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Crack your Exit exam
(For all [Link] Candidates)
AUTHORS
Mrs Parimita Kalita

Dr. Ratna Jyoti Das

DibyoJyoti Sarmah

Rajani Saikia

Purabi Das

Bhanita Saud

Swagata baruah

Nituporna Borah

(SCIENTIFIC INTERNATIONAL PUBLISHING HOUSE)

i
Title of the Book: Crack your Exit exam
Edition: First - 2023

Copyrights © Authors

No part of this text book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form by

any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopy, recording, or
any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing
from the copyright owners.

Disclaimer

The authors are solely responsible for the contents published in this text book.
The publishers or editors do not take any responsibility for the same in any
manner. Errors, if any, are purely unintentional and readers are requested to
communicate such errors to the editors or publishers to avoid discrepancies in
future.

ISBN: 978-93-5757-314-6
MRP: 550/-
PUBLISHER & PRINTER: Scientific International Publishing House
Contact: +917019991025
Website: [Link]

ii
 PREFACE
The main aim of publishing this MCQ book is to spread the knowledge
and make ready Diploma in Pharmacy students for the Exit exam which will
be governed by the Pharmacy Council of India. It caters to the needs of
aspiring pharmacy students for other pharmacist competitive examinations.
This book is completely written and edited by expert teachers by giving the
most priority to the syllabus subject of the D. Pharm Exit exam provided by
PCI. A student should approach the subject confidently. It should be learning
with pleasure for the students. He/she should face competition at any time and
at any place. The latest trend in education is teaching through multiple-choice
questions. The MCQ’s are intended to enable students to prioritize and plan
their learning through regular practice. The book contains a large number of
multiple-choice questions on the subject. The quality of the MCQ’s stands out
in the market. Generally, there are varieties of MCQ’s that comprehend all the
related questions on the subjects. The contents have been so designed as to
include the true spirit of the syllabus of D. Pharma. Another innovation in the
book is that each section is divided into various sub-sections. The entire
syllabus is divided into sections and headings. The book is user-friendly and
provides information in the form of MCQ. It provides a comprehensive and
critical study of the various concept of the subject matter. It is felt that the
contents should be crystal clear. A word or suggestion from your side may add
another feather to the cap of the subject matter of the book. The author of this
book looks forward to the comments, suggestions, and criticism from the
readers. Constructive suggestions and feedback from users would be highly
appreciated, gratefully acknowledged, and suitably incorporated.

From Authors and Editors

Mrs. Parimita Kalita
&
Dr. Ratna Jyoti Das
 CONTENTS
MCQ SPECIALLY DESIGNED FOR THE D. PHARM EXIT
EXAM

Section Subject Page Nos.

A Pharmaceutics-1 1-30

B Pharmacy Law & Ethics 31-69

Hospital Pharmacy and Clinical

C 70-91
Pharmacy

Community Pharmacy &

D 92-106
Management

E Pharmaceutical Chemistry- I 107-165

F Biochemistry and clinical pathology 166-207

G Pharmacology 208-239

H Pharmacognosy 240-271

I Human Anatomy and Physiology 272-286

Sincere acknowledgment to the students and management of

"AYUSH PHARMACY INSTITUTE"

([Link]) Jorhat, Assam, India
 Section- A
(Pharmaceutics- I)

1
1. Describe the safety measures to be taken while using eye drops.
(a) Never rinse the dropper
(b) Never use eye drops that have changed colour
(c) Discard the content after one month of use
(d) Do not touch the tip of the dropper
(e) All of the above
Ans: (e) All of the above
2. Another name for molten glass is
(a) Gob
(b) Body
(c) clump
(d) Mob
Ans: (a) Gob
3. Using the bubble test as a quality assurance test for
(a) Sachet
(b) Glass container
(c) Plastic container
(d) Blister pack
Ans: (d) Blister pack
4. Which of the following packing materials shields the medication inside
from light?
(a) Plastic containers
(b) Metal containers
(c) Glass containers
(d) Amber-colored glass containers
Ans: (d) Amber-colored glass containers
5. Which of the following is not a step in the manufacturing of glass?
(a) Heat treatment
(b) Finishing
(c) Forming and shaping
(d) Extrusion
Ans: (d) Extrusion
6. The container that immediately interacts with the formulation is known
as
(a) Secondary package
(b) Primary and secondary package
(c) Primary package
(d) Tertiary package
Ans: (c) Primary package
7. Alkalinity in which type of glass is determined using the water attack
test.
(a) Type-I glass
(b) Type-II glass
(c) Type-III glass
(d) Amber-colored glass

2
 Ans: (b) Type-II glass
8. What size of particle should topical powders have?
(a) 50 to 100 microns
(b) 150 to 250 micron
(c) 250 to 500 microns
(d) Above 1000 microns
Ans: (a) 50 to 100 microns
9. Benefit of liquid dosage form over powdered dosage form
(a) Bioavailability is less
(b) Easy to swallow
(c) More bulky
(d) Easy to handle
Ans: (b) Easy to swallow
10. Which of the following liquid dosage form is used for oral
administration?
(a) Elixirs
(b) Liniments
(c) Lotion
(d) Enema
Ans: (a) Elixirs
11. What kind of powder particles can pass through a No. 60 sieve (0.25
mm) yet not more than 40% can pass through a No. 100 sieve?
(a) Very Coarse powders
(b) Coarse powders
(c) Moderately coarse powders
(d) Fine powders
Ans: (d) Fine powders
12. How much dextrose is needed to make 3000 ml of a 5% w/v solution?
(a) 150 gms
(b) 200 gms
(c) 250 gms
(d) 300 gms
Ans: (a) 150 gms
13. Sugar content in syrup IP is ……. % w/w.
(a) 66.7
(b) 16.6
(c) 60.5
(d) 56.6
Ans: (a) 66.7
14. Which sweet-tasting solvents are employed in the creation of liquid
dosage forms?
(a) Propylene glycol
(b) Glycerine
(c) Polyethylene glycol
(d) Polysorbate 80

3
 Ans: (b) Glycerine
15. Determine how much dextrose is needed to make 200 mL of a 5%
w/v solution.
(a) 5 grams
(b) 10 grams
(c) 5 mg
(d) 100 grams
Ans: (b) 10 grams
16. Which sweetening agent is utilized as an additive in liquid dose form
as low-calorie or nonnutritive?
(a) Aspartame
(b) Dextrose
(c) Glucose
(d) Lactose
Ans: (a) Aspartame
17. The liquid solutions used in throat paints are
(a) Viscous
(b) Non-viscous
(c) Solid
(d) Gas
Ans: (a) Viscous
18. Which powder is suitable for ingestion or oral usage
(a) Electrolyte powder
(b) Talcum powder
(c) Snuffs
(d) Dusting powder
Ans: (a) Electrolyte powder
19. The powders which are sterile, used in body cavities, and also in
major wounds in healing are known as
(a) Non-medicated powders
(b) Medicated dusting powders
(c) Surgical dusting powders
(d) Natural dusting powders
Ans: (c) Surgical dusting powders
20. The capsules that enclosed powders are formed of …..
(a) Gelatin
(b) Rice flour
(c) Fructose
(d) Dextrose
Ans: (a) Gelatin
21. The inscription, which is a section of the prescription, contains
(a) Name and quantity of ingredients
(b) Direction to the patient
(c) Direction to the patient’s relatives
(d) Patient information

4
 Ans: (a) Name and quantity of ingredients
22. The Chairman of the first edition of IP was…..
(a) Dr. B.N. Ghosh
(b) Dr. B. Mukherjee
(c) Dr. Nityanand
(d) Mr. PrasanaTotta
Ans: (a) Dr. B.N. Ghosh
23. One minim is equivalent to
(a) 0.6ml
(b) 0.06ml
(c) 0.006ml
(d) 0.0006ml
Ans: (b) 0.06ml

24. Douches are designed to be used in ……………

(a) Vaginal cavity
(b) Rectal cavity
(c) Buccal cavity
(d) Nasal cavity
Ans: (a) Vaginal cavity

25. Which of the following uses a camel hair brush to apply

(a) Throat paint
(b) Mouthwash
(c) Gargle
(d) Liniment
Ans: (a) Throat paint

26. _ _ are wafers made of rice flour and contain a solid dose
form of medication.
(a) Cachets
(b) Powders
(c) lozenges
(d) Tablets
Ans: (a) Cachets
27. are cough medications in the form of pleasant, thick
liquid dosages.
(a) Inhalations
(b) Lozenges
(c) Linctus
(d) Tablets
Ans: (c) Linctus
28. Who coordinates the annual Indian Pharmaceutical Congress?
(a) Indian Pharmaceutical Association
(b) Indian Pharmaceutical Congress

5
 (c) Indian Pharmaceutical Congress Association
(d) Indian Pharmacy Graduates Association
Ans: (a) Indian Pharmaceutical Association

29. Calculate the dose for a 20-pound child using Clark's formula.
Adults should take 300 mg.
(a) 40 mg
(b) 110 mg
(c) 200 mg
(d) 35 mg
Ans: (a) 40 mg

30. Use of formulations made up of numerous plants referred to

as………..
(a) Generics
(b) Parenteral
(c) Plant Vehicles
(d) Galenicals
Ans: (d) Galenicals

31. What does one fluid ounce equal?

(a) 30.47 ml
(b) 29.57 ml
(c) 27.67 ml
(d) 28.77 ml
Ans: (b) 29.57 ml
32. The was enacted as the nation’s first minimum
standard of educational qualification for pharmacy practice.
(a) Pharmacy Act 1948
(b) Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 (1945)
(c) DPCO Act
(d) Pharmacy Practice regulation
Ans: (a) Pharmacy Act 1948
33. For creating a main emulsion of mineral oil using the dry gum
method, the ratio of oil to water to gum is
(a) [Link]
(b) [Link]
(c) [Link]
(d) [Link]
Ans: (a) [Link]
34. which of the following is a hydroalcoholic preparation.
(a) Elixir
(b) syrup
(c) suspension
(d) emulsion

6
 Ans: (a) Elixir
35. Which of the following monophasic liquid formulations falls within
the category of an oral cavity solution?
(a) Eardrop
(b) douches
(c) Gargle
(d) nasal drop
Ans: (c) Gargle
36. The emulsifying agent plays the role of .
(a) Decrease surface area in emulsion
(b) Improves the medication taste
(c) Increase the size of globules
(d) Reduce the interfacial tension between miscible phases
Ans: (a) Decrease surface area in emulsion
37. The B.P. Calamine Lotion is an illustration of .
(a) Suspension containing indifussible solids
(b) Mixture Containing precipitate forming
(c) Liquid Suspension produced by chemical reaction
(d) Dispersion of oils in inhalations
Ans: (a) Suspension containing indifussible solids
38. A defining feature of _ suspension is the production of hard
cakes.
(a) Flocculated
(b) Thixotropic
(c) Structured
(d) De-flocculated
Ans: (a) Flocculated
39. Mouthwash is necessary in which of the following circumstance.
(a) Yawning
(b) Indigestion
(c) Halitosis
(d) Hirsutism
Ans: (c) Halitosis
40. In an assembly, an emulsion is applied to a pair of electrodes
attached to an electric bulb, which causes the electric bulb to glow. It
indicates which type of emulsion.
(a) o/s
(b) w/o
(c) g/o
(d) o/w
Ans: (d) o/w
41. The term " " refers to the interaction between two or more
chemicals that may result in a change in color, oodor taste, viscosity, and
morphology.
(a) Biological incompatibility

7
 (b) Physical incompatibility
(c) Therapeutic incompatibility
(d) Chemical incompatibility
Ans: (b) Physical incompatibility
42. When a monovalent cation soap-based emulsion is combined with
polyvalent cations, phase inversion occurs. This is an illustration of
which type of incompatibility.
(a) Chemical
(b) Physical
(c) Therapeutic
(d) Biological
Ans: (a) Chemical
43. Which type of suppository base is categorised as Witepsol's?
(a) Glycero-Gelatin base
(b) Synthetic base
(c) Cocoa butter base
(d) Macrogol base
Ans: (b) Synthetic base
44. Double decomposition is an example of
incompatibility.
(a) Chemical
(b) Physical
(c) Therapeutic
(d) Biological
Ans: (a) Chemical
45. What kind of cocoa butter is regarded as stable enough for
suppositories?
(a) Alpha Crystal
(b) Gamma Crystals
(c) Delta Crystals
(d) Beta Crystal
Ans: (d) Beta Crystal
46. How can we overcome the incompatibility between oil and water?
(a) Addition of sweetener
(b) Addition of a surfactant
(c) Addition of preservative
(d) Mixing of two phases by stirring
Ans: (b) Addition of surfactant
47. measures the time required by suppository to soften
under pressures similar to those found in the rectum in the presence of
water at 37◦C.
(a) Solidification test
(b) Disintegration test
(c) Liquefaction test
(d) Dissolution test

8
 Ans: (c) Liquefaction test
48. The term "urethral suppositories" are also known as
(a) Pessaries
(b) Bougies
(c) Enema
(d) Douches
Ans: (b) Bougies
49. It is possible to make suppositories by .
(a) Precipitation method
(b) Redispersion Method
(c) Maceration method
(d) Compression moulding
Ans: (d) Compression moulding
50. Resin agglomerates are created when water is added to a tincture
containing resinous material. This is an illustration of which type
of incompatibility.
(a) Chemical
(b) Physical
(c) Therapeutic
(d) Biological
Ans: (b) Physical
51. Calculating displacement values makes sure .
(a) Correct amount of base
(b) Correct amount of drug
(c) Formation of stable suppositories
(d) Formation of easily mouldable suppositories.
Ans: (b) Correct amount of drug
52. Young’s rule for calculating approximate child’s dose is given as

(a) Dose of Child = Adult dose×(age/(age+12))

(b) Dose of Child = Age (in months) x 150 /Adult
(c) Dose Dose of Child = Adult dose×age/(age+20))
(d) Dose of Child = (Age (in months) x Adult Dose ) /20
Ans: (a) Dose of Child = Adult dose×(age/(age+12))
53. Using Dilling’s rule, Calculate the dose for a 2 years old child. The
adult dose is 500 mg.
(a) 50 mg
(b) 80 mg
(c) 120 mg
(d) 90 mg
Ans: (a) 50 mg
54. The components of the capsule shell
(a) Gelatin
(b) Carrageenan
(c) PVA

9
 (d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
55. What are the key considerations for creating an effective capsule
dosage form:
(a) Physical and chemical stability
(b) Fill composition
(c) Shell material
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
56. The gel strength of gelatin for softgel capsules should fall between
(a) 12-80 bloom
(b) 1500-2000 bloom
(c) 1.5-8 bloom
(d) 150-200 bloom
Ans: (d) 150-200 bloom
57. The extraction of a drug by heating it in a particular pressure is
known as
(a) Digestion
(b) Evaporation
(c) Maceration
(d) Infusion
Ans: (a)Digestion
58. Which of the following is a semiautomatic capsule filling technique:
(a) Auger fill method
(b) Mechanical vibration filling method
(c) Dosator method
(d) Compression filling method
Ans: (a) Auger fill method
59. Equipment for filling soft gels with a ribbon system is
(a) Pneumatic type
(b) Electronic type
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c) Both
60. What pH range should hypromellose capsules fall into:
(a) 3.2-4.8
(b) 4.8-5.8
(c) 5.8-8.0
(d) 8.0-9.2
Ans: (c) 5.8-8.0
61. The moisture content of a soft gelatin capsule should be between the
range of:
(a) <5%
(b) 6-10%
(c) 8-10%

