PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS - BLOCKS 1 AND 2

PARALLEL 3

TOPIC 1- INTRODUCTION TO PHARMACOLOGY

1. The following statement “from a medical point of view is any substance used
for the treatment, prevention, cure or diagnosis of a disease” corresponds to:
to. Drug
b. Medicine
c. Poison
d. All
and. None
Justification: In the broadest sense, any chemical substance capable of interacting with a
living organism and from a medical point of view, is any substance used for the treatment,
prevention, cure or diagnosis of a disease. (WHO)1968.

2. The origins of the drugs are:

to. Natural, semi-synthetic, synthetic, genetic, nanotechnology
b. Natural, experimental, genetic, synthetic
c. Experimental, semi-experimental, natural, synthetic
d. Synthetic, genetic and nanotechnology
and. None is correct
Justification: Drugs can be of natural origin (animal, plant, animal), semi-synthetic,
synthetic, genetic, nanotechnology

3. The following statement “used internationally, following IUPAC rules, denotes

the composition, structure and stereochemistry of the drug” corresponds to:
to. Generic name
b. Chemical name
c. Popular Name
d. Only A and C is correct
and. None is correct
Justification: Chemical Name: used internationally following IUPAC rules, denotes the
composition, structure and stereochemistry of the drug

4. Which of the following statements correspond to the active ingredient

to. Substance that performs the inactive activity
b. Substance that performs pharmacological activity
c. Inactive substance used to incorporate the excipient
d. Substance that performs an active activity
and. Active substance used to incorporate the excipient
Justification: Active ingredient: it is any substance that performs pharmacological activity.

5. To whom does the phrase “primium non nocerem” correspond?

to) Peter John
b) Kolbe Lauteman
c) Hippocrates
d) All
and) None
Justification: Hippocrates, father of medicine, 450 BC, spoke of the principle of
pharmacology as FIRST DO NO HARM = “PRIMIUN NON NOCEREM”

6. Who is considered the father of Pharmacology?

to) Paracelsus
b) Kolbe Lauteman
c) Domagk
d) All
and) None
Justification: it is considered that the patriarch of pharmacology was Paracelsus, born in
Switzerland in 1493.

7. Which drug is considered the first antimicrobial discovered?

to) Acetylsalicylic acid
b) Salicylic acid
c) Sulfonamide
d) All
and) None

Justification: the first antimicrobial discovered was sulfonamide, discovered by Dogmak in

1935.
8. In 1922, for the first time they treated a diabetic patient, achieving remission of her
symptoms, thanks to an extract from:
to) kidney extract
b) Small Intestine Extract
c) liver extract
d) All
and) None
Justification: The remission of the symptoms of the patient with diabetes in 1922 was
thanks to a pancreas extract, which is why it was called insulin.

9. From whom did the concept of active ingredient, fundamentally responsible for the
effect of the original mixture, first arise?
to) Peter John
b) Carl William
c) Serturner
d) All
and) None
Justification: Félix Fontana is the first to affirm that in plants or biological materials there
was a fundamental active principle responsible for the effect of the original mixture.

10. Does pharmaco-epidemiology study?

a) The consequences of a drug in a population
b) The benefits of a drug in a population
c) Both the beneficial and harmful consequences that drugs report directly and
indirectly to the population.
d) Both the beneficial and harmful consequences that drugs directly report to the population.
e) None of the above
Justification:

11. Is pharmacology a science that studies?

a) Actions of drugs
b) Qualities of the drugs
c) Properties of drugs
d) Only A and C are correct
e) All are correct
Justification:

12. Does pharmacokinetics study the processes and factors that determine the
amount of drug present at the site where it must exert its biological effect at each
moment?
a) True

b) False
Justification:

13. Does therapeutic pharmacology study?

a) The application of drugs with the purpose of curing or voluntarily altering a normal
function.
b) The application of drugs with the purpose of unintentionally curing or damaging a normal
function.
c) The application of drugs with the purpose of voluntarily curing an abnormal function
d) All paragraphs are correct
e) None is correct
Justification:

14. What are the Branches of Pharmacology?

A) Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetics
B) Drug-genetics and Drug-surveillance
C) Pharmacognosy and Pharmaco-epidemiology
D) Only A and B are correct
E) All are correct
Justification: The branches of pharmacology are: pharmacodynamics, pharmacognosy,
pharmacokinetics, toxicology, pharmaco-genetics, pharmaco-epidemiology, pharmaco-
surveillance and pharmaco-therapeutics.
There are also other forms such as pharmacometry, pharmacoeconomics and
pharmacogenomics.

PHARMACOKINETICS
1. Regarding the absorption rate, check the correct item:
a) It may be important with the administration of a drug in a single dose
b) Controlled-release oral preparations are designed to provide a slow and sustained rate of
absorption
c) None
d) All
Justification:
The rate of absorption can be important with the administration of a single-dose drug, such
as a sleep-inducing medication that must act within a reasonable time, requires framing and
achieving an effective blood level that is maintained to achieve adequate duration.
Controlled-release oral preparations, compared to more immediate-release formulations, are
designed to provide a slow, sustained rate of absorption to produce fewer fluctuations in the
plasma concentration-time profile over the dosing interval. P. 25, subtitle “Absorption rate”.

2. Nonlinear pharmacokinetics:
a) It is generally caused by saturation of lipid binding
b) It is generally caused by saturation of protein and lipid binding
c) Generally caused by saturation of protein binding, hepatic metabolism or renal
transport
d) Generally caused by saturation of protein binding, hepatic metabolism or cerebral
transport
e) None
Justification:
Nonlinear pharmacokinetics are generally caused by saturation of protein binding, hepatic
metabolism, or active renal transport of the drug. P. 25, subtitle “Nonlinear
pharmacokinetics”.
3. It is known as the non-protein bound fraction:
a) Free fraction
b) Bioavailability
c) Saturable elimination
d) Dosing interval
e) All are correct.
Justification:
The fraction not bound to proteins is known as the free fraction. P. 25, subtitle “Binding to
non-saturable proteins”.

4. The use of loading doses has significant disadvantages such as:

a) The sensitive individual is not exposed to toxic concentrations
b) If administered parenterally and quickly, there is no danger of toxic effects
c) No statement is correct.
d) The sensitive individual can be exposed to a toxic concentration and large doses
administered parenterally and quickly can produce toxic effects.
e) All are correct.
Justification:
The use of a loading dose has significant disadvantages such as:
First, the highly sensitive individual may be abruptly exposed to a toxic concentration of a
medication that may take a long time to decrease.
Second, loading doses tend to be large and are often administered parenterally and rapidly;
This can be particularly dangerous if toxic effects occur as a result of the drug's actions at
sites that are in rapid equilibrium with the plasma. P. 28, subtitle “Loading dose”.

5. Factors that modify the absorption of medications.

A: Route of administration
B: Ability of the drug to dissolve
C: Blood flow to the administration site
D: Body surface area and lipid solubility of the drug.
E: All
Justification: in this question the answer is all because all of these answers can modify the
absorption of the drug that we are going to administer.

6. When we talk about the two-compartment model, indicate the incorrect one:
A: Fragment of drug that we find in the blood plasma
B: Maintains proportionality between different tissues and elimination speed
C: A central compartment
D: A peripheral compartment
E: B and c correct
Justification:
In this question the answer is a. Fragment of drug that we find in the blood plasma. Because
this corresponds to the single-compartmental model.

7. Oral absorption:
A: It is determined by the lipid solubility and the degree of ionization of the drug
B: Always has 100 % bioavailability
C: It is the first route in emergency cases
D: It does not have the effect of the first step
E: B and d correct
Rationale: the correct answer to this question is “it is determined by the lipid solubility and
degree of ionization of the drug.”

8. Clinical pharmacokinetics attempts to provide

A) A quantitative relationship between dose and effect
b) A volume frame to interpret measurements
c) Adjustment through changes in volume
d) The transfer of drugs across the placenta
e) The purification to consider a rational regime for the administration
Rationale: The answer is part A because clinical pharmacokinetics attempts to provide a
quantitative relationship between doses and effect. P. 21, subtitle “Clinical
pharmacokinetics”.

9. Check which are the most important parameters that govern the disposition of
drugs
a) Biliary and fecal excretion
b) Inducible biotransformation enzymes
c)Bioavailability, volume of distribution, clearance, elimination half-life.
d)Redistribution, biotransformation, clearance volume
e) Dosage changes, biological fluids
Justification: The answer is part C because the most important parameters that govern the
disposition of drugs are four: Bioavailability, volume of distribution, clearance, elimination
half-life. P. 21, subtitle “Clinical pharmacokinetics”.

10. When clearing a drug through the kidneys, the following should be considered:
a) The rate of secretion, intrinsic clearance, transporters
b) Active secretion, speed, secretory site
c) Drug reabsorption processes, tubular fluid, bloodstream, changes in protein binding
d)Glomerular filtration, secretion, reabsorption and glomerular blood flow
e) Glomerular filtration, glomerular reabsorption
Justification: The answer is part D , because in the clearance of a drug by the kidneys,
glomerular filtration, secretion, reabsorption and glomerular blood flow must be considered.
P. 22, subtitle “Renal clearance”.

