CPA Auditing Pre-Board Exam Questions
CPA Auditing Pre-Board Exam Questions
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
The single feature that most clearly distinguishes auditing, attestation, and assurance
is:
a. type of service.
b. training required to perform the
service.
c. scope of services.
d. CPA’s approach to the service.
One of the elements of an assurance engagement is suitable criteria. As per PFAE, which
of the following least likely describes it?
a. Neutral and comprehensive c. Understandable and
reliable
b. Complete and relevant d. Neutral and reliable
Which of the following is not a recommendation usually made following the completion of
an operational audit?
a. Economic and efficient use of resources
b. Effective achievement of business objectives
c. Attesting to the fairness of the financial
statements
d. Compliance with company policies
An initial (first-time) audit requires more audit time to complete than a recurring
audit. One of the reasons for this is that:
a. new auditors are usually assigned to an initial audit.
b. predecessor auditors need to be consulted.
c. the client's business, industry, and internal controls are
unfamiliar to
the auditor and need to be carefully studied.
d. a larger proportion of customer accounts receivable need to be
confirmed
on an initial audit.
Which of the following observations, made during the preliminary survey of a local
department store's disbursement cycle, reflects a control strength?
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
The auditor is studying internal control policies and procedures within the sales,
shipping, and billing subset of the revenue cycle. Which of the following conditions
suggests a need for additional testing of controls?
a. Internal control is found to be weak with regard to shipping and
billing.
b. Internal control over sales, billing, and shipping appears strong,
but
80% of sales revenue is attributable to three major customers.
c. Internal control over billing and shipping is thought to be strong
and the auditor considers additional testing of selected controls
will result
in a major reduction in substantive testing.
d. Internal control over the recording of sales is found to be weak
and the
sales are evenly divided among a large number of customers.
In performing an attestation engagement, a CPA typically:
a. supplies litigation support services.
b. assesses control risk at a low level.
c. expresses a conclusion on an assertion about some type of subject
matter.
d. provides management consulting advice.
Under the current PRC regulations, what is the minimum number of CPD credit units that
a registered professional accountant in commerce and industry should accumulate for
accreditation within the three-year period?
a. 120 credit units c. 15 credit units
b. 0 credit units d. 60 credit units
Evaluate the following statements:
Statement 1: The public practice of accountancy is confined to sole proprietorship and
partnership only. (True)
Statement 2: From among PRBOA members, the Chairman of the PRBOA is tasked to appoint a
vice-chairman for a term of three (3) years. (False)
Only statement 1 is correct. c. Only statement 2 is correct.
Both statements are correct. d. Both statements are incorrect.
Evaluate the following statements:
Statement 1: As per PRBOA Resolution No. 45 Series of 2020 on refresher
course, the certificate of completion as evidenced by TOR
issued by qualified schools shall be valid for four (4)
complete CPALE
from the date of completion. (False)
Statement 2: The BIR is represented in both AASC and FRSC. (False)
a. Only statement 1 is correct. c. Only statement 2 is correct.
b. Both statements are correct. d. Both statements are incorrect.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
committee.
Which of the following correctly identifies the deadline for the completion of audit
documentation?
a. Within 45 days after the last day of
fieldwork.
b. Within 90 days after the last day of
fieldwork.
c. Within 60 days after the report release date.
d. Within 45 days after the report release date.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Evaluate the following statements:
Statement 1: An engagement quality review is an objective evaluation of the significant
judgments made by the engagement team and the conclusions reached thereon, performed by
the engagement quality reviewer and completed on or after the date of the engagement
report. (False)
Statement 2: The engagement quality reviewer may be a member of the engagement team.
Before
(False)
Only statement 1 is correct. c. Only statement 2 is correct.
Both statements are correct. d. Both statements are incorrect.
An auditor is required to obtain a basic understanding of the client’s internal control
to plan the audit. The auditor may then decide to perform tests of controls on all
internal control procedures:
a. that would aid in preventing fraud.
b. documented in the flowchart.
c. considered to be weaknesses that might allow errors to enter the
accounting system.
d. considered to be strengths for which the auditor desires further
reduction
in the assessed level of control risk.
In connection with an audit of financial statements, the auditor would ordinarily use
an engagement letter to:
a. mutually agree upon contingent fees between the company and the
auditor.
b. assert that a properly planned audit will detect and identify all
material
misstatements.
c. specify any arrangements concerning the involvement of the
company's
internal auditors on the audit.
d. determine which of the company's financial statement notes will be
compiled by the auditor during the audit.