10
 (d) >10%
Ans: (b) 6-10%
62. The creation of a capsule dosage form of a medication currently
available in tablet form will be regarded as
(a) Strategic reason
(b) Technological reason
(c) Safety reason
(d) Consumer preference
Ans: (a) Strategic reason
63. Which of these are unit dose forms?
(a) Suspension
(b) Tablet
(c) Emulsion
(d) Solution
Ans: (b) Tablet
64. The numerous dose configuration is
(a) Tablet
(b) Capsule
(c) Ointment
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c) Ointment
65. One which can't be given via oral tablets
(a) NSAIDs
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Proteins
(d) Hormones
Ans: (c) Proteins
66. Peak and valley effect is associated with
(a) SR dosage forms
(b) Conventional dosage forms
(c) Large volume parenteral products
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Conventional dosage forms
67. API cannot be made into tablets are
(a) With a very short half-life
(b) Which is destroyed in GIT
(c) A & B both
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) A & B both
68. There is no disintegrant in the composition of
(a) Conventional tablets
(b) Chewable tablets
(c) Enteric-coated tablet
(d) Immediate-release tablet
Ans: (b) Chewable tablets

11
69. The formulation which can be ingested without water
(a) Conventional Tablets
(b) Effervescent Tablets
(c) Chewable Tablets
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c) Chewable Tablets
70. Glidants are incorporated for
(a) Improving flow properties
(b) Improving binding
(c) Improved drug release
(d) Improved disintegration
Ans: (a) Improving flow properties
71. The most used technique for granulation is
(a) Dry granulation
(b) Wet granulation
(c) Direct compression
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Wet granulation
72. The Wurster process is related to
(a) Fluidized Bed Granulation
(b) Dry granulation
(c) Sieving
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Fluidized Bed Granulation
73. Preformulation aims to make sure
(a) Stability
(b) Safety
(c) Efficacy
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
74. The pattern of X-ray diffraction suggests
(a) Solubility
(b) Crystallinity
(c) Functional groups
(d) Permeability
Ans: (b) Crystallinity
75. The structure is seen in crystal form is
(a) 3D
(b) 2D
(c) Short-range
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) 3D
76. A monotropic polymorph can take on different forms
(a) reversibly
(b) irreversibly

12
 (c) does not change
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) irreversibly
77. The equation for the link between pH and an acidic drug's solubility
and pKa value is
(a) Henderson Hasselbalch equation
(b) Bragg’s Equation
(c) Noye’s Whitney Equation
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Henderson Hasselbalch equation
78. API's pure form's solubility is determined by
(a) Partition coefficient
(b) Phase solubility study
(c) Permeability study
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Phase solubility study
79. Carr’s Index indicates
(a) Flow property
(b) Solubility
(c) Partition coefficient
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Flow property
80. You may enhance the flow property by
(a) Glidant
(b) Plasticizer
(c) Binder
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Glidant
81. Infra-Red spectroscopy is used for determining
(a) Particle size
(b) Crystallinity
(c) Functional groups
(d) Shape
Ans: (c) Functional groups
82. Cold cream is
(a) W/O emulsion
(b) O/W emulsion
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) W/O emulsion
83. Vanishing cream is
(a) O/W emulsion
(b) W/O emulsion
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

13
 Ans: (a) O/W emulsion
84. Which is the commonly used humectant in cosmetic preparation
(a) Polyethylene glycol
(b) IPA (Isopropyl alcohol)
(c) Glycerol
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Glycerol
85. SPF stands for
(a) Sun Permeation Factor
(b) Sun Product factor
(c) Sun Perfection factor
(d) Sun Protection factor
Ans: (d) Sun Protection factor
86. What is the ideal percentage of detergent used in dentifrices?
(a) 1 – 5%
(b) 1 – 9 %
(c) 1 – 3 %
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) 1 – 3 %
87. What is the ideal percentage of sweetening agents used in dentifrices?
(a) 0.09 – 3%
(b) 2 – 3%
(c) 1 – 2%
(d) 0.05 – 2%
Ans: (a) 0.09 – 3%
88. The creamy appearance of shampoo is due to-
(a) Pearlizers and opacifiers
(b) Conditioning agent
(c) Aesthetic additives
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Pearlizers and opacifiers
89. Hydroquinones are used as a
(a) Preservatives
(b) Buffer
(c) Bleaching agent
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Bleaching agent
90. The ideal property of temporary hair colour is-
(a) Do not penetrate into the hair
(b) Can be easily rinsed off
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Both A and B

14
91. Which of the following dosage form is having maximum
bioavailability?
(a) Tablet
(b) Parenteral
(c) Emulsion
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Parenteral
92. Parenteral dosage form must be
(a) Sterile
(b) Clear
(c) Isotonic
(d) All the above
Ans: (d) All the above
93. The usual volume for an intrathecal route of administration is
(a) 0.5-2ml
(b) 2-20ml
(c) 1-4ml
(d) 5-10ml
Ans: (c) 1-4 ml
94. pKa for basic drug ranges from ——–
(a) 3-7.5
(b) 5-8.5
(c) 7-11
(d) 11-13
Ans: (c) 7-11
95. X-ray powder diffractometry of amorphous form gives——-
(a) Sharp peak
(b) Diffused peak
(c) Both sharp/diffused
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Diffused peak
96. Co- solvents can be used to is to improve ———-
(a) Solubility
(b) Dielectric constant
(c) pKa
(d) pH
Ans: (a) Solubility
97. Chemical modification can be used to improve-
(a) Solubility
(b) Optical activity
(c) Solvate formation
(d) None
Ans: (a) Solubility
98. Benzalkonium chloride is generally used as
(a) Preservative

15
 (b) Antioxidant
(c) Surfactant
(d) Solubilizing agent
Ans: (a) Preservative
99. Distillation is one of the methods of preparation of –———-
(a) WFI
(b) Solution
(c) Emulsion
(d) None
Ans: (a) WFI Water for injection
100. Which of the physical form gives rapid absorption and slow duration
of action?
(a) Crystalline form
(b) Amorphous form
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Amorphous form
101. Limitation of aerosol
(a) Portable
(b) Cheap
(c) Direct delivery to the site of action
(d) The quick onset of action
Ans: (b) Cheap
102. Propellants with a detrimental effect on the environment are
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Hydrocarbons
(c) Hydrofluoroalkanes
(d) Compressed Gases
Ans: (a) Chlorofluorocarbons
103. Aerosol is manufactured by
(a) Pressure filling
(b) Cold filling
(c) a & b both
(d) Compression
Ans: (c) a & b both
104. Compressed gas systems needs
(a) High initial pressure
(b) Low initial pressure
(c) No initial pressure
(d) a & b both
Ans: (a) High initial pressure
105. Aerosol made up of uncoated glass can withstand pressure upto
(a) 18 psig
(b) 25 psig
(c) 140 psig

16
 (d) 180 psig
Ans: (a) 18 psig
106. CFC114 is
(a) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
(b) Dichlorodifluoromethane
(c) Tetra-fluoroethane
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
107. Second digit in the digital name of liquefied propellant refers to
(a) Number of carbons – 1
(b) Number of hydrogens – 1
(c) Number of carbons + 1
(d) Number of hydrogens +1
Ans: (d) Number of hydrogens +1
108. The piezoelectric effect is associated with
(a) MDI
(b) Pneumatic jet nebulizer
(c) Mesh Nebulizer
(d) Ultrasonic nebulizer
Ans: (d) Ultrasonic nebulizer
109. A propellant free inhaler is?
(a) MDI
(b) DPI
(c) SVN
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) DPI
110. Packaging should help in
(a) presentation
(b) Information
(c) Identification
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
111. Vial is
(a) Secondary Package
(b) Primary package
(c) Tertiary package
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Primary package
112. Which is the Tamper-evident technology
(a) Heat-shrunk bands or wrappers
(b) Aerosol container
(c) Bottles with inner-mouth seals
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above

17
113. Which is not child-resistant technology?
(a) Push and turn down
(b) Squeeze the sides and turn
(c) Turn clockwise
(d) Push down the tab and turn
Ans: (c) Turn clockwise
114. Secondary package is
(a) Cartons
(b) Paper box
(c) Blister pack
(d) Ampoule
Ans: (b) Paper box
115. Package Integrity Testing is performed for?
(a) Dye leak
(b) visual inspection
(c) vacuum leak
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
116. Package information is governed by
(a) Pharmacy Act
(b) Drugs and Cosmetic Act
(c) Dangerous drugs Act
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Drugs and Cosmetic Act
117. Alkali leaching from glass is assessed by
(a) Water attack test
(b) Water vapour permeability
(c) Arsenic limit test
(d) light transmission test
Ans: (a) Water attack test
118. The volume of acid used in the Powdered Glass Test should be least
for
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) NP
Ans: (a) Type I
119. Maximum number of fragments allowed in Fragmentation test
(a) 15
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 20
Ans: (a) 15
120. A homogenous mixture of two or more substances which has the
same chemical composition and physical properties is called.

18
 (a) Emulsion
(b) Solution
(c) Suspension
(d) Ointment
Ans: (b) Solution
121. A Solution is composed of.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent.
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (c) Both A and B
122. A dispersion in which particle or solute size is maximum is called.
(a) True Solution
(b) Colloidal dispersion
(c) Coarse dispersion
(d) None
(e) Ans: (c) Coarse dispersion
123. The physical properties which depends upon the sum of the
properties of all the constituents of the solution, are called.
(a) Constitutive properties
(b) Colligative properties
(c) Additive properties
(d) None
Ans: (c) Additive properties
124. Those solutes which do not ionize in the solution and such solution
cannot conduct electricity are called
(a) Electrolyte
(b) Weak electrolyte
(c) Non-electrolyte
(d) Both A and B
(e) Ans: (c) non-electrolyte
125. The Number of moles of solute per liter of solution is called
(a) Normality
(b) Molarity
(c) Mole fraction
(d) None
Ans: (b) Molarity
126. In the concentration expression method PPM stands for
(a) Parts per Molarity
(b) Parts per Million
(c) Parts per mole fraction
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (b) Parts per Million

19
127. On the basis of the concentration of solute present in the solution can
be classified as
(a) Saturated
(b) Unsaturated
(c) Super saturated
(d) All above
(e) Ans: (d) All above
128. If one part of the solute is dissolved in 1-10 parts of the solvent, then
the solute will be
(a) Soluble
(b) Sparingly soluble
(c) Freely soluble
(d) None
Ans: (c) Freely soluble
129. The solubility of gasses in liquids depends upon the following
important factors
(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Presence of salt
(d) All
Ans: (d) All
130. A solution that resists the change in PH by the addition of small
amount of acid or base is called
(a) True solution
(b) Ideal solution
(c) Buffer solution
(d) All
Ans: (c) Buffer solution
131. Hydrolysis is the decomposition of a substance by the addition of
………….
(a) Alcohol
(b) Water
(c) Glycerin
(d) All
Ans: (b) Water
132. The science and technology of small particles are known as
(a) Rheology
(b) Micromeritics
(c) Physics
(d) None
Ans: (b) Micromeritics
133. Which of the method used for particle size and shape determination
(a) Microcopy
(b) Sieving method
(c) Sedimentation

20
 (d) All
Ans: (d) All
134. Colloids in which the dispersed phase exhibits an affinity for the
solvent or mediuare calleded
(a) Lyophobic
(b) Solvent hating
(c) Lyophilic
(d) Non
Ans: (c) Lyophilic
135. Methods used for the purification of colloids are
(a) Dialysis
(b) Ultra Dialysis
(c) None
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (d) Both A and B
136. Electro dialysis Methods used for the purification of
(a) Suspension
(b) Colloids
(c) Emulsion
(d) All
Ans: (b) Colloids
137. Solvent hating colloids are known as
(a) Lyophilic sol
(b) Lyophobic sol
(c) hydrophilic sol
(d) All
Ans: (b) Lyophobic sol
138. Factors Affecting Stability of colloids include
(a) Presence of charge
(b) Removal of charge
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (c) Both A and B
139. Artificial kidney Machine is used for the
(a) Hemodialysis
(b) Isolation of proteins
(c) Purification of protein
(d) All
Ans: (a) Hemodialysis
140. Particle of colloidal dispersion can be seen with
(a) Naked eye
(b) Only ultra-microscope
(c) Ordinary microscope
(d) All
Ans: (b) Only ultra-microscope

21
141. The phenomenon of light scattering by sol particles is called
(a) Florescent effect
(b) Tyndall effect
(c) Gradient effect
(d) None
Ans: (b) Tyndall effect
142. The process by which the colloidal particles settled …….. in the
dispersion medium due to the force of gravity is known as sedimentation.
(a) Upward direction
(b) Downward
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (b) Downward
143. The properties of colloids that depends upon the charge on colloidal
particles are called …… properties of colloids.
(a) Chemical
(b) Electrical
(c) Physical
(d) None
Ans: (b) Electrical
144. An ordinary emulsion is consisting of mixture of two immiscible
liquids and an emulsion usually consist of….
(a) Oily phase
(b) Aqueous phase
(c) Emulsifying agent
(d) All
Ans: (d) Al
145. The type of emulsion in which the oily phase is dispersed as droplets
throughout the aqueous phase is called................. Emulsion.
(a) Water in oil
(b) Oil in water
(c) Multiple emulsion
(d) None
Ans: (b) Oil in water
146. Clear dispersion of oil in water or water in oil is designated as
………. and these emulsions are more stable with globules diameter is less
than 0.1 micro meters.
(a) Water in oil
(b) Micro emulsion
(c) Multiple emulsion
(d) None
Ans: (b) Micro emulsion
147. Different identification method are used to identify type of emulsion
which included the following method
(a) Dilution test

22
 (b) Conductivity test
(c) Fluorescent test
(d) All
Ans: (d) All
148. In conductivity test if emulsion conduct electric current to pass
through it, it indicates emulsion is ……… type emulsion.
(a) Water in oil
(b) Oil in water
(c) None
(d) All
Ans: (b) Oil in water
149. Milk is example of natural …….
(a) Suspension
(b) Cream
(c) O/W Emulsion
(d) All
Ans: (c) O/W Emulsion
150. HLB stands for ……. that are helpful to determine the type of
emulsion.
(a) Highly lipophilic base
(b) High low balance
(c) Hydrophilic lipophilic balance
(d) All
Answer: (c) Hydrophilic lipophilic balance
151. Process of emulsification is determined by various theories
included…
(a) Surface tension theory
(b) Oriented wedge theory
(c) Interfacial film theory
(d) All
Ans: (d) All
152. The type of emulsion in which o/w or w/o are dispersed in another
liquid medium to produce w/o/w or o/w/o emulsion is called ……. …..
Emulsion.
(a) Micro emulsion
(b) Oil in water
(c) Multiple emulsion
(d) None
Ans: (c) Multiple emulsion
153. Example of Natural emulsifying agent included……
(a) Acacia
(b) Egg yolk
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (c) Both A and B

23
154. Cholesterol, bees Wax, wool fat, egg yolk, lecithin, gelatin and acacia
gum are classified as……
(a) Artificial emulsifier
(b) Natural emulsifier
(c) Both A and B
(d) Semi-synthetic.
Ans: (b) Natural emulsifier
155. Emulsions are prepared by …….
(a) Dry gum method
(b) Wet gum method
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (c) Both A and B
156. For preparation of emulsions, if oil is triturated with gum and then
water is added for making primary emulsion this method is called as…
(a) Wet gum method
(b) Bottle method
(c) Dry gum method
(d) Both B and C
Ans: (c) Dry gum metho
157. If O/W type emulsion is changed into W/O type emulsion this is
called
(a) Creaming
(b) Phase inversion
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Both B and C
Ans: (b) Phase inversion
158. Pharmaceutical emulsions instability factors included are
(a) Creaming
(b) Phase inversion
(c) Coalescence
(d) All
Ans: (d) All
159. The size range of the suspended particles in pharmaceutical
suspension are ranges….
(a) 1-10
(b) 0.5-5.0 µm
(c) 5-10
(d) All
Ans: (b) 0.5-5.0 µm
160. Qualities of good pharmaceutical suspension included are…….
(a) Physical and Chemical stable
(b) Easily pourable
(c) Resist to microbes
(d) All

24
 Ans: (d) All
161. In which type of suspension particles form loose aggregates and form
a network like structure.
(a) Flocculated
(b) Non flocculated
(c) None
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (a) Flocculated
162. The use of thickening agent for formulation of suspension ……..…..
Viscosity of suspension and makes it stable.
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) None
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (d) Both A and B
163. For the formulation of pharmaceutical suspension which of the
ingredients are required.
(a) Flocculated agents
(b) Dispersing agents
(c) Wetting agents
(d) All
Ans: (d) All
164. Pharmaceutical application of suspension included are
(a) Oral and injectable use
(b) Topical and ophthalmic use
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (c) Both A and B
165. The internal resistance or friction to flow of liquids to relative motion
of one molecule to another molecule is called as…..
(a) Density
(b) Viscosity
(c) Surface tension
(d) None
Ans: (b) Viscosity
166. The type of deformation in which applied stress is removed and fluid
comes back to its original structure, it is ................. deformation or elastic
deformation.
(a) Irreversible
(b) Reversible
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Ans: (b) Reversible
167. Non-Newtonian liquids are those whose …… and flow rates are
affected by applying sheer stress.

