ANSWER KEY VERSION 22

1B 2A 3D 4B 5D 6C 7A 8D 9B 10B
11C 12A 13A 14A 15C 16A 17D 18B 19D 20D
21B 22A 23D 24A 25D 26D 27B 28B 29D 30A
31C 32C 33D 34D 35A 36D 37B 38A 39BorD 40C

1. Which of the following statements concerning operons is correct?

a. High levels of tryptophan help activate Trp operon transcription.

b. High levels of lactose help activate Lac operon transcription.
c. High levels of glucose help activate Lac operon transcription.
d. Low levels of both allolactose and cAMP help activate Lac operon transcription.

2. The cancer drug actinomycin D inhibits RNA polymerase‐mediated elongation. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?

a. A cancer cell treated with actinomycin D will have an altered genome.

b. A cancer cell treated with actinomycin D will have an altered transcriptome.
c. A cancer cell treated with actinomycin D will have an altered proteome.
d. A cancer cell treated with actinomycin D will have an altered microarray profile.

3. Which of the following concerning gene regulation is correct?

a. In the Lac operon, ligand binding allows a repressor protein to bind DNA.
b. In the Trp operon, ligand binding allows an activator protein to bind DNA.
c. In the Lac operon, ligand binding inhibits an activator protein.
d. None of the above.

4. Which of the following may help bacteriophage lambda switch from a prophage to lytic phase?

a. Placing the host cell in favourable bacterial growth conditions.

b. Increasing the expression of Cro.
c. Increasing the expression of the Lambda repressor.
d. Increasing the expression of bacteriophage integrase proteins.

5. In bacteria grown with “the repressilator”, which of the following will not occur?

a. Protein B will be expressed.

b. Protein B will be repressed.
c. Protein C will be expressed.
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 d. The oscillations of protein C will decrease in amplitude.

6. Which of the following causes transcriptional repression?

a. Histone demethylation.
b. Histone acetylation.
c. Cytosine methylation.
d. None of the above.
7. For a Drosophila with two autosomal sets, two X chromosomes, and one Y chromosome, which of
the following is correct?

a. Transformer (Tra) will not be spliced but will be functional.

b. Sex‐lethal (Sxl) will be spliced and will be non‐functional.
c. Doublesex (Dsx) will not be spliced and will be non‐functional.
d. Doublesex (Dsx) will be spliced and will be non‐functional.

8. If exon‐junction complexes are removed from an mRNA in the cytosol, which of the following
will occur?

a. The mRNA will be imported into the nucleus.

b. The mRNA will be degraded.
c. The mRNA will not be spliced.
d. The mRNA will be translated efficiently.

9. If all cellular endonuclease activity were inhibited, which of the following would be FALSE?

a. siRNA function would be partially inhibited.

b. Deadenylase activity would be partially inhibited
c. miRNA function would be partially inhibited.
d. Dicer activity would be inhibited.

10. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. eIF2‐GDP must be phosphorylated to produce eIF2‐GTP.

b. All eIF2B may be sequestered even if not all eIF2‐GDP is phosphorylated.
c. eIF2B‐GTP binds to the initiator tRNA and facilitates translation initiation.
d. Guanine nucleotide exchange occurs when an AUG on the mRNA is recognized by a ribosome.

11. If a ubiquitin ligase in a cell can no longer bind to its target protein, which of the following is TRUE?

a. The target protein will be monoubiquitinated by E2.

b. The ubiquitin‐activating enzyme cannot be ubiquitinated.
c. The ubiquitin ligase can be ubiquitinated.

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 d. E2 will not bind to E3.

12. The introduction of a miRNA targeting PKA into a cell will likely result in which of the following?

a. Lack of CBP to CREB binding.

b. The inability to produce cAMP.
c. Activation of CRE‐mediated gene transcription.
d. Glucose release into the blood.
13. Cleavage of a signal peptide may result in which of the following?

a. Transport of a protein from the stroma of a chloroplast into the thylakoid membrane.
b. Transport of a protein from the cytosol into the peroxisomal matrix.
c. Transport of a protein from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix.
d. Transport of a protein from the cytosol into the endoplasmic reticulum membrane.

14. Rhodopsin has an N‐terminal tail in the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum and a C‐terminal tail
in the cytosol. It also has the following endoplasmic reticulum transfer (Start or Stop) signals:
N‐Start‐Start‐Stop‐Start‐Stop‐Start‐Stop‐C
Which of the following is TRUE?

a. If the three transfer signals closest to the C‐terminus were deleted, the protein’s C‐terminal
tail would be in the lumen.
b. If the stop signal closest to the C‐terminus was deleted, the protein would still have a cytosolic C‐
terminal tail.
c. If the two transfer signals closest to the C‐terminus were deleted, the protein’s C‐terminal tail
would be in the lumen.
d. If rhodopsin only had the first transfer signal, it would be in the lumen.

