MODUL TOEFL

Compiled by
1. Dr. Sunarsih.M.A
2. Harits Setyawan [Link]
3. Ajeng Anindya Putri Santi S.S
4. Vicka Tamaya S.A.P
1. LISTENING

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Listening Comprehension Guide
The Listening Comprehension section of TOEFL is always given first. The purpose of this section is to
test your understanding of spoken English.
The directions for this section are given on the audio as well as printed in your test book. There
are four speakers, two men and two women. The speakers read the items at a normal speed. All four have
standard North American accents. The tone of the items is conversational, much less formal
than the items in the two other test sections.

Section 1 is divided into three parts:

Part A: Dialogs 30 items
Part B: Extended Conversations 2 conversations: 7-8 items
Part C: Mini-Talks 3 talks: 12-13 items
Totals: 50 items (approximately 30 minutes)

The Dialogs
Most of the dialogs in Part A involve a man and a woman. A few involve two men or two [Link]
speaker usually speaks one or two sentences. Many dialogs (about 25%) are about facets of lifeat
American universities: attending classes, talking to professors, writing research papers, takingtests. Other
dialogs are about more general activities: shopping in grocery stores, looking for housing, taking
vacations, going to meetings and parties. The tone of the dialogs is informal. Idioms, first names,
contractions (I'm, doesn't, can't) are often heard. Some of the items test your ability tounderstand various
language functions. For example, you must be able to determine if a speaker is agreeing or disagreeing
with the other speaker, or if one speaker is accepting or rejecting the other speaker's offer.

Common Type A Question Types Example

1. Meaning questions: These are the most "What does the man/woman mean?"
common questions (about 50%). They ask for "What do the speakers say about ---?"
a restatement of what the second speaker or
both speakers say. They may be general
questions or ask what the speakers say about
some specific topic. They often follow dialogs
that contain idioms.
2. Inference questions: These are the second "What does the man/woman imply?"
most common Part A questions (about 20%). "What can be inferred from the
The answers for these questions are not conversation about ---?"
directly stated in the dialog, but they can be "What can be concluded from the
inferred (concluded) from what the speakers conversation about---?"
say.
3. Questions about suggestions: Generally, the "What does the woman suggest the man
first speaker talks about a problem or asks for do?"
advice. The second speaker makes a "What does the man suggest they do?"
suggestion for solving the problem. "What does the woman suggest?"
"What does the woman think the man
should do?"
4. Questions about future actions: These ask "What will the man do?"
what one or both of the speakers will do next "What will they probably do next?"
or in the near future, or what one or both are "What are the speakers planning to do?"

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 planning to do.
5. Topic questions: These ask about the "What are they talking about?"
subject of the dialog. "What are they discussing?"
6. Questions about opinions: These ask how "How does the man/woman feel about-?"
one or both of the speakers feel about some "What is their opinion of ---?"
topic.
8. Questions about questions: The first "What does the man want to know?"
speaker makes a statement; the second speaker
asks a question to get more information.
9. Questions about time: These ask when a "When is this conversation taking
conversation is taking place or when an event place?"
the speakers mention in the conversation will "When will the --- take place?"
take place.
10. Questions about reasons: These ask why "Why did the man/woman ---?"
one or both of the speakers did something.
11. Questions about problems: These ask "What problem is the man having?"
about some trouble one or both of the speakers "What is the problem?"
are having.
12. Questions about activities: These ask what "What are the speakers probably doing?"
one or both of the speakers are doing.

DIALOGS WITII SOUND CONFUSION

Some of the items in Part A involve a confusion between words that have similar sounds. Here's how they
work: one of the speakers uses a word or phrase that sounds like a word or phrase in one or more of the
answer choices. If you don't hear the word clearly, you might incorrectly choose an option with a sound-
alike word or phrase.
Exercise 1
Focus: Discriminating between sound-alike words in dialogs and answer choices.
Directions: Listen to the dialogs. Decide which of the two choices, (A) or (B), best answers the question,
and mark the appropriate blank. The first one is done as an example.

1. (A) ____Get in a different lane. 8. (A) ____ Its taste has improved.
(B) VStand in another line. (B) ____ It tastes slightly bitter.
2. (A) ____Go down the slide. 9. (A) ____How much the ticket cost.
(B) ____Play on the sled. (B) ____What Ellen might win.
3. (A) ____Put them in a file. 10. (A) ____It's been chipped.
(B) ____Throw them in a pile. (B) ____There's a ship inside it.
4. (A) ____He can't shut his suitcase. 11. (A) ____He tripped in the aisle.
(B) ____His suitcase doesn't fit in the closet. (B) ____He slipped in some oil.
5. (A) ____She made bread from whole wheat. 12. (A) ____For its fast horses.
(B) ____She baked some white bread. (B) ____For its natural resources.
6. (A) ____It's being audio. 13. (A) ____Thinking about the decision.
(B) ____Brenda is typing it. (B) ____Arguing about the issue.
7. (A) ____Emily bought new clothes. 14. (A) ____The color is too bright.
(B) ____Emily recently moved. (B) ____It doesn't fit around the neck.
15. (A) ____Wrote his name on the paper.

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 (B) ____Told his students to write a paper.

WORDS WITH MULTIPLE MEANINGS

The dialogs may also contain words with multiple meanings. In these items, one or two of the answer
choices refer to another definition of a word as it is used in the dialog.
Sample Item
You will hear:
Fl: Are you sure this is how Lois spells her last name?
Ml: It doesn't look right, does it? In fact, I'm not even sure it starts with that letter.
M2: What does the man mean?
You will read: (A) The letter to Lois was incorrectly addressed.
(B) Lois's last name may be incorrectly spelled.
(C) Lois's name appeared on the rigl1t side of the page.
(D) Lois hasn't begun writing the letter yet.
The dialog contains the words right, meaning "correct," and the word letter, meaning a character in the
alphabet. Choices (A) and (D) also contain the word letter,but in those choices the word has another
definition-a message sent through the mail. Choice (C) also contains the word right, but in that choice, it
refers to a direction-the opposite of left.

Exercise 2
Focus: Using the context of dialogs to identify the definitions of words with multiple meanings.
Directions: Listen to the dialogs. One word from the dialog is given, along with two possible definitions
of the word. Choose the definition of the word as it is used in the dialog and mark the appropriate answer,
(A) or (B). The first one is done as an example.
1. cold 6. _____ coat layer
Vminor illness
_____chilly weather _____warm clothing

2. kind 7. field
_____ types _____ outside the classroom
_____ considerate _____ area of study

3. light 8. playing
_____ not heavy _____ taking part in a game
_____ not dark _____ appearing

4. wing 9. party
_____part of an airplane _____ celebration
_____ part of a building _____ group

5. tables 10. period

_____ charts _____ punctuation mark
_____ furniture _____ class time

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 DIALOGS WITH IDIOMATIC EXPRESSIONS
On many TOEFL exams, up to half the dialogs in Part A contain idiomatic expressions. Many of the
idiomatic expressions are two- or three-word verbs, such as call off and look out for.
Sample Item
You will hear: Fl: I wonder where Mike is.
Ml: He'll show up as soon as the work is done, I bet.
M2: What does the man say about Mike?
You will read: (A) He probably won't arrive until the work is fInished.
(B) He went to a show instead of going to work.
(C) He can show them how to do the work.
(D) He'll probably work late today.
The idiom show up means "arrive." Choices (B) and (C) contain the word show, but it is not used in the
idiomatic sense.
In most dialogs, the second speaker uses the idiomatic expression. Most questions about this type of
dialog are questions about meaning ("What does the man mean?" for example), but some are inference
questions or other types of questions. The correct answer often contains a synonym for the idiom (arrive
for show up in choice (A) of the Sample Item). Incorrect choices often contain references to the literal
meaning of idioms, as in choices (B) and (C).
Exercise 3
1. get into hot water
V She was in trouble
_____ She took a warm bath
2. bump into
_____ He met Caroline unexpectedly at the coffee shop.
_____ Caroline and I jogged to the coffee shop.
3. hit it off
_____ He and Chuck argued as soon as they met.
_____ He and Chuck quickly became friends.
4. a piece of cake
_____ The exam was simple.
_____ She had a snack after the test.
5. at the drop of a hat
_____ He can’t leave until he finds his hat.
_____ He’s ready to leave immediately.
6. on edge
_____ He walks back and forth when he’s nervous.
_____ He likes to walk along the edge.
7. under the weather
_____ She didn’t want to practice because of the bad weather.
_____ She wasn’t there because she felt a little sick.
8. take after
_____ He looks like his grandfather.
_____ He takes care of his grandfather.
9. for good
_____ He doesn’t want the professor to quit teaching permanently.
_____ He hopes Professor Holmes has a good reason for quitting.

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 10. give a hand with
_____Hand her the box.
_____ Help her carry the box.
11. a stone’s throw from
_____ He likes to throw rocks in the park.
_____ He lives close to the park.
12. not think much of
_____ She didn’t consider.
_____ She didn’t like it.

Exercise 4
Focus: Understanding dialogs involving idiomatic and figurative expressions.
Directions: Look over the idiomatic expressions listed before each set of items. The dialogs each contain
one ofthe listed expressions. Listen to the dialogs and mark the one answer choice, (A) or (B), that best
answers the question. The first one has been done as an example.
Set
clear up get off the ground hours on end over one’s head
push one’s luck run of the mill short for turn in
1. V He’s not sure Max’s business will succeed.
_____ He doesn’t know where Max has gone.
2. _____ Gary is lucky to have such a good car.
_____ It’s time for Gary to get some new tires.
3. _____ Go to bed.
_____ Watch a different program.
4. _____ She didn’t understand all the jokes.
_____ She left before the performance was over.
5. _____ If the weather gets better.
_____ If she doesn’t have any other plans.
6. _____ Elizabeth is taller than Liz.
_____ People call Elizabeth “Liz”.
7. _____ She’s stopped listening to it.
_____ She listens to it constantly.
8. _____ The service is very fast here.
_____ It’s just an average restaurant.

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 DIALOGS INVOLVING AGREEMENT AND DISAGREEMENT

Agreement
So do I I’ll say
Me too You can say that again
Neither do I* Is/Has/Was it ever!
I don’t either* You bet
Who wouldn’t? I couldn’t agree with you more
Isn’t he/she/it though! I feel the same way you do about it
(Didn’t he/wasn’t she/hasn’t it though!)
I’ll second that
*These two expressions show agreement with a negative statement:
I don’t really like my schedule this term.
I don’t either. OR Neither do I.

Disagreement
I don’t think so I’m afraid I don’t agree
That’s not what I think Probably not
That’s not the way I see it Not necessarily
Not really I’m afraid not
I can’t say I agree I’m not so sure
I couldn’t agree with you less

Exercise 5
Focus: Determining if one speaker agrees or disagrees with the other speaker.
Directions: listen to the following dialogues. Decide if the second speaker agrees or disagrees with
the first speaker and mark the appropriate blank. The first one is done as an example.
1. (A) VAgree. 7.(A) ____ Agrees.
(B) ____ Disagrees. (B) ____ Disagrees.
2. (A) Agree. 8.(A) ____ Agrees.
(B) ____ Disagrees. (B) ____ Disagrees.
3. (A) Agree. 9. (A) ____ Agrees.
(B) ____ Disagrees. (B) ____ Disagrees.
4. (A) Agree. 10. (A) ____ Agrees.
(B) ____ Disagrees. (B) ____ Disagrees.
5. (A) Agree. 11. (A) ____ Agrees.
(B) ____ Disagrees. (B) ____ Disagrees.
6. (A) Agree. 12. (A) ____ Agrees.
(B) ____ Disagrees. (B) ____ Disagrees.

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Mini-Test 1: Dialog
Directions: Listen to the conversations and the questions about them. Decide which of the four answer
choices-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-is the best answer to the question. Then mark the appropriate answer on the
answer sheet.

1. (A) She met her during the summer.

(B) She's never liked her very much.
(C) She warned her of a problem.
(D) Her impression of her has changed.
2. (A) Review the last point.
(B) Go on to the next chapter.
(C) Leave the classroom.
(D) Point out the teacher's mistake.
3. (A) The weather will not be as nice tomorrow.
(B) She no longer reads the weather report.
(C) She went to the store for a newspaper.
(D) The weather reports will change soon.
4. (A) Writing an advertisement.
(B) Playing a game.
(C) Looking at a newspaper.
(D) Discussing a book.
5. (A) Grace may want to live with the man's sister.
(B) The woman thinks Grace already has a roommate.
(C) The woman doesn't know where Grace has moved.
(D) Grace doesn't know the man's sister.
6. (A) Go to a meeting.
(B) Keep a budget.
(C) Reduce his expenses.
(D) Get some exercise.
7. (A) The man should clean out his closet.
(B) The lamp will look better in a small space.
(C) She doesn't like the lamp very much
(D) The living room is the best place for the lamp.
8. (A) What Mark is writing.
(B) Where Mark is living now.
(C) Why Mark doesn't want to go.
(D) Why Mark is in a hurry.
9. (A) He certainly likes Ernie's red car.
(B) The man in the red car resembles Ernie.
(C) Ernie has a car just like that red one.
(D) He can't see the man in the red car.

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 10. (A) The man doesn't need his hat.
(B) It's not very cold today.
(C) She likes the way the hat looks.
(D) The man ought to wear his hat.
11. (A) She's never seen it.
(B) It was made a long time ago.
(C) She likes it a lot.
(D) It's a very unusual movie.
12. (A) He doesn't believe what the woman told him.
(B) He thinks the team was unprepared too.
(C) He disagrees with the woman's idea.
(D) He isn't ready to go to the game either.
13. (A) The man would like to use that computer.
(B) Becky will need the computer for a long time.
(C) There are no longer any computers in the library.
(D) Becky would like the man to go to the library.
14. (A) He hurt his hand when he was scuba diving.
(B) He hasn't gone scuba diving for a long time.
(C) He's not too old to go scuba diving.
(D) He's an experienced scuba diver.
15. (A) His shoes hurt his feet.
(B) He was injured in a skiing accident.
(C) His shoes are old and in bad shape.
(D) He walked so far that his legs hurt.
16. (A) She doesn't have time to listen now.
(B) She doesn't know what song she wants to hear.
(C) She wants to hear his song right away.
(D) She prefers old songs to new ones.
17. (A) A television commercial.
(B) A history class
(C) The woman's field of study.
(D) Some famous artists.
18. (A) She was about to suggest the same thing.
(B) She doesn't feel like giving a party.
(C) She's completely surprised by the man's remark.
(D) She isn't hungry right now.
19. (A) Sophie won't be at her apartment.
(B) The man can inform Sophie at the meeting.
(C) The man shouldn't bother Sophie.
(D) Sophie will think this is bad news.

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20. (A) He doesn't go out as often as he once did.
(B) He doesn't always tell the truth.
(C) He isn't as friendly as he once was.
(D) He hasn't always been so sociable.
21. (A) The ring is quite attractive.
(B) Laura got a bargain on the ring.
(C) The ring was probably expensive.
(D) Laura had to sell her ring.
22. (A) She didn't realize Bill had to work.
(B) Bill has not finished his work.
(C) The break has not lasted long enough.
(D) The work didn't take long to complete.
23. (A) The woman has just begun to collect rocks.
(B) The man is unwilling to help.
(C) The box is very heavy.
(D) There's nothing in the box.
24. (A) She doesn't like the length of her hair.
(B) She thinks the haircut took too long.
(C) She doesn't know where to get a haircut.
(D) She thinks haircuts are too expensive.
25. (A) Professor Clayburn is going to speak some other night.
(B) He's never heard of Professor Clayburn.
(C) He didn't realize Professor Clayburn was speaking tonight.
(D) Professor Clayburn is giving his speech in this room.
26. (A) The man may see her drawing.
(B) She'd like the man to visit.
(C) The man should draw a second picture.
(D) She's going to take a guess.
27. (A) The weather has been very warm.
(B) Her car doesn't need a tune-up.
(C) She's starting to feel ill.
(D) She's already too warm.
28. (A) Joe has been making too much noise.
(B) Dogs are not allowed in the dorm.
(C) No one understands the parking regulations.
(D) Joe is not allowed to leave his room.
29. (A) Where the Medical Center is located.
(B) Which office Dr. Norton is in.
(C) What Dr. Norton told the man.
(D) Why the man went to see Doctor Norton.

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 30. (A) She liked chemistry.
(B) She would graduate in May.
(C) She didn't have to repeat a course.
(D) She hadn't completed the required courses.

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The Conversations
The extended conversations are similar to the Part A dialogs in style but are longer. They frequently take
place in a campus setting between two students or between a professor and a student.

Anticipating Questions about the Extended Conversations

When you are previewing the items in Part C, you should try to anticipate what the questions will be by
the form of the answer choices. You usually won't be able to guess exactly what the question will be, but
you can guess what type of question will be asked. For example, if the four answer choicesare the names
of places, a "Where ... " question will be asked; if the answer choices are times of day or dates, you will
hear a "When ... " question. If you have some idea of what the question will be,you can focus your
listening during the talks.
Exercise 6
Focus: Guessing the questions that will be asked about an extended conversation and the situation in
which the conversation takes place by previewing answer choices.
Directions: Look over the answer choices below. First try to guess the general type of question that will
be asked about each item. Then look at the list of questions after each group of items and match the letter
of the appropriate question with the item. Then answer the question about the overall topicof the
conversation. The first one is done as an example.
There is no audio material for this exercise.
Conversation
1. (A) A grade the student received 3. (A) She submitted it too late
(B) A story about a dance recital (B) It was too long
(C) The need for correct spelling (C) Some important details were omitted
(D) The role of a reporter (D) Almost every word was misspelled
Question:B Question: ______________
2. (A) Business 4. (A) Rewrite the story
(B) Architecture (B) Buy a better dictionary
(C) Journalism (C) Go to more dance recitals
(D) Dance (D) Get a job as a reporter
Question: ____________ Question: ______________
Questions for Conversation
a) For what class did the man do the assignment?
b) What is the main topic of this conversation?
c) What does the man advise woman to do?
d) What problem does the man mention in connection with the story?
Situation Question: Conversation
Which of the following best describes the situation in which the first conversation probably takes place?
______ (A) One student is telling another a story about a dance
______ (B) A professor is criticizing a student’s story about a dance performance
______ (C) An instructor is teaching a student a new dance
______ (D) One student is suggesting ways in which the other student can improve her spelling

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 Exercise 7
Focus: Answering detail and inference questions based on specific points in short portions of extended
conversations.

Directions: You will hear three extended conversations, each one divided into several shortportions.
After each portion, there will be a number of questions based on that part of the talk. Mark the best
answer choice-(A), (B), or (C)-for each question. The first one is done as an example.

1. (A) A doctor.
(B) A newspaper.
(C) A magazine.
2. (A) It's too tiring.
(B) It can cause injuries.
(C) It's not demanding enough.
3. (A) Downhill skiing.
(B) Jogging.
(C) Cross-country skiing.
4. (A) It doesn't require much snow
(B) It is a recently developed sport.
(C) It can be done in flat areas.
5. (A) Use a cross-country ski machine.
(B) Travel to ski resorts.
(C) Take up jogging.

6. (A) The expense.

(B) The weather conditions.
(C) The danger.
7. (A) He stayed up most of the night.
(B) He's been studying all morning.
(C) He took an exam last night.

8. (A) It was an improvement.

(B) It was disappointing.
(C) It was unfair.

9. (A) Undergraduate students.

(B) Teachers.
(C) Graduate students.

10. (A) She learned how to do research.

(B) She was prepared for her sociology test.
(C) She learned teaching techniques.

11. (A) Basic scientific research.

(B) Business management.
(C) Test-taking skills.
12. (A) In the library.
(B) In the Physics Tower.
(C) In Staunton Hall.

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 13. (A) Study for his next exam.
(B) Go to the Study Skills Center.
(C) Get some sleep.
14. (A) To buy something at an auction.
(B) To pay for employees' salaries.
(C) To improve their broadcasts.
15. (A) Apply for a job at the station.
(B) Donate his services for the station's auction.
(C) Direct the construction of a new tower.
16. (A) She must work on her own research project.
(B) She has to help her parents.
(C) She must study for exams.
17. (A) They seldom attend auctions.
(B) They might bid on the man's services.
(C) They use the library often.

MINI-TEST 2: EXTENDED CONVERSATIONS

Directions: Listen to the conversations and the questions about them. Decide which one of the four
answer choices-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-is the best answer to the question. Then mark the appropriate answer
on the answer sheet.
1. (A) To look up some terms.
(B) To meet Stanley
(C) To get a snack.
(D) To prepare for an exam.
2. (A) His library card.
(B) A statistics book.
(C) Some index cards.
(D) A notebook.
3. (A) Piles of note cards.
(B) The part of the library where journals are stored.
(C) The part of the library where books are shelved.
(D) A place to get something to eat.
4. (A) Behind the main desk.
(B) The periodicals room.
(C) A lost and found office.
(D) The reference room.
5. (A) The sport of mountain climbing.
(B) Classes the man is taking.
(C) An exhibit the man saw in a museum.
(D) A new activity the man is involved in.
6. (A) A means of descending slopes.
(B) A method of climbing cliffs.
(C) A way to clean walls.
(D) A type of graffiti.
7. (A) Educating people about geology.
(B) Cleaning up after careless people.
(C) Photographing mountain peaks.
(D) Rescuing people who are in danger.

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 8. (A) Explore a cave with him.
(B) Take some photographs.
(C) Attend a meeting.
(D) Examine a crystal.

Mini-Talks
The third part of Section 1 consists of Mini-Talks. These are monologues (talks involving only one
speaker). Each Mini-Talk lasts from thirty to ninety seconds. After each talk, there are from three to five
questions. The questions are separated by a twelve-second pause. You have to decide which of the four
answers choices in the test book best answers the question, then mark that answer on your answer sheet.
You are not allowed to take notes.

Tactics for Mini-Talks

• Be familiar with the directions but remember that you cannot turn the page to look over answer choices
while the directions are being read.

• Pay attention to the introductory comment for each talk. These comments will tell you which items each
talk refers to and may give you an idea of what the talk will be about.

• Preview the answer choices while the talks are being read and during the pauses between questions. Try
to guess what the questions and the topic will be.

• Listen for overall concepts:

• Who is giving the talk?
• Where and when is the talk being given?
• What is the main topic or purpose of the talk?
The answers to these questions are often suggested in the first few lines of the talks.
• You are not permitted to take written notes but try to take "mental notes" on specific details: facts,
figures, dates, places, and so on. You can sometimes check the information you thinkyou hear against
information you read in the answer choices while you are previewing.

• Answer items right away.

• Never leave any blanks on your answer sheet. Always guess.

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Exercise 8
Focus: Listening to the opening lines of Mini-Talks and answering overview questions about the main
ideas, speakers and audiences, settings, and so on.
Directions: Listen to the introductions and the questions about them. Then mark the answer choice-(A),
(B), or (C)-that correctly completes the sentence. The first one is done as an example.
1.(A) A teacher 14. (A) The fundamentals of skiing
(B) A tour guide (B) Championship skiers.
(C) A photographer (C) The development of ski resorts
2.(A) A description of the wildlife preserve 15. (A) Law
(B) Advice about outdoor photography (B) Economics
(C) The scientific classification of buffaloes (C) Classical languages
3.(A) To explain the tradition of handball 16. (A) A few weeks after the beginning of class
(B) To give information about the rules of tennis (B) In the first class meeting
(C) To discuss the rules of handball (C) During the final exam
4.(A) At the end of a tournament 17. (A) On a boat
(B) Before an exhibition game (B) At an aquarium
(C) During a game (C) On a plane
5.(A) Factory workers 18. (A) The habits of whales
(B) Visitors to a factory (B) Types of whales
(C) Management trainees (C) Efforts to protect whales
6.(A) The process of canning soft drinks 19. (A) Students who own bicycles
(B) Management-labor teamwork (B) New members of the campus police force
(C) The life cycle of plants (C) Pedestrians concerned about safety
7.(A) The physical rewards of dancing 20. (A) To describe some recent accidents
(B) The importance of the program to the university (B) To introduce a new program
(C) The disadvantages of being in the program (C) To provide safety and security hints
8.(A) Director of a dance program
(B) Professor of psychology
(C) Athletics coach
9.(A) A hostat a party
(B) The president of a society
(C) The captain of a ship
10. (A) The role of the State Historical Society
(B) The history of New England
(C) The story of some shipwrecks

11. (A)Composition
(B) Fine Arts
(C) Architecture
12. (A) The use of blueprints
(B) Methods of organization
(C) Editing papers
13. (A) Experienced skiers
(B) Ski instructors
(C) Beginning skiers

17
 MINI-TEST 3: MINI-TALKS
Directions: Listen to the talks and the questions about them. Decide which one of the four answer
choices-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-is the best answer to the question. Then mark the appropriate answer on the
answer sheet.
1. (A) An improved toothbrush.
(B) Recent developments in genetics.
(C) New uses for bacteria.
(D) A means of fighting tooth decay.
2. (A) They have many side effects.
(B) They occur naturally in people's mouths.
(C) They attack one type of bacteria.
(D) They cause tooth decay.
3. (A) Microbiology.
(B) Genetic engineering.
(C) Dentistry.
(D) Civil engineering.
4. (A) PlanA includes dinner, but Plan B does not.
(B) Plan B is more expensive than Plan A.
(C) Plan B includes Sunday dinner, but Plan A does not.
(D) PlanA provides for three meals on most days while Plan B provides for only two.
5. (A) The Bengal Grill.
(B) Restaurants near campus.
(C) The Tiger's Lair.
(D) The dormitory cafeterias.
6. (A) A receipt.
(B) A check.
(C) A student ID card.
(D) A friend.
7. (A) Selling one's meal tickets to anyone else.
(B) Eating at a dormitory where one does not live.
(C) Eating at a cafeteria if one lives off campus.
(D) Going back for more than one serving of food.
8. (A) They are open longer hours.
(B) They serve many more students.
(C) They offer a wider variety of foods.
(D) They charge lower prices.
9. (A) Visitors to the Bronx Zoo.
(B) Zoology students.
(C) Visitors to the City Zoological Gardens.
(D) New employees at the zoo.
10. (A) They were usually sleeping when visitors were present.
(B) They were uncomfortable because they were exposed to direct sunlight.
(C) They couldn't be observed because they were always in darkness.
(D) They couldn't sleep well and therefore became ill.
11. (A) To make them visible to observers.
(B) To put them to sleep.
(C) To simulate natural daylight.
(D) To allow them to see clearly.