25
 (a) Density
(b) Viscosity
(c) Surface tension
(d) None
Ans: (b) Viscosity
168. The process of removing the water of crystallization from crystalline
salt or substance is termed as……….
(a) Exsiccation
(b) Hydrations
(c) Both A and B
(d) Ignition
Ans: (a) Exsiccation
169. Solvent used for extraction process are termed as….
(a) Menstruum
(b) Marc
(c) Filtrate
(d) All
Answer: (a) Menstruum
170. Extraction is a process of …………. of pharmaceutical active
ingredients from plant or animal drugs with the help of suitable solvent.
(a) Separation
(b) Isolation
(c) Mixing
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (d) Both A and B
171. Pharmacy is derived from Greek word that is .............. which means
drug, medicine or remedy and it is life saving profession.
(a) Pharmacognosy
(b) Pharmakon
(c) Pharmacology
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (b) Pharmakon
172. As the particle size is reduced, the surface area is increased which
……. the solubility of solid.
(a) No effect
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (c) Increase
173. The solubility of weakly acidic drugs is increased by increasing the
pHof the media and solubility of weakly basic drugs is increased by
………. the pH of media.
(a) No effect
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase

26
 (d) Both A and B
Ans: (b) Decrease
174. A department in the hospital run under the direction and supervision
of a legally qualified and professionally competent pharmacist, is termed
as……….
(a) Clinical pharmacy
(b) Retail pharmacy
(c) Hospital pharmacy
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (c) Hospital pharmacy
175. Extraction is a process of ………….. of pharmaceutical active
ingredients from plant or animal drugs with the help of suitable solvent.
(a) Separation
(b) Isolation
(c) Mixing
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (d) Both A and B
176. The ….…. are concentrated preparations of vegetables or animal
drugs obtained by removal of the active constituents of the respective
drug with suitable menstrum, evaporation of all or nearly all solvent.
(a) Menstrum
(b) Extractive
(c) Filtrate
(d) All
Ans: (b) Extractive
177. The process of reducing the particle size by continuous grinding the
powders in the pestle and mortar by the use of small amount of liquid in
which solid is not soluble is known as…..
(a) Levigation
(b) Trituration
(c) Both A and B
(d) Pulverization
Ans: (a) Levigation
178. The process of diffusion in which particles moves from area of higher
concentration to the lower concentration through semi permeable
membrane is called.
(a) Dialysis
(b) Osmosis
(c) Infusion
(d) All
Ans: (b) Osmosis
179. The chemical substances which are used to reduce the interfacial
tension to increase thesolubility of liquids is known as …….
(a) Surfactant
(b) Polymer

27
 (c) Dispersing agent
(d) All
Ans: (a) Surfactant
180. To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are
conducted?
(a) Dilution test
(b) Dye test
(c) Conductivity test
(d) All
Ans: (d) All
181. Which of the following is not used as an emulsifying agent?
(a) Surfactant
(b) Hydrophilic colloid
(c) Electrolytes
(d) Finely divided solids
Ans: (c) Electrolytes
182. Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?
(a) Paste
(b) Creams
(c) Ointments
(d) Suspensions
Ans: (d) Suspensions
183. Generally pastes contain
(a) High percentage of insoluble solids
(b) Low percentage of insoluble solids
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (a) High percentage of insoluble solids
184. Which of the following hydrocarbon waxes are employed in the
manufacture of creams and ointments?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Ceresin
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (b) Ceresin
185. Which of the following polyols used as humectants in creams?
(a) Glycerine
(b) Propylene glycol
(c) Sorbitol 70%
(d) All the above
Ans: (d) All the above
186. In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used
generally?
(a) Absorption bases
(b) Water removable bases

28
 (c) Hydrocarbon bases
(d) None
Ans: (b) Water removable bases
187. In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used
generally?
(a) Absorption bases
(b) Water removable bases
(c) Hydrocarbon bases
(d) None
Ans: (a) Absorption bases
188. Water soluble bases are also known as
(a) Greasy ointment bases
(b) Greaseless ointment bases
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (b) Greaseless ointment bases
189. A suppository is generally intended for use in
(a) Rectum
(b) Vagina
(c) Urethra
(d) All the above
Ans: (d) All the above
190. Vaginal suppositories also called as
(a) Pessaries
(b) Simple suppositories
(c) Bougies
(d) None
Ans: (a) Pessaries
191. Which of the following method is used to manufacture suppositories
(a) Hand molding
(b) Compression molding
(c) Pour molding
(d) All the above
Ans: (d) All the above
192. Who is the father of medicine?
(a) Ebers
(b) Hippocrates
(c) Egyptian
(d) Pontus
Ans: (b) Hippocrates
193. The first edition of I.P. was published in………
(a) 1965
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985

29
 Ans: (c) 1955
194. The “Pharmacy Act” came in force in ………….
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
Ans: (b) 1948
195. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was established in …………
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
Ans: (c) 1949
196. Suspending agents imparts …………..
(a) Solubility
(b) Viscosity
(c) Absorption
(d) Wetting
Ans: (b) Viscosity
197. Enemas are administered …………..
(a) Rectally
(b) Orally
(c) Parenteral
(d) Externally
Ans: (a) Rectally
198. Powders are more stable than …………..
(a) Syrup
(b) Tablet
(c) Capsule
(d) Elixirs
Ans: (a) Syrup
199. Bulk powders are ……………….
(a) Potent
(b) Non-potent
(c) Both a and b
(d) None
Ans: (b) non-potent
200. Drugs converted to suitable forms are known as ………….
(a) Excipient
(b) Dosage forms
(c) Source of drug
(d) API
Ans: (b) Dosage forms

30
 Section- B
(Pharmacy Law and Ethics)

31
1. of pharmacist is essential for maintain the standards of
pharmacy profession.
a) License
b) Qualification
c) Registration
d) None

Ans: c) Registration

2. members are nominated by state government in state

pharmacy council.
a) Three to five
b) Two
c) Six
d) Five

Ans: d) Five

3. Education Registration is published in

a) Parliament
b) Official Gazette
c) Loksabha assembly
d) None

Ans: b) Official Gazette

4. Joint state pharmacy council is constituted under section of pharmacy

act
a) 19
b) 20
c) 21
d) 42

Ans: b) 20

5. For registration of pharmacist in state, the pharmacy act provides for

constitution of
a) Registrar of co-operative society
b) None
c) Registrar of central pharmacy council
d) Registrar of state pharmacy council

Ans: d) Registrar of state pharmacy council

6. is the father of medicine

a) Aristotle

32
 b) Gallon
c) Hippocrates
d) None

Ans: c) Hippocrates

7. was founded by Dr. Khwaja Abdul Hamied.

a) Ranbaxy industries
b) Lupin
c) Aurobindo Pharma
d) Cipla

Ans: d) Cipla

8. The first pharmacy class was started in

a) Sagar University
b) Banaras University
c) Rajputana University
d) Madras Medical College

Ans: d) Madras Medical college

9. First register is prepared by

a) Central Government
b) Registrar of State Pharmacy Council
c) State Government
d) Registration Tribunal

Ans: d) Registration Tribunal

10. For registration of pharmacist in state was done by

a) Register of co-operative
b) Register of Central Pharmacy
c) Register of State Pharmacy Council
d) None

Ans: c) Register of state pharmacy council

11. Central register of pharmacist is maintained by

a) Central government
b) AICTE
c) State government
d) PCI

Ans: d) PCI

33
12. PCI was constituted in
a) 1951
b) 1950
c) 1949
d) 1955

Ans: c) 1949

13. The Penalty for offence “Dispensing by unregistered persons” are-

a) Imprisonment for a term which may extent to 6 months, or with fine
not exceeding one thousand rupees or with both
b) Life time imprisonment
c) Fine up to fifty rupees
d) None

Ans: a) Imprisonment for a term which may extent to 6 months, or

with fine not exceeding one thousand rupees or with both

14. The pharmacist should keep in mind the following point while dealing
with his trade
a) Price structure
b) Fair trade practice
c) Purchase of drug
d) All

Ans: d) All

15. Drug enquiry committee constituted in

a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1931
d) None

Ans: c) 1931

16. Minimum hrs of training required to be a registered pharmacist.

a) 100hrs
b) 300hrs
c) 400hrs
d) 500hrs

Ans: d) 500 hrs

17. Drug Import Bill was passed in the year

a) 1935
b) 1937

34
 c) 1939
d) 1941

Ans: b) 1937

18. Jurisprudence is the study of

a) Public health
b) Fundamental legal principles
c) Maternity health
d) Health education

Ans: b) Fundamental legal principles

19. The instruments of legislation are

a) Act
b) Section
c) Orders
d) All of above

Ans: d) All of the above

20. PCI is reconstituted at every

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
Ans: d) 5 years
21. The main object of Pharmacy Act, 1948 is
a) To regulate import, distribution of drug
b) To regulate the profession & practice of pharmacy
c) To raise the status of profession of pharmacy
d) Both b &c
Ans: d) Both b &c
22. means Pharmacy Council of India
a) Central Council
b) Pharmacy Council
c) State Council
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Central Council
23. is responsible for evolving educational standards and
regulations for the course in pharmacy through education regulations.
a) Pharmacy Act
b) d & c Act
c) Education Act
d) Indian Patent Act
Ans: a) Pharmacy Act

35
24. Following are the ex-officio member of PCI expect-
a) Drug Inspector
b) Drug Controller of India
c) Director general of health services
d) Director of Central Drug Laboratory
Ans: a) Drug Inspector
25. : A person registered or eligible for registration in a
medical register of the state meant for the registration of a person
practicing a modern scientific system of medicine.
a) Registered Pharmacist
b) Displaced person
c) Medical Practitioner
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Medical Practitioner
26. University grants commission established under section of
UGC Act, 1956.
a) Section 3
b) Section 4
c) Section 10
d) Section 3A
Ans: b) Section 4
27. Pharmacy Act, 1948 provides for the constitution of central council
under by Central Government.
a) Section 3
b) Section 4
c) Section 3 of Chapter 1
d) Section 4 of Chapter 1
Ans: c) Section 3 of Chapter 1
28. The function of Pharmacy Council of India .
a) To prescriber minimum standard of education
b) To regulate minimum educational standard
c) To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist
d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

29. Qualification in pharmacy granted outside India can be recognized by

a) Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
b) University Grant Commission (UGC)
c) Drugs Advisory Board (DTAB)
d) Drug controller of India
Ans: a) Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
30. Pharmacy acts extends to the role of India except the state
a) Rajasthan
b) Assam

36
 c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: c) Jammu & Kashmir
31. Who was the first chemist in India?
a) Bathgate
b) Aristotle
c) Galen
d) Ramanuja
Ans: a) Bathgate
32. When did the Pharmacy Act 1948, come into force?
a) 01 April 1949
b) 04 March 1948
c) 01 May 1949
d) 23 April 1948
Ans: b) 04 March 1948
33. Section 25 of the pharmacy Act 1948 deals with
a) Withdrawal of approval
b) Term of office and casual vacancies
c) Education regulations
d) The Executive Committee
Ans: b) Term of office and casual vacancies
34. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted
a) Every 2year
b) Every 3year
c) Every 5year
d) Every 7year
Ans: c) Every 5year
35. Section 10 of Pharmacy Act deals with
a) Responsibility for payment of wages.
b) Education regulations.
c) Incorporation of Central Council.
d) Fixation of cuage periods.

Ans: b) Education regulation

36. Total nominated member in state Pharmacy Council includes

a) 5 members
b) 7 members
c) 8 members
d) 9 members
Ans: a) 5 members
37. First register is published by
a) State govt.
b) Central govt.
c) Judicial body

37
 Ans: a) State govt.
38. Total no of elected members in PCI is
a) 7 members
b) 6 members
c) 8 members
d) 5 members
Ans: c) 8 members
39. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in the official gazette by
a) Ministry of Education
b) Central government
c) President,
d) Pharmacy Council of India
Ans: b) Central government
40. The Penalty for falsely claiming to be a registered pharmacist is
a) Rs 200
b) Rs 500
c) Rs 500 for the first conviction and RS 1000/6 month of second
conviction
Ans: c) Rs 500 for the first conviction and RS 1000/6 month of second
conviction
41. The penalty for dispensing by an unregistered person is
a) Rs 500/6 months
b) Rs 1000/6 months
c) Rs 2000/6 months
d) Rs 1000/6 months
Ans: b) Rs 1000/6 months
42. Course of study is covered in which section of the pharmacy act?
a) Section 3
b) Section 9
c) Section 12
d) Section 18
Ans: b) Section 12
43. The current president of PCI (2022) is
a) Dr. Promod Yale
b) Dr. B Suresh
c) Dr. Montu Kumar Patel
d) Dr. Joseph Bhore
Ans: c) Dr. Montu Kumar Patel
44. The approval of course study and examination include which section
of pthe harmacy act?
a) Section 10
b) Section 12
c) Section 13
d) Section 19
Ans: b) Section 12

38
45. Section 17 of the pharmacy act 1948 provides
a) Information to be furnished.
b) The central register.
c) Renewal fees.
Ans: a) Information to be furnished.
46. The Pharmacy Act constituted in
a) 1940
b) 1949
c) 1945
d) 1948
Ans: d) 1948
47. When did the Pharmacy Act 1948 come into force?
a) 01 April 1949
b) 04 March 1948
c) 01 May 1949
d) 23 April 1948
Ans: b) 04 March 1948
48. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals wthe Inter-State
agreements?
a) Section 12 of the pharmacy act 1948
b) Section 9 of the pharmacy act 1948
c) Section14 of the pharmacy act 1948
d) Section 20 of the pharmacy act 1948

Ans: d) Section 20 of the pharmacy act 1948

49. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with inspection?
a) Section 16 of the pharmacy act 1948
b) Section 14 of the pharmacy act 1948
c) Section 13 of the pharmacy act 1948
d) Section 18 of the pharmacy act 1948
Ans: a) Section 16 of the pharmacy act 1948
50. Section 25 of pharmacy act 1948 deals with ?
a) Withdrawal of approval
b) Term of office and casual vacancies
c) Education Regulations
d) The Executive committee
Ans: b) Term of office and casual vacancies
51. Composition of joint state councils, is provided in a section of the
pharmacy act of 1948
a) Section 24 of the pharmacy act 1948
b) Section 22 of the pharmacy act 1948
c) Section 21 of the pharmacy act 1948
d) Section 23 of the pharmacy act 1948
Ans: c) Section 21 of the pharmacy act 1948

39
52. Section 17 of the pharmacy act 1948 provides_ ?
a) Information to be furnished
b) Approved courses of study and examinations
c) The Central Register
d) Renewal fees
Ans: a) Information to be furnished
53. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with the president and
vice-president of the central council?
a) Section 7 of the pharmacy act 1948
b) Section 4 of the pharmacy act 1948
c) Section 5 of the pharmacy act 1948
d) Section 9 of the pharmacy act 1948
Ans: c) Section 5 of the pharmacy act 1948
54. Section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with ?
a) Preparation and maintenance of the register
b) Removal from the register
c) Scrutiny of applications for registration
d) Appointment of commission of enquiry
Ans: a) Preparation and maintenance of the register
55. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with the incorporation
of the central council?
a) Section 7 of the pharmacy act 1948
b) Section 90 of the pharmacy act 1948
c) Section 4 of the pharmacy act 1948
d) Section 5 of the pharmacy act 1948
Ans: c) Section 4 of the pharmacy act 1948
56. Section 16 of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with
a) Responsibility for payment of wages.
b) Fixation of wage periods
c) Inspection process
d) Incorporation of central council

Ans: c) Inspection process

57. One of the following is not correct in the main objectives of pharmacy
act 1948 of India
a) Restoration of pharmacy profession in its due place in the health
service.
b) Raising the status of pharmacy profession.
c) To regulate the profession of pharmacy.
d) To have common syllabus of pharmacy throughout India.

