Section – A

(You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A.)

101. Sexual reproduction is found in:

(a) monocystis (b) plasmodium (c) paramecium (d) all of these

102. Find out the wrong one in the given options:

(a) unisexual → heterothallic → dioecious (b) unisexual → homothallic → monoecious
(c) bisexual → homothallic → monoecious (d) bisexual → homothallic → hermaphrodite

103. Parental body of tracheophytes is more advanced than algae, monera and fungi because their body is:
(a) haploid (b) diploid (c) haplodiploid (d) diplohaploid

104. Inter-flowering period is a part of :

(a) juvenile phase in polycarpic plants
(b) mature phase in monocarpic plants
(c) mature phase in annual plants
(d) mature phase in polycarpic plants

105. Figure represents some structures described as A and B, identify these structures:

(a) both A and B are sex organs where A is a nucule and B is globule.
(b) both A and B are sex organs where A is antheridium and B is oogonium.
(c) both A and B are vegetative propagules known as bulbils.
(d) both A and B are unicellular and non-jacketed sex organs of chara.

106. Which plant group is odd with reference to the internal fertilization:
(a) algae (b) bryophytes (c) pteridophytes (d) gymnosperms

107. Ploidy of ovary, anther, egg, pollen, male gamete and zygote is respectively: (a)
2n, 2n, n, 2n, n, 2n (b) 2n, 2n, n, n, n, 2n
(c) 2n, n, n, n, n, n (d) 2n, 2n, n, 2n, 2n, 2n

108. In plants showing haplo-diplontic life cycle, first division of the zygote is:
(a) mitosis (b) meiosis (c) amitosis (d) free nuclear division

109. How organisms reproduce depends upon:

(a) habitat of organisms (c) internal physiology of organisms
(c) genetic makeup (d) all of the above factors

110. Which of the following plants do not show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases:
(a) perennial plants (b) annual plants (c) biennial plants (d) either 2 or 3

111. Banana is vegetatively propagated by:

(a) corms (b) rhizomes (c) suckers (d) bulbs or tubers

112. If stock contains 58 chromosomes and scion contains 30 chromosomes, then how many chromosomes are
present in root cell and egg cell of resultant plant respectively:
(a) 30 and 29 (b) 15 and 58 (c) 58 and 15 (d) 29 and 30

113. Genetically identical progeny is produced, when an individual:

(a) practises self-fertilization (c) produces identical gametes
(c) practises sexual reproduction (d) practises inbreeding without meiosis
114. Identify the events A, B, D and E with reference to sexual reproduction:

(a) A-gamete transfer, B-gametogenesis, D-zygote formation, E-embryogenesis

(b) A-gametogenesis, B-gamete transfer, D-zygote formation, E-embryogenesis
(c) A-gametogenesis, B-zygote formation, D-gamete transfer, E-embryogenesis
(d) A-gametogenesis, B-gamete transfer, D- embryogenesis, E-zygote formation

115. Male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus, then the number chromosomes in female
gamete, zygote and the cells of seedling will be respectively:
(a) 12, 24, 12 (b) 24, 12, 12 (c) 12, 24, 24 (d) 24, 12, 24

116. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

(a) volvox (b) focus (c) chlamydomonas (d) spirogyra

117. Select odd one out with respect to dioecious plants:

(a) papaya (b) date palm (c) cucurbits (d) mulberry

118. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds, most probable cause for the above
situation is:
(a) plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
(b) plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
(c) plant is monoecious
(d) plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers

119. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if:

(a) pollen matures before the ovules (b) ovules mature before the pollen
(c) both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously (d) both anther and stigma are of equal length

120. Condition which prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy:

(a) monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers (b) dioecious plant bearing male or female flowers
(c) monoecious plant with bisexual flowers (d) dioecious plant with bisexual flowers

121. Homologous structures in the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass:

(a) coleorhiza and coleoptile (b) coleoptile and scutellum (c) cotyledons and scutellum (d) hypocotyl and radicle

122. Phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual apparatus is used to form embryos
without fertilization is called:
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) apomixes (c) sexual reproduction (d) vegetative propagation

123. Phenomenon wherein the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilization is called:
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) apomixes (c) parthenogenesis (d) asexual reproduction

124. An example of insect pollinated flower in which the flower provides safe place for insect to lay eggs:
(a) fig species (b) yucca species (c) amorphophallus (d) all of these

125. Genetically the geitonogamy is:

(a) Allogamy (b) apomixes (c) autogamy (d) xenogamy

126. Endosperm is completely consumed by developing embryo in:

(a) Pea (b) castor (c) wheat (d) coconut

127. Which of the following is odd regarding hydrophily:

 (a) Vallisneria (b) hydrilla (c) water lily (d) zostera

128. Nucellus is the mass of cells enclosed within the integuments to provide nutrition to:
(a) Ovules (b) embryo (c) seeds (d) embryo sac

129. In following diagrams, identify A, B, C and D respectively and find out the correct match among the following
set of options:

A B C D
(a) SAM hypocotyl scutellum endosperm
(b) hypocotyl SAM scutellum endosperm
(c) scutellum hypocotyl SAM endosperm
(d) endosperm scutellum hypocotyl SAM

130. Example of plant which contain cleistogamous flower:

(a) Oxalis (b) commelina (c) viola (common pansy) (d) all of the above

131. Which of the following is probable reason of limited distribution of bryophytes and pteridophytes:
(a) multicellular and jacketed gametangia (b) absence of roots and the seeds
(c) unicellular and non-jacketed gametangia (d) need of water for transfer of male gametes

132. In which of the following plants, both autogamy and geitonogamy is absent:
(a) maize (b) mango (c) papaya (d) castor

133. Structure which encloses leaf primordia and shoot apex in monocot embryo is:
(a) epiblast (b) coleorhiza (c) coleoptile (d) epicotyl

134. Which of the following is not an advantage of seed offered to angiosperms:

(a) better adaptive strategies for dispersal
(b) nourishment of young seedlings
(c) determine self-incompatibility reactions
(d) protection of young embryo

135. Genetic nature of apomictic embryo:

(a) n (b) 3n (c) 2n (d) n or 2n like mother plants

Section – B
(You have to attempt only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.)
Note : Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the
candidate shall be evaluated.

136. Epiblast present in certain monocot embryos is actually:

(a) mesocotyl (b) scutellum (c) rudiment of embryonic leaf (d) remains of second cotyledon

137. Which of the following is an oldest yet viable seed excavated from the arctic tundra:
(a) Phoenix dactylifera (b) Lupinus arcticus
(c) Lupinus dactylifera (d) Cocos nucifera

138. After the release, viability of pollen grains of wheat and rice is about:
(a) 30 min (b) 60 min (c) 70 min (d) 90 min

139. Arrangement of nuclei within ovule of angiospermic plant just after double fertilization:
(a) 5 haploid, 1 diploid, 1 triploid (b) 3 haploid, 2 diploid, 2 triploid
(c) 2 haploid, 3 diploid, 3 triploid (d) 1 haploid, 3 diploid, 3 triploid
140. Male gametophyte with least number of cells:
(a) Funaria (b) lilium (c) pinus (d) pteris

141. Type of association between the entomophilous flower and the pollinating agent:
(a) mutualism (b) commensalism (c) cooperation (d) co-evolution

142. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to:

(a) formation of pollen (b) development of anther (c) opening of flower bud (d) reception of pollen by stigma

143. Most common type of ovule found in angiosperms is:

(a) orthotropous (b) hemitropous (c) anatropous (d) campylotropous
144. Chiropterophily referrers to:
(a) pollination by bats (b) pollination by wind (c) pollination by insects (d) pollination by snails

145. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from:

(a) diploid egg (b) synergids (c) maternal sporophytic tissue (d) antipodal cells

