the centre Thus it was a case of assault. Option C is not correct
government. Option D is incorrect as the statement as an apprehension caused in mind of the victim is
makes no sense, as the state cannot arbitrarily enough to constitute assault. Option D is incorrect
overturn a specified law. as the lewd comments made her feel uncomfortable
98. (b) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution gives the right and the gesture itself is apprehensive of danger.
to the Central government/ president to declare a Thus, not correct.
national emergency if there is a threat to the security 102. (a) Assault does not necessitate the occurrence of actual
of India or any part thereof, any of the following contact, but merely the (reasonable) notion that there
three conditions are present: War, External will be actual contact. The man was in the bus and
aggression or Armed Rebellion. Here, the president Aime was at the bus stop. No immediate harm
initiated the emergency on grounds of internal possible. Hence, option A is correct and it can be
unrest which is not the ground. Hence, option B is concluded that this is not a case of assault as there
correct. Option A is incorrect as the emergency can could be no reasonable apprehension of immediate
be invoke even if there is a apprehension or threat. harm. Option B is not correct as the facts do not
thus, option C is also incorrect. Option D is incorrect suggests that Amie had any apprehension of danger
as the facts only limit itself to internal disturbance in it just states that the gestures made her uneasy.
the state and not the country. Hence, option C is also incorrect. Option D is

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 incorrect as if the accused is benign (harmless), he Option D is a minimal statement for the passage and
could not be accused of assault. Thus, an incorrect doesn’t indicate a lack of technical knowledge.
statement. 107. (d) Option A cannot be assumed, for one cannot say that
103. (c) As per the passage, assault does not necessitate the hurdles are inherent during online classes. One is
occurrence of actual contact, but merely the assuming that online classes have inbuilt challenges.
(reasonable) notion that there will be actual contact. If this was the assumption, why would one have
The harmful contact perceived here must be one online classes?
which intends to injure, disfigure, impair or cause Option B is more or less a restatement. It is explicitly
pain. Under the law of torts, an immediate harm mentioned; therefore, it cannot be the assumption.
often means such, that there is little or no Option C is an inference one draws that external
opportunity to save oneself from that harm. In the distractions lead to lack of concentration.
present case, there is a reasonable apprehension as Option D is the basis on which the main argument is
the phone call was followed by a thud and talks built. The core idea that the home environment does
about immediate harm. Hence, option C is correct. not support online education is what is assumed for
Option D is not correct as the factual question asks the above argument.
to determine in positive whether or not it is a case of 108. (d) The author in the passage addresses challenges that
assault, however the current statement states arose with digital infrastructure in conducting the
otherwise. Option B is factual based statement, online classes because of the lack of technical
hence eliminated. Option A is not correct as she knowledge and support to the teachers along with
heard a loud thud on her door, followed by a phone disparity in the access to the digital world pan India,
call. Thus, a case of assault as there was with the remote areas suffering the most. Based on
apprehension of fear that someone intends to injure, this, statement III finds support as a solution to the
disfigure, impair or cause pain. above challenge, as the author would support a way
104. (a) Option A is correct. As per the passage, in assault out by increasing efficiency for digital learning in
the apprehension of harm must be immediate. In the existing crises. It, in a way, recognizes the fact that
present incident the caller said ‘tomorrow’. Thus, it there are digital hurdles. Statement IV supports the
cannot be said to be a case of assault. Option B is arguments in the passage above by taking it further
correct but the apprehension of danger must be along the same lines of the author that it will take a
immediate to constitute assault. Option C provides while for us to become streamlined in digital
for a possible incident when the act becomes to infrastructure along with equal access to the digital
assault, thus a suggestive response. Hence, world to remote places too. Therefore, option D is
eliminated. Option D is not correct as the warning the correct answer.
was apparent of danger; it is just that it is not Statement I is contradictory to the passage and talks
immediate. Hence, not a case of assault. about digital literacy, whereas the passage is about
105. (c) It is a case of assault as the act of Nathan has could of digital hurdles.
have caused reasonable apprehension in the mind of Statement II is irrelevant as it is narrow in scope. It
the biker. There was also an immediate only states collaborative teaching and learning and
apprehension of danger. Thus, option C is correct. does not address the challenges of the digital
Option A is incorrect as it sates contrary to what has infrastructure.