15. A glucose unit on an N‐linked oligosaccharide is necessary for which of the following?

a. UDP‐glucose activity.
b. Glucosyl transferase activity.
c. Calnexin activity.
d. Exit from the endoplasmic reticulum.

16. Which of the following proteins is sorted to their appropriate cellular compartment as a folded
protein?

a. RanGEF.
b. Oligosaccharyl Transferase.
c. Mannose‐6 Phosphate Receptor.
d. TIM23.

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17. A graduate student is having fun in the lab adding various amino acid sequences to a secreted protein
and predicting the functional outcome. Which of the following predictions would be FALSE?

a. Adding the amino acids N‐X‐T (N = asparagine, X = any amino acid except proline, T = threonine)
will result in N‐linked glycosylation.
b. Adding KDEL sequence to the C‐terminus of the protein will result in ER localization.
c. Adding a C‐terminal hydrophobic sequence will anchor the protein in the plasma membrane.
d. Addition of a nuclear localization sequence will localize the protein to the nucleus.
18. Which of the following proteins has decreased affinity for DNA when it binds to a small molecule?

a. Cytosolic aconitase.
b. Lac repressor.
c. Catabolite activator protein (CAP).
d. Trp repressor.

19. Which of the following does NOT bind to RNA?

a. Cytosolic aconitase.
b. Guanine.
c. Sex Lethal.
d. eIF2B.

20. You discover a cell line with a non‐functional eIF2B enzyme. What would you predict to be the
phenotype of this cell?

a. Increased transcription.
b. Decreased transcription.
c. Increased translation.
d. Decreased translation.

21. Which of the following describes the Lac operon in E. coli when both lactose and glucose are
present in the culture medium?

a. CAP and the Lac repressor are both bound to the Lac operon’s regulatory DNA, and the
Lac operon is not expressed.
b. Neither CAP nor the Lac repressor is bound to the Lac operon’s regulatory DNA, and the
Lac operon is not expressed.
c. CAP, but not the Lac repressor, is bound to the Lac operon’s regulatory DNA, and the Lac operon
is expressed.
d. The Lac repressor, but not CAP, is bound to the Lac operon’s regulatory DNA, and the Lac operon
is not expressed.

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22. The following diagram represents which type of circuit?

a. Delayed Positive Feedback Loop.

b. Delayed Negative Feedback Loop.
c. Flip‐Flop Device.
d. Feed Forward Loop.
23. A graduate student is identifying proteins associated with purified mRNA molecules. Which of the
following would be an indicator of incompletely processed mRNAs?

a. eIF4G.
b. Poly‐A Binding Protein.
c. eIF4E.
d. Exon Junction Complex.

24. Which of the following events in the transport of lysosomal hydrolases occurs in the ER?

a. An N‐linked oligosaccharide is added to the lysosomal hydrolase.

b. A mannose residue is phosphorylated on the N‐linked oligosaccharide to produce mannose
6‐ phosphate.
c. Mannose 6‐phosphate receptors package lysosomal hydrolases into clathrin‐coated vesicles.
d. The lysosomal hyrdrolase is released from the mannose 6‐phosphate receptor at acidic pH.

25. A chemical screen identified the GTPase inhibitor NSC23766. Which of the following proteins would
NOT be inhibited?

a. SRP.
b. SRP Receptor.
c. Ran.
d. eIF2B.

26. Which of the following mechanisms of gene regulation would be found in prokaryotic organisms?

a. Mediators that act an intermediate between regulatory proteins and RNA polymerase.
b. Activator proteins that can alter chromatin structure and increase promoter accessibility.
c. Transcriptional regulation that requires five general transcription factors.
d. Regulatory elements that are distant from the transcriptional start site may
influence transcription by DNA looping.

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27. Why is it important that expression of the Lac operon is always slightly on?

a. E. coli needs β‐galactosidase encoded by the Lac operon to utilize glucose.

b. E. coli needs β‐galactosidase encoded by the Lac operon to respond to lactose.
c. RNA polymerase requires β‐galactosidase encoded by the Lac operon to bind DNA.
d. The Lac operon can be completely shut down without consequence.

28. A research lab has expressed an miRNA that targets the NTF2 mRNA. What would be the expected
phenotype?

a. Ran‐GTP would accumulate in the cytosol.

b. Ran‐GDP would accumulate in the cytosol.
c. Ran‐GTP would accumulate in the nucleus.
d. Ran‐GDP would accumulate in the nucleus.

29. You have joined a research lab and they have asked you to choose one of the following projects.
Which one would be most likely be successful?

a. Develop a protocol to purify Ran from E. coli.

b. Inhibit cytosolic aconitase to increase ferritin receptor mRNA stability.
c. Conduct a chemical screen for ribosomal inhibitors to inhibit transcription.
d. Purify histone octamers from yeast.