Ans: a) Restoration of pharmacy profession in its due place in the

health service

58. Penalty for failure to surrender certificate of registration

40
 a) Rs 1000
b) Rs 100
c) Rs 500
d) Rs50

Ans: d) Rs 50
59. Penalty for dispensing by unregistered pharmacists
a) Rs 1000 fine
b) 6 months of imprisonment
c) Both A and B
d) Rs 500 fine only

Ans: c) Both A and B

60. Joint state pharmacy council constituted for how many years
a) 2 years
b) 3years
c) years as per agreed by participating states
d) 10years

Ans: c) Years as per agreed by participating states.

61. What is the total no of members of state pharmacy council of PCI?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) None of the above

Ans: a) 15
62. All the members of the PCI are eligible for
a) Re-nomination
b) Re-election
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

Ans: c) Both a & b

63. Removal of name from the register in condition

a) If his name is entered by an error
b) If he has been convicted of an offence in any professional
c) If he doesn’t renew his registration
d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

64. Which of the following is the sample of magic remedies?

41
 a) Talisman
b) Mantra
c) Kavacha
d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

65. Advertisement of drug claiming cure of disease mentioned in schedule

is
a) Granted
b) Prohibited
c) Exempted
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Prohibited
66. Display of signboard or notice by registered medical practitioner on
his premises fall under.
a) Regular advertisement
b) Permitted advertisement
c) Exempted advertisement
d) Prohibited advertisement

Ans: d) Permitted advertisement

67. Identify the class of advertisement related to drugs that is prohibited.

a) Printed or published by the government.
b) Sent confidentially to Rp.
c) For the correction of menstrual disorders in women.
d) Including any book or treatise.
Ans: c) For the correction of menstrual disorders in women.
68. The drug and magic remedies act come in to force in?
a) 1930
b) 1937
c) 1944
d) 1955

Ans: d) 1955

69. Advertisement means:

a) Any notice, circular label, wrapper or other document.
b) Any announcement made orally or by one means of producing or
transmitting light, sound or smoke.
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Any announcement made orally or by one means of producing
or transmitting light, sound or smoke.

42
70. The objective of drug and magic remedies act is:
a) To promote certain type of advertisements related to drug which
mislead public
b) To prohibit ads related to magic remedies with false claims.
c) To provide uniform education and training to the pharmacists.
d) To regulate profession of pharmacy.
Ans: b) To prohibit ads related to magic remedies with false claims.
71. The drug and magic remedies (objectionable advertisement). Rules
were introduced in which year?
a) 1954
b) 1953
c) 1955
d) 1948

Ans: a) 1954

72. Any substance intended to be used for or in the diagnosis, cure,

mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in human beings or
animal is called:
a) Magic remedies
b) Drug
c) Kauacha
d) Both b &c

Ans: b) Drug

73. Which of the following schedule of drugs and cosmetic rules in 1945
deals with objectionable advertisements?
a) Schedule F
b) Schedule H
c) Schedule J
d) Schedule C

Ans: b) Schedule H

74. Whoever contravenes any of the provisions of this act (First

conviction) shall be punished with
a) Imprisonment up to 1 year or with a fine or both.
b) Imprisonment up to 6 months or with a fine or both.
c) Only a fine of Rs 1000/-
d) None of the above.
Ans: b) Imprisonment up to 6 months or with fine or both.
75. According to the act exempted advertisement is-
a) For the maintenance or improvement of the capacity of human beings
for sexual pleasure.

43
 b) Any advertisement relating to any drug sent confidentially in the
manner prescribed under section 16 only to a registered medical
practice.
c) Both a & b
d) Advertisement published by state government.

Ans: b) Any advertisement relating to any drug sent confidentially in

the manner prescribed under section 16 only to a registered medical
practice.
76. What is the definition of a “Magic Remedy”?
a) Talisman, mantra, kavacha or any other charm or any substance
alleged to possess miraculous powers to diagnose, cure mitigate, treat
or prevent a disease in human or animals.
b) Any substance natural or synthetic or any salt or preparation of such
substance or material include in the list of psychotropic substance
specified.
c) Any substance, weather processed, partially processed or unprocessed,
which is intended for human consumption.
d) Ethyl alcohol of any strength and purity having the chemical
composition C2H5OH.
Ans: a) Talisman, mantra, kavacha or any other charm or any
substance alleged to possess miraculous powers to diagnose, cure
mitigate, treat or prevent a disease in human or animals.
77. Which of the following is example of prohibited advertisement?
a) For the procurement of, is carriage in women or prevention of
contraception in women.
b) Directly or indirectly gives a false impression regarding the true
character of the drug.
c) Both a& b
d) Advertisement published by state governments.

Ans: c) Both a & b

78. The sea custom act was passed in the year_

a) 1868
b) 1858
c) 1877
d) 1878
Ans: d) 1878
79. According to the provisions of this act, any Gazzetted officer
appointed by processing the powers of entry, search etc,
within the local limits of the area.
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Self-government

44
 d) None of the above
Ans: a) State Government
80. Any substances intended to be used for or in the diagnosis disease in
human beings or animal is called-
a) Lepa
b) Churans
c) Kavachas
d) Bhasmas
Ans: c) Kavachas
81. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?
a) Toilet preparations
b) Ayurvedic drugs
c) Schedule C, G drugs.
d) Misbranded drugs

Ans: d) Misbranded drug

82. In 1954 of the following acts is passed –

a) Narcotic and psychotropic substance act.
b) Drug and remedies act.
c) The medical termination of pregnancy act.
d) Poisonous act.
Ans: d) Poisonous act.
83. “Registered medical practitioner” means any person-
a) Who had qualification granted by an authority specified in, or notified
under section 30 the Indian Medical Degrees Act 1916(7 of 1916).
b) Who hold a qualification granted by an authority specified in the
schedules to the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956(102 of 1956).
c) Both a&b.
d) None of the above.

Ans: c) Both a&b.

84. Any announcement made orally or by means of producing or

transmitting light, sound or smoke known as-
a) Order
b) Commitment
c) Resolution
d) Advertisement
Ans: d) Advertisement
85. The drug and magic remedies act 1954 extend to the whole of India
except the state of-
a) Mumbai
b) Jammu & Kashmir
c) Kolkata

45
 d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: b) Jammu & Kashmir
86. CAMO of state comes under composition of
a) Elected member
b) Ex- officio member
c) Nominated member
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Ex- officio member
87. Function of central council is –
a) Design of the educational pattern.
b) Education Regulation.
c) Giving practical training.
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.
88. The pharmacy council of India is required to maintain a register
containing the name of-
a) All registered pharmacists.
b) Elected member of state.
c) Nominated member of Central Council.
d) Offences of pharmacy.
Ans: a) All registered pharmacist.
89. Hatch Waxman act also known as
a) Spurious drugs Act
b) Over the counter drugs
c) Dangerous drugs Act
d) Banned drugs
Ans: a) Spurious drugs Act
90. Upon entry of the name of the person in the register, the “Register” is
required to issue to him a
a) Prize
b) Application form
c) Receipt
d) Certificate

Ans: d) Certificate

91. Poison act was implemented in the year-

a) 1911
b) 1919
c) 1986
d) 1929
Ans: b) 1919
92. The main objective of poison act was-
a) To achieve adequate supply.
b) To achieve equitable distribution.

46
 c) To import poison.
d) To regulate and control, import, possession and sale of poison.
Ans: d) To regulate and control, import, possession and sale of poison.
93. According to poison act Central Government is authorized to –
a) Regulate possession and sale of poison.
b) Regulate import of poison.
c) Both a & b.
d) None of the above.

Ans: b) Regulate import of poison

94. According to poison act state government are authorized to-

a) Regulate import poison.
b) Regulate possession of poison.
c) Regulate possession for sale and sale of poison.
d) Both b & c.

Ans: d) Both b & c.

95. Following are the powers of state government-

a) Granting license.
b) Deciding on whom to give the license.
c) Fixing the maximum quantity of poison to be sold to a person.
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.
96. Penalty for unlawful importation, possession for sale and sale of
poison for the first conviction is-
a) Imprisonment up to 5 months and fine up to Rs 1000.
b) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs 500.
c) Imprisonment up to 5 months and fine up to Rs 1000 or both.
d) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs 500 or both.
Ans: d) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs 500 or both.
97. Penalty for unlawful importation, possession for sale and sale of
poison for the second conviction is-
a) Imprisonment up to 10 months and fine up to 2000 Rs.
b) Imprisonment up to 6 months and fine up to 1000 Rs.
c) Imprisonment up to 10 months and fine up to 2000 Rs or both.
d) Imprisonment up to 6 months and fine up to 1000 Rs or both.
Ans: d) Imprisonment up to 6 months and fine up to 1000 Rs or both.
98. List of poisons are-
a) Aconite.
b) Belladonna.
c) Cantharide.
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.

47
99. List of poisons are-
a) Carbolic acids.
b) Zinc chlorides.
c) Chloroform.
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.
100. This act, do not with anything done in good faith in the
exercise by medical veterinary practitioner.
a) Mix
b) Support
c) Interferes
d) Protect
Ans: c) Interferes
101. The objective of poisons act, 1919 is to regulate and control-
a) Display of poison.
b) Effect of poison.
c) Sale of poison.
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Sale of poison.
102. The state government has power to make rules for specified poisons
in case of
a) The maximum quantity of poison may be sold.
b) Safe custody of poison.
c) Inspection and examination.
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.
103. The state government has power to make rules for specified poison
in case of
a) Adverse effects of poison.
b) Publicity of poison.
c) Maintenance of register.
d) All of the above.

Ans: c) Maintenance of register

104. The punishment for breaking the rule for specified poison under
this act is
a) Imprisonment up to 1 year.
b) Fine up to Rs 1000/-.
c) Confiscation of the poison.
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.
105. The poisonous substances from the list are exempted from
certain provisions of the act
a) A

48
 b) B
c) Both A& B
d) C

Ans: b) B

106. Identify the offence as per poisons act, 1919.

a) Sale of poison as per license conditions.
b) Granted possession of poison.
c) Unlawful sale of poison.
d) None of the above.
Ans: c) Unlawful sale of poison.
107. Identify the poison specified in list as per poison act 1919.
a) Aconite
b) Arsenic
c) Atropine
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
108. When did the Narcotic drugs and Psychotropic substances act,
1985, come into force
a) 01 April 1986
b) 01 March 1986
c) 14 November 1985
d) 23 April 1985
Ans: c) 14 November 1985
109. The dangerous drugs act was passed in the year
a) 1830
b) 1930
c) 1530
d) 1830
Ans: b) 1930
110. Who regulates possession, transport, interstate import and export,
warehousing, sale, purchase, consumption, and use of poppy straw?
a) State government
b) District officer
c) Central government
d) President

Ans: b) District office

111. means a person who has dependence on any narcotic

drug or psychotropic substance.
a) Metho
b) Addict
c) Druggy

49
 d) Abuser
Ans: a) Metho
112. The penalty for illegal importer export or external dealings in
narcotic drugs or psychotropic substance is
a) Fine between Rs 10,000 and more.
b) Rigorous imprisonment for up to 6 months or fine.
c) Fine between Rs 1 to 2 lacks or more.
d) Rigorous imprisonment for up to 1 year.
Ans: c) Fine between Rs 1 to 2 lacks or more.
113. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances consultative
committee may constitute by
a) District officer
b) Central government
c) President
d) State government
Ans: b) Central government
114. Section 25 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act
1985 deals with
a) Punishment for embezzlement of opium by cultivator
b) Punishment for allowing premises, etc., to be used for commission of
an offence
c) Punishment for contravention in relation to psychotropic substance
d) Punishment for contravention in relation to poppy straw
Ans: b) Punishment for allowing premises, etc., to be used for
commission of an offense
115. Which section of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act
1985 deals with the power of the central government to permit control
and regulate?
a) Section 12 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
b) Section 9 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
c) Section 14 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
d) Section 20 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
Ans: b) Section 9 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
act 1985.
116. Punishment for contravention in relation to manufactured drugs
andpreparations is provided in section of the Narcotic
drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
a) Section 24 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
b) Section 22 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
c) Section 21 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
d) Section 23 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
Ans: c) Section 21 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
act 1985.
117. Coca, opium and hemp are under
a) Insecticide Act

50
 b) Poisons Act
c) Dangerous Drug Act
d) Spurious drug Act

Ans: c) Dangerous Drug Act

118. Which section of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances

act 1985 deals with central government to take measures for
preventing and combating abuse of and illicit traffic in narcotic drugs,
etc.?
a) Section 7 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985
b) Section 4 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985
c) Section 5 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985
d) Section 9 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985
Ans: c) Section 5 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
act 1985
119. Section 12 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act
1985 deals with ?
a) Restriction over external dealings in narcotic drugs and psychotropic
substances.
b) Prohibition of certain operations.
c) Punishment for contravention in relation to prepared opium.
d) Punishment for certain acts by the license or his servants.
Ans: a) Restriction over external dealings in narcotic drugs and
psychotropic substances.
120. Which Section of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
act 1985 deals with the enhanced punishment for offences after a
previous conviction?
a) Section 37 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
b) Section 31 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
c) Section 34 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.
d) Section 35 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985.

Ans: b) Section 31 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances

act 1985

121. Section 10 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act

1985 deals with ?
a) Power to stop and search conveyance.
b) Report of arrest and seizure
c) Power of the state government to permit, control and regulate
d) Power to call for nation, etc.
Ans: c) Power of the state government to permit, control and regulate
122. According to provisions given under NDPS act 1985 Opium and
Coca cultivation and

51
 a) Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be permitted and
regulated only by Central government.
b) Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be regulated and
permitted both by Central and State governments.
c) Cannabis consumption can be regulated only by Central government.
d) Manufacture of medicinal opium is to be done only by State
government.

Ans: b) Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be permitted

and regulated only by Central government.

123. Which of the following are psychotropic substances under the

narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act?
a) Barbital (barbiturate)
b) Ampicillin (antibiotic)
c) Albendazole (anti parasitic)
d) Chloroquine (anti malaria)

Ans: a) Barbital (barbiturate)

124. Opium act was introduced in which year?

a) 1857
b) 1878
c) 1934
d) 1940
Ans: a) 1857
125. Opium is obtained from
a) Dubosia plant.
b) Poppy plant
c) Cinchona
d) Nux vomica
Ans: b) Poppy plant
126. In which yeardangerous drugs act came in force
a) 1919
b) 1925
c) 1930
d) 1940
Ans: a) 1919
127. Narcotics and dangerous drugs act came in force on
a) 14th November 1920.
b) 14th November 1930.
c) 14th November 1940.
d) 14th November 1985.

Ans: d) 14th November 1985.