Before accepting an engagement to audit a new client, a CPA is required to obtain:
a. an understanding of the prospective client's industry and business.
b. the prospective client's signature to a written engagement letter.
c. the prospective client's consent to make inquiries of the
predecessor
auditor, if any.
d. an assessment of fraud risk factors likely to cause material
misstatements.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the engagement letter?
a. by clearly defining the nature of the engagement, the engagement
letter helps to avoid and resolve misunderstandings between CPA and
client regarding the precise nature of the work to be performed and
the type of
report to be issued.
b. the engagement letter relieves the auditor of some responsibility
for the
exercise of due care.
c. the engagement letter should be signed by both the client and the
CPA and
should be used only for independent audits.
d. the engagement letter conveys to management the detailed steps to
be
applied in the audit process.
The pre-engagement activities of an audit engagement for a public accounting firm
do not include:
a. evaluating the public accounting firm's independence with regard to
the
audit engagement.
b. obtaining predecessor auditor’s audit documentation.
c. obtaining an engagement letter.
d. ensuring that there are sufficient firm resources to complete the
engagement on a timely basis.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
This year, Bethel Enterprises engaged a new auditor who must
a. attempt to communicate with the predecessor auditor before
accepting the
engagement.
b. review the predecessor auditor's audit documentation if the audit
is to
be in accordance with GAAS.
c. seek the SEC's permission to accept the engagement if Bethel is
publicly
owned.
d. reject the engagement if the change in auditors resulted from a
dispute
with the predecessor.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Prior to beginning the fieldwork on a new audit engagement in which the audit team does
not possess expertise in the industry in which the client operates, the audit team
should
a. reduce audit risk by lowering the preliminary levels of
materiality.
b. design special substantive tests to compensate for the lack of
industry
expertise
c. engage financial experts familiar with the nature of the industry.
d. obtain knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of the
entity's
business.
Which of the following is not a way in which auditors use the concept of overall
materiality?
a. As a guide to planning the audit
b. As a guide to the evaluation of evidence
c. As a guide for making decisions about the audit
report
d. As a guide for assessing control risk
This term refers to inherent risk factor which arises from inherent limitations in the
ability to prepare required information in an objective manner, due to limitations in
the availability of knowledge or information.
a. Change c. Subjectivity
b. Bias d. Constraint
Evaluate the following statements:
Statement 1: The objective of the auditor is to identify and assess the
risks of material misstatement, whether due to fraud or
error, at the financial statement and assertion levels
thereby providing a basis for designing and implementing
responses to the assessed
risks of material misstatement. (True)
Statement 2: When the auditor intends to use information obtained from
the auditor’s previous experience with the entity and from
audit procedures performed in previous audits, the auditor
shall evaluate whether such information remains relevant
and reliable as audit evidence for the current audit.
(True)
a. Only statement 1 is correct. c. Only statement 2 is correct.
b. Both statements are correct. d. Both statements are incorrect.
Which of the following statements is most correct concerning audit risk?
a. Audit risk can be eliminated by having the correct audit
procedures.
b. Audit risk cannot be quantified with certainty.
c. Audit risk is the same for all audit client in the same
industry.
d. Audit risk can be quantified with a reasonable degree of
certainty.
Which of the following is the best way to compensate for the lack of adequate
segregation of duties in a small organization?
a. Disclosing lack of segregation of duties to the external auditors
during
the annual review
b. Replacing personnel every three or four years
c. Requiring accountants to pass a yearly background check
d. Allowing for greater management involvement and oversight of
incompatible
activities
Which of the following is usually considered a monitoring activity?
a. segregating duties of employees
b. processing entity transactions
c. analyzing new information systems
d. using information from customer
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
complaints
Which of the following least likely identifies an inherent limitation to internal
control?
a. breakdowns in internal control because of employee
mistakes
b. collusion involving two or more employees
c. faulty decision making by employees
d. an override of internal controls by a low-level employee
Which of the following factors would an auditor most likely consider in evaluating the
control environment for an audit client?
a. Monthly bank reconciliations with supervisor sign-
offs.
b. The number of employees in each department.
c. The ethical values demonstrated by management.
d. Organizational structure used for tax purposes.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Of the following statements about internal controls, which one is least likely
to be correct?
a. Transactions must be properly authorized before such transactions
are
processed.
b. No one person should be responsible for the custodial
responsibility and
the recording responsibility for an asset.
c. Control procedures reasonably ensure that collusion among employees
cannot occur.
d. Because of the cost-benefit relationship, a client may apply
controls on
a test basis.
