Exam mcqs in pathophysiological basis of b) Heart rate <60 (59–40) per minute.

functional diagnostic methods.

c) "sawtooth" f-waves with a frequency of 250-
1. In what part of the myocardial conduction 400 per minute.
system does an excitation pulse normally occur?
d) Heart rate = 140-220 per minute.
a) Sinus node.
7. ECG sign of the nodal rhythm:
b) AB connections.
a) Keeping the rhythm right.
c) Left pedicle of the bundle of His.
b) Maintaining sinus rhythm.
d) Right pedicle of the bundle of His.
c) Absent regular connection of the P wave and
2. What ECG interval is used to determine the the QRS complex.
heart rate
d) Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome
activities?
8. ECG sign of paroxysmal tachycardia:
a) P – Q.
a) Disappearance of the P wave.
b) QRS.
b) Appearance of "sawtooth" f-waves with a
c) QRST. frequency of 250-400 per minute.
d) R – R. c) Maintaining the correct sinus rhythm.
3. What type of arrhythmia indicates a violation d) Sudden beginning and end.
of automatism?
9. The main ECG sign of allorhythmia:
a) Extrasystole.
a) Maintaining sinus rhythm.
b) Atrial fibrillation.
b) Absence of a natural connection between the P
c) Paroxysmal tachycardia. wave and the QRS complex.
d) Pacemaker migration. c) Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome.
4. ECG sign of sinus rhythm: d) The regularity of the appearance of
extrasystole.
a) Heart rate = 90-100 per minute.
10. The main ECG sign of ventricular
b) Heart rate = 60–80 per minute. extrasystole:
c) Heart rate = 80-100 per minute. a) Absence of a regular connection between the P
d) Heart rate = 60–90 per minute. wave and the QRS complex.

5. What ECG sign characterizes sinus b) Premature excitement (QRS complex).

arrhythmia?
c) Deformation and expansion of the QRS
a) Reduction of heart rate at rest. complex (> 0.12 s).

b) Dependence of heart rate on the state of the d) Shortening the interval P. – P '.
myocardium. 11. The main ECG sign of bigeminia:
c) Increase in heart rate during exhalation.
a) The appearance of every second extrasystole.
d) Change in heart rate depending on the phases
b) The appearance of two monotopic
of breathing. extrasystoles.
6. Name the ECG sign of sinus tachycardia:
c) The appearance of two paired extrasystoles.
a) Heart rate = 90-160 (180) per minute.
d) Alternation of different extrasystoles.
12. The main ECG sign of atrial fibrillation. b) Idioventricular rhythm.
(atrial fibrillation):
c) Atrial premature beats.
a) The disappearance of the P wave.
d) Upper nodal rhythm.
b) The appearance of "sawtooth" f-waves with a
frequency of 250-400 per minute. 18. In what case is there no differentiation of all
teeth on the ECG?
c) Maintaining the correct sinus rhythm.
a) Atrial fibrillation.
d) Sudden start and end.
b) Atrial flutter.
13. The main ECG sign of pacemaker migration:
c) Ventricular flutter.
a) Different amplitude of QRS complexes.
d) Ventricular fibrillation.
b) Alternation of different shapes, amplitudes
19. An IHD patient has an ECG in the form of a
and polarities of the P wave.
small- and large-wave
c) Absence of a natural connection between the P
lines. Name a possible rhythm disturbance.
wave and the QRS complex.
a) Atrial fibrillation.
d) Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome.
b) Flicker of the ventricles.
14. The main ECG sign of sick sinus syndrome:
a) Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome. c) Atrial flutter.
d) Ventricular flutter.
b) Alternation of different shapes, amplitudes and
polarities of the P wave. 20. In a six-axis system of leads (Bailey), the I-
c) Absence of a natural connection between the P axis is located:
wave and the QRS complex. a) Horizontal.
d) Disappearance of the P wave. b) Vertically.
15. The main ECG sign of ventricular flutter: c) At an angle of +30 degrees.
a) Alternation of different shapes, amplitudes and d) At an angle of -30 degrees.
polarities of the P wave.
21. In a six-axis system of leads (Bailey), the
b) Absence of a natural connection between the P axis of lead aVL is located:
wave and the QRS complex.
a) Horizontally.
c) Disappearance of the P wave.
b) Vertically.
d) The ECG looks like a sinusoid.
c) At an angle of +30 degrees.
16. On the ECG, a negative P wave is recorded.
What is your ECG conclusion? d) At an angle of -30 degrees.

a) Sinus rhythm. 22. In the six-axis system of leads (Bailey), the

axis of the II lead is located:
b) Atrial rhythm.
a) At an angle of -30 degrees.
c) Idioventricular rhythm.
b) At an angle of +30 degrees.
d) Nodal rhythm.
c) At an angle of +60 degrees.
17. At what rhythm is the isoelectric P wave
absent or recorded on the ECG? d) At an angle of -60 degrees.