52
128. Minimum percentage of morphine in any pharmaceutical
preparation must be
a) Not more than 0.2%.
b) Not more than 0.5%.
c) Not more than 1%.
d) Not more than 1.5%.
Ans: a) Not more than 0.2%.
129. Poppy straw indicates
a) All parts of poppy plant except the seeds.
b) All parts of poppy plant including the seeds.
c) All parts of poppy plant except the leaves.
d) None of the above.
Ans: c) All parts of poppy plant except the seeds.
130. Central government opium factories are located in
a) Ghazipur
b) Telangana
c) Chhattisgarh
d) Aurangabad
Ans: a) Ghazipur
131. Psychotropic substances that are not allowed to be which of the
schedules
a) Schedule 1.
b) Schedule 2.
c) Schedule 3.
d) None.
Ans: b) Schedule 2.
132. The dangerous drugs act was implemented into the indications of
a) Opium
b) Narcotic drugs.
c) CNS stimulant drugs.
d) None of these.
Ans: c) CNS stimulant drugs.
133. Match the following
A Kurchi 1 Murexide Test
2 Anti –cholinergic activity
B Marquis Test
3 Barley
C Caffeine
4
D Dubosia Opium

Ans. A 3, B 4, C 1, D 2

134. Which of the state includes opium factories?

a) Himachal Pradesh

53
 b) Maharashtra
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: d) Madhya Pradesh
135. Schedule X drugs and Cosmetics act comprises
a) List of incurable diseases
b) Guidelines for clinical trails
c) List of generic drugs
d) None of the above
Ans: d) None of the above
136. As per D and C act “Schedule N” is related with
a) List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy
b) Area for opening retail pharmacy
c) List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy
d) Area required to open a Wholesale drug
Ans: c) List of minimum equipments for efficiently running
pharmacy
137. As per D and C act “Schedule FF” is related with
a) Parenteral preparation
b) Ointment formulation
c) Skin cosmetic preparation
d) Ophthalmic preparation
Ans: c) Skin cosmetic preparation
138. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under schedule ……..
as per Drug and Cosmetic act.
a) R
b) R1
c) S
d) O
Ans: a) R
139. Pack size of the drug is covered under
a) Schedule P
b) Schedule P1
c) Schedule R
d) Schedule O
Ans: b) Schedule P1
140. For license granted to sellretail drugs, specified in schedule C and C
(1) drugs from no. required is….
a) 20
b) 20B
c) 21
d) 21B
Ans: a) 20
141. In Phase -2 trial following number of patients should be studied
a) 10-12 patient

54
 b) 1-10 patient
c) 100 patients
d) 500 patients
Ans: 10-12 patients
142. DTAB has ---- Ex officio members.
a) Five
b) Six
c) Four
d) Eight
Ans: d) Eight
143. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling
requirement require is
a) Symbol X given in red.
b) Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label.
c) Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.
d) Symbol H displayed on right corner of the label.
Ans: a) Symbol X given in red.
144. Aspirin sodium comes under
a) Schedule G
b) Schedule H
c) Schedule J
d) Schedule W
Ans: Schedule H
145. The patent Act is established in
a) 1948
b) 1940
c) 1970
d) 1919
Ans: c) 1970
146. Scheduled ..........If drugs and cosmetics act include requirements and
guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.
a) W
b) X
c) Y
d) V
Ans: c) Y
147. As per D and C act schedule T stated about
a) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical
device
b) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of
Homeopathy drugs
c) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Ayurveda,
Sidhha and Unani drugs
d) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Allopathy
drugs

55
 Ans: c) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of
Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs
148. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical
supervision is covered under
a) Schedule G
b) Schedule H
c) Schedule I
d) Schedule J
Ans: b) Schedule H
149. Grant of license to manufacture a drug requires…….
a) Form 24
b) Form 25
c) Form 26
d) Form 27
Ans: b) Form 25
150. Penalties for violating poisons act
a) Lifetime imprisonment
b) Fine of 1000 rupees
c) Imprisonment of 1 year
d) Both b and c
Ans: d) Both b and c
151. List of coal tar colors permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered
under
a) Schedule O
b) Schedule P
c) Schedule Q
d) Schedule R
Ans: c) Schedule Q
152. Schedule J is related to
a) GMP
b) Curable disease
c) List of disease and aliments which drug cannot claim.
d) Pack sizes of drugs.
Ans: c) List of disease and aliments which drug cannot claim
153. Schedule N states…
a) List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy
b) List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.
c) Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to
complied
d) Standard for cosmetics
Ans: b) List of minimum equipment for efficient running of
pharmacy
154. Schedule C is related to…….
a) List of Biological and Immunological product
b) List of Homeopathy product

56
 c) List of Ayurvedic product
d) List of Allopathic product
Ans: a) List of Biological and Immunological product
155. Pro-forma for sending a memorandum
a) D
b) A
c) FF
d) Q
Ans: c) FF
156. Dettol comes under
a) Schedule N
b) Schedule O
c) Schedule P
d) Schedule Q
Ans: b) Schedule O
157. Schedule D as per D and C Act is concerned with
a) List of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs
b) Disease or aliments which a drug may not purport to prevent or
cure
c) Requirements of factory premises
d) List of prescription drugs
Ans: List of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs
158. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and
packaging are governed by special provisions included in schedule.
a) X
b) K
c) H
d) G
Ans: c) Schedule H
159. The drug and cosmetic act has been divided into………parts.
a) 15
b) 16
c) 18
d) 24
Ans: c) 18
160. Biologicals are tested at which of the following centre?
a) Mumbai
b) Hyderabad
c) Delhi
d) Kasauli
Ans: (d) Kasauli
161. Match the applications to be made to obtain license for the
manufacturing.

57
 I. Drugs other than schedule i. 24
C and C1.

II. Drugs specified in ii. 24A

schedule C, C1 and X.

III. Loan license iii. 27B

IV. Repacking license iv. 24B

a) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

b) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
c) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
d) a-iv, b-ii, c-I, d-iii
Ans: a) i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
162. Drugs and cosmetic rules 1945 objectionable advertisements deal
with which schedule?
a) Schedule F
b) Schedule H
c) Schedule J
d) Schedule C
Ans: c) Schedule J
163. Ophthalmic ointment must contain printed label of
1) It is dangerous to take this preparation except under medical
supervision
2) Consult to physician if irritation persist, discontinue the use
3) Use within 1 month of opening
4) Store in cool place
a) 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Ans: b) 2 and 3
164. Drugs and cosmetics are analyzed by
a) State drug laboratory
b) Central drug laboratory
c) Control laboratory
d) Both (a)and(b)
Ans: Both (a) and (b)
165. In relation to Ayurveda, a Siddha or Unani drug inspector appointed
by the central or state government in accordance with Article
a) Section 33-G
b) Section 33-F

58
 c) Section 33-H
d) Section 33-E

Ans: a) Section 33-G

166. In connection to any other drugs and cosmetics act, an inspector is
appointment by central or state government under section
a) Section 10
b) Section 21
c) Section 22
d) Section 23
Ans: b) Section 21
167. In connection to ayurvedic, siddha or unani drug government analyst
appointed under section
a) Section 33-G
b) Section 33-F
c) Section 33-H
d) Section 33-E
Ans: b) Section 33-F
168. The first Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 prescribes
a) Standards for cosmetics
b) Standards for medical devices
c) Authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Sidhha and Unani Tibb System
d) Standards of the drugs to be complied with by imported drugs
Ans: c) Authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Sidhha and Unani Tibb
System
169. What is the minimum area of the shop to obtain a wholesale licence
to sell and stock drugs shall be
a) Five square meters
b) Ten square metres
c) fifteen square metres
d) twenty square metres
Ans: c) Fifteen square meters
170. Who is the Chairman of Drug Technical Advisory Board?
a) The Drugs Controller of India
b) The President of Pharmacy Council of India
c) The President of the Medical Council of India
d) The Director General of Health Services
Ans: d) the Director General of Health Services
171. Who has the power to fix the selling price of scheduled formulation?
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Lok Sabha
d) Rajya Sabha
Ans: b) Central Government
172. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act Are……schedules

59
 a) A to Y
b) First and Second
c) 1 to 25
d) (a) and (b) only
Ans: b) First and Second
173. Which of the following is a ‘Patent r Proprietary
Ayurvedic/Sidhha/Unani Medicine’ according to Drugs and
Cosmetics Act?
a) Parachute coconut oil
b) Amrutanjan Balm
c) Odomos insect repellent cream
d) Arnica hair oil
Ans: b) Amrutanjan Balm
174. Which of the words/particulars are necessary to be included in the
labeling of Schedule G drugs for oral use?
a) NOT FOR INJECTION
b) Warning: If irritation persists or increases, discontinue use and
consult physician.
c) For External Use Only
d) A Vertical redline on the left side of the label
Ans: d) A Vertical redline on the left side of the label
175. Which of the following drug product will have NR on its label?
a) Antihypertensive drug (B-blocker)
b) Antimicrobial drug (Chloroquine)
c) Narcotic analgesic (Morphine)
d) Antidiabetic (Glibenclamide)
Ans: c) Narcotic analgesic (Morphine)
176. Schedule K pertains to …………….
a) List of drugs that can be used with caution under medical
supervision
b) List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing import
of drugs
c) List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing
manufacture and sale of drugs
d) List of diseases that a drug cannot claim to cure
Ans: c) List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing
manufacture and sale of drugs
177. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court, the drug and
Cosmetics Act as the law of …………
a) Social
b) Moral
c) Economic
d) Life Saving
Ans: d) Life Saving
178. As Per Drugs and Cosmetic Act, standard drug is one

60
 a) That Compiles with standard of official pharmacopoeia
b) That compiles with international standards
c) That compiles with the standard of nation and international.
d) That compiles with the standard of Drug and Cosmetics Act.

Ans: d) That compiles with the standard of Drug and Cosmetics

Act.
179. Analysis and test of sample of vaccines are carried out at
a) Central Indian pharmacopeia laboratory Ghaziabad
b) Pasteur institute of India coonoor
c) Central drug testing laboratories thana
d) Central research institute, kaushali
Ans: d) Central research institute, kaushali
180. The list of medicines exempt from import regulations is
a) Schedule K
b) Schedule D
c) Schedule P
d) Schedule y
Ans: b) Schedule D
181. According to schedule M, the permissible solids limit value for water
for injection purposes is…
a) 10 ppm
b) 100 ppm
c) 0.1 ppm
d) 1 ppm
Ans: a) 10 ppm
182. The drugs consultative committee serves the following functions
a) To secure uniformity in the act throughout India
b) It advice government and various DTAB
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Both (a) and (b)
183. Function of DCC is to
a) Make to implement the drug and cosmetic act.
b) Give consultation to Pharmaceutical Companies
c) Advice the government in issues related to the drugs and Cosmetic
Act.
d) All the above
Ans: c) Advice the government in issues related to the drugs and
Cosmetic Act.
184. Standard of quality for drugs are prescribed in which schedule……
a) The first schedule to D and C act 1940
b) The second schedule to the D and C act 1940
c) The schedule D to the Drugs and cosmetic rules, 1945
d) The schedule J to the D and C rules, 1945.

61
 Ans: b) The second schedule to the D and C act 1940
185. Cosmetics means any article intended to

a) Affect the structure of the human body

b) Destruct vermin of insects
c) Alter the appearance of human body
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Alter the appearance of human body
186. Biological and microbiological analyses are conducted
a) Central Research Institution, Kasauli
b) National Institution of Biological, Noida
c) Central drugs Research institute, Lucknow
d) Central Drugs Laboratory, Kolkata.
Ans: a) Central Research Institution, Kasauli
187. The particular to be shows in manufacturing raw materials and
analytical of drugs is death under….
a) Schedule M
b) Schedule U
c) Schedule U1
d) Schedule W
Ans: b) Schedule U
188. The words “For prophylactic use” or “For therapeutic use should be
displayed on the label of
a) Schedule X drugs
b) Ophthalmic Ointment
c) Paitent and proprietary preparations of vitamins
d) Preparations for external use only
Ans: a) Schedule X drugs
189. Cosmetic manufactures submitted an application to the licensing
body in
a) Form 31
b) Form 31 A
c) Form 12
d) Form 32 A
Ans: a) Form 31
190. The factories required for manufacturing of medical devices is dealt
under……
a) Schedule M1
b) Schedule M2
c) Schedule M3
d) Schedule R1
Ans: c) Schedule M3
191. Barbiturates are ………Drug.
a) Schedule X
b) Schedule C

62
 c) Schedule H
d) Schedule Y

Ans: a) Schedule X
192. The test report or analysis is approved by an institution such as CDL
is submitted in
a) Schedule 36
b) Schedule 37
c) Schedule 38
d) Schedule 39
Ans: d) Schedule 39
193. Under section 21 of the Indian penal code all Drugs Inspectors are
a) Qualified person
b) Competent person
c) Public servants
d) Officer in charge drug control
Ans: c) Public servants
194. Form I, According to D and C Act and rules is
a) Memorandum to government and under section 334.
b) Memorandum to government and under section 23.
c) Memorandum to CDL.
d) Certificated of test by CDL.
Ans: c) Memorandum to CDL
195. A cosmetic preparation having hexachlorophene or mercury
compounds are
a) Exempted
b) Allowed
c) Prohibited
d) Provided special provision
Ans: c) Prohibited
196. D and C are divided into……. Schedules
a) 26
b) 23
c) 18
d) 28
Ans: c) 18
197. A drug that is imported under a mane which belongs to another
drug is………
a) Misbranded drug
b) Psychotropic
c) Adulterated drug
d) Spurious drug
Ans: d) Spurious drug
198. A drug sample taken by a drug inspector for analysis is sent to?
a) Government Analysis

63
 b) Drug Controller
c) Drug Inspector
d) Spurious Drug
Ans: a) Government Analysis
199. Drug for examination test of analysis can be imported under the
license in form?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 12
d) 13
Ans: a) 11
200. Aliments and disease that drug should not clam to cure to given as
schedule.
a) A
b) J
c) F
d) P
Ans: b) J
201. The symbol of left top cornering red on the label XRx denotes
a) Schedule X
b) Schedule X/Bulk form
c) Schedule G
d) Schedule J
Ans: b) Schedule X/Bulk form
202. What indication must be prescribed on the label of ophthalmic
ointment?
a) Use within one month of opening
b) It is dangerous to take this preparation except under medical
supervision
c) Consult to physician if imitation persists discontinues the use.
d) Not for human use.
Ans: a) Use within one month of opening
203. The coulter color permitted to be used in cosmetic come under the
schedule.
a) J
b) K
c) N
d) Q
Ans: d) Q
204. Medical stores are inspected by drug inspector for at least
a) Once and year
b) Twice a year
c) Thrice about year
d) Quarterly in a year
Ans: b) Twice a year

64
 205. Central drug laboratory is located at
a) Mumbai
b) Lucknow
c) Kolkata
d) Hyderabad
Ans: c) Kolkata
206. The form number required for license for retail sale of schedule C
and C1 is
a) 22
b) 21
c) 19
d) 18
Ans: b) 21
207. The schedule in D and C Act deals with the standard for disinfection
fluid is...
a) Schedule
b) Schedule F
c) Schedule O
d) Schedule M
Ans: b) Schedule B
208. Schedule as per D and C Act deals with the following...
a. Standard for cosmetics
b. Biological and special product
C. Patent and proprietary medicines
d. Clinical trial
Ans: c) Patent and proprietary medicines
209. Amlodipin is under which schedule
a. Schedule G
b. Schedule H
c. Schedule P
d. Schedule P1
Ans: a) Schedule G
210. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in schedule C1?
a) Toxin
b) Sera
c) Antigen
d) Capsule
Ans: d) Capsule
211. The drugs which shall be marketed under generic name only come
under
a) Schedule W
b) Schedule x
c) Schedule Y
d) Schedule U
Ans: a) Schedule U