In response to an increased level of assessed risk of material misstatement, an auditor
would generally:
a. not make changes to the nature, timing, or extent of further audit
procedures.
b. increase the emphasis on professional skepticism when gathering and
evaluating audit evidence with the audit team.
c. perform more substantive audit procedures at an interim date
instead of
at period end.
d. perform additional tests of controls at an interim date to
eliminate the
need for substantive tests at period end.
Which of the following questions would be inappropriate for an auditor to ask a client
when exhibiting an appropriate level of professional skepticism while completing an
audit procedure related to the internal control system?
a. What can go wrong in this process?
b. Which of your employees is a fraudster?
c. What else is important to know about this
process?
d. What happens when a key employees goes on
vacation?
In relation to you audit of England Corp’s cash balances, you traced bank transfers for
the last part of the audit period and first part of the subsequent period. The audit
objective in rendering this procedure is to detect whether
. This is relevant to gather evidence regarding assertion over cash.
a. the cash receipts journal was held open for a few days after the
year
end; existence.
b. the last checks recorded before the year and were actually mailed
by the
year end; completeness.
c. cash balances were overstated because of kiting; existence.
d. any unusual payments to or receipts from related parties occurred;
completeness.
PROBLEM 1:
In relation to your audit of cash balances of your client, London Corp. for the period
ended December 31, 2020, the client’s accountant provided the following information
from its bank transfer schedule. Further investigation revealed that checks are dated
and issued on December 30, 2020.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
a. #101 and #303.
b. #202 and #404.
c. #101 and #404.
d. #202 and #303.
Which of the following checks overstates the overall cash balance per books at December
31, 2021?
a. #101 and #202.
b. #202 only
c. #202 and #303.
d. #303 only.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
W hich specific ounts
Bank acc are overstated as per your audit?
a. PCIB and MBTC
b. CBC and BPI
c. MBTC and BPI
d. CBC and MBTC
PROBLEM 2:
Your cash count of the petty cash fund having an imprest balance of P30,000, of Equinox
Corp. in line with your audit of its financial statements for the period ended December
31, 2021 resulted to the following information:
Cash count date: January 4, 2022
Currencies and coins P12,100
Petty cash expense vouchers: Date
Particulars
12/26 Transportation 1,200
12/27 Office repairs 900
12/29 Office supplies 1,300
1/2 Gasoline and oil 600
1/3 Representation expenses 1,300
Checks:
Date Maker
12/20 Ace Corp., customer 8,400
12/26 June Cook, officer 4,500
12/27 Charlie Inc., customer 12,000
12/28 Equinox Corp. payable to the custodian 9,000
12/30 Beta Corp., customer* 6,000
*Marked NSF by the bank
Audit note: The undeposited collection which included cash and check collections, was
also under the custody of the petty cash custodian. Investigation revealed that the
total undeposited collections as of the count date per records was at P22,500.
Required:
What is the petty cash shortage or overage as a result of your cash count?
a. 4,800
b. 2,100
c. 1,200
d. 800
What is the adjusted balance of the petty cash fund as of December 31, 2021?
a. 26,600
b. 24,400
c. 22,200
d. 25,400
PROBLEM 3:
Information regarding Shogun Corp. cash balance details about transactions for the
month of December revealed the following information:
Undeposited collections and outstanding checks by the end of November were at P216,500
and P129,800, respectively. These items cleared the bank in December.
The bank erroneously credited Shogun Corp.’s account in November for a check deposit of
Showgone Co. amounting to P89,000. This was corrected by the bank in December.
Proceeds of a bank loan in November amounting to P200,000 appeared as one of November
bank credits not yet recorded by the company by the end of November. Bank service
charges and customer NSF check amounting to P2,100 and P25,500 were among the November
bank debits. Book reconciling items were recorded in the books in December.
A November P125,000 disbursement was recorded in the books at P12,500. The correct
amount which cleared the bank in November was at P125,000. The error was discovered and
corrected in the books in December.
Depositor’s note receivable collected by the bank in December on the company’s behalf
amounted to P140,000. Bank loan and interest payments automatically charged against the
company’s account in December amounted to P21,000 (the amount includes P1,000
interest).
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
The bank erroneously charged the company P12,000 for a December disbursement check of
another company. This error was discovered and corrected by the bank in December.
