OXFORD UNIVERSITY PRESS
NEW SENIOR SECONDARY Name
PHYSICS AT WORK Class
(SECOND EDITION) Class number
MOCK EXAMINATION 2018
PHYSICS PAPER 2
Question-Answer Book
Time allowed: 1 hour
This paper must be answered in English
INSTRUCTIONS
(1) After the announcement of the start of the examination, you
should first insert the information required in the space
provided on Page 1.
(2) This paper consists of FOUR sections, Sections A, B, C
and D. Each section contains eight multiple-choice
questions and one structured question which carries
10 marks. Attempt ALL questions in any TWO sections.
(3) Write your answers to the structured questions in the
ANSWER BOOK provided. For multiple-choice questions,
blacken the appropriate circle with an HB pencil. You
should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you
mark more than one answer, you will receive NO MARKS
for that question.
(4) Graph paper and supplementary answer sheets will be
provided on request. Insert the information required, mark
the question number box on each sheet, and fasten them
with string INSIDE the Answer Book.
(5) The Question-Answer Book and Answer Book will be
collected SEPARATELY at the end of the examination.
(6) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to
scale.
(7) The last two pages of this Question-Answer Book contain a
list of data, formulae and relationships which you may find
useful.
(8) No extra time will be given to candidates for inserting any
information or filling in the question number boxes after the
‘Time is up’ announcement.
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 1
© Oxford University Press 2017
Section A: Astronomy and Space Science
Q.1: Multiple-choice questions
1.1 It is given that the mass of the Earth is 5.97 1024 kg and the orbital period of the Moon is
27 days. Estimate the semi-major axis of the Moon.
A 3.80 108 m
B 5.57 108 m
A B C D
C 1.13 1016 m
D 2.01 1016 m
1.2 A comet travels around the Sun in an elliptical orbit. Its perihelion and aphelion are respectively
at distances 0.586 AU and 35.1 AU from the Sun, as shown in the figure below. It is given that
the mass of the Sun is 1.99 1030 kg and the minimum speed of the comet is 900 m s–1.
Find the maximum speed of the comet.
A 6.97 103 m s–1
B 5.45 104 m s–1
A B C D
C 5.39 105 m s–1
D 3.23 106 m s–1
1.3 Galileo discovered that Venus exhibits a complete cycle of phases, just like the Moon. This
proves that
A the Copernican model is correct.
B the orbit of Venus is not circular.
C the composition of Venus is similar to that of the Moon.
D Venus is not moving on an epicycle between the Earth and the Sun.
A B C D
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 2
© Oxford University Press 2017
1.4 Which of the following statements about the Copernican model and Kepler’s model of planetary
motion is INCORRECT?
A Orbits of planets are circular in the Copernican model and elliptic in Kepler’s model.
B In Kepler’s model, the orbital speed of a planet is always changing.
C Both the Copernican model and Kepler’s model do not involve epicycles.
D Both the Copernican model and Kepler’s model are heliocentric models.
A B C D
1.5 The following graph shows the blackbody radiation curve of an object.
If the surface temperature of the object increases, which of the following graphs best shows the
new radiation curve (represented by a solid line) of the object?
A B
C D
A B C D
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 3
© Oxford University Press 2017
1.6 The diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy is estimated to be 40 000 pc. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A It takes about 40 000 years for light to travel from one end of the galaxy to the other end.
B The angular size of the galaxy is 40 000 as observed on the Earth.
C The parallax of the galaxy is 40 000 as observed on the Earth.
D None of the above
A B C D
1.7 Which of the following information about a star can be found from the H-R diagram?
(1) The core temperature
(2) The apparent magnitude
(3) The luminosity
A (1) only
B (3) only
A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (1) and (3) only
1.8 In the following figure, X shows a line spectrum of a star as observed from the Earth, while Y
shows a line spectrum of hydrogen obtained from a laboratory on the Earth.
Which of the following can be deduced from the above information?
A The star looks blue.
B The star looks red.