a) Migration of the pacemaker. 23. 35 monopolar chest ECG leads should be

used:
 a) To clarify the nature of the violation of a) 20 mm.
intraventricular conduction.
b) 25 mm.
b) If you suspect a right ventricular infarction.
c) 30 mm.
c) To determine the extent of the lesion in
anterior myocardial infarction. d) 35 mm.
29. Discordant ST segment and T wave
d) To determine the extent of the lesion in
displacement in left ventricular hypertrophy is
inferior diaphragmatic myocardial infarction.
caused by:
24. Transition zone (amplitude R = S) usually
a) Heart failure due to hypertrophy.
corresponds to:
b) Focal changes in the myocardium.
a) Leads V1-V2.
c) Secondary changes in repolarization due to
b) Leads V3-V4.
hypertrophy.
c) Lead V5.
d) Disorders of contractile function.
d) Lead V6.
30. The variant of right ventricular hypertrophy of
25. Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White the RSR type is most typical for patients with:
syndrome most often have:
a) Mitral stenosis.
a) Atrial fibrillation.
b) Mitral insufficiency.
b) Paroxysmal atrioventricular tachycardia.
c) Atrial septal defect.
c) Ventricular tachycardia.
d) Defect of the interventricular septum.
d) Atrioventricular block.
[Link] main ECG sign of macrofocal
26. With atrioventricular block of the 3rd degree, myocardial infarction is the appearance of:
the escape rhythm with wide QRS complexes
a) T. wave inversion.
suggests the development of the blockade:
b) Elevation of the ST segment.
a) At the level of the AV node.
c) ST segment depression.
b) At the level of the bundle of His.
d) Pathological Q wave.
c) At the level of the branches of the bundle of
His. [Link] orthodromic paroxysmal tachycardia, the
ECG registers:
d) At any level.
27. ST segment depression in lead V5-6 is a) Wide QRS complexes, clear rhythm with a
frequency of 180-250 beats. in min.
characteristic of hypertrophy:
a) left atrium b) Narrow QRS complexes, clear rhythm with a
frequency of 180-250 beats. in min.
b) right atrium
c) Narrow QRS complexes, arrhythmia with a
c) left ventricle frequency of 100-120 beats. in min.
d) right ventricle d) all answers are correct.
28. Voltage criterion of left ventricular 33. For the acute stage of large-focal myocardial
hypertrophy (Sokolov-Lyon index) an increase in infarction, the most specific is ECG registration:
the total amplitude of the R waves (in lead V5 or
a) T wave inversion and ST segment elevation.
V6) and S (in lead V1 or V2) is considered more
than: b) Combinations of abnormal Q wave, ST
segment elevation and negative T wave.
 c) An increase in the amplitude of the T wave and 39. For the syndrome of early repolarization of
no changes in the QRS complex. the ventricles, registration on ECG:
d) all answers are correct. a) ST segment depression.
34. With myocardial infarction of lower b) Elevation of the ST segment.
localization, characteristic ECG changes are noted
in the leads: c) High-amplitude R waves.
d) Deep pointed S.
a) I and II.
40. For the ectopic rhythm from the left atrium,
b) II, III, aVF.
registration of negative teeth P:
c) V1-V2.
a) In lead II, III, aVF.
d) V5-V6.
b) In lead aVR.
35. In anterior-lateral myocardial infarction,
characteristic ECG changes are noted in the leads: c) In lead V1-3.
d) all answers are correct.
a) II, III, aVF.
b) V1-V4.
[Link] pointed ("spiky") T waves are
c) I, aVL, V5-6.
characteristic of:
d) V1-2.
a) Hyperkalemia.
36. The appearance of QS complexes is most
typical for myocardial infarction: b) Hypokalemia.

a) Anterior septal localization. c) Hypercalcemia.

d) Hypocalcemia.
b) Lower localization.
42. For an ECG with right atrial hypertrophy, it is
c) Lateral localization.
not typical:
d) Back wall.
a) Negative P wave in aVL.
37. In patients with blockade of the left leg of the
Hisa, the appearance of Q waves in leads V5-6 is b) Increase in the negative phase of the P wave in
lead V1.
a sign of myocardial infarction:
a) Anterior septal localization. c) Increase in the positive phase of the P wave in
lead V1.
b) Lower localization.
d) Increase in the amplitude of the P wave by
c) Lateral localization. more than 2.5 mm in leads II, III and aVF.
d) Back wall. 43. With sinus arrhythmia, the R-R ECG intervals
have a spread of at least:
38. In patients with blockade of the left leg of the
Hisa, the appearance of S waves in leads V5-6 is a a) 50ms
sign of myocardial infarction:
b) 100ms
a) Anterior septal localization.
c) 160 ms
b) Lower localization.
d) 200ms
c) Lateral localization.
[Link] most common sign of ectopic rhythm
d) Back wall. from the lower right atrium is:
a) The presence of an inverted P wave in front of d) all answers are correct.
the QRS complex in II, III, aVF leads.
[Link] sinoatrial blockade of the II degree
b) Widening of the R. according to the Mobitz I type, the most
characteristic is:
c) Increase in the amplitude of the P wave.
a) Extension of the PP interval before the loss of
d) Increase the PP interval. the PQRST complex.
45. For extrasystoles from the AV connection, it
b) Shortening of the PP interval before the loss of
is characteristic: the PQRST complex.
a) The presence of a full compensatory pause.
c) The PP interval does not change, the PQRST
b) Usually widened QRS complex. complex suddenly drops out.

c) Absence of the P wave in front of the QRS d) all answers are correct.
complex.
d) all answers are correct. 51. With sinoatrial blockade 3: 2:
a) 3 impulses arise in the sinus node, 2 of them
46. The hemodynamic significance of the are blocked in the sinoatrial zone.
extrasystole is determined using: b) 3 impulses occur in the sinus node, of which 2
a) electrocardiography. are conducted to the atrium.

b) echocardiography. c) 3 impulses arise in the sinus node, 3 are

conducted on the ventricle (conducted sinus and
c) Holter monitoring.
d) slip pulses).
d) all answers are correct.
52. Sinoatrial block 2: 1 on the ECG looks like:
[Link] flutter is most difficult to differentiate
from: a) Sinus bradycardia.

a) Ventricular flutter. b) Sinus arrhythmia.

b) Paroxysmal antidromic tachycardia in WPW c) Extrasystole from the upper part of the atrium
syndrome. by the type of bigeminy.

c) Nodular paroxysmal tachycardia. d) Each of the listed options is possible.

d) Atrial tachycardia with grade II AV block. 53. For AV block II of the Mobitz type II, it is
characteristic:
48. F-waves in atrial fibrillation are more
commonly seen in: a) The constancy of the PQ interval and the
presence of a pause in the excitation of the
a) II, III and aVF leads. ventricles, the duration of which is equal to 2
b) V1-2 leads. normal PP distances or a multiple of them.