been given in the facts. Option B is not correct as it 109. (d) Option A is wrong; it cannot be inferred from the
would have been a case of battery if the biker was statement because it is contradictory and extreme.
hit by Nathan’s car. Option D is not correct as being Option B is wrong because it is nowhere mentioned
unaware of the harm or apprehension of danger is that teachers do not want to teach.
relevant to constitute battery. Option C is wrong. It may appear to be the answer,
but on a closer look, the statement is narrow in scope
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING as it leaves out the personal issues as one factor that
dampens teachers’ engagement in online teaching.
106. (a) Option A is correct because in the passage, the Option D is correct because it encompasses the
author’s main contention was that COVID exposed entire idea. One can clearly infer that technical and
the fact that a lack of digit infrastructure disrupted personal issues hamper teachers’ commitment and
the online learning system as the alternative to interaction with the students.
physical schooling. 110. (a) Options A is correct and it can be inferred as the
Option B is a generalized and vague statement as the author says that online education has favoured those
central theme. It also leaves a critical aspect, the who have the infrastructure. Rich and poor being
digital classes. two extremities would mean the rich would be
Option C is irrelevant. No comparison has been benefitted while the poor will sink lower and lower.
made about why and how online learning has been Option B is not correct as it can’t be derived from
different for urban and rural learning. the passage. It is not relevant.

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 Option C is not correct as the author doesn’t whether themselves lucky. So, it can be said a positive lucky
the students had to bear the brunt more or the incident can change the perception of life. Option
teachers. (b) is the correct answer. Options (a), (c) and (d)
Option D is not supported by the passage; hence, indicate their state and not the change in their
cannot be inferred. outlook.
The answer is option A. 114. (d) All the statements can be corroborated from the
111. (c) Option (a) does not reflect the sentiments of the passage. The last paragraph of the passage talks
bride and groom. It talks about a fixed rule. about the importance of mood and casual attitude of
Option (b) and Option (d) are also incorrect in their people in answering the question related to
reasoning. Family backup and pressure from society satisfaction in life. Due to these, the results of the
do not give confidence for a successful marriage. survey shall be taken with a pinch of salt. (To take
Maturity comes with age and experience. It is wrong something with a grain of salt suggests viewing
to assume that others were more immature than something (specifically claims that may be
them. Their optimism and confidence in the misleading or unverified) with scepticism or not
institution of marriage come from their mutual interpreting something literally. Refer to the lines,
understanding and hence the data does not have ‘…the score that you quickly assign to your life is
relevance to them. Based on their understanding, determined by a small sample of highly available
they have decided to marry despite the number of ideas, not by a careful weighing of the domains of
divorces increasing and likely disappointments after your life.’ This makes statement 1 correct.
marriage. Statement 2 is also the basis of the aforementioned
Refer to the lines, ‘On their wedding day, the bride lines. Statement 3 is the basis of the lines, ‘A mood
and the groom know that the rate of divorce is high heuristic is one way to answer life satisfaction
and that the incidence of marital disappointment is questions.’ By negating statement 3, we nullify the
even higher, but they do not believe that these sentence.
statistics apply to them.’ The couples are in denial Option (d) is the most appropriate answer.
that the statistical data do not apply to them. 115. (c) Option (a) is irrelevant.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The author is not concerned with finding the purpose
112. (b) The questions differ in their subjective and objective of life in the passage or the reason for the increasing
approach. A question asking a telephone number is divorce rate in India. He has not discussed them at
an objective one. It can be answered from some length. Options (a) and (b) are incorrect. Option (d)
alternatives. But the question related to ‘life is out of the scope of the passage.
satisfaction is subjective and needs careful thinking The last line of the passage hints at the answer. Refer
and evaluation before answering. Hence, option (b) to the lines- ‘The score that you quickly assign to
is the most appropriate choice. The difference in the your life is wrongly determined by a small sample
two questions does not lie in their restrictive of highly available ideas, not by a careful weighing
application. The questions vary in simplicity and of the domains of your life.’
complexity based on how people approach in The author is trying to imply here that life questions
answering them. (the question asks what makes one shall not be answered depending on mood, recent
set of questions complex while others easier to experiences, or how most people answer. They
answer) Therefore, option (a) is ruled out. There are should be answered after careful examination of
no differences in variability (inconsistency). The subjective experiences in life.
questions are, in situ, inconsistent. Therefore, option So, option (c) is the correct answer.