65
212. Schedule which cover blood bank premises?
a) Schedule B
b) Schedule D
c) Schedule F
d) Schedule G
Ans: c) Schedule F
213. Crocin is sale under….
a) Schedule H
b) Schedule G
c) Schedule W
d) None of these
Ans: c) Schedule W
214. Ergot and its preparation belong to……
a) Schedule C
b) ScheduleC1
c) Schedule X
d) Schedule E1
Ans: d) Schedule E1
215. General convection was held on …in
a) Narcotic drugs March 1961
b) Psychotropic substance March 1970.
c) Narcotic drugs, March 1972
d) Psychotropic substance February 1971
Ans: a) Narcotic drugs March 1961
216. Schedule M2 states the……
a) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of medical
devices
b) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of
homeopathy
c) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of cosmetics
d) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of allopathy
Ans: c) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of
cosmetics
217. Manufacturing and analytical record of cosmetics are include in
which schedule?
a) Y
b) U
c) U1
d) V
Ans: c) U1
218. Schedule F3” is related with…..
a) Standard for surgical dressing
b) Standard for sterilize umbilical tapes
c) Standard for ophthalmic preparation
d) Standard for production of area

66
 Ans: a) Standard for surgical dressing
219. Form 20 states that...

a) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by retail other

than specified C,C1
b) Licenses to sell stock or offer for or distribute by wholesale other
than specific C, C1 and X
c) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by retail other
than specified C, C1.
d) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale
other than specified C,C1 and X.S
Ans: a) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by retail
other than specified C, C1
220. The grant application of a license to manufacture siddha or unani
drugs requires….
a) Form 24D
b) Form 25E
c) Form 20
d) Form 21
Ans: a) Form 24D
221. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drug requires….
a) Form 32
b) Form31
c) Form 30
d) Form 36
Ans: d) Form 36
222. Schedule M is related to ……
a) GMP
b) Curable
c) List diseases and aliments which drug cannot claim
d) Pack size of drug
Ans: a) GMP
223. Injection syringes and needle are covered under
a) Schedule A
b) Schedule B
c) Schedule C
d) Schedule D
Ans: c) Schedule C
224. “Dettol" comes under
a) Schedule R
b) Schedule O
c) Schedule N
d) Schedule Q
Ans: b) Schedule O
225. Schedule S stands for

67
 a) List of minimum equipment for efficient of pharmacy
b) List of minimum equipment for manufacturing of drug.
c) Requirements of factory premises and hygiene condition to be
complied
d) Standard for cosmetics
Ans: d) Standard for cosmetics
226. Schedule C is related to
a) List of Biological and Immunological product.
b) List of Homeopathy product
c) List of Ayurvedic product.
d) List of Allopathic product
Ans: a) List of Biological and Immunological product
226. The total nos of ex officio member in Drug technical advisory board
a) Five
b) Six
c) Four
d) Eight
Ans: d) Eight
227. Drug price Act is established in
a) 1948
b) 1940
c) 1995
d) 1915
Ans: c) 1995
228. Example of Schedule G drug is
a) Metformin
b) Enalapril
c) Cefuroxime
d) Barbital
Ans: a) Metformin
229. Standard for disinfectant fluids comes under
a) Schedule O
b) Schedule R
c) Schedule S
d) Schedule E
Ans: a) Schedule O
230. Blood bank comes under......
a) Schedule D
b) Schedule F
c) Schedule B
d) Schedule G
Ans: b) Schedule F
231. The schedule in drug and cosmetics act that deals with requirements
and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug
is.......

68
 a) Schedule C and C1
b) Schedule P
c) Schedule R
d) Schedule Y
Ans: d) Schedule Y
232. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored
a) At the temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow freezing
b) At temperature which not exceed 5°C
c) At temperature which not exceed 20°C
d) In cold place
Ans: a) At the temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow
freezing
233. MHRA is regulatory agency of
a) UK
b) Denmark
c) Brazil
d) South Africa
Ans: a) UK
234. Indian veterinary research institute is situated at.......
a) Izatnagar
b) Kolkata
c) Lucknow
d) Ghazipur
Ans: a) Izatnagar

69
 Section- C

(Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy)

70
1. Give the normal values of Blood Cholesterol
(a). 110-200 mg/dL or mg %
(b). 150-240 mg/dL or mg %
(c). 240-360 mg/dL or mg %
(d). 360-440 mg/dL or mg %
Ans: (b). 150-240 mg/dL or mg %
2. Give the normal values of Blood sugar
(a). 10 -100 millions/ml of seminal fluid
(b). 20 -110 millions/ml of seminal fluid
(c). 40 -130 millions/ml of seminal fluid
(d). 60 -150 millions/ml of seminal fluid
Ans: (d). 60 -150 millions/ml of seminal fluid
3. The word signs in the prescription indicated
(a). List of ingredients
(b). The strength of medication
(c). Instruction to the patient
(d). All of the above
Ans: (c). Instruction to the patient
4. For knowing the presence of infection disease which one of these blood
examinations is more significant
(a). ESR
(b). Cholesterol
(c). Uric acid
(d). Haemoglobin
Ans: (b). Cholesterol
5. When structurally different drug gives same clinical result it is called
(a). Therapeutic equivalence
(b). Clinical equivalence
(c). Bioequivalence
(d). None of these
Ans: (b). Clinical equivalence
6. In the prescription blank the medication prescribed is called as
(a). Superscription
(b). Inscription
(c). Subscription
(d). Signa
Ans: (b). Inscription
7. If l g of dextrose provides 34 cal, 1L of 5% solution of dextrose supplies
(a). 120 cals
(b). 17 cals
(c). 15 cals
(d). 170 cals
Ans: (d). 170 cals

71
8. The over bed trapeze bar is used for
(a). Hanging 1/v solution / drip
(b) Repositioning the patient while sleeping
(c) Safety rail on a hospital bed
(d) Sitting up and getting into and out of bed by the patient
Ans: (d). Sitting up and getting into and out of bed by the patient
9. Which of the following tests for parenteral solution ensures that it is
free from all microbes?
(a) Pyrogen test
(b) Clarity test
(c) Leakage test
(d) Sterility test
Ans: (d) Sterility test
10. Ethanol should be avoided in patients taking antidiabetic because
(a) It has tendency to cause hyperglycemia
(b) Severe hypoglycemia may result
(c) It produces dizziness
(d) Causes folic acid deficiency
Ans: (b) Severe hypoglycemia may result
11. In hypertensive emergency (200/ 140 mm of Hg) following steps are
advocated
(a) Administration of sodium nitroprusside
(b) Immediate introduction of diuretics
(c) I/v bolus of diazoxide
(d) Either (a) or (c)
Ans: (d) Either (a) or (c)
12. Angina induced by exertion is referred to as
(a) Prinz metal angina
(b) variant angina
(c) Classic angina
(d) Unstable angina
Ans: (c) Classic angina
13. If a patient who has been stabilized on aspirin, starts taking
phenylbutazone, free salicylate concentration will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remains unaffected
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a). Increase
14. In which of the following routes of administration, bioavailability is
100 %
(a) Intramuscular
(b) Sublingual
(c) Intravenous
(d) Both (b) and (c)

72
 Ans: (c) Intravenous
15. Adverse drug reaction may result from
(a) Drug's active ingredient A
(b) additives in dosage forms
(c) Impurities in dosage forms
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
16. Lipid soluble drugs are better absorbed when
(a) Given with meal
(b) Given 3 hrs after meal
(c) Given 1/2 hr before meal
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: (a) Given with meal
17. A nursing mother should avoid
(a) Alcohol
(b) Smoking
(c) Barbiturate
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
18. Stomy is a term used for
(a) Two solutions having same osmotic pressure
(b) A surgical procedure in which an artificial opening is create to allows
passage of faeces or urine
(c) Isotonic solutions
(d) Scale to measure osmotic pressure
Ans: (b) A surgical procedure in which an artificial opening is create
to allows passage of faeces or urine
19. Relative to oral temperature
(a) Rectal temperature is 1o higher
(b) Rectal temperature is 1o lower
(c) Rectal temperature is same
(d) 2o lower
Ans: (a) Rectal temperature is 1o higher
20. Auxiliary labels should be utilized for all of the following except
(a) To ensure proper usage
(b) To inform about storage requirements
(c) To warn about concomitant use of certain drugs or foods
(d) To substantiate for verbal consultation
Ans: (d) To substantiate for verbal consultation
21. Hepatitis B virus is a
(a) RNA virus
(b) DNA virus
(c) Defective RNA virus
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) DNA virus

73
22. Private Company Hospitals
(a) Fortis Hospital-Bangalore
(b) Cooper hospital- Vile Parle, Mumbai
(c) Bhagwati hospital-Mumbai.
(d) Meenakshi Mission Hospital- Madurai.
Ans: (a) Fortis Hospital-Bangalore
23. Corrosive
(a) manganese
(b) insecticides
(c) Chopped hairs
(d) Sulphuric acid
Ans: (d) Sulphuric acid
24. Volkman's spoon is used
(a) To remove poison from stomach
(b) To do gastric cleavage
(c) To suck gastric juices in different surgical case
(d) To collect fluid from cavity
Ans: (b) To collect fluid from cavity
25. Belladonna plaster is used as
(a) Counter irritant in rheumatism and neuralgia
(b) Splint for correction of fractures
(c) For giving light support to sprains
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Counter irritant in rheumatism and neuralgia
26. Which drug is useful in anaphylaxis?
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Atropine
(c) Mepyramine
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Epinephrine
27. Allopurinol when administered with mercaptopurine, increase the
action of mercaptopurine, by
(a) Inhibiting the enzyme- xanthine oxidase
(b) Decreasing its absorption
(c) Displacing from protein binding site
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Inhibiting the enzyme- xanthine oxidase
28. Normal haematocrit value is
(a) 40-54%
(b) 02-30%
(c) 60%
(d) 10%
Ans: (a) 40-54%
29. The most abused opioid drug is
(a) Codeine

74
 (b) Morphine
(c) Papaverine
(d) Heroine
Ans: (d) Heroine
30. A drug that causes induction of microsomal enzymes
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Phenobarbitone
(c) Atenolol
(d) Digitalis
Ans: (b) Phenobarbitone
31. Catgut is prepared from the intestine of ----- --.
(a) Horse
(b) Sheep
(c) Camel
(d) Rabbit
Ans: (b). Sheep
32. In gout uric acid level --------.
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) No Change
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) Increase
33. OPD stands for
(a) Out Portion department
(b) Out Patient Department
(c) Out Patient Demand
(d) Out passive Department
Ans: (b) Out Patient Department
34. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate -------- in Tuberculosis.
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) No change
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) Increased
35. Which antidote is used in organophosphorus poisoning?
(a) Penicillamine
(b) Desferroxamine
(c) Atropine
(d) EDTA
Ans: (c) Atropine
36. ICU stands for
(a) Intensive Colony Unit
(b) Intensive Care Unit
(c) International Care Unit
(d) Intensive colour Unit

75
 Ans: (b) Intensive Care Unit
37. What happened when Ketoconazole is given with Diazepam?
(a) Increase blood level of Diazepam
(b) Decrease blood level of Diazepam
(c) Inhibit metabolism of Diazepam
(d) Both a and c
Ans: (d) Both a and c
38. Gray baby syndrome occur in new bro with
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Penicillin
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) Chloramphenicol
39. Given the following are cholinergic activators except:
(a) Rivastigmine
(b) Acetylcholine
(c) Pilocarpine
(d) Amphetamine
Ans: (d) Amphetamine
40. What happened when phenytoin given with TCAs?
(a) Increased toxicity of TCAs
(b) Increased toxicity of Phenytoin
(c) Increase metabolism of TCAs
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) Increase metabolism of TCAs
41. Tetracyclines should not be given with antacids because antacids-----
the absorption of tetracyclines.
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) No Change
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) Decrease
42. Normal Range of RBC count in female
(a) 3.5 to5.5 million /cu mm
(b) 4.5 to 5.5million/cu mm
(c) 0.5 10 1.5 million/cu mm
(d) None of these
Ans: A 3.5 to5.5 million /cu mm
43. Substance which neutralizes the effect of poison is -----.
(a) Agonist
(b) Antidote
(c) Antagonist
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) Antidote
44. Which of the following are non-absorbable sutures?

76
 (a) Silk Sutures
(b) Cotton sutures
(c) Nylon sutures
(d) all of these
Ans: (d) all of these
45. Important data base used in drug information centre is-----.
(a) C
(b) Pascal
(c) Medline
(d) All of these
Ans: (c) Medline
46. The level of serum bilirubin is increased in
(a) Cancer
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Anemia
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
47. If the drug is given by I.V route then its bioavilability is
(a) 50%
(b) 100%
(c) 10%
(d) 90%
Ans: (b) 100%
48. Bioavailability is
(a) Rate and extant of drug reach in kindly
(b) Rate and extant of drug reach in systemic circulation
(c) Rate and extent of drug reaches in brain
(d) Rate and extant of drug excrete from the body
Ans: (b). Rate and extant of drug reach in systemic circulation
49 ------ is used for hernia repairs and bone injury.
(a) Horse tendons
(b) Kangaroo tendons
(c) Cat tendons
(d) Sheep tendons
Ans: (b) Kangaroo tendons
50. --------serves as a link between the medical staff and hospital
pharmacist.
(a) Modern Dispensing Aspects
(b) Pharmacy Therapeutic Committee
(c) Patient Counseling
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) Pharmacy Therapeutic Committee
51. Haemoglobin % increase in
(a) Anaemia
(b) Polycythemia

77
 (c) Leukemia
(d) All of these
Ans: (b) Polycythemia
52. ESR stands for
(a) Estimation Solid rate
(b) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
(c) Emulsion Sedimentation Rate
(d) Electrolyte Sedimentation Rate
Ans: (b) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
53. Normal cholesterol range
(a) 100-124 mg /100 ml
(b) 80-100 mg /100ml
(c) 125-200 mg/100 ml
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) 125-200 mg/100 ml
54. Normal fasting blood sugar level;
(a) 100-150 mg /100 ml
(b) 80-110 mg /100ml
(c) 50-200 mg/100 ml
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) 80-110 mg /100ml
55. Normal WBC count in adult is
(a) 4,000 to 11,000 cu/mm
(b) 8,000 to 10,000 cu/mm
(c) 1,000 to 20,000 cu/mm
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) 4,000 to 11,000 cu/mm
56. Given the following are the composition of Universal antidote except
(a) Tannic acid
(b) Activated charcoal
(c) Magnesium oxide
(d) Chloride
Ans: (d) Chloride
57. Which of the following factor affecting bioavailability
(a) Concentration of drug
(b) Area of absorption surface
(c) Solubility of drug
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
58. Which type of antidote is used when the nature of ingested poison is
not known?
(a) Chemical Antidote
(b) Physical Antidote
(c) Physiological antidote
(d) Universal Antidote

78
 Ans: (d) Universal Antidote
59. BAL Stands for
(a) British Anti Lotion
(b) British Anti Lewisite
(c) Bold anti Lewisite
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) British Anti Lewisite
60. An antidote of Lead poisoning is
(a) BAL
(b) Amphetamine
(c) Atropine
(d) Naloxone
Answer: (a) BAL
61. An antidote of Morphine poisoning is
(a) Codeine
(b) EDTA
c) Atropine
(d) Naloxone
Ans: (d) Naloxone
62. MEDLARS stands for
(a) Medical Literature Automatic and Retrieval System
(b) Medical List Analysis and Retrieval System
(c) Medical Literature Analysis and Retrieval System
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Medical Literature Analysis and Retrieval System
63. Drug products that can be purchased without prescription is ----- --.
(a) Narcotic Drug
(b) OTC drug
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) OTC drug
64. OTC stands for
(a) Over the cost
(b) Over the control
(c) Over the counter
(d) Out time care
Ans: (c) Over the counter
65. Which factors contributing to non-compliance?
(a) Unpleasant taste of medication
(b) Cost
(c) Side effect of drug
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
66. How munch floor space is required for hospital pharmacy in 50 bed
hospital?