C The distance between the star and the Earth is decreasing.
D The distance between the star and the Earth is increasing.
A B C D
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 4
© Oxford University Press 2017
Q.1: Structured question
1 (a) It is observed that the position of a star X changes slightly relative to its surrounding stars
over a period of six months, as shown in the figure below.
Figure 1.1
(i) With the aid of a diagram, explain this phenomenon using the heliocentric model.
(3 marks)
(ii) Explain why relative change in positions of stars is not possible to be observed
according to the Ptolemaic model. (1 mark)
(b) The distance of another star Y from the Sun is 2500 light years.
(i) Calculate the parallax of star Y. (3 marks)
(ii) Hence, explain why the method of parallax cannot be used to measure the distances
of distant stars from the Sun. (1 mark)
(iii) The intensity of radiation emitted by Y is 6.5 10 W m as measured from the
–8 –2
Earth. Estimate its luminosity. (2 marks)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 5
© Oxford University Press 2017
Section B: Atomic World
Q.2: Multiple-choice questions
2.1 According to classical electromagnetic theory, which of the following can be derived from
Rutherford’s atomic model?
(1) All atoms emit electromagnetic waves continuously.
(2) An atom can emit electromagnetic waves of any wavelength.
(3) All atoms are unstable.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only
A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
2.2 Which of the following is NOT a prediction by the wave model of light on the photoelectric
effect?
A Light of any frequency can cause a metal surface to emit photoelectrons.
B Electrons are emitted immediately when light falls onto a metal surface.
C The number of photoelectrons emitted during a certain time period increases with the
intensity of the light.
D The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases with the intensity of the light.
A B C D
2.3 In a photoelectric effect experiment, ultraviolet radiation of frequency 2 1015 Hz falls onto the
metal plate in a photocell and a current is formed. The photoelectric current is lowered to zero
when the potential difference across the electrodes of the photocell is increased to 1.87 V. Find
the work function of the metal plate in the photocell.
A 1.87 eV
B 6.42 eV
A B C D
C 8.29 eV
D 10.3 eV
2.4 An emission line spectrum may be obtained when observing
A a hot gas.
B a filament lamp.
A B C D
C a filament lamp via a transparent solid.
D a filament lamp via a low-density gas.
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 6
© Oxford University Press 2017
2.5 Which of the following statements comparing Rutherford’s atomic model and Bohr’s atomic
model is INCORRECT?
A In both models, all the positive charge of an atom and most of the mass are concentrated
in a tiny core at the centre of the atom.
B In both models, electrons are kept in orbit by Coulomb force.
C The radius of an electron orbit is arbitrary in Rutherford’s model but quantized in Bohr’s
model.
D Electrons are considered as particles in Rutherford’s model but waves in Bohr’s model.
A B C D
2.6 Suppose the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is –E when it is at its ground state. If it
transits from the 3rd excited state to the 1st excited state, find the energy of the photon emitted.
B A B C D
2.7 In our daily life, ping pong balls are not observed to demonstrate wave-like properties.
According to de Broglie’s hypothesis, one of the reasons is that
A the balls are too light.
B the balls are too heavy.
A B C D
C the speeds of the balls are too low.
D the balls carry no charge.
2.8 Graphite is a structure of carbon while graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms isolated from
graphite. Which of the following statements about graphene are correct?
(1) Graphene has one dimension in nano scale.
(2) The strength and hardness of graphene are different from those of graphite.
(3) The electrical conductivity of graphene is different from that of graphite.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only
A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 7
© Oxford University Press 2017
Q.2: Structured question
2 In a transmission electron microscope (TEM), an electron beam is transmitted through a sample
and falls onto the screen after some focusing processes.
Figure 2.1
(a) From Rutherford’s atomic model, explain why electrons can be transmitted through the
sample. (2 marks)
(b) State an experimental evidence of the wave-like nature of electrons. (1 mark)
(c) The kinetic energy of each electron in the beam is 5000 eV.