30. Which of the following statements is TRUE about protein sorting to the mitochondria
and chloroplasts? Proteins sorted to the mitochondria or the chloroplasts:

a. have a signal sequence that is cleaved off after sorting.

b. possess an N‐terminal hydrophobic signal sequence.
c. are imported into their respective organelle co‐translationally.
d. are imported into their respective organelle in a folded state.

31. Which of the following statements concerning translational control is TRUE?

a. In eukaryotes, RNA‐binding proteins may block access to Shine‐Dalgarno sequences.

b. In eukaryotes, decreasing eIF2 activity is used to reduce transcription of all mRNAs.
c. In prokaryotes, an antisense RNA molecule may block translation.
d. In prokaryotes, repressor proteins can interfere with 5’ cap and 3’ poly‐A tail interactions
required for efficient translation.

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32. Which of the following is TRUE about mRNA quality control in prokaryotes?

a. Prokaryotes have mRNA quality control to destroy improperly spliced mRNAs.

b. An 11 nucleotide tag is added to incomplete or broken mRNA molecules thereby marking
them for degradation.
c. tmRNA encodes 10 codons that will be translated by the ribosome.
d. tmRNA acts as an mRNA because it transfers an alanine onto polypeptides in stalled ribosomes.

33. The cisternal maturation model and the vesicular transport model have been proposed to explain
the transport of proteins and vesicles through the Golgi. Which of the following correctly describes a
difference between these models of Golgi transport?

a. In the vesicular transport model only, transport vesicles move proteins backward (trans‐to‐cis)
direction between Golgi cisternae.
b. In the cisternal maturation model only, vesicles move Golgi‐resident proteins backward in a
trans‐to‐cis direction between Golgi cisternae.
c. In the cisternal maturation model only, proteins move from one cisternae to another.
d. In the vesicular transport model only, transport vesicles move proteins in the forward (cis‐to‐
trans) direction.

34. As a summer research student in a lab, you are studying a protein with a hydrophobic amino acid
stretch. Which of the predictions could you make based on the location of these amino acids in the
protein?

a. If the hydrophobic amino acids are in the middle of the protein they could serve as a signal for
GPI‐anchoring.
b. If the hydrophobic amino acids are at the N‐terminus of the protein they could serve as a
transmembrane domain for the protein.
c. If the hydrophobic amino acids are at the C‐terminus of the protein they could serve as an ER
signal sequence.
d. If the hydrophobic amino acids are exposed on the surface of the protein they could mark the
protein for degradation.

35. Which of these statements is CORRECT about gated transport through the nuclear pore complex?

a. Nuclear import receptors release their cargo in the nucleus because they encounter a
high concentration of Ran‐GTP in the nucleus.
b. RanGTP concentrations are higher in the nucleus because RanGAP is localized to the nucleus.
c. RanGDP concentrations are higher in the nucleus because RanGEF is localized to the nucleus.
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 d. Nuclear import receptors bind to cargo in the cytosol because they encounter a high
concentration of RanGDP in the cytosol.

36. Which of the following proteins would you NOT expect to find at an ER‐exit sites?

a. Sar1‐GTP.
b. Sar1 GEF.
c. Sec23 protein.
d. Dynamin.
37. Which of the following mechanisms would retain an endoplasmic reticulum (ER) resident protein
in the ER?

a. Cleavage of signal sequences by peptidases.

b. Formation of a complex with other ER resident proteins.
c. Glycosylation of asparagine amino acids on proteins.
d. Removal of mannose sugars from glycosylation proteins.

38. Which of the following mutations would be predicted to result in plants that are hypersensitive to
the plant hormone abscisic acid (ABA)? (Hint: a mutation that activates the ABA signaling pathway).

a. A mutation that inhibits the PP2C phosphatases.

b. A mutation that inhibits the ABA receptor.
c. A mutation that inhibits the SnRK2 kinases.
d. A mutation that inhibits the ABF transcription factors.

39. The KDEL receptor constantly shuttles between the ER and Golgi in transport vesicles. Why does this
receptor carry its cargo on its way to the ER but not on its way to the Golgi?

a. Its cargo is present at high concentrations in the Golgi but not in the ER.
b. The receptor binds cargo when it is packaged into a COPI‐coated vesicle but not a
COPII‐coated vesicle.
c. The receptor binds cargo when it is packaged into a COPII‐coated vesicle but not a
COPI‐coated vesicle.
d. The affinity for the receptor and its cargo is increased in a lower pH environment.

40. Activation of the human interferon gene requires the writing of a histone code for gene activation by
the sequential action of histone “writer” enzymes. What step follows the phosphorylation of serine
10 of histone H3 by histone kinase (HK)?

a. Acetylation of Lysine 9 of histone H3 by histone acetyltransferase.

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 b. Acetylation of Lysine 8 of histone H4 by histone acetyltransferase.
c. Acetylation of Lysine 14 of histone H3 by histone acetyltransferase.
d. TFIID and a chromatin remodeling complex bind to histone tails and initiate transcription.

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