(c) is ruled out. Option (d) is incorrect, for the 116. (c) According to the passage, it is not sufficient to admit
response to the simple and the complex questions, the children to schools and provide the physical
are consistent (answered both sets of questions with infrastructure. Despite these facilitations, they do
the same alacrity), for the most. That is what baffles not find education engaging and leave schools
the author. Refer to the lines, ‘How do survey prematurely.
participants manage to answer such questions in a Refer to the lines, ‘Only the quality of education can
few seconds, as all do?’ attract larger sections of the pyramid of economics
113. (b) Refer to the lines, ‘Half the respondents found a to our schools. Children are not passive receivers of
dime on the copying machine, planted there by the knowledge; they are active recipients. The
experimenter. The minor lucky incident caused a curriculum should provide for learning through
marked improvement in subjects’ reported activities, exploration and discovery. The
satisfaction with their life as a whole!’ curriculum in primary education needs an
The dime was left intentionally to see the effect of overhauling; it has to be designed to be more
finding it suddenly on the responses of the people student-friendly.’ The author suggests a change in
being surveyed before asking the life satisfaction the curriculum to make education more student-
question. It was found that the perception of many friendly and relevant to increase the retention rate in
respondents changed with this event and they find schools. The curriculum should provide for learning

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 through activities, exploration and discovery. We reforms in the curriculum to make it more
have to change our perception of children as passive empowering and meaningful for students. He has
receivers of knowledge and move beyond the also recommended upgrading the teaching methods
convention of using textbooks as the basis for testing with the use of stress-free student-friendly
their knowledge. techniques.
Based on the facts given above, option (c) is the Option (a) is out of the scope of the passage. Option
correct answer to the question and other options are (d) and Option (b) are limited to bringing the
not correct. students to school. They do not transcend to the next
117. (c) ‘Teacher’s accountability is a demand made by the level – the quality education for students of all
author as an educational reform. It can be assumed sections, which is the biggest concern of the author.
that presently it is not available in the Right to Only option (c) carries the essential message of the
Education, option (a) is incorrect. passage.
The first part of the passage rejects the claim made 120. (b) Option (a) is very complicated but fails to give the
in Statement (b). Right to education does not correct implication. In some cases, students leave
confirm 100% enrolment. schools for reasons, not in their control, but the
Demographic dividend refers to the economic sentence does not imply this. The sentence has a
growth potential that can result from shifts in a broader meaning; it relates to the failure of an
population’s age structure, mainly when the share of individual to get elementary education, which
the working-age population is more than the non- furthers his failure as a productive element of his
working population (children). The working country's economy. The lack of basic education
population is going to increase in India. It is in our closes all the paths to prosperity for him in life. It is
interests that these children who are going to mentioned in the first part of the passage. Option (b)
become the Indian workforce get a quality gives the correct explanation of the sentence. It is
education. It is cognitive to assume that the Right to not clear what option (c) means by ‘improperly
education is designed with this intention. Statement educated’. So, it is not the correct answer. Option (d)
(c) is a valid assumption in the context of the is incomplete and fails to understand the implication
passage. of the statements.
Option (d) is illogical and refuted in the initial part 121. (a) As per the passage, people of rich countries do not
of the passage. feel the shortage of essential material things such as
118. (d) Regular attendance of children and teachers is food, shelter and water etc. So, they need not worry
paramount for ensuring quality education and about them. Option (a) is correct.
maintaining the level of learning. But this is based Option (b) gives the illogical deduction.
on a premise that the curriculum itself is updated, Option (c) is not correct. It is not mentioned in the
relevant and has quality. But this is not the case in passage specifically for people of rich developed
the passage. countries.