146. Residual persistent nucellus is known as:

(a) perisperm (b) pericarp (c) integuments (d) none of these

147. Effect of teratogens is maximum during:

(a) 1st trimester (b) 2nd trimester (c) 3rd trimester (d) both 2 and 3

148. How many mature eggs are typically produced by each ovary of non-pregnant women each year: (a) 6
(b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 52

149. During the embryonic development, heart beat begins at the end of:
(a) 1st trimester (b) 2nd trimester (c) 1st month (d) 3rd month

150. Most of the organs and organ systems in foetus are formed by the end of:
(a) 1st trimester (b) 2nd trimester (c) 3rd trimester (d) 1st month

Section – A
(You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A.)

151. Mesoderm is soon appears between the ectoderm and endoderm, these 3 layers gives rise to all tissue and
organ in adults, it needs to be mentioned here that the inner cell mass contains certain cell we called them:
(a) germ cell (b) stem cell (c) cells of rauber (d) trophoblast cell

152. Umbilical cord suspends embryo in amniotic cavity and is attached to the midgut region of the embryo, in
eutherians, umbilical cord consists of :
(a) yolk sac and amnion (b) allantois and chorion (c) yolk sac and chorion (d) allantois and yolk sac

153. In which phase of menstrual cycle, progesterone is absent and the oestrogen level is high in blood:
(a) menstrual phase (b) proliferative phase (c) post menstrual phase (d) secretory phase

154. Twins born joined together at some point as they develop from a single embryo having partly separated
blastomeres are:
(a) identical twins (b) fraternal twins (c) dizygotic twins (d) siamese twins

155. Presence of fructose in female genital tract confirms:

(a) Pregnancy (b) sexual intercourse (c) abortion (d) sexually transmitted disease

156. Capacity of the lumen of non-pregnant uterus is 10 cm3 and can expand up to........................during pregnancy:
(a) 100 times (b) 200 times (c) 300 times (d) 500 times

157. Which of the following undergoes meiosis-ii:

(a) 1st polar body (b) spermatogonia (c) secondary oocyte (d) 2nd polar body

158. Parturition is a neuroendocrine mechanism initiated by the signals from the:

(a) placenta (b) maternal pituitary (c) fully developed foetus (d) both 1 and 3
159. Secretory phase in human menstrual cycle is also called the:
(a) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days (b) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
(c) luteal phase and lasts for about 14 days (d) follicular phase and lasts for about 14 days

160. Sperm and the egg make different contributions to zygote, which of the following statements about their
contributions are true:
A. sperm contribute most of the mitochondria
B. egg contribute most of the cytoplasm
C. both sperm and egg contribute haploid nucleus
D. both sperm and egg contribute centrioles
(a) A, B (b) B, C (c) C, D (d) A, B, C, D

161. Permeability of human placenta to macromolecules is evidenced by the presence of………..in foetal blood.
(a) globulin (b) albumin (c) anti Rh factor (d) viruses and bacteria

162. Graph shows relative concentrations of 4 hormones in the blood plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle,
identify the hormones:

A B C D
(a) FSH progesterone LH oestrogen
(b) LH progesterone FSH oestrogen
(c) FSH oestrogen LH progesterone
(d) LH oestrogen FSH progesterone

163. Corpus luteum is formed by:

(a) granulosa cells (b) interstitial cells (c) theca cells (d) theca and granulosa cells

164. Human progeny after the 8th week of intra uterine life:
(a) embryo (b) foetus (c) neonate (d) infant

165. How many cell divisions occur until an isolated cell forms a mass of 128 cells through mitosis:
(a) 56 (b) 127 (c) 128 (d) 7

166. Sperm surface has acid protein antifertilizin and the egg surface has fertilizin with molecular weight of 3 lacs
which is:
(a) acid protein (b) steroid (c) glycoprotein (d) polysaccharide