79
 (a) 250 sq. feet
(b) 320 sq. feet
(c) 435 sq. feet
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) 250 sq. feet
67. On the basis of anatomical and physiological specialization hospital
are following types except
(a) Ear, nose and throat hospital
(b) Orthopedic Hospital
(c) Kindly Hospital
(d) Cancer Hospital
Ans: (d) Cancer Hospital
68. On the basis of system of medicine hospital is following types except
(a) Allopathic Hospital
(b) Physio-therapy Hospital
(c) Ayurvedic Hospital
(d) T.B. Hospital
Ans: (d) T.B. Hospital
69. The P.H.C. stands for
(a) Primary Hospitality Center
(b) Primary Healthcare Center
(c) Primary High Cost
(d) Primary Heart Care
Ans: (b) Primary Healthcare Center
70. Teratogenic drug affect
(a) Adult
(b) Fetus
(c) Children
(d) All of these
Ans: (b) Fetus
71. Most common side effect of morphine is
(a) Diarrhea
(b) Hypersensitivity
(c) Constipation
(d) Abdominal cramp
Ans: (c) Constipation
72. PTC stands for
(a) Pharmacy Therapeutic Course
(b) Polio Therapy Committee
(c) Pharmacy Therapeutic Committee
(d) Pharmacy Technical Committee
Ans: (c) Pharmacy Therapeutic Committee
73. Given the following are teratogenic drugs except
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Chloramphenicol

80
 (c) vitamin C
(d) Phenytoin
Ans: (c) vitamin C
74. Right statement for Drug-Food Interaction
(a) Milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
(b) Fatty foods increase gastric empty time
(c) Absorption of Ampicillin increase in presence of food
(d) All of them are right
Ans: (a) Milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
75. Inventory consists of the followings
(a) Raw materials
(b) In progress goods
(c) Finished goods
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
76. What % of items in B category in the ABC analysis
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 70%
Ans: (a) 20%
77. Role of pharmacist at bed side pharmacy
(a) Monitoring the supply of all medicines
(b) Diagnosis
(c) Surgery
(d) All
Ans: (a). Monitoring the supply of all medicines
78. The normal rate of respiration in adult
(a) 12-16 /minute
(b) 14-18/minute
(c) 12-25/minute
(d) 5-16/minute
Ans: (a) 12-16 /minute
79. Which is not a example of drug addiction
(a) Morphine
(b) Heroin
(c) Alcohol
(d) Tea & coffee
Ans: (d) Tea & coffee
80. Morphine and heroin comes under
(a) Narcotic
(b) CNS stimulants
(c) CNS depressants
(d) Inhalants
Ans: (a) Narcotic

81
81. Decrease in neutrophils
(a) Schizophrenia
(b) Neutropenia
(c) Neutrophilia
(d) Alzheimer
Ans: (d) Alzheimer
82. PCV stand for
(a) Polychloride vinyl
(b) Particle volume
(c) Packed cell single
(d) Packed cell volume
Ans: (d) Packed cell volume
83. Diabetes, peptic ulcer comes under which type of disease
(a) Serological disease
(b) Infections disease
(c) Endocrine exocrine disorder
(d) Autoimmune disease
Ans: (c) Endocrine exocrine disorder
84. Etiology means
(a) Cause of disease
(b) Inflammation of joints
(c) Removal of disease
(d) Increase in heart beat rate
Ans: (a) Cause of disease
85. ROM stands for
(a) Read only multivitamins
(b) Roaming
(c) Read only memory
(d) Record operator memory
Ans: (c) Read only memory
86. EOQ stands for
(a) Economic order quantity
(b) Equipment order quantity
(c) Essential order quantity
(d) Enlist order quality
Ans: (a) Economic order quantity
87. How many pharmacists required for 300 bed hospital?
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 3
Ans: (a) 10
88. At what Temperature the blood can be stored?
(a) 250C
(b) 2-6 0C

82
 (c) 00C
(d) 400C
Ans: (b) 2-6 0C
89. Which branch of medicine deal with diagnostic and therapeutic value?
(a) Pharmacy
(b) Physiology
(c) Radiology
(d) Pathology
Ans: (c) Radiology
90. DIS stands for
(a) Drug Information Services
(b) Drug implementation services
(c) Drug including syndromes
(d) Drug incorporation services
Ans: (a) Drug Information Services
91. Full form of HEPA
(a) High Efficiency Particulate Air
(b) High Efficiency Particle Air
(c) Height Effective Particulate Air
(d) None of the Above
Ans: (a) High Efficiency Particulate Air
92. The main function of hospit the sick or injured.
(a) Relax
(b) care
(c) food
(d) education.
Ans: (d) education
93. Teaching hospital is one where imparted to medical school students.
(a) Engineering instruction
(b) Clinical instruction
(c) Vocational instruction
(d) Traffic instruction.
Ans: (b) Clinical instruction
94. Minimum qualification of hospital pharmacist is
(a) Ph. D in chemistry
(b) MBBS
(c) D. Pharm
(d) Nursing.
Ans: (c) D. Pharm
95. The nutrient medium must be and able to produce microbial growth.
(a) Non sterile
(b) Sterile
(c) Microbial free
(d) Diluted solution
Ans: (a) Non sterile

83
96. Pyrogen are metabolic products of
(a) Living or dead micro-organism
(b) Plants
(c) Animals
(d) Virus
Ans: (a) Living or dead micro-organism
97. The care of the patient beyond the primary care - it means.
(a) Primary care
(b) Referral or tertiary care
(c) Emergency care
(d) Health care.
Ans: (b) Referral or tertiary care
98. Surgical gauze is checked for the following standard
(a) Yarn number
(b) Thread per stated length
(c) Weight per unit area
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
99. When structurally different drug give same clinical result it is called
(a) Therapeutic equivalence
(b) Clinical equivalence
(c) Bioequivalence
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) Therapeutic equivalence
100. Example of primary literature are:
(a) Remington's pharmaceutical index
(b) American drug index
(c) Index medicus
(d) Regularly published journals.
Ans: (d) Regularly published journals.
101. Disulfiram is used for the treatment of alcoholism because of the
following reasons except one:
(a) Disulfiram is a cephalosporin antibiotic
(b) Disulfiram is an inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase
(c) Disulfiram results in accumulation of excessive quantities of
acetaldehyde
(d) Disulfiram causes unpleasant side effects in alcoholic.
Ans: (c) Disulfiram results in accumulation of excessive quantities of
acetaldehyde
102. In the prescription blank the medication prescribed is called as
(a) Superscription
(b) Inscription
(c) Subscription
(d) Sigma
Ans: (b) Inscription

84
103. An ophthalmic solution is sterilized by:
(a) Autoclaving
(b) Sterilization by filtration
(c) Gaseous sterilization
(d).Dry heat sterilization
Ans: (a) Autoclaving
104. All of the following in the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus Include:
(a) Polyuria
(b) Polydyspepsia
(c) Weight gain
(d) Weight loss
Ans: (c) Weight gain
105. Adverse drug reaction may result from:
(a) Drug's active ingredient
(b) Additives in dosage forms
(c) Impurities in dosage forms
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
106. According to 'Food Drug Administration an adverse drug reaction is
a:
(a) Untoward effect resulting from medication errors
(b) Unintended effects resulting from drug W
(c) Noxious effects resulting from doses used for prophylaxis, diagnosis
and therapy
(d) Undesired effect resulting from bioavailability problems or non-
compliance
Ans: (c) Noxious effects resulting from doses used for prophylaxis,
diagnosis and therapy
107. The term ambulatory patients refers to:
(a) Those patients who are bedridden
(b) Those who are able to walk
(c) Those who are brought to hospital in ambulance
(d) Elderly patients.
Ans: (b) Those who are able to walk
108. All are medical information retrieval systems except:
(a) Biosis
(b) Medlaras
(c) Medline
(d) Comp aware
Ans: (d) Comp aware
109. Which drug is useful in anaphylaxis?
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Atropine
(c) Mepyramine
(d) None of the above

85
 Ans: (a) Epinephrine
110. Two dosage forms that do not differ significantly in their rate and
extent of absorption are called:
(a) Bioequivalent
(b) Synergist
(c) Antagonist
(d) Pharmaceutical equivalent
Ans: (a) Bioequivalent
111. When the combined effect of two drug is a algebraic sum of their
individual effect, it is called:
(a) Synergism
(b) Antagonism
(c) Competitive antagonism
(d) Non- competitive antagonism
Ans: (a) Synergism
112. The member secretory of pharmacy and therapeutic committee is
(a) Chief pharmacist
(b) Medical officer
(c) Analytical chemist
(d) Physician
Ans: (a) Chief pharmacist
113. Dapsone is used commonly in the treatment of
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Arrhythmia
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Hansen's disease
Ans: (d) Hansen's disease
115. Rifampicin and isoniazid is used for
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) leprosy
(c) Helminthic
(d) Fungal disease
Ans: (a) Tuberculosis
116. Drugs that contraindicated in pregnancy
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Indomethaci
(c) Allopurinol
(d) Colchicine’s
Ans: (c) Allopurinol
117. Abnormal constituent in jaundice is
(a) Sugar
(b) Protein
(c) Bilirubin
(d) Ketone bodies
Ans: (c) Bilirubin

86
118. Normal range of blood cholesterol in healthy young adult is
(a) 50-90mg/100ml
(b) 250-340mg/100ml
(c) 100-240mg/100ml
(d) 350-500mg/100ml
Ans: (a) 50-90mg/100ml
119. Specific rotation of dextrose is determined by
(a) Densitometer
(b) Refractometer
(c) Polarimeter
(d) Colorimeter
Ans: (c) Polarimeter
120. Apnea is a term related to
(a) Pain in Joints
(b) Falling of hair
(c) Abnormal rhythm of heart
(d) Transitory cessation of breathing
Ans: (d) Transitory cessation of breathing
121. Word used for 'twice the quantity' is
(a) Dimidium
(b) Duplum
(c) Divide
(d) Dosis
Ans: (b) Duplum
122. Vitamin B3 is also known as
(a) Niacin
(b) Pyridoxine
(c) Cynocobalamine
(d) Thiamine
Ans: (a) Niacin
123. The absorption rate is faster for
(a) Capsule
(b) Tablet
(c) Coated tablet
(d) Solution
Ans: (d) Solution
124. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic disease manifested primarily by
(a) Thickening of arterial walls
(b) Inflammation
(c) Imbalance of oxygen
(d) Rise of BP
Ans: (b) Inflammation
125. Pyrogen testing is done in which animal?
(a) Horses
(b) Dogs

87
 (c) Rabbits
(d) Rats
Ans: (c) Rabbits
126. Synonym of busulphan is
(a) Cytoxan
(b) Endoxan
(c) Myleran
(d) Belo
Ans: c) Myleran
127. Secondary hypertension occurs due to
(a) obesity
(b) Kidney impairment
(c) cigarette smoking
(d) increase in blood cholesterol
Ans: (b) Kidney impairment
128. LVP stands for
(a) low volume parenteral
(b) Large volume parenteral
(c) Large variety parenteral
(d) large variation parenteral
Ans: (b) Large volume parenteral
129. Range of warm temperature is
(a) 2-8 0C
(b) 8-25 0C
(c) 30-40 0C
(d) above 400C
Ans: (c) 30-40 0C
130. The main role of PTC is in
(a) Managing hospital
(b) ADR's
(c) Financing hospital
(d) Recruitments for hospital
Ans: (b) ADR's
131. Euthanasia means -
(a) Suicide
(b) Accident
(c) Mercy killing
(d) Anesthesia
Ans: (c) Mercy killing
132. The valuable reference material which helps medical and
paramedical staff in evaluation is
(a) Administrative record

88
 (b) Medical record
(c) Hospital formulary
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) Medical record
133. For knowing the presence of infectious disease which one of these
blood examinations is more significant?
(a) ESR
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Uric acid
(d) Hemoglobin
Ans: (b) Cholesterol
134. If one gm. of dextrose provides 3.4 cal. 1 L of 5% solution of
dextrose supplies
(a) 120 cals.
(b) 17 cals.
(c) 15 cals.
(d) 170 cals.
Ans: (b) 17 cals.
135. Repeated administration of barbiturates cause
(a) Vitamin A deficiency
(b) Vitamin D deficiency
(c) Vitamin K deficiency
(d) none of these
Ans: (d) none of these
136. Hospital pharmacy is defined as
(a) Actual practise of pharmacy in medical
(b) Actual practise of pharmacy in hospital
(c) Actual practise of pharmacy in industry
(d) Both a and b
Ans: (d) both a and b
137. Objective of hospital pharmacy
(a) to educate patient, nurse, interns and pharmacy trainers on various
aspects of drug
(b) to participate in research work
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Both a and b
138. The American society of hospital pharmacist was formed in
(a) 1950
(b) 1940
(c) 1942
(d) 1952
Ans: c) 1942
139. Pharmacist requirement in small hospitals
(a) 15

89
 (b) 08
(c) 03
(d) 10
Ans: c) 03
140. In general hospital with less than 200 bed, the pharmacy should be
located in
(a) Ground floor
(b) First floor
(c) Second floor
(d) Both a and c
Ans: (a) ground floor
142. Area in sq. ft. for compounding and dispensing laboratory in hospital
should be at least 100 beds
(a) 320
(b) 300
(c) 185
(d) 312
Ans: (b) 300
143. The example of fixed equipment
(a) Cabinets
(b) Mixers
(c) Counters
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans: (c) Counters
144. Which of the below minimum educational qualification will be
required to work as hospital pharmacist
(a) B. Pharm.
(b) M. Pharm.
(c) BSc with 6 months of experience
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans: (a) B. Pharm
145. Head of Pharmacy department in hospital pharmacy should be a M.
Pharm. in
(a) Pharmaceutics
(b) Pharmacognosy
(c) Pharmacology
(d) Pharmaceutical chemistry
Ans: (a) Pharmaceutics
146. How much [Link]. area is required in pharmacy department
(a) 250
(b) 300
(c) 230
(d) 255
Ans: (a) 250

90
147. Manufacturing pharmacist in hospital pharmacy should be a
[Link]. in
(a) Pharmacology
(b) Pharmaceutical chemistry
(c) Pharmaceutics
(d) Any specialization
Ans: (d) Any specialization
148. Required number of pharmacists upto 500 bed hospital
(a) 08
(b) 10
(c) 03
(d) 15
Ans: (d) 15
149. Which of the following is NOT the required abilities of hospital
pharmacist
(a) Teaching ability
(b) Administrative ability
(c) Treating ability
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a) Teaching ability
150. The area required for store room in hospital pharmacy
(a) 125
(b) 130
(c) 150
(d) 250Ans: (d) 250

91
 Section- D
(Community Pharmacy &
Management)

92
1. Which one is not included in the professional responsibilities of
community pharmacists?
a) To dispense prescription medicine
b) To check patient’s prescription legality for safety and accuracy
c) To prescribe medicine for any diseases
d) To sign and stamp the prescription after dispensing
Ans: c) To prescribe medicine for any diseases
2. The counselling area should be equipped with
a) Refrigerator
b) Weight and height scale
c) Computer
d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
3. Upon receiving the prescription first responsibility of pharmacists
a) To dispense medicines
b) Counselling of client
c) To confirm identity of client
d) To explain the price of medicines
Ans: c) To confirm identity of client
4. Preparation of SOPs in Pharmacy is responsibility of
a) Pharmacist
b) Pharmacy assistant
c) Drug inspector
d) None
Ans: a) Pharmacists
5. Which one of the following things is not necessary in counselling area?
a) Table
b) Chair for the pharmacists and a couple of patients’s
c) Cabinet for storing patient medication records
d) Television
Ans: d) Television
6. A necessary document needs to start the community pharmacy is
a) FDA License
b) Pharmacists’ registrations
c) NOC for local Govt organization
d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
7. How many types of outpatients are there?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: d) 4
8. Method of drug distribution system to inpatient in hospital