11. The volume of distribution relates the amount of drugs in the body to the
concentration in the blood or plasma depending on:
a) Physiological volume
b) Measured fluid
c) Liquid fluid
d) Concentration volume
e) Concentration fluid
Justification: The answer is item B , because the volume of distribution is related to the
amount of the drug in the body with the concentration it has in the blood or plasma
depending on the fluid measured. P. 23, subtitle “Distribution, volume of distribution”.
12. After using a drug intravenously, the pharmacokinetic process exists, and NOT
observed:
a) absorption
b) distribution
c) biotransformation
d) elimination
A: The intravenous route of administration skips the absorption step, as the medication is
injected directly into the bloodstream. P. 17, subtitle “Routes of administration, intravenous”.

13. Check the correct alternative:

a) In oral administration, all absorption occurs until the drug reaches the small intestine.
b) Absorption is defined as the passage of a drug from its site of administration to plasma. It
is important for all routes of administration, without any exception.
c) Absorption is defined as the passage of a drug from its site of administration to
plasma. It is important for all routes of administration, except intravenous.
d) In oral administration, all absorption occurs until the drug reaches the large intestine.
A: The intravenous route of administration skips the absorption step, as the medication is
injected directly into the bloodstream. P. 17, subtitle “Routes of administration, intravenous”.

14. Routes of drug administration have different rates of onset of drug action. From
the fastest action to the slowest, what is the only correct order?
a) Intravenous, Intramuscular, Oral, Transdermal.
b) Sublingual, Oral, Intramuscular, Transdermal.
c) Intravenous, Sublingual, Oral, Intramuscular.
d) Intravenous, Intramuscular, Sublingual, Oral.
A: The intravenous route allows for rapid effect and a maximum degree of control over the
amount of drug administered. When injected as a bolus, the full dose of medication is
delivered into the systemic circulation almost immediately. Medications administered
intramuscularly can be in aqueous solution, which are absorbed quickly (considered by the
question), or in specialized depot preparations, which are absorbed slowly. In the
transdermal route, the absorption rate can vary markedly, depending on the physical
characteristics of the skin at the application site and the lipid solubility of the drug. It is most
often used for long-term delivery of medications. Therefore, the most suitable alternative is
the letter A. P. 17, subtitle “Routes of administration”.

15. Regarding the factors involved in pharmacokinetics, it can be stated:

a) The pH of the medium does not interfere with the absorption and excretion of drugs.
b) Water-soluble medications are more easily absorbed throughout the gastrointestinal tract.
c) The biotransformation of the drug is a process that favors its elimination.
d) The first pass effect favors the distribution and reabsorption of the drug.
A: The concentration of the drug at the absorption site depends on the pH of the medium,
the dissociation concentration (pK) and the distribution coefficient of the ionized part of the
drug. The more fat-soluble a medication is, the more easily it is absorbed. First-pass
metabolism is a phenomenon of drug metabolism in which the liver significantly reduces
(and inactivates) its concentration before reaching the systemic circulation. The
effectiveness of a drug is affected by the degree to which it binds to proteins in the blood
plasma. The less binding the drug is, the more efficiently it can cross cell membranes or
spread.
Topic 3 – PHARMACODYNAMICS

1) They are receptors coupled to ion channels, except:

a) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
b) GABAa receptor
c) Glutamate Receptor
d) Beta 2 adrenergic receptor
e) 5-HT 3 receptor (serotonin type 3)
Explanation: The answer is the Beta 2 adrenergic receptor, it is the only receptor among
those present that is coupled to the G protein, and not to an ion channel.

2) Which of the options is a G protein-coupled receptor:

a) Glutamate Receptor
b) M 2 muscarinic cholinergic receptor
c) 5-HT 3 receptor (serotonin type 3)
d) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
e) Aspartate Receptor
Explanation: The answer is the M2 muscarinic cholinergic receptor, it is the only receptor
among those present that is coupled to the G protein.
3) Indicate the correct option, regarding the type of G protein and its function:
a) Gi protein -> stimulates Adenyl cyclase and cAMP formation.
b) Gq protein -> stimulates Adenyl cyclase and cAMP formation.
c) Protein Gs -> inhibits Adenyl cyclase.
d) Gq protein -> inhibits Adenicyclase.
e) Protein Gs -> stimulates Adenyl cyclase and formation of cAMP.
Explanation: The answer is the option of Protein Gs -> which stimulates the enzyme adenyl
cyclase and the formation of intracellular cAMP.

4) In irreversible drug-receptor junctions, junctions of the following type are formed:

a) Covalent bonds.
b) Hydrogen bonds.
c) Ionic bonds.
d) None.
e) Everyone.
Explanation: Of all the types of bond between the drug and the receptor, the only one that is
irreversible and has pharmacological importance are covalent bonds.

5) What is pharmacodynamics?
a) It is the study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their
mechanisms of action
b) Branch of pharmacology that studies the processes to which a drug is subjected through
its passage through the body
c) Biological science that studies the actions and properties of drugs in living organisms
d) All
e) None

6) They are regulators of the release of norepinephrine:

a) ATP
b) acetylcholine and dopamine
c) GABAA and acetylcholine
d) Histamine
e) None
Explanation:
GABAA, acetylcholine, AGT II, NA/A are stimulators of presynaptic receptors that, when

stimulated, inhibit or release transmitters.

7) Which of the statements does NOT belong to the receptor family:
a) Receptors coupled to ion channels
b) Receptors that regulate gene transcription
c) Calcium receptors
d) G protein-coupled receptors
e) Receptors with enzymatic activity

8) A steroid hormone molecule that binds to its receptor triggers the transcription of
countless copies of mRNA, resulting in multiple copies of proteins.
a) Enzymes
b) Ion channels
c) Transporters
d) Physiological receptors
e) None
9) Circle the correct answer about agonists:
to. Drugs that have affinity for the receptor but no intrinsic activity
b. Drugs with high affinity for the receptor and high intrinsic activity
c. Blocks the effects normally induced by agonists
d. Drugs with high affinity for the receptor and high extrinsic activity
and. None of the above

10) Underline the incorrect answer . They are the factors that modify the action of a
drug:
to. Prescribed dose
b. Administered dose
c. Chemical structure
d. Pharmacological effects
and. Concentration at sites of action
11) Therapeutic combinations what function they have:
to. The interaction can cause toxic effects
b. May inhibit the effect of the medication
c. May inhibit therapeutic benefit
d. None of the above
and. All of the above

12) What does the magnitude of a drug response depend on:

to. Receiver Specificity
b. Undesirable effect
c. Access of the drug to the tissues in which they will exert their effects
d. A and C are correct
and. All are correct

13.- What is pharmacological action?

a) Modification of the cell's own functions, whether increasing or decreasing
b) It is what the drug does with the body
c) They are unwanted actions or effects
d) None
e) Everyone

14.- What does a pharmacological effect result from?

a) It is the appreciation or evaluation of the action of a drug using technical
procedures.
b) Binding of target with enzyme
c) It is the appreciation or evaluation of the action of a drug using chemical procedures.
d) Binding of drug with transporters
e) all

15.- What is the primary effect?

a) It is the fundamental therapeutic effect of the drug
b) It is the ability to inhibit reactions
c) It is when the drug binds to the receptor and forms a complex
d) a and b
e) None

16.- What is the placebo effect?

a) They are manifestations of psychological origin that are not related to the
pharmacological actions of the drug.
b) It is the ability to form a stimulus and trigger a pharmacological effect
c) It is the ability to deactivate or inactivate a response
a) They are manifestations of biological origin related to the pharmacological actions of the
drug
d) none
Explanation of 14, 15 and 16:
 Topic 2: PHARMACOKINETICS
1. Regarding the absorption rate, check the correct item:
a) It may be important with the administration of a drug in a single dose
b) Controlled-release oral preparations are designed to provide a slow and sustained rate of
absorption
c) None
d) All
Justification:
The rate of absorption can be important with the administration of a single-dose drug, such
as a sleep-inducing medication that must act within a reasonable time, requires framing and
achieving an effective blood level that is maintained to achieve adequate duration.
Controlled-release oral preparations, compared to more immediate-release formulations, are
designed to provide a slow, sustained rate of absorption to produce fewer fluctuations in the
plasma concentration-time profile over the dosing interval. P. 25, subtitle “Absorption rate”.

2. Nonlinear pharmacokinetics:
a) It is generally caused by saturation of lipid binding
b) It is generally caused by saturation of protein and lipid binding
c) Generally caused by saturation of protein binding, hepatic metabolism or renal
transport
d) Generally caused by saturation of protein binding, hepatic metabolism or cerebral
transport
Justification:
Nonlinear pharmacokinetics are generally caused by saturation of protein binding, hepatic
metabolism, or active renal transport of the drug. P. 25, subtitle “Nonlinear
pharmacokinetics”.

3. It is known as the non-protein bound fraction:

a) Free fraction
b) Bioavailability
c) Saturable elimination
d) Dosing interval
Justification:
The fraction not bound to proteins is known as the free fraction. P. 25, subtitle “Binding to
non-saturable proteins”.

4. The use of loading doses has significant disadvantages such as:

a) The sensitive individual is not exposed to toxic concentrations
b) If administered parenterally and quickly, there is no danger of toxic effects
c) No statement is correct.
d) The sensitive individual can be exposed to a toxic concentration and large doses
administered parenterally and quickly can produce toxic effects.
Justification:
The use of a loading dose has significant disadvantages such as:
First, the highly sensitive individual may be abruptly exposed to a toxic concentration of a
medication that may take a long time to decrease.
Second, loading doses tend to be large and are often administered parenterally and rapidly;
This can be particularly dangerous if toxic effects occur as a result of the drug's actions at
sites that are in rapid equilibrium with the plasma. P. 28, subtitle “Loading dose”.

5. Factors that modify the absorption of medications.

A: route of administration
B: ability of the drug to dissolve
C: blood supply to the administration point
D: body surface area and lipid solubility of the drug.
E: all
Justification: in this question the answer is all because all of these answers can modify the
absorption of the drug that we are going to administer.

6. When we talk about the two-compartment model, indicate the incorrect one:
A: drug fragment found in blood plasma
B: maintains proportionality between different tissues and elimination speed
C: a central compartment
D: a peripheral compartment
E: b and c correct
Justification: in this question the answer is a. Fragment of drug found in blood plasma
Because this corresponds to the one-compartment model

7. Oral absorption:
A: it is determined by the lipid solubility and the degree of ionization of the drug
B: always has 100 % bioavailability
C: it is the first route in emergency cases
D: does not have the effect of the first step
E: b and d correct
Justification:
The correct answer to this question is “it is determined by the lipid solubility and degree of
ionization of the drug.”

8. Clinical pharmacokinetics attempts to provide

a) A quantitative relationship between dose and effect
b) A volume frame to interpret measurements
c) Adjustment through changes in volume
d) The transfer of drugs across the placenta
e) The purification to consider a rational regime for the administration
Justification:
The answer is part A because clinical pharmacokinetics attempts to provide a quantitative
relationship between doses and effect. P. 21, subtitle “Clinical pharmacokinetics”.

9. Check which are the most important parameters that govern the disposition of
drugs
a) Biliary and fecal excretion
b) Inducible biotransformation enzymes
c) Bioavailability, volume of distribution, clearance, elimination half-life.
d) Redistribution, biotransformation, clearance volume
e) Dosage changes, biological fluids
Justification:
The answer is part C because the most important parameters that govern the disposition of
drugs are four: Bioavailability, volume of distribution, clearance, elimination half-life. P. 21,
subtitle “Clinical pharmacokinetics”.

10. When clearing a drug through the kidneys, the following should be considered:
a) The rate of secretion, intrinsic clearance, transporters
b) Active secretion, speed, secretory site
c) Drug reabsorption processes, tubular fluid, bloodstream, changes in protein binding
d) Glomerular filtration, secretion, reabsorption and glomerular blood flow
e) Glomerular filtration, glomerular reabsorption
Justification:
The answer is part D , because in the clearance of a drug by the kidneys, glomerular
filtration, secretion, reabsorption and glomerular blood flow must be considered. P. 22,
subtitle “Renal clearance”.

11. The volume of distribution relates the amount of drugs in the body to the
concentration in the blood or plasma depending on:
a) Physiological volume
b) Measured fluid
c)Liquid fluid
d) Concentration volume
e) Concentration fluid
Justification:
The answer is part B , because the volume of distribution is related to the amount of the drug
in the body with the concentration it has in the blood or plasma depending on the fluid
measured. P. 23, subtitle “Distribution, volume of distribution”.

12. After using a drug intravenously, the pharmacokinetic process exists, and NOT
observed:
a) Absorption
b) Distribution
c) Biotransformation
d) Elimination
Justification:
The intravenous route of administration skips the absorption step, as the medication is
injected directly into the bloodstream. P. 17, subtitle “Routes of administration, intravenous”.

13. Check the correct alternative:

a) In oral administration, all absorption occurs until the drug reaches the small intestine.
b) Absorption is defined as the passage of a drug from its site of administration to plasma. It
is important for all routes of administration, without any exception.
c) Absorption is defined as the passage of a drug from its site of administration to
plasma. It is important for all routes of administration, except intravenous.
d) In oral administration, all absorption occurs until the drug reaches the large intestine.
Justification:
The intravenous route of administration skips the absorption step, as the medication is
injected directly into the bloodstream. P. 17, subtitle “Routes of administration, intravenous”.

14. Routes of drug administration have different rates of onset of drug action. From
the fastest action to the slowest, what is the only correct order?
a) Intravenous, Intramuscular, Oral, Transdermal.
b) Sublingual, Oral, Intramuscular, Transdermal.
c) Intravenous, Sublingual, Oral, Intramuscular.
d) Intravenous, Intramuscular, Sublingual, Oral.
Justification:
The intravenous route allows for rapid effect and a maximum degree of control over the
amount of drug administered. When injected as a bolus, the full dose of medication is
delivered into the systemic circulation almost immediately. Medications administered
intramuscularly can be in aqueous solution, which are absorbed quickly (considered by the
question), or in specialized depot preparations, which are absorbed slowly. In the
transdermal route, the absorption rate can vary markedly, depending on the physical
characteristics of the skin at the application site and the lipid solubility of the drug. It is most
often used for long-term delivery of medications. Therefore, the most suitable alternative is
the letter A. P. 17, subtitle “Routes of administration”.

15. Regarding the factors involved in pharmacokinetics, it can be stated:

a) The pH of the medium does not interfere with the absorption and excretion of drugs.
b) Water-soluble medications are more easily absorbed throughout the gastrointestinal tract.
c) The biotransformation of the drug is a process that favors its elimination.
d) The first pass effect favors the distribution and reabsorption of the drug.
Justification:
The concentration of the drug at the absorption site depends on the pH of the medium, the
dissociation concentration (pK) and the distribution coefficient of the ionized part of the drug.
The more fat-soluble a medication is, the more easily it is absorbed. First-pass metabolism is
a phenomenon of drug metabolism in which the liver significantly reduces (and inactivates)
its concentration before reaching the systemic circulation. The effectiveness of a drug is
affected by the degree to which it binds to proteins in the blood plasma. The less binding the
drug is, the more efficiently it can cross cell membranes or spread.
 Adverse drug reactions
01) Regarding type A RAM, indicate the correct thing:
a) Occurs after drug withdrawal
b) Includes carcinogenicity and teratogenicity
c) Predicted or rationalized in terms of chemical structure
d) Predictable: exaggeration of the pharmacological effects of a drug. There is a
dose-effect relationship
e) They are not predictable and there is no dose response relationship
Justification:

02) Characteristics of type B RAM are:

a) They are rare (10-20%)
b) Dose independent
c) Triggered by the increased or exaggerated effects of a drug
d) They are not serious and have low mortality
e) Subsections a and b
Justification:

03) Regarding RAM due to idiosyncrasy, point out the correct thing:
a) abnormal responses
b) Unrelated to dose
c) Some can tolerate very high doses and others with small doses present
hypersensitivity.
d) They are dependent on the host
e) All of them are correct.
Justification:

04) Indicate the correctness of the RAM due to overdose or toxicity:

a) Related to the primary therapeutic action, but at a site different from the primary
target of action.
b) They are produced at therapeutic doses.
c) It is the most common type of adverse drug reaction.
d) They are derived from the multiplicity of pharmacological actions of a medication.
e) It occurs due to excessive dosage or decreased elimination.
Justification:

5) Indicate which of the frequencies of appearance of Rams is Infrequent

a) < 1/100 and > 1/10
b) < 1/10.
c) < 1/10,000 and > 1/1,000.
d) < 1/1,000 and > 1/100.
e) 1/1,000 and < 1/100.
Justification:

6) In the FDA classification of the risk of fetal toxicity, indicate which category is
incorrect.
a) Category A: Zero teratogenic risk in animals; Not proven in women.
b) Category C: Adverse effects on the fetus. Indicate only if the potential benefit justifies the
risk to the fetus
c) Category X: Very high teratogenic risk. contraindicated in women with probability or
situation of pregnancy.
d) All
e) None
Justification:

7) Regarding the significance of ADR, indicate which is Serious.

a) Contributes directly and indirectly to death (PTE, Anaphylactic Shock)
b) They are accompanied by rarely tolerated signs and symptoms
c) Directly threatens life (PTE, Anaphylactic Shock)
d) Interferes with usual activities
e) None
Justification:

8) About the risk of fetal toxicity that occurs in category C. Mark the correct paragraph
a) Very high teratogenic risk. Contraindicated in women with the probability or situation of
pregnancy.
b) Zero teratogenic risk in animals. Not proven in women.
c) Adverse effects on the fetus, indicate only if the potential benefit justifies the risk to
the fetus.
d) Possibility of remote teratogenesis
e) None of the paragraphs are correct
Justification:

9) What drugs are prohibited in the first trimester of pregnancy. Points to incorrect
section.
a) Aminopterin
b) Alcohol
c) Warfarin
d) Androgens
e) Aminoglycosides
Justification:
10) Regarding type II allergies dependent on cytotoxic antibodies, indicate which
types of reactions stand out. Indicate the correct paragraph:
a) Hematological
b) Systemic and cutaneous vasculitis
c) Allergic interstitial nephritis
d) A and B
e) A and C
Justification:

11)On the significance of lethal ADRs. Indicate the correct paragraph:

a) Directly threatens life (PTE, Anaphylactic Shock)
b) Interferes with usual activities
c) Contributes directly and indirectly to death
d) With easily tolerated signs and symptoms
e) Section A and C
Justification:
12) About drug surveillance. indicate the correct paragraph:
a) It allows for the adoption of timely measures to ensure that the medicines available on the
market present a favorable benefit-risk ratio.
b) It is a shared responsibility of authorities, marketers and health professionals.
c) It is a branch of pharmacology that continuously provides the best possible information on
the safety of medications.
d) It is the branch of pharmacology that studies the processes to which a drug is
subjected through its passage through the body.
e) AYC
Justification:

13) About the foreseeable increased type A reactions. Point out what is incorrect:
a) Triggered by the increased or exaggerated effects of a drug
b) Consequence of the pharmacological action of the medication itself
c) Frequent (70-80%), they are dose-dependent.
d) There is no compromise of the immune system
e) All are correct
Justification:

14) Regarding the type C (continous) reactions of RAM: Indicate the correct
paragraph:
a) They are not predictable and there is no dose response relationship.
b) Predicted or related in terms of chemical structure
c) includes carcinogenicity and teratogenicity
d) subsections A and B
e) None
Justification:

15) About Idiosyncrasy. Mark the correct only:

a) They are dependent on the host
b) Unrelated to dose
c) Reactions with genetically determined susceptibility
d) abnormal responses
e) All are correct
Justification:

Drug interactions

1. Which of the following is a target of drug interaction?

A. increase the therapeutic effect
B. reduce adverse effects
C. avoid presence of resistant strains
D. increase antimicrobial spectrum
E. all paragraphs are correct
Justification

2. What causes a drug interaction?

A. Increased pharmacological effect
B. Decreased pharmacological effect
C. Part a and b are correct
D. None are correct
Justification:
 3. What does the type of physical-chemical interaction refer to?
A. Physical-chemical incompatibilities prevent the mixing of two or more drugs in
the same solution.
B. To the Modifications in the response of the effector organ giving rise to phenomena
of synergy, antagonism and potentiation
C. To modifications in the absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination
processes of the drug
D. All are correct
E. None is correct
Justification:
PHYSICAL CHEMICAL: refers to physical-chemical incompatibilities. They prevent the
mixing of two or more drugs in the same solution.

4. The doctor must know which drugs experience interactions most frequently and
which ones can be serious for the patient's health.
A. TRUE
B. Fake
Justification:
Yes, because the patient may experience poisoning AND/or therapeutic insufficiency in their
treatment.

5. What are the risk factors for drug interactions?

to. Age
b. Feeding
c. Alcohol
d. All paragraphs are correct.
Justification:
Age, diet and alcohol are the first factors that should be taken into account by health
professionals in patients, as well as tobacco addiction and others.

6. A known drug interaction will not necessarily occur at the same intensity in all
patients.
to. TRUE
b. Fake
Justification :
Many interactions do not present serious consequences and many that are dangerous occur
only in small intensity in some patients.

7. The physical-chemical reactions that occur when drugs are mixed with intravenous
fluids, causing precipitation or inactivation, are called "chemical incompatibilities."
to. Fake
b. TRUE
Justification:
Certain medications, when added to intravenous fluids, can be inactivated by changing the
pH, by precipitation, or by chemical reaction.

8. Regarding pharmacological antagonism, mark the correct item.

to. Competitive: the interaction between agonist and antagonist occurs at the SAME
receptor site.
b. Competitive: the interaction between agonist and antagonist occurs at the level of
different receptor sites.
c. Non-competitive: the antagonist occupies a receptor site.
d. Non-competitive: the antagonist does NOT occupy a receptor site but rather a site that
is part of the signal translation mechanism.
and. A and D.
Justification:

9. What is a Drug Interaction?

A. Action that a drug does not exert on a person
B. Action that a drug exerts on a person
C. Action that one drug exerts on another
D. Action that one drug does not exert on another
E. None
Justification:
10. Why do they cause adverse effects?
A. Lack of Action
B. Excess
C. Deficit
D. All
E. None
Justification:

11. What are the types of pharmacological interaction?

A. Kinetic, Sympathetic, Physical-Chemical
B. Biological, Physical and Chemical
C. Physical-Chemical, Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
D. Physical and Chemical
E. None
Justification:
12. Can some foods alter the drug interaction?
A. TRUE
B. Fake
Justification:

Cholinergic agonist and antagonist drugs

1. Where the synthesis of Acetylcholine occurs:
TO. in the membrane
b. in the cell cytoplasm
c. On the drive plate
d. In the postganglionic fibers
AND. In the CNS
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 28 for cholinergic agonist and antagonist.

2. The storage of Acetylcholine is in the presynaptic endings. Which of the

statements are correct:
TO. Inside synaptic vesicles
b. Loosely associated with cell membranes and susceptible to detachment easily
c. Freely dissolved in the cytoplasm
d. They are all correct
AND. None
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 29 of cholinergic agonist and antagonist.
3. Nicotinic receptors are a prototype of the ligand-gated ion channel receptor,
which are made up of subunits:
TO. α, β
b. β, ε
c. α, β, δ
d. α, β, δ, γ, ε
AND. δ, γ, ε
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 34 of cholinergic agonist and antagonist.

4. Of the cholinergic receptors which are associated by various types of G

Protein:
TO. muscarinic receptors
b. sensory receptors
c. Nicotinic respores
d. Muscarinics and nicotinics
AND. membrane receptors
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 36 of cholinergic agonist and antagonist.
5. What is the correct option regarding atropine?
a) muscarinic receptor agonist.
b) alpha adrenergic receptor antagonists.
c) beta adrenergic receptor agonists.
d) antagonists of muscarinic receptors.
e) None.
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 54 for cholinergic agonists and antagonists.

6. They are inhibitors of the release of acetylcholine from presynaptic endings

except:
a) Botulinum neurotoxins.
b) α-latrotoxin
c) Batrachotoxin.
d) Saxitoxin.
e) All are correct.
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 31 for cholinergic agonists and antagonists .
7. They are a consequence of the activation of cholinergic, peripheral or central,
nicotinic or muscarinic receptors. Mark the incorrect one:
a) They act on the cardiovascular system where acetylcholine produces a decrease in heart
rate.
b) In the respiratory tract it produces bronchoconstriction, with signs of drawing and
respiratory sounds.
c) In the exocrine glands they stimulate the secretion of sweat, salivary, digestive and
bronchial glands.
d) In the digestive system, muscarine and arecoline increase motor and secretory
activity.
e) All are correct
Justification :
The answer is found on slide 42 for cholinergic agonists and antagonists.

8. They are natural alkaloids except:

a) Oxotremorine.
b) Muscarine,
c) Pilocarpine
d) Arecoline
e) All are correct.
Justification:
The answer is found on slide 41 for cholinergic agonists and antagonists.

9. They are cholinergic muscarinic receptors

A) Made up of sub units m1,m2,m3,m4,m5,m6,m7,m8
B) Sub unit a1,b2
C) Neuronal nicotinic receptor b2,b3,b4
D) Everyone
E) None
answer on page 36

10. They are direct-acting cholinergics from the choline ester group:
A) Acetylcholine
B) Calbachol
C) Betathanechol
D)they are all correct
E) None
Justification:
Answer on page 41

11. Which of the substances inhibit the release of Ach from presynaptic endings:
A) Botulinum neurotoxins
B) Muscular nicotinic receptors b1
C) Betathanechol
D) All of the above
e) None
Justification:
Answer page 31:

12. List the cholinergic drugs with indirect action that inhibit acetylcholinesterase:
A) Physostine
B) Prostigma
C) Rivastigmine
D) All
e) None
Justification:
Answer on page 45

13. They are Direct Acting Cholinergics from the Choline Esters group:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Calbacol
c) Betanechol
d) All of them are correct
e) none is correct
Justification:
Answer page 151 from godman
14. Drugs that act directly on cholinergic receptors (they are
Direct-acting agonists stimulate muscarinic or postsynaptic receptors of the
parasympathetic)
a) Indirect Action Cholinergics
b) Direct Action Cholinergics
c) Direct acting adrenergics
d) None is correct
Answer page 168 from godman
15. Cholinergic drugs of indirect action are also called:
a) Cholinomimetics
b) Beta Adrenergic Blockers
c) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (IAchE)
d) none is correct
e) All of them are correct
Answer page 163 of the godman
 CATECHOLAMINERGIC AGONIST AND ANTAGONIST DRUGS
1. How are α-adrenoreceptors stimulated?
a) Adrenaline
b) Norepinephrine
c) Isopreline
d) Everyone
e) None
Justification: Alpha adrenoreceptors are stimulated by everyone.
2. Regarding adrenergic receptors, indicate the incorrect alternative.
a) They are molecular structures that selectively receive the adrenaline and norepinephrine
signal.
b) They are the muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.
c) They are molecular structures that selectively receive the epinephrine and norepinephrine
signal.
d) They are molecular structures that selectively receive the acetylcholine signal.
e) They are receptors coupled to the M protein.

3. What is the order of activation power of the B adrenoreceptors?

to) Adrenaline > norepinephrine > isoprenaline
b) Isoprenaline > adrenaline > norepinephrine
c) Norepinephrine > adrenaline > isoprenaline
d) Isoprenaline > norepinephrine > adrenaline
and) Norepinephrine > isoprenaline > adrenaline
Rationale: B- receptors (B adrenoreceptors) are the receptors stimulated by, in order of
potency, isoprenaline > adrenaline > norepinephrine.
4. What is the effect on the SA Node of the activation of B receptors?
to) Incrise of cardiac frecuency
b) Decreased heart rate
c) Increase in driving speed
d) Decrease in driving speed
and) Increased contractility
Justification:

5. What is the effect on the muscle of the uterus of the activation of alpha
adrenoreceptors?
to) Constriction
b) Relaxation
c) Contraction
d) All
and) None

Justification:
6. What pharmacological actions does adrenaline cause on the cardiovascular
system?
TO. Increased heart rate
b. Increased contraction speed
c. Increase in contraction force
d. All
AND. None
Justification:
Adrenaline is a powerful stimulant of beta and alpha receptors, which causes an increase in
heart rate, contraction speed and an increase in contraction force. Vasodilation of the
arteries of the muscular area, the coronary artery and other territories (β ₂ )

7. Which of the following is not a pharmacological action of adrenaline on smooth

muscle?
TO. Bronchodilation ( β₂ )
b. Relaxation of the gastrointestinal muscles
c. bronchial dilation
d. Relax the detrusor (β), contract the sphincter and trigone (α)
AND. None
The answer would be bronchial dilation because this is a pharmacological action of
isoprenaline.

8. What adverse reactions do α- and β-adrenergic drugs cause?

TO. Sinus tachycardia and arrhythmias
b. Palpitations, restlessness
c. Arterial hypertension
d. Respiratory difficulty
AND. All

9. Which of these is not a therapeutic application of α and β adrenergic drugs?

TO. cardiac applications
b. states of shock
c. Arterial hypertension
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
AND. All
Justification:
Cardiac arrhythmias are a therapeutic application of β-ADRENORECEPTOR ANTAGONIST
drugs.

10. Which of the following is not part of the dopamine receptors?

TO. Associated with adenyl cyclase activation
b. Associated with adenyl cyclase inhibition
c. Associated with decreased adenyl cyclase
d. A and b
AND. All
Justification:
The dopaminergic receptors are: D1 associated with activation of adenyl cyclase and D2
associated with inhibition of adenyl cyclase.

11. For dopamine agonists, mark the one that corresponds to the ergot derivatives?
TO. Bromocriptine
b. Lisuride
c. Cabergoline
d. All
AND. None
Justification:
Ergotic derivatives are: bromocriptine, cabergoline, lisuride (d1,d2)

12. Is one of the following a mechanism of action of α adrenoreceptor antagonists?

TO. They inhibit endogenous autonomic activity
b. They inhibit the action of β-antagonist drugs.
c. Activity on alpha receptors may be non-selective
d. None
AND. All
Justification:
Mechanism of action of alpha adrenoreceptor antagonists: they inhibit endogenous alpha
sympathetic activity, they inhibit the action of alpha agonist drugs, the activity on alpha
receptors can be non-selective, they are substances that show stereochemical affinity for
alpha adrenoreceptors.

13. Regarding therapeutic applications, which is part of the peripheral applications?

TO. Essential hypertension
b. Migraine
c. Prostatic hypotension
d. A and b
AND. All
Justification:
Peripheral applications are: migraine, essential hypotension, pheochromocytoma, essential
hypertension, benign prostatic hypertrophy.

14. Which of the sections does NOT correspond to the mechanisms of action of β
Blockers:
TO. They inhibit β sympathetic activity.
b. Activates the action of β agonist drugs.
c. Inhibition is competitive in nature.
d. They are derivatives of isoprelin.
AND. ALL.
Justification:
β-adrenoceptor antagonists INHIBIT the activation of β-antagonist drugs.

15. β-Adrenergic blockade is determined by the blockade of β 1 -adrenoceptors and

produces cardiovascular effects. Check the correct one:
TO. They reduce heart rate and increase myocardial contractility.
b. They reduce heart rate, decrease myocardial contractility and increase cardiac output.
c. It has a hypotensive effect, increases cardiac output and increases heart rate.
d. They reduce heart rate by acting on the sinus node, reduce cardiac output and
have a hypotensive effect.
AND. Increases heart rate, increases cardiac output, increases O2 consumption.
ANSWER: FLOREZ, page 270.

16. Check the β adrenergic antagonists that block β 1 and β 2 receptors:

TO. Alprenolol and nadolol.
b. Carteolol and alprenolol.
c. Oxprenolol and sotalol.
d. All.
AND. None.

Florez, page 270.

17. What are the advantages of β blockers?

TO. Reduce cardiac activity with doses that do not alter bronchial, vascular or uterine
tone, and do not interfere with carbohydrate metabolism.
b. Increases cardiac activity with doses that do not alter bronchial, vascular or uterine tone.
c. Reduce cardiac activity with doses that alter bronchial, vascular or uterine tone, interfere
with carbohydrate metabolism.
d. Interfere with carbohydrate metabolism, reduce cardiac activity.
AND. None

Justification:
Florez, page 273
GENERALITIES AND NEURO TRANSMISSION IN THE CENTRAL
NERVOUS SYSTEM
1.- Microglia is made up of:
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendroglia
c) Ependymal cells
d) Radial glia
e) All of the above
Justification:
THEY ARE ALL IN THE CNS, THE MACROGLIA IS MADE UP OF ALIGODENDROGLIA
ASTROCYTES, C, EPENDIMAL AND RADIAL GLIA. Page 244 book by Goodman and
Gilman 13th edition

2.-They are the most abundant and often surround the individual compartments of the
synaptic complexes:
a) Ependymal cells
b) Radial glia
c) Astrocytes
d) None
e) All
Justification:
Astrocytes are the most abundant and often surround the individual compartments of
synaptic complexes. Page 244 book by Goodman and Gilman 13th edition

3.-What factors can determine whether there will be resulting cellular damage or
protection:
a) Chronic neuro inflammation
b) Number of microglia
c) Astrocytes
d) All
e) None
Justification:
Chronic neuro inflammation, number of microglia, astrocytes can determine whether there
will be resulting cellular damage or protection. Page 245 book by Goodman and Gilman 13th
edition

4.- They are a super family of ionotropic receptors to maintain the resting potential
and responsible for the IPSPs that dampen neuronal excitability:
a) CL
b) NA
c) K
d) Mg
e) All
Justification:
CL channels are a super family of ionotropic receptors to maintain the resting potential and
responsible for IPSPs that dampen neuronal excitability. Page 274 book by Goodman and
Gilman 13th edition

5- What is the catecholamine that the brain uses in its neuronal systems?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Dopamine
c) Adrenaline
d) Everyone
e) None
Justification:
They are all since the brain contains several separate neuronal systems that use three
different catecholamines. P. 333 12th edition of pharmacology by Goodman and Gilman.
6.-Complete: Beta adrenergic receptors are coupled to the stimulation of the activity
of…
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Phosphatase
c) Potassium
d) Calcium
e) Phosphate
Justification:
In the central nervous system, three types of adrenergic receptors and their subtypes have
been described; they are all GPCRs. As occurs in the periphery, it is possible to differentiate
such central subtypes in a similar way in terms of their pharmacological properties and their
distribution. Beta adrenergic receptors are coupled to the stimulation of Adenylyl cyclase
activity. P. 333 12th edition of pharmacology by Goodman and Gilman.

7.-Complete: 5-HT ₃ antagonists are beneficial in the treatment of………….

Chemotherapy induced
a) Toxicity
b) Pain
c) Emesis
d) Vomiting
e) Blush
Justification:
The action of 5-HT at the level of 5-HT ₃ receptors can generate emesis and contraceptive
actions and 5-HT ₃ antagonists are beneficial in the treatment of emesis due to
chemotherapy. P. 334 12th edition of pharmacology by Goodman and Gilman.

8.- What histamine receptors mobilize calcium in the recipient cells?

a) H1
b) H2
c) H3
d) H4
Justification:
4 subtypes of histamine receptors have been described, all of which are GPCRs. H 1
receptors are the most notable, they enter the neuroglia and vessels and neurons. P. 335
12th edition of pharmacology by Goodman and Gilman.

9.-What is the mineral associated with the release of neurotransmitters from their
vesicles.
a) Potassium
b) Sulfur
c) Magnesium
d) Calcium
e) Manganese
Justification:
The answer is calcium, because the depolarization of the pre-synaptic end of the synapse
produces the entry of Calcium, for the release of neurotransmitters into the cleft. 248
goodmab and gilman 13 ed
10.-To conduct a nervous impulse, very quickly from neuron to neuron, through a
receptor, it is required:
a) G protein
b) Ligand-gated ion channels
c) Tyrosine kinase receptors
d) DNA receptors
e) RNA receptors
Justification:
The answer is ligand-dependent ion channels, as they allow the nerve impulse to be
conducted in a matter of milliseconds, unlike the others that take longer. 248.249 goodman
and gilman 13 ed

11.-They are neurotransmitters associated with the hyperpolarization of any cell:

a) GABA
b) Glutamate
c) Aspartate
d) Wisteria
e) A and d
Justification:
The answer is GABA and glycine because their ionotropic receptors allow the passage of
Chlorine into the cell. 251 and 252 goodman and gilman 13ed

12.-Catabolic enzymes in the synaptic cleft, such as acetylcholinesterase, are

responsible for:
to. Enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter
b. Transporter to the presynaptic end
c. Open voltage-gated sodium channels
d. Deactivate the neurotransmitter by dividing the molecule
Justification:
The answer is to deactivate the neurotransmitter, because these enzymes catabolize the
neurotransmitter into metabolites, which can later be recycled. 249 figure 14-4 goodman and
gilman 13ed

13.-What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS.

a) GABA
b) Acetylcholine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Everyone
e) None
Justification:
γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA), which is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the mammalian
CNS, was identified as a peculiar chemical component of the brain in 1950, but its capacity
and potency as a CNS depressant was not immediately identified (p. 330, book Goodman &
Gilman 12 edition)

14.-In which the movements of selective ions generate hyperpolarization, also with a
decrease in membrane resistance. They are called
a) Excitement
b) Regulatory
c) Inhibition
d) All
e) None
Justification:
(p. 329 book Goodman & Gilman 12 edition)

15.-endogenous substances that can also participate in the regulated flow of signals
between neurons
a) Purines, Diffusible Mediators, Cytokines.
b) Histamine, 5-Hydroxytryptamine.
c) Dopamine, norepinephrine, acetylcholine
d) Glycine, Glutamate and aspartate
e) None
Justification:
There are other endogenous substances that may also participate in the regulated flow of
signals between neurons, but in sequences of events that differ to some degree from the
accepted concepts of neurotransmitter function. (p. 336 book Goodman & Gilman 12 edition)

16.-The effect of a drug is considered to be specific when

a) It causes an effect in many different target cells and acts through various molecular
mechanisms.
B) It affects a single identifiable molecular mechanism of the target cells that have receptors
for that drug.
c) It is usually a property of the dose-reaction relationships of the drug and the cell.
d) None
e) All
Justification:
Specificity and nonspecificity of pharmacological actions in the central nervous system. The
effect of a drug is considered to be specific when it affects a single identifiable molecular
mechanism of the target cells that have receptors for that drug. (p. 336 book Goodman &
Gilman 12 edition)

OPIOID ANALGESIC DRUGS

1. What group of drugs has affinity for opioid receptors?
a) Opioids
b) Anxiolytics and sedatives
c) Opioid analgesics
d)Neuroleptics
e) None
JUSTIFICATION
2. Indicate which family of endogenous opioids is
a) Morphine, Codeine, Thebaine
b) Papaverine, Endorphin, Meperidine
c) Enkephalin, Methadone, Thebaine
d) Endorphin, Enkephalin, Dynorphin
e) Naloxa, Meperidine, Methadone
JUSTIFICATION

3. Indicate which family of endogenous opioids is

a) Morphine, Codeine, Thebaine
b) Papaverine, Endorphin, Meperidine
c) Enkephalin, Methadone, Thebaine
d) Endorphin, Enkephalin, Dynorphin
e) Naloxa, Meperidine, Methadone
JUSTIFICATION
4. The most common immediate neuronal response to the action of an opioid is
characterized by:
a) Reduction of bioelectric activity
b) Reduction in the release of neurotransmitters
c) Increase in bioelectric activity
d) B and c are correct
e) A and b are correct
JUSTIFICATION

5. Functional classification of opioid analgesics

a) Pure agonists
b) Agonists – Mixed antagonists
c) Partial agonists
d) Pure antagonists
e) All are correct
JUSTIFICATION
6. What are the respiratory effects related to opioid drugs?
a) Respiratory depression
b) Miosis
c) Temporary blindness
d) Bradycardia and vasodilation
e) Everyone

7. What is the response of the genitourinary system to the presence of opiate drugs?
TO. Increases uterine contractility and does not allow them to pass through the placenta
b. They decrease uterine contractility and cross the placenta
c. Contributes substantially to improving the condition of the uterus
d. None is correct
AND. All

8. What is the effect of opioid drugs on the immune system?

TO. Increase in the body's immune response
b. Inhibition of phagocytosis and bactericidal effect
c. Inhibition of phagocytosis and fungicidal effect
d. Bactericidal effect and increased phagocytosis
AND. All
JUSTIFICATION
9. How are opiate drugs excreted from the body?
TO. By glomerular filtration by kidney, very little by breast milk
b. Through glomerular filtration at the pancreatic level, in large quantities through breast milk
c. At the liver level and through feces
d. All are correct
AND. None is correct
JUSTIFICATION

10. What are the cardiac effects of opioid drugs?

a) Tachycardia and vasodilation
b) Bradycardia and vasoconstriction
c) Bradycardia and vasodilation
d) Tachycardia and vasoconstriction
e) None of the above
JUSTICATION
11. Opioid drugs are primarily metabolized by:
a) Acetylation
b) Glucuronidation
c) Sulfoconjugation
d) B and C are correct
e) None of the above
Justification:

12. Which of the following is not a therapeutic use of opioid drugs?

a) Headache
b) Anesthesia
c) Traumatic pain
d) Hypotension
e) All are therapeutic uses
Justification:
13. Which of the following drugs is not a MINOR OPIOID?
a) Morphine
b) Tramadol
c) Codeine
d) Dihydrocodeine
e) None of the above is a minor opioid
Justification:

14. It is a synthetic opioid that replaces morphine, has a long half-life and oral
bioavailability of 85%.
a) Meperidine
b)Tramadol
c) Methadone
d) Propoxyphene
e) None
JUSTICATION
15. Powerful opioid used in anesthesia and ICU, in transdermal patches, use in
oncology and acceptable in case of morphine intolerance
a) Fentanyl
b) Oxycodone
c) Naloxone
d) A and c
e) None

16. It is a pure antagonist, it antagonizes the release of endorphins and is used as an

adjuvant in alcoholism therapy.
a) Codeine
b) Propoxyphene
c) Morphine
d) Naltrexone
e) None
JUSTIFICATION

17. How long after the last dose of morphine does the withdrawal syndrome begin in
addicted patients.
 a) 12 – 20 HOURS
b) 2 – 7 HOURS
c) 36 – 48 HOURS
d) 30 – 60 MINUTES
JUSTIFICATION

ANXIOLYTICS AND SEDANTS

[Link] is the antidote for CNS depression induced by BENZODIAZEPINES?

to. Phenobarbital
b. Chlordiazepoxide
c. Estrogens
d. Flumazenil
and. Allobarbital

Answer: D – Flumazenil (Reverses depressive effects on the CNS in case of BZD overdose,
it is fast acting and short lasting)

2. Does FLUMAZENIL reduce the effects of BARBITURATES?

BUT
Answer: NO. (Barbiturates act on a different GABA receptor subtype than benzodiazepines)

3. Which two classes of sedative-hypnotic drugs are potentially lethal with overdose,
withdrawal, or both?
to. Barbiturates
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alcohols
d. A and C
and. None
Answers: A and C. (Benzodiazepines can be potentially lethal but to a lesser extent than
barbiturates and alcohols)

4. Are BZD compounds HIGH POTENCY?

to. Chloracepate and Clobazam
b. Chlordiazepoxide and Oxacepam
c. Triazolan and Diazepam
d. Lorazepam and Alprazolam
and. None

Answer: D. (Lorazepam, alprazolam, triazolam and clonazepam are all high potency bzd
compounds)

[Link] is the first choice treatment for panic attacks:

TO. Diazepam
b. Imipramine
c. Buspirone
d. Flumazenil
AND. Ipsapirone
ANSWER : B
Imipramine is the first choice treatment for panic attacks, reducing their frequency and
severity.

6. Flumazenil is:
A) First benzodiazepine antagonist
B) Partial agonist with minimal intrinsic activity
C) Its main activity lies in anesthetic practice
D) None
E) All

ANSWER: E
Flumazenil is the first benzodiazepine antagonist introduced into the therapeutic Arsenal. It
is a partial agonist with minimal intrinsic activity, so that at very high doses a certain
anticonvulsant action is revealed. Its main therapeutic utility lies in anesthetic practice, to
reverse sedation caused by benzodiazepines.

7. From a functional point of view, anxiolytics are classified:

A) Those that produce a sedative-hypnotic effect
B) Partial agonists of 5-HTA receptors
C) Those that produce a blocking effect of some vegetative component
D) None
E) All
ANSWER: And all opinions are correct, this is how they are classified from a functional point
of view

NEUROLEPTIC ANTICONVULSIVATIVE AND ANTIDEPRESSANT DRUGS

1. Indicate which does NOT belong to the typical Antipsychotics:
a) Benamides
b) Butyrophenones
c) Phenothiazines
d) Thioxanthenes
e) All
ANSWER: (Page 520 Flores, table 31-1) Typical antipsychotics are: Phenothiazines,
Thioxanthenes, Butyrophenones, Diphenylbutylpiperidine and analogues of Phenothiazines.

2. According to the mechanism of action of antipsychotics, their maximum affinity is

presented by:
a) D1 and D2
b) D1,D2,D3 and especially D1
c) D2, D3, D4 and especially D2
d) D2, D3, D5 and especially D5
e) None
ANSWER C:
Its maximum affinity occurs in D3, D4 and especially in D2 since the blockade of D2
receptors is clinically related to the action on the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, but
also to the increase in prolactin secretion.
3. According to the characteristics of Phenothiazines:
a) Improves the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
b) Blocks dopaminergic receptors
c) It has low therapeutic action
d) Improves negative and cognitive symptoms.
e) A and B
ANSWER A and B: Phenothiazines block dopaminergic receptors, improve the positive
symptoms of schizophrenia and produce sedation and decreased motor activity.

4. One of the following characteristics does NOT belong to typical antipsychotics

A) They have a blocking action on D ₂ receptors
B) Negative symptoms improve little or not at all and show extrapyramidal reactions
C) Between 25% and 60% of patients maintain symptoms. They are considered refractory to
treatment
D) They improve or suppress the fundamental and secondary symptoms of
schizophrenic syndromes
E) None
Justification:
Typical antipsychotics have little or no improvement in negative symptoms and show
extrapyramidal reactions.
(Page 17/41, slide Dr. W. Pedro Rivera Marquez)

5. If we talk about the pharmacokinetics of neuroleptic drugs, CHECK THE FALSE

A) By intramuscular route, bioavailability in 10 to 30 min
B) Passes into fetal circulation and breast milk
C) Its distribution is uniform at a general level
D) Metabolites are eliminated through urine and less through bile
e) Everyone
Justification:
When talking about the distribution of neuroleptic drugs, it is not uniform, it accumulates in
the brain and lung
(Page 22/41, slide Dr. W. Pedro Rivera Marquez)
6. Which of these drugs does NOT belong to the TIAXONTENES family?
A) Chlorprotixen
B) Thiothixene
C) Zuclopenthixol
D) Haloperidol and droperidol
E) Everyone belongs
Justification:
The following drugs belong to the Thiaxontene family: Chlorprothixene, Thiotixene,
Zuclopentixol. (Page 18/41, slide Dr. W. Pedro Rivera Marquez)

7. Antidepressant drugs do not modify the mood in healthy individuals, therefore,

they are not drugs that can create addiction.
A) False
B) True
ANSWER : TRUE, page 536 book human pharmacology by Jesús Flórez.
[Link] mechanism of action of antidepressant is the specific inhibition caused
immediately on the activity of transport molecules of:
A) Serotonin and adrenaline
B) Dopamine and Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin and Norepinephrine
D) Dopamine and Serotonin
E) Everyone
ANSWER: C the most commonly accepted mechanism is the specific inhibition caused
immediately on the activity of the serotonin and norepinephrine transport molecules in the
pre-synaptic membrane of the respective brain neurons).

[Link], tricyclic antidepressants

A) They have low liposubility
B) It is not well absorbed orally
C) They bind strongly to plasma proteins
D) All of the above
E) None
ANSWER : C pharmacokinetic characteristics of tricyclic antidepressants, page 539-541
human pharmacology book by Jesus Florez.

10. Phenothiazines were the first drug used for the treatment of psychosis?
A) TRUE
B) Fake
11. Mark the INCORRECT box about phenothiazines.
a) Blocks dopamine receptors
b) Improves positive symptoms of schizophrenia
c) Produces sedation, decreased motor activity, emotional indifference
d) It is an atypical antipsychotic
e) All

12. Which of these is NOT an adverse reaction?

A) Akatasia
B) Endocrine disruption
C) Antipsychotic action
D) Allergic reaction
 NEUROTRANSMISSION IN THE NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. How is the Autonomous Nervous System constituted on the efferent side?
a) Sympathetic or Thoracolumbar output pathway and Parasympathetic or
Craniosacral output pathway
b) Sympathetic or Craniosacral output pathway and Parasympathetic or Thoracolumbar
output pathway
c) Sympathetic or Thoracolumbar entry pathway and Parasympathetic or Craniosacral exit
pathway
d) Sympathetic or Craniosacral input pathway and Parasympathetic or Thoracolumbar
output pathway
e) None
P. 138

[Link] normal conditions, the sympathetic system is in continuous activity; Its

degree of activity varies from moment to moment and from one organ to another.
a) True
b) False
P. 142

[Link] most cases, sympathetic and parasympathetic neurotransmitters can be

considered as
a) Physiological or Functional Antagonists.
b) Physiological or Functional Agonists
c) Cholinergic Agonists
d) Everyone
e) None
P. 142
4. The following substances are catecholamines:
A) Norepinephrine, dopamine, adrenaline
B) Acetylcholine, norepinephrine, GABA
C) Adrenaline, serotonin, acetate
D) None
E) All of the above
Justification: it is important to know them to know the possible interactions between
endogenous catecholamines and many of the drugs to treat hypertension, mental disorders
and other disorders. (p. 187 Goodman and Gilman)

5. NETs (naradrenaline transmitters) are inhibited by

A) Dosipranine, cocaine, nisoxetine
B) Marijuana, paracetamol, albendazole
C) Alcohol, ivermectin, omeprazole
D) None
E) All of the above
Justification:
Transmitter inhibitors must be known because they are important in therapeutics, thus
recognizing the interactions they may have with different drugs which may limit therapeutic
efficacy (page 189 Goodman and Gilman).

6. When cells and tissues sensitive to catecholamines are exposed to adrenergic

agonists, there is a progressive decrease in their ability to react to said compounds. It
is known as:
A) Resistance
B) Desensitization
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) None
AND) all of the above
justification: they can significantly limit the therapeutic efficacy and duration of action of
catecholamines and other agents pag197 Goodman and Gilman)

7. B adrenergic receptors share:

a) 60% amino acids
b) Fixed cavities for the EPI and NE
c) Functional groups in the catecholamine agonist molecule
d) All
e) None
8. What agent causes the anticholinergic effect to prevent skeletal muscle
contraction:
a) Vesamicol
b) Reserpine
c) Botulinum toxin
d) Methacholine
e) None

9. Blockage of the transport system in the cholinergic nerve terminal membrane is

due to the agent:
a) Trotoxin
b) Hemicolinium
c) Topiramate
d) All
d) None
10. NPY functions include:
a) The direct postsynaptic contractile effect
b) Enhancement of contractile effects
c) Adrenergic storage
d) A and b
e) All

1.- What is the molecular basis of adrenergic receptors?

A) GPCR
b) GPCE
c) GPSR
d) RCPD
e) GGPR
2.- What type of protein do adrenergic receptors couple to?
a) Protein C
b) Protein D
c) Protein G
d) Protein F
e) Protein K

3.- What are the G protein subtypes?

a) Gs, Gq, Gi and Go
b) Gq, Gs, Gp and Go
c) GS, Gq, Gr, and Go
d) Gq, Gs, Gg and Go
e) Gs, Gq, Gk and Go

4.- What is tachyphylaxis?

to) Oversensitization of receptors to catecholamines
b) It is desensitization to catecholamines.
c) It is the state in which the receptors do not capture catecholamines
d) Everyone
e) None

OPIOIDS
[Link] to an overdose of morphine, stupor appears that evolves into coma; respiratory
depression, leading to apnea and secondary metabolic alterations. Please indicate
your treatment:
a) Dihydrochodna
b) Naloxone
c) Methadone
d) Nalbuphine
e) None
Explanation: Their treatment requires the use of naloxone because they antagonize both
the action of opiate drugs and that of endogenous and exogenous opioid peptides:
hypotension, analgesia, respiratory depression, etc. Page 438

[Link] should NOT be used in:

a) Myocardial infarction
b) Angina pectoris
c) Hypotensive
d) A and c
e) A and b

Explanation: It frequently causes tachycardia, hypertension and increased myocardial O2

consumption, so it should not be used in angina pectoris and myocardial infarction, but in
hypotensive patients. Page 443

3. Which of the following factors most determines the adverse reaction of naloxone?
a) They do not exert appreciable effects
b) High doses
c) Administration time
d) Intestinal pH
Explanation: In patients treated with high doses of opioids, naloxone can cause a
hypertensive crisis, with tachycardia and even ventricular fibrillation and acute pulmonary
edema. It is recommended to start its administration with very small doses and monitor
cardiovascular response. Page 444
4. Which enkephalins play a neuromodulatory role in the CNS and bind to opioid
receptors?
a) Preproenkephalin and preprodynorphin
b) Preproopiomelanocortin and endorphins
c) Methionine-enkephalin and leucine-enkephalin
d) None
e) Everyone
Explanation: Methionine-enkephalin and leucine-enkephalin bind to opioid receptors,
causing analgesia and playing a neuromodulatory role. found in the spinal cord, brain, limbic
system, etc. Page 429

5. What endorphin is the main one involved in pain modulation?

a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Range
d) Sigma
e) Everyone
Explanation: The main pain modulator is beta endorphin since it is a powerful analgesic
with actions similar to morphine that are released in situations of stress and anxiety.

6. What is the opioid agonist used for moderate or severe pain?

a) Oxycodone
b) Meperidine
c) Fentanyl
d) None
e) All
Explanation: All are used in moderate or severe pain because they have analgesic and
morphine-like effects.

7. Tramadol is a phenylpiperidine cyclohexane that is somewhat similar to codeine.

What are the most common effects it produces?
a) Nervous irritation
b) Miosis
c) Increased pressure in the bile ducts
d) A and B
e) All
Explanation: Tramadol may cause nausea, vomiting, sedation, dry mouth, nerve irritation,
orthostatic hypotension with tachycardia, and gastrointestinal upset.

8. What is the main function of the opioid trapendatol?

a) Hypotension
b) Itching
c) Treatment of severe chronic pain in adults
d) Respiratory depression
e) None
Explanation: Its extended-release formulation is authorized for the treatment of severe
chronic pain in adults.
9. What is the most powerful and longest lasting opioid?
a) Naxolone
b) Tapentadol
c) Remifentanil
d) Buprenorphine
e) None
Explanation: Buprenorphine is the best characterized opiate of this group and is about 25-
30 times more powerful than morphine, the analgesia is very long-lasting.

10. What are the effects of stimulation of μ-1 receptors?

a) Analgesia
b) Respiratory depression
c) Tachycardia
d) Pruritus
e) None
Explanation: The effects on μ-1 receptors are: Analgesia , sedation, nausea and vomiting,
constipation, urinary retention, miosis, bradycardia, fever, tolerance. PAGE 23

11. What are the effects of stimulation of μ-2 receptors?

a) Respiratory depression
b) Sedation
c) Dependency
d) None
e) All
Explanation: The effects on μ-2 receptors are: Sedation, respiratory depression,
dependence. PAGE 23

12. What are the effects of stimulation of К receptors?

a) Miosis
b) Nausea
c) Vomiting
d) None
e) Everyone
Explanation: The effects on the k receptors are: Weak analgesia, sedation, respiratory
depression, miosis , weak tolerance. PAGE 23

13. What is the opioid agonist used in anesthesia and ICU in moderate or severe pain?
a) Fentanyl
b) Oxycodone
c) Meperidine
d) None
e) Everyone
Fentanyl is a powerful opioid used in anesthesia and ICU, in transdermal patch it is released
slowly and steadily for oncological use, it is fat-soluble, which is why it starts quickly and has
a short analgesic duration.
14. What is the opioid used in acute pain?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Nalaxone
c) Naltrexone
d) Meperidine
e) None
The synthetic opioid meperidine used in acute pain, has an analgesic effect of 2 to 3 hours
and a potency 10 times greater than morphine.

15. What opioid replaces morphine?

a) Methadone
b) Tramadol
c) Propoxyphene
d) None
e) Everyone
Synthetic opioid methadone replacing morphine, superior in multiple doses, oral
bioavailability of 85%
 CNS DRUGS
Anxiolytic and sedative drugs (page 401, Goodman)
1-With respect to benzodiazepines, all alternatives are correct, except:
a) They act on the GABA B receptor
b) At hypnotic doses in normal individuals, they do not show any effect on respiration
c) They can cause respiratory depression when associated with opioids
d) They are metabolized by enzymes in cytochrome P450.
EXPLANATION:
Benzodiazepines are hypnotic drugs that act by modulating GABA-A (incorrect alternative A)
receptors, leading to depression of the central nervous system. In general, they do not lead
to respiratory depression, which can occur in case of concomitant use with other CNS
depressants, such as opioids (correct alternatives B and C). Metabolization of drugs in this
class occurs by enzymes in cytochrome P450 (correct alternative D). Answer to. General
anesthetic drugs (page 341, Goodman)

2- Which of the characteristics is not common among intravenous anesthetics?

a) They are hydrophobic
b) They are small compounds
c) They are good anesthetic inducers
d) It does not diffuse well in adipose tissue
EXPLANATION: Intravenous anesthetics diffuse well into adipose tissues because they
have small, hydrophobic molecules. Answer: D. Neuroleptic antipsychotic drugs (page
461, Goodman)

3-The proposed mechanism for parkinsonian effects related to the use of

antipsychotics is:
a) Blockade of the muscarinic receptor
b) Antagonism of the alpha1 adrenergic receptor
c) Blockade of the dopamine receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway
d) Blockade of the hypothalamic histaminergic H1 receptor
EXPLANATION :
The caudate nucleus has an inhibitory role in the motor cortex, and the substantia nigra,
through the release of dopamine through the nigrostriatal pathway, which, in turn, has an
inhibitory role in the caudate. That is, dopamine inhibits those who inhibit movement. In
parkinsonian syndrome, the striatum is free to inhibit the motor cortex, because there is no
dopamine to inhibit it, and that is why parkinsonism is a hypertonic-hypokinetic syndrome,
which progresses with bradykinesia. Therefore, the proposed mechanism for parkinsonian
effects is dopamine receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway. Correct answer, letter C.

4-Due to the important association of atypical antipsychotics with the components of

the metabolic syndrome, it is important to know the relationship between
antipsychotic substances and diabetes, only the following is not recommended:
a) Risk-benefit assessment
b) Within the evaluation of adverse effects, several factors must be assessed, such as the
nature of the patient's psychiatric condition, objectives, pharmacological history, compliance,
medication effectiveness, comorbidities and cost.
c) The risks of the clinical implications of the components of the metabolic syndrome
should not influence the choice of medication.
d) Monitoring should be carried out, if possible, before the prescription of atypical
antipsychotics, determine height and weight, calculate body mass index (BMI), measure
waist circumference and blood pressure, and also measure the fasting glucose and lipid
profile.
EXPLANATION:
Clozapine and olanzapine are the antipsychotics most associated with weight gain.
Alternative A: CORRECT. A risk-benefit assessment should be done for all medications to
be prescribed. Alternative B: CORRECT. Correctly describes the variables that must be
taken into account when prescribing an antipsychotic. Alternative C: INCORRECT. The risk
of weight gain and the development of metabolic syndrome should be considered when
prescribing antipsychotics, especially atypicals. Alternative D: CORRECT. Metabolic
evaluation is indicated before the introduction of atypical antipsychotics, to monitor their side
effects.

1- According to the adverse reactions of valproic acid, indicate the correct answer
a) Produces general alterations
b) It does not have a teratogenic risk
c) Produces gastrointestinal alterations
d) None
Explanation – the most common adverse reactions are digestive disorders such as
dyspepsia, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, constipation, weight gain and diarrhea. Florez, page
483

2- According to the pharmacological actions of carbamazepine.

a) It is not a treatment for trigeminal neuralgia
b) It has a wide spectrum
c) Does not inhibit paroxysmal discharges
d) It is a narrow spectrum antiepileptic
e) Everyone
Explanation – It is a narrow spectrum antiepileptic due to its effectiveness in focal seizures,
in tonic-clonic seizures of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, trigeminal neuralgia, neuropathic
pain and prophylaxis of bipolar disorder. Florez, page 491
3- Based on your knowledge of drug dependence, analyze and complete the statement
correctly:
''For the acquisition of an addictive behavior, the presence of a ………….. is required. whose
effects are considered worthy of being re-experienced.''
a) Pharmacokinetics
b) Psychoactive substance
c) Active solution
d) Biological molecule
e) None
Explanation – a substance is psychoactive if it alters some function of the central nervous
system, if it produces perceptible changes in mood, cognition or behavior, it is not necessary
to alter consciousness. These stimuli do not have to be related to the pharmacological
properties of the substance. For example, in the case of tobacco, the ritual of obtaining,
handling and lighting the cigarette become stimuli that, no matter how often they are
repeated, end up signaling smoking. Florez, page 548

4- The effectiveness of therapeutic applications of Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors,

ACEIs, in Alzheimer's disease is appreciated in which cases?
a) Mild or moderate
b) Critical cases
c) Preventive cases
d) None
e) Everyone
Explanation – effectiveness is seen in mild or moderate cases with a positive impact on the
cognitive area, behavior and daily living skills. The response of ACEIs in the advanced
phase of the disease is complicated because patients normally stop benefiting from their
use. However, treatment should be based on the patient's individual situation. Florez, p. 571

· Opioid analgesic drugs

1. Adverse reactions to opioid drugs that may appear initially may be: (indicate the
incorrect item)
a) Drowsiness
b) fatigue
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) States of confusion
Explanation: initially the following usually appear: nausea and vomiting, which are greater
in patients with an upright or ambulatory position, but partial tolerance is created; drowsiness
and instability; confusional states. (page 436 book by Flórez)

· Antidepressant and antimanic drugs

2. Select the correct item: about tricyclic antidepressants:
a) They stimulate the reception of serotonin and adrenaline in a greater proportion
b) They inhibit the reception of serotonin and adrenaline to a greater extent
c) They inhibit the reception of serotonin and adrenaline in variable proportions.
d) They stimulate the reception of serotonin and adrenaline in variable proportions.
Explanation: They are derivatives of the tricyclic prototype imipramine and are
characterized by inhibiting in variable proportions the reception of norepinephrine and
serotonin, and blocking receptors for various biogenic amines, which contributes to their
abundant adverse reactions. (Page 536, Flórez)

3. Venlafaxine and Duloxentine belong to:

a) Selective norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c) Adrenaline reuptake inhibitors
d) Acetylcholine reuptake inhibitors
e) None of the above
Explanation: Selective norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors: they share
fundamental actions with serotonin reuptake inhibitors, but they differ in that they affect other
receptors differently and therefore their side effects will be different. (p., 536, Flórez)
· Pharmacology of abnormal movements. Antispastic drugs

4. How are dopamine agonists and activators classified?

a) Ergotic derivatives
b) Non-ergotic derivatives
c) None
d) A and B

Explanation: ergot derivatives: they are the most widely used agonists in anti-Parkinsonian
therapy. Non-ergot derivatives: Pramipexole and ropinirole administered orally, rotigotine
used as a transdermal patch and apomorphine administered parenterally. (p. 506, Flórez)

1. Which of the following drugs belongs to the family of antitussive drugs.

to. codeine
b. methadone
c. dihydrocodeine
d. b and c
and. All
Explanation:
These are some drugs that are used more or less frequently that act on the cough center. P.
679 (Flórez)

2. Which of the following drugs does NOT act as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

to. tacrine
b. galantamine
c. donepezil
d. codeine
and. all
Explanation:
Codeine is an antitussive drug that acts on the cough center. P. 569 and 679 (Florez)

3) Regarding memantine which is not correct.

to. Acts on nicotinic receptors
b. They are eliminated through the kidneys
c. It is completely absorbed in the digestive tract
d. It has a half-life of 60 to 100 hours
and. All
Explanation:
Memantine acts on NMDA receptors as a partial agonist so that, without interfering with the
physiological actions of the neurotransmitter in memory and learning processes, it can
counteract the neurotoxicity of glutamate in cases of Alzheimer's.
P. 571 (Florez)

4) With respect to aggressive behavior, which of the following drugs can be used as a
control measure.
to. Lithium
b. Dexamphetamine
c. Atomoxetine
d. All
and. None
Explanation:
Lithium has a stabilizing action in manic disorders, so it could also serve to calm attacks of
anger and aggression.
P. 575 (Florez)