(i) Find the de Broglie wavelength of the electron. (3 marks)
(ii) If the diameter of apertures in the TEM is 0.05 mm, estimate the angular resolution
of the microscope. (2 marks)
(d) Explain why a TEM has a higher resolution than an optical microscope. (2 marks)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 8
© Oxford University Press 2017
Section C: Energy and Use of Energy
Q.3: Multiple-choice questions
3.1 Two light bulbs have the same power output but different brightness. Which of the following
is/are the possible reason(s)?
(1) The intensities of visible light given out by the two bulbs do not peak at the same
wavelength.
(2) The two bulbs have different power input.
(3) The two bulbs emit infra-red and ultra-violet radiations in addition to visible light.
A (1) only
B (1) and (3) only
A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
3.2 A painting is fixed on a wall. X is a point on the painting and is 1.5 m below the ceiling, as
shown in the following figure. A lamp of luminous flux 1500 lm is placed at a distance 2 m
from the wall.
Estimate the illuminance at X. Take the lamp as a point source, and neglect any reflections of
the walls and the ceiling.
A 15.3 lx
B 19.1 lx
A B C D
C 192 lx
D 240 lx
3.3 An air conditioner operates at 1500 W and removes 2.0 105 J of heat from a room in 1 minute.
Find the coefficient of performance of the air conditioner.
A 0.45
B 0.55
A B C D
C 1.22
D 2.22
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 9
© Oxford University Press 2017
3.4 A cylindrical plastic container is containing hot soup and placed on an insulating mat in an
environment of temperature 25 C. The container has a radius of 5 cm and a height of 15 cm.
The wall and the cover of the container are 5 mm thick and their thermal conductivity are
0.2 W m–1 K–1.
If the container is losing heat at a rate of 140 W, find the temperature of the soup inside the
container. Neglect the heat loss through the bottom of the container.
A 80.7 C
B 86.4 C
A B C D
C 88.7 C
D 89.1 C
3.5 How can a solar control window film improve the energy efficiency of a building?
(1) It reduces heat transfer by conduction.
(2) It reduces heat transfer by convection.
(3) It reduces heat transfer by radiation.
A (1) only
B (3) only
A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (1) and (3) only
3.6 A solar cell is connected to an electric motor. Which of the following would happen if sunlight
falls onto the solar cell?
(1) Some electrons bounded to atoms at the PN junction become free electrons.
(2) There is a net flow of free electrons at the PN junction due to an electric field.
(3) A current flows from the n-type layer to the p-type layer through the motor.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only
A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 10
© Oxford University Press 2017
3.7 The following figure shows a micro wind turbine array which can be used to generate electricity
at low wind speeds. The width and height of the array are respectively 2.6 m and 1.2 m. When a
wind of speed 5 m s–1 blows through the array normally, electricity is generated at 80 W. It is
given that the density of the air is 1.2 kg m–3.
(Photo credit: Prof. Dennis Y.C. Leung | Department of Mechanical Engineering, HKU)
Take the energy of the air passing through the whole turbine array as the energy input of the
array, find the efficiency of the turbine array.
A 17.1%
B 34.2%
A B C D
C 41.0%
D 58.5%
3.8 Which of the following statements about nuclear reactions is correct?
A If the total binding energy of the nuclides decreases after a reaction, energy will be
released.
B Unstable nuclei tend to release energy through nuclear reactions to become more stable.
C Energy is released whenever two nuclei combine to become a heavier nucleus.
D Energy is released whenever one nucleus split to become two lighter nuclei.
A B C D
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 11
© Oxford University Press 2017
Q.3: Structured question
3 Modern railway systems are powered by electricity instead of diesel.
Figure 3.1 Diesel train (Photo credit: shankar s. | [Link])
Figure 3.2 Electric train
(a) One advantage of electric train over diesel train is that regenerative braking systems can
be employed.