The author says that the curriculum needs Option (d) is also illogical.
improvement. The teaching activities are failing to Hence, option (a) is the only correct answer.
engage students, so the attrition rate from schools is 122. (a) Option (a) captures the essence of deprivation
increasing. A plethora of measures are required to theory. Deprivation theory says that people feel
ensure quality education. The curriculum should inferior in the company of the wealthy and this leads
provide for learning through activities, exploration to stress. Other people's situations or elevated status
and discovery. We must change our perception of always seem better or more attractive than your
children as passive receivers of knowledge and own, leading to dissatisfaction or causing health
move beyond the convention of using textbooks as challenges. Options (b) and (c) are not linked with
the basis for testing their knowledge. Quality can be the deprivation theory in the passage. Option (d),
increased by engaging content and ways to develop though true, does not form the answer, for it goes in
the learning capability of the children. the absolutes with the word ‘always’.
The author has not suggested monetary incentives to 123. (b) Option (a) is related to the deprivation theory and
increase the quality of education. Moreover, these not to the absolute income theory.
steps can bring students to school but cannot ensure Option (b) is correct. The deprivation theory states
the quality of education. that the by stating that money is essential for good
Option (d) is the best answer. health. The dearth of money leads to an inferiority
119. (c) Right to education brings students from weaker complex that causes stress; the absolute income
sections of society to the hallowed doors of the theory supports it.
education system, but then they leave after some Options (c) and (d) do not find support from the
time due to shortcomings in our education system. passage. Refer to the lines, ‘one – relative
The author of the passage is positive about the Right deprivation – emphasises social comparison and the
to education but his prime focus is on highlighting other – sometimes described as the absolute income
the need for quality education. He has advocated theory –says that more income is good for health

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 because it allows access to health-giving material passage. Option D does not follow from the
and social living conditions. However, this theory information given in the passage.
may be incorrectly labelled ‘absolute’.’ 129. (c) The correct answer is C. Clearly, the Supreme Court
124. (d) Option (a) is not supported by the passage. has disbanded the CoA. Moreover, on a close
Option (b) is just the opposite of the facts stated in reading of the later part of the passage, we can see
the passage. that the Supreme Court’s disbanding of the CoA is
Option (c) is partially true as contended life is not to salvage or rescue the U-17 Women’s World Cup
discussed in the passage. that was in trouble because of the ban on Indian
Option (d) is correct. This is the central idea of the football. All other options either can’t be inferred
passage. Health is dependent on wealth. from the passage or don’t cover the essence of the
125. (a) The author has defined the deprivation theory as the passage precisely.
inferiority felt by people while they compare 130. (b) The correct answer is option B. In the passage, the
themselves with others. He has linked it with the author disapproves of the viable approach and the
deprivation of money. But if it is seen that people appeasing policy by the Indian government toward
well off with money are also revolting, the argument the world sports federation to remain in the game;
of the author in the third paragraph that deprivation therefore, the central flaw in the author’s argument
is mostly related to money casts serious doubts on would be that they consider the two ideologies as
the cause associated with relative deprivation. undesirable. Option (a) does not amount to be the
Option (a) is the correct answer. central flaw, as it is not the flawed reasoning on
Option (b) is illogical in treating ‘gays’ differently. which the arguments are based. Option (c) is not the
Option (c) is in accordance with the money-related central flaw, as it goes against the basic tenor of the
definition of relative deprivation given by the author passage. Nowhere does the author suggest that these
in the third paragraph. ideologies have been sidelined for opportunism; in
Option (d) is not related to the definition of fact, opportunism resides in pragmatism (an
deprivation but indirectly supports the ‘money’ approach that evaluates theories or beliefs regarding
related deprivation in the author’s understanding of the success of their practical application.) Option (d)
‘relative deprivation’. is not the flaw; instead, it is out of scope. The author
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. only concerns himself with the Indian government’s
126. (a) The correct answer is A. The passage is about the stance.