c) V4-6 leads. b) Prolongation of the PQ interval with

subsequent prolapse of the ventricular complex
d) I, aVL leads. and the presence of a pause in the excitation of the
ventricles, the duration of which is equal to 2
49. Signs of the WPW phenomenon are:
normal PP distances
a) Shorter PQ interval and delta wave presence.
c) or a multiple of them.
b) Normal PQ interval and delta wave presence.
d) all answers are correct.
c) Long PQ interval and delta wave presence.
[Link] most characteristic sign of blockade of the 59. Ultrasound is a sound whose frequency is not
anterior branch of the left bundle branch is: lower:
a) Sharp deviation of the electric axis to the left. a) 15 kHz;
b) Deviation of the electrical axis to the right. b) 20,000 Hz;
c) Deformation of the QRS complex. c) 1 MHz;
d) Expansion of the QRS complex> 0.10 ". d) 30 Hz;
55. The most characteristic sign of blockade of [Link] acoustic variable is:
the posterior branch of the left bundle branch is:
a) Frequency;
a) Deviation of the electrical axis to the right.
b) Pressure;
b) Sharp deviation of the electric axis to the right.
c) Speed;
c) Expansion of the QRS complex> 0.10 ".
d) Period;
d) Deformation of the QRS complex.
61. The speed of propagation of ultrasound
[Link] for a positive bicycle ergometric test increases if:
in the diagnosis of coronary heart disease most
a) The density of the medium increases;
reliable is:
a) Occurrence of paroxysm of ventricular b) The density of the medium decreases;
tachycardia. c) The elasticity increases;
b) Horizontal depression of the ST segment in one d) Density decreases, elasticity increases.
or more leads of 1 mm or more.
62. The speed of propagation of ultrasound in
c) Development of syncope. solids is higher than in liquids, because they
d) The appearance of shortness of breath. have great:
57. A reliable sign of ischemic heart disease on a) Density;
resting ECG is:
b) Elasticity;
a) 1 mm ST depression in multiple leads.
c) Viscosity;
b) The presence of a negative T wave in several
leads. d) Acoustic resistance;

c) Frequent polytopic ventricular premature 63. The kidneys are located:

beats. a) in the upper floor of the abdominal cavity;
d) The presence of an abnormal Q wave. b) in the middle floor of the abdominal cavity;
58. The patient has pathological Q in II, III and c) retroperitoneally;
aVF leads, ST elevation by 3 mm, negative T.
One can assume the presence of myocardial d) in the lateral canals of the abdominal cavity;
infarction, which is most likely is old:
64. The shadow of the twelfth rib crosses the
a) Day. right kidney at the level:

b) 2 - 3 days. a) the gate of the kidney;