18
12. (A) Study marsupial mammals.
(B) Leave the zoo.
(C) Look at the nocturnal animals.
(D) Go to the World Down Under exhibit.

19
 Listening Practice Test 1
This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts,
eachwith its own directions. You are not permitted to turn the page during the reading of
thedirections or to take notes at any time.
Part A
Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the conversations
and questions only once, and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and select
the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated oron
what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

You will read: (A)Open the window.

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.
From the conversation you fmd out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over by
the window. The best answer to the question "What does the woman think the man should do?"
is(B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.

20
21
22
Part B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers. After
each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each conversation
and question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),(B), (C),
or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred.
Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have
selected.
Don't forget: during actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

23
24
Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After
each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only
once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),(B),
(C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be
inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that
you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

Now here is a sample question.

You will hear:
You will read:(A) Philosophy.
(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.
The lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in an astronomy
class. The choice that best answers the question "In what course is this lecture probably being
given?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
Here is another sample question.
You will hear:

You will read: (A) The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon.
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
(C) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun
and the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers
the question "According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is
(A),"The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."
Don't forget: during actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

25
26
Listening Practice Test 2
This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts, each
with its own directions. You are not permitted to turn the page during the reading of the
directions or to take notes at any time.
Part A
Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the conversations
and questions only once, and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and select
the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on
what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

You will read: (A)Open the window.

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.
From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over by
the window. The best answer to the question "What does the woman think the man should do?"
is(B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.

27
 1. (A) He’ll correct the exams this afternoon.
(B) The exam will be at noon.
(C) He will collect the exams at 12:00.
(D) The tests have not yet been graded.
2. (A) Martha applied for a visa last month.
(B) Martha’s visa will last for only a month.
(C) Martha arrived last month without her visa.
(D) Martha’s visa was already delivered.
3. (A) The professor described what the students should do.
(B) There was a long line to register for the required class.
(C) The professor required an outline.
(D) The professor lined up for retirement.
4. (A) Chuck had improved.
(B) This visit was better than the last.
(C) Chuck looked at him in the hospital.
(D) Chuck didn’t seem to be doing very well.
5. (A) She thinks the tuition should be increased.
(B) The semester’s tuition is quite affordable.
(C) It costs too much.
(D) She has more than enough for tuition.
6. (A) He thinks he got a good grade.
(B) The history grades were all C or above.
(C) No one got history grades.
(D) All the grades were C or lower.
7. (A) The parking lots were full before 10:00.
(B) It was impossible to start class by 10:00.
(C) He parked the car before class at 10:00.
(D) The possibility of finding a place to park increased.
8. (A) She’s found a new ring.
(B) She would like a hug.
(C) She’s shopping for a carpet.
(D) She’s thankful she has a rag.
9. (A) In a department store.
(B) In a bank.
(C) In an accounting film.
(D) In a checkout line.
10. (A) Jane usually visits San Francisco for her vacations.
(B) Jane’s cousin often visits San Francisco.
(C) Whenever there’s a holiday, Jane’s cousin goes to San Francisco.
(D) Whenever there’s a holiday, Jane leaves San Francisco.

28
11. (A) He wishes he had something to eat.
(B) He hopes he won’t eat for weeks.
(C) He wishes he hadn’t eaten so much.
(D) He wishes he weren’t eating.
12. (A) Traffic should not be allowed.
(B) She thinks that the traffic should stay outside.
(C) She agrees that the traffic is noisy.
(D) She’ll stay outside with the man.
13. (A) The headings for today’s reading assignment.
(B) The chance to make the headlines.
(C) Her reading ability.
(D) The daily newspaper.
14. (A) The bus trip is only five minutes long.
(B) The man missed the bus by five minutes.
(C) The man doesn’t have time to waste.
(D) The bus was five minutes late.
15. (A) It’s not possible to pass the class.
(B) She’ll definitely fail.
(C) It’s always possible.
(D) She shouldn’t say anything about the class.
16. (A) She gave Tom money to pay the rent.
(B) She was given money for the rent.
(C) Tom borrowed money for the rent.
(D) She had some money to lend.
17. (A) The cake is extremely good.
(B) He never tasted the cake.
(C) He wished he hadn’t tasted the cake.
(D) The cake has never been very good.
18. (A) At the corner, she ran into another car.
(B) She ran to Carl because she cared.
(C) She unexpectedly met one of her relatives.
(D) Carl was running from place to place.
19. (A) She shouldn’t leave her purse here.
(B) She’s probably in the apartment.
(C) Her purse must not be in the apartment.
(D) She left without taking her purse.
20. (A) The landlord failed to collect rent on the first of last month.
(B) The tenants absolutely must pay rent by the first of the month.
(C) The landlord will not fail to collect your rent on the first of the next month.
(D) It is important to call the landlord about rent on the first of the month.

29
 21. (A) Taking the car out for a test drive.
(B) Listening to the noises.
(C) Fixing the car herself.
(D) Getting the car repaired.
22. (A) Martha’s jobs are easy.
(B) It’s easy to hold two jobs.
(C) It’s better for Martha to have two jobs.
(D) Martha should slow down.
23. (A) The plane took off just after he arrived.
(B) He arrived just after the plane took off.
(C) He wasn’t in time to catch the plane.
(D) He arrived too late to catch the plane.
24. (A) He agrees with the woman’s suggestion.
(B) Parking is not free on the weekend.
(C) It is not necessary for them to park.
(D) He thinks they don’t have to pay.
25. (A) He is eager to leave his job.
(B) He is unhappy at the thought of retiring.
(C) He couldn’t be unhappier about retiring.
(D) He is retiring too soon.
26. (A) He got the car he really wanted.
(B) He didn’t get a new car.
(C) The car that he got was not his first choice.
(D) He didn’t really want a new car.
27. (A) Mr. Drew pointedly asked the president about the committee.
(B) The president pointed to Mr. Drew’s head.
(C) Mr. Drew became head of the new commission.
(D) Mr. Drew was committed to the president’s appointments.
28. (A) She felt inferior.
(B) She wasn’t furious.
(C) She felt there should have been more fairness.
(D) She was extremely angry.
29. (A) The man would do the dishes.
(B) The plates did not need to be washed.
(C) The man would not be ready to go.
(D) The dishes would not be done.
30. (A) He knew that grapes were cheaper than cherries.
(B) He didn’t know that grapes were cheaper than cherries.
(C) He brought grapes because they were cheaper than cherries.
(D) He didn’t buy either grapes or cherries because of the price.

30
Part B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers. After
each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each conversation
and question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),(B), (C),
or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred.
Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have
selected.
Don't forget: during actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

31
 31. (A) Attend a football game alone.
(B) Go to a sporting event.
(C) Eat in the cafeteria and study.
(D) See a play.
32. (A) It’s the final game of the season.
(B) It’s better than the drama departments play.
(C) It’s a very important game.
(D) It’s close to the cafeteria.

33. (A) A play.

(B) A game.
(C) A study group meeting.
(D) Dinner in the cafeteria.
34. (A) Saturday night.
(B) After dinner in the cafeteria.
(C) Sunday afternoon.
(D) Maybe next weekend.
35. (A) Trash orbiting Earth.
(B) A trip by an astronaut to the Moon.
(C) The overabundance of garbage on Earth.
(D) Becoming space scientists.
36. (A) From a lecture.
(B) In a magazine article.
(C) In a book.
(D) On a television program.
37. (A) 17,000 pounds.
(B) 3,000 tons.
(C) 3,000 pounds.
(D) 300 tons.
38. (A) She will be able to travel in space.
(B) The problem will take care of itself.
(C) Scientists will find solutions to the problem.
(D) The junk will fall to Earth.

32
Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After
each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only
once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),(B),
(C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be
inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that
you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

Now here is a sample question.

You will hear:
You will read:(A) Philosophy.
(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.
The lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in an astronomy
class. The choice that best answers the question "In what course is this lecture probably
beinggiven?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
Here is another sample question.
You will hear:

You will read: (A) The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon.
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
(C) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun
and the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers
the question "According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is
(A),"The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."
Don't forget: during actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

33
 39. (A) On the first day of class.
(B) In the middle of the semester.
(C) At the end of class.
(D) In the final week of the semester.

40. (A) Later today.

(B) By Friday of this week.
(C) In two weeks.
(D) In three weeks.
41. (A) Journal and magazine articles.
(B) Books from outside the library.
(C) Books listed in the student journals.
(D) Both books and journals.
42. (A) Two.
(B) Three.
(C) Five.
(D) Seven.
43. (A) In winter.
(B) In spring.
(C) In summer.
(D) In fall.
44. (A) Seasonable, with warm summers and cold winters.
(B) Fairly constant and moderate.
(C) Very humid.
(D) Extremely hot year-round.
45. (A) They come from the southwest.
(B) They come most days of the year.
(C) They are the hardest during the night.
(D) They increase the humidity.
46. (A) Preparing for a trip.
(B) Writing a report about the weather.
(C) Beginning a study of the weather.
(D) Buying warm clothes for a trip.
47. (A) Modern American Authors.
(B) United States History.
(C) American Democracy.
(D) Nineteenth-Century American Literature.
48. (A) Death of Abraham Lincoln.
(B) The beauty of American democracy.
(C) The raising of plants.
(D) The maturity of poetry.

34
49. (A) It’s a poem about the author.
(B) It’s a poem about Abraham Lincoln.
(C) It’s a collection of twelve poems that remained unchanged.
(D) It’s a volume of poetry that grew with its author.
50. (A)”Leaves of Grass”
(B) “Song of Myself”
(C) “When Lilacs Last in Dooryard Bloomed”
(D) “American Democracy”

35
36
2. STRUCTURE

37
38
 Review of Tenses
Definition : Any of the forms of a verb that may be used to show the time of the
action or state expressed by the verb.
Types of Tense : Present, past, perfect, and future.
Formulation :

No TENSES TIME SIGNAL

1 Present Tense Every day, today, on Sunday, etc.
(+) S + V1 (s/es) + O
( -) S + do/does + not + V1 + O
(?) Do/does + S + V1 + O ?
2 Present Continuous Tense Now, right now, at the moment, at present,
(+) S + to be (is, am, are) + Ving + O these days, nowadays, etc.
( -) S + to be (is, am, are) + not + Ving + O
(?) To be (is,are, are) + S + Ving + O ?
3 Present Perfect Tense For, since, already, just, yet.
(+) S + have/has + V3 + O
( -) S + have/has + not + V3 + O
(?) Have/ has + S + V3 + O ?
4 Present Perfect Continuous Tense For …
(+) S + have/has + been + Ving + O Since …
( -) S + have/has + not + been + Ving + O
(?) Have/has + S + been + Ving + O?
5 Past Tense Yesterday, this morning, just now, last
(+) S + V2 + O night, last week, a day ago, a week ago,
( -) S + did + not + V1 + O etc.
(?) Did + S + V1 + O ?
6 Past Continuous Tense When, while.
(+) S + to be (was/were) + Ving + O
( -) S + to be (was/were) + not + Ving + O
(?) To be(was/were) + S + Ving + O ?
7 Past Perfect Tense For, since, when, after, before, etc.
(+) S + had + V3 + O
( -) S + had not + V3 + O
(?) Had + S + V3 + O ?
8 Past Perfect Continuous Tense For, since, when, after, before, etc.
(+) S + had + been + Ving + O
( -) S + had + not + been + Ving + O
(?) Had + S + been + Ving + O
9 Present Future Tomorrow,
(+) S + will/shall + V1 + O Next week,
( -) S + will/shall not + V1 + O Next month, …
(?) Will/Shall + S + V1 + O ?
10 Present Future Continuous Tomorrow,
(+) S + will + be + Ving + O Next week,
( -) S + will not + be + Ving + O Next month, …
(?) Will + S + be + Ving + O ?
11 Present Future Perfect Tomorrow,
(+) S + will + have + V3 + O Next week,
( -) S + will not + have + V3 + O Next month, …
(?) Will + S + have + V3 + O ?

39
 12 Present Future Perfect Continuous Tomorrow,
(+) S + will + have + been + Ving + O Next week,
( -) S + will not + have + been + Ving + O Next month, …
(?) Will + S + have + been + Ving + O

PRACTICE

A. Use the verbs in the bracket to form the sentences in appropriate tenses!

1. My daughter (take) … a lot of photographs of the Borobudur when she went there.
2. Mr. Blain (be) … the principle of the school since I entered this school.
3. I hope that by the time my father retires I (get) … a job.
4. She (learn) … how to operate this fax machine for 45 minutes, but she can’t send
even a single paper yet.
5. I (look) … the data in this folder for one hour.
6. My roommate always (study) … in the library.
7. When the teacher came in the classroom the students (read) … their textbook.
8. My brother (be) … a copywriter for that company since April.
9. He told the clerk that he (withdraw, not) … his money yet.
10. All the applicants (join) … the admission test tomorrow.
11. I received my first salary after I (work) … for one month.
12. The interviewer sometimes (ask) … about the interviewee's complete name.
13. The secretary (turn off) … the computer before she left room.
14. The waiter who wears blue T-shirt (serve) … the guests at table six now.
15. Some tourists asked many questions after the guide (tell) … the story behind that
picture.
16. My uncle (travel) … to Lisabon for several times.
17. The bank (approve) … my check last two days.
18. This company (launch) … new software next month.
19. She (take) … Japan course for one year.
20. The manager of two companies (sign) … the agreement before they announced it in a
formal ceremony.
21. Most business (need) … capital in order to start productive work.
22. He (speak) … to me since the last committee meeting.
23. Can I borrow your pen or you (use) … it at the moment?
24. Paula can not have the newspaper now because her aunt (read) … it.
25. I (teach) … hundreds of students but I (never, meet) … such a hopeless class as this.
26. When I (arrive) …, the lecture (start) … and the professor (write) … on the
blackboard.
27. You should not call him at ten because he still (have) … a meeting then.
28. The driver (go) … 500 kilometers by the time he stops.
29. By the end of next June, they (sail) … for five month.
30. Every night the watchman (turn) … on all the lights and (walk) … around the
building every half an hour.

40
B. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be corrected.

1. Egyptians, who are gathering their clay from clay from the Nile, used straw or
A B C
reeds to strengthen their bricks.
D
2. The advisor told himself, while listening to the speech, that a dozen other
A B
reporters would has already asked that question.
C D
3. At the start of the American Revolution, Americans hung lanterns in the old
A B
North Church as a signal that British come.
D
4. Linus Pauling has wins two Nobel Prizes: the 1954 Nobel Prize in Chemistry
A B C
and the 1962 Nobel Peace Prize.
D
5. On the huge Ferris wheel constructed for a world exhibition in Chicago in
A B
1893, each of the thirty-six cabs could held sixty people.
C D
6. To overcome rejection a skin graft, a system for matching donor and recipient
A B C
tissues has be developed.
D
7. Nails are commonly made of steel as well as contains substances such
A B C
aluminum.
D
8. A patient suffering from amnesia may had partial or total loss of memory.
A B C D
9. The idea of using pure nicotine to help smokers stop is first tried in the mid
A B C
1980-an with nicotine-laced chewing gum Nicolette.
D
10. Extension of the countdown hold to fourteen hours were ordered to give crews
A B C
more time to repair writing and clear away equipment.
D
11. Florida has become the twenty seventh state in the U.S. on March 3, 1845.
A B C D

41
 12. After last week’s meeting, the advertisement department quickly realized that
A B C
the product will need a new slogan.
D
13. John F. Kennedy’s grandfather, John F. Fitzgerald, serves two terms as the
A B C
mayor of Boston in the beginning of the twentieth century.
D
14. Fort Ticonderoga, a strategically important fortification during revolution, had
A B
being reconstructed and turned into a museum.
C D
15. In making their calculations, Institute researchers assume that the least costly
A B C
form of energy would be used.
D
16. The formula used in this study calls for either peroxide or metaldehyde, but
A B
metaldehyde was not always available.
C D
17. A twenty-one-year-old man became the second casualty yesterday when he
A B
loses control of his truck.
C D
18. The professor had already given the work assignment when he
A
had remembered that Monday was a holiday.
B C D
19. Having been beaten by the police for striking an officer, the man will cry out
A B C
in vain.
D
20. Ratu said that she went to the supermarket before coming home.
A B C D

42
 Passive Voice

General Formulation : TO BE + Verb III → ( by )

Description :

Underline the passive forms!

The World Needs Green Plants

Food and oxygen are needed by animals. Every day huge quantities of food and oxygen
are used up. Fortunately, the world’s supplies do not run out. Food and oxygen are being
made by green plants during daylight hours.

When you examine it, every food we eat can be traced to green plants. For example, eggs
are produced by hens which live on grains. Whatever food you think of, the answer is
always the same; it can be traced back to plants.

Green plants build up their own food. They are called producer. Animals cannot build up
their own food. They are called consumers. Primary, consumers are animals which live
only on green plants. Secondary consumers are animals which feed on other animals.
Thus, grass is a producers; a goat that eats grass is a primary consumer, while a lion that
eats the goat is a secondary consumer. This description can be seen in a food chain.

Specific Formulations
a. Simple Present : am, is, are + Verb III
b. Simple Past : was, were + Verb III
c. Present Continuous : am, is, are + being + Verb III
d. Past Continuous : was, were + being + Verb III
e. Present Perfect : have, has + been + Verb III
f. Past Perfect : had + been + Verb III
g. Sentences with modals : can, will, must, etc. + be + Verb III

Examples:
A. Simple Present (V1+s/es → am, is, are + V3)
1. They buy some new cars → Some new cars are bought by them.
2. Ben opens the laptop → The laptop is opened by him.

B. Simple Past (V2 → was/were + V3)

1. They bought some new cars → Some new cars were bought by them.
2. Ben opened the laptop → The laptop was opened by him.

43
 C. Present Continuous (tobe present + [Link] → tobe present + being + V3)
1. They are buying some new cars → Some new cars are being bought by them.
2. Ben is opening the laptop → The laptop is being opened by him.

D. Past Continuous (tobe past + [Link] → tobe past + being + V3)

1. They were buying some new cars → Some new cars were being bought by them.
2. Ben was opening the laptop → The laptop was being opened by him.

E. Present Perfect (have/has + V3 → have/has been + V3)

1. They have bought some new cars → Some new cars have been bought by them.
2. Ben has opened the laptop → The laptop has been opened by him.

F. Past Perfect (had + V3 → had been + V3)

1. They had bought some new cars → Some new cars had been bought by them.
2. Ben had opened the laptop → The laptop had been opened by him

G. Sentences with Modals (modals + V1) → modals + be + V3

1. They will buy some new cars → Some new cars will be bought by them.
2. Ben can open the laptop → The laptop can be opened by him.

Model of multiple choice test:

a. Completing sentence
1. A big sport building ….. next year.
(A) is building
(B) will be built
(C) has been built
(D) is being built

b. Finding the form (from active to passive or vice versa)

1. The nanny looks after the baby well. The passive form is ….
(A) The baby was looked after by the nanny well.
(B) The baby is looked well after by the nanny.
(C) The baby were looked after the nanny well.
(D) The baby is well looked after by the nanny.

c. Finding the meaning

1. ”The seminar was canceled by the manager because of the rain”, means …..
(A) The manager cancelled the rain for the seminar
(B) The rain was postponed because of the seminar
(C) The manager cancels the seminar because the rain came.
(D) The manager cancelled the seminar because the rain came

44
PRACTICE
A. Change the following active sentences into passive!
1. I am writing my assignments now.
2. The secretary was writing a letter.
3. They have eaten many fruits since morning.
4. My mother prepares breakfast every day.
5. The newspaper boys always throw newspaper into the yard.
6. The strangers cannot pronounce the letter R clearly.
7. The pizza boy will deliver my order at 10 pm.
8. Mother had called father before I came.
9. We are preparing some materials for presentation.
10. My brother brought an envelope to send an application.

B. Change the following passive sentences into active!

1. English is spoken by people in USA.
________________________________________________________
2. Empat Mata was watched by them last night.
________________________________________________________
3. The exercise was being done by me right now.
________________________________________________________
4. The newspapers were being edited by the workers at 11 last night.
________________________________________________________
5. The questions must be answered by the students when the quiz comes.
________________________________________________________
6. The dinner will be eaten by us tonight.
________________________________________________________
7. All questions have been answered by Linda clearly.
________________________________________________________
8. The seminar was cancelled by Mr. Jack because of the hard rain.
________________________________________________________
9. The result of the report had been reported by the branch manager.
________________________________________________________
10. A beautiful doll is bought by my father in America.
________________________________________________________

C. Construct a short paragraph that consists of at least five (5) passive expressions!
Note:
There is a gerund means passive:
a. The garden needs watering = to be watered
b. My shoes wants mending = to be mended

45
 D. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and
(D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

1. Carnivorous plants ____ insects to obtain nitrogen.

(A) are generally trapped
(B) traps generally
(C) are trapping generally
(D) generally traps
2. ____ discussed by the board of directors when it was proposed again by the
supervisors.
(A) The problem had already
(B) The problem already
(C) The problem had already been
(D) The problem has already
3. Much of the carnage of elephants, giraffes, and big cats ____ uncaring hunters.
(A) must commit by
(B) must be committing
(C) must have committed
(D) must have been committed
4. It ____ by a presidential aide that a lawyer from Virginia has been named attorney
general.
(A) announces
(B) announced
(C) is announcing
(D) is being announced
5. The horses can’t be taken now because they ____ for the past few hours.
(A) have ridden
(B) have been rode
(C) have been ridden
(D) have to be riding
6. The house that Mrs. Martin has always wanted to buy has ____ on the market.
(A) just placed
(B) to place just
(C) just been placed
(D) been just placing
7. The vacation to Europe will ____ before the scheduled departure date.
(A) plan carefully
(B) carefully planned
(C) be carefully planned
(D) be planning carefully

46
 8. The coffee turned bitter when it ____ on the stove for so long.
(A) left
(B) was leaving
(C) was left
(D) was to leave
9. The Military Academy at West Point ____ on the west bank of the Hudson River,
north of New York City.
(A) located
(B) is located
(C) which located
(D) whose location is
10. Particular issues that concern teenagers were ____ in the half-hour program.
(A) covers
(B) to cover
(C) covering
(D) covered

E. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be corrected.

1. The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week.
A B C D
2. He has been hoped for a raise for the last four months, but his boss is reluctant
A B
to give him one.
C D
3. Segregation in public school was declare unconstitutional by the Supreme
A B C
Court in 1954.
D
4. Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D
5. The state seal still used in Massachusetts designed by Paul Revere, who also
A B C
designed the first Continental currency.
D
6. Sapphires weighing as much as two pounds have on occasion mined.
A B C D

47
 7. The lobster, like many crustaceans, can cast off a damaging appendage and
A B C
regenerate a new appendage to nearly normal size.
D
8. The curricula of American public schools are set in individual states; they
A B C
do not determine by the federal government.
D
9. The fact that white light is composed of various wavelengths may be
A B
demonstrating by dispersing a beam of such light through a prism.
C D
10. Generally the pattern of open space in urban areas has shaped by commercial
A B C
systems, governmental actions, and cultural traditions.
D

48
 Elliptical Construction
Definition : Elliptical construction is a short form of two sentences that is
constructed by eliminating some of the same parts to avoid
monotonous.
Formulation :
Positive statement → First sentence + and + SO + AUX + S
→ First sentence + and + S + AUX + TOO
Negative statement → First sentence + and + NEITHER + AUX + S
→ First sentence + and + S + [Link] + EITHER
Types of Auxiliary:
1. To be present : am, is, are
2. To be past : was, were
3. Verb 1 (simple present) : do, does
4. Verb 2 (simple past) : did
5. Verb 3 (present perfect) : have, has
6. Verb 3 (past perfect) : had
7. Modal : modal

Examples:
A. Positive Statement
1. Tukul is a popular presenter. Eko Patrio is a popular presenter.
→ Tukul is a popular presenter and so is Eko patrio.
→ Tukul is a popular presenter and Eko patrio is too

2. Krisdayanti sings very well. Titi DJ sings very well.

→ Krisdayanti sings very well and so does Titi DJ.
→ Krisdayanti sings very well and Titi DJ does too

3. She has moved from Jakarta. We have moved from Jakarta.

→ She has moved from Jakarta and so have we
→ She has moved from Jakarta and we have too

STRUCTURE II STBA TEKNOKRAT 49

1
 B. Negative Statement:

1. Riyan does have good attitude. Wulan doesn have good attitude.
→ Riyan does have good attitude and neither does Wulan.
→ Riyan does have good attitude and Wulan doesn’t either.