SC’s decision to disband the CoA has paved the way 131. (c) The passage has highlighted that communication
for India’s return to the global football community through the internet will become convenient and
and also, the old guard AIFF has been given back its more penetrative. It is a medium that allows people
powers. Therefore, the title ‘Football back with old to share their opinions for a common cause with
guard’ is apt in the given context. Option (b) is faraway connections. Based on the information in
extreme (by immoralists?) Option (c) is out of the passage, option (a), option (b) and option (d)
scope, for there is no ‘triple’ whammy (jinx), so to look relevant. Option (c) has not been cited as one
say. Option (d) is vague, for it does not cover the of the benefits, making it the correct answer.
topic on which the passage is written. 132. (d) The passage is silent on the respect of others and
127. (d) The correct answer is D. All of the given options authorities getting influenced by the internet. Hence,
won’t be appreciated by the author. It is not clear options (a) and (b) can be eliminated.
from the passage whether the author would support Option (c) is incorrect as the opinions are always
the interference of the Supreme Court to rescue the personal. They are not related to information or facts
sporting organisations. Option B is incorrect necessarily. Opinions are views or judgements
because certainly, the author would prefer that other formed about something, not necessarily based on
sports bodies are not banned like the football body. fact or knowledge.
Option C is incorrect as well because there is no Option (d) is the best answer as people can gather
reason as to why the author would want India to be information through the internet about a topic or
kept out of the global football community for six incident to understand it. Earlier, they believed what
months or more. they were told by any source of information. But the
128. (a) The correct answer is A. It is clear from the author’s picture has changed with access to the internet.
arguments that he wants India to be reinstated to Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
FIFA since it has already complied with the norms 133. (d) Option (a) is a fact stated in the passage. It is not an
of FIFA. Option B is incorrect because the effects of inference.
a ban on the players are not clear from the Option (b) is out of the context of the passage.
information given in the passage. The passage does Option (c) is not an inference that can be reached
not clarify whether organisations like FIFA have a from the passage. The passage does not provide a
right to morally police other organisations or not. fact on basis of which the number of people with a
Option C is contrary to what the author states in the negative or a positive opinion about the internet can
be decided.

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 Option (d) is the correct inference. It can be c = 150000/15000 = 10%
understood in the passage that only the benefits of The required ratio = 12: 20 = 3: 5.
the internet were considered initially but most of us 137. (b) Let the principal be Rs. p
failed to envision the fact that we will become Rate of interest in schemes A, B, and C be a, b, and
overdependent on it and will lose our natural c
capability to perceive. P*b*2/100 - p*a*2/100 = 2400
134. (d) Options (a) and (b) are incorrect. They state b - a = 120000/p ------- (i)
otherwise. The passage has opposite information. P*b*3/100 - p*c*3/100 = 4500
Option (c) is not correct as hastiness related to the b - c = 150000/p ------ (ii)
internet is not discussed in the passage. P*a*4/100 + p*b*4/100 + p*c*4/100 = 25200
Option (d) shows the detrimental effect of the a+ b + c = 630000/p ------- (iii)
internet with reason on the inability of the coming Equation (ii) - (i)
generations to produce some original creations. b - c - b + a = 30000/p
135. (a) ‘Internet’ technology cannot be called an enigma. a - c = 30000/p ----- (iv)
Eliminate option (b). from equation (ii)
The passage is not solely about the utility of the b = 150000/p + c
internet; it is also about the demerits. So, option (b) from equation (iv)
is also not entirely correct. a = 30000/p + c
With the same argument, option (d) can be rejected. Put the value of b and a in equation (iii)
It highlights only the negatives. While passage has 30000/p + c + 150000/p + c + c = 630000/p
mentioned both positives and negatives linked with 3c = 630000/p - 180000/p = 450000/p
the internet in different places. c = 150000/p
Option (a) is the most comprehensive title aligned a = 30000/p + c = 30000/p + 150000/p = 180000/p
with the content of the passage. It is the correct b = 150000/p + c = 150000/p + 150000/p =
answer. 300000/p
p*5*a/100 + p*4*c/100 = p
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES 5ap + 4cp = p*100
5*180000*p/p + 4*150000*p/p = 100p
136. (b) Let the principal be Rs. p 1800*5 + 1500*4 = p
Rate of interest in schemes A, B, and C be a, b, and P = 15000
c Thus, P = 15000
P*b*2/100 - p*a*2/100 = 2400 a = 180000/15000 = 12%
b - a = 120000/p ------- (i) b = 300000/15000 = 20%
P*b*3/100 - p*c*3/100 = 4500 c = 150000/15000 = 10%
b - c = 150000/p ------ (ii) In scheme B, R = 20%
P*a*4/100 + p*b*4/100 + p*c*4/100 = 25200 Time = 7.5 years
a+ b + c = 630000/p ------- (iii) SI = 32000 * 7.5 * 20/100 = Rs. 48000
Equation (ii) - (i) 138. (c) Let the principal be Rs. p
b - c - b + a = 30000/p Rate of interest in schemes A, B, and C be a, b, and
a - c = 30000/p ----- (iv) c
from equation (ii) P*b*2/100 - p*a*2/100 = 2400
b = 150000/p + c b - a = 120000/p ------- (i)
from equation (iv) P*b*3/100 - p*c*3/100 = 4500
a = 30000/p + c b - c = 150000/p ------ (ii)
Put the value of b and a in equation (iii) P*a*4/100 + p*b*4/100 + p*c*4/100 = 25200
30000/p + c + 150000/p + c + c = 630000/p a+ b + c = 630000/p ------- (iii)
3c = 630000/p - 180000/p = 450000/p Equation (ii) - (i)
c = 150000/p b - c - b + a = 30000/p
a = 30000/p + c = 30000/p + 150000/p = 180000/p a - c = 30000/p ----- (iv)
b = 150000/p + c = 150000/p + 150000/p = from equation (ii)
300000/p b = 150000/p + c
p*5*a/100 + p*4*c/100 = p from equation (iv)
5ap + 4cp = 15000*100 = p*100 a = 30000/p + c
5*180000*p/p + 4*150000*p/p = 100p Put the value of b and a in equation (iii)
1800*5 + 1500*4 = p 30000/p + c + 150000/p + c + c = 630000/p
P = 15000 3c = 630000/p - 180000/p = 450000/p
Thus, P = 15000 c = 150000/p
a = 180000/15000 = 12% a = 30000/p + c = 30000/p + 150000/p = 180000/p
b = 300000/15000 = 20%

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 b = 150000/p + c = 150000/p + 150000/p = b - c - b + a = 30000/p
300000/p a - c = 30000/p ----- (iv)
p*5*a/100 + p*4*c/100 = p from equation (ii)
5ap + 4cp = 15000*100 = p*100 b = 150000/p + c
5*180000*p/p + 4*150000*p/p = 100p from equation (iv)
1800*5 + 1500*4 = p a = 30000/p + c
P = 15000 Put the value of b and a in equation (iii)
Thus, P = 15000 30000/p + c + 150000/p + c + c = 630000/p
a = 180000/15000 = 12% 3c = 630000/p - 180000/p = 450000/p
b = 300000/15000 = 20% c = 150000/p
c = 150000/15000 = 10% a = 30000/p + c = 30000/p + 150000/p = 180000/p
At the end of 2.5 years, total simple interest = 5000 b = 150000/p + c = 150000/p + 150000/p =
* 12 *2.5/100 + 5000 * 2.5 * 20/100 + 5000 300000/p
*2.5* 10/100 = Rs. 5250 p*5*a/100 + p*4*c/100 = p
Total amount he will receive = 15000 + 5250 = Rs. 5ap + 4cp = 15000*100 = p*100
20250 5*180000*p/p + 4*150000*p/p = 100p
139. (c) Let the principal be Rs. p 1800*5 + 1500*4 = p
Rate of interest in schemes A, B, and C be a, b, and P = 15000
c Thus, P = 15000
P*b*2/100 - p*a*2/100 = 2400 141. (d) From the given data let us draw the following
b - a = 120000/p ------- (i) diagram.
P*b*3/100 - p*c*3/100 = 4500
b - c = 150000/p ------ (ii)
P*a*4/100 + p*b*4/100 + p*c*4/100 = 25200
a+ b + c = 630000/p ------- (iii)
Equation (ii) - (i)
b - c - b + a = 30000/p
a - c = 30000/p ----- (iv)
from equation (ii)
b = 150000/p + c
from equation (iv) Given that, 70 people use only one brand.
a = 30000/p + c ⇒ a + b + c = 70 →(1)
Put the value of b and a in equation (iii) 47 people use exactly two brands.