c) 2 weeks. b) the border of the upper and middle third of the

kidney;
d) More than 2 weeks.
c) the border of the middle and lower third of the
kidney;
d) at the upper pole; b) 50%
65. At the top of the scan during longitudinal c) 30%
transabdominal scanning, it is visualized:
d) Less than 50%
a) the upper pole of the kidney;
71. Wall thickness of the left ventricular
b) the lower pole of the kidney; myocardium in patients with dilated
cardiomyopathy:
c) the gate of the kidney;
a) increased
d) anterior lip of the kidney;
b) increased or normal
66. Echogenicity of the renal cortex is normal:
c) reduced
a) below the echogenicity of the medulla;
d) decreased or normal
b) comparable to the echogenicity of the medulla;
72. Echocardiographic signs of dilated
c) higher echogenicity of the medulla;
cardiomyopathy are:
d) comparable to the echogenicity of sinus tissue;
a) dilatation of all chambers of the heart.
67. With an increase in the echogenicity of the
b) diffuse violation of contractility.
renal sinus, talk about the compaction of the
calyceral structures: c) an increase in the distance from the peak of the
E-point of the maximum diastolic opening to
a) It is possible;
interventricular septum.
b) it is impossible; d) everything is true
c) it is possible if there is a history of chronic 73. Amplitude of the Q wave is normal:
pyelonephritis;
a) 1mm;
d) if there is a history of chronic
glomerulonephritis; b) 1/2 R;
68. In the parenchymal section of the kidney, one c) 5mm;
can visualize:
d) no more than 1/4 R.
a) cups of the first order;
74. Depression of the RS-T segment with
b) pyramids; tachycardia is considered a normal variant if it:
c) cups of the second order; a) horizontal;
d) segmental arteries; b) oblique ascending;
69. When transversely scanning the area of the c) oblique descending;
hilum of the kidney from the abdomen at the top
d) all answers are correct.
of the scan rendered:
75. Myocardial infarction without Q is
a) renal artery;
characterized by changes:
b) the ureter;
a) P wave;
c) renal vein;
b) T wave;
d) renal pelvis;
c) QRS complex;
70. The ejection fraction index in dilated
d) all answers are correct.
cardiomyopathy is:
76. Posterior diaphragmatic myocardial infarction
a) 70%
is recorded in the leads:
a) I, II, avL, avF, V1-V3; c) transmural;
b) II, III, avF; d) all answers are correct.
c) V1- V6; 83. QS complex is recorded in case of myocardial
infarction:
d) V5-V6.
a) intramural;
77. The T wave can normally be negative in the
leads: b) subendocardial;
a) I, II, avF; c) subepicardial;
b) I, III; d) transmural.
c) III, avL, V1; 84. Criteria for myocardial infarction:
d) V3-V6. a) diffuse T wave inversion;
78. The T wave is always negative in the lead: b) T waves are wide, asymmetrical and deep;
a) III; c) pathological Q wave and ST segment elevation;
b) V1; d) all answers are correct.
c) aVL; 85. Any Q wave is considered abnormal in lead:
d) aVF. a) III;
79. The T wave is always positive in the leads: b) V2;
a) I, II, avF, V2-V6; c) aVL;
b) II, avL; d) aVR;
c) avR; 86. On the ECG, ST is recorded on the isoline, T
(+), Q pathological during the period:
d) in all.
a) the most acute stage;
80. Ischemic damage on the ECG is characterized
by changes: b) acute stage;
a) T wave; c) subacute stage;
b) PQ interval; d) cicatricial stage.
c) the QRS complex; 87. The ECG shows a high coronary T wave, ST
elevation during:
d) P wave.
a) sharpest;
81. Myocardial ischemia on the ECG is
characterized by changes: b) acute;
a) T wave; c) subacute;
b) PQ interval; d) cicatricial.
c) the QRS complex; 88. On the ECG, the QS complex, ST segment
elevation, negative T wave during the period:
d) ST segment.
a) the sharpest;
82. Myocardial infarction without Q includes:
b) acute;
a) intramural;
c) subacute;
b) subepicardial;
d) cicatricial. 95. With subepicardial myocardial infarction, the
necrosis zone is localized in:
89. On the ECG, pathological Q, ST on the
isoline, coronary deep T wave during the period: a) in the endocardium;
a) the sharpest; b) in the epicardium;
b) acute; c) inside the myocardium;
c) subacute; d) in all three layers.
d) cicatricial. 96. In transmural myocardial infarction, the
necrosis zone is localized:
90. Anterolateral myocardial infarction is
recorded in the leads: a) in the endocardium;
a) I, avL, V5, V6; b) in the epicardium;
b) III, avR; c) inside the myocardium;
c) V3, V4; d) in all three layers.
d) V7, V8; 97. Widespread posterior myocardial infarction is
recorded in leads:
91. Anterior septal myocardial infarction is
recorded in the leads: a) I, II, avL, avF, V1-V3;
a) III, avF; b) I, avL;
b) V1-V3; c) I, avL, V1-V6;
c)V5-V6; d) II, III, avF, V5, V6, V7-V9.
d) V7-V8. 98. Reciprocal horizontal depression of the RS-T
segment in leads V1- V3 is characteristic of the
92. With intramural myocardial infarction, the
heart attack:
necrosis zone is localized in:
a) lateral;
a) in the endocardium;
b) high lateral;
b) in the epicardium;
c) posterior;
c) inside the myocardium;
d) anterior septal.
d) in all three layers.
99. Reciprocal depression of the RS-T segment in
93. With subendocardial ischemia, the T wave:
leads II, III, aVF is characteristic of heart attack:
a) high;
a) side wall;
b) deep;
b) high lateral;
c) isoelectric; c) back;
d) low-amplitude.
d) anterior septal.
94. With subepicardial ischemia, the T wave:
100. Segment RS-T is normal in leads V1-V3:
a) high;
a) can be displaced upward no more than 2 mm;
b) deep; b) can be displaced downward no more then 2mm;
c) isoelectric; c) is located on the isoline;
d) corresponds to the norm.
d) is displaced relative to the isoline (+-) 0.5mm.
101. Segment RS-T is normal in leads V5-V6: 107. The thickness of the walls of the left
ventricle in small hypertrophy is:
a) can be displaced upward no more than 2 mm;
a) 10-12 mm
b) can be shifted down no more than 2mm;
b) 12-14 mm
c) is located on the isoline;
c) 14-16 mm
d) is shifted relative to the isoline (+-) 0.5 mm.
d) 16-20 mm
102. Segment RS-T is normal in limb leads:
108. The wall thickness of the left ventricle with
a) can be displaced upward no more than 2 mm;
moderate hypertrophy is:
b) can be shifted down no more than 2mm; a) 10-12 mm
c) is located on the isoline; b) 12-14 mm
d) is shifted relative to the isoline (+-) 0.5 mm.
c) 14-16 mm
103. ECG sign of acute intramural myocardial
d) 16-20 mm
infarction:
109. The thickness of the walls of the left
a) Q is not present, ST is above the isoline, T (-);
ventricle in severe hypertrophy is:
b) Q pathological, ST above the isoline, (-)T;
a) 10-12 mm
c) T deep coronary; b) 12-14 mm
d) horizontal displacement of the ST segment
c) 14-16 mm
downward.
d) 16-20 mm
104. ECG sign of acute subepicardial myocardial
infarction: 110. The thickness of the walls of the left
ventricle with a high degree of hypertrophy is:
a) Q is not present, ST is above the isoline, T (-);
a) 10-12 mm
b) Q pathological, R of small amplitude, ST above
the isoline; b) 12-14 mm
c) T coronary; c) 14-16 mm
d) displacement of the ST segment. d) more than 20 mm
105. ECG sign of transmural myocardial 111. Turbulent flow develops in vessels with:
infarction:
a) normal lumen
a) Q is not present, ST is above the isoline, T (-);
b) narrowing less than 60% of the lumen.
b) Q pathological, ST above the isoline, (-) T;
c) narrowing of more than 60% of the lumen.
c) T high coronary;
d) all answers are correct.
d) pathological complex QS.
112. According to ultrasound criteria, a
106. Elevation of the RS-T segment up to 2 mm is homogeneous plaque is:
possible normally in the leads:
a) the plaque is homogeneous in structure;
a) I-III;
b) a plaque with hemorrhage;
b) V1-V3;
c) a plaque with ulceration.
c) V4-V6;
d) all answers are correct.
d) aVR, aVL, aVF.
113. The amplitude of the Q wave is normal: 119. The range of normal values of spirometry
indicators is determined:
a) 1mm;
a) 75% confidence interval.
b) 1/2 R;
b) 80% confidence interval
c) 5mm;
c) 85% confidence interval
d) no more than 1/4 R
d) 90% confidence interval.
114. Depression of the RS segment in tachycardia
is considered a normal variant if it: 120. For a technically acceptable FVC maneuver
in adult patients, the back-extrapolation volume
a) horizontal;
should be less than:
b) oblique ascending;
a) 10%;
c) oblique;
b) 12%;
d) all answers are correct;
c) 15%;
115. Myocardial infarction without Q is
d) 5%;
characterized by changes:
[Link] conclusion about restrictive disorders
a) P wave;
according to spirometry data is made on the basis
b) T wave; of changes in the following indicators:

c) the QRS complex; a) a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs and
the Tiffno index (FEV/VC*100%);
d) S-T segment;
b) a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs
116. Posterior diaphragmatic myocardial with a normal value of the Tiffeneau index;
infarction is recorded in leads:
c) a decrease in the Tiffeneau index with a
a) I, II, avL, V1-V3; normal value of the vital capacity of the lungs;
b) II, III, avF; d) a decrease in the volume of forced expiration in
c) V1-V6; 1 second at a normal value of the vital capacity of
the lungs.
d) V5, V6;
122. The conclusion about obstructive disorders
117. The T wave can normally be negative in the according to spirometry data is made on the basis
leads: of changes in the following indicators:
a) I, II, avF; a) a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs and
the volume of forced expiration in 1 sec;
b) I-III;
b) a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs and
c) III, avL, V1;
the rate of forced expiration;
d) V3-V4.
c) a decrease in the Tiffno index with a normal
118. Much of the variability in spirometry results value of the vital capacity of the lungs;
is related to:
d) a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs
a) with a young age of the patient; with a normal value of the Tiffno index;

b) putting the clip on the nose; 123. Relative contraindications associated with
cardiovascular diseases include the following
c) with a sharp exhalation; reasons for spirometry:
d) with premature cessation of exhalation. a) cerebral aneurysm;
b) decompensated heart failure; a) 15-19 years old;
c) brain surgery within the previous 4 weeks; b) 20-25 years old;
d) complicated pregnancy or late pregnancy. c) 26-35 years old;
124. The key point in the conclusion about the d) 36-40 years old.
presence of obstructive pulmonary ventilation
130. One of the quality criteria for spirometry
disorders is to reduce:
measurements is forced expiratory time:
a) VC.
a) 10 seconds or more;
b) FEV1.
b) 12 seconds or more;
c) FEV1/FVC.
c) more than 15 seconds;
d) FVC.
d) less than 10 seconds.
125. A maneuver is considered reproducible if the
131. One of the main parameters in the
difference between FVC or FEV1 in the 2 best
interpretation of spirometry is:
maneuvers does not exceed:
a) the diffusion capacity of the lungs;
a) 120ml;
b) tidal volume;
b) 150ml;
c) 200ml; c) forced expiratory volume in the first second;
d) inspiratory reserve volume;
d)70ml;
132. The parameters of the respiratory system
126. The most reproducible indicator of
spirometry is: function depend on:
a) by weight;
a) tidal volume;
b) from age;
b) vital capacity of the lungs;
c) from waist size;
c) forced expiratory volume in the first second;
d) forced vital capacity of the lungs. d) all answers are correct.

127. It is most preferable to present the results of 133. Indications for spirometry:
spirometry in the form: a) a history of syncope, sudden seizures associated
a) time-expiratory flow loops; with coughing or forced breathing;
b) the presence of pneumothorax at the time of
b) volume- time loops;
planning the study;
c) flow-volume loops;
c) assessment of the effect of the disease on lung
d) expiratory and inspiratory velocity loops. function;
128. Obstructive ventilation disorders according d) all answers are correct.
to spirometry date are typical for:
134. Indicators of spirometry may be less than the
a) bronchial asthma; lower limit of the norm in the general population
in:
b) laryngospasm;
a) 1.5% of healthy people;
c) pneumonia;
b) 10% of healthy people;
d) tracheitis.
c) 2.5% of healthy people;
129. Human lung capacity reaches its maximum
values at age: d) 5% of healthy people.
135. In extremely severe obstructive ventilation d) less than 35%.
disorders, FEV1 is:
[Link] a moderate severity of obstructive
a) 35-49%; pulmonary ventilation, FEV1 is:
b) 50-59%; a) 35-49%;
c) more than 70%; b) 50-59%;
d) less than 35%. c) 60-69%;
136. With a mild severity of obstructive d) less than 35%.
pulmonary ventilation disorders, FEV1 is:
142. Contraindication for spirometry:
a) 35-49%;
a) a history of pneumothorax;
b) 50-59%;
b) acute myocardial infarction during the last 1
c) more than 70%; week;
d) less than 35%. c) pneumonia;
137. When preparing for spirometry, one should d) tracheostomy.
refrain from smoking and/or vaping and/ or using
143. Inspiratory reserve volume is:
a hookah:
a) within 1 hour before testing; a) the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled
after a deep exhalation;
b) within 1.5 hours before testing;
b) the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled
c) within 12 hours before testing; after a normal calm breath;
d) within 2 hours before testing; c) the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled
after a normal calm exhalation;
138. When preparing a patient for spirometry, it is
recommended to refrain from performing d) the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled
vigorous physical exercises before testing: after a normal calm inhalation;
a) within 1 hour;
144. The reserve expiratory volume is:
b) within 2 hours;
a) the maximum volume that can be exhaled after
c) within 30 minutes; the usual calm inhalation;
d) within 3 hours. b) the maximum volume that can be exhaled after
a normal calm exhalation;
139. In case of moderate severity of obstructive
ventilation disorders, FEV1 is: c) the maximum volume that can be exhaled after
a full inhalation;
a) 35-49%;
d) the volume of inhaled and exhaled air with
b) 50-59%; calm breathing;
c) more than 70%; 145. Spirometry is recommended:
d) less than 35%.
a) at any time of the day;
140. In severe obstructive ventilation disorders,
b) in the morning;
FEV1 is:
c) in the afternoon;
a) 35-49%;
d) exclusively during the period of remission of
b) 50-59%; the disease;
c) more than 70%;
146. Spirometry allows you to measure:
a) the diffusion capacity of the lungs; a) horizontal axis
b) vital capacity of the lungs; b) normal axis;

c) total lung capacity; c) left axis deviation;

d) residual lung volume; d) right axis deviation

147. A functional method for studying the 153. The rate of propagation of the excitation
respiratory system, which includes measuring wave through the ventricular myocardium is:
volumetric and speed indicators of respiration, is: a) 0.2 m/sec;
a) spirometry; b) 0.5 m/sec;
b) veloergometry; c) 1 m/sec;
c) a study of the diffusion capacity of the lungs; d) 4 m/sec.

d) pulse oximetry; 154. The ability of the heart to be excited under

the effect of impulses is called:
148. A functional sign of restrictive disorders is a
decrease in: a) automaticity;

a) VC; b) excitability;
c) conductivity;
b) FEV1;
d) contractility.
c) FEV1/VC;
155. The center of third-order automaticity
d) FEV1/FVC. produces electrical impulses with a frequency
149. The goals of pulse oximetry are: a) 15 – 24 per minute;
a) assessment of the severity of hypoxemia; b) 25 – 39 per minute;
b) detection of pneumonia; c) 40–59 per minute;
c) identification of acute heart failure. d) 60 – 90 per minute.
d) all answers are correct. 156. Which of the following are ECG signs of
SA block II degree, type I?
150. The most accessible measurement of blood
oxygen saturation in patients is: a) gradual prolongation of the P-P interval without
loss of the PQRST complex;
a) carrying out pulse oximetry;
b) gradual shortening of the P–P interval without
b) fluorography of the chest organs; loss of the PQRST complex;
c) blood sampling from the central vein for blood c) gradual shortening of the PP interval with loss
gases; of the atrioventricular complex. The pause
includes a distance less than 2 R–R;
d) chest x-ray.
d) gradual lengthening of the PP interval with loss
151. Normal duration of the P-Q(R) interval is of the atrioventricular complex;
a) 0.08 – 0.12 sec; e) equal P-P intervals with sudden loss of the
atrioventricular complex.
b) 0.1 – 0.2 sec;
157. What shape of the P wave is characteristic
c) 0.12 – 0.18 sec;
of atrial paroxysmal tachycardia?
d) 0.15 – 0.22 sec. a) the P wave is positive;
152. The highest QRS in standard lead III b) the P wave is negative;
(RIII>RII>RI) corresponds to:
c) biphasic P wave; 162. An episode of ventricular tachycardia on
an ECG is characterized by:
d) answers a, b, c;
a) 3 or more ventricular ectopic complexes with a
e) the P wave is absent. heart rate of 100 or more beats per minute are
158. For what purpose the transesophageal recorded consecutively;
electrocardiostimulator is not used? b) 2 or more ventricular extrasystoles are
a) to assess the function of automatism of the registered consecutively
sinus node; c) 6 or more ventricular ectopic complexes are
b) to find the genesis of paroxysmal recorded consecutively.
atrioventricular d) 10 or more ventricular ectopic complexes are
tachycardia; registered consecutively

c) for therapeutic purposes; e) there is no correct answer

d) for the purpose of diagnosing coronary heart 163. What are the typical ECG signs of left
disease; atrial hypertrophy:

e) for the purpose of preventing rhythm a) the duration of the p-wave is not more than 0.1
disturbances. s;

159. What is the width of the QRS complex on b) the duration of the P wave is more than 0.1 s;
the ECG in atrial paroxysmal tachycardia? c) high-amplitude P wave in III lead ;
a) 0.12 s or more; d) the P wave in leads I, aVL, V5 is "double-
b) 0.18-0.2 s; humped", in V1 there is a deep negative phase;

c) equal to or less than 0.1 s; e) correctly B, D.

d) 0.12-0.14 s; 164. What is the width of the QRS complex on

the ECG in ventricular Paroxysmal
e) 0.14-0.16 s. tachycardia?
160. Which of the listed ECG signs are a) less than 0.12 s;
characteristic of pacemaker lead migration:
b) 0.12-0.16 s;
a) stable interval P-Q(R);
c) 0.08 s;
b) gradual, from cycle to cycle, change in the
shape and polarity of the P wave; d) 0.09-0.10 s;

c) pronounced fluctuations in the duration of the e) up to 0.10 s.

R-R(P-P) intervals; 165. Sinus node arrest should be differentiated
d) all answers are correct; from:

d) all answers are false. a) blocked atrial extrasystole;

161. The duration of the Q-T interval depends b) atrioventricular block;

on: c) sinus arrhythmia;
a) age; d) Frederick's syndrome;
b) heart rate; e) sinoauricular blockade.
c) gender; 166. Which of the following are signs of distal
d) growth; complete AV blocks?

e) correct A, B, C. a) independent rhythm of the atria and ventricles,

heart rate of more than 40 beats / min. Ventricular
complexes of the usual form;
b) independent rhythm of the atria and ventricles, c) decreased atrial activity;
heart rate less than 40 beats / min. Ventricular
complexes are enlarged, deformed; d) high pointed T;

c) an independent rhythm of the atria and e) all answers are correct.