2. I didn’t get a good score. You didn’t get a good score.

→ I didn’t get a good score and neither did you.
→ I didn’t get a good score and you didn’t either.

3. She has got her ambition. He has got his ambition.

→ She has not got her ambition and neither has he.
→ She has not got her ambition and he hasn’t either.

C. Contradictory Statement

1. I am beautiful. She is not beautiful.

→ I am beautiful but she isn’t.

2. We understand the materials. They don’t understand the materials.

→ We understand the materials but they don’t.

3. You haven’t got the paper. I have got the paper.

→ You haven’t got the paper but I have.

PRACTICE
A. Combine the following sentences!
1. Mrs. Sefia was a rich woman. Mrs. Natalie was a rich woman.
2. My friend studied in America. Your friend studied in America.
3. Julie likes eating bakso. Clara likes eating bakso.
4. Indah hasn’t finished her final report. Dian hasn’t finished her final report.
5. You had got the answer key. I had got the answer key.
6. Mr. Tikno was not invited to the party. Mr. Budi was not invited to the party.
7. The teacher did not go to the beach. The students went to the beach.
8. Smith had had a present. Jim hadn’t had a present.
9. Ahmad always comes late. Elpin never comes late.
10. Mr. Nick is a generous person. His brother is a stingy person.

50 STRUCTURE II STBA TEKNOKRAT 2

B. Choose one correct answer! 6. X: “I can’t watch anything”
Y: “ ………”
1. She was going to the beach..
(A) So can I
(A) and we do too
(B) Neither can I
(B) and we are too
(C) I don’t either
(C) and we were too
(D) Neither could I
(D) and so are we
7. X: “I saw her this morning”
2. Mother likes sewing and ….
Y: “ ……………”
(A) my sister does too
(A) So had I
(B) my sister do too
(B) So do I
(C) so did my sister
(C) So did I
(D) but my sister does
(D) I did so
3. Liana never cheats during the
8. My grandmother didn’t know
test and…..
anything about it and ……
(A) Fariz does too
(A) my grandfather did too.
(B) Neither does Fariz
(B) my grandfather didn’t neither.
(C) Fariz didn’t either
(C) neither didn’t my grandfather.
(D) So does Fariz
(D) my grandfather didn’t either.
4. These sentences are incorrect,
9. Steve : “My bother has just got
except ….
a new motorcycle”
(A) Sarah Azhari has beautiful
Andrew : “What a coincidence!
eyes and so has Ayu Azhari.
………………………”
(B) Sarah Azhari has beautiful
(A) My brother has too.
eyes and Ayu Azhari has
(B) Also my brother.
too.
(C) So does my brother.
(C) Sarah Azhari has beautiful
(D) My brother does too.
eyes and neither has Ayu
Azhari.
10. Everyone laughed at his jokes, ….
(D) Sarah Azhari has beautiful
(A) but the teacher not.
eyes and Ayu Azhari does
(B) and so the teacher did.
too.
(C) but the teacher didn’t.
(D) and the teacher either.
5. I don’t like dancing and neither
does my wife. From this sentence
we know that….
(A) we like dancing very much.
(B) only my wife who hate
dancing.
(C) we dislike dancing.
(D) my wife like dancing.

STRUCTURE II STBA TEKNOKRAT 51

3
 C. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be corrected.

1. I went to Bali last month, so does Tina.

A B C D

2. Toni didn’t study yesterday, either did Rini.

A B C D

3. Hadi doesn’t speak Italian, Manik does either.

A B C D

4. John isn’t happy, neither am not I.

A B C D

5. She wasn’t late yesterday, so was Doni.

A B C D

6. John is writing a letter, I do too.

A B C D

7. I haven’t visited Jakarta, neither has her.

A B C D

8. Dodi can’t swim well, neither did I.

A B C D

9. I pass the exam, so did my friends.

A B C D

10. She doesn’t like avocado, either do I.

A B C D

52 STRUCTURE II STBA TEKNOKRAT 4

 Question Tag
Definition : Question tag is an expression used at the end of a sentence to ask for
confirmation or agreement about something we are not sure. It is constructed
by finding out the auxiliary verb of the sentence and then put it at the end
part.

Formulation :

A. POSITIVE STATEMENT, NEGATIVE TAG?

- Angel Lelga is a sexy woman, isn’t she?
- Mr. Bean makes us laugh, doesn’t he?
- Soeharto led this country for more than ten years, didn’t he?

B. NEGATIVE STATEMENT, POSITIVE TAG?

- She doesn’t cook every day, does she?
- We cannot fly without wings, can we?
- They haven’t sacrificed their life for us, have they?

Exceptions:

a. When the statement is positive, but contains a negative words (never, barely, seldom,
scarcely, hardly) then the question tag must be in positive form.
Example : 1. Tanty never reads the Jakarta Post, does she?
2. They seldom visit their children, do they?

b. When the subjects of the statement are somebody, someone, every body, every one,
nobody, and none, the personal pronoun in QT must be they.
Example : 1. Somebody is looking at me, aren’t they?
2. None came to her party last night, did they?

c. When the subjects of the statement are something, everything, nothing, the pronoun in QT
is it.
Example : 1. Everything is running well, isn’t it?
2. Nothing can change my love for you, can it”

d. When the subject of a positive statement in the present tense is I, the QT must be aren’t I
and not vice versa.
Example : 1. I am a successful student, aren’t I?

53
 2. I am inside the class, aren’t I?
Compare: I am not a good man for her, am I

e. The QT of let’s is shall we

Example : 1. Let’s go shopping, shall we?
2. Let’s study hard, shall we?

f. The QT of imperative is will you

Example : 1. Go out, will you?
2. Don’t smoke here, will you?

g. The pronoun for the baby is it

Example : The baby is sleeping now, isn’t it?

PRACTICE

A. Complete the following sentences by appropriate tag endings!

1. She goes shopping every day, …………….?

2. Jimmy has been studying English for a long time, ………………?
3. You played tennis yesterday, ………….?
4. It was also heavy yesterday, …….?
5. Andrew never thinks that it will happen, ……..?
6. The bus doesn’t stop near here, ……?
7. You haven’t had your lunch, …….?
8. Yessi won’t mention this to anyone, …….?
9. The mail is delivered at ten o’clock, ……?
10. Tamara got an invitation from SCTV award, ……?
11. There has been a riot on the street,……?
12. Everybody admired his painting, ……..?
13. Bring me some meals, ………..?
14. Take care of the baby, ………..?
15. Let’s have some drink, ………..?
16. She has an expensive car, ……..?
17. Nobody lives with me, ………..?
18. Let me go,……?
19. The baby is smiling, ………..?
20. They seldom visit each other, ……?

54
B. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be corrected

1. You wouldn't have been able to do it, wouldn’t you?

A B C D

2. You did your homework, did you?

A B C D

3. They've been told about the meeting, have they?

A B C D

4. It’s a lovely day, isn't this?

A B C D

5. There's a problem here, isn't it?

A B C D

6. You think you're clever, aren’t you?

A B C D

7. You remember to feed the cat, didn't you?

A B C D

8. He never says a word, does she?

A B C D

9. You'll come to my party, wouldn’t you?

A B C D

10. I'm not late, I’m?

A B C D

55
 Gerund and To Infinitive
GERUND
Definition : Gerund is V1 + ing functions a noun and has the same meaning as its
verb.
Types/Function :
1. Gerund as Subject
- Cheating makes us stupid
- Jogging keeps our body healthy

2. Gerund as Object
- Everybody likes reading funny story
- We enjoy planting the flowers.

3. Gerund as Complement
- My hobby is collecting antique souvenirs
- Her ambition is getting a rich man

4. Gerund after Preposition

- My sister is very fond of swimming
- Chyntia is good at singing

5. Gerund after Possessive Adjective

- Your singing disturbed many people in this house.
- I can identify her writing poetry.

Some Verbs Followed by Gerund:

admit delay practice
allow detest postpone
appreciate enjoy pardon
avoid excuse prevent
anticipate finish quit
be busy fancy resist
can’t help forgive risk
can’t stand keep start
complete mind suggest
continue miss understand
deny neglect

56
PRACTICE
Answer the following questions by using gerund expressions!
Example: X: What is your hobby ? (G as subject)
Y: Fishing is my hobby
1. What do you think of your cooking? (G after possessive adj. as subject)
I think my cooking is delicious.
2. What do you think of Writing subject? (G as object)
I think writing subject is good/interesting
3. Do you like collecting stamps? (G as object)
Yes, I like collecting stamps.
4. Who is good at singing in this class? (G after preposition)
Masri and Anas are good at singing.
5. What do you think of having two boyfriends? (G as subject)
I think having two boyfriends is very difficult.
6. Do you like your grammar lecturer’s teaching? (G after possessive adj./object)
Yes, I like my grammar lecture’s teaching.
7. What is your father’s hobby? (G as complement)
My father’s hobby is smoking/fishing/sleeping.
8. What do you avoid? (G as object)
I avoid raining/eating/smoking/
9. What do you appreciate from your teacher? (G after possessive adj.)
I appreciate his speaking/smiling/teaching/being angry.
10. What are you keen on? (G after preposition)
I am keen on singing/reading/killing/sleeping/cooking/eating/ washing your
motorcycle.

57
 TO INFINITIVE
Definition : To infinitive is one of verbal which is constructed by to + verb1 and
doesn’t function as the main verb of the sentence.
Types/Function :

1. To Infinitive as Subject
- To do something is not as easy as to say.
- To reach our ambition needs much sacrifice.

2. To Infinitive as Modifier
a. Noun Modifier
- All people need water to drink.
- My father takes a chair to sit.
b. Adjective Modifier
- The materials are easy to understand
- All of us are happy to get money in Lebaran day
c. Verb Modifier
- I always study to get the higher rank in my class.
- We meet to talk about our relationship.
d. Question Modifier
- My father asked me when to meet the headmaster.
- She told me how to make a good essay.

Some Verbs Followed by to infinitive

advise force prepare

allow hope promise
appear intend propose
arrange invite refuse
ask instruct tell
beg learn teach
claim manage urge
decide mean warn
demand need want
deserve offer wish
expect permit would like
fail plan

- She advises me to travel a lot.

- They ask me to repair the project.
- Mother allows me to spend the night in the forest.
- The manager expects the staffs to work hard.
- The class has planned to go abroad.
- They decided to finish the paper as soon as possible yesterday.

58
 - The policeman instructs the driver to drive carefully.

Additional Information:
There are some verbs that can be followed by both gerund and infinitive:
attempt stop
continue start
forget try
hate remember
like begin
love need

PRACTICE (gerund and infinitive)

A. Decide the function of to infinitive in the following sentences!

1. The teacher is sad to tell the result of the quiz.
2. To get more knowledge is to get more experience.
3. The secretary will need a pen to write her notes.
4. She went to find her love.
5. I explained my students how to answer the exercises.
6. I am confused about what to do after my graduation day.
7. The teacher buys a chalk to write on the blackboard.
8. Ira Swara is singing to amuse all the audience.
9. It is wonderful to visit Bali in our honey moon.
10. To get a better score is not difficult if we know the tricks.

B. Choose one correct answer!

1. She was very happy ….. an invitation of interview from the manager.
(A) she gets
(B) to get
(C) gets
(D) will get

2. He said that he would go to the store ….. something.

(A) buying
(B) to buy
(C) to buys
(D) to buying

59
 3. It is very difficult …..smoking.
(A) to give up
(B) given up
(C) given
(D) to be given up

4. Your handwriting is almost impossible ….

(A) to reading
(B) for read
(C) to read
(D) be read

5. “What did Nino promise you yesterday?”

“ ……. together in library.”
(A) We study
(B) Studied
(C) Studying
(D) To study

6. The students enjoyed ….. the materials about gerund and infinitive.
(A) to discuss
(B) to be discussed
(C) discussing
(D) discuss

7. ……a football player in Brazil is very fantastic.

(A) Being
(B) Be
(C) To being
(D) To becomes

8. I dislike your ….. my things without permission.

(A) use
(B) used
(C) to use
(D) using

9. I forget telling him the truth. This means …..

(A) I forget to tell him the truth
(B) I should tell him the truth
(C) I have told him the truth but I forgot
(D) I don’t tell him the truth

60
 10. We always avoid …. To the zoo on Sundays because it is too crowded.
(A) go
(B) to go
(C) goes
(D) going

11. “Where is Nancy”

“I am sorry. I completely forget…….her.
(A) to invite
(B) inviting
(C) invites
(D) not to invite

12. George said that he wouldn’t mind ……

(A) to wait for us
(B) wait for us
(C) waiting for us
(D) waited for us

13. It was difficult for the university students ….. themselves to their new environment.
(A) they adapt
(B) adapting
(C) adapt
(D) to adapt

14. We were astonished at …..a good score for TOEFL in spite of his poor English.
(A) her could get
(B) his being able to get
(C) being able to get
(D) be able to get

C. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
corrected.

1. Although the new accountant enjoys working here, he is considering

A
to transfer and quitting because he dislikes the supervisor nagging him so
B C D
much.

61
 2. Mrs. Smith wanted meeting her coworkers, who always gather to have
A B
lunch in the employee cafeteria, but she had to postpone lunch in order to
C
finish typing one last letter.
D

3. Not only did we forget to turn off the lights, but we also failed locking the
A B
door, to check that nobody was still inside, and to turn on the alarm.
C D

4. The file clerk says he can’t afford to live on his salary if he wants saving
A B
some money for an emergency, so he’s going to stop complaining and
C
start looking for another job.
D

5. The advertising manager considered leaving the firm, but he has decided
A
staying here part time while continuing to work on the Johnson project.
B C D

6. The nutritionists told him to avoid to eat lots of carbohydrates, focus on

A B
having more protein-rich foods and green vegetables, and remember
C
to drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
D

7. When we were talking about relaxing after work, Yafet said he enjoyed
A
to listen to music, Carla said she preferred jogging, and I mentioned I was
B C
considering taking up tennis.
D

8. After Kendall admitted taking home office equipment for his personal use,
A
the boss said he was thinking of firing him, but had decided letting him
B C
stay on if he promised not to do it again.
D

62
9. Paula says she’s planning on resigning soon because she expects getting
A B
accepted into an MBA program, hopes to study international trade, and
C
then, upon graduating, find a much better job.
D

10. If you want my advice about succeeding in the workplace, you should
A
plan to arrive on time every day, agree to work late if necessary, and stop
B C
to gossip.
D

11. A problem it has caused setback and we have been forced to change the
A B C
final date of completion if we want to avoid being penalized.
D

12. A lot of people have offered to help with the project; however, he decided
A B
to do it immediately and by itself.
C D

13. The first group, which were supposed to collect the information, finished
A B
doing it last.
C D

14. How could they knew that the messenger was going to be late because of
A B
the poor weather conditions?
C D

15. Can we afford buying another word processor, or should we consider

A B
renting one to save money?
C D

16. I’ve enjoyed meeting you and you staff, and I expect being in touch with
A B C
you soon.
D

63
 17. I’m so happy to report that the annual report to the Board, which Jameson
A
compiled it by himself, shows a fifteen percent growth in production and a
B C
wider profit margin.
D

18. We’re planning on bridging in an efficiency expert to help us avoid

A
to waste so many supplies and so much time, in order to cut down on
B C D
overhead costs.

19. You’ve got to stop spending so much money at the mall and go to fancy
A B C
restaurants if you want to save enough for that vacation you’ve been

planning on.
D

20. Because we’ve told you to expect seeing big ups and downs in the stock
A B C
market, don’t panic if your stocks have lost a lot of value, and just wait
D
until things get better.

64
 Participle
Definition : Participle is the ING form which function as adjective or
adverb.
Types/Function :

A. Present Participle
1. As Adjective
- tell the activity of the object → I saw him cheating yesterday
- tell the characteristics of the noun → The smiling girl is my sister.
The girl smiling is my sister.
2. As Adverb
- it tells the time → Drinking a cup of coffee, Jim spoke to me.
- it tells reason → Having the ticket, I’m allowed to enter.
- it tells condition → Studying hard, you will pass the exam.
- it tells two activities
done at the same time → The man stands bringing a big picture.
by the subject

- it tells an action is
immediately followed by → Closing the door, he closed his eyes.
another by the same subject.

B. Past Participle

1. As an adjective
- Before the noun → The teacher gave us a written test.
- After the noun → The test written by the teacher was
difficult.
2. As adverb, preceded by ‘having’
- Having called me, the man smiled so nicely.
- Having been called, the man smiled so nicely.

65
 PRACTICE

A. Class Task: Combine the following sentences!

1. I saw your brother. He was talking to a pretty girl.

……………………………………………………………………

2. I watched the employees. They were repairing the road.

……………………………………………………………………

3. I found a woman purse. It was lying on the road.

……………………………………………………………………

4. We heard someone. He was singing a dangdut song.

……………………………………………………………………

5. We learn a language. The language is spoken by American.

……………………………………………………………………

B. Decide : gerund or participle?

1. a washing machine ……………………………………………………...

2. a crying child …………………………………………………………

3. a burnt house …………………………………………………………

4. a singing bird …………………………………………………………

5. a shopping centre …………………………………………………………

6. playing cards …………………………………………………………

7. a sleeping bag …………………………………………………………

8. a swimming costume ……………………………………………………...

9. a meeting agenda …………………………………………………………

10. an amusing film …………………………………………………………

66
C. Choose one correct answer!
1. …. near beautiful beach, the town 6. After the students had completed the
soon became a popular tourist test, they handed in their paper and
resort. left the room. We can also say: ‘….the
(A) Situation test, the students handed in their paper
(B) It is situated and left the room.
(C) Situating (A) completed
(D) Situated (B) completing
(C) having completed
2. Sometimes life must be very (D) to have completed
unpleasant for people ……. near
airports. 7. ………her mistake, the stewardess
(A) live immediately apologized to the
(B) living passengers.
(C) they are living (A) Realized
(D) be living (B) In realizing
(C) Realizing
3. The young man …. by this institute (D) She realizes
are all university graduates.
(A) employ 8. ……..by mountain, the city has a cool
(B) employed climate.
(C) employing (A) Surrounded
(D) to employ (B) Surrounding
(C) Having surrounded
4. A few weeks after the interview, I (D) Be surrounded
received a letter ….me the job.
(A) offering 9. Having switched off the lamp, ……
(B) offered (A) it was the door he locked
(C) he offered (B) the door was locked
(D) being offered (C) he locks the door
(D) the door was being locked
5. Trying hard to win the beauty
contest, Yuni neglected all her 10. ……… at two prestigious universities,
school assignment. The underlined Elza has a hard time deciding one to
words mean: ‘…….very hard to choose.
win the beauty contest’ (A) Accepted
(A) If she tried (B) Accepting
(B) Although she tried (C) He was accepted
(C) Before she tried (D) To be accepted
(D) Since she tried

67
 D. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
corrected.

1. Before computerizing business became common, overworked clerical staff

A B
had to look for hidden data in all the company records.
C D

2. We’ve prepared a special dinner for our esteemed guests: fried Chinese
A B
won-ton and other assorting appetizers and roasted leg of lamb as the main
C D
course.

3. The agreed-on price for those textiles is lower than what our competitor
A
could offer you, and the shipping merchandise will arrive all precut and
B C D
ready to use.

4. All recently hired employees are to attend a trained session on the newly
A B
installed telephone system since the company depends on informed staff
C D
members.

5. The supervisor is very annoyed that trusted office clerks don’t know where
A B
the folder is for our valued client, Rising Sun, Ltd., and demands that the
C
misplacing files be found soon.
D

6. That recently opening hotel with the super-sized ballrooms and

A B
air-conditioned meeting rooms will be the perfect spot for our next
C
scheduled trade conference.
D

7. I can’t understand your scribbled handwriting, your muffled audiotapes,

A B
your abbreviating ideas, or your uninspired conclusions.
C D

68
8. Even though her receipt is missed and our long-established store policy
A B
says that returned items must come with receipts, her refunded money will
C D
be mailed to her shortly.

9. Our new receptionist’s dyed hair, overdoing makeup, painted nails, and
A B C
tight-fitting dress are not the image we want in this firm.
D

10. In the coming months, our planned pay raises and redecorating employee
A B C
lounge should produce more satisfied workers.
D

69
 Causative
Definition : Causative is an expression which is used to ask someone to do
something or to ask something to be done by someone.
Types : Have, Get, Let, Make

Formulations :

1. S + have + O (thing) + V3

→ They have the room cleaned.

→ Mother has the meals prepared.

2. S + have + O(person) + V1
→ I have you open the box in front of my parents.
→ The teacher had the students do all of the exercises.

3. S + get + O(thing) V3
→ Ruth gets her hair cut .
→ The big boss will get the meeting cancelled.

1. S + get + O(person) + to V1
→ Father get the security to stop the motorcycle.
→ I get my husband to teach me power point

2. S + let/make + O(person) + V1
→ My mother lets me go to the new year eve party.
→ My sister in law made me cry this morning.

3. S + help + O(person) + V1/to V1

→ The small girl helped the blind man cross the street.
→ The small girl helped the blind man to cross the street.

70
PRACTICE

A. Change the verbs (if possible) in the parentheses into the correct form!

1. My neighbor got his son (clean) the yard every morning.

……………………………………………………………………….
2. Did you have your clothes (wash) by your mother?
……………………………………………………………………….
3. The chief manager let me (go) home earlier than him.
……………………………………………………………………….
4. My sister will have her jeans (shorten).
……………………………………………………………………….
5. Dodo never gets his dog (eat) inside the house.
……………………………………………………………………….

B. Make the sentence based on the clue given. Decide your own subject!

Example: a. (let) student - speak

b. The teacher didn’t let the students speak Indonesian inside the
class.

1. (get) the broadcaster - play the song

……………………………………………………………………….
Someone gets the broadcaster to play the song.
Someone gets the song played by the broadcaster.
The broadcaster gets someone else to play the song.
The broadcaster gets the song played.

2. (have) Mr. Frans - review the materials

I have Mr. Frans review the materials.
I have the materials reviewed.
Mr. Frans has the secretary review the materials.
……………………………………………………………………….

71
 3. (had) the vegetables - cook
My mother has the vegetables cooked.
My mother has me cook the vegetables.
……………………………………………………………………….

4. (made) the servant - train

The servant made someone train.
Someone made the servant train.
……………………………………………………………………….

5. (make) the employees - work hard

The boss makes the employees work hard.
……………………………………………………………………….

72
C. Choose one correct answer! 6. X: “Udin is a lazy boy”
Y: “Yes. He always wants ….. for
1. The leader of the committee has him”.
the room …. (A) everything has done
(A) decorate (B) to have done everything
(B) decorating (C) everything having been done
(C) decorated (D) to have everything done
(D) to be decorated
7. I don’t know how to arrange these
2. I will have my secretary …..an flowers. I would rather …..
appointment with Madam Anita (A) do it by myself
for next week. (B) have to do it
(A) made (C) have it done
(B) make (D) have done it
(C) making
(D) to make 8. The curtains are dirty; we …. at the
dry cleaner.
3. Mr. Petter gets the plumber (A) must have washed them
…..the leaking tap. (B) have washed them
(A) to fix (C) are washing them
(B) fixes (D) must have them washed
(C) fixing
(D) fix 9. Since my son’s handwriting is still
bad, I will have him….once more.
4. Jacky had me finish his (A) writing
homework. It means ….. (B) write
(A) Jacky and I finished his (C) written
homework together. (D) to write
(B) Only Jacky who could
finish his homework 10. As he hates shopping, he always has
(C) I finished his homework by …
myself (A) someone do it
(D) I asked Jacky to finish my (B) done it for someone
homework (C) to do it for someone
(D) someone to do it
5. My watch is too slow. I will
have it ….
(A) fixing
(B) fixed
(C) to be fixed
(D) fix

73
 D. Change into active or passive form of causative sentence!

1. The manager has asked the secretary to book the meeting room.
2. The owner of the house asks everybody to pay the rent-house on time.
3. The teacher will ask the students to write the paper.
4. The trainer asked the team to win the game.
5. The boys have asked the girls to wear the same clothes.

E. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
corrected.

1. In the future, the company will not let its part-time and temporary employees
A B C
to work overtime.
D

2. Despite 20 years of success, the financial stress and burden of the sudden
A B C
recession made the partnership fail.
D

3. The firm wants its product package safely and in a timely manner; otherwise it
A B C
will seek an alternative shipper.
D

4. All employees were able to get their paychecks depositing before the power
A B C
outage closed the banks.
D

5. The severe weather conditions in the alpine regions forced the airlines
A B
canceled all outgoing flights and divert incoming planes.
C D

6. I received a text message from Takeshi yesterday, and it mentioned that they
A B C
had the equipment was shipped.
D

7. Before Annie run out for a meeting yesterday, she had Ms. Brunelli showed
A B C
the new clerk around the premises.
D

74
 8. The increase in layoffs over the past two fiscal periods has caused everyone

Preference
A B C
feels less secure.
D

9. What company besides ours would make its employees worked overtime on a
A B C
national holiday?
Definition : this is an expression which is used to state a choice between two things.
D
Types : consumer gets his or her phone order confirms in writing before
10. A wise
- prefer
A - to B C
- prefer
submitting payment. - rather than
D - like - better than
- would rather - than

Formulation :

a. S + prefer + N + to + N
→ My son prefers magazine to newspaper
→ I prefer singing to dancing

b. S + prefer + to infinitive + rather than + infinitive

→ I prefer to play guitar rather than watch TV
→ Mr. Smith prefers to fish rather than play football.

c. S + like + N + better than + N

→ I like laptop better than computer.
→ The queen likes cooking better than shopping.

d. S + would rather + N + than + N

→ I would rather pop music than dangdut music
→ My husband would rather cartoon film than romantic film.

e. S + would rather + Verb 1 + than + Verb 1

→ I would rather go shopping than make an essay.
→ I would rather practice my singing than do my homework.

PRACTICE

A. Write your conclusion based on the description!

Example:
Adi reads newspaper once a week and reads magazine three times a week.
→ Adi likes reading magazine better than reading newspaper.

75
 1. My sister has collected fifty novels and a hundred comics. (prefer)
……………………………………………………………………………….

2. Peggy listens to the radio one hour a day and watches TV five hours a day. (would
rather)
……………………………………………………………………………….

3. My brother eats five apples a day and one orange a day. (like)
……………………………………………………………………………….

4. Nanda stayed in Marcopolo Hotel for one year and in Sahid for seven years (prefer)
……………………………………………………………………………….

5. Mr. Jacklin never took a taxi to his office. He rode his bicycle.(prefer)
……………………………………………………………………………….

6. Dedek never drinks milk. He always drinks mineral water. (would rather)
……………………………………………………………………………….

7. Boby wears t-shirt only twice a week. He wears shirt five times a week. (prefer)
……………………………………………………………………………….

8. Her mother bought three dangdut CD’s and one Kroncong CD.(like)
……………………………………………………………………………….

9. The tourist ordered two plates of fried rice and one plate of uduk rice (prefer)
……………………………………………………………………………….

10. The little boy always smiles, he never cries. (would rather)
……………………………………………………………………………….

B. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
corrected.

1. I prefer using a keyboard to write with a pen.

A B C D

2. It's such nice weather. I'd prefer to sit in the garden rather than
A B C
watching TV.
D

76
3. We went to the theatre yesterday. Today I would rather going to the
A B C
cinema.
D

4. The film is quite violent. I'd rather our children don't watch it.
A B C D

5. I'd rather you take a taxi than walk - it's not safe on the streets at night.
A B C D

6. We like eating fish tonight rather than meat.

A B C D

7. They prefer having their coffee before than after their dessert.
A B C D

8. Ann likes living in the country rather living in a city.

A B C D

9. Are you going to cook the dinner or would you rather I cook it?
A B C D

10. I’d prefer to stay at home tonight better than go out.

A B C D

77
 Expletive There
Definition:

1. Expletive there is used to introduce a sentence or as a filler.

2. Expletive there doesn’t refer to anything or mean anything. They just fill the place of the
subjects to make the sentences complete.
Examples: a. There is my umbrella.
b. There are some books.
There function to fill the position of the subject. is my umbrella and are some books are
not complete without There.

3. When there functions as a false subject, the verb agrees with the real subject that follows
it, i.e. if the real subject is plural, the verb must be plural; if the real subject is singular, the
verb must be singular.
Examples: a. There are three books in my bag.
b. There is one apple for you.
Uncountable noun : sugar, salt. sand, water, rice, air, money, flour, hair, oil, etc.

Formulation:

1. There + to be + Subject
- There was my father.
- There are some people.

2. There + to be + Subject + Adverb

- There has been a riot in Jakarta.
- There is a man behind the wall.

3. There + to be + Subject + clause

- There is a book that you want
- There is a woman whom I love
- There is a man that you want to find.
- There are lots of flowers that make you happy
- There is a beautiful house where you live
- There were many patients who are taken care in this hospital.
- There was flood which destroyed many villagers’ houses in Yogyakarta yesterday.

78
4. There + V + Subject
- There will come a time when we must appreciate others.
- There arrived the most beautiful woman in this country.
- There arrives a lady every morning in this station.
- There have been killed some victims by a cruel murder.
- There goes smooth wind from the river.
- There comes the time that we must be a part.
- There will stay people in this class.
- There moves sudden earthquake to the North.
- There is coming a great movie in Theatre21 soon.

PRACTICE

A. Construct two sentences based on the following formulations!

1. There + to be + Subject
……………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
2. There + to be + Subject + adverb
……………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
3. There + to be + Subject + that clause
……………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………

4. There + to be + Subject + adjective clause

……………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………

5. There + Vi + Subject
……………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………

B. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
corrected.

1. A man goes in the pub. There’s a bear sitting in the corner. He goes up to
A
the, he goes up to the bartender. He says, why is there a bear sitting over
B C
that?
D

79
 2. These are around 6.000 accidents in the kitchens of Northern Ireland homes
A B C
every year.
D

3. N may be too large for the to be room for that number.

A B C D

4. The paramedics arrived just in time, and that was some question of there
A B C
being brain damage this time.
D

5. In sulphate soils these are very rapid fluctuations in pH values according to

A B
changes in the water regime, there being a very rapid drop on drying due to
C
oxidation changes.
D

6. If you want to know, that is supposed to be a plot between you and me to

A B
get hold of his wealth.
C D

7. These seem to have been a lot of people who took up painting for a while
A B C
and then dropped it.
D

8. Well then, on some corner of Time’s beach, or on the muddy rim of one of
A
her more significant rivulets, those have been washed together casually and
B
indifferently a number of features that Nature had tossed away as of no use
C
to any of her creations.
D

80
9. Somewhere deep inside her that arose a desperate hope that he would
A B C
embrace her.
D

10. In all such relations this exists a set of mutual obligations in the
A B C
instrumental and economic fields.
D

81
 Impersonal It
Definition : The word it in this discussion is not a noun but an introducer of a sentence.

Formulations :

A. It + aux. + adj (for O) + to V1

→ It is necessary for us to drink eight glasses a day.
→ It is wonderful to spend the night near Kuta beach.

B. It + aux. + adj - noun + (for O) + to V1

→ It is a sinful thing to tell a lie to the public.
→ It is a special occasion for me to attend this seminar.

C. S + V - it + adj. + (for O) + to V1
→ I guess it difficult for him to forget everything about me.
→ We consider it easy for us to persuade her go with us.

D. It + aux + adj + that + S + V1

→ It was essential that we practice English together.
→ It is useful that you apply urine therapy.

PRACTICE

A. Change the following sentences by using impersonal it!

Example: Saving some of our salary is not easy.

→ It is difficult to save some of our salary.

1. Stopping smoking suddenly for a great smoker is a frustrating thing.

………………………………………………………………………………

2. To sing in such a low key is not easy for Soprano.

………………………………………………………………………………

3. Reading biography book about the greatest person of the world is worth for us.
………………………………………………………………………………

85
 4. To study grammar is an unchallenging thing for many students.
………………………………………………………………………………

5. To blame Jessica for that mistake is not fair.

………………………………………………………………………………

6. To understand why she is angry is easy.

………………………………………………………………………………

7. Finishing that work in such a short time will be very impossible for me.
………………………………………………………………………………

8. That he must stop his English course is a pity.

………………………………………………………………………………

9. To be the best student in this class is not difficult

………………………………………………………………………………

10. Swimming in the night is dangerous for our health.

………………………………………………………………………………

B. Complete the following sentences!

1. It will be very hard for a girl to…….……………………………………….

2. It is important for us to...……………………………………………………
3. It was wonderful that…………………………………………………..…...
4. It is impossible for human being to…………………………………………
5. It is an attractive thing that………………………………………………….
6. I guess it would be useless to……………………………………………….
7. It is an embarrassing thing for an adult woman to………………………….
8. It is a surprising thing for my mother to.…………………………………...
9. It was useful for us to..……………………………………………………...
10. I think it impolite for us to.…………………………………………………

C. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be corrected.

1. Because of the ability of this apparatus to locate distant objects under

A B
water, the United States Navy found sonar especially it is useful for
C
detecting the positions of enemy submarines during World War II.
D

86
2. That is important for a football player to have speed because he not only
A B
has to run fast but also has to think fast.
C D

3. Each script gets a thorough examination by experts, but this is primary up

A B C
to producer and photographer to present the facts with imagination.
D
4. It was impossible avoid the ghostly looking iceberg because the luxury
A B C
liner was traveling so fast.
D

5. All diamonds have a natural line of cleavage along which they may be
A B
split, and it is essential spliting them before they are cut and polished.
C D

6. It is fallacious to popular belief holds that a snake’s age can be told by

A B C
counting the rings.
D

7. It is possible that buy commodities from other economic units or sell

A B C
commodities to them.
D

8. That seems rather improbable that a celestial body, the size of the moon,
A B
could completely block out the tremendous immense Sun, as happens
C
during a total eclipse.
D

9. Some land owners, however, are wondering if that is better to sell their
A B
land to the government or keep it for possible future use.
C D

10. It is very difficult that succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands
A B C
that release a first record fail to produce a second.
D

87
 Degrees of Comparison
Comparisons indicate degrees of difference with adjective and adverbs, and may be
equal or unequal.

A. Equal Comparisons

An equal comparison indicates that the two entities are (or are not, if negative)
exactly the same. The following rule generally applies to this type of comparison.

Subject + verb + as + (adjective/adverb) + as + (noun/pronoun)

Example:

My book is as interesting as yours. (adjective)

His car runs as fast as a race car. (adverb)
John sings as well as his sister. (adverb)
His job is not as difficult as mine. (adjective)

In correct English, the subject form of the pronoun will always be used after as.
Example:
Peter is as tall as I.
You are as old as she.

The same idea can also be conveyed in another way.

Subject + verb + the same + (noun) + as + (noun/pronoun)

Example:
My house is the same height as his.
Be sure you know the following adjectives and their corresponding nouns.

Adjectives Nouns
Heavy, light Weight
Wide, narrow Width
Deep, shallow Depth
Long, short Length
Big, small Size

B. Unequal Comparison

This type of comparative implies that the entities are comparable in a greater or
lesser degree. The following rules generally apply to this type of comparison.

88
 1. Add –er to the adjective base of most one-and two-syllable adjectives. (tall –
taller, thick – thicker, cold – colder)
2. Use the form more + adjective for most three-syllable adjectives, (more
beautiful, more important, more believable)
3. Use the form more + adjective for adjectives ending in the following suffixes:
-ed, --ful, -ing, -ish, and –ous. (more hated, more stylish, more cautious)
4. Double the final consonant of one-syllable adjectives which end in a single
consonant (except w, x, and z) and are preceded by a single vowel. (big –
bigger, red – redder, hot – hotter)
5. When an adjective ends in a consonant + y, change the y to I and add er.
(happy – happier, dry – drier)
6. Remember always to use the subject form of the pronoun after than.

Example:
John’s grades are higher than his sister’s. (adjective)
He speaks Spanish more fluently than I. (adverb)
Today is hotter than yesterday. (adjective)

Nouns can also be used in comparisons. Be sure to use the determiners correctly
depending on whether the adjectives are countable or non count.

Subject + verb + as + (many/much/little/few) + noun + as + (noun/pronoun)

Subject + verb + (more/fewer/less) + noun + than + (noun/pronoun)

Example:
I have more books than she.
February has fewer days than March.
Before payday, I have as little money as my brother.

C. Illogical Comparisons

An illogical comparison is one in which unlike entities have been compared. Be

sure that the items being compared are the same. These forms can be divided into
three categories: possessives, that of, and those of.

Example :
Incorrect : The salary of a professor is higher than a secretary.
Correct : The salary of a professor is higher than that of a secretary.

Incorrect : His drawings are as perfect as his instructor.

Correct : His drawings are as perfect as his instructor’s.

D. Multiple Number Comparatives

Number multiples can include: half, twice, three times, four times, etc. Study the
following rule.

Subject + verb + number multiple + as + (much/many) + noun + as (noun/pronoun)

89
 Example:
This encyclopedia costs twice as much as the other one.
Budi has half as many records now as I had last year.
At Pangandaran beach, Rudi ate three times as many oysters as Joko.

E. Double Comparatives

These sentences begin with a comparative construction, and thus the second
clause must also begin with a comparative.

The + comparative + subject + verb + the + comparative + subject + verb

The hotter it is, the more miserable I feel.

The higher we flew, the worse Santi felt.
The sooner you take medicine, the better you will feel.

F. Positives, Comparatives, and Superlatives

Most descriptive adjectives have three forms: the positive (happy), the
comparative (happier), and the superlative (happiest).
The positive shows no comparison. It describes only the simple quality of a
person, thing, or group.
 The house is big.
 The flowers are fragrant.
The comparative involves two entities and shows a greater or lesser degree of
differences between them.
 My dog is smarter than yours.
 Bob is more athletic than Deni.
In the superlative degree, three or more entities are compared, one of which is
superior or inferior to the others. The following rule applies.
 Dian is the shortest of the three sisters.
 John is the tallest in his class.
 These shoes are the least expensive of all.

Exercise 1
Directions: Select the correct form in parentheses in the following sentences.
1. Of the four dresses, I like the red one (better/best).
2. Safina is the (happier/happiest) person we know.
3. Sophie’s car is (faster/fastest) than Afif’s.
4. This is the (creamier/creamiest) ice cream I have had in a long time.
5. This poster is (colorful/more colorful) than the one in the hall.
6. Does Fred feel (good/better) today than he did yesterday?
7. This vegetable soup tastes very (good/well).

90
8. While trying to balance the baskets on her head, the woman walked
(awkward/more awkwardly) than her daughter
9. Jane is the (less/least) athletic of all the women.
10. My cat is the (prettier/prettiest) of the two.
11. This summary is (the better/the best) of the pair.
12. Your heritage is different (from/than) mine.
13. This painting is (less impressive/least impressive) than the one in the other gallery
14. The colder the weather gets, (sicker/the sicker) I feel.
15. A mink coat costs (twice more than/twice as much as) a sable coat.
16. Jim has as (little/few) opportunities to play tennis as I.
17. That recipe calls for (many/much) sugar than mine does.
18. The museum is the (farther/farthest) away of the three buildings.
19. No sooner had he received the letter (when/than) he called Maria.
20. George Washington is (famous/ more famous) than George Bloomey.

Exercise 2
In each of the following sentences, choose the letter of the equative, comparative, or
superlative that is incorrect. Then, correct the error.
1. Rice is more important than met in many the countries with the highest
populations in the world.
2. Cats are more independent as dogs, but they are not as loyal as dogs are.
3. My car is as fast as yours, but yours is more beautiful than mine.
4. Winter is colder in Montana that it is in Vermont; winter in Alaska is the coldest
in the United States.
5. The most difficult part of the exam was given at the end when everyone was the
most exhaustedest.
6. The more easily understood alphabet in the world is also one of the oldest.

Exercise 3
On the line provided, put an I if the sentence is incorrect and a C if the sentence is
correct. Then, correct each error.
_____ 1. This cake is the sweeter I have ever eaten.
_____ 2. The books that I am reading for history class are the most interesting by
far
than the one’s I’m reading for science.
_____ 3. We bought the heavier coats that we could find.
_____ 4. I would like to read as short as article of them all.
_____ 5. Mabel wanted to buy Victor the better new watch she could find.
_____ 6. This record album is not as interesting as the one you gave me to listen
to last week.
_____ 7. My brother is the taller person in our family.
_____ 8. Greg’s understanding of computers is better than mine.
_____ 9. The color that absorbs sunlight the more easily of all is black.
_____ 10. This stereo is the most expensive of the two that we have looked at
today.

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 MORE PRACTICE
Instruction: Choose one correct answer!

1. Laras is 155 cm tall, and so is Clara. Yet, she is shorter than Cerry.
(A) Laras is taller than Cerry
(B) Laras is as tall as Cerry
(C) Laura is as tall as Cerry
(D) Cerry is the tallest.

2. A clerk works from 8 am to 5 pm with an hour break at noon. A night watch

works from 9 pm to 5 am.
(A) a night watch is longer than a clerk
(B) a night watch is as long as a clerk
(C) a night watch is shorter than a clerk
(D) a night watch is as longer as a clerk

3. Rani speaks English as fluently as her brother Dani does. Yet, her sister, Tani,
speaks more fluently than they do.
(A) Rani doesn’t speak as fluently as Dani
(B) Dani doesn’t speak as fluently as Tani
(C) Tani speaks as fluently as Rani
(D) Dani and Tani speak more fluently than Rani

4. Hendry’s painting got 80 and so did Wanda’s. But, Linda’s painting was better
than theirs.
(A) Hendry’s painting was the best among all
(B) Wanda’s painting was the best quality
(C) Linda’s painting was the worst quality
(D) Wanda’s and Hendry’s were the same quality
5. The quicker the reporter speaks, …….
(A) the more sooner we get the news
(B) the sooner the audience get the news
(C) the more soon he get the audience
(D) the soon the audience getting the news
6. Every body said that Bali is ……. in Indonesia since so many foreigners have
been visiting this place.
(A) more beautiful tourism place
(B) as fantastic as tourism place
(C) the most wonderful tourism place
(D) the most nice tourism place
7. Which one is not correct?
(A) The hottest the weather, the quicker we walk.
(B) The more you learn, the cleverer you become
(C) The slimmer your body, the nicer your performance
(D) The longer, the cooler

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8. We have never thought that he can be ….. his senior joker.
(A) the best of
(B) as popular as
(C) better as
(D) as better as
9. The exercises are …… some of the others.
(A) as difficult as
(B) more difficult among
(C) the most difficult from
(D) the same difficult
10. Jack is 50 kg, Ruth is 50 kg, Jim is 70 kg, Sue is 80 kg. The correct statement is
…..
(A) Ruth has the same weight as Jim
(B) Sue’s weight is different from Ruth’s
(C) Jack has different weight from Ruth
(D) Jim is bigger than Sue

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 Instruction: The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be corrected.

1. His last test results showed he was the quickest typist, yet he was the less
A B C
accurate of all the applicants.
D

2. Best available predictions in some of the most widely read trade papers indicate
A B
better days are ahead for the top manufacturers.
C D

3. Our most promising employee seems more cooperative now she was when she
A B C
was younger.
D

4. Almost everyone has heard the more famous Olympic saying; “Stronger,
A B
Higher, Faster.”
C D

5. The new employees enjoyed their first day at work, although everyone agreed
A B
that the lunch was the bad food they had ever eaten.
C D

6. Even though their first proposal was considered better and more thorough, it
A B C
wasn’t complete as ours.
D

7. We like to take our preferred clients to that newly opened Middle Eastern
A B
restaurant where the service is best than average and the food is superb.
C D

8. The latest addition to our company, Ms. Nakamura, attended one of the wellest
A B
known universities, had some of the most famous business instructors, and
C
scored among the highest in her graduating class.
D

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9. “Best late than never” is one of the oldest proverbs used in most English-
A B C
speaking countries and is said to someone who arrives later than everyone else.
D

10. Soon as you see the first attempt by the patient to speak, press the topmost
A B C D
button on this control to alert the nurse.

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 Inverted Subjects and Verbs
In some situations, subjects and verbs can be inverted in English. Inverted subjects and verbs
occur often in the formation of questions, place expressions, negatives, conditionals, and
comparisons.

A. Inverted Subjects and Verbs with Question Words

To form a question with helping verbs (be, have, can, could, will, would, etc.), the subject
and the helping verb are inverted.

They will play football.

Will they play football? (Inverted)

She can solve the puzzle.

Can she solve the puzzle? (Inverted)

He has gone to campus.

Has he gone to campus? (Inverted)

When there is no helping verb in the sentence, the helping verb do is used to form a
question.

You watched the movie last night.

Did you watch the movie last? (Inverted)

She cooks every morning.

Does she cook every morning? (Inverted)

They study English at school.

Do they study English at school? (Inverted)

Question words such as what, when, where, why, and how can introduce a sentence. In this
case, the subject and verb that follow are inverted.

Why are you angry?

What can I do for you?
Where do you live?
Question words such as what, when, where, why, and how can also join together two
clauses. In this case, the subject and verb that follow are not inverted.

I know where she lives.

When you phoned, she was sleeping.
He confessed what he had done.

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 EXERCISE: Indicate if the sentence is correct (C) or incorrect (I).

______ 1. What type of security does he prefer for his investments?

______ 2. Do you know why he wants to take an extended leave of absence?
______ 3. Only the pilot can tell you how far can the plane go on one tank of fuel.
______ 4. The phone company is not certain when will the new directories be ready.
______ 5. The jury doubts what the witness said under cross-examination .
______ 6. The professor does not understand why so many students did poorly on the
exam.
______ 7. Where is it cheapest to get typeset copies printed?
______ 8. Not even the bank president knows when the vault will be opened.
______ 9. How long it has been since you arrived in the United States?
______ 10. How new students can get information about parking?

B. Inverted Subject and Verb with Place Expressions

The subject and verb can be inverted after expressing ideas of place with single words,
such as here, there, and nowhere.

Here is the book.

There will they go.
Nowhere can I find the key.

After prepositional phrases that express place, the subject and verb can also be inverted.

In the cupboard are the clothes that you need.

At the end of this street is his house.
Behind the door is that boy hiding.

EXERCISE: Indicate if the sentence is correct (C) or incorrect (I).

______ 1. To the north the stream is that the settlers will have to cross.
______ 2. In the apartment next to mine a man and a woman were having a heated
discussion.
______ 3. Nowhere in the world farmers can grow such delicious food.
______ 4. In front of the house were some giant trees.
______ 5. Around the recreation hall and down the path are the tents where we will be
staying.
______ 6. There a big house is on the corner.
______ 7. Around the corner are the offices that you are trying to find.
______ 8. In the cave was a vast treasure of gems and jewels.
______ 9. At the Italian restaurant was the food too spicy for my taste.
______ 10. In the backyard the two trees are that need to be pruned.

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 C. Inverted Subject and Verb with Negatives

The subject and verb are inverted when negative expressions, such as no, not, or never
come at the beginning of a sentence.

Not often does she come late.

Never have I gone to New York.
For no point did we go there.

The subject and verb are also inverted when certain words in English, such as hardly,
barely, scarcely, and only come at the beginning of a sentence.

Only twice did he phone me.

Hardly are diamonds found here.
Scarcely does she come to the library.

EXERCISE: Indicate if the sentence is correct (C) or incorrect (I).

______ 1. Barely had he finished the exam when the graduate assistant collected the
papers.
______ 2. Only once in my life gone I have to New York City.
______ 3. No sooner had she hung up the phone than it rang again.
______ 4. Never the boy wrote to his sisters.
______ 6. The police did not arrive in time to save the girl, and neither did the paramedics.
______ 7. On no occasion did they say that to me.
______ 8. Did he go out of the house at no time.
______ 9. Steve did not win the prize, nor did he expect to do so.
______ 10. Seldom their secretary has made such mistakes.

D. Inverted Subject and Verb with Conditionals

When the helping verb in the conditional clause is had, should, or were, the conditional
connector if can be omitted.

If you had gone earlier, you would not have come late.
Had you gone earlier, you would not have come late. (Inverted)

I would not come to the party if I were busy.

I would not come to the party were I busy. (Inverted)

EXERCISE: Indicate if the sentence is correct (C) or incorrect (I).

______ 1. If your friends come to visit, will they stay in a hotel or at your house?
______ 2. Do you think that she would give the speech were she asked to do so?
______ 3. Had we been informed of the decision, we might have had something to say
about it.
______ 4. Were our neighbours a bit more friendly, it would be somewhat easier to get to
know them.

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 ______ 5. He might be a little more successful today were he a little more willing to do
some hard work.
______ 6. There are plenty of blankets in the closet if should you get cold during the
night.
______ 7. Should you ever visit this town again, I would be delighted to show you
around.
______ 8. Has he enough vacation days left this year, he will take two full weeks off in
December.
______ 9. He would have been in big trouble had not he remembered the assignment at
the last minute.
______ 10. I would like to know could you help me pack these boxes.

E. Inverted Subject and Verb with Comparisons

The inversion of subject and verb after a comparison is optional. It is a rather formal
structure.

This car runs faster than its predecessor.

This car runs faster than its predecessor does.
This car runs faster than does its predecessor. (Inverted)

This test is more difficult than the previous one.

This test is more difficult than the previous one was.
This test is more difficult than was the previous one. (Inverted)

EXERCISE: Indicate if the sentence is correct (C) or incorrect (I).

______ 1. The vegetables at the market this morning were far fresher than were those at
the market yesterday.
______ 2. Do you know why does he need to sleep so many more hours than do the
others?
______ 3. We firmly believed that our team could achieve a much faster time than any of
the others.
______ 4. This candidate has received more votes than has any other candidate in
previous years.
______ 5. The final speaker gave us more details than had any of the previous speakers.
______ 6. Obviously we were much more impressed with the performance than did the
other members of the audience.
______ 7. The film that we saw last night at the festival was far better than any of the
other films.
______ 8. I am afraid that is the condition of these tires as bad as the condition of the
others.
______ 9. This apple pie is not as good as the last one that you made.
______10. On the fishing trip, Bobby caught twice as many fish as anyone else did.

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 Reported Speech
Definition : Reported or indirect speech is an expression used to restate the statement
had been said by using different words but the same meaning.
Types :

1. Reported speech in Statement

It is introduced by: said, explained, informed, told + (that)

a. Positive Statement
The man said, ”The game will be started .”
→ The man said that the game would be started.

Toto said, “I work very hard everyday”

→ Toto said that he worked very hard everyday.

Susan explained, “I have to finish this paper today”.

→ Susan explained that she had to finish that paper the day.

The teacher explained, “You can get good score for your quiz 1 and 2”
→ The teacher explained that we could get good score for our quiz 1 and 2.

Johan informed, “There was bad accident last week in Selat Sunda”
→ Johan informed that there had been bad accident the week before in Selat
Sunda.

Firdaus and Johan informed, “Susan is not in her mood today”.

→ Firdau and Johan informed that Susan was not in her mood the day.

b. Negative Statement
The teacher explained, “Flood does not happen because of many things.”
→ The teacher explained that flood did not happen because of many things.

2. Reported speech in Question

It is introduced by : asked, inquired, wondered, wanted to know + (that)

a. WH - question : who, what, when, etc. + S + V + C

She asked me, “Where do you buy this beautiful bag?”
→ She asked me where I bought that beautiful bag.

100
 Joni asked Tina, “Why do you come late?”
→ Joni asked Tina why she came late.

Fred asked Waluyo, “Where was Jon yesterday?”

→ Fred asked Waluyo where Jon had been the previous day.

Bambang wanted to know, “Whose banana is this?”

→ Bambang wanted to know whose banana that was.

Mpok Lela wanted to know, “When does the class start?”

→ Mpok Lela wanted to know when the class started.

Ujang wanted to know, “How far is Surabaya from here?”

→ Ujang wanted to know how far Surabaya was from there.

Susan asked him, “How much is the price of that bag?”

→ Susan asked him how much the price of that bag was.

b. Yes-No Question/Interogative : if/whether + S + V + C

She asked me, “Do you make the bag by yourself?”
→ She asked me whether I made the bag by myself.

The prince asked his servant, “Is she beautiful?”

→ The prince asked his servant whether she was beautiful

The prince asked his servant, “Has she ever married?”

→ The prince asked his servant whether she had ever married.

The prince asked his servant, “Will she move to another kingdom?
→ The prince asked his servant whether she would move to another kingdom.

3. Reported Speech in imperative

It is introduced by: told, ordered, asked, begged, advised, requested

a. Positive imperative : …… + to V1
“Be quiet, children!”, he said.
→ He told the children to be quiet.

The lecturer ordered the students, “Don‟t cheat!”

→ The lecturer ordered the students not to cheat.

The doctor asked the patient, “Please move your body!?”

→ The doctor asked the patient to move his body.

John begged him, “Don‟t tell someone else!”

→ John begged him not to tell someone else.

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 b. Negative imperative : …… + not to V1
“Don‟t be lazy!”, he said.
→ He told me not to be lazy

The Procedures:

a. If the introduction words in direct speech is in simple present (says, tells, explains,
etc), so the tenses in indirect speech does not change. It is only the pronoun which
is changed.
Example: 1. Mother says, “I am in hospital now.”
→ Mother says that she is in hospital now
2. Jim says, “She goes to school.”
→ Jim says that she goes to school.

b. If the introduction words in direct speech is in simple past (said, told, explained,
etc), so the indirect speech will change the tense, the pronoun, adverb of time and
place.
Example: 1. Mother said, “I was in hospital now,”
→ Mother said that she had been in hospital then.
2. Jim told me, “She went to school alone.”
→ Jim told me that she had gone to school alone.

The Changing of The Tenses

DIRECT SPEECH INDIRECT SPEECH

Simple Present (V1) Simple Past (V2)
1. She said, “I am happy” 1. She said that she was happy.
2. Tom said, “Father goes to office.” 2. Tom said that father went to office.
Present Continuous (am,is,are + Past Continuous (was,were + Ving)
Ving) 1. Mary said that the dog was eating.
1. Mary said, “The dog is eating.” 2. He said that he was watching TV.
2. He said, “ I am watching TV.”
Simple Past Tense (V2) Past Perfect (had + V3)
1. Jack said, “I was in Jakarta.” 1. Jack said that he had been in Jakarta.
2. Rio said, “I did the job alone.” 2. Rio said that he had done the job
alone
Past Continuous (was,were + Ving) Past Perfect Continuous (had been +
1. She said, “I was cooking noodle.” Ving)
2. Nancy said, “They were preparing 1. She said that she had been cooking.
the books for tomorrow.” 2. Nancy said that they had been
preparing the books for the next day.

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 Present Perfect (have,has + V3) Past Perfect (had + V3)
1. Linda said, “I have lived here for 1. Linda said that she had lived there for
three years.” three years.
2. Mr. Brown said, “ My wife has 2. Mr. Brown said that his wife had slept.
slept.”

The Changing of Time

ADVERB DIRECT SPEECH INDIRECT SPEECH

Adverb of time Now then
Today That day/the day
Last week the week before
Last night the night before
…… ago
Tomorrow the next day/the following
day
Adverb of place or next week the following week/the
other expression week after
Yesterday the day before/the previous
day
Here there
This that
These those

PRACTICE

A. Change the following sentences into reported speech!

1. Wulan said, “I have worked hard today.”

→ Wulan said that she had worked the day.

2. Tary said, “The doctor pulled out two of my teeth last week.”
…………………………………………………………………………….

3. He said, “We are learning English Grammar now.”

…………………………………………………………………………….

4. Gita said, “I bought the shoes yesterday.”

…………………………………………………………………………….

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 5. Nancy asked, “Does John like studying Structure?”
…………………………………………………………………………….

6. The old woman asked, “Where can I get the umbrella in this house?”
…………………………………………………………………………….

7. Mr. Black said to his son, “Finish all your job!”

…………………………………………………………………………….

8. Mother said to the newspaper man, “Come earlier tomorrow!”

…………………………………………………………………………….

9. He asked me, “May I borrow your comics?”

…………………………………………………………………………….

10. The pilot said, “We have lost the direction.”

…………………………………………………………………………….

B. Choose one correct answer!

1. Jack asked Mary …. to visit the 4. My friend asked whether he ……

fun- fair. me later that day.
(A) if she wants (A) can visiting
(B) does she likes (B) can visit
(C) if she liking (C) could visits
(D) if she would like (D) could visit

2. The doctor ….. him to stay in 5. Ina wanted to know ……..

bed. (A) from whom did Ari hear the
(A) said news.
(B) wished (B) from whom Ari heard the news.
(C) advised (C) Ari heard the news from whom
(D) explained (D) the news Ari heard from whom.

3. The engineer warned us …. on 6. The girl begged the robber …..

the wires. (A) don‟t take my money.
(A) not to stepping (B) not taking her money
(B) not step (C) he didn‟t take her money
(C) not to step (D) not to take her money
(D) not to stepped

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7. I asked Bob …….
(A) where did he come from
(B) from where was he coming
(C) where he came from
(D) from where is she?

8. Which one has the correct

punctuation?
(A) Mother says to my sister, brush
your teeth
(B) Mother says to my sister :
Brush your teeth!
(C) Mother says to my sister :
„brush your teeth‟
(D) Mother says to my sister,
„Brush your teeth!‟

9. Sinta said, “I have collected many

pictures about my favorite actress.”
Sinta said that she…..
(A) has collected many pictures
about her favorite actress.
(B) had collected many pictures
about his favorite actress
(C) had collected many pictures
about her favorite actress
(D) had been collected many
pictures about her favorite
actress

105
 C. Change the following sentences into reported speech!

1. Santi said, “I will go to your house next week”.

…………………………………………………………………………….
2. Tom said to him, “The movie was changed every two week,”
…………………………………………………………………………….
3. Hery said to her, “John told me this case”.
…………………………………………………………………………….
4. They asked me, “Were you in your house yesterday?”
…………………………………………………………………………….
5. Kurniawan ordered him, “Post this letter to your mom!”
…………………………………………………………………………….
6. Deni says, “I always drink a glass of milk before sleeping every night”.
…………………………………………………………………………….
7. Tina begged, “Don‟t hurt me!”
…………………………………………………………………………….
8. They ask to the audience, “Are you satisfied to this product?”
…………………………………………………………………………….
9. I wanted to know, “Where did he cut this tree?”
…………………………………………………………………………….
10. His father said to him, “The committee refused your proposal”.
…………………………………………………………………………….

D. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
corrected.

1. The scientist predicted that someday we had been in contact with beings
A B C
outer space.
D

2. Ms. Adam wanted to know if you will be in class tomorrow.

A B C D

3. Our lecturer said that he expected you to be in class every day and
A B
unexcused absences may affect your grades.
C D

106
4. The newspaper said that highway 66 will be closed for two months and
A B
commuters should seek alternate routes.
C D

5. In his last letter, my brother wrote that he was getting good grades, but has
A B C
difficulty in understanding lectures.
D

6. Bill was taking a long time to get ready, so I told him hurried up.
A B C D

7. I wonder where Ann is. She says that she would be here at 8 o‟clock.
A B C D

8. Tom said that he had woken up feeling ill, so he hasn‟t gone to work.
A B C D

9. The doctor told me staying in bed for a few days.

A B C D

10. Ann said that she went to New York last week.
A B C D

107
108
3. READING

109
110
READING COMPREHENSION
This section contains reading passages followed by questions based on reading. The section contains
approximately 50 questions and you will have 55 minutes to complete it.
In this reading section you are going to focus on:
Skill I : Answer Main Idea Questions correctly
Skill 2 : Stated Details Questions
Skill 3 : Find “UNSTATED” Details
Skill 4 : Implied Details Questions
Skill 5 : Vocabulary in Context Questions
Skill 6 : Determine “WHERE”Questions

111
 SKILL I: ANSWER MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS

Almost every reading passage on the Paper TOEFL Test or Computer TOEFL Test will have a multiple-
choice question about the main idea of a passage. Such a question may be worded in a variety of ways :
you may, for example be asked to identify the topic, subject, title, primary idea, or main idea. These
questions are all really asking what primary point the author is trying to get across in the passage.
The Main Idea Question can be identified from the following type of questions:
1. What is the topic of the passage?
2. What is the subject of the passage?
3. What is the main idea of the passage?
4. What is the author‟s main point in the passage?
5. What is the author primarily concerned?
6. Which of the following would be the best title?

The answer to this type of question can generally be determined by looking at the first sentence of each
paragraph.

If a passage consists of only one paragraph, you should study the beginning of that paragraph to
determine main idea. Look at a multiple choice example from the paper TOEFL test that asks about the
topic of a passage with one paragraph.
Example from the Paper TOEFL Test
The passage:
In the philosophy of John Dewey, a sharp distinction is made between intelligence and reasoning.
According to Dewey, intelligence is the only absolute way to achieve a balance between realism and
idealism, between practically and wisdom of life. Intelligence involves “interacting with other things and
knowing them,”while reasoning is merely the act of an observer,”…a mind thet beholds of grasps objects
outside the world of things….”With reasoning, a level of mental certainty can be achieved, but it is
through intelligence that control is taken of events that shape one`s life.
The question:
What is the topic of this passage?
(A) The Intelligence of John Dewey
(B) Distinctions made by John Dewey
(C) Dewey s ideas on the ability to reason
(D) How intelligence differs from reasoning in Dewey`s works
This question asks about the topic of the passage. Because this passage has only one paragraph, you
should look at the first sentence of the passage to answer this question. The first sentence of this passage
discusses a distinction between the ideas of intelligence and reasoning in the philosophy of John Dewey,
so this is probably the topic. Now you should check each of the answers to determine which one comes
closest to the topic that you have determined. Answer (A) mentions only intelligence, so it is not the

112
topic. Answer (B) mentions distinctions that John Dewey made, but it does not say specifically that type
of distinctions. Answer (C) mentions only reasoning, so answers is in incomplete. The best answers is
therefore D; the idea of how intelligence differs from reasoning comes from the first sentence of the
passage, which mentions a sharp distinction …….between intelligence and reasoning.
If a passage consists of more than one paragraph, you should study the beginning of each paragraph to
determine the main idea. To answer the question you must follow these steps:
1. Read the first line of each paragraph.
2. Look for a common theme or idea in the first line.
3. Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check that you have rally found the topic
sentence(s).

Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices.
Exercise 1
Fort Knox, Kentucky, is the site of a U.S army post, but it is even more renowned for the Fort Knox
Bullion Depository, the massive vault that contains the bulk of the U.S government`s gold deposits.
Completed in 1936, the vault itself is made of steel and concrete and has a door that weighs more than
twenty tons. Naturally, the most up-to-date security devices available are in place at Fort Knox, and the
army post nearby provides further protection
1. Which of the following best describes the 2. Which of the following would be the best title
topic of the passage ? for this passage?
(A) The city of Fort Knox, Kentucky (A) The Massive Concrete vault
(B) The federal gold depository (B) Fort Knox Security
(C) The U.S army post at Fort Knox (C) Where the United States Keeps Its gold
(D) Gold Bullion (D) A Visit to Kentucky

Exercise 2
Hurricanes generally occur in The North Atlantic from May through November, with the peak of
the hurricane season in September; only rarely will they occur from December through April in that part
of the ocean. The main reason for the occurrence of hurricanes during this April in that part is of the
ocean. The main reason for the occurrence of hurricanes during this period is that the temperature on the
water`s surface is at its warmest and the humidity of the air is at its highest.
Of the tropical storms that occur each year in the North Atlantic, only about five, on the average,
are powerful enough to be called hurricanes. To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical storm must have
winds reaching speeds of at least 117 kilometers per hour, but the winds are often much stronger than
that; the winds of intense hurricanes can easily surpass 240 kilometers per hour.
3. The passage mainly discusses
(A) how many hurricanes occur each year
(B) The strength of hurricanes
(C) The weather in the North Atlantic
(D) hurricanes in one part of the world

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 4. The best title for this passage would be
(A) The North Atlantic Ocean
(B) Storms of The Northern Atlantic
(C) Hurricanes: The Damage and Destruction
(D) What happens from May through November

Exercise 3

The term “primitive art” has been used in a variety of ways to describe works and styles of art. One
way that this term has been used is to describe the early period within the development of a certain style
of art. Another way that this term has been used is to describe artists who have received little professional
training and who demonstrate a nontraditional naiveté in their work.
A wonderful example of this second type of primitive artist is Grandma Moses who spent all her
life living on a farm and working at tasks normally associated with farm life. She did not begin painting
until she reached the age of seventy-six, when she switched to painting from embroidery because the
arthritis in her hands made embroidery too difficult. Totally without formal education in art, she began
creating panoramic images of everyday life on the farm that have achieved international fame.

5. The subject of this passage is 6. Which of the following best expresses

a. An example of one of the types the main idea of the passage?
of primitive art a. Grandma Moses spent her life
b. Grandma Moses‟s life on the on a farm
farm b. Art critics cannot come to any
c. How primitive art differs from agreement on a definition of
formal art primitive art
d. Grandma Moses‟s primitive c. Grandma Moses is one type of
lifestyle primitive artist because of her
lack of formal training.
d. Many artists receive little
professional training

Exercise 4
In the first half of the nineteenth century, a New York newspaper, the New York Sun, successfully
carried out a hoax on the American public. Because of this trick, readership of the paper rose
substantially.

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 On August 25, 1835, the Sun published reports that some wonderful new discoveries had been
made on the moon. The article described strange, never-before-seen animals and temples covered in
shining jewels. Many members of the American public were fooled by the story, even some prominent
members of the scientific community.
The effect of the false story on sales of the paper was dramatic. Paper sales increased considerably
as people eagerly searched out details of the new discoveries. Later, the newspaper company announced
that it had not been trying to trick the public; instead, the company explained the moon stories as a type of
literary satire.

7. Which of the following best states the topic of the passage?

a. A nineteenth-century discovery on the moon
b. The New York Sun
c. A hoax and its effect
d. The success of a newspaper

8. The main point of the passage is that

a. The New York Sun was one of the earliest American newspapers
b. The sun increased sales when it tricked the public with a false story
c. A newspaper achieved success by writing about the moon
d. In 1835 some amazing new discoveries were made about the moon

SKILL II : STATED DETAIL QUESTION

A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a
whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the passage. This means that the
correct answer is often a restatement of waht give in the passage. This means that the correct answer often
expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the words are not exactly the same.

The Stated Detail Question can be identified from the following type of questions:

1. According to the passage….

2. It is stated in the passage….
3. The passage indicates that….
4. Which of the following is true?

How to answer the questions:

1. Choose a key word in the question

2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key word or idea
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully

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 4. Eliminate the definetely wrong answers and chose the best answer from the remaining choices

Exercise 1

Ice ages, those periods when ice covered extensive areas of the Earth, are known to have occured
at least six times. Past ice ages can be recognized from rock strata that show evidence of foreign materials
deposited by moving walls of ice or melting glaciers. Ice ages can also be recognized from land
formations that have been produced from moving walls of ice, such as U-shaped valleys, sculptured
landscapes, and polished rock faces.

1. According to the passage, what happens during an ice age?

(A) Rock strata are recognized by geologists
(B) Evidence of foreign materials is found
(C) Ice covers a large portion of the Earths`s surface
(D) Ice mets six times

2. The passage covers how many different methods of recognizing past ice ages?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four

3. According to the passage, what in the rock strata is a clue to geologists of a past ice age?

(A) Ice
(B) Melting glaciers
(C) U-Shaped valleys
(D) Substances from other areas

Exercise 2

The plane with the largest wingspan ever built was nicknamed the Spruce Goose. The wingspan of
the Spruce Goose was 320 feet (almost 100 meters), and the plane weighed 200 tons. It was so big that it
needed eight engines to power it.
The plane was designed by Howard Hughes in response to a U.S. government request for a plane
that was able to carry large cargo for the war effort. It was made of wood because wood is a less critical
material in wartime than metal.
The plane was so difficult to buils that it never really got used. It was flown one time only, by
Hughes himself, on November 2, 1947; during that flight it travelled a distance of less than one mile over
the Los Angeles Harbor, but it did fly. Today, the Spruce Goose is on exhibit for the public to see in Long
Beach, California.

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4. The passage indicates that the plane was 6. According to the passage, when the
designed .... Spruce Goose flew, ....
(A) As a cargo plane (A) It went only a short distance
(B) As a racing plane (B) It fell into the Los Angeles
(C) To carry wood Harbor
(D) For exhibition (C) It flew 100 miles
(D) It carried a large cargo
5. According to the passage, the Spruce
Goose is constructed from .... 7. The passage indicates that the Spruce
(A) wood Goose today ....
(B) lightweight metal (A) Flies regularly for the U.S.
(C) plastic government
(D) steel (B) Is in the Los Angeles Harbor
(C) Is in storage
(D) Can be seen by the public

Exercise 3

Williamsburg is a historic city in Virginia that was settled byEnglish colonists in 1633, twenty-six-
years after the first permanent English colony in America was settled at Jamestown. In the beginning, the
colony at Williamsburg was named Middle Plantation because of its location in the middle of peninsula
between two rivers, the York and the James. The site for Williamsburg had been selected by the colonists
because the soil drainage was better there than at the Jamestown location, and there were fewer
mosquitoes.

The passage indicates that Jamestown ....

(A) Was settled in 1633

(B) Was settled twenty-six years after Williamsburg
(C) Was the first permanent English colony in America
(D) Was originally named Middle Plantation

SKILL III : FIND ”UNSTATED” DETAILS

You will sometimes be asked in the reading section of both the Paper TOEFL test to find an answer that is
not stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage. This type of question really emnas that three of the
answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the passage, while one answer is not.
The Find “Unstated” Detail Question can be identified from the following type of questions:
1. Which of the following is not stated?
2. Which of the following is not mentioned?
3. Which of the following is not discussed?
4. All of the following are true except?

The answers to this type of question are found in order in the passage.

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 To answer the question you must follow these steps :
1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or related idea).
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully.
4. Look for answers that are definitely true according to the passage. Eliminate those answers.
5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage.

Exercise 1:

In English , there are many different kinds of expressions that people use to give
a name to anything whose name is unknown or momentarily forgotten. The word gadget
is one such word. It was first used by British sailors in the 1850s and probably came from
teh French word Gachette, which was a small hook. in everyday use, the word has a more
general meaning. Other words are also used to give a name to something unnamed or
unknown, and these words tend to be somewhat imaginative. Some of the more
commonly used expressions are a what-d’ye-call-it, a whatsis, a thingamabob,a
thingamajig ,a doodad, or a doohickey

Which of the following is not true about the word gadget?

(A) It is used to name something when the name is not known
(B) It was used at the beginning of the nineteenth century
(C) It most likely came from a word in the Fench language
(D) Its first known use was by British sailors

Exercise 2:

In the 1960s, as space travel was becoming a subject of much discussion, Pan American Airlines
began receiving some fairly unusual requests for flight information. People began making requests to be on
the first flight that Pan Am made to the Moon.
On a whim, Pan Am started a waiting list for the first flight to the Moon. Similar requests have come
to Pan Am started a waiting list for the first flight to the Moon. Similar requests have come to Pan Am over
the years, and Pan Am has responded by adding the names of the requesters to the list.
Unfortunately for Pan Am, the original company is no longer in business, and it never got to the
Moon. However, when it went out of business, it had a waiting list of more than 90,000 names for its first
lunar flight.

1. All of the following are mentioned about Pan American Airlines, EXCEPT that ....
a. It started business in the 1960s
b. It received requests for its first flight to the Moon
c. It kept some people on a long waiting list
d. It went out of business

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 2. Which of the following is NOT true about Pan Am‟s Moon flights?
a. People asked Pan Am about its flights to the Moon.
b. Pan Am kept a waiting list for its Moon flights.
c. Pan Am never really made any Moon flights.
d. Pan Am‟s waiting list had only a few names on it.

Exercise 3
The tunnel trees in Yosemite Valley are an amazing attraction to people who visit there. The tunnel
trees are huge trees, giant redwoods, which have had tunnels carved in them, and cars can actually drive
through some of the trees. The fact is that the trees are large enough to have cars drive through some of the
trees. The fact that the trees are large enough to have cars drive through them should give you some
indication of just how big the trees are.
There are currently two existing tunnel trees in Yosemite Valley. One of them is called the Dead
Giant. This is just the stump, or bottom part, of a much larger tree. The hole was cut through the base of the
tree in 1878, and stagecoaches used to drive can and do drive through it. Today the Dead Giant still exists,
but the stagecoaches do not. Passenger cars can and do drive through the 10-foot-wide opening in the tree
stump.
The other existing tunnel tree is the 230-foot high California Tree, which had a hole carved through
it in 1895. This tree is no longer open to the public, so it is not possible to take a car through it.
Unfortunately, a third tunnel tree no longer exists. The Wawoma Tunnel Tree was a 2,100-year-old
tree which was carved in 1881. A terrible snowstorm in 1969 caused this ancient giant of a tree to fall.

3. Which of the following is NOT true about the tunnel trees in Yosemite Valley?
a. They are trees with holes cut in them.
b. They are giant redwoods.
c. Three tunnel trees currently exist.
d. Cars have driven through some of them.

4. All of the following are stated about the Dead Giant, EXCEPT that ....
a. It is still a tunnel tree today.
b. It is just the stump of a tree.
c. It was cut less than a century ago.
d. It has a 10-foot opening.

5. Which of the following is NOT true about the California Tree?

a. Its tunnel still exists.
b. Its tunnel is 230 feet high.
c. Its tunnel was cut in 1895.
d. Cars are not allowed to go through it.

6. All of the following are true about the Wawoma Tunnel Tree, EXCEPT that ....
a. It does not exist anymore.
b. The tree lived for more than 2,000 years.

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 c. The tunnel tree was destroyed in a snowstorm
d. The tunnel was destroyed in 1881

SKILL IV: IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS

Questions of this type contain the words implied, ionferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the
answer to the question is not directly stated.
The key information that you should remember about implied detail questions:
1. It is implied in the passage that….
2. It can be inferred from the passage that.…
3. It is most likely that….
4. What probably happened?

The answer to this type of question can generally be determined by looking at the first sentence of each
paragraph.

To answer the question you must follow these steps:

1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or related idea).
3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word.
4. Look for an answer that could be true, according to that sentence.

Exercise 1 :

The number of rings in a tree can be used to determine how old a tree really is. Each year a tree
produces a ring that is composed of one light-colored wide band and one dark-colored narrow [Link]
wider band is produced during the spring and early summer, when tree stem cells grow rapidly and become
larger. The narrower band is produced in fall and early winter, when cell growth is much slower and cells
do not getvery large. No cells are produced during the harsh winter and summer months.

1. It is implied in the passage that if a tree 2. It can be inferred from the passage that cells
has 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands then it do not grow ....
is .... (A) when the tree is ill
(A) a century old (B) during extreme heat or cold
(B) two centuries old (C) when it rains too much
(C) fifty years old (D) if there are more light-colored bands than
(D) two hundred years old dark-colored bands

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Exercise 2 :

Until 1996, the Sears Tower was the tallest building in the world, with more than a hundred stories.
It is located in Chicago, whose nickname is the Windy City. The combination of a very tall building in a
city with such weather conditions leads to a lot of swaying in the breeze.
On a windy day, the top of the building can move back and forth as much as three feet every few
seconds. The inside doors at the top of the building open and close, and water in sinks sloshes back and
forth.

3. The Sears Tower is probably

(A) as tall as the Empire State Building
(B) no longer the tallest building in the world
(C) taller than any other building
(D) still the highest building in the world

4. It can be inferred from the passage that Chicago

(A) Has moderate weather
(B) Is generally warm
(C) Has humid weather
(D) Usually has a lot of wind

5. It is implied in the passage that the upper-level doors in the Sears Tower open and close because
(A) The building was poorly constructed
(B) People go in and out so often
(C) The building moves in the wind
(D) There is water in the sinks

Exercise 3
The most common last name in the English-speaking world is Smith, which was taken from the job
of working with metals. A silversmith, for example, is someone who works with the metal silver. Historical
records indicate that the use of this last name is at least 700 years old. Today, there are more than 3,3
million Smith living in the United States and perhaps another million Smith living in other English-
speaking countries worldwide.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that family names

(A) were always taken from the area where a family lived
(B) were short names
(C) had little or no meaning
(D) could be taken from jobs

7. Which of the following is implied about the Smith family name?

(A) It is definitely not more than 700 years old.
(B) It existed 600 years ago.

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 (C) It did not exist 500 years ago.
(D) It definitely was not in use 1000 years ago.

8. In England there are probably

(A) More Smiths than there are in the United States
(B) More than a million Smiths
(C) Fewer than a million Smiths
(D) No families with the name of Smith

SKILL V: VOCABULARY IN CONTEXT QUESTIONS

When you are asked to determine the meaning of a word in the reading section, it is possible that the
passage provides information about the meaning of the word, and there are structural clues to tell you that
the definition of a word is included in the passage.
The Vocabulary In Context Question can be identified from the following type of questions:
1. What is the meaning of “X” in line Y?
2. The word “X” in Y could best be replaced by…

Information to help you understand the meaning of a vocabulary word can often be found in the context
surrounding the word.
To answer the question you must follow these steps :
1. Find the word in the passage.
2. Read the sentence that contains the word carefully.
3. Look for context clues to help you understand the meaning.
4. Choose the answer that the context indicates.

Exercise 1
When babies are born, they always have blue eyes. This is because the melanin, the pigment that
colors the eyes, is not on the surface of the iris. Instead, it is within the creases of the iris. Because there is
little melanin on the surface of the iris, the eyes appear blue.
After a few months, the melanin moves to the surface of the iris. It is the amount of melanin on the
surface that determines a person‟s permanent eye color, so it is at this point that a baby‟s eyes develop the
color they will have for a lifetime.

1. The word “pigment” in line 2 is closest meaning to ....

(A) skin
(B) muscle
(C) tissue
(D) color

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 2. Look at the word “surface” in paragraph 1. This word is closest meaning to ....
(A) top
(B) inside
(C) back
(D) bottom

3. The word “permanent” in line 6 could best be replaced by ....

(A) changeable
(B) lasting
(C) dark
(D) possible

4. Look at the word “point” in paragraph 2. This word could best be replaced ....
(A) dot
(B) era
(C) time
(D) place

Exercise 2 :

A supernova occurs when all of the hydrogen in the core of a huge star is transformed to iron and
explodes. All stars die after their nuclear fuel has been exhausted. Stars with little mass die gradually , but
those with relatively large mass die in a sudden explosion, a supernova. The sudden flash of light can then
be followed by several weeks of extremely brught light, perharps as much light as twenty million stars.

Supernova are not very common;they occur about once every hundred years in any galaxy and in
1987 a supernova that could be seen by the naked eye occured in the Magellan Cloud, a galaxy close to the
Milky way. Scientists periodically detect supernova in other galaxies; however, no supernova have
occured in the Milky Way (the galaxy that includes Earth) since 1604. One very impressive supernova
occured in the Milky Way on July 4, 1054. There was a great explosion followed by three months of
lighted skies, and historical chronicles of the time were full of accounts and unusual explanations for the
misunderstood phenomenon- many people believed that it meant that the world was coming to an end.

5. A “Supernova” in line 1 is which following?

(A) The iron component of a star
(B) The core of a star
(C) The hydrogen in a star
(D) The explosion of a star

6. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the “Magellan Cloud” in line 7?
(A) A galaxy inside the Milky Way
(B) A cloud composed of Hydrogen
(C) A galaxy near earth`s galaxy
(D) A cloud in the sky above the Earth

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 7. Look at the expression Milky Way in paragraph 2. The Milky way is ....
(A) Part of Earth
(B) A galaxy close to Earth
(C) The galaxy that is home to Earth
(D) A creamy-colored cloud in the sky

Exercise 3
The chili pepper is native to the Americans, but nowadays it is found all over the world. It is an
extremely popular spice in many cultures and is, in fact, the world‟s second favorite spice, after salt. There
are more than a hundred species of chili peppers, some of which are quite mild and others of which are
incredibly hot and spicy.
Today chili peppers are used to spice a variety of foods, e.g., salsa, meat and rice dishes, and even
jam and jelly. In the past, chili peppers had some other, more unusual, uses. In ancient Mexico, for
example, chilies could be used to pay taxes. In addition, in Panama, these peppers were used to protect
against sharks.

8. The word “favorite” in line 3 is closest meaning to ....

(A) most popular
(B) most delicious
(C) best known
(D) most recognized

9. Look at the word “jam” in paragraph 2. Jam is probably ....

(A) a type of chili
(B) something to eat
(C) something
(D) a container for chilies

10. The expression “protect against” in line 8 could best be replaced by ....
(A) Lean again
(B) Hunt for
(C) Flirt with
(D) Defend against

SKILL 6: DETERMINE “WHERE”QUESTIONS

The “Where” Question can be identified from the following type of question:
Where in the passage .…
The answer to this type of question can be in any of the lines listed in the answers to the question.

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To answer the question you must follow these steps:
1. Choose a key word or idea in the question.
2. Skim the appropriate part(s) of the passage looking for the key word or idea.
3. Choose the answer that contains the key word or idea.

Exercise 1
By 1963 the one-man space flights of Project Mercury had successfully taken place, and NASA (the
National Aeronautics and Space Administration) was ready for a new challenge. That new challenge was to
send two men into space at the same time, rather than one, so that it would be possible to conduct a wide
variety of new maneuvers and tests.
An appropriate name was found for that new project: the new project was called Project Gemini. The
name “Gemini: might seem appropriate because it is the name of one of the constellations of stars in the
sky, but that is not the real reason for the choice of the name “Gemini”: comes from the Latin word
geminus, which means “twin.” The constellation Gemini received its name because it consists if two very
bright stars with no other bright stars close by, and those stars like twins, the NASA project received its
name because of the number of men who would be together in the space capsule orbiting the Earth.

1. Where in the passage does the author describe NASA‟s new challenge after Project Mercury?
(A) Lines 3-4
(B) Lines 5-6
(C) Line 9
(D) Lines 10 - 12

2. Where in the passage does the author describe the composition of the Gemini constellation?
(A) Lines 3-4
(B) Lines 6-8
(C) Lines 8-10
(D) Lines 10-12

Exercise 2

Chamber music receive its name because it was originally intended to be performed in small rooms
in private homes rather than huge concert halls or theaters. Today it has evolved into small ensemble
music in which each performer in the ensemble plays an individual part.
The compositions written for this type of performance can easily be classified into three distincts
periods, each with its style of music and instrumentation. In the earliest period (1450-1650), the viol and
other instrumental families developed considerably, and instrumental music took its first steps toward
equal footing with vocal music. In the second period (1650-1750), trio sonatas dominated. These ensemble
compositions were often written for two violins and cello; the harpsichord was also featured in various
compositions of this period. In the modern period (after 1750), the preponderance of chamber music wa
written for the string quartet, an ensemble composed of two violins, a viola, and a cello.

125
 3. Where in the passage does the author discuss the modern definition of chamber music?
a. Line 2-3
b. Lines 4-5
c. Lines 8-9
d. Line 9-11

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 PRACTICE TEST READING
A

Question 1-10

The conservatism of the early English colonists in North America, their strong
attachment to the English way of doing things, would play a major part in the
furniture that was made in New England. The very tools that the first New England
furniture makers used were, after all, not much different from those used for
Line 5 centuries-even millenia; basic hammers, saws, chisels,planes, augers, compasses, and
measures. These were the tools used more or less by all people who worked with
wood; carpenters, barrel makers, and shipwrights. At most the furniture makers might
have had planes with special edges or more delicate chisels, but there could not have
been much specialization in the early years of the colonies.
10 The furniture makers in those early decades of the 1600‟s were known
as”joiners,”for the primary method of constructing furniture, at least among the
English of this time, was that of mortise-and-tenon joinery. The mortise is the hole
chiseled and cut into on piece of wood, while tenon is the tongue or protruding
element shapedform another piece of wood so that it fits into the mortise;and another
15 small hole is the drilled (with the auger) through the mortised end and the tenon so
that a whittled peg can secure the joint –thus the term”joiner”. Panels were fitted into
slots on the basic frame. This kind of construction was used for making everything
from houses to chests.
20 Relatively little hardware was used during this period. Some nails-forged by
hand-were used, but no screws or glue. Hinges were often made of leather, but metal
hinges were also used. The cruder varieties were made by blacksmiths in the colonies,
but the finer metal elements were imported. Locks and escutcheon plates- the latter to
25 shield the wood from the metal key – would often be imported.
Above all, what the early English colonists imported was their knowledge of
familiarity with, and dedication to the traditional types and designs of furniture they
knew in England.

1. The phrase “ attachment to” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) control of
(B) distance from
(C) curiosity about
(D) preference for

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 2. The word “protruding in line 13 is closest meaning to ....
(A) parallel
(B) simple
(C) projecting
(D) important

3. The relationship of a mortise and a 7. The word” shield” in line 23 is closest

tenon is most similar to that of .... in meaning to ....
(A) a lock and a key (A) Decorate
(B) a book and its cover (B) Copy
(C) a cup and a saucer (C) Shape
(D) a hammer and a nail (D) Protect

4. For what purpose did woodworkers use 8. The word “they” in line 25 refers to ....
an auger .... (A) Designs
(A) To whittle a peg (B) Types
(B) To make a tenon (C) Colonists
(C) To drill a hole (D) All
(D) To measure a panel
9. The author implies that the colonial
joiners ....
5. Which of the following were Not used (A) Were highly paid
in the construction of colonial furniture? (B) Based their furniture on English
(A) Mortises models
(B) Nails (C) Used many specialized tools
(C) Hinges (D) Had to adjust to using new kidns of
(D) Screws wood in New England

6. The author implies that colonial

metalworkers were 10. Which of the following terms does the
(A) Unable to make elaborate parts author explain in the passage?
(B) More skilled than woodworkers (A) “millenia”
(C) More conservative than other (B) “joiners
colonists (C) “whittled”
(D) Frequently employed by joiners (D) “Blacksmiths”

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Question 11-19

In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being
developed. In 1869 the Stuyvesant, considered new York`s first apartment house was
built on East Eighteenth street. The Building was financed by the developer
Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the first American
Line
5 architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in
Paris, and each understood the economics and social potential of this Parisian housing
[Link] the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In Spite of Hunt`s inviting
facade, the living space was awkwardly arranged. Those who could affrd them were
quite content to remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes, leaving the
Stuyvesant to young married couples and bachelors.
10
The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment
buildings that quickly followed, in the 1870`s and early 1880`s was that they were
confined to the typical New York building lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet
wide by 100 feet deep – a shape perfectly suited for a row house. The lot could also
15 accommodate a rectangular tenement,though it could not yield the square , well-
lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings require. But even
with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea
caught on. It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted somethhing
better than tenements but could not afford or did not want row houses.
20 So while the city`s newly emerging social leadership commisioned their
mansions, apartment houses and hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking
the initial space constraints. In the closing decades of nineteenth century, large
apartment houses began dottling the developed portions of New York city, and by the
opening decades of the twentieth century, spacious building luxury apartement houses
25
on the newly created park Avenue, right next to the fashionable Fifth Avenue
shopping area.

11. The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to

(A) single-family homes
(B) apartment buildings
(C) row houses
(D) hotels

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 12. The word “inviting”in line 7 is closest in meaning to ....
(A) open
(B) encouraging
(C) attractive
(D) asking

13. Whay was the Stuyvesant a limited success?

(A) The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient
(B) Most people could not affird to live there
(C) There were no shopping areas nearby
(D) It was in a crowded neighborhood
14. The word “sumptous” in line 9 is closest
in meaning to ....
(A) Luxurious
(B) Unique
(C) Modern 18. Why did the idea of living in an
(D) Distant apartment become popular in the late
1800`s ?
15. It can be inferred that the majority of a. Large families needed housing with
people who lived in New York`s first sufficient space.
apartments were .... b. Apartements were preferable to
(A) highly educated tenements and cheaper than row
(B) unemployed houses
(C) wealthy c. The city officials of New Yors
(D) young wanted housing that was centrally
located
16. It can be inferred that a New York d. The shape of early apartments could
apartment building in the 1870`s and accomodate a variety of interior
1880`s had all of the following designs
characteristics EXCEPT :
(A) Its room arrangement was not 19. The author mentions the Dakota and the
logical Ansonia in line 24 because ....
(B) It was rectangular a. They are examples of large, well
(C) It was spacious inside designed apartment buildings
(D) It had limited light b. Their design is dimilar to that of
row houses
17. The word “yield” in line 15 is closest in c. They were built on a single building
meaning to .... lot
(A) harvest d. They are famous hotels
(B) surrender
(C) amount
(D) provide

130
Question 20-30

Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roots. The reasons for
roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In
winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve
precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary
roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity-horned larks dig holes in the
Line
5 ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks – but the effect of sheltering is
magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens , swifts brown
creepers,bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the
cold air, so the birds can keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were
found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter , and three together saved a third of their
heat
10
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information
centers”. During the day , parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very
large area. When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may
have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out
15 again next morning , those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to
follow those that did. The behaviour of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate
different feeding behaviours of similar birds with different roosting habits. The
common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground ,
whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area . The
20 common kestrel roosts and hunt alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts, and hunts in
flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others wg=here to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts, since there will always be
a few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased
protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and
25
are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be
attacked b birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find
it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How birds find and store food
(B) How birds maintain body heat in the winter
(C) Why birds need to establish territory
(D) Why some species of birds nest together.

21. The word “conserve” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) retain
(B) watch
(C) locate
(D) share

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 22. Ptamigan keep warm in the winter by ....
(A) Huddling together on the ground with other birds
(B) Building nests in trees
(C) Burrowing into dense patches of vegetation
(D) Digging tunnels into the snow

23. The word “magnified” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) caused
(B) modified
(C) intensified
(D) combined

24. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that ....
(A) Protect themselves by nesting in holes
(B) Nest with other species of birds
(C) Nest together for warmth
(D) Usually feed and nest in pairs

25. The word “forage” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) fly
(B) assemble
(C) feed
(D) rest

26. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
(A) The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets
(B) The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not
(C) The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel
(D) The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser nests on the ground

27. The word “counteracted” in line 24 is closest meaning to

(A) suggested
(B) negated
(C) measured
(D) shielded

28. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that
huddle together while sleeping ?
(A) Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers
(B) Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
(C) Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food
(D) Several members of the flock care for the young

29. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
(A) Diseases easily spread among the birds
(B) Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are
(C) Food supplies are quickly depleted
(D) Some birds in the group will attack the others.

132
 30. The word “they” in line 25 refers to ....
(A) a few birds
(B) mass roats
(C) predators
(D) trees

Question 31- 38

In 1920, asfter some thirty-nine years of problems with disease, high costs, and
politics, the Panama Canal was officially opened, finally linking the Atlantic and pacific
Oceans by allowing ships to pass through the fifty-mile canal zone instead of traveling
some seven thousand miles around Cape Horn. It takes a ship approximately eight hours
Line
to complete the trip through the canal and consts an average of fifteen thousand dollars,
5
one teenth of what it would cost an average ship to round the horn. More than fifteen
thousand ship pass through its locks each year.

The French initiated the project but sold their rights to the United States, which
Line actually began the construction of the project. The latter will control it until the end of the
10 twentieth century when Panama takes over its duties.

31. Who currently controls the Panama Canal?

(A) france
(B) united states
(C) panama
(D) canal zone

32. The word “locks” in line 10 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) securities
(B) latches
(C) lakes
(D) canal gates

33. On the average, how much would it cost a ship to travel around Cape Horn?
(A) $1500
(B) $15.000
(C) $150.000
(D) $1.500.000

34. In what year was construction begun on the canal?

(A) 1881
(B) 1920
(C) 1939
(D) 1999

133
 35. It can be inferred from this passage that ....
(A) The canal is a costly project which should be reevaluated
(B) Despite all the problems involved, the project is beneficial
(C) Many captains prefer to sail around Cape Horn because it is less expensive
(D) Problems have made it necessary for three governments to control the canal over the years

36. In line 3, the word “linking” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Controlling
(B) Dispersing
(C) Detaching
(D) Joining

37. In line 8, “initiated” is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Purchased
(B) Launched
(C) Forfeited
(D) Forced

38. All of the following are true, EXCEPT

(A) It costs so much to pass through the locks because very few ships use them
(B) The United States received the rights to the canal from the French
(C) A ship can pass through the canal in only eight hours
(D) Passing through the canal saves thousands of miles of travel time around Cape Horn .

Question 39-50
Hot Boning is an energy-saving technique for the meat processing industry. It
has received significant attention in recent years when increased pressure for energy
conservation has accentualed the need for more efficient methods of processing the
bovine carcass. Cooling an entire carcass requires a considerable amount of
Line
refrigerated space, since bone and trimmable fat are cooled along with the muscle. It
5
also necessary to space the carcassesadequately in the refrigerated room for better air
movement and prevention of microbial contamination, thus adding to the volume
requirementsfor carcass chillers.
Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef sides in the cooler for
10 24 to 36 hours before boning. Chilling in the traditional fashion is also associated
with a loss of carcass weight ranging from 2 percent to 4 percent due to evaporation
of moisture from the meat tissue.
Early excision, or hot boning, of mucles prerigor followed by vacuum packaging
has several potential advantages. By removing only the edicle muscle and fat
15 prerigor, refrigeration space and costs are mnimized, boning labor is decreased, and
storage yields increased. Because hot boning onften results in the toughening of meat,
a more recent approach, hot boning following electrical stimulation, has been used to
reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis. Some researchers have found this method
beneficial in maintaining tender meat, while others have found that the meat also
20 becomes tough after electrical stimulation.

134
39. The word “accentuated” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ....
(A) de-emphasized
(B) speeded up
(C) caused
(D) highlighted

40. All of the following are mentioned as drawbacks of the conventional method of boning EXCEPT
....
(A) storage space requirements
(B) energy waste
(C) loss of carcass weight
(D) toughness of meat

41. In line 3,the word “pressure‟ is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) urgency
(B) weight
(C) flavor
(D) cooking texture

42. Hot Boning is becoming very popular because ....

(A) it causes meat to be very tender
(B) it helps conserve energy and is less expensive than conventional methods
(C) meat tastes better when the bone is adequately seared along with the meat
(D) it reduces the weight of the carcass

43. In line 8, “ carcass chiller” is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) a refrigerator for the animal body
(B) a method of boning meat
(C) electrical stimulation of beef
(D) early excision

44. In line 17,” early excision “ is closest in meaning to ....

(A) vacuum packaging
(B) hot boning
(C) carcass chilling
(D) electrical stimulation

45. The word “ bovine” in line 5 is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) cold
(B) electrical stimulated
(C) beef
(D) pork

46. The word “this” in line 18 refers to ....

(A) hot boning
(B) hot boning following electrical stimulation
(C) rigor mortis
(D) removing edible muscle and fat prerigor

135
 47. In line 5; the word “carcass” is closest in meaning to ....
(A) deboned meat
(B) body
(C) refrigerator
(D) fat

48. The word “ considerable” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) frigid
(B) kind
(C) lesser
(D) substantial

49. One reason it is recommended to remove bones before refrigerating is that ....
(A) it makes the meat more tender
(B) the bones are able to be used for other purposes
(C) it increases chilling time
(D) it saves cooling space by not refrigerating parts that will be discarded

50. The word‟ trimmable” in line 7 is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) unsaturated
(B) removable
(C) unheathy
(D) chillable

136
 PRACTICE TEST READING
B
Question 1-12

Perharps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness, its
originality of perspective. Satire rarely offers original ideas. Instead, it presents the
familiar in a new form. Satirist do not offer the world new philosophies. What they do
is look at familiar conditions from a perspective that makes these conditions seem
Line
foolish, harmful or affected. Satire jars us out of complacence into a pleasantly
5
shocked realization that many of the values we unquestioningly accept are false. Don
Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd; Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of
science ; A Modest Proposal dramatizes starvation by advocating cannibalism. None
of these ideas is original. Chivalry was suspect before Cervantes , humanist objected
to the claims of pure science before Aldous Huxley, and people were aware of famine
10
before Swift. It was not the originality of the idea that made these satires popular. It
was the manner of expression, the satiric method, that made them interesting and
entertaining. Satires are read because they are aesthetically satisfying works of art,
not because they are morally wholesome or ethically instructive. They are stimulating
15 and refreshing because with commonsense briskness they brush away illusions and
secondhand opinions. With spontaneous irrevence , satire rearranges perspectives,
scrambles familiar objects into incongruous juxtaposition, and speaks in a personal
idiom instead of abstract platitude.
Satire exists because there us need for it. It has lived because readers appreciate
20 a refreshing stimulus, an irrevent reminder that they live in a world of platitudinous
thinking, cheap moralizing, and foolish philosophy. Satire serves to prod people into
an awareness of truth, though rarely to any action on behalf of truth . Satire tends to
remind people that much of what they see, hear and read in popular media is
sanctimonious, sentimental and only partially true. Life resembles in onl a slight
25
degree the popular image of it . Soldiers rarely hold the ideal that movies attribute to
them, nor do ordinary citizens devote their lives to unselfish service of humanity .
Intelligent people know these things but tend to forget them when they do not hear
them expessed.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Difficulties of writing satiric literature
(B) Popular topics of satire
(C) New philosophies emerging from satiric literature
(D) Reasons for the popularity of satire

2. The word “realization” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Certainty
(B) Awareness
(C) Surprise

137
 (D) Confusion

3. Why does the uthor mention Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal in line 6-8?
(A) They are famous examples of satiric literature
(B) They present commonsense solutions to problems
(C) They are appropriate for readers of all ages
(D) They are books with similar stories

4. The word “aesthetically” in line 13 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Artistically
(B) Exceptionally
(C) Realistically
(D) Dependably

5. Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?

(A) Newly emerging philosophies
(B) Odd combinations of objects and ideas
(C) Abstract discussion of moral and ethics
(D) Wholesome characters who are unselfish

6. According to the passage , there is a need for satire because people need to be ....
(A) Informed about new scientific developments
(B) Exposed to original philospohies when they are formulated
(C) Reminded that popular ideas are often inaccurate
(D) Told how they call be of service to their communities

7. The word “refreshing” in line 19 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Popular
(B) Ridiculuos
(C) Meaningful
(D) Unusual

8. The word “ they” in line 22 refers to ....

(A) People
(B) Media
(C) Ideals
(D) Movies

9. The word “devote” in line 25 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Distinguish
(B) Feel affection
(C) Prefer
(D) Dedicate

10. As a result of reading satiric literature, readers will be most likely to ....
(A) Teach themselves to write fiction
(B) Accept conventional points of view
(C) Become better informed about current affairs
(D) Reexamine their opinions and values

138
 11. The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT ....
(A) Introducing readers to unfamiliar situations
(B) Brushing away illusions
(C) Reminding readers of the truth
(D) Exposing false values

12. Why does the author mention “ service of humanity” in line 25?
(A) People need to be reminded to take action
(B) Readers appreciate knowing about it
(C) It is an ideal that is rarely achieved
(D) Popular media often distort such stories.

Question 13- 21

As far back 700 b.c, people have talked about children being cared for by
wolves. Romulus and remus , the legendary twin founders of Rome, were
purpoted to have been cared for by wolves. According to legeng, Mars fathered
to boys. As a result, a relative of their mother imprisoned her and ordered that
Line
the boys be drowned in the Tiber River. However, a she- wolf loses her litter,
5
she seeks a human child to take its place.
This seemingly presposterous idea did not become credible until the late
ninteenth century when a French doctor actually found a naked ten- year-old
boy wandering in the woods. He did not walk erect , could not speak
intelligibly, nor could he relate to people. He only growled and stared at them.
10
Finally, the doctor won the boy`s confidence and began to work with him. After
many long years of devoted and platient instruction, the doctor was able to get
the boy to clothe and feed himself, recognize and utter a number of words, and
write letters and form words.

13. The French doctor found the boy ....

(A) Wandering in the woods
(B) At his doorstep
(C) Growling at him
(D) Speaking intelligibly

14. In line 9, the word “ litter” means most nearly the same as ....
(A) Garbage
(B) Master
(C) Offspring
(D) Hair

15. The doctor was able to work with the boy because ....
(A) The boy was highly intelligent
(B) The boy trusted him
(C) The boy liked to dress up
(D) The boy was dedicated and patient

139
 16. The word “ utter” in line 19 is nearest in meaning to ....
(A) Absolute
(B) Speak
(C) Scream
(D) Read

17. All of following statements are true EXCEPT ....

(A) She- wolves have been said to substitute human children for their lost litters.
(B) Examples of wolves‟caring for human children can be found only in the nineteenth century
(C) The French doctor succeeded in domesticating the boy somewhat
(D) The young boy never was able to speak perfectly

18. The word “prospeterous” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Dedicated
(B) Scientific
(C) Wonderful
(D) Absurd

19. The main idea of this passage is that according to legend ....
(A) Children who arte raised by wolves can be rehabilitated
(B) She- wolves replace their dead offspring with human children
(C) Romulus and Remus were cared for by she-wolves
(D) A French doctor saved romulus and Remus from drowning

20. According to the legend, Romulus and Remus were ....

(A) Found abandoned in Rome
(B) The founders of Rome
(C) Discovered by a French Doctor
(D) Drowned in the Tiber river in 700 b.c

21. Where in the passage is it stated that, according to legend, Romulus and Remus founded in
Rome?
(A) Lines 2-3
(B) Lines 5-7
(C) Lines 9-10
(D) Lines 11-13

140
Question 22-31

The first amandmnet to the American Constitution declares freedom of the

press to all people. Although this right was not officially adopted until 1791, the
famous Zenger trial of 1735b laid the groundwork for insuring this precious
freedom.
Line
5 John Peter Zenger emigrated as a teengaer form Germany. In 1733, he
began publishing the New York Weekly Journal. The following year, he was
arrested form writing a story about the crown-approinted governor of New
York. While Zenger was imprisoned for nine months, his wife dutifully
published the newspaper every day, bravely telling the truth about the corrupt
10 gevernment officials sent by the king to govern the colonies.
Finally Zenger`s long –awaited trial took place. The hostile judge
dismissed Zenger`s local lawyers, making it necessary for his wife to seekout
Andrew Hamilton, a prominent Philadelphia lawyer. Persuaded by hamilton the
jury bravely returned a not-guilty verdict, defying the judge`s order for
15 conviction.
As a result of determination and bravery on the part of the colonists, a
lasting victory for freedom of the press was gained by a young immigrant

22. John Peter Zenger was a ....

(A) Corrupt governor of New York\
(B) Famous lawyer
(C) Brave newspaper publisher
(D) Hostile judge

23. What political problem existed in the colonies at that time?

(A) Government officials were corrupt
(B) Newspapers exaggerated the truth about the political officials
(C) Lawyers were hostile to witnesses
(D) All newspaper publishers were imprisoned

24. How long did it take after the Zenger trial before the concept of freedom of the press was
officially adopted?
(A) 9 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 56 years
(D) 58 years

25. All of the following are true EXCEPT ....

(A) Despite Zenger`s imprisonment, his newspaper continued to be published
(B) Andrew hamilton encouraged the jury to fight for freedom
(C) The jury obeyed the judge`s orders and convicted Zenger
(D) The king controlled the colonies throgh his own appointed rulers

141
 26. Why was Peter Zenger arrested?
(A) He emigrated from Germany
(B) His wife published his newspaper for him
(C) He wrote a stroy about the governor of New York
(D) He persuaded a jury to defy the judge`s orders

27. It can be inferred that the judge was hostile toward Peter Zenger because the judge ....
(A) Represented the ideas of the king
(B) Hated newspaper publishers
(C) Didn`t like interference with the Constitution
(D) Had appointed the governor about whom Zenger wrote

28. The word “defying” in line 18 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Faithfully
(B) Carelessly
(C) Disregarding
(D) Defending

29. In line 11, the word “ dutifully” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Faithfully
(B) Carelessly
(C) Unfortunately
(D) Vigorously

30. The main idea of this passage is ....

(A) Andrew Hamilton gave Americans freedom of the press
(B) Peter Zenger`s persistent fight paved the way for freedom of the press
(C) Judges don`t always get juries to agree with them
(D) Peter Zenger`s trial prepared the way for jurors to defy judge`s orders

31. The passage indicates that the governor was appointed by the monarch of author country in lines
....
(A) 3-5
(B) 6-8
(C) 8-9
(D) 14-16

142
Question 32-38

About fifty years ago, plant physiologists set out to grow roots
bythemselves in solutions in laboratory flasks. The scientist found that the
nutrition of isolated roots was quite simple. They required sugar and the usual
Line
minerals and vitamins. However, they did not require organic nitrogen
5
compounds. These roots got along fine on mineral inorganic nitrogend. Roots
are capable of making their own proteins and other organic compounds. These
activities by roots require energy, of course. The process of respirations uses
sugar to make the high energy compound ATP, which drives the biochemical
reactions. Respiration also requires oxygen. Highly active roots require a good
10 deal of oxygen.
The study of isolated roots has provided an understanding of the
relationship between shoots and roots in intact plants. The leaves of the shoots
provide the shoots with organic nitrogen compounds. This comes in handy for
the growth of buds in the early spring when leaves are not yet functioning. Once
15 leaves begin photosynthsizing they produce protein. But only mature leaves can
“export” protein to the rest of the plant in the form of amino acids.

32. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The relationship between a plant`s roots and its shoots
(B) What can be learned by growing roots in isolation
(C) How plants can be grown without roots
(D) What elements are necessary for the growth of plants

33. The word “themselves “ in line 1 refers to ....

(A) Plant physiologists
(B) Solutions
(C) Laboratory flasks
(D) Roots

34. According to the passage, what is ATP?

(A) A biochemical process
(B) The tip of a root
(C) A chemical compound
(D) A type of plant cell

35. The word “intact” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Mature
(B) Wild
(C) Whole
(D) Tiny

143
 36. The use of the phrase “comes in handy “ in line 12 indicates that the process is ....
(A) Useful
(B) Predictable
(C) Necessary
(D) Successful

37. It can be inferred from the passage that, in the early spring, the buds of plants ....
(A) „Export” protein in the form of amino acids
(B) Do not require water
(C) Have begun photosynthesizing
(D) Obtain organic compounds from the roots

38. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) The results of two experiments are compared
(B) A generalization is made, and several examples of it are given
(C) The findings of an experiment are explained
(D) A hypothesis is presented, and several means of proving it are suggested.

Question 39-50

The technology of the North American colonies did not differ strikingly
form that of Europe, but in one respec, the colonists enjoyed a great
advantage. Especially by comparison with Britain, Americns had a
Line wonderfully plentiful supply of wood.
5 The first colonist did not as many people imagine, find an entire
continent cevered by a climax forest. Even along the atlantic seabord, the
forest was broken at many points. Nevertheless, all sorts of fine trees
abounded , and through the early colonial period, those who pushed westward
encountered new forests. By the end of the colonial era, the price of wood had
10 risen slightly in eastern cities, but wood was still extremely abundant.
The availability of wood brought advantages that have seldom been
appreciated. Wood was a foundation of the economy. Houses and all manner
of buildings were made of wood to a degree unknown in Britain. Secondly,
wood was used as a fuel for heating and cooking. Thirdly, it was used as the
15 source of important industrial compounds, such as potash ,an industrial alkali;
charcoal,a component of gunpower, and tannic acid, used for tanning leather.
The supply of wood conferred advantanges but had some negative
aspects as well. Iron at that time was produced by heating iron or with
charcoal. Because britain was so stripped of trees, she was unable to exploit
20 her rich iron mines. But the American colonies had both iron ore and wood;
iron production was encouraged and became successful. However, when
britain developed coke smelting, the colonies did not follow suit because they
had plenty of wood and besides, charcoal iron was stronger than coke iron.
Coke smelting led to technological innovations and was linked to the
25 emergence of the Industrial Revolution. In the early nineteenth century, the
former colonies lagged behind Britain in industrial development because their
supply of wood led them to cling to charcoal iron.

144
 39. What does the pasage mainly discuss?
(A) The advantages of using wood in colonies
(B) The effects of ana bundance of wood on the colonies
(C) The roots of the industrial revolution
(D) The difference between charcoal iron and coke iron

40. The word “strikingly” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Realistically
(B) Dramatically
(C) Completely
(D) Immediately

41. Which of the following is a common assumption about the forests of North America during
colonial period?
(A) They contained only a few types of trees
(B) They existed only along the atlantic seaboard
(C) They had little or no economic value
(D) They covered the entire continent

42. The use of the word “abounded” in line 8 indicates that the trees were ....
(A) Present contained only a few types of trees
(B) Restricted to certain areas
(C) Cut down
(D) Cultivated

43. According to the passage, by the end of the colonial period, the price of wood in eastern cities ....
(A) Rose quickly because wood was becoming so scarce
(B) Was much higher that it was in Britain
(C) Was slightly higher than in previous years
(D) Decreased rapidly because of lower demand for wood

44. What can be inferred about houses in britain during the period written about in the passage ?
(A) They were more expensive than American houses
(B) They were generally built with imported materials
(C) They were typically smaller than homes in North America
(D) They were usually built form materials other than wood.

45. Why does the author mention gunpower in line 16?

(A) To illustrate teh negative aspects of some industrial processes
(B) To give an example of a product made with wood
(C) To remind readers that the Colonial era ended in warfare
(D) To suggest that wood was not the only important product of the Colonies

46. The word “ conferred” in line 17 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Consulted
(B) Gathered
(C) Provided
(D) Restricted

145
 47. The phrase “follow suit “ in line 22 means ....
(A) Do the same thing
(B) Make an attempt
(C) Have the opportunity
(D) Take a risk

48. According to the passage , why was the use of coke smelting advantageous ?
(A) It led to advances in technology
(B) It was less expensive than wood smelting
(C) It produced a stronger type of an iron than wood smelting
(D) It stimulated the demand for wood

49. The phrase “cling to” in line 27 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Try to develop
(B) Avoid
(C) Continue to use
(D) Reconsider

50. Where in the passage does the author begin to discuss in detail the disadvantages that an abundant
supply of wood brought to the colonies?
(A) Lines 1-3
(B) Lines 5-7
(C) Lines 13-14
(D) Lines 17-18

146
 PRACTICE TEST READING
C
Question 1-10

Elizabeth Blackwell was born in england in 1821 and emigrated to New

York City when she was ten years old. One day she decided that she wanted to
become a doctor. That was nearly impossible for a woman in the middle of the
nineteenth century. After writing many letters seeking admission to medical
Line schools, she was finally accepted by a doctor in [Link] determined
5 was she that she taught school and gave music lessons to earn money for her
tuition.
In 1849, after graduation from medical school, she decided to further
her education in paris. She wanted to be a surgeon, but a serious eye infection
10 forced her to abandon the idea.
Upon returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her
own practice because she was a woman. By 1857, Elizabeth and her sister,
also a doctor, along with another female doctor, managed to open a new
hospital, the first for women and children. Besides being the first female
15 Physician in The United States and founding her own hospital, she also
established the first medical school for woman.

1. Why couldn`t Elizabeth Blackwell realize her dream of becoming a surgeon?

(A) She couldn`t get admitted to medical school
(B) She decided to further her education in Paris
(C) A serious eye infection halted her quest
(D) It was difficult for her to start a practice in United States.

2. What main obstacle almost destroyed Elizabeth`s chances for becoming a doctor?
(A) She was a woman
(B) She wrote too many letters
(C) She couldn`t graduate from medical school
(D) She couldn`t establish her hospital

3. How many years elapsed between her graduation from medical school and the opening of her
hospital?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 19
(D) 36

4. All of the following are “ firsts” in the life of Elizabeth Blackwell EXCEPT ....
(A) She became the first female physician in the United States
(B) She was the first woman surgeon in the United States
(C) She and several other women founded the first hospital for woman and children
(D) She established the first medical school for woman

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 5. How old was Elizabeth Blackwell when she graduated from medical school?
(A) 10
(B) 21
(C) 28
(D) 36

6. The word “abandon” in line 10 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Undertake
(B) Give up
(C) Continue
(D) Look into

7. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Elizabeth Blackwell overcame serious obstacles to become the first woman doctor in the
United States
(B) Elizabeth blackwell had to abandon her plans to become a doctor because of an eye infection
(C) Elizabeth blackwell even taught music to pay for her medical studies
(D) Elizabeth blackwell founded the first medical school for woman

8. The word “founding” in line 15 means most nearly the same as ....
(A) Locating
(B) Looking for
(C) Establishing
(D) Buying

9. Why was it nearly impossible for Elizabeth Balckwell to get ito medical school?
(A) She had a serious eye infection
(B) She had little or no money to pay tuiition
(C) She wanted to be part of a profession that no woman had ever entered before
(D) Her family didn`t want her to be a doctor

10. The reason Elizabeth Blackwell could not become a surgeon is explained in lines ....
(A) 4-5
(B) 8-9
(C) 11-13
(D) 14-15

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Question 11-20
Napoleon Bonaparte‟s ambition to control all the area
around the Mediterranean Sea led him and his French
soldiers to Egypt. After losing a naval battle, they were
forced to remain therefor three years. In 1799, while
Line constructing a fort, a soldier doscovered a piece of stele (a
5
stone pillar bearing an inscription) known as the Rosetta
stone, in commemoration of the town near the fort. This
famous stone, which would eventually lead to the dechiper-
10 ing of ancient Egyptian hieroglyphics dating to 3100 B.C.,
was written in three languages: hieroglyphics (picture
writing), demotic (a shorthand version of Egyptian
hieroglyphics), and Greek. Scientists discovered that the
characters, unlike those in English, could be written from
15 right to left and in other directions as well. The direction in
which they were read depended on how the characters were
arranged. Living elements (animals, people, and body parts)
were often the first symbols, and the direction that they
faced indicated the direction for reading them.
Twenty-three years after the discovery of the Rosetta
20 stone, Jean Francois Champollion, a French philologist
fluent in several languages, was able to dechiper the first
word – Ptolemy – the name of an Egyptian ruler. This name
was written inside an oval called a “cartouche” . Further
investigation revealed that cartouches contained names of
25 important people of that period. Champollion painstakingly
continued his search and was able to oncrease his growing
list of known phonetic signs. He and an Englishman,
Thomas Young, worked independently of each other to
unravel to deeply hidden mysteries of this strange language.
30 Young believed that sound values could be assigned to the
symbols, while Champollion insisted that the pictures
represented words.

11. All of the following languages were written on the Rosetta stone EXCEPT ....
(A) French
(B) Demotic
(C) Greek
(D) Hieroglyphics

12. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ....

(A) Cartouches contained names of the prominent people of the period
(B) Champollion and Young worked together in an attempt to decipher the hieroglyphics
(C) One of the Napoleon‟s soldiers discovered the Rosetta stone
(D) Thomas Young believed that the sound values could be assigned to the symbols

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 13. The word “deciphering” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ....
(A) decoding
(B) downfall
(C) discovery
(D) probing

14. The first word deciphered from the Rosetta stone was ....
(A) Cartouche
(B) Ptolemy
(C) Demotic
(D) Champollion

15. Napoleon‟s soldiers were in Egypt in 1799 because they were ....
(A) Celebrating a naval victory
(B) Looking for the Rosetta stone
(C) Waiting to continue their campaign
(D) Trying to decipher hieroglyphics

16. The person responsible for deciphering the first word was ....
(A) Champollion
(B) Young
(C) Ptolemy
(D) Napoleon

17. Why was the piece of newly discovered stele called the Rosetta stone?
(A) It was shaped like a rosette.
(B) It was to honor Napoleon‟s friend Rosetta.
(C) The town near the for was called Rosetta.
(D) The fort was called Rosetta.

18. In line 1, “ambition” is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Aspiration
(B) Indolence
(C) Indifference
(D) Apathy

19. What is the best title for the passage?

(A) Napoleon‟s Great Discovery
(B) Deciphering the Hieroglyphics of the Rosetta Stone
(C) Thomas Young‟s Great Contribution
(D) The Importance of Cartouches

20. In which lines of the passage is the direction for reading hieroglyphics discussed?
(A) Lines 5-8
(B) Lines 14-18
(C) Lines 19-22
(D) Lines 25-27

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Question 21-29

Gelatin is a protein substance that comes from the skins and bones of animals.
Most people know it as the substance used to make a jelly like salad or
dessert. Not only is it useful in making these foods, but it is also beneficial to
Line the consumer because of its high protein content. Gelatin is also commonly
5 used in the photographic industry and in making medicinal capsules.
The process for producing gelatin is a long and complex one. In the
processing of gelatin made from bones (which varies slightly from that of
gelatin made from skin), the grease first must be eliminated. Then the bones
are soaked in a solution of hydrochloric acid in order to rid them of minerals
10 and washed several times in water. Next, the bones are placed in distilled
water , heated to over 90f for a few hours, placed in fresh distilled water and
the heated it again at a little over 100. A fluid forms from this heating, and it is
concentrated, chilled, and sliced. Finally, it is dried and ground. In its final
form, gelatin is white, tasteless and odorless.

21. It can be inferred from this reading passage that ....

(A) One could easily make gelatin at home
(B) It is necessary to add minerals to the gelatin
(C) Fat aids in making good gelatin
(D) Gelatin is useful for elderly and ill people because it is easy to chew and high in protein

22. The word “fluid” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Liquid
(B) Distilled water
(C) Hard material
(D) Substance

23. Which of the following is true?

(A) Gelatin made from skin is produced in the same way as that made from bones
(B) Grease probably does not aid in producing gelatin
(C) The chemical used in making gelatin comes off the surface of the bones by rinsing with water
(D) When the gelatin is dried, it is in powder form.

24. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Process of Making Gelatin
(B) Protein Foods
(C) Uses for Bones
(D) A Great Dessert

25. All of the following industries are mentioned as using gelatin EXCEPT ....
(A) The lawn care industry
(B) The photographic industry
(C) The pharmaceutical industry
(D) The food industry

26. According to the passage, why is eating gelatin healthy?

(A) It does not damage the teeth
(B) It is low fat

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 (C) It is protein rich
(D) It has no animal byproducts

27. The word “ground” in line 13 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Refrigerated
(B) Pulverized
(C) Putrified
(D) Dirtied

28. Why would gelatin be useful for medicine capsules?

(A) It tastes good
(B) It is natural substance that is easy to digest
(C) It is easy to make and thus inexpensive
(D) It won`t melt at high temperatures

29. The word “that” in line 7 refers to ....

(A) gelatin
(B) processing
(C) skin
(D) bones

Question 30-40

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramdi of Giza was
a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in
2720 b.c. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of it construction make it one of
Line the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile
5 River is a sloid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a
number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is
the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are
aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west- an incredible
engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great
10 astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on
astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structurereveal
many intersecting lines. Further scientific stucy indicates that these represent a
type of timeline of events-past, present, and future. Many of the events have
15 been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are
prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many
believe that pyramids have supranatural powers, and this one is no exception.
Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of the ancient
passt.
20 Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race
far superior to any known today?

30. What has research of the base revealed?

(A) there are cracks in the foundation.
(B) tomb robbers have stolen the pharaoh`s body
(C) the lines represent important events
(D) a superior race of people built it

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31. Extraterretrial beings are ...
(A) very strong workers
(B) astronomers in the ancient times
(C) researchers in egyptology
(D) living beings from other planets

32. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
(A) to allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
(B) to permit the high priests to pray at night
(C) to enable the pharaoh`s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
(D) to keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh

33. The word “intersecting” in line 15 is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) crossing
(B) aligning
(C) observing
(D) cutting

34. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?

(A) architects plans for the hidden passages
(B) pathways of the great solar bodies
(C) astrological computations
(D) dates of important events taking place throughout time

35. In line 16, the word “prophesied” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) affiliated
(B) precipitated
(C) terminated
(D) foretold

36. What is the best title for the passage?

(A) symbolism of the great pyramid
(B) problems with the construction of the great pyramid
(C) wonders of the great pyramid of giza
(D) explorationof the burial chamber of cheops

37. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

(A) observation of the celestial bodies
(B) advanced technology
(C) advanced tools of measurement
(D) knowledge of the earth`s surface

38. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?

(A) as a solar observatory
(B) as a religious temple
(C) as a tomb for the pharaoh
(D) as an engineering feat

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 39. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
(A) it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies.
(B) it was selected as the tomb of pharaoh cheops
(C) it was built by a super race
(D) it is very old

40. The word “feat” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) accomplishment
(B) appendage
(C) festivity
(D) structure

Question 41-50

When buying a house, you must be sure to have it checked for

termites. A termite is much like an ant in its communal habits, although
physically the two insects are distinct.
Line Like those of ants, termite colonies consist of different classes, each
5 with its own particular job. The most perfectly formed termites, both male and
female, make up the reproductive class. They have eyes, hard body walls, and
fully developed wings. A pair of reproductive termites founds the colony.
When new reproductive termites develop, they leave to form another colony.
They use their wings only this one time and then break them off.
10 The worker termites are small, blind, and wingless, with soft bodies.
They make up the majority of the colony and do all the work. Soldiers are
eyeless and wingless but are larger than the workers and have hard heads and
strong jaws and legs. They defend the colony and are cared for by the workers.
The male and female of the reproductive class remain inside a closed-in
15 cell where the female lays thousands of eggs. The workers place eggs in cells
and care for them. Even if one colony is treated with poison, if a male and
female of the reproductive class escape, they can form a new colony.
Pest control companies can inspect a house for infestation of termites.
Often, a lay person cannot spot the evidence, so it is critical to have the
20 opinion of a professional. Treatments vary depending upon the type of termite.

41. How are termites like ants?

(A) They live in communities, and each class has a specific duty
(B) Their bodies are the same shape
(C) The king and queen are imprisoned
(D) The females reproductive capacities are the same

42. The word “ communal” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Eating
(B) Reproducing
(C) Organizational
(D) Social

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43. Which of the following is NOT true?
(A) All termites have eyes
(B) Some termites cannot fly
(C) Workers are smaller than soldiers
(D) Termites do not fly often

44. In line 3, the word “distinct” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Similar
(B) Different
(C) Genetically related
(D) Strong

45. In line 4, “classes” is closest in menaing to ....

(A) Sexes
(B) Colonies
(C) Courses
(D) Categories

46. Which of the following statements is probably true?

(A) Thousands of termites may move together to develop a new colony
(B) The male and female reproductives do not venture out doors except to form a new colony
(C) There are more soldiers than workers
(D) A worker could easily kill a soldier

47. The word”founds” in line 7 is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Establishes
(B) Destroys
(C) Controls
(D) Guards

48. The word”cells” in line 15 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Combs
(B) Rows
(C) Compartments
(D) Placenta

49. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) Termites Destroy Houses
(B) Termites Work Well Together
(C) The Habits and Physical Characteristics of termites
(D) The Relationship of Soldier and Worker Termites

50. The word “each” in line 4 refers to ....

a. Ants
b. Colonies
c. Jobs
d. Classes

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4. LATIHAN SOAL

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Section 1
Listening Comprehension
This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts,
each with its own directions. During actual exams, you are not permitted to turn the page
during the reading of the directions or to take notes at any time.
PART A
Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the
conversations and questions only once, and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and
select the one – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – that best answers the question based on what is directly
stated or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the
letter of the answer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
You will read: (A) Open the window
(B) Move the chair
(C) Leave the room
(D) Take a seat
From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over
by the window. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman think the man should
do?” is (B), “Move the chair”. You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.

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PART B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers.
After each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each
conversation and question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one – (A),
(B), (C), or (D) – that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what
can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Don’t forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted

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PART C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks each given by a single speaker. After
each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question
only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one – (A),
(B), (C), or (D) – that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what
can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Now here is a sample question.
You will hear:
You will read: (A) Philosophy
(B) Meteorology
(C) Astronomy
(D) Photography
The lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in an
astronomy class. The choice that best answer the question “In what course is this lecture
probably being given?” is (C), “Astronomy”. You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
Here is another sample question.
You will hear:
You will read: (A) The Earth’s shadow moves across the Moon
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon
(C) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment
From the lecture, you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun
and the Sun and the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice
that best answers the question “According to the speaker, which of the following occurs
during a lunar eclipse?” is (A), “The Earth’s shadow moves across the Moon”.
Don’t forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

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Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Time – 25 Minutes
This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for standard written
English. This section is divided into two parts, each with its own directions.
Structure
Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these sentences,
there are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase – (A), (B), (C), or
(D) – that best complete the sentence. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that
matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.
Example 1
Pepsin ___________ an enzyme used in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
This sentence should properly read “Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion.” You should fill
in (B) on your answer sheet.
Example II
____________ large natural lakes are found in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
(D) No
This sentence should properly read “No large natural lakes are found in the state of South
Carolina.” You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet. As soon as you understand the
directions, begin work in this part.

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 Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases. You must identify
the one underlined expression – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – that must be changed for the sentence
to be correct. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer
that you have selected.
Example 1
Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.
A B C D
This sentence should read “Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes.” You should
therefore select answer (A).

Example 2
When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the wet plaster of a wall.
A B C D
This sentence should read “When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to the wet
plaster of a wall.” You should therefore select answer (B). As soon as you understand the
directions, begin work on this part.

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Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time – 55 Minutes
This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.
Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of questions.
Read the passage and, for each question, choose the one best answer – (A), (B), (C), or (D) –
based on what is stated in the passage or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on
your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.
Read the following passage!

Example 1
What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds’ mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your answer
sheet.
Example 2
According to the passage, male birds defend their territory primarily against
(A) Female birds
(B) Birds of other species
(C) Males of their own species
(D) Mammals
The passage states that “Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the
same species.” You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet. As soon as you understand the
directions, begin work on this section.

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PRACTICE TEST 2

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Section 1 has three parts. Each part has its own set of directions. Do not take notes while listening or
make any marks on the test pages. Note taking, underlining, or crossing out will be considered cheating
on the actual TOEFL exam. Answer the questions of the following conversations or talks based on what
the speakers have stated or implied.
For Practice Test 2, insert your Listening Comprehension cassette in your tape player. On the actual
TOEFL, you will be given extra time to go on the next page when you finish a page in the Listening
Comprehension section. In the following test, however, you will have only the 12 seconds given after
each question. Turn the page as soon as you have marked your answer. Start your cassette now.

PART A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each
conversation, a third voice will ask a question about waht was said. The question will be spoken just one
time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the problem and mark your answer.

1. (A) She is tired of teaching.

(B) She was dismissed from her job.
(C) She`s changing jobs.
(D) The school is too hot.
2. (A) She got up later than usual.
(B) The bus was late.
(C) She forgot her class.
(D) Her clock was wrong.

3. (A) The weather report.

(B) The traffic report.
(C) Directions to Interstate 4.
(D) Their disgust with careless drivers.

4. (A) She thinks his lecturers are boring.

(B) She thinks his tests are too long .
(C) She doesn`t like his choice of test questions.
(D) She doesn`t think he prepares well enough.

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 5. (A) A movie.
(B) A documentary.
(C) A soccer game.
(D) A comedy.

6. (A) America.
(B) England.
(C) Switzerland.
(D) Sweden.

7. (A) She had not applied to Stetson.

(B) She had not worked very hard.
(C) She was certain to be admitted.
(D) She was not likely to be admitted.

8. (A) She got sctratched in the wild beryr bushes.

(B) She got cut at the wild picnic celebration .
(C) She was allergic to the fruit that she had eaten.
(D) She was trying to get a suntan at the picnic.

9. (A) Wiwtner.
(B) Wittner.
(C) Wittmer.
(D) Litner.

10. (A) Go out of town.

(B) Help the woman prepare for her meeting .
(C) Work with the woman.
(D) Work when the woman was supposed to work.

11. (A) 5.
(B) 3.
(C) 2.
(D) 8.

12. (A) She went to wrong class.

(B) She was late for class because she got lost.
(C) She missed the class.
(D) She had some trouble finding the class, but she arrived on time.

13. (A) The man is not sure which type of flowers April sent.
(B) April received many kinds of flowers from April.
(C) The man received many kinds of flowers form April.
(D) The man appreciated April`s sending him flowers.

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14. (A) William slept all the way from Georgia to New York.
(B) George didn`t sleep at all on the trip.
(C) William was half asleep all the time that he was driving .
(D) William didn`t sleep at all on the trip.

15. (A) Too many people came to the meeting.

(B) There were not enough people at the meeting to inspect the documents.
(C) The man had expected more people to come to the meeting .
(D) There were not enough seats for all the people.

16. (A) He sold no magazines.

(B) He sold only one magazine.
(C) He has never sold as many magazines as he sold today.
(D) He sold five magazines at one house.

17. (A) Frank told the contractor to do the work in spite of the cost.
(B) Frank told the contractor that the price was too high.
(C) Frank cannot afford the work on his house.
(D) Frank repaired his own house.

18. (A) He studied last night becuase he had to .

(B) He tried to study last night, but the material was too hard.
(C) He couldn`t study last night because he was very tired.
(D) He studied last night because he was bored.

19. (A) She goes to a movie every year.

(B) She hasn`t gone to a movie yet this year, but last year she did.
(C) She doesn`t go to a movie unless she has the time.
(D) She hasn`t seen a movie for a long time.

20. (A) He turned around to answer the teacher`s question .

(B) He is an intelligent student.
(C) He must have been embarrassed.
(D) He looked in the red book for the answer to the question.

21. (A) On a train.

(B) On a boat.
(C) On a plane.
(D) On a bus.

22. (A) She is going on vacation .

(B) She is leaving her job temporarily for health reasons.
(C) During the summer, she often misses work because of illness.
(D) She is sick of working all the time.

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 23. (A) She is disappointed with the results.
(B) She likes her job very much .
(C) She is hoping for some improvements in her work place.
(D) She is very pleased with the outcome of her meeting.

24. (A) He said he was sorry that he had not announced the test sooner.
(B) He was sorry that he had forgotten to bring the tests to class.
(C) He was sorry that he hadn`t given the test earlier.
(D) He said he was sorry that he had not given the results of the test sooner.

25. (A) She is taking a leave of absence form her job because of her health.
(B) She is not going to return to her job.
(C) She is right to quit her job.
(D) She did very good work,but now she is quitting her job .

26. (A) John will be able to buy groceries.

(B) John doesn`t have enough money to buy groceries.
(C) John wouldn`t buy groceries even if he had enough money.
(D) John can`t find his grocery money.

27. (A) Eighty people came to the rally.

(B) Forty people came to the rally.
(C) One hundred sixty people came to the rally .
(D) One hundred people came to the rally .

28. (A) They are going to meet Fred and Mary at the movies if they have time.
(B) They went to the movies with fred and Mary, but the theater was closed.
(C) They couldn`t meet Fred and Mary at the movies because they didn`t have any money.
(D) Fred and Mary were supposed to meet them at the movies, but their car broke down.

29. (A) He was supposed to give the awards at the baquest, but he didn`t.
(B) He was given an award, but he refused it.
(C) He didn`t go to the banquet.
(D) He went to the awards banquet, but he refused to give a speech.

30. (A) He is out of sugar.

(B) He puts only sugar in his coffee.
(C) There isn`t enough sugar in his coffee.
(D) He likes sugar, but the coffee he is drinking has too much.

GO ON TO PART B

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PART B

Directions: In part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked
some questions. The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written
out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker
says.

When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

31. (A) In a clothing store.

(B) In customs.
(C) At a bank .
(D) In a liquor store.

32. (A) 1.
(B) 2.
(C) 3.
(D) 4.

33. (A) To make a list on her purchases.

(B) To open her suitcase.
(C) To pay $300 duty.
(D) To show him the bottles of wine.

34. (A) Plants.

(B) Wine.
(C) Meat.
(D) Cash .

35. (A) The Incredible Adventures of the Martians.

(B) Mission to Mars.
(C) Martian Renaissance.
(D) Captivating Tales of Mars.

36. (A) Science fiction.

(B) Adventure.
(C) Biography.
(D) Documentary.

37. (A) One year.

(B) Three years.
(C) Five years.
(D) Seven years.

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 38. (A) The crew had some incredible adventures on Mars.
(B) The crew met some real Martians.
(C) The Martians captured the crew.
(D) The ship carried an all-male crew.

GO ON TO PART C

PART C

Directions: In Part C , you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions.
The talks and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will
have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.

When you hear a questions, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen .

39. (A) Spain.

(B) Latin America.
(C) Florida.
(D) America.

40. (A) Soccer.

(B) Handball.
(C) Football.
(D) Horse racing .

41. (A) Jai Alai is one of the fastest-moving games.

(B) Jai Alai requires a great deal of skill and endurance.
(C) Jai Alai can be played as singles or doubles.
(D) It is illegal to bet on florida jai alai games.

42. (A) Baseball.

(B) Ping-Pong .
(C) Handball.
(D) Badminton .

43. (A) Multiple telegraph.

(B) Telephone.
(C) Aviation .
(D) Acoustics.

44. (A) Acoustical science.

(B) Aviation .
(C) Adventure.
(D) Architecture.

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45. (A) He worked very hard, but never achieved success.
(B) He spent so many years working in aviation because he wanted to be a pilot.
(C) He dedicated his life to science and the well-being of humankind.
(D) He worked with the deaf so that he could invent the telephone.

46. (A) Bell was born in the eighteenth century.

(B) Bell worked with the deaf.
(C) Bell experimented with the science of acoustics.
(D) Bell invented a multiple telegraph .

47. (A) 100.

(B) 25.
(C) 35.
(D) 50.

48. (A) It is less expensive than term insurance.

(B) It can have a fixed premium for life.
(C) It may result in the insured`s being able to discontinue premium payments.
(D) It may result in retirement income.

49. (A) Because the insured must pay for the agent`s retirement fund.
(B) Because it is pure insurance .
(C) Because part of the money is invested.
(D) Because it is based on the age of the insured.

50. (A) It is inexpensive.

(B) One can borrow form the fund that is built up.
(C) The premium is paid by the interest.
(D) It requires and easier medical examination than does cash value insurance.

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION GO ON TO THE

SECTION 2

189
 SECTION 2

STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Time : 25 Minutes
40 Questions

PART A
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases.
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fil in the space that corresponds to the letter
of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building ___________
(A) Sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery.
(B) Sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully.
(C) Sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week.
(D) Sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.

2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked for ________
(A) Another pants.
(B) Others pants.
(C) The others ones.
(D) Another pair.

3. The commitee has met and ___________

(A) They have reached a decision.
(B) It has formulated themselves some opinions.
(C) Its decision was reached at.
(D) It has reached a decision.

4. Alfred Adams has not__________

(A) Lived lonelynessly in times previous.
(B) Never before lived sole.
(C) Ever lived alone before.
(D) Before lived without the company of his friends.

5. John`s score on the test is the highest in the class__________

(A) He should study last night.
(B) He should have studied last night.
(C) He must have studied last night.
(D) He must had to study last night.

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6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because_________
(A) He must to teach a class.
(B) He will be teaching a class.
(C) Of he will teach a class.
(D) He will have teaching a class.

7. Having been served lunch,____________

(A) The problem was discussed by the members of the commitee.
(B) The commitee members discussed the problem.
(C) It was discussed by the commitee members the problem.
(D) A discussion of the problem was made by the members of the commitee.

8. Florida has not yet ratified the amandment, and _______________

(A) Several other states hasn`t either
(B) Neither has some of the others states
(C) Some other states also have not either
(D) Neither have several other states

9. The chairman requested that ______________

The members studied more carefully the problem.
(B) The problem was more carefulnessly studied.
(C) With more carefulness the problem could be studied.
(D) The members study the problem more carefully.

10. California relies heavily on income from fruit crops, and _______
Florida also.
(B) Florida too.
(C) Florida is as well.
(D) So does Florida.

11. The professor said that _________

(A) The students can turn over thier reports on the Monday.
(B) The reports on Monday could be received from the students by him.
(C) The students could hand in their reports on Monday.
(D) The students will on Monday the reports turn in.

12. This year will be difficult for this organization because ________
(A) They have less money and volunteers than they had last year.
(B) It ha sless money and fewer volunteers than it had last year.
(C) The last year it did not have as few and lttle volunteers and money.
(D) There are fewer money and volunteers that in the last year there were.

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 13. The teachers have had some problems deciding________
(A) When to the students they shall return the final papers.
(B) When are they going to return to the students the final papers.
(C) When they should return the final papers to the students.
(D) The time when the final papers they should return for the students.

14. She wanted to serve some coffee to her guests; however, ________
(A) She hadn`t many sugar.
(B) There was not a great amount of the sugar.
(C) She did not have much sugar.
(D) She was lacking in amount of the sugar.

15. There has not been a great response to the sale, _________________?
(A) Does there.
(B) Hasn`t there.
(C) Hasn`t it.
(D) Has there.

GO ON TO PART B

PART B
Directions: In questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A),(B),(C),(D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase
that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that correpsonds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

16. The main office of the factory can be foundin Maple Street in New york City
A B C D
17. Because there are less members present tonight than there were last night, we must wait untill
A B C
the next meeting to vote
D
18. David is particularly fond of cooking ,and he often cooks really delicious meals.
A B C D
19. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is remarkable
A B C D
20. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old.
A B C D
21. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new problems already
A B C D
22. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy.
A B C D

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 23. The professor had already given the homework assignment when he had remembered that
B
Monday was a holiday. A
C D
24. Having been beaten by the police for striking an officer, the man will cry out in pain.
A B C D
25. This table is not sturdy enough to support a television, and that one probably isn`t neither
A B C D
26. The bridge was hiting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week.
A B C D
27. The company representative sold to the manager a sewing machine for forty dollars.
A B C D
28. The taxi driver told the man to don`t allow his disobedient son to hang out the window.
B C D
A
29. These televisions are quite popular in Europe, but those ones are not.
A B C D
30. Harvey seldom pays his billson time, and his brother does too.
A B C D
31. The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than now, wasn`t it?
A B C D
32. When an university formulates new regulations, it must relay its decision to the study and
A B C D
faculty.

33. Jim was upset last night because he had to do too many homeworks.
A B C D
34. There is some scissors in the desk drawer in the bedroom if you need them.
A B C D
35. The Board of Realtors doesn`t have any informations about the increase in rent for this area.
A B C D
36. George is not enough intelligent to pass this economics class without help.
A B C D
37. There were so much people trying to leave the burning building that the police had a great deal
A B C D
of trouble controlling them.

38. John lived in New York since 1960 to 1975, but he is now living in Detroit.
A B C D
39. The fire began in the fifth floor of the hotel, but it soon spread to adjacent floors.
A B C D
40. Mrs. Anderson bought last week a new sports car; however, she has yet to learn how to operate
A B C D
the manual gearshift.

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS UP,

CHECK YOUR WORK ON PARTS A AND B OF THE SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST .

193
 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time : 55 Minutes
50 Questions

Directions: In this section, you will read a number of passages. Each one is followed by approximately
ten questions about it. For questions 1-50, choose the one best answer, (A),(B),(C),or (D),to each
question. Then, find the number of the question on your answer sheet, and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all of the questions following a passage
on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Questions 1 through 10 are based on the following passage.

The Stone Age was a period of history which began in

approximately 2 million B.C. and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its
name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that
modern scientists found. This period was divided into the
(5) Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages. During the first
period (2 million to 8000 B.C.), the first hatchet and use of
fire for heating and cooking were developed. As a result of
the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the
Paleolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelter in caves,
(10) wear clothing, and develop new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C.), people
made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs
hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which were
used until the fourteenth century a.d.
(15) The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C.) saw humankind
domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being lesS
nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent
settlements, and creating governments.

1. Into how many periods was the Stone age divided?

(A) 2.
(B) 3.
(C) 4.
(D) 5.

2. In line 3 , the word “derived” is closest in meaing to

(A) Originated.
(B) Destroyed.
(C) Hallucinated.
(D) Discussed.

194
3. Which of the following was developed earliest?
(A) Fish hook.
(B) Hatchet.
(C) Hallucinated.
(D) Discussed.

4. Which of the following developments in NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
(A) Farming.
(B) Clothing.
(C) Living Indoors.
(D) Using Fire.

5. The word “crude” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Extravagant.
(B) Complex.
(C) Vulgar.
(D) Primitive.

6. The author states that the stone Age was so named because ....
(A) It was very durable like stone
(B) The tools and weapons were made of stone
(C) There was little vegetation
(D) The people loved in stone caves

7. In line 17,”nomadic” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Sedentary.
(B) Wandering.
(C) Primitive.
(D) Inquisitive.

8. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?

(A) The Neolithic Age.
(B) The Paleolithic Age.
(C) The Stone Age.
(D) The Ice Age.

9. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?

(A) People were inventive.
(B) People stayed indoors all the time.
(C) People were warriors.
(D) People were crude.

10. In line 17m the word “eras” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Families.
(B) Periods.
(C) Herds.
(D) Tools.

195
 Questions 11 through 23 are based on the following passage.

Hot boning is an energy-saving technique for the meat

processing industry. It has received significant attention in
recent years when increased pressure for energy conservation
has accentuated the need for more efficient methods of
(5) processing the bovine carcass. Cooling an entire carcass
requires a considerable amount of refrigerated space, since
bone and trimmable fat are cooled along with the muscle. It
is also necessary to space the carcasses adequately in the
refrigerated room for better air movement and prevention
(10) of microbial contamination, thus adding to the volume
requirements for carcass chillers.
Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef
sides in the cooler for 24 to 36 hours before boning. Chilling
in the traditional fashion is also associated with a loss of
(15) carcass weight ranging from 2 percent to 4 percent due to
evaporation of moisture from the meat tissue.
Early excision, or hot boning, of muscle prerigor followed
by vacuum packaging has several potential advantages. By
removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor, refrigera-
(20) tion space and costs are minimized, boning labor is decreased,
and storage yields increased. Because hot boning
often results in the toughening of meat, a more recent
approach, hot boning following electrical stimulation, has
been used to reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis.
(25) Some researchers have found this method beneficial in
maintaining tender meat, while others have found that the
meat also becomes tough after electrical stimulation.

11. The word “accentuated” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) De-emphasized.
(B) Speeded up.
(C) Caused.
(D) Highlighted.

12. All of the following are mentioned as drawbacks of the conventional method of boning
EXCEPT ....
(A) Storage space requirements
(B) Energy waste
(C) Loss of carcass weight
(D) Toughness of meat

13. In line 3,the word “pressure’ is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Urgency.
(B) Weight.
(C) Flavor.
(D) Cooking texture.

196
14. Hot Boning is becoming very popular because ....
(A) It causes meat to be very tender.
(B) It helps conserve energy and is less expensive than conventional methods.
(C) Meat tastes better when the bone is adequately seared along with the meat.
(D) It reduces the weight of the carcass.

15. In line 8, “ carcass chiller” is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) A refrigerator for the animal body.
(B) A method of boning meat.
(C) Electrical stimulation of beef
(D) Early excision.

16. In line 17,” early excision “ is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Vacuum packaging.
(B) Hot boning.
(C) Carcass chilling.
(D) Electrical stimulation.

17. The toughening of meat during hot boning has been combatted by ....
(A) Following hot boning with electrical stimulation .
(B) Tenderizing the mear.
(C) Using electrical stimulation before hot boning.
(D) Removing only edible muscle and fat prerigor.

18. The word “ bovine” in line 5 is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Cold.
(B) Electrical stimulated.
(C) Beef.
(D) Pork.

19. The word “this” in line 25 refers to ....

(A) Hot boning.
(B) Hot boning following electrical stimulation.
(C) Rigor mortis.
(D) Removing edible muscle and fat prerigor.

20. In line 5; the word “carcass” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Deboned meat.
(B) Body.
(C) Refrigerator.
(D) Fat.

21. The word “ considerable” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Frigid.
(B) Kind.
(C) Lesser.
(D) Substantial.

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 22. One reason it is recommended to remove bones before refrigerating is that ....
(A) It makes the meat more tender.
(B) The bones are able to be used for other purposes.
(C) It increases chilling time
(D) It saves cooling space by not refrigerating parts that will be discarded.

23. The word’ trimmable” in line 7 is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Unsaturated.
(B) Removable.
(C) Unheathy.
(D) Chillable.

Questions 24 through 31 are based on the following passage

In 1920, after some thirty-nine years of problems with

disease, high costs, and politics, the Panama Canal was
officially opened, finally linking the Atlantic and Pacific
Oceans by allowing ships to pass through the fifty-mile canal
(5) zone instead of traveling some seven thousand miles around
Cape Horn. It takes a ship approximately eight hours to
complete the trip through the canal and costs an average of
fifteen thousand dollars, one tenth of what it would cost an
average ship to round the Horn. More than fifteen thousand
(10) ships pass through its locks each year.
The French initiated the project but sold their rights to
the United States, which actually began the construction of
the project. The latter will control it until the end of the
twentieth century when Panama takes over its duties.

24. Who currently controls the Panama Canal?

(A) France.
(B) United States
(C) Panama.
(D) Canal zone.

25. The word “locks” in line 10 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Securities.
(B) Latches.
(C) Lakes.
(D) Canal gates.

26. On the average, how much would it cost a ship to travel around Cape Horn ?
(A) $1500
(B) $15.000
(C) $150.000
(D) $1.500.000

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27. In what year was construction begun on the canal ?
(A) 1881.
(B) 1920.
(C) 1939.
(D) 1999.

28. It can be inferred from this passage that ....

(A) The canal is a costly project which should be reevaluated.
(B) Despite all the problems involved, the project is beneficial.
(C) Many captains prefer to sail around Cape Horn because it is less expensive.
(D) Problems have made it necessary for three governments to control the canal over the
years.

29. In line 3, the word “linking” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Controlling.
(B) Dispersing.
(C) Detaching.
(D) Joining.

30. In line 8, “initiated” is nearest in meaning to ....

(A) Purchased.
(B) Launched.
(C) Forfeited.
(D) Forced.

31. All of the following are true, EXCEPT ....

(A) It costs so much to pass through the locks because very few ships use them.
(B) The United States received the rights to the canal from the French.
(C) A ship can pass through the canal in only eight hours.
(D) Passing through the canal saves thousands of miles of travel time around Cape Horn.

199
 Questions 32 through 41 are based in the following passage

In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot
of Mount Olympus to honor the Greeks’ chief god, Zeus
The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for
preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greek*
(5) to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military
could participate at first, but later the games were open to
all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The
Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their
education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping
(10) discus and javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot
racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed
every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly
honored by having olive wreaths placed on their deeds and
having poems sung about their deeds.
(15) Originally these contests were held as games of friendship,
and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to
take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among
competitors and the different cities represented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games
(20) that they calculated time in four-year cycles called
“Olympiads, dating from 776 B.C. The contests coincided with
religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the
part of the participants to please the gods. Any who
disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished.
(25) These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but
also to the cities they represented.

32. Which of the following is NOT true?

(A) Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
(B) The games were held ingreece every four years.
(C) Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
(D) Poems glorified the winners in song.

33. The word “elite” in line 5 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Aristocracy.
(B) Brave.
(C) Intellectuals.
(D) Muscular.

34. Why were the Olympic Games held?

(A) To stop wars.
(B) To honor Zeus.
(C) To crown the best athletes.
(D) To sing songs about the athletes.

200
35. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?
(A) 800 years.
(B) 1200 years.
(C) 2300 years.
(D) 2800 years.

36. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks ?

(A) They were pacifists.
(B) They believed .
(C) They were simple.
(D) They couldn`t count, so they used “Olympiads” for dates.

37. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks.
(B) The greeks severely punished those who did not participate in physical fitness programs.
(C) The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
(D) The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to
war when the games were over.

38. In line 14, the word “deeds” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Accomplishments.
(B) Ancestors.
(C) Documents.
(D) Property.

39. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the Olympics?
(A) They must have completed military service.
(B) They had to attend special training sessions.
(C) They had to be Greek males with no criminal record.
(D) They had to be very religious.

40. The word “ halted” in line 16 means most nearly the same as ....
(A) Encouraged.
(B) Started.
(C) Curtailed.
(D) Fixed.

41. What is an “Olympiad”?

(A) The time it took to finish the games.
(B) The time between games.
(C) The time it took to finish a war.
(D) The time it took the athletes to train.

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 Questions 42 through 50 are based on the following passage.

Tampa, Florida, owes a great deal of its growth and

prosperity to a Cuban cigar manufacturer named Vicente
Martinez Ybor. When civil war broke out in 1869, he was
forced to flee his country, and he moved his business to
(5) south Florida. Sixteen years later, labor union problems in
Key West caused him to seek a better location along the
west coast of the state. He bought a forty-acre tract of land
and made plans to set up his cigar factory on the site. This
original sixteen-block stretch of land later expanded to one
(10) hundred acres near Tampa. This newly developed area was
called Ybor City in his honor. Spanish, Italian, and Cuban
immigrants flocked to the area as the demand for workers in
the cigar factory increased. One fifth of the city’s twenty
thousand residents enjoyed the high-paying jobs there. At
(15) the end of the 1800s, Jose Marti, a Cuban poet and freedom
Fighter, organized a revolution from Ybor City and managed
To get considerable support for his movement. Teddy
Roosevelt’s “Rough Riders” were stationed there during
the Spanish-American War in 1898. Much of the prosperity
(20) of this region is due to Ybor’s cigar factory established more
than one hundred years ago.

42. Where is Ybor City located?

(A) South Florida.
(B) Cuba.
(C) West Florida.
(D) Marti.

43. The word “flee” in line 4 means most nearly the same as ....
(A) Escape.
(B) Return to.
(C) Fight.
(D) Disembody.

44. The word “ seek” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Purchase.
(B) Pursue.
(C) Elude.
(D) Develop.

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 45. Why will people probably continue to remember Ybor`s name?
(A) He suffered a gread deal.
(B) An area was named in his honor.
(C) He was a Cuban revolutionary.
(D) He was forced to flee his homeland.

46. In line 12, the word “flocked” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Came in large numbers.
(B) Escaped hurriedly.
(C) Increased rapidly.
(D) Prospered greatly.

47. In the early years, how many residents of ybor city worked in the cigar factory?
(A) 4,000.
(B) 5,000.
(C) 10,000.
(D) 20,000.

48. What is the best title for the passage?

(A) The Spanish-American War.
(B) Cuban Contributions in the Development of Ybor City.
(C) Ybor`s Contribution to Developing Part of the Tampa Area.
(D) The Process of Cigar Manufacturing.

49. In line 8.”site” is closest in meaning to ....

(A) Location.
(B) View.
(C) Vision.
(D) Indebtedness.

50. Who was Jose Marti?

(A) A good friend of Ybor.
(B) One of Teddy Roosevelt`s “Rough Riders”.
(C) A Cuban writer who sought to free his country.
(D) A worker in the cigar factory.

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE EXAMINATION. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS UP, CHECK
YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

203
 Source

Phillips, Deborah. Longman Complete Course for the TOEFL Test : The Paper Tests. New
York : Pearson Education. 2003.
Pyle, Michael A. Cliffs TOEFL Preparation Guide. Delhi : Nice Printing Press. 2005.
Barron’s. How to Prepare for the TOEFL Test of English Foreign Language 11th Edition.
New York:250 Wireless Boulevard. 2004.
Joyce, [Link] Complete Guide to the TOEFL TEST ;PBT Edition . Boston: Heinle
Cengage Training. 2011
Rogers, Bruce. Peterson's TOEFL Practice Test; Petersons 2nd Rev edition (June 1999). USA
: Peterson`s Publisher. 2000

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