(i) Explain why a regenerative braking system can help to increase the energy
efficiency of a train. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain why a friction braking system is needed even if a train is already equipped
with a regenerative braking system. (1 mark)
(b) In terms of their effects on air quality, explain why public transportation systems are
preferred over individual cars. (2 marks)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 12
© Oxford University Press 2017
(c) The figure below shows a simplified diagram of the air-conditioning system used in a
train. A, B, C and D are major components in the system. Refrigerant circulates in the
loop to maintain a stable temperature inside the train.
A
(expansion valve)
B C
inside D outside
(train) (compressor)
Figure 3.3
(i) Write down the direction of flow of the refrigerant in the loop in a hot summer day
by filling the blanks below. (1 mark)
C ________ ________ ________
(ii) Describe the change in temperature of the refrigerant when it passes through
components A, B, C and D. (2 marks)
(iii) State two situations in which the air-conditioning system needs to remove heat
from the train at a higher rate. (2 marks)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 13
© Oxford University Press 2017
Section D: Medical Physics
Q.4: Multiple-choice questions
4.1 Which of the following is a factor that limits the resolution of the human eye?
A The amount of light entering the eye is limited by the size of the pupil.
B Diffraction occurs when light waves pass through the pupil.
C The eye cannot focus on near and far objects at the same time.
D The density of cone cells on the retina decreases with the distance from the yellow spot.
A B C D
4.2 Paul suffers from short sight and needs to wear a corrective lens of focal length 20 cm. Find the
minimum power of his eye when the corrective lens is not used. It is given that the lens-to-retina
distance of his eye is 2 cm.
A 45 D
B 50 D
A B C D
C 55 D
D 60 D
4.3 Which of the following about producing a coherent bundle fibre are correct?
(1) The relative position of each fibre from one end to the other in the bundle is preserved.
(2) By using more and finer fibres, the resolution of the image transmitted by the bundle can
be increased.
(3) By using cladding with higher refractive index to surround each fibre, the chances of light
escaping can be reduced.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only
A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
4.4 Which of the following are advantages of ultrasound B-scan over CT scan?
(1) It can be used to generate 3-D models of the structure to be inspected.
(2) The patient is not exposed to ionizing radiation.
(3) The cost is lower.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only
A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 14
© Oxford University Press 2017
4.5 An X-ray beam is transmitted through a material of thickness 5 mm. As a result, the intensity of
the beam decreases by 65%. Find the half-value thickness of the material.
A 3.11 mm
B 3.25 mm
A B C D
C 3.30 mm
D 3.92 mm
4.6 The following figure shows a CT image.
Which of the following statements about the dark region in the image is correct?
A X-rays can be transmitted through the tissues in the region easily.
B X-rays reaching the tissues in the region are mostly absorbed.
C X-rays reaching the tissues in the region are mostly reflected.
D X-rays cannot reach the region easily.
A B C D
4.7 Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of radionuclide tracing over X-ray imaging?
(1) It has a higher image resolution.
(2) The patient is exposed to less ionizing radiation.
(3) It can provide functional information about the organ to be inspected.
A (1) only
B (3) only
A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (2) and (3) only
4.8 A dose of technetium-99m is injected into a patient’s body for medical tracing. The biological
half-life and physical half-life of the tracer are respectively 24 hours and 6 hour. If the activity
of the tracer is A0 just after the injection, find its activity inside the patient’s body after 24 hours.
A 0.0313A0
B 0.0625A0
A B C D
C 0.330A0
D 0.500A0
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 15
© Oxford University Press 2017
Q.4: Structured question
4 (a) The acoustic impedance of air is 411 kg m–2 s–1, while the acoustic impedance of the fluid
inside the inner ear is 1.6 106 kg m–2 s–1.
(i) It is given that the speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1. Estimate the density of air.
(2 marks)
(ii) If a sound of intensity 1.0 10–7 W m–2 was incident directly from the air to the
fluid in the inner ear along the normal direction, what would be the intensity of the
sound transmitted into the inner ear? (3 marks)
(iii) Describe how the ear bones help us to hear sound clearly. (1 mark)
(b) The figure below shows the curves of equal loudness of Tom. A sound of frequency
500 Hz and intensity 4.0 10–9 W m–2 reaches Tom’s ear. This sound is marked as P in
the figure below.
intensity level / dB
100
80
60
40 P
36
20
0 frequency / Hz
20 50 100 200 500 1000 2000 5000 10 000
Figure 4.1
(i) State the loudness, in phons, represented by the curve that P lies on. (1 mark)
(ii) If Tom hears another sound of 2000 Hz and perceives that the two sounds have the
same loudness, estimate the intensity of this sound. (3 marks)
END OF PAPER
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 16
© Oxford University Press 2017
List of data, formulae and relationships
Data
molar gas constant R = 8.31 J mol1 K1
Avogadro constant NA = 6.02 1023 mol1
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m s2 (close to the Earth)
universal gravitational constant G = 6.67 1011 N m2 kg2
speed of light in vacuum c = 3.00 108 m s1
charge of electron e = 1.60 1019 C
electron rest mass me = 9.11 1031 kg
permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2 N1 m2
permeability of free space 0 = 4 107 H m1
atomic mass unit u = 1.661 1027 kg (1 u is equivalent to 931 MeV)
astronomical unit AU = 1.50 1011 m
light year ly = 9.46 1015 m
parsec pc = 3.09 1016 m = 3.26 ly = 206 265 AU
Stefan constant = 5.67 108 W m2 K4
Planck constant h = 6.63 1034 J s
Rectilinear motion Mathematics
For uniformly accelerated motion: Equation of a straight line y = mx + c
Arc length = r
v = u + at
Surface area of cylinder = 2rh + 2r2
s = ut +
Volume of cylinder = r2h
v2 = u2 + 2as
Surface area of sphere = 4r2
Volume of sphere =
For small angles, sin tan (in radians)
Astronomy and Space Science Energy and Use of Energy
U= gravitational potential energy illuminance
P = AT4 Stefan’s law
= rate of energy transfer by
Doppler effect
conduction
U= thermal transmittance U-value
P= maximum power by wind turbine
Atomic World Medical Physics
= hf Einstein’s photoelectric equation Rayleigh criterion (resolving power)
power = power of a lens
En = = eV
L= intensity level (dB)
energy level equation for hydrogen
atom Z = c acoustic impedance
= = de Broglie formula
= = intensity reflection coefficient
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 17
© Oxford University Press 2017
I = I 0e x transmitted intensity through a
Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) medium
energy transfer during
A1. E = mcT D1. F= Coulomb’s law
heating and cooling
energy transfer during electric field strength due to a
A2. E = lm D2. E=
change of state point charge
equation of state for an electric field between parallel
A3. pV = nRT D3. E=
ideal gas plates (numerically)
A4. pV = kinetic theory equation D4. R= resistance and resistivity
A5. EK = molecular kinetic energy D5. R = R1 + R2 resistors in series
D6. = + resistors in parallel
B1. F= = force D7. P = IV = I2R power in a circuit
force on a moving charge in a
B2. moment = F d moment of a force D8. F = BQv sin
magnetic field
gravitational potential force on a current-carrying
B3. EP = mgh D9. F = BIl sin
energy conductor in a magnetic field
magnetic field due to a long
B4. EK = kinetic energy D10. B=
straight wire
magnetic field inside a long
B5. P = Fv mechanical power D11. B=
solenoid
B6. a= = 2r centripetal acceleration D12. = induced e.m.f.
ratio of secondary voltage to
Newton’s law of
B7. F= D13. primary voltage in a
gravitation
transformer
fringe width in
C1. y = E1. N = N0ekt law of radioactive decay
double-slit interference
diffraction grating
C2. d sin = n E2. = half-life and decay constant
equation
activity and the number of
C3. = equation for a single lens E3. A = kN
undecayed nuclei
E4. E = mc2 mass-energy relationship
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)
Mock Exam 2018 Paper 2 18
© Oxford University Press 2017