ventricles, the frequency of atrial contraction is 171 Normally, the duration of the P wave is:
less than the frequency of ventricular contraction.
Usual form QRS complexes; 1) 0.1 – 0.2 sec;

d) the rhythm of the atria is associated with the 2) 0.2 – 0.25 sec;
rhythm of the ventricles, the heart rate is less than
3) more than 0.25 sec;
30 beats / min. Usual form QRS complexes ;
4) up to 0.1 sec.
e) the rhythm of the atria is associated with the
rhythm of the ventricles, the heart rate is less than 172. The anterior facicular of left bundle
40 beats / min. QRS complexes are broadened and branch supplies its fibers to the left ventricle:
deformed.
a) posterior wall
167. The duration of QT segment is normal:
b)lower parts of the lateral wall;
a) 0.54-0.64 s;
c) anterior and lateral walls;
b) 0.62-0.74 s;
d) only lateral wall.
c) 0.36-0.45 s for men and 0.37-0.46 s for women;
173. The rate of propagation of the excitation
d) 0.24-0.29 s; wave through the atrial myocardium is:
e) 0.5-0.55 s. a) 0.2 m/sec;
168. The greatest importance for the diagnosis b) 0.5 m/sec;
of combined hypertrophy
c) 1 m/sec;
of both atria is:
d) 4 m/sec.
a) ECG in lead V1: (P ±), an increase in the
excitation vectors of the right and left atria at the 174. The ability of the heart to produce
same time; electrical impulses in the absence of external
stimuls is called:
b) the Macruz index is greater than 1.6;
a) automatism;
c) the Macruz index is less than 1.1;
b) excitability;
d) an increase in the duration of the P wave in all
leads; c) contractility;

e) high, Gothic P wave in all leads. d) Conductivity.

169. ECG signs of AV dissociation are: 175. The ability of heart cells to transmit
excitation to neighboring cells is called:
a) PP interval > RR interval;
2) batmotropy;
b) the ventricular rhythm does not depend on the
atrial; 4) dromotropy;

c) P wave of various shapes; 5) inotropy;

d) QRS complexes are sharply deformed; 8) chronotropy.

e) correct answers A, B. 176. Frederick's syndrome is a combination

of...
170. ECG signs of hyperkalemia are usually:
a) WPW syndrome and complete atrioventricular
a) prolongation of the P-Q interval; block;
b) broadening of the QRS complex;
b) atrial fibrillation or flutter and III degree AV d) 0.08-0.12 s;
block;
e) 0.12-0.14 s.
c) AV blockage and blockage of the left bundle
branch; 181. The V class of prognostic gradation of
ventricular extrasystole according to B. Lown
d) atrial fibrillation and intraventricular block; includes:
e) CLC syndrome and atrial flutter. a) single monomorphic ventricular extrasystoles
(less than 30 per hour);
177. What are the signs of an ECG in case of
pacemaker malfunction? b) frequent monomorphic ventricular extrasystoles
(more than 30 per hour);
a) no discharges of the pacemaker;
c) paroxysm of unstable ventricular tachycardia (3
b) absence of ventricular complexes after the or more consecutive ventricular ectopic
artifact - "exitblock"; complexes);
c) frequent drainage and pseudo-drainage d) early ventricular extrasystoles type of R on T;
ventricular complexes;
e) paired and polymorphic ventricular
d) the appearance of pacemaker tachycardia extrasystoles.
e) all of the above is true
178. The most common ratio of P wave in 182. The magnitude and speed of the morning
standard leads is as follows: rise in blood pressure during daily monitoring
a) PI > PIII > PIII; is measured over the period:

b) PII>PI>PIII; a) from the moment of waking up to 10 a.m.;

c) PIII>PII>RI; b) from 6 o'clock to 10 o'clock in the morning;

d) PI>PII> RIII; c) from 4 o'clock to 10 o'clock in the morning;

e) PI = PII = PIII d) from 4 o'clock until the moment of awakening;

179. ECG - signs of blockade of the posterior e) from 6 o'clock to 8 o'clock in the morning.
facicular of left bundle branch: 183. In case of right bundle branch block, the
a) left axis deviation (more than -30 degrees), the QRS complex in the leads V1 and V2 have the
usual shape and duration of ventricular form:
complexes; a) rS or rs;
b) left axis deviation, widened and deformed QRS b) rsR' or rSR';
complexes;
c) rR';
c) right axis deviation ( more than +120 degrees),
normal ventricular complexes; d) qRs;
d) right axis deviation. M-shaped widened e) correct B, C.
ventricular complexes in leads VI,2;
184. A sign of WPW syndrome is:
e) widened deformed ventricular complexes: in
lead V1.2, QS type of complex in V5.6, a) the presence of a delta wave of a permanent or
transient nature as part of the QRS complex;
b) a history of recurrent paroxysmal tachycardia;
180. The normal width of the QRS complex is:
c) a history of atrioventricular blockages;
a) 0.06-0.08 s;
d) electric axis of type SI-SII-SIII;
c) 0.04-0.06 s;
e) correct A, B.
c) 0.06-0.10 s;
185. An additional (abnormal) AV conduction c. P waves preceding each QRS
pathway connecting the right atrium with the complex with a variable PR
common trunk of bundle of His is due to the interval
presence of: d. QRS duration greater than 0.12
a) the Kent bundle; seconds
191. A characteristic ECG finding in
b) the Maheim bundle; second-degree AV block, Mobitz Type I,
c) the James bundle; is:
a. Constant PR intervals before a
d) the bundle of Breshenmache; dropped QRS complex
b. Gradually lengthening PR
e) the bundle Bachmann.
intervals before a dropped QRS
complex
c. Absence of P waves
d. Premature QRS complexes
186. When recording an ECG, the 192. On an ECG, evidence of right
correct position for the chest lead V1 is: ventricular hypertrophy includes:
a. At the fourth intercostal space, a. Deep Q waves in leads I and aVL
right sternal border b. Tall R waves in V1 or V2 and
b. At the second intercostal space, deep S waves in V5 or V6
right sternal border c. P wave inversion in lead II
c. At the fourth intercostal space, d. PR interval prolongation
left sternal border 193. Ventricular tachycardia on an
d. At the second intercostal space, ECG is characterized by:
left sternal border a. A heart rate of 100-120 bpm
187. The normal range for heart rate as b. Wide QRS complexes at a rate of
seen on an ECG is: >100 bpm
a. 50-70 bpm c. Regular rhythm with narrow QRS
b. 60-80/100 bpm complexes
c. 70-110 bpm d. P waves that occur more
d. 80-120 bpm frequently than QRS complexes
188. In ECG, what does a narrow QRS 194. The ground (neutral) electrode in
complex indicate? ECG placement is typically attached to:
a. Ventricular rhythm a. The right arm
b. Supraventricular rhythm b. The left arm
c. Ventricular hypertrophy c. The right leg
d. Bundle branch block d. Any of the above, as it does not
189. For determining the heart's record electrical activity
electrical axis, which of the following is 195. Which wave in a normal ECG
not true? represents ventricular repolarization?
a. Normal axis is between -30° and a. P wave
+90° b. T wave
b. Left axis deviation is less than - c. Q wave
30° d. S wave
c. Right axis deviation is more than
+90°
d. Extreme axis deviation is between 196. The R-R interval on an ECG is
0° and -90° used to determine the:
190. ECG signs of a sinus tachycardia a. Heart rate
include: b. Strength of the heart's electrical
a. Heart rate greater than 100 bpm signal
with regular rhythm c. Duration of ventricular
b. Heart rate less than 60 bpm with depolarization
irregular rhythm d. Presence of atrial fibrillation
197. An electrical axis lying between a. Echocardiogram
+90° and +180° indicates: b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
a. Normal axis c. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. Left axis deviation (MRI) of the heart
c. Right axis deviation d. Holter monitor
d. Extreme right axis deviation 204. A prolonged PR interval (more
198. A "delta wave" on an ECG is than 0.2sec) on an ECG indicates:
indicative of: a. A faster than normal heart rate
a. Atrial flutter b. Premature atrial contractions
b. Wolff-Parkinson-White c. First-degree atrioventricular block
Syndrome d. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Ventricular tachycardia 205. When assessing for left axis
d. First-degree AV block deviation, which lead combination is most
199. Which of the following is a sign indicative?
of complete heart block on an ECG? a. Positive QRS in lead I and
a. Regularly spaced P waves negative in II
without corresponding QRS b. Negative QRS in lead I and
complexes positive in aVF
b. Prolonged PR interval for all c. Positive QRS in both leads I and
beats aVF
c. Alternating short and long PR d. Negative QRS in both leads I and
intervals aVF
d. QRS complexes with a consistent
morphology
200. Which ECG feature indicates left 206. Sinus bradycardia on an ECG is
ventricular hypertrophy? characterized by:
a. S wave depth in V1 plus R wave a. A heart rate less than 60 bpm
height in V5 or V6 exceeding 35 b. A heart rate more than 100 bpm
mm c. Regular P-P intervals
b. P wave amplitude in lead II d. A and C
exceeding 2.5 mm 207. Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach)
c. QRS duration less than 0.12 block is identified by:
seconds a. A progressive shortening of the
d. PR interval more than 200 ms PR interval until a beat is dropped
201. The ECG characteristic of b. A constant PR interval with
premature ventricular contractions occasional dropped beats
(PVCs) is: c. Progressive lengthening of the PR
a. A compensatory pause following interval until a beat is dropped
the PVC d. Prolonged PR intervals without
b. Premature, wide, and bizarre QRS dropped beats
complexes 208. Signs of left atrial enlargement on
c. A prolonged PR interval before an ECG include:
the PVC a. P wave duration longer than 0.12
seconds in lead II
d. A and B
202. Which of the following conditions b. Peaked P waves in leads II, III,
can affect the accuracy of an ECG and aVF
recording? c. An inverted P wave in lead V1
a. Movement of the volunteer d. A and C
209. Tachycardia is defined on an ECG
b. Incorrect lead placement
c. Electrical interference as a heart rate:
d. All of the above a. Less than 60 bpm
203. The definitive diagnostic tool for b. Between 60 and 100 bpm
identifying Paroxysmal Supraventricular c. More than 100 bpm
Tachycardia (PSVT) is: d. Exactly 100 bpm
210. The calibration mark on an ECG a. A compensatory pause
represents a voltage of: b. An accelerated heart rate
a. 0.5 mV c. A decreased heart rate
b. 1 mV d. Constant heart rate
c. 1.5 mV 218. Which lead on an ECG is
d. 2 mV considered the "heart's view from the left
211. A normal QT interval should be shoulder"?
less than: a. Lead I
a. 1/3 of the RR interval b. Lead II
b. 1/2 of the RR interval c. Lead III
c. 2/3 of the RR interval d. aVL
d. Equal to the RR interval 219. The interval between two
212. How much time does one small successive P waves is referred to as:
square on an ECG paper represent at the a. PP interval
standard speed of 25 mm/s? b. QQ interval
a. 0.02 seconds c. RR interval
b. 0.04 seconds d. TT interval
b. 0.1 seconds 220. In ECG, what does a narrow QRS
c. 0.2 seconds complex indicate?
213. Lead aVR looks at the heart from a. Ventricular rhythm
which perspective?: b. Supraventricular rhythm
a. Rightward and upward c. Ventricular hypertrophy
b. Leftward and downward d. Bundle branch block
c. Posterior and inferior
d. Anterior and superior
214. Proper lead placement for a 12-
lead ECG requires the V1 electrode to be
positioned at the:
a. Fourth intercostal space, right
sternal border
b. Fifth intercostal space,
midclavicular line
c. Second intercostal space, right
sternal border
d. Fourth intercostal space, left
sternal border
215. Third-degree (complete) heart
block is characterized by:
a. P waves with a regular rhythm
b. QRS complexes with a regular
rhythm
c. No relation between P waves and
QRS complexes
d. B and C
216. The ECG criterion for diagnosing
left ventricular hypertrophy is:
a. R wave in V1 + S wave in V5 or
V6 > 35 mm
b. P wave amplitude > 2.5 mm in
lead II
c. QT interval prolongation
d. PR interval > 200 ms
217. Extrasystolic beats are typically
followed by: