DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

PRELIMS FITNESS – 2024
T.B.C :P-SIA-F-UPGI
ENVIRONMENT
Serial :PFB1-232439
TEST – 39 F
Time Allowed :One Hour Maximum Marks :100

INSTRUCTIONS

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THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
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APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
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provided alongside. DO NOTwrite anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

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Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
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concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
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THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 (2-F)
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1. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Bioaccumulation refers to the tendency of below.
pollutants to concentrate as they move (a) 1 and 2 only
from one trophic level to next. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Bioaccumulation occurs when the rate of (c) 1 and 3 only

concentration of substance is higher than (d) 1, 2 and 3

the rate of substance vanished by

catabolism or by excretion.
4. With reference to the biotic interaction,
Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following pairs:
correct?
Interaction Examples
(a) 1 only
1. Amensalism - Pencillium and
(b) 2 only
Bacteria
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Parasitism - Remora and Shark
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Commensalism - Trees and
epiphytic plants

2. Consider the following characteristics of a How many of the above pairs are correctly

pollutant matched?

1. Long lived (a) Only one

2. Mobile (b) Only two

3. Solubility in water (c) Only Three

(d) None
4. Biologically Inert

How many of the above factors causes

biomagnification of pollutant? 5. Consider the following

(a) Only One 1. Mites

(b) Only Two 2. Springtail

(c) Only Three 3. Nematodes

(d) All four 4. Earthworm

5. Woodlice

How many of the above organisms are detritus

3. Which of the following species can establish
feeders?
mutualistic or symbiotic relationships with
(a) Only two
other organisms?
(b) Only three
1. Cnidarian (c) Only Four
2. Hermit crab (d) All five
3. Termites

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6. With reference to the Environmental 8. Consider the following statements
succession, consider the following statements 1. Succession occurring on a land where

Statement 1: moisture content is low is called as

hydrach.
Succession occurs faster in the margins of a
large continent. 2. A pioneer species generally show low
growth rate but longer life span.
Statement 2 :
3. Sere community is the final stage of
All propagules or seeds of plants belonging to
succession which is stable, mature and
different seres reach much faster resulting in
climax community. long lasting

How many of the above statements are

Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements? incorrect?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are (a) Only one

correct and Statement 2 is the correct (b) Only two

explanation for Statement 1 (c) All three
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are (d) None
correct and Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation for Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is 9. With reference to the Sulphur cycle, consider
incorrect the following statements
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
1. The sulphur cycle is purely sedimentary
correct.
without any gaseous component in its
cycle.
7. Consider the following statements 2. Sulphur is incorporated into the proteins
1. Primary succession occurs at a rate faster of autotroph tissue and passes through
than the secondary succession.
grazing food chain.
2. Secondary succession occurs in an area
3. Pyrite rock is an inorganic deposits of
where the climax community has been
sulphur in sedimentary cycle.
disturbed.
How many of the above statements is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one

(b) 2 only (b) Only two

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

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10. Which of the following elements causes the 13. Consider the following statements regarding
excessive growth of rooted and free floating Carbon cycle

microscopic plants in lakes ? 1. Oceans comprise of 50% more Carbon di

oxide in comparison to the atmosphere.
(a) Phosphorus
2. Carbon is the basic constituent of all
(b) Sulphur
Organic Compounds forming around half
(c) Nitrogen
of the weight of all organisms.
(d) Carbon
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
11. Consider the following
(a) 1 Only

E
1. Nitrogen constitutes nearly 50% by weight
(b) 2 Only

IN
of all the proteins. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Atmosphere provides the inexhaustible (d) Neither 1 nor 2

L
supply of nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle.

N
3. Elementary form of nitrogen is readily
.O
14. Which of following terms describes the
used by most of the living organisms.
structural and functional characteristics of an
L

How many of the above statement is/are organism developed during the course of
IA

correct? evolution enabling them to survive and

R

(a) Only one reproduce in a particular environment?

E

(b) Only two

(a) Adaptation
T

(b) Ecological Niche

(c) Only three
A

(c) Mutuation
(d) None
M

(d) Variation
C

12. Which of the following are nitrifying bacteria

S
P

capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen ? 15. Consider the following statements

U

1. Azotobacter 1. Phosphorous, calcium and magnesium

circulate through sedimentary cycles
2. Clostridium
2. Elements in sedimentary cycle does not
3. Rhizobium
flow through atmosphere
4. Pseudomonas
3. Biological transport plays an important
5. Spirulina
role in sedimentary cycle
Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the above statement is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) Only two

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) Only three

(d) None
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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16. Consider the following statements, 18. Which one of the following terms describes the

Statement-I process of extraction of metals from their ores

From the trophic structure of the ecosystem, it through living organisms and is one of several
is clear that theamount of energy decreases at
applications within biohydrometallurgy?
each subsequent trophic level.

Statement-II (a) Bioremediation

A part of available energy is lost due to (b) Bioleaching

respiration at each trophic level and a part of (c) Biotransformation
energy is lost at each transformation, when it
(d) Bioaugmentation
moves from higher to lower trophic level as

E
heat.

IN
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements? 19. Formaldehyde, a hydrocarbon is sprayed as a

L
(a) Both Statement Iand Statement IIare pesticide on a Sunflower farm. The food chain

N
correct and Statement IIis the correct
is sunflower-flies-frog-snake-eagle. In this food
.O
explanation of the statement I.
(b) Both Statement Iand Statement II are chain the lowest concentration of pesticide will
L

correct and Statement IIis not the correct

accumulate in which one of the following?
IA

explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement Iis correct but Statement IIis (a) Sunflower
R

incorrect. (b) Frog

E

(d) Statement Iis incorrect but Statement IIis

T

correct. (c) Snake

A

(d) Eagle
M

17. With reference to Ecological efficiency, which

of the following statement is correct?
C

(a) It is the ratio between amount of energy 20. Consider the following statements,
S

acquired from lower tropic level and the

P

1. Blue-green algae
amount of energy transferred from higher
U

tropic level. 2. Fertilizer factories

(b) It refers to environmental benefits 3. Thunder and lightning
generated by production activities which
4. Human feces
produce carbon emission at same time.
(c) It refers to delivery of goods and services to
Which of the above add nitrogen to the
meet human needs and at the same time
progressively reducing environmental nitrogen cycle on earth?
impact of goods and resource intensity
during their life cycle. (a) One only
(d) It is the ratio between amount of energy (b) Two only
acquired from higher tropic level and the
(c) Three only
amount of energy transferred to lower
tropic level. (d) All four

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21. Consider the following statements, Which of the following above are Ex situ
1. Chemical oxygen demand is a measure of bioremediation techniques?
oxygen equivalent to the requirement of (a) One only
oxidation of total organic matter present in (b) Two only
the water.
(c) Three only
2. Biological oxygen demand is the amount of
(d) All four
dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria to
decompose the organic waste present in
the water. 24. With respect to Eutrophication, consider the

Select the correct answer code. following:

E
(a) 1 only 1. It is an ecosystem response due to the

IN
(b) 2 only addition of artificial or natural nutrients.

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The growth of green algae which we see in

L
the lake surface layer is the physical

N
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
identification of an Eutrophication
.O
22. Which one of the following is the best How many of the above statements are
L

description of term “Biosparging”? correct?

IA

(a) Contaminated soil is excavated and spread (a) 1 only

R

over a prepared bed and periodically tilled. (b) 2 only

E

(b) It is a hybrid landfarming and composting (c) Both 1 and 2

T

used for treatment of surface (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

contamination with petroleum

M

hydrocarbons
C

(c) It involves processing of contaminated soil 25. With respect to harmful algal blooms, consider
S

material or water through an engineered the following:

P

contaminated system. 1. All algal blooms are harmful as they

U

(d) It involves injecting air under pressure release toxins which threaten the marine

below the water table to enhance the rate mammals and humans.

of biodegradation of contaminants by 2. Warm Water is conducive to the

naturally occurring bacteria. occurrence of algal blooms.

3. Red tide is a kind of algal bloom

23. Consider the following: How many of the above statements are

1. Bioventing correct?

2. Biopiles (a) Only One

3. Bioreactors (b) Only Two
4. Biosparging (c) All three
(d) None

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26. Consider the following: Which of the following statements are correct
1. Autotrophs in the respect of the above statements?
2. Atmospheric gases
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Soil organisms
correct and Statement-II is the correct
4. Soil topography
explanation for Statement-I.
Which of the following are biotic component of
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Environment?
(a) Only one correct and Statement-II is not the correct

(b) Only two explanation for Statement-I

(c) Only three (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

E
(d) All four incorrect

IN
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
27. Consider the following statements:

L
correct

N
1. Community is a group of organisms
usually of same species occupying a
.O
definite area during a specific time. 29. Which of the following is the community of
L

2. Population is a group of actually or organisms together with the physical

IA

potentially interacting species living in

environment they live?
same location.
R

(a) Ecosystem
Which of the following statements are correct?
E

(b) Habitat
(a) 1 only
T

(c) Ecological Niche

A

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Biosphere
M

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

C

30. Consider the following statements:

S
P

28. Consider the following statements: 1. Primates

U

Statement-I 2. Nematodes
The characteristic patterns of the community 3. Arthropods
of plants and animals is reflected in the roles 4. Annelids
played by various population, their range, the
Which of the following are macro consumers?
type of area they inhabit, and the spectrum of
interaction between them. (a) One only
Statement-II (b) Two only
The environment factors determine the (c) Three only
characteristic of the community as well as the
(d) All the four
pattern of organisation of members in the
community.

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31. Which of the following are the goods and Which one of the following is correct in respect
services provided by the ecosystem? of the above statements?
1. Stabilization and moderation of Earth’s
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
climate.
correct and Statement-II is the correct
2. Purification of air and water.
explanation for Statement-I.
3. Decomposition of plastic and
petrochemical waste. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

4. Cultural and aesthetic benefits correct and Statement-II is not the correct
5. Provision of shelter and building material. explanation for Statement-I
6. Pollination of plants, including many crops (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

E
control of pests and diseases.
incorrect

IN
Select the correct answer using the codes (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is

L
given below:
correct.

N
(a) 1 and 2 only .O
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 34. With reference to ecological niche, consider
L

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 the following:

IA

1. No two species have exact identical niches.

R

32. Consider the following statements: 2. Knowledge about niche is ideal when it
E

1. Chilika lake
comes to conservation of species.
T

2. Savana grasslands of Africa

A

3. The mangroves of the Sundarbans Which of the following statements are correct?
M

(a) 1 only
How many of the above are Ecotone?
C

(a) One only (b) 2 only

S
P

(b) Two only (c) Both 1 and 2

U

(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) None

35. Which one of the following terms describe the

33. Consider the following statements:
organisms which primarily or most
Statement-I
abundantly occur in an ecotone?
A well-developed ecotone contains some
organisms which are entirely different from (a) Primary species

that of the adjoining communities. (b) Edge species

Statement-II (c) Cohesion species
An ecotone is a zone of junction between two
(d) Niche species
or more diverse ecosystem.

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36. With reference to the food web in ecosystem, 39. Consider the following statement
consider the following statements
Statement 1: A pyramid of energy is always
1. A food web represents an interconnected
network of feeding relationships among upright in any ecosystem.
organisms in an ecosystem. Statement 2: An energy pyramid more
2. A food web illustrates all possible transfer accurately reflects the laws of
of energy among organisms in an
thermodynamics with loss of energy depicted
ecosystem.
at each transfer to another trophic level.
3. A food web increases an organism’s
chances of survival. Which one of the following is correct in respect
How many of the statements given above of the above statements?
is/are correct?

E
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(a) Only one

IN
correct and Statement 2 is the correct
(b) Only two
explanation of the statement 1.
(c) All three

L
(d) None (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are

N
correct and Statement 2 is not the correct
.O
37. Consider the following statements: explanation of Statement 1.
1. An Ecological pyramid is a graphical
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
L

representation of trophic levels in an

IA

incorrect.
ecosystem.
2. Saprophytes which play vital role in (d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 1
R

ecosystem are not represented in is correct.

E

ecological pyramids.
T

3. Rate of energy transfer is well represented

A

in the ecological pyramids. 40. Consider the following statements,

M

1. Gross primary productivity refers to the

How many of the above statements is/are
correct? total amount of solar energy fixed into
C

(a) Only one organic matter by primary producers

S

(b) Only two

P

through photosynthesis.
(c) Only three
U

2. Gross primary productivity minus the rate

(d) None
of energy loss to metabolism is called as
net primary productivity.
38. Consider the following statements
1. A pyramid of numbers is inverted in both 3. The ratio of net primary productivity to the
forest and grassland ecosystem. gross primary productivity is called as
2. A pyramid of biomass is inverted in Production efficiency.
aquatic ecosystem.
Which of the statement given above is/are
Which of the statements govern above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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41. Which of the following are the partnership 44. “India out” Campaign led by a political party
countries with ASEAN in RegionalCooperation led to their electoral victory in acountry.
and Economic Partnership?
Which among the following country is related
1. USA
to the context?
2. Australia
(a) Srilanka
3. China
4. New Zealand (b) Nepal

5. India (c) Maldives

6. Japan (d) Myanmar
7. Saudi Arabia

E
How many of the above statements are
45. What is Blue Ammonia?

IN
correct?
(a) By-product CO2 emitted is captured and
(a) Only four

L
stored.
(b) Only five

N
(c) Only six (b) It is produced using 100% renewable and
.O
(d) Only seven carbon free source.
(c) Ammonia present in oceans and coastal
L

42. Yom-Kippur war, Camp David and Oslo

ecosystem
IA

accords is sometime mentioned in thenews in

(d) It refers to ammonia produced during
R

the context of the affairs of

fossil fuels.
(a) Somalia
E
T

(b) Yemen
A

(c) Israel 46. With reference to Medical Termination of

M

(d) China Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021(MTP

act,2021), consider the following:
C

43. “Project Mariana” sometimes mentioned in the

S

1. Abortion is illegal under Indian Penal code

P

news refers to which amongthe following?

312 and 313, unless it is performed in a
(a) It is a project backed by world bank and
U

supported by InternationalSeabed manner prescribed in MTP, act.

Authority for exploration of polymetallic 2. Abortion beyond 24 weeks available only

nodules. on the grounds of substantial foetal
(b) It is an effort involving Bank for abnormalities on the advice of medical
International settlements, on testingcross
board.
border trading of central bank digital
Select the correct answer code:
currencies.
(a) 1 only
(c) It is a project of Ministry of Earth science,
India to build a deepdiving vehicle to (b) 2 only

explore Mariana trench. (c) Both 1 and 2.

(d) It is an initiative of UNEP to conserve (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
Aquatic biodiversity in PacificOcean
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47. With reference to National Commission of 49. With reference to Cement industry, consider
Minority Educational Institution,consider the the following:
following: 1. India is the world’s largest cement
1. It is a statutory body endowed with powers producer accounting for more than 15% in
of civil court andestablished by National worldwide installed capacity.
Commission of Minority Educational 2. Madhya Pradesh in India is the largest
InstitutionAct, 2004. producer of cement and hold 23 cement
2. The Act ensures the rights of minorities plants in the state.
under Article 30 of Indianconstitution to 3. According to International energy Agency,
establish and administer educational
cement manufacturing industries are

E
institution of theirchoice.
second largest emitter of CO2 in the world.

IN
3. Both linguistic and religious minorities
How many of the above statements are
come under the ambit of this actas Article-
correct?

L
30 of Indian constitution ensures.

N
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two
.O
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
L

(d) None
(b) Only two
IA

(c) All three

50. Consider the following statements:
R

(d) None
Indian objectives of
E
T

operations/ those operations

48. With reference to Prompt coercive action
A

(PCA) framework of RBI, consider the following actions

M

statements: 1. Operation Ajay - evacuate citizens

C

1. It is a framework under which the banks from Israel.

S

with weak financial metrics due to poor 2. Operation - brought back

P

asset quality and vulnerable to loss of Ganga Indian citizens

U

profitability are put under watch. from Sudan

2. The prompt coercive action framework is 3. Operation - brought back
only applicable to both private and public Kaveri Indian citizens
sector banks.
from Ukraine
3. When prompt coercive action is sanctioned
How many of the above pairs are correctly
on a bank they cannot enter into new line
matched?
of business.
(a) Only one pair
Select the correct answer code:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two pair

(b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three pairs

(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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PRELIMS FITNESS 2023-24

TEST 39 – ENVIRONMENT
EXPLANATION

1. Consider the following statements

1. Bioaccumulation refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic
level to next.
2. Bioaccumulation occurs when the rate of concentration of substance is higher than the rate of
substance vanished by catabolism or by excretion.

E
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

IN
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

L
(c) Both 1 and 2

N
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
.O
EXPLANATION:
L
IA

Bioaccumulation is defined as a process of intensification in the concentration of a chemical

compound in a living organism over a period related to the chemical’s concentration in the
R

environment. Accumulation of various noxious matters, like pesticides, insecticides or various

E

chemicals in the body of an organism, is known as bio-accumulation. Biomagnification refers to the

T

tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next. So,
A

Statement 1 is not correct.

M

The process of bioaccumulation occurs in an organism when the rate of absorption of substance is
C

higher than the rate of substance vanished by catabolism or by excretion. Hence, biological half-life
S
P

of a toxic substance directly impacts on the hazard of chronic intoxication. So, Statement 2 is
U

correct.

2. Consider the following characteristics of a pollutant

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1. Long lived
2. Mobile
3. Solubility in water
4. Biologically Inert

How many of the above factors causes biomagnification of pollutant?

(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three
(d) All four

EXPLANATION:

E
IN
Bio-magnification is also known as biological magnification or bio-amplification. It is defined as the

L
increasing concentration of toxic chemicals in the tissues of biotics at consecutively upper tropic

N
levels in a food chain. They get gradually higher in concentration because they are fused into the food
.O
of lower organisms like zooplankton, which are the food of next tropic level for fish, which in turn is
consumed by bigger fish than animals, birds or humans or sequentially higher trophic levels. This
L

increase in the concentration is due to persistence, food chain energetics, or excretion of the
IA

substance. In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be:

long-lived
R

➢
mobile
E

➢
T

➢ soluble in fats (not water)

A

➢ biologicallyactive (not inert).So, Option (b) is correct.

M
C

3. Which of the following species can establish mutualistic or symbiotic relationships with other
S
P

organisms?
U

1. Cnidarian
2. Hermit crab
3. Termites

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

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➢ Mutualism is a close association between two species in which both the species benefit. For
example, in protocorporation, the sea anemone, a cnidarian, gets attached to the shell of hermit
crabs for the benefit of transport and obtaining new food.
➢ In contrast, the anemone provides camouflage and protection by means of its stinging cells to the
hermit crab.
➢ However, some mutualisms are so intimate that the interacting species can no longer live without
each other as they depend totally on each other to survive. Such close associations are called
symbiosis. An example of such close mutualistic association is that of termite and their intestinal
flagellates. Termites can eat wood but have no enzymes to digest it.
➢ However, termites' intestines contain certain flagellate protists (protozoans) that have the necessary

E
enzymes to digest the cellulose of the wood eaten by termites and convert it into sugar. So, Option

IN
(d) is correct.

L
N
4. With reference to the biotic interaction, consider the following pairs:
.O
Interaction Examples
1. Amensalism - Pencillium and Bacteria
L

2. Parasitism - Remora and Shark

IA

3. Commensalism - trees and epiphytic plants

R

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

E

(a) Only one

T
A

(b) Only two

(c) Only Three
M

(d) None
C
S

EXPLANATION:
P
U

Amensalism is a negative association between two species in which one species harms or restricts
the other species without itself being adversely affected or harmed by the presence of the other
species. Organisms that secrete antibiotics and the species that get inhibited by the antibiotics are
examples of amensalism. For example, the bread mold fungi Penicillium produce penicillin, an
antibiotic substance that inhibits the growth of a variety of bacteria. Pencillium benefits
apparently by having greater availability of food when the competition because of the bacteria is
removed. So, Pair (1) is correct.

In the parasitism type of interaction, one species is harmed and the other benefits. Parasitism
involves a parasite, usually a small-sized organism living in or on another living species called the
host, from which the parasite gets its nourishment and often shelter. The parasite is benefited and
the host is harmed. Many organisms like animals, bacteria and viruses are parasites of plants and

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animals. Plants like dodder plant (Cuscuta) and mistletoe (Loranthus ) are parasites that live on
flowering plants. Tap worms, roundworms, malarial parasites, many bacteria, fungi, and viruses
are common parasites of humans. The remora get protection, a free ride as well as meal from the
left over of the shark’s meal is the example of commensalism. So, Pair (2) is not correct.

Commensalism: In this relationship, one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed
nor benefited. Some species obtain the benefit of shelter or transport from another species. For
example, commensalism is the relationship between trees and epiphytic plants. Epiphytes live on
the surface of other plants like ferns, mosses and orchids and use the surface of trees for support
and for obtaining sunlight and moisture. The tree gets no benefit from this relationship, nor are
they harmed. So, Pair (3) is correct.

E
5. Consider the following

IN
1. Mites

L
2. Springtail

N
3. Nematodes
4. Earthworm
.O
5. Woodlice
L

How many of the above organisms are detritus feeders?

IA

(a) Only two

R

(b) Only three

E

(c) Only Four

T

(d) All five

A

EXPLANATION:
M

Decomposer, Also known as saprotrophs. Mostly, these are microscopic and are heterotrophic in
C

➢
S

nature. Decomposer organisms obtain their energy and nutrients by degrading dead organic
P

matter. When plants and animals die, their bodies are still a source of energy and nutrients, as are
U

their waste products such as urine and faces, which they discard throughout their lifetimes. These
organic remains are decomposed by micro-organisms, namely fungi and bacteria, which grow
saprophytically on these remains. They secrete digestive enzymes from their dead and wasted
materials.
➢ Although, strictly the term decomposer relates to saprophytic organisms, Some typical terrestrial
detritivoresare : earthworm , woodlice, millipedes and other smaller (< 0.5 mm) animals such as
mites, springtail and nematodes. So, Option (d) is correct.

6. With reference to the Environmental succession, consider the following statements

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Statement 1: Succession occurs faster in the margins of a large continent.

Statement 2 : All propagules or seeds of plants belonging to different seres reach much faster resulting
in climax community.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for
Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for
Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

E
IN
EXPLANATION:

L
Succession is a universal process of directional change in vegetation on an ecological time scale.

N
Succession occurs when a series of communities replace one another due to large scale destruction,
.O
either natural or artificial. This process continues - one community replacing another community,
until a stable, mature community develops. Succession in which, initially, the green plants are
L

much greater is quantity is known as autotrophic succession, and the ones in which the
IA

heterotrophs are greater in quantity is known as heterotrophic succession. Succession would occur
R

faster in areas existing in the middle of the large continent. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
E

Succession is a progressive series of changes that leads to the establishment of a relatively stable
T

climax community. Succession would occur faster in areas existing in the middle of the large
A

continent. This is because, here, all propagules or seeds of plants belonging to the different seres
M

would reach much faster, establish and ultimately result in the climax community. So, Statement 2
C

is correct.
S
P

7. Consider the following statements

U

1. Primary succession occurs at a rate faster than the secondary succession.

2. Secondary succession occurs in an area where the climax community has been disturbed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

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The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called
ecological succession. During succession, some species colonize an area, and their populations
become more numerous, whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. In
that difference between primary and secondary succession, the secondary succession starts on a
well-developed soil already formed at the site. Thus, secondary succession is relatively faster as
compared to primary succession which may often require hundreds of years. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.

Secondary succession occurs when plants recognize an area in which the climax community has
been disturbed. Secondary succession is the sequential development of biotic communities after the
complete or partial destruction of the existing community. A mature or intermediate community may

E
be destroyed by natural events such as floods, droughts, fires, or storms or by human interventions

IN
such as deforestation, agriculture, overgrazing, etc. So, Statement 2 is correct.

L
8. Consider the following statements

N
1. Succession occurring on a land where moisture content is low is called as hydrach.
.O
2. A pioneer species generally show low growth rate but longer life span.
3. Sere community is the final stage of succession which is stable, mature and long lasting
L

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

IA

(a) Only one

R

(b) Only two

E

(c) All three

T

(d) None
A

EXPLANATION:
M
C

Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas) or it is on very dry
S

areas – a succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession

P

takes place in wetter areas, and the successional series progresses from hydric to mesic
U

conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas, and the series progresses
from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium
water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). So, Statement 1 is not
correct.

The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks,
these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering
and soil formation. These later pave the way to some very small plants like bryophytes, which are
able to take hold in the small amount of soil. They are, with time, succeeded by bigger plants, and
after several more stages, ultimately, a stable climax forest community is formed. A pioneer
species generally show a high growth rate but a short life span. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The
individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the
successive seral stages there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the
number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. A climax community
is stable, mature, more complex and long-lasting. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

9. With reference to the Sulphur cycle, consider the following statements

1. The sulphur cycle is purely sedimentary without any gaseous component in its cycle.
2. Sulphur is incorporated into the proteins of autotroph tissue and passes through grazing food

E
chain.

IN
3. Pyrite rock is an inorganic deposits of sulphur in sedimentary cycle.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

L
(a) Only one

N
(b) Only two
.O
(c) All three
L

(d) None
IA

EXPLANATION:
R

Sulphur is released by weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter
E

and is carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems in salt solution. The sulphur cycle is mostly
T

sedimentary except two of its compounds hydrogen sulphide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2 ) add
A

a gaseous component to its normal sedimentary cycle. Sulphur enters the atmosphere from several
M

sources like volcanic eruptions, combustion of fossil fuels, from surface of ocean and from gases
C

released by decomposition. Atmospheric hydrogen sulphide also gets oxidised into sulphur dioxide.
S

Atmospheric sulphur dioxide is carried back to the earth after being dissolved in rainwater as
P

weak sulphuric acid. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

U

Whatever the source, sulphur in the form of sulphates is take up by plants and incorporated
through a series of metabolic processes into sulphur bearing amino acid which is incorporated in
the proteins of autotroph tissues. It then passes through the grazing food chain. Sulphur bound in
living organism is carried back to the soil, to the bottom of ponds and lakes and seas through
excretion and decomposition of dead organic material. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The sulphur reservoir is in the soil and sediments where it is locked in organic (coal, oil and peat)
and inorganic deposits (pyrite rock and sulphur rock) in the form of sulphates, sulphides and
organic sulphur. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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E
IN
L
10. Which of the following elements causes the excessive growth of rooted and free floating microscopic

N
plants in lakes ?
.O
(a) Phosphorus
L

(b) Sulphur
IA

(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon
R
E

EXPLANATION:
T
A

Phosphorus plays a central role in aquatic ecosystems and water quality. Unlike carbon and nitrogen,
M

which come primarily from the atmosphere, phosphorus occurs in large amounts as a mineral in
phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities. This is the nutrient
C

considered to be the main cause of excessive growth of rooted and free-floating microscopic plants in
S
P

lakes. The main storage for phosphorus is in the earth’s crust. On land phosphorus is usually found
U

in the form of phosphates. By the process of weathering and erosion phosphates enter rivers and
streams that transport them to the ocean. So, Option (a) is correct.
11. Consider the following
1. Nitrogen constitutes nearly 50% by weight of all the proteins.
2. Atmosphere provides the inexhaustible supply of nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle.
3. Elementary form of nitrogen is readily used by most of the living organisms.

How many of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:

Nitrogen is an essential constituent of protein and is a basic building block of all living tissue. It
constitutes nearly 16% by weight of all the proteins. Nitrogen is a key component of proteins,
nucleic acids, amino acids, enzymes, and co-enzymes. It's found in all organisms, primarily in
amino acids and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). The percentage of protein in a material can be
calculated from the amount of nitrogen it contains. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
➢ There is an inexhaustible supply of nitrogen in the atmosphere but the elemental form cannot be
used directly by most of the living organisms.
➢ Nitrogen in its gaseous form (N2) can't be used by most living things. (Plants for example, do not
have the required enzymes to make use of atmospheric nitrogen.) It has to be converted or 'fixed' to

E
a more usable form through a process called fixation..Nitrogen fixation can occur through

IN
biological, industrial, or atmospheric processes. Biological nitrogen fixation is the conversion of

L
atmospheric nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH3), which can be used by plants. This process is limited

N
to bacteria and archaea, and does not occur in eukaryotes. So, Statements 2 is correct and 3 is
.O
not correct.
L
IA

12. Which of the following are nitrifying bacteria capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen ?
R

1. Azotobacter
E

2. Clostridium
T

3. Rhizobium
A

4. Pseudomonas
M

5. Spirulina
C

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

S

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

P

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

U

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

EXPLANATION:

➢ Certain microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions. These
include free living nitrifying bacteria (e.g. aerobic Azotobacter and anaerobic Clostridium) and
symbiotic nitrifying bacteria living in association with leguminous plants and symbiotic bacteria
living in non leguminous root nodule plants (e.g. Rhizobium) as well as blue green algae (e.g.
Anabaena, Spirulina).
➢ Certain quantity of soil nitrates, being highly soluble in water, is lost to the system by being
transported away by surface run-off or ground water. In the soil as well as oceans there are special

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denitrifying bacteria (e.g. Pseudomonas), which convert the nitrates/nitrites to elemental nitrogen.
This nitrogen escapes into the atmosphere, thus completing the cycle. WhilePseudomonas is
denitrifying bacteria. So, Option (b) is correct.

13. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon cycle

1. Oceans comprise of 50% more Carbon di oxide in comparison to the atmosphere.
2. Carbon is the basic constituent of all Organic Compounds forming around half of the weight of all
organisms.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

E
(a) 1 Only

IN
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2

L
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

N
.O
EXPLANATION:
L

Carbon is fixed in the form of energy by plants through photosynthesis. During photosynthesis
IA

carbon dioxide present in the air (atmosphere) and dissolved in the water is used. A large amount of
carbon dioxide is also found dissolved in oceans. Oceans comprise of 50% more carbon dioxide in
R

comparison to atmosphere. The major source of carbon in all living beings, dead organic matter and
E

fossil deposits is in the form of carbon [Link], Statement 1 iscorrect.

T
A

The carbon cycle is the biogeochemical cycle by which carbon is exchanged between the biosphere,
M

lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere of the Earth. Carbon is the basic constituent of all
organic compounds and is the major element forming around 49% of the weight of the organisms.
C

The atmosphere also consists of around 0.032% carbon. The carbon dioxide (gaseous form of
S
P

carbon) from the atmospheric reservoir is taken up by the producers and then transferred to
U

consumers to decomposers and back to reservoir. Atmospheric carbon dioxide is absorbed by

plants and other photosynthetic organisms present in the terrestrial [Link], Statement 2 is
correct.

14. Which of following terms describes the structural and functional characteristics of an organism
developed during the course of evolution enabling them to survive and reproduce in a particular
environment?
(a) Adaptation
(b) Ecological Niche
(c) Mutuation
(d) Variation

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EXPLANATION:

Adaptations are structural and functional characteristics which organisms have developed during
the course of evolution enabling them to survive and reproduce in a particular environment. The
term adaptation has therefore an evolutionary significance. So, Option (a) is correct.

E
IN
L
N
.O
L
IA
R

15. Consider the following statements

E

1. Phosphorous, calcium and magnesium circulate through sedimentary cycles

T
A

2. Elements in sedimentary cycle does not flow through atmosphere

3. Biological transport plays an important role in sedimentary cycle
M

How many of the above statement is/are correct?

C
S

(a) Only one

P

(b) Only two

U

(c) Only three

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

In sedimentary cycles, the main reservoirs are soil, rocks and minerals. The sulphur cycle, for
example, has both sedimentary and gaseous phases within the cycle. The phosphorus cycle is wholly
sedimentary. Phosphorus, calcium and magnesium circulate by means of the sedimentary cycle. So,
Statement 1 is correct.

The element involved in the sedimentary cycle normally does not cycle through the atmosphere
Though there are variations in the sedimentary cycles of different elements, each one has two abiotic
phases: the salt solution phase and the rock phase. The salt solution phase is when the nutrient

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occurs in a water-soluble form. Rock phase is when the nutrient is a constituent of rock. In the
sedimentary cycles both these phases can be seen prominently. These two phases of the cycle of any
element are very closely linked to each other. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Sedimentary cycles follows a basic pattern of flow through erosion, sedimentation, mountain
building, volcanic activity and biological transport through the excreta of marine birds. Other
minerals go through sedimentation and become incorporated into salt beds, silts and limestones.
After weathering, they return to the earth’s crust and again enter the cycle. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

16. Consider the following statements,

E
Statement-I

IN
From the trophic structure of the ecosystem, it is clear that theamount of energy decreases at each

L
subsequent trophic level.

N
Statement-II
.O
A part of available energy is lost due to respiration at each trophic level and a part of energy is lost at
L

each transformation, when it moves from higher to lower trophic level as heat.
IA

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

R

(a) Both Statement Iand Statement IIare correct and Statement IIis the correct explanation of the
E

statement I.
T

(b) Both Statement Iand Statement II are correct and Statement IIis not the correct explanation of
A

Statement I.
M

(c) Statement Iis correct but Statement IIis incorrect.

(d) Statement Iis incorrect but Statement IIis correct.
C
S

EXPLANATION:
P
U

The ratio between the amount of energy acquired from the lower trophic level and the amount of
energy transferred from higher trophic level is called ecological efficiency. Lindman in 1942 defined
these ecological efficiencies for the 1st time and proposed 10% rule e.g. if autotrophs produce 100
cal, herbivores will be able to store 10 cal. and carnivores 1cal. However, there may be slight
variations in different ecosystems and ecological efficiencies may range from 5 to 35%.

It is clear from the trophic structure of an ecosystem that the amount of energy decreases at each
subsequent trophic level. This is due to two reasons. So, Statement I is correct.
➢ At each trophic, a part of the available energy is lost in respiration or used up in metabolism,
➢ A part of the energy is lost at each transformation, i.e., when it moves from a lower to higher trophic
level as [Link], Statement II is not correct.

17. With reference to Ecological efficiency, which of the following statement is correct?

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(a) It is the ratio between amount of energy acquired from lower tropic level and the amount of
energy transferred from higher tropic level.
(b) It refers to environmental benefits generated by production activities which produce carbon
emission at same time.
(c) It refers to delivery of goods and services to meet human needs and at the same time progressively
reducing environmental impact of goods and resource intensity during their life cycle.
(d) It is the ratio between amount of energy acquired from higher tropic level and the amount of energy
transferred to lower tropic level.

EXPLANATION:

E
From the trophic structure of an ecosystem, It is clear that the amount of energy decreases at each

IN
subsequent trophic level. This is due to two reasons: one, at each trophic, a part of the available
energy is lost in respiration or used up in metabolism. Two, a part of energy is lost at each

L
transformation, i.e., when it moves from a lower to a higher trophic level as heat.

N
It is the ratio between the amount of energy acquired from the lower trophic level and the amount of
.O
energy transferred from the higher trophic level is called ecological efficiency. Lindman, in 1942,
L

defined these ecological efficiencies for the 1st time and proposed a 10% rule, e.g., if autotrophs
IA

produce 100 cal, herbivores will be able to store 10 cal. and carnivores 1cal. However, there may be
slight variations in different ecosystems, and ecological efficiencies may range from 5 to 35%.
R

Ecological efficiency (also called Lindman’s efficiency) can be represented as

E
T
A
M
C

So, Option (a) is correct.

S
P
U

18. Which one of the following terms describes the process of extraction of metals from their ores through
living organisms and is one of several applications within biohydrometallurgy?
(a) Bioremediation
(b) Bioleaching
(c) Biotransformation
(d) Bioaugmentation

EXPLANATION:

Bioleaching (or biomining) is a process in mining and biohydrometallurgy (natural processes of

interactions between microbes and minerals) that extracts valuable metals from low-grade ore with
the help of microorganisms such as bacteria or archaea. Bioleaching techniques are often more

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effective than traditional mining applications and can even be used to clean mine tailings sites.
There are many types of bioleaching processes, and copper is the most common. A few of the most
popular types of bioleaching extract metals from ore by retrieving sulfide minerals using bacteria
that receive energy from non-carbon compounds. So, Option (b) is correct.

19. Formaldehyde, a hydrocarbon is sprayed as a pesticide on a Sunflower farm. The food chain is
sunflower-flies-frog-snake-eagle. In this food chain the lowest concentration of pesticide will
accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Sunflower
(b) Frog

E
(c) Snake

IN
(d) Eagle

L
EXPLANATION:

N
Bioaccumulation describes the accumulation and enrichment of contaminants in organisms
.O
relative to those in the environment. Bioaccumulation is the net result of all uptake and loss
L

processes, such as respiratory and dietary uptake, and loss by egestion, passive diffusion,
IA

metabolism, transfer to offspring, and growth. Hence, It is the increase in concentration of

pollutants from the environment to the first organism in a food chain. Hence, the least would be
R

sunflower. So, option (a) is correct.

E
T
A
M
C
S
P
U

20. Consider the following statements,

1. Blue-green algae
2. Fertilizer factories
3. Thunder and lightning
4. Human feces

Which of the above add nitrogen to the nitrogen cycle on earth?

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(a) One only

(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) All four

EXPLANATION:

Nitrogen cycle, the circulation of nitrogen in various forms through nature. Nitrogen, a component
of proteins and nucleic acids, is essential to life on Earth. Although 78 percent by volume of
the atmosphere is nitrogen gas, this abundant reservoir exists in a form unusable by most
organisms. Through a series of microbial transformations, however, nitrogen is made available

E
to plants, which in turn ultimately sustain all animal life. The steps, which are not altogether

IN
sequential, fall into the following classifications: nitrogen fixation, nitrogen assimilation,
ammonification, nitrification, and denitrification. Nitrogen needs to be ‘fixed,’ that is, converted to

L
ammonia, nitrites or nitrates before plants can take it up. Nitrogen fixation on earth is

N
accomplished in three different ways.
.O
➢ By microorganisms (bacteria and blue-green algae)
L

➢ By man using industrial processes (fertilizer factories)

IA

➢ To a limited extent by atmospheric phenomena such as thunder and lighting

R

So, Option (d) is correct.

E
T
A
M
C
S
P
U

21. Consider the following statements,

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1. Chemical oxygen demand is a measure of oxygen equivalent to the requirement of oxidation of total
organic matter present in the water.
2. Biological oxygen demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria to decompose the
organic waste present in the water.
Select the correct answer code.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

E
IN
The higher value of biological oxygen demand indicates a lowdissolved Oxygen (DO) content of water.
Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only, therefore, it is not a reliable method of

L
measuring pollution load in water. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a better mode used to measure

N
pollution load in water. It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total
.O
organic matter (i.e., biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in [Link], Statement 1 is
L

correct.
IA

The higher amounts of waste increase the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption, thereby
decreasing the DO content of water. The demand for O2 is directly related to the increasing input of
R

organic wastes and is expressed as the biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water. Water pollution by
E
T

organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). BOD is the amount of
A

dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria to decompose the organic wastes present in water. It is
M

expressed in milligrams of oxygen per liter of [Link], Statement 2 is correct.

C
S

22. Which one of the following is the best description of term “Biosparging”?
P

(a) Contaminated soil is excavated and spread over a prepared bed and periodically tilled.
U

(b) It is a hybrid landfarming and composting used for treatment of surface contamination with
petroleum hydrocarbons
(c) It involves processing of contaminated soil material or water through an engineered contaminated
system.
(d) It involves injecting air under pressure below the water table to enhance the rate of
biodegradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria.

EXPLANATION:

Biosparging is one of the In situ bioremediation techniques, which means the Injection of air under
pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate
of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria. The other bioremediation

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techniques are one, Bioventing: supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to
stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for simple hydrocarbons and can be used where
the contamination is deep under the [Link] two, Bioaugmentation: Microorganisms areimported
to a contaminated site to enhance degradation [Link], option (d) is correct.

E
IN
L
N
.O
L
IA

23. Consider the following:

1. Bioventing
R

2. Biopiles
E

3. Bioreactors
T
A

4. Biosparging
M

Which of the following above are Ex situ bioremediation techniques?

C

(a) One only

S

(b) Two only

P

(c) Three only

U

(d) All four

EXPLANATION:

Bioremediation is the use of microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to degrade environmental

contaminants into less toxic forms. Bioremediation strategies are two types In situ and Ex situ. Ex
situ involves the removal of the contaminated material to be treated elsewhere.
➢ Landfarming - contaminated soil is excavated and spread over a prepared bed and periodically tilled
until pollutants are degraded. The goal is to stimulate indigenous biodegradative microorganisms
and facilitate their aerobic degradation of contaminants.
➢ Biopiles - it is a hybrid of landfarming and composting. Essentially, engineered cells are constructed
as aerated composted piles. Typically used for Treatment of surface contamination with petroleum

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hydrocarbons.
➢ Bioreactors - involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water
through an engineered containment system.
➢ Composting – dealt with earlier in solid waste management.

Thus, Bioventing and Biosparging are in situ bioremediation strategies. So, option (b) is correct.

24. With respect to Eutrophication, consider the following:

1. It is an ecosystem response due to the addition of artificial or natural nutrients.
2. The growth of green algae which we see in the lake surface layer is the physical identification of an

E
Eutrophication

IN
How many of the above statements are correct?

L
(a) 1 only

N
(b) 2 only
.O
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
L
IA

EXPLANATION:
R

Eutrophication is a syndrome of ecosystem, response to the addition of artificial or natural

E

nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates through fertilizer, sewage, etc that fertilize the aquatic
T

[Link] is primarily caused by the leaching of phosphate and - or nitrate containing fertilisers
A

from agricultural lands into lakes or rivers. So, Statement 1 is correct.

M

Nutrient enrichment, can lead to the growth of blue-green algae . This process occurs when there is
C

an excess of nutrients, primarily nitrogen and phosphorus, in water. These nutrients can come
S
P

from sources like animal waste, effluent, and agricultural pollution.

U

The growth of green algae which we see in the lake surface layer is the physical identification of an
Eutrophication. Some algae and blue-green bacteria thrive on the excess ions and a population
explosion covers almost entire surface layer is known as algal bloom. So, Statement 2 is correct.

25. With respect to harmful algal blooms, consider the following:

1. All algal blooms are harmful as they release toxins which threaten the marine mammals and
humans.
2. Warm Water is conducive to the occurrence of algal blooms.
3. Red tide is a kind of algal bloom

How many of the above statements are correct?

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 [Link]

(a) Only One

(b) Only Two
(c) All three
(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Algae or phytoplankton are microscopic organisms that can be found naturally in coastal waters.
They are major producers of oxygen and food for many of the animals that live in these waters.
When environmental conditions are favorable for their development, these cells may multiply
rapidly and form high numbers of cells and this is called an algal bloom.

E
Most algal blooms are not harmful, but some produce toxins and do affect fish, birds, marine

IN
mammals and humans. The toxins may also make the surrounding air difficult to breathe. These
are known as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs). So, Statement 1 is not correct.

L
Blooms occur when several colonies start combining rapidly when conditions such as nutrient

N
concentrations, salinity and temperature are optimal. Blooms can be due to a number of reasons.
.O
Two common causes are nutrient enrichment and warm waters. Nutrient enrichment of water,
especially phosphates and nitrogen, is often the result of pollution and can cause algal blooms.
L
IA

Water temperature has also been related to the occurrence of algal blooms, with unusually warm
water being conducive to blooms. So, Statement 2 is correct.
R

Red Tide is a common name for such a phenomenon where certain phytoplankton species contain
E

pigments and “bloom” such that the human eye perceives the water to be discolored. Blooms can
T

appear greenish, brown, and even reddish-orange depending upon the type of organism, the type
A

of water, and the concentration of the organisms. The term “red tide” is thus a misnomer because
M

blooms are not always red, they are not associated with tides, they are usually not harmful, and
C

some species can be harmful or dangerous at low cell concentrations that do not discolor the
S

water. They are scientifically referred as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs). So, Statement 3 is
P

correct.
U

26. Consider the following:

1. Autotrophs
2. Atmospheric gases
3. Soil organisms
4. Soil topography

Which of the following are biotic component of Environment?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:

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A biotic factor is a living thing that has an impact on another population of living things or on the
environment. Abiotic factors do the same thing, but they are non-living. Together, biotic and abiotic
factors make up an ecosystem. To survive, biotic factors need abiotic factors.
➢ Biotic factors are both organisms and the food the organisms eat. There are 3 categories of biotic
factors, autotrophs, heterotrophs, and detritivores. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
➢ There are 3 categories of abiotic factors, climatic, edaphic, and social. Climatic factors are
components such as water, sunlight, humidity, climate, temperature, and pH. Edaphic refers to
abiotic factors like the geography of the land, and soil characteristics such as the mineral content.
The topography of the land such as elevations, mountains, valleys, depressions, and slopes all
contribute to the characteristics of an ecosystem. social abiotic factors are clear-cutting of forests,

E
mining, dam building, and farming. So, Statements 2 and 4 are not correct.

IN
L
N
.O
L
IA
R
E
T
A
M
C
S
P
U

27. Consider the following statements:

1. Community is a group of organisms usually of same species occupying a definite area during a
specific time.
2. Population is a group of actually or potentially interacting species living in same location.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
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Population is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined area during a
specific time. Members of a population often rely on the same resources, are subject to similar
environmental constraints, and depend on the availability of other members to persist over time.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.

An ecological community is a group of actually or potentially interacting species living in the same
location. Communities are bound together by a shared environment and a network of influence
each species has on the other. Community ecology is an expanding and rich subfield of ecology.

For example: A grassland community is dominated by grasses, though it may contain herbs,
shrubs, and trees, along with associated animals of different species. So, Statement 2 is not

E
correct.

IN
28. Consider the following statements:

L
N
Statement-I .O
The characteristic patterns of the community of plants and animals is reflected in the roles played by
various population, their range, the type of area they inhabit, and the spectrum of interaction between
L

them.
IA

Statement-II
R

The environment factors determine the characteristic of the community as well as the pattern of
E

organisation of members in the community.

T

Which of the following statements are correct in the respect of the above statements?
A

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
M

for Statement-I.
C

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
S

Statement-I
P

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

U

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

EXPLANATION:

In a community the number of species and size of their population vary greatly. A community may
have one or several [Link] characteristic pattern of the community is termed as structure
which is reflected in the roles played by various population, their range, the type of area they
inhabit, the diversity of species in the community and the spectrum of interactions between them.

A community's structure can be described by its species richness, which is the number of species
present, and species diversity, which is a measure of both species richness and species evenness
(relative numbers). So, Statement I is correct.

The environmental factors determine the characteristic of the community as well as the pattern of

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 [Link]

organisation of the members in the community. Community structure is influenced by many factors,
including abiotic factors, species interactions, level of disturbance, and chance events.

Some species, such as foundation species and keystone species, play particularly important roles in
determining their communities' structure. So, Statement II is correct.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I

So, Option (a) is correct

29. Which of the following is the community of organisms together with the physical environment they
live?

E
(a) Ecosystem

IN
(b) Habitat
(c) Ecological Niche

L
(d) Biosphere

N
EXPLANATION:
.O
An ecosystem is defined as a structural and functional unit of biosphere consisting of community
L

of living beings and the physical environment, both interacting and exchanging materials between
IA

them.
➢ It includes plants, trees, animals, fish, birds, micro-organisms, water, soil, and people.
R

➢ Ecosystems vary greatly in size and elements but each is a functioning unit of nature. Everything
E

that lives in an ecosystem is dependent on the other species and elements that are also part of
T
A

that ecological community. If one part of an ecosystem is damaged or disappears, it has an

M

impact on everything else.

➢ When an ecosystem is healthy (i.e. sustainable) it means that all the elements live in balance and
C

are capable of reproducing themselves. Ecosystem can be as small as a single tree or as large as
S
P

entire forest. So, Option (a) is correct

U

30. Consider the following statements:

1. Primates
2. Nematodes
3. Arthropods
4. Annelids

Which of the following are macro consumers?

(a) One only
(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) All the four

EXPLANATION:

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Consumers -Heterotrophs orphagotrophs (other nourishing):

➢ Consumers are incapable of producing their own food (photosynthesis). They depend on organic
food derived from plants, animals or both. Consumers can be divided into two broad groups namely
micro and macro consumers.
1. Macro consumers
➢ They feed on plants or animals or both and are categorised on the basis of their food sources.
Herbivores are primary consumers which feed mainly on plants e.g. cow, rabbit.
➢ Secondary consumers feed on primary consumers e.g. wolves. Carnivores which feed on secondary
consumers are called tertiary consumers e.g. lions which can eat wolves. Omnivores are organisms
which consume both plants and animals e.g. man, monkey.

E
➢ primates are any mammals that are characterized especially by advanced development of binocular

IN
vision resulting in stereoscopic depth perception, specialization of the hands and feet for grasping,
and enlargement of the cerebral hemispheres and that include humans, apes, monkeys. So,

L
Statement 1 is correct.

N
2. Micro consumers - Saprotrophs (decomposers or osmotrophs)
.O
➢ They are bacteria and fungi which obtain energy and nutrients by decomposing dead organic
substances (detritus) of plant and animal origin. The products of decomposition such as inorganic
L

nutrients which are released in the ecosystem are reused by producers and thus recycled.
IA

➢ Earthworm and certain soil organisms (such as nematodes, and arthropods) are detritus feeders
R

and help in the decomposition of organic matter and are called detrivores. So, Statements 2 and 3
E

are not correct.

T

➢ Annelids have bodies that are divided into segments. They have very well-developed internal organs.
A

Found almost anywhere in the world. They don’t have any limbs. E.g: earthworms, leeches,
M

roundworms, etc. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

C
S

31. Which of the following are the goods and services provided by the ecosystem?
P

1. Stabilization and moderation of Earth’s climate.

U

2. Purification of air and water.

3. Decomposition of plastic and petrochemical waste.
4. Cultural and aesthetic benefits
5. Provision of shelter and building material.
6. Pollination of plants, including many crops control of pests and diseases.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

EXPLANATION:

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➢ Goods and Services provided by ecosystems include:

➢ Provision of food, fuel and fibre
➢ Stabilization and moderation of the Earth’s climate. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Purification of air and water. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ Detoxification and decomposition of wastes. Plastics can take anywhere from 20 to 500 years to
decompose, depending on the material and structure. Additionally, how fast a plastic breaks
down depends on sunlight exposure. Like our skin, plastics absorb ultraviolet (UV) radiation
from the sun, which breaks down the molecules. The microbial degradation of petroleum wastes
may also depend on climatic conditions, biotic and abiotic factors, especially the availability of
nitrogen, carbon, and oxygen. So, Statement 3 is correct.

E
➢ Moderation of floods, droughts, temperature extremes and the forces of wind.

IN
➢ Cultural and aesthetic benefits. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ Generation and renewal of soil fertility, including nutrient cycling.

L
➢ Provision of shelter and building materials. So, Statement 5 is correct.

N
➢ Pollination of plants, including many crops Control of pests and diseases. So, Statement 6 is
.O
correct.
L

➢ Maintenance of genetic resources as key inputs to crop varieties and livestock breeds,
IA

medicines, and other products

32. Consider the following statements:
R

1. Chilika lake
E

2. Savana grasslands of Africa

T

3. The mangroves of the Sundarbans

A
M

How many of the above are Ecotone?

(a) One only
C

(b) Two only

S
P

(c) All three

U

(d) None
EXPLANATION:

Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove
forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are –
grassland, estuary and river bank.
➢ Chilika Lake is a brackish water lake and a shallow lagoon with estuarine character in the state
of Odisha in eastern India. The different habitats (freshwater, deltaic, and saline) give a unique
character to Chilika, making it one of the most important ecotones (fresh water-marine water)
habitats in the world. So, Statement 1 is correct.

➢ Lowland forest–savannah transitions are the most widespread ecotone in the tropics, occurring

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in large areas of South America, Africa, Australia and Asia. These transitions are characterized
by many shades of green: there exists a wide range of grassy vegetation types that vary in
degrees of tree–grass coexistence depending on the geographical location, local abiotic and
climatic conditions, and disturbance regime. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ Sunderban is the largest delta and mangrove forest in the [Link] are located between
the land and sea, they represent [Link] mangroves exist at the interface of terrestrial and
marine ecosystems, where the land meets the [Link] has extremely rich diversity of
aquatic and terrestrial flora and fauna. In fact, Sunderban's highly productive ecosystem acts as
a natural fish [Link], Statement 3 is correct.

E
33. Consider the following statements:

IN
Statement-I

L
A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms which are entirely different from that of the

N
adjoining communities. .O
Statement-II
An ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystem.
L
IA

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
R

for Statement-I.
E

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
T

Statement-I
A

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

M

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

C

EXPLANATION:
S
P

Ecotone may be very narrow or quite wide. It has the conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems.
U

Hence it is a zone of tension. A well-developed ecotones contain some organisms which are entirely
different from that of the adjoining communities. Sometimes the number of species and the population
density of some of the species is much greater in this zone than either community. This is called edge
effect. So, Statement I is correct.

Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests
represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are – grassland,
estuary and river bank. So, Statement II is correct.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
➢ So, Option (a) is correct
34. With reference to ecological niche, consider the following:

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1. No two species have exact identical niches.

2. Knowledge about niche is ideal when it comes to conservation of species.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
➢ A niche is the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It is a description of all
the biological, physical and chemical factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy and

E
reproduce. A niche is unique for a species, which means no two species have exact identical niches.

IN
Niche plays an important role in conservation of organisms. So, Statement 1 is correct.

L
If we have to conserve species in its native habitat, we should have knowledge about the niche

N
requirements of the species and should ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled.
.O
Types of Niches
L

➢ Habitat niche – where it lives

IA

➢ Food niche – what is eats or decomposes & what species it competes with
R

➢ Reproductive niche – how and when it reproduces.

E

➢ Physical & chemical niche – temperature, land shape, land slope, humidity &other [Link],
T

Statement 2 is correct.
A
M

35. Which one of the following terms describe the organisms which primarily or most abundantly occur in
C

an ecotone?
S

(a) Primary species

P

(b) Edge species

U

(c) Cohesion species

(d) Niche species

EXPLANATION:

Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems e.g. the mangrove forests. The
number of species and the population density of some of the species is much greater in this zone
than either community. This is called edge effect. The organisms which occur primarily or most
abundantly in this zone are known as edge species. In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is
especially applicable to birds. For example, the density of song birds is greater in the mixed habitat
of the ecotone between the forest and the desert. So, Option (b) is correct.

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36. With reference to the food web in ecosystem, consider the following statements
1. A food web represents an interconnected network of feeding relationships among organisms in an
ecosystem.
2. A food web illustrates all possible transfer of energy among organisms in an ecosystem.
3. A food web increases an organism’s chances of survival.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

E
IN
EXPLANATION:

A food web illustrates, all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among the organisms in an

L
ecosystem, whereas a food chain traces only one pathway of the food.

N
➢ If any of the intermediate food chain is removed, the succeeding links of the chain will be affected
.O
largely. The food web provides more than one alternative for food to most of the organisms in an
L

ecosystem and therefore increases their chance of survival. For example, grasses may serve food for
IA

rabbit or grasshopper or goat or cow. Similarly,an herbivore may be food source for many
carnivorous species.
R

➢ Also, food availability and preferences of food of the organisms may shift seasonally e.g. we eat
E

watermelon in summer and peaches in the winter. Thus, there are interconnected networks of
T

feeding relationships that take the form of food webs.

A
M

So, Option (c) is correct.

C
S
P
U

37. Consider the following statements:

1. An Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation of trophic levels in an ecosystem.

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2. Saprophytes which play vital role in ecosystem are not represented in ecological pyramids.
3. Rate of energy transfer is well represented in the ecological pyramids.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Ecological pyramids are the graphic representations of trophic levels in an ecosystem. They are

E
pyramidal in shape and they are of three types: The producers make the base of the pyramid and

IN
the subsequent tiers of the pyramid represent herbivore, carnivore and top carnivore levels. So,
Statement 1 is correct.

L
N
Limitations of Ecological Pyramids: .O
➢ Some species practice more than one mode of nutrition or belong to two or more trophic levels. This
is particularly true in the case of consumers of higher trophic levels. Man is an example. He gets
L

his food from primary producers as well as from higher trophic levels. Such organisms which feed
IA

at more than one trophic level are extremely difficult to depict in ecological pyramids.
R

➢ Saprophytes play a vital role in ecosystem but they are not represented in ecological pyramids. So,
E

Statement 2 is correct.
T

➢ Detritus such as litter and humus is an important source of energy and exerts considerable
A

influence on ecosystem function, yet it is not depicted in ecological pyramids.

M

➢ Ecological pyramids do not provide any clue to seasonal and diurnal variations.
➢ The rate of transfer from one trophic level to another is not reflected in the ecological pyramids. So,
C

Statement 3 is not correct.

S
P
U

38. Consider the following statements

1. A pyramid of numbers is inverted in both forest and grassland ecosystem.
2. A pyramid of biomass is inverted in aquatic ecosystem.

Which of the statements govern above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
1. Pyramid of numbers - upright

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[Link]
 [Link]

In this pyramid, the number of individuals is decreased from lower level to higher trophic level. This
type of pyramid can be seen in grassland ecosystem. The grasses occupy the lowest trophic level (base)
because of their abundance. The next higher trophic level is primary consumer - herbivore (example –
grasshopper). The individual number of grasshoppers is less than that of grass. The next energy level
is primary carnivore (example – rat). The number of rats is less than grasshopper, because, they feed
on grasshopper. The next higher trophic level is secondary carnivore (example – snakes). They feed on
rats. The next higher trophic level is the top carnivore. ([Link]). With each higher trophic level, the
number of individual decreases.

E
IN
L
N
.O
L
IA
R
E

2. Pyramid of numbers – inverted

T
A

In this pyramid, the number of individuals is increased from lower level to higher trophic level. A
M

count in a forest would have a small number of large producers, for e.g. few numbers of big
trees. This is because the tree (primary producer) being few in number and would represent
C

the base of the pyramid and the dependent herbivores (Example - Birds) in the next higher
S
P

trophic level and it is followed by parasites in the next trophic level. Hyper parasites being at
U

higher trophic level represents higher in number.

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 [Link]

E
IN
L
N
.O
So, Statement 1 is not correct.

In many aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted form. This is
L

because the producers are tiny phyto planktons that grow and reproduce rapidly. Here, the
IA

pyramid of biomass has a small base, with the consumer biomass at any instant actually
R

exceeding the producer biomass and the pyramid assumes inverted shape.
E

So, Statement 2 is correct.

T
A
M

39. Consider the following statement

C

Statement 1: A pyramid of energy is always upright in any ecosystem.

S

Statement 2: An energy pyramid more accurately reflects the laws of thermodynamics with loss of
P

energy depicted at each transfer to another trophic level.

U

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of
the statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 1 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

An energy pyramid more accurately reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with loss of energy being
depicted at each transfer to another trophic level, hence the pyramid is always upright. Energy

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pyramids in the case of aquatic ecosystem are also upright, even where the pyramid of biomass is
inverted. In energy pyramids, a given trophic level, always has a smaller energy content than the
trophic level immediately below it. This is due to the fact that some energy is always lost as heat in
going from one trophic level to the next. Each bar in the pyramid indicates the amount of energy
utilised at each trophic level in a given time, annually per unit area.

E
IN
L
N
.O
L
IA

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
R
E

So, Option (a) is correct

T

40. Consider the following statements,

A

1. Gross primary productivity refers to the total amount of solar energy fixed into organic matter by
M

primary producers through photosynthesis.

C

2. Gross primary productivity minus the rate of energy loss to metabolism is called as net primary
S

productivity.
P

3. The ratio of net primary productivity to the gross primary productivity is called as Production
U

efficiency.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of solar energy captured and stored during
photosynthesis (energy captured per unit area per unit time) in the form of organic substances by
the green plants. Producers such as plants use some of this energy for metabolism/cellular

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respiration and some for growth (building tissues). So, Statement 1 is correct.

Net primary productivity, or NPP, is gross primary productivity minus the rate of energy loss to
metabolism and maintenance. In other words, it's the rate at which energy is stored as biomass by
plants or other primary producers and made available to the consumers in the ecosystem. So,
Statement 2 is correct.

Net Production Efficiency = (production / assimilation), or for plants = (NPP / GPP). These ratios
measure the efficiency with which an organism converts assimilated energy into primary or
secondary production. So, Statement 3 is correct.

E
41. Which of the following are the partnership countries with ASEAN in RegionalCooperation and

IN
Economic Partnership?
1. USA

L
2. Australia

N
3. China
.O
4. New Zealand
L

5. India
IA

6. Japan
R

7. Saudi Arabia
E

How many of the above statements are correct?

T

(a) Only four

A

(b) Only five

M

(c) Only six

C

(d) Only seven

S
P

EXPLANATION:
U

➢ In order to broaden and deepen the engagement among parties and to enhance parties’
participation in economic development of the region, the leaders of 16 participating countries
established the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).
➢ The RCEP was built upon the existing ASEAN+1 FTAs with the spirit to strengthen economic
linkages and to enhance trade and investment related activities as well as to contribute to
minimising development gap among the [Link] in East Asia region have thriving trade
and economic relations with each other through free trade agreements.
➢ The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has free trade agreements with six partners
namelyPeople’s Republic of China (ACFTA), Republic of Korea (AKFTA), Japan (AJCEP), India
(AIFTA) as well as Australia and New Zealand (AANZFTA).
➢ The RCEP negotiation includes: trade in goods, trade in services, investment, economic and

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 [Link]

technical cooperation, intellectual property, competition, dispute settlement, e-commerce, small

and medium enterprises (SMEs) and other [Link], Option (b) is correct.

42. Yom-Kippur war, Camp David and Oslo accords is sometime mentioned in thenews in the context of
the affairs of

(a) Somalia
(b) Yemen
(c) Israel
(d) China

E
EXPLANATION:

IN
➢ The war, known to Israelis as the Yom Kippur War, and to Arabs as the October War, ushered in a
new reality in the Arab world and changed the face of US foreign policy towards the Middle [Link]

L
war, eventually drew both the United States and the Soviet Union into indirect confrontation in

N
defense of their respective allies and Israel’s victory came at the cost of heavy casualties, and Israelis
.O
criticized the government’s lack of preparedness. In April 1974, the nation’s prime minister, Golda
L

Meir (1898-1978), stepped down.

IA

➢ Camp David Accords, agreements between Israel and Egypt signed on September 17, 1978,that led
in the following year to a peace treaty between those two countries, the first such treaty between
R

Israel and any of its Arab neighbours.

E

➢ The Oslo Peace Accords, also known as the Oslo Accords, are a set of agreements and negotiations
T

that took place in the early 1990s between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO).
A

These accords were aimed at resolving the Israeli-Palestinian conflict and establishing a framework
M

for future peace [Link], Option (c) is correct.

C
S
P

43. “Project Mariana” sometimes mentioned in the news refers to which amongthe following?
U

(a) It is a project backed by world bank and supported by InternationalSeabed Authority for
exploration of polymetallic nodules.
(b) It is an effort involving Bank for International settlements, on testingcross border trading of
central bank digital currencies.
(c) It is a project of Ministry of Earth science, India to build a deepdiving vehicle to explore Mariana
trench.
(d) It is an initiative of UNEP to conserve Aquatic biodiversity in PacificOcean
EXPLANATION:

➢ Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore
and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and
Swiss National Bank.

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➢ The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital
currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi)
technology concepts on a public blockchain.
➢ The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and
Switzerland have successfully concluded Project Mariana.
➢ Project Mariana is purely experimental and does not indicate that any of the partner central banks
intend to issue wCBDC or endorse DeFi or a particular technological solution. It is the Innovation
Hub's first cross-centre [Link], Option (b) is correct.

44. “India out” Campaign led by a political party led to their electoral victory in acountry. Which among

E
the following country is related to the context?

IN
(a) Srilanka

L
(b) Nepal

N
(c) Maldives .O
(d) Myanmar
EXPLANATION:
L
IA

➢ India out Campaign is a result of a simmering anti-India sentiment dating back to at least a
decade, which played up fears of India gradually attempting to impinge on Male's sovereignty.
R

➢ These sentiments got briefly stabilised under the Solih government since 2018, but peaked during
E

the 2023 presidential campaign

T

Recently, an emergency motion was moved by Abdulla Jabir, a member of former president
A

➢
Mohamed Nasheed’s Maldivian Democratic Party (MDP). It stated that the rally was endangering
M

national security, and sowing discord between the Maldives and one of its neighbours. It asked the
C

Maldivian National Defence Forces to stop the rally and other similar events.
S

The theme of the rally was “India Out”, a slogan coined two years ago by protesters who claimed
P

➢
that the MDP government led by President Ibrahim Solih had “sold out” the Maldives to India. So,
U

Option (c) is correct.

45. What is Blue Ammonia?

(a) By-product CO2 emitted is captured and stored.

(b) It is produced using 100% renewable and carbon free source.
(c) Ammonia present in oceans and coastal ecosystem
(d) It refers to ammonia produced during fossil fuels.

EXPLANATION:

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Blue ammonia is conventional ammonia for which by-product CO2 has been captured and stored,
reducing climate impact compared with gray ammonia. Many fertilizer makers have embarked on
such projects in recent years. Blue ammonia is controversial and in need of industry standards.
Using CO2 for enhanced oil recovery, for example, isn’t as environmentally beneficial as injecting it
into the ground [Link] NH3 is a responsible way of producing ammonia that integrates
carbon capture to minimize GHG emissions. A high energy density and an already established
storage and transport infrastructure make blue ammonia an ideal energy carrier. And a low-carbon
game changer. So, Option (a) is correct.

46. With reference to Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021(MTP act,2021), consider
the following:

E
1. Abortion is illegal under Indian Penal code 312 and 313, unless it is performed in a manner

IN
prescribed in MTP, act.

L
2. Abortion beyond 24 weeks available only on the grounds of substantial foetal abnormalities on the

N
advice of medical board. .O
Select the correct answer code:

(a) 1 only
L

(b) 2 only
IA

(c) Both 1 and 2.

R

(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

E

EXPLANATION:
T

➢ Section 312 of the IPC criminalizes ‘causing miscarriage’ and states that “Whoever voluntarily
A

causes a woman with child to miscarry, shall, if such miscarriage be not caused in good faith for the
M

purpose of saving the life of the woman, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
C

term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both; and if the woman be quick with
S

child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
P

seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.

U

➢ As per Section 313 of the IPC, anyone who commits the offence defined in Section 312 without the
woman’s consent is punished with imprisonment for life or imprisonment that may extend to 10
years and a fine.
➢ The Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) makes abortion ('induced miscarriage') a criminal offence under
Section 312. The MTP Act is the exception to this law. The law safeguards registered medical
practitioners by laying down certain conditions under which they can terminate the pregnancy.
Moreover, the MTP Act specifically states pregnant "women", hence making abortion services
inaccessible to transgender persons, gender queer and gender non-conforming, as well as others of
gender diverse identity who do not identify as women. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Salient features of this bill are:

➢ The Bill permits abortion to be allowed up to 20 weeks on the opinion of just one medical

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practitioner.
➢ To terminate pregnancies between 20 and 24 weeks, the opinion of two doctors is required. This
extension of the gestation period up to 24 weeks is given for special categories of women such as
rape/incest victims, differently-abled women, and minors.
➢ For abortions beyond 24 weeks, a state-level Medical Board will decide if it can be permitted, in case
of substantial fetal abnormalities In cases where abortions are desired to eliminate.
➢ Pregnancies arising out of rape, where the gestation period exceeds 24 weeks, the only manner
would be through a writ petition. So, Statement 2 is correct.

47. With reference to National Commission of Minority Educational Institution,consider the following:
1. It is a statutory body endowed with powers of civil court andestablished by National Commission of

E
Minority Educational InstitutionAct, 2004.

IN
2. The Act ensures the rights of minorities under Article 30 of Indianconstitution to establish and

L
administer educational institution of theirchoice.

N
3. Both linguistic and religious minorities come under the ambit of this actas Article-30 of Indian
.O
constitution ensures.
How many of the above statements are correct?
L

(a) Only one

IA

(b) Only two

R

(c) All three

E

(d) None
T

EXPLANATION:
A

The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2004 was passed by both the
M

Houses of Parliament and received the assent of the Hon’ble President. It came on the Statute Book
C

as THE NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR MINORITY EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS ACT, 2004 (2 of

S

2005).The Commission is a quasi judicial body and has been endowed with the powers of a Civil
P

Court for the purpose of discharging its functions under the Act. The commission has three main
U

roles namely adjudicatory, advisory and [Link], Statement 1 is correct.

The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) Act has been enacted to
safeguard the educational rights of the minorities enshrined in Article 30(1) of the [Link]
Commission has powers to advise the Central Government or any State Government on any question
relating to the education of minorities that may be referred to it and can also make
recommendations regarding any matter which directly or indirectly deprives the minority
Community of their educational rights enshrined in Article [Link] of the Commission includes
deciding all questions relating to the statusof any institution as a Minority Educational Institution
(MEI). So, Statement 2 is correct.

Article 30(1) of the Constitution of India provides for linguistic and religious minorities a
fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their [Link]

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Minorities do not come under the ambit of the NCMEI Act, 2004. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

48. With reference to Prompt coercive action (PCA) framework of RBI, consider the following statements:
1. It is a framework under which the banks with weak financial metrics due to poor asset quality and
vulnerable to loss of profitability are put under watch.
2. The prompt coercive action framework is only applicable to both private and public sector banks.
3. When prompt coercive action is sanctioned on a bank they cannot enter into new line of business.
Select the correct answer code:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

E
IN
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

L
EXPLANATION:

N
The RBI initiated the Scheme of PCA in 2002 with an aim to discipline banks when they report
.O
poor and risky financial performance. The objective of the PCA Framework is to enable Supervisory
L

intervention at appropriate time and require the Supervised Entity to initiate and implement
IA

remedial measures in a timely manner, so as to restore its financial health. Under Prompt
Corrective Action (PCA) framework, RBI has specified certain regulatory trigger points in terms of
R

three parameters, i.e., capital (Capital Adequacy Ratio), Asset Quality (NPA) and Leverage (equity
E

capital/total assets). Once banks hit certain level of threshold in terms of these three parameters,
T
A

RBI initiates certain structured and discretionary actions. So, Statement 1 is correct.
M

The PCA framework is primarily aimed at regulating public sector banks (PSBs) in [Link] PCA
framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to co-operative banks, non-
C
S

banking financial companies (NBFCs) and FMIs. As per the RBI “Private banks cannot remain
P

under the PCA framework forever. If the promoters are unable to revive the bank for a long period
U

of time, the RBI may look to auction the assets, liabilities, and operations of the bank”. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

Basically, PCA helps RBI in restoring the financial health of a bank by monitoring key performance
indicators of banks and taking corrective measures on the same. It may also stop banks from
entering new lines of businesses, thereby strengthening the financial core of the institution. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

49. With reference to Cement industry, consider the following:

1. India is the world’s largest cement producer accounting for more than 15% in worldwide installed
capacity.

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2. Madhya Pradesh in India is the largest producer of cement and hold 23 cement plants in the state.
3. According to International energy Agency, cement manufacturing industries are second largest
emitter of CO2 in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:

E
The Indian Cement Industry is the second largest cement producer in the world. It accounts for

IN
more than 8% of the global installed capacity. India is the house for 250 large cement plants
accounting for an installed cement capacity of more than 550 MTPA and the production of around

L
300 MTPA cement. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

N
Madhya Pradesh is the largest cement producer in India and hold 23 cement plants in the state.
.O
Followed by the Andhra Pradesh which holds 19 plants, Rajasthan with 15 plants and Gujarat.
L

Major Centre in Madhya Pradesh are Katni, Jamul, Satna, Durg, Maihar, Neemach. So, Statement
IA

2 is correct.
R

The cement sector is the third-largest industrial energy consumer and the second-largest industrial
E

CO2 emitter globally. Under a scenario that considers announced carbon mitigation commitments
T

and energy efficiency targets by countries, the cement sector would increase its direct CO2
A

emissions just 4% globally by 2050, for an expected growth of 12% in cement production over the
M

same period. So, Statement 3 is correct.

C

50. Consider the following statements:

S

Indian operations/ actions objectives of those operations

P

1. Operation Ajay evacuate citizens from Israel.

U

2. Operation Ganga brought back Indian citizens from Sudan

3. Operation Kaveri brought back Indian citizens from Ukraine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pair
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
EXPLANATION:

On 11 October 2023, Government of India launched Operation as Indian operation to evacuate

citizens caught up in Israel amid the raging conflict with the terrorist organisation Hamas. So,

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Statement 1 is correct.

Operation Ganga was announced on 26 February 2022 to evacuate Indian nationals, mainly
students, at Government of India’s cost from Ukraine through the neighbouring countries of
Romania, Poland, Hungary and Slovakia. 18,282 Indian nationals were brought back to India by
90 flights, of which 76 were commercial flights and 14 IAF flights in February and March 2022.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Government of India launched Operation Kaveri to bring back Indian nationals from Sudan
following a crisis that erupted in Sudan on 15 April 2023. Operation Kaveri was successfully
concluded under which 4,097 people (including 136 foreigners) were brought back to India with
the help of 18 IAF sorties, 5 trips of Indian Navy ships and 20 commercial flights. This includes

E
108 Indian nationals moved through Sudan’s land borders with Chad, Egypt, Ethiopia and

IN
South Sudan. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

L
N
.O
L
IA
R
E
T
A
M
C
S
P
U

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[Link]