A customer collection check amounting to P85,000 was recorded in the books in December
at P58,000. The error is yet to be corrected by the company as at month end.
A December customer NSF check amounting to P5,000 was returned and redeposited in
December. As this will have no effect on the cash balance, the company did not record
the return and redeposit anymore in its books.
The December unadjusted balance per bank statement was at P994,200 while the December
unadjusted balance per the general ledger was at P980,000.
Total Book debits and credits amounted to P8,956,000 and P8,735,000, respectively.
Total Bank debits and credits amounted to P8,658,000 and P8,831,000, respectively.
Required:
What is the correct undeposited collection as at the end of December?
a. 325,500
b. 320,500
c. 313,500
d. 298,500
What is the correct outstanding checks as at the end of December?
a. 188,700
b. 181,700
c. 193,700
d. 195,800
What is the correct cash balance as of November 30?
a. 821,200
b. 759,000
c. 907,900
d. 818,900
Lee, CPA is engaged in audit of Snort Internet Corp., an internet provider which
services a rural community. The receivable balances are relatively small, and customers
are billed monthly. As a result of his evaluation of internal control, he concluded
that the controls of interest are effective. To determine the validity of accounts
receivable balances at the balance sheet date, Lee, CPA would most likely , this is
relevant to his audit objective to gather evidence regarding assertion over
receivables.
Returns of positive confirmation requests for accounts receivable were very poor. As an
alternative procedure, the auditor decided to check subsequent collections. The auditor
had satisfied himself that the client satisfactorily listed the customer name next to
each check listed on the deposit slip; hence, he decided that for each customer for
which a confirmation was not received that he would add all amounts shown for that
customer on each validated deposit slip for the two months following the balance sheet
date. The major fault in the auditor’s procedure is that”:
a. Checking of subsequent collection is not an accepted alternative
auditing
procedure for confirmation of accounts receivable
b. By looking only at the deposit slip the auditor would not know if
the payments was for the receivable at the balance sheet date or a
subsequent
transaction
c. The deposit slip would not be received directly by the auditor as
a
confirmation would be
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
d. A customer may not have made a payment during the two-month
period.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
As a result of your understanding of the client internal control over its Order to Cash
Business Process (Formerly, Revenue and Receipt Cycle), you have noted that there might
be possible instances of unbilled deliveries to customers since the billing department
is not keen in monitoring the prenumbering of the delivery receipt in preparing sales
invoices to be sent to customers. An effective procedure to test for these suspected
unbilled shipments is to . This is to support the financial statement
assertion of over sales and receivables.
a. Vouch sales journal entries to shipping documents;
existence/occurrence.
b. Trace shipping documents to the sales journal; completeness.
c. Vouch sales journal entries to the accounts receivable subsidiary
ledg
existence/occurrence.
d. Trace sales journal to the general ledger sales account;
completeness.
PROBLEM 4:
The following receivable reconciliation was provided by Overlord Corp.’s accountant as
part of your examination of its receivable account balance as of December 31, 2021:
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
c. 2,813,225
d. 2,815,625
What is the correct bad debt expense for the year?
a. 54,775
b. 24,775
c. 30,775
d. 78,775
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
PROBLEM 5:
You were assigned to audit the accounts receivable balance of your audit client, Orochi
Corp., for the period ended December 31, 2021. The balance of the accounts receivable
per the general ledger and the corresponding year-end allowance for bad debts amounted
to P2,910,000 and P215,200, respectively. The accountant of the client furnished you
the following receivable aging schedule based on its subsidiary ledger:
Age Amount % uncollectible
Current (1-60 days) 1,178,400 -
1-60 days past due 736,500 5%
61-120 days past due 589,200 10%
More than 120 days 441,900 25%
past due
The following are the exceptions noted as a result of you’re the confirmation letters
sent to selected customers:
Customer Amount Customer’s Reply Remarks
Moderna Co. P125,000 Amount is ok. We will The amount is the selling
remit the amount due price 50 units of
(less 10% agreed products delivered on
commission) upon consignment. The company
selling the goods. As recorded the delivery in
of December 31, only 20 December as usual sales,
units had been sold. debiting receivables and
crediting sales at the
said sales
price.
Blazing 210,000 The amount is for an The amount was overlooked
Corp. invoice dated October when preparing the sales
11. The agreed purchase invoice. The approved
order price per unit is price should have been
at P2,500. The invoice P2,500.
price per unit was
P3,000.
Venom Inc. 120,000 The invoice dated Credit Memo number 211
August covering the said return
20 amounting to P40,000 was appropriately
should have been offset recorded in the general
by a return of books but were overlooked
merchandise in in posting the
September. transactions to the
subsidiary ledgers.
Saber Corp. 98,000 No reply for 2 sets of Management agreed to
confirmation letters write-off these
receivables as worthless.
The account is more than
120 days past due.
Required:
What is the unlocated difference between GL and SL as a result of your audit?
a. None
b. 4,000
c. 36,000
d. 44,000
What is the correct amortized cost of accounts receivable as of December 31?
a. 2,512,970
b. 2,573,030
c. 2,517,030
d. 2,547,970
What is the correct bad debt expense for the year?
a. 39,230
b. 97,970
c. 93.230
d. 58,770
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
When is the best timing to render observation of physical count of inventories in the
perspective of an external audit of financial statements audit?
a. Several times during the year under
audit.
b. 1 to 2 weeks before the balance sheet
date.
c. At the balance sheet date.
d. 1 to 2 weeks after the balance sheet
date.
Which of the following is the best audit procedure for the discovery of damaged
merchandise in a client’s ending inventory and which financial statements assertion
over inventories would be affected by such discovery?
a. Compare the physical quantities of slow-moving items with
corresponding quantities in the prior-year; Valuation
b. Observe merchandise and raw materials during the client’s
physical
inventory taking; Valuation
c. Review the management’s inventory representation letter for
accuracy;
completeness
d. Test overall fairness of inventory values by comparing the
company’s
turnover ratio with the industry average; existence
PROBLEM 6:
In line with your audit of Zodiac Distributions Inc.’s inventories as of the period
ended December 31, 2021, you decided to render cut-off procedures on its recorded sales
and purchases. The physical count of the goods which resulted to P312,000, was rendered
on December 29, 2021. As a result all goods delivered on or before December 29 were
excluded from the count and all goods received on or before December 29 were included
in the physical count.
PURCHASES CUT-OFF
Note that receiving report number 21294 were for goods costing P6,200 received on
December 29. The sales invoice of the suppliers is yet to be received by the client,
thus it yet to be recorded in the purchases journal.
SALES CUT-OFF
DECEMBER SALES JOURNAL ENTRIES
Sales Delivery Amount Remarks
Invoice # Date
Page 16 of 19 0915-2303213 resacpareview@[Link]
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
52284 Dec. 27 P18,000 FOB Shipping point
52285 Dec. 28 12,000 FOB Destination – Goods still in-transit as of
Dec. 31
52286 Dec. 29 15,000 Goods delivered on a “Sale with repurchase
agreement”
52287 Dec. 30 16,000 Free Alongside the Vessel – Goods still in-transit
as
of Dec. 31
52288 Dec. 30 20,000 FOB Destination
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
JANUARY SALES JOURNAL ENTRIES
Sales Delivery Amount Remarks
Invoice # Date
52289 Dec. 31 P10,000 FOB Buyer – Goods still in-transit as of Dec. 31
52290 Dec. 31 8,000 FOB Shipping Point – Goods still in-transit as
of
Dec. 31
52291 Dec. 31 14,000 FOB Seller – Goods still in transit as of Dec.
31
52292 Jan. 3 18,000 Sold under “Bill and Hold” Agreement executed in
December
Note that Sales Invoice number 52286 covering a sale with repurchase agreement requires
the company to repurchase the goods at the same selling price three months later, plus
10% interest on the amount. Gross profit based on all sales is at 40%.
Required:
What is the adjusted balance of the inventories as a result of your audit?
a. 302,300
b. 308,500
c. 296,800
d. 297,000
What is the net adjustment to accounts payable?
a. 20,400 credit
b. 25,000 credit
c. 14,200 credit
d. 4,600 debit
What is the net adjustment to accounts receivable?
a. 1,000 debit
b. 5,000 credit
c. 13,000 debit
d. 1,000 credit
PROBLEM 7:
Rockwell Co. maintains records under the periodic method and rendered physical count of
inventories on December 31, 2021. Only goods that are physically with the company on
the said count date were included in the physical count which amounted to P345,000.
This was then set-up by the client as part of its closing entries at year-end. As part
of your substantive analytical procedures however, you gathered the following
information:
Audit notes: Sales included the delivery to a customer in Baguio City on December 30,
2021. The goods which were invoiced at P180,000 were still in-transit as of the balance
sheet date. Freight term is FOB Baguio City.
What is the accrual basis gross purchases for the year?
Page 18 of 19 0915-2303213 resacpareview@[Link]
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
a. 3,980,000
b. 4,190,000
c. 4,365,000
d. 4,575,000
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Assuming Gross Profit is 30% based on sales, what is the estimated ending inventory as
a result of your audit?
a. 498,000
b. 232,000
c. 512,000
d. 358,000
Assuming Gross profit is 60% based on cost, what is the estimated inventory shortage as
a result of your audit?
a. 304,000
b. 113,000
c. 317,500
d. 457,500
You were assigned to audit the property, plant and equipment of Huskies Incorporated
for the year ended December 31, 2022. Which of the following is the least audit
objective when auditing manufacturing equipment and the related depreciation and
accumulated depreciation?
a. To determine whether costs and related depreciation for all
significant retirements, abandonments, and disposals of property
have been properly
recorded
b. To determine whether the balances in the property accounts,
including
the amounts carried forward from the preceding year, are properly
stated
c. To determine whether additions represent properties that are
installed,
constructed or rented
d. To determine whether the balances in accumulated depreciation
accounts are reasonable, considering expected useful lives of
property units and
possible net salvage values
The auditor’s procedure to search for unrecorded retirement of property, plant and
equipment is consistent with the auditor’s objective of auditing which financial
statement assertion over PPE?
a. Existence
b. Completeness
c. Valuation
d. Rights and Obligation
PROBLEM 8:
You were assigned to audit the Property, plant and equipment account of your continuing
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
audit client Chances Corp. for the period ended December 31, 2021. The following is a
PPE schedule lifted from the prior-year working paper:
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
All assets were acquired at the inception of operations at the beginning of 2017 and
are being depreciated through the following policies:
Office Building – Double-declining balance over 20 years (10% salvage value based on
cost)
Office Equipment – Straight-line method over 8 years (no salvage value) Automotive
Equipment – SYD over 10 years (10% salvage value based on cost)
On September 30, the company traded in a new automotive equipment with a cash price of
P1.5M for one of its old automotive equipment with an original cost of P800,000. The
trade-in value agreed upon on the old automotive equipment was at P320,000. The company
paid the difference in cash.
On November 1, a piece of office equipment was sold for P450,000. The office equipment
had an original cost of P1.2M. On December 1, a replacement office equipment was
acquired on installment basis. A P500,000 down-payment was made plus a P1.5M note
payable in three equal installments starting December 1, 2022. The interest rate
appropriate for this transaction was ascertained at 10%. Installation and commissioning
cost were incurred at P29,316. Estimated decommissioning cost upon retirement was also
estimated at P101,302.
(Note: Present Value Factor is rounded up to 6-decimal places.) Required:
What is the gain or loss on trade- in on September 30?
a. 20,000
b. 24,000
c. 34,909
d. 15,273
What is the gain or loss on the disposal of the office equipment on November 1?
a. 150,000
b. 125,000
c. 25,000
d. 75,000
PROBLEM 9:
Your investigation of Samsung Corp. intangibles transactions for 2021 revealed the
following information:
Samsung Corp.’s reported a Trademark at P520,000 at the end of 2021 after an
amortization for the year at P130,000. The company spent P120,000 legal fees in
successfully defending a trademark at the beginning of 2018. The legal fees was
capitalized in 2018 and was amortized over the remaining life of the trademark at the
beginning of 2018 which was 8 years. By the end of the year the company estimates that
the expected net cashflows from the Trademark’s continued use is at P151,426 The
prevailing market rate of interest at the end of the year is 10%.
A franchise agreement was entered with Sharp Corp. at the beginning of 2020. The
initial franchise fee was at P5M. The amount was paid P1M down-payment with a 4M note
payable in five equal installments starting December 31, 2020. The franchise agreement,
which was for an indefinite term, also calls for a continuing franchise fee set at 5%
of the company’s annual revenue in excess of P4M. The company’s actual revenue in 2020
and 2021 were at P4.5M and P5.2M, respectively. Net cash flows from the franchise
continued use has been estimated at P420,000 annually. The prevailing market rate of
interest at the end of 2019, 2020 and 2021 were at 12%, 11% and 10%, respectively.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Required:
What is the correct carrying value of the trademark as of December 31, 2021?
a. 520,000
b. 480,000
c. 460,000
d. 450,000
What is the correct carrying value of the franchise as of December 31, 2021?
a. 3,818,182
b. 4,200,000
c. 4,000,000
d. 3,883,821
- END of EXAMINATION -
1 C 26 C 51 B
2 A 27 B 52 C
3 D 28 B 53 D
4 A 29 D 54 C
5 B 30 D 55 B
6 C 31 D 56 A
7 C 32 C 57 A
8 C 33 C 58 C
9 C 34 B 59 D
10 C 35 B 60 D
11 B 36 C 61 C
12 A 37 B 62 D
13 D 38 B 63 C
14 C 39 A 64 A
15 A 40 C 65 B
16 C 41 D 66 C
17 D 42 A 67 A
18 D 43 C 68 C
19 C 44 D 69 C
20 C 45 B 70 D
21 A 46 B
22 B 47 B
23 A 48 C
24 D 49 D
25 D 50 A
36. Ans. C.
PROBLEM 1: LONDON CORP.
37. Ans. B.
38. Ans. B.
39. Ans. A.
PROBLEM 2: EQUINOX CORP.
40. Ans. C.
Accountability:
Page 23 of 19 0915-2303213 resacpareview@[Link]
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Petty Cash Fund, imprest balance 30,000
Undeposited collections, per records 22,500
Total 52,500
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Valid supports
Cash items:
Currencies and coins 12,100
Replenishment check 9,000
Accomodated check 4,500
Customer collection check (not 20,400
NSF only)
Non cash items (as of count
date):
Petty cash expense voucher 5,300 51,300
Petty cash shortage 1,200
41. Ans. D.
Adjusting entries as of
Decmeber 31:
Expenses (up to 12/31 only) 3,400
Petty cash shortage 1,200
Petty cash fund 4,600
Alternative Solution:
Cash items as of January 4 (count date)
Currencies and coins 12,100
Replenishment check 9,000
Accomodated check 4,500
Customer collection check (not NSF only) 20,400 46,000
Add: Petty cash vouchers paid after 12/31 1,900
Less: Undeposted collections (22,500)
Cash items as of December 31 from the Petty Cash 25,400
Fund
PROOF OF CASH
November Receipts Disbursemen December
ts
Unadjusted balances per bank 821,200 8,831,000 8,658,000 994,200
Undeposited collection - Nov. 216,500 (216,500)
Undeposited collection - Dec. 325,500 325,500
Outstanding check - Nov. (129,800) (129,800)
Outstanding check - Dec. 193,700 (193,700)
Error in Nov.; Corrected in Dec. (89,000) (89,000)
Error in Dec.; Corrected in Dec. (12,000) (12,000)
818,900 8,928,000 8,620,900 1,126,000
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Unrecorded bank credit - Dec. (Note 140,000 140,000
collection)
Unrecorded bank debit - Nov. (Bank (2,100) (2,100)
charges)
Unrecorded bank debit - Nov. (NSF (25,500) (25,500)
Check)
Unrecorded bank debit - Dec. (Loan and 21,000 (21,000)
interest payments)
Error in Nov., Corrected in Dec. (112,500) (112,500)
Error in Dec., Not yet corrected 27,000 27,000
NSF Check - Returned and Redeposited 5,000 5,000
in Dec.
818,900 8,928,000 8,620,900 1,126,000
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
45. Ans. B.
46. Ans. B.
47. Ans. B.
PROBLEM 4: OVERLORD CORP.
48. Ans. C.
49. Ans. D.
More
General Subsidiar 1-60 61-120 121-180 than 180
Ledger y Ledger days days days days
Unadjusted balances 2,940,000 3,055,000 916,500 1,222,00 611,000 305,500
0
SI dated Dec. 20 VALID SALE 29,000 29,000
SI dated Dec. 30 VALID SALE 52,000 52,000
SI dated Oct. 11 VALID (25,000) (25,000)
SALES RETURNS
OR dated Dec. 29 NOT 92,000
VALID COLLECTION
OR dated Dec. 30 VALID (85,000) (85,000)
COLLECTION
SI dated April 20 AR WRITE-OFF (24,000) (24,000)
SI dated Sept. 20 AR WRITE-OFF (30,000)
Adjusted balances 3,002,000 3,002,000 912,500 1,197,00 611,000 281,500
0
Required Allowance for Bad 1% 5% 10% 20%
Debt in %
Required Allowance for Bad 186,375 9,125 59,850 61,100 56,300
Debt in PhP
AR, Amortized Cost 2,815,625
50. Ans. A.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Adjusted balances 2,697,00 2,693,000 1,098,400 701,500 549,200 343,900
0
Unlocated difference (4,000)