167. Choose the correct combination of labelling the hormonal control of female reproductive system:

(a) a: GnRH, b: TSH, c: LTH, d: uterus

(b) a: GnRH, b: LH and FSH, c: oestrogen and progesterone, d: uterus
 (c) a: GnRH, b: STH, c: LH, d: uterus
(d) a: GnRH, b: FSH, c: LH, d: uterus

168. An important function of progesterone is:

1. prepare uterus for pregnancy 2. implantation of embryo
3. maintenance of pregnancy 4. negative feedback inhibition of FSH
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
169. Match the chronological order of human gestation in column-i with developmental events in column-ii:

column – i column – ii

A. 4 weeks 1. first movements of the foetus and

appearance of hair on the head

B. 8 weeks 2. foetus develops limbs and digits

C. 12 weeks 3. body is covered with fine hair, eye-

lids separate and eyelashes are
formed
D. 20 weeks 4. embryo's heart is formed

E. 24 weeks 5. limbs and external genital

organs are well-developed
(a) A-4, B-2, C-5, D-1, E-3 (b) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4 (d) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-3

170. Ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm at the beginning of cleavage is:

(a) very low (b) very high (c) normal (d) a bit higher

171. During embryonic development the establishment of polarity along anterior / posterior, dorsal / ventral or medial /
lateral axis is called:
(a) anamorphosis (b) organizer phenomena (c) pattern formation (d)axis formation

172. After fertilization, which centriole of the sperm gives rise to a spindle system inside the egg:
(a) proximal centriole (b)distal centriole (c) ring centriole (d) none of these

173. A woman gave birth to triplets (2 identical girls and a boy) then the number of eggs fertilized would be:
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4

174. Copper ion released from the copper releasing IUDs:

(a) prevent ovulation (c) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) increases phagocytosis of sperms (d) suppress sperm motility

175. Disease sometimes referred to as ‘silent STD’ because it is usually asymptomatic in women in early stage is:
(a) Chlamydiasis (b) gonorrhea (c) syphilis (d) pelvic inflammatory disease

176. First test tube baby in India born on august 6, 1986 at KEM hospital, mumbai:
(a) Durga (b) Indira Hinduja (c) Harsha (d) Louise Joy Brown

177. In a 35 days menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs on:

(a) 17th day (b) 14th day (c) 21st day (d) 18th day

178. As shown in the figure the capsules surgically implanted under skin slowly release hormone that blocks
ovulation is an example of:
 (a) injectable: depoprovera (b) implant: norplant (c) IUD: Cu-T (d) progestasert: LNG-20

179. Oral contraceptives have pregnancy rates less than:

(a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 99%

180. Match the column with reference to the IUDs and their mechanism of action:

column-i column-ii
(a) non-medicated IUDs 1. make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
e.g. lippes loop. cervix hostile to the sperms
(b) Cu releasing IUDs e.g. Cu-T, Cu-7 2. suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of
and multiload 375 sperms
(c) hormonal IUDs e.g. progestasert and 3. create mechanical barrier thus increases phagocytes of
LNG-20. sperms

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3 (b) a-1, b-3, c-2 (c) a-3, b-2, c-1 (d) a-2, b-1, c-3

181. Which of the following statements are correct :

(i) family planning programmes were initiated in 1951.
(ii) according to WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in the physical, social, behavioural and
emotional aspects of reproduction.
(iii) saheli was developed at CDRI in lucknow.
(iv) amniocentesis should not be banned as it is a
foetal sex determination test.
(a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) i, ii and iii (d) iii and iv

182. Given below is a list of few sexually transmitted diseases, identify the diseases caused by bacteria among these:
(i) gonorrhoea (ii) chlamydiasis (iii) trichomoniasis (iv) chancroid (v) syphilis
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii, iv and v
(c) iii and v (d) ii, iii, iv and v

183. Assertion: grafting is not usually possible in monocots.

reason: successful grafting requires cambia of stock and scion to fuse to form the new vascular tissues.
(a) both are true and reason is the correct explanation.
(b) both true but reason is not a correct explanation.
(c) assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.