93
 a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Ans: c) 6
9. Types of floor stock system of distribution of medicines
a) Charged and non-charged
b) Simple and complex
c) Centralized and decentralized
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Charged and non-charged
10. The system in which there is a main pharmacy and it has sub
pharmacies under it
a) Floor stock system
b) Unit dose dispensing system
c) Satellite pharmacy
d) Bed side pharmacy
Ans: d) Satellite pharmacy
11. Which statements regarding bed side pharmacy are true?
a) Medicines are stocked on the floor.
b) Medicines are provided to patient on their bed side.
c) In this system patient can self-utilize the drug
d) Both B and C
Ans: d) Both B and C
12. Full form of CSD?
a) Center social Dispensing
b) Central supply dispensed
c) Center sterile Department
d) None of the above.
Ans: c) Center sterile Department
13. Items provided by CSD include all except
a) Blood
b) Syringe
c) Gloves
d) Catheter
Ans: a) Blood
14. Patient who occupies space in hospital is
a) Outpatient
b) Inpatient
c) Operational Patient
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Inpatient
15. deals with majority care for daily personal health needs
a) Primary care
b) Secondary care

94
 c) Operational patient
d) None of these
Ans: a) Primary care
16. Following is the reason behind the growth of outpatient services.
a) The need of
b) Deficiency of medical practitioner in some areas
c) To conduct teaching program
d) All of these
Ans. d) All of these
17. Services are provided for immediate medical attention
or in case of an accident.
a) Primary care
b) Secondary care
c) Emergency care
d) Referral Care
Ans: c) Emergency care
18. Prescription is dispensed by the
a) Pharmacist
b) Doctor
c) Physician
d) Patient
Ans: a) Pharmacist
19. Emergency services is available for hrs.
a) 8 hrs
b) 12 hrs
c) 20 hrs
d) 24 hrs
Ans: d) 24 hrs
20. Dispensing of controlled drug is according to which act?
a) Narcotic and psychotropic substances act 1984
b) Narcotic and psychotropic substances act 1985
c) Narcotic and psychotropic substances act 1986
d) None of the above
Ans: d) None of the above
21. A prescription for Schedule II and Schedule III controlled drug is
valid for
a) 10 days
b) 12 days
c) 14 days
d) None
Ans: c) 14 days
22. The prescription must be received and checked by the
a) Physician
b) Patient
c) Nurse

95
 d) Pharmacists
Ans: d) Pharmacists
23. The superscription is represented by a symbol_
a) Rx
b) Doc
c) Dc
d) Ph
Ans: a) Rx
24. In which language the abbreviation in the prescription writing is very
common especially in dosage instructions.
a) Latin
b) French
c) Greek
d) Germany
Ans: a) Latin
25. The prescription is an order written by a registered medical
practitioner to
a) Patient
b) Pharmacists
c) Compounder
d) Nurse
Ans: b) Pharmacists
26. The prescriber indicates the for the use of the medication
in the portion of the prescription called Signature.
a) Directions for the patients
b) Directions for the pharmacists
c) Directions for the nurse
d) Directions for the doctor
Ans: a) Directions for the patients
27. In the day of mythology, the symbol Rx was considered as a prayer to
a) Jupiter
b) Jesus
c) Neptune
d) Dhanvantari
Ans: a) Jupiter
28. The abbreviation of Latin word Rx is
a) You take
b) To make
c) To sold
d) To use
Ans: a) You take
29. The part of the prescription called inscription contains
a) Name and quantity of ingredients
b) Name and age
c) Signature, address

96
 d) Registration number and patient information
Ans: a) Name and quantity of ingredients
30. The last item written in the inscription is
a) Vehicle, Diluent
b) Active ingredients
c) Medicament
d) Quantity
Ans: a) Vehicle, Diluent
31. act as a vital link between patients and prescribers.
a) Dispenser
b) Compounder
c) Nurse
d) Community Pharmacists
Ans: d) Community Pharmacists
32. Doctor of Pharmacy was introduced in
a) 2008-09
b) 2007-08
c) 2006
d) 2010
Ans: a) 2008-09
33. Who is known as the “Father of Pharmacy education” in India?
a) Acharya PC Ray
b) Prof. M.L. Schrof
c) Sushruta
d) Charaka
Ans: b) Prof. M.L. Schrof
34. Apatient is considered adherent if they take of their
medication as prescribed.
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Ans: d) 80%
35. Non adherent patients are those who do not take at least
medications
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Ans: d) 80%
36. Factors influencing non-adherence are
a) Social and economic factors
b) Patient related factors
c) Lack of understanding of the disease
d) All

97
 Ans: d) all
37. Patient related factors for nonadherence is
a) Forgetfulness
b) Physical impairments
c) Medication beliefs
d) All
Ans: d) All
38. Social and economic factors for non-adherence is
a) The cost of medications and poverty
b) Financial stress with transportation problem
c) Cultural believes
d) All
Ans: d) All
39. Taking prescription medication correctly is called
a) Medication adverseness
b) Medication adherence
c) Medication avoidance
d) Medication attentiveness
Ans: b) Medication adherence
40. The objectives of the adherence counselling
a) Prepare the patient to initiate and continue treatment
b) Provide on going support for clients to adhere to treatment over the
long term
c) Help clients develop good treatment taking behaviour
d) All
Ans: d) All
41. The rise of new technologies gives the industry powerful new ways to
improve medication adherence
a) In home telemonitoring
b) Innovative medication packaging
c) In home dispensing devices
d) All
Ans. d) All
42. Screening test of women’s breast cancer
a) Breast biopsy
b) BRCA Genetic test
c) Magnetic resonance Imaging
d) All
Ans: d) All
43. Minimum age for first screening of high blood pressure
a) 16
b) 30
c) 50
d) 18
Ans: d) 18

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44. The numbers in a blood pressure reading
a) Get lowers with high levels of stress
b) Are the same for people of the same age and weight.
c) Stay the same throughout the day
d) Vary, depending on the time of day your blood pressure is checked
Ans: d) Vary, depending on the time of day your blood pressure is
checked
45. What are the most common symptoms of high blood pressure?
a) Racing heartbeat
b) High body temperature
c) Fatigue
d) It has no symptoms that you notice
Ans: d) It has no symptoms that you notice
46. Which of these can increase your risk of high blood pressure?
a) Obesity
b) A family history of high blood pressure
c) Smoking
d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
47. At what point is blood pressure considered high?
a) 120/80
b) 139/80
c) 140/90
d) All
Ans: c) 140/90
48. GITS stands for:
a) Gastro Intestinal Testing Service
b) Gradually Increase Therapeutic System
c) Gel Intestinal Therapeutic Service
d) Gastro Intestinal Therapeutic System
Ans: d) Gastro Intestinal Therapeutic System
49. Tachycardia means
a) Increase heart rate
b) Decrease heart rate
c) Increased blood pressure
d) Decreased blood pressure
Ans: a) Increase heart rate
50. Patient package inserts are also called as
a) Medication guide
b) Pharmaceutical care
c) Medication adherence
d) Therapeutic care
Ans: a) Medication guide
51. Who governed the idea of package inserts in India
a) NDPS Act

99
 b) Pharmacy Act
c) Drugs and cosmetics act 1940 and rules 1945
d) Drugs consultative committee Act
Ans. c) Drugs and cosmetics act 1940 and rules 1945
52. The European Union recently launched a project called to
develop digital content for European Medical and Pharmaceutical
items.
a) PIL
b) PILLS
c) PPI
d) SPCs
Ans. b) PILLS
53. PILLS stands for
a) Package Information Language Localisation system
b) Patient Information Language Lost System
c) Patient Idea Language Localisation Service
d) Patient Information Language Localisation system
Ans. d) Patient Information Language Localisation system
54. is providing medication information to the patients or
their representatives on directions of use, side effects, precautions and
life style changes either verbally or in written form
a) Medication adherence
b) Patients Therapeutics
c) Therapeutic drug monitoring
d) Patient counselling
Ans. d) Patient counselling
55. act as vital link between patients and prescribers
a) Dispenser
b) Compounder
c) Nurse
d) Community Pharmacist
Ans. d) Community Pharmacist
56. Doctor of pharmacy was introduced in
a) 2008-2009
b) 2007-2008
c) 2006
d) 2010
Ans. a) 2008-2009
57. Who is known as the “Father of pharmacy education in India”?
a) Acharya PC Ray.
b) Prof. MahadevLalScroff
c) Sushruta
d) Charaka
Ans. b) Prof. MahadevLalScroff

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58. Pharmacy Education in India as a University Level programme
started in 1937 at
a) Delhi University
b) University of Madras
c) Banaras Hindu University
d) Patna University
Ans. c) Banaras Hindu University
59. are a requirement in both hospital and community
pharmacy to ensure the safe and effective provision of pharmacy
service
a) SOPs
b) Doctors
c) Counselling sections
d) Trainers
Ans. a) SOPs
60. has identified community pharmacists as the healthcare
professionals who are most accessible to the public
a) CDC
b) WHO
c) International Public Health Centre
d) APHA
Ans. b) WHO
61. Community Pharmacy includes
a) Stocking and Dispensing Prescriptions
b) Over the counter medicines
c) Patient counselling
d) All of the above
Ans. d) All of the above
62. In 13 th century which emperor separated the practices of medicine
and pharmacy
a) Frederick I
b) Frederick II
c) Frederick III
d) Frederick IV
Ans. b) Frederick II
63. was established as the minimum qualification necessary
for an individual to register and practice as a pharmacist
a) B. Pharm
b) [Link]
c) Ph. D
d) [Link]
Ans. b) D. Pharm
64. Which act in USA established the pharmacist’s responsibility to
ensure the drug therapy is as safe and effective as possible
a) OBRA-90

101
 b) QORA-90
c) Budget Reconciliation act of 1990
d) Omnibus Act 1990
Ans. a) OBRA-90
65. Who one of the following discovered salicin in willow bark
a) Fredrick Sertruner
b) Galen
c) Johannes Buchner
d) Jonathan Robert
Ans. c) Johannes Buchner
66. They were the famous practitioners of Hindu Medicine
a) Charaka and Chanakya
b) Chanakya and Sushruta
c) Charaka and Sushruta
d) Aryabhatta and Valmiki
Ans. c) Charaka and Sushruta
67. Where was the first Pharmacopoeia of the world published?
a) Greece
b) Nuremberg Germany
c) Geneva Switzerland
d) China
Ans. b) Nuremberg Germany
68. Earliest Pharmacies were known as
a) Medicine point
b) Pharmacy
c) Drug store
d) Apothecary shops
Ans. d) Apothecary shops
69. SOPs should include
a) Activities that must be carried out by the pharmacists
b) A full and clear description of each part of the process and how it
should be carried out
c) The date of preparation
d) All of the above
Ans. d) All of the above
70. Elements of Good pharmacy practice is except
a) Self-care
b) Supply and use of medication and other healthcare products
c) Assembly of unprescribed drugs
d) Health promotion, ill-health prevention and achieving health objectives
Ans. c) Assembly of unprescribed drugs
71. Standards needed for influencing prescribing and medicine use
a) Preparation of formularies on medicines
b) Educational programs for health profession
c) Facilities for independent counselling area that ensures privacy

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 d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. d) Both (a) and (b)
72. Standard operating procedures are the set of
a) Oral instructions
b) Written instructions
c) Verbal instructions
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Written instructions
73. Pharmacists can detect useful information for the following points in
properly conducted medication history interview
a) Drug allergies
b) Prior drug use
c) Prior adverse drug reactions to prescribed medications
d) All of the above
Ans. d) All of the above
74. Minimum national standards for dispensing of medicinal products
a) Ensure that appropriate facilities, trained personnel
b) Ensure health management
c) Assess and evaluate all paper or electronic prescriptions received
d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. d) Both (a) and (c)
75. Preventive healthcare service is
a) Health promotion campaigns
b) Health screening services
c) Monitoring of drug utilization
d) All of the above
Ans. d) All of the above
76. At the heart of all effective communication is
a) Empathy
b) Sympathy
c) Awareness
d) Acknowledgement
Ans. a) Empathy
77. What is the communication without words
a) There is no communication without words
b) Non-verbal communication
c) Telepathy
d) Sign language
Ans. b) Non-verbal communication
78. Which of the following is not a form of nonverbal communication
a) Body language
b) Tone of voice
c) Written communication
d) Telepathy
Ans. d) Telepathy

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79. What is a good way to continue the communication
a) Make good eye contact
b) Active listening
c) Do not interrupt
d) Ask questions
Ans. Ask questions
80. How many forms do questions come in
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans. b) 2
81. When speaking on the phone, what type of communication is being
used?
a) Verbal and tone of voice
b) Verbal and body language
c) Verbal
d) Non-verbal communications
Ans. a) verbal and tone of voice
82. How many types of communication are
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Ans. b) 4
83. What is the term used to describe the emotion or feeling in your voice
a) Affect
b) Verbal communication
c) Tone
d) Sentiment
Ans. c) Tone
84. Skills and questioning techniques (NOT) include
a) Open ended questions
b) Empathy
c) Closed ended questions
d) Sympathy
Ans. d) Sympathy
85. There are two key components of verbal communications
a) Voice tone
b) Language used
c) Content of message
d) All of the above
Ans. d) All of the above
86. This happens when a healthcare professional meets with a person
who has health worries or personal concerns

104
 a) One to two communication
b) Two to one communication
c) One to one communication
d) Two to two communication
Ans. c) One to one communication
87. When communication is compromised
a) Hang up on someone
b) Invasion of personal space
c) Talking slowly
d) Speak any language other than English
Ans. b) Invasion of personal space
88. When answering telephone calls, first ask for the
a) Condition of the caller
b) Place of calling
c) Purpose of the call
d) Callers identity
Ans. d) Callers identity
89. Raising the hand are a part of what
a) Implication
b) Sign language
c) Body language
d) Verbal Communication
Ans. c) Body language
90. Which is the oldest known form of communication?
a) Body language
b) Nonverbal communication
c) Verbal communication
d) Written communication.
Ans. d) Written communication
91. What is the term used to describe the emotion or feeling in your
voice?
a) Affect
b) Verbal communication
c) Tone
d) Sentiment
Ans. c) tone
92. Skills and questioning techniques NOT include
a) Open ended questions
b) Empathy
c) Closed ended questions
d) Sympathy
Ans d) Sympathy
93. There are two key components of verbal communications
a) Voice tone
b) Language used

105
 c) Content of message
d) All of the above
Ans. d) All of the above
94. Communication can be impaired by
a) When the patients feeling are not understood
b) When empathy has not developed
c) When feelings are not shared and empathy has not developed
d) When patient comes in hesitation
Ans. c) When feelings are not shared and empathy has not developed
95. Pharmacists must have
a) Observing power
b) Inappropriate questioning power
c) Strong listening Skill
d) Improper actions
Ans. c) Strong listening skill
96. Vocabulary, grammer, style and tense are the major components of
a) Oral communication
b) Written communication
c) Verbal communication
d) Nonverbal communication
Ans. b) Written communication
97. The patient interview is the primary way of obtaining
a) Comprehensive information
b) Conceptual information
c) Personal information
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Comprehensive information
98. Problem oriented and health promotion interview are commonly for
the type of
a) Patient interview
b) Pharmacist interview
c) Both a) and b)
Ans. a) Patient interview
99. DOT stands for
a) Directly Observed Technique
b) Directly Observed Testing
c) Directly Observed therapy
d) Decreased observed Therapy
Ans. c) Directly Observed therapy
100. Adverse reactions of rifampicin is
a) Hepatitis
b) Heart attack
c) Polio