30000/p + c + 150000/p + c + c = 630000/p ⇒ d + e + f = 47 → (2)
3c = 630000/p - 180000/p = 450000/p Each person uses at least one of the three brands.
c = 150000/p ⇒n=0
a = 30000/p + c = 30000/p + 150000/p = 180000/p The total number of people in the colony
b = 150000/p + c = 150000/p + 150000/p = =a+b+c+d+e+f+r
300000/p = 70 + 47 + 8 = 125.
p*5*a/100 + p*4*c/100 = p 142. (b) From the given data let us draw the following
5ap + 4cp = 15000*100 = p*100 diagram.
5*180000*p/p + 4*150000*p/p = 100p
1800*5 + 1500*4 = p
P = 15000
Thus, P = 15000
a = 180000/15000 = 12%
b = 300000/15000 = 20%
c = 150000/15000 = 10%
The required sum = 15000 * 3 = 45000
140. (c) Let the principal be Rs. p
Rate of interest in schemes A, B, and C be a, b, and
c Given that, 70 people use only one brand.
P*b*2/100 - p*a*2/100 = 2400 ⇒ a + b + c = 70 →(1)
b - a = 120000/p ------- (i) 47 people use exactly two brands.
P*b*3/100 - p*c*3/100 = 4500 ⇒ d + e + f = 47 → (2)
b - c = 150000/p ------ (ii) Each person uses at least one of the three brands.
P*a*4/100 + p*b*4/100 + p*c*4/100 = 25200 ⇒n=0
a+ b + c = 630000/p ------- (iii) The number of people who are using at least two
Equation (ii) - (i) brands.
= d + e + f + r = 47 + 8 = 55.
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143. (a) From the given data let us draw the following Number of people who do not use all the three
diagram. brands
= total - people using all the three brands.
= 125 – 8 = 117.
550
146. (b) Number of fan regulators accepted = ( ) (90) =
10
4950
147. (d) Percentage of assemblies rejected from machines P,
Q, R, S, T, is
10%, 20%, 10%, 14%, 15%
10% of production of assemblies of P = 600
600
So 100% of production of P = × 100 = 6000
Given that, 70 people use only one brand. 10
⇒ a + b + c = 70 →(1) 20% of production of assemblies of Q = 1000
1000
47 people use exactly two brands. So 100% of production of Q = × 100 = 5000
20
⇒ d + e + f = 47 → (2) 10% of production of assemblies of R = 550
Each person uses at least one of the three brands. So 100% of production of R =
550
× 100 = 5500
⇒n=0 10
Number of people who use at most two brands 14% of production of assemblies of S = 840
840
= total - people using all the three brands. So 100% of production of S = × 100 = 6000
14
= 125 – 8 = 117. 15% of production of assemblies of T = 1650
144. (a) From the given data let us draw the following 1650
So 100% of production of T = × 100 = 11000
diagram. 15
By observation we can say that the number of
assemblies by machine T is highest.
148. (c) Number of fan regulators from P. that were rejected
= 600
Number of fan regulators from Q, that were rejected
= 550
600—550 1
Required percentage = × 100% = 9 %.
550 11
149. (d) Number of fan regulators assembled by T =
1650
( )(100) =11,000
15
Given that, 70 people use only one brand. 600
⇒ a + b + c = 70 →(1) Number of fan regulators assembled by P = x
10
47 people use exactly two brands. 100 = 6,000
1000
⇒ d + e + f = 47 → (2) Number of fan regulators assembled by Q = x
20
Each person uses at least one of the three brands. 100 = 5,000
⇒n=0 Number of fan regulators assembled by T is equal to
The ratio of the number of people who use exactly the total number of fan regulators assembled by P
one brand to that of people using at least one brand. and Q.
= (a + b + c) : (a + b + c + d + e + f + r) Therefore required percentage is zero.
= 70 : 70 + 47 + 8 = 70 : 125 = 14 : 25. 150. (a) Number of fan regulates assembled by machine, R
145. (b) From the given data let us draw the following 550 840
and S are x 100 = 5500 and x 100 = 6000
diagram. 10 14
respectively.
Their average number of assemblies
5500+6000
= ( ) = 5750
2

Given that, 70 people use only one brand.

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 Notes:-

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