184. Assertion: in some species of asteraceae and poaceae, seeds are formed without fertilization.
reason: formation of fruit without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.
(a) both are true and reason is the correct explanation.
(b) both true but reason is not a correct explanation.
(c) assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.

185. Assertion: dichogamy refers to maturation of male and female sex organs at different times. reason:
this is a safeguard against cross-pollination.
(a) both are true and reason is the correct explanation.
(b) both true but reason is not a correct explanation.
(c) assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Section – B
(You have to attempt only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.)
Note : Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the
candidate shall be evaluated.

186. Plants with poor root system are propagated through:

(a) layering (b) leaf cuttings (c) stem cuttings (d) grafting

187. Eichhornia or water hyacinth is one of the most problematic weeds of static water bodies in India, which of the
following statement is incorrect about eichhornia?
(a) known as terror of bengal
(b) native plant of india
(c) increases biochemical oxygen demand and causes eutrophication of waterbody
(d) spread rapidly through vegetative reproduction

188. Find out the correct order of vegetative propagules of the following plants: potato, ginger, agave,
bryophyllum and water hyacinth:
(a) offset, bulbil, leaf bud, rhizome and eyes
(b) leaf bud, bulbil, offset, rhizome and eyes
(c) eyes, rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud and offset
(d) rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud, eyes and offset

189. Which tissue plays an important role in grafting process?

(a) Phloem (b) meristematic (c) epidermal (d) vessels elements arranged end to end

190. Zygote developed after syngamy undergoes meiosis to form haploid spores which divide mitotically to form the
gametophyte, organism must have...................................life cycle:
(a) haplontic (b) diplontic (c) haplodiplontic (d) either 1 or 3

191. Even in absence of pollinating agents, seed-setting is assured in:

(a) salvia (b) zostera (c) commelina (d) fig species

192. Total number of nuclei involved in double fertilisation:

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

193. Identify the right sequence of reproductive events in humans:

(a) growth  gametogenesis  insemination  fertilization  implantation  gestation 
parturition
(b) gametogenesis  insemination  fertilization  implantation  gestation  parturition  growth
(c) growth  gametogenesis  fertilization  insemination  implantation  gestation  parturition
(d) growth  fertilization  gametogenesis  insemination  implantation  gestation  parturition

194. Meiotic divisions are required to produce 200 seeds in juncus:

(a) 400 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 250

195. According to MTP amendment act 2017, pregnancy may be terminated below............weeks with the opinion
of a registered medical practitioner.
(a) 20 weeks (b) 3 weeks (c) 24 week (d) 12 weeks
196. Cleistogamous flowers are invariably:
(a) autogamous (b) xenogamous (c) geitonogamous (d) all are possible
(b)

197. Meiotic divisions required to produce 100 seeds in cyperaceae family:

(a) 100 (b) 125 (c) 150 (d) 200

198. People especially vulnerable to STDs are in the age group:

(a) 15 to 19 years (b) 25 to 40 years (c) 5 to 12 years (d) 15 to 24 years

199. Match the column-i with the column-ii:

column-i column-ii
a. coitus interruptus i. natural methods
b. LNG-20 ii. IUDs
c. diaphragms iii. barrier methods
d. multiload 375 iv. surgical methods
 e. saheli v. oral contraceptives
f. nirodh
g. sterilization
h. vasectomy
i. CuT
(a) i-a, ii-d and i, iii-c and f, iv-g and h, v-e and b
(b) i-a, ii-b, d and i, iii-c and f, iv-g and h, v-e
(c) i-a, ii-b, e and i, iii-c and f, iv-g and h, v-d
(d) i-a, ii-i, iii-c and f, iv-g and h, v-b, d and e

200. Reproductive and child health care program (RCH) in India was launched in:
(a) 1951 (b) 1997 (c) 2017 (d) none of these