Adjusted balance 2,693,00 1,098,400 701,500 549,200 343,900
0
Required Allowance for 0% 5% 10% 25%
Bad Debt in %
Required Allowance for (175,970) - 35,075 54,920 85,975
Bad Debt in PhP
AR, Amortized Cost 2,517,030
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
53. Ans. D.
54. Ans. C.
55. Ans. B.
Inventories AP AR
Unadjusted balance 312,000
December purchase journal entries
RR21292 Goods received on consignment (4,600) (4,600)
RR21296 Valid purchase, goods received 5,500
after Dec. 29
January purchase journal entries
RR21297 Valid purchase, goods received 5,300 5,300
after Dec. 29
RR21299 Valid purchase in transit (FOB- 8,000 8,000
Seller)
RR21300 Valid purchase (Bill and Hold 5,500 5,500
Agreement)
Audit note:
RR21294 Valid purchase 6,200
December sales journal entries
SI52285 Not valid sale in-transit (FOB 7,200 (12,000)
Dest)
SI52286 Not valid sale (Sale with 9,000 (15,000)
repurchase agreement)
SI52287 Valid sale in-transit (FAV) (9,600)
SI52288 Valid sale (but delivery was after (12,000)
count date)
January sales journal entries
SI52290 Valid sales in-transit (FOB (4,800) 8,000
Shipping Point)
SI52291 Valid sales in-transit (FOB Seller) (8,400) 14,000
SI52292 Valid sale (Bill and Hold (10,800) 18,000
Agreement)
Adjusted balance/Net adjustment 302,300 20,400 13,000
Ans. D.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Add: Net purchases
Gross purchases 4,575,000
Less: Purchase discount (210,000)
Purchase returns (385,000) 3,980,000
Less: Abnormal spoilage (120,000)
Cost of goods available for sale 4,250,000
Less: Estimated Cost of Sales** (3,892,000)
Estimated Inventory, end per audit 358,000
Inventory per count, unadjusted 345,000
Add: Sales in-transit FOB Baguio 471,000
(180,000*70%) 126,00
0
Estimated Inventory Overage (113,000)
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
**Gross sales 5,620,000
Sales in transit (FOB Baguio) - Not valid (180,000)
sale yet
Adjusted Gross sales 5,440,000
Less: Sales returns (300,000)
Add: Special discounts to employees and 220,000
officers
Add: Normal spoilage 200,000
Sales (for Inventory estimation purposes) 5,560,000
Multiply by: Cost ratio 70%
Estimated cost of sales 3,892,000
Ans. C.
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Carrying value
Cost 1,200,000
Accum. Depr. as of Sept. 1
(1.2M*4/8) (600,000)
(1.2M/8years)*10/12 (125,000) 475,000
Loss on sale of equipment (25,000)
Initial cost of replacement office
equipment
Cash price equivalent of the new office
equipment:
Downpayment 500,000
Bal: 500,000*2.486852
1,243,
426
Cash price equivalent of the new office 1,743,426
equipment:
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
DACs 29,316
PV of future retirement cost 47,258
(101,302*0.46651)
Initial cost of replacement office 1,820,000
equipment
Ans. A.
Depreciation expense - Building 375,562
Depreciation expense - Office Equipment 306,458
Depreciation expense - Automotive Equipment 238,091
Depreciation on office buildings (under double declining balance method over 20 years)
Total
Carrying Depreciation
Value, Jan. 1 Expense
(4.2M*90%*90%*90%*90%) 920,111
2,755,620
Multiply by: Double declining balance rate 10% 275,562
Depreciation on the building expansion (under double decling balalance method over 16
years) Cost 800,000
Multiply by: Double Decl. rate over remaining life (16 yrs) 12.50% 100,000
Total Depreciation Expense - Office Building 375,562
Depreciation on office equipment (under SL Method over 8 years with no salvage value)
AUDITING
ReSA Batch 44 – October 2022 CPALE Batch
30 July 2022 ⚫ 11:45 AM to 02:45 PM AUD First Pre-Board Exam
Ans D.
CV, 12/31/2020 3,818,182
Recoverable value, 12/31/2021 (420,000/10%) 4,200,000
Recovery gain (to the extent of the previous 65,639
loss)
Thus, CV of franchise will be brought back to the 3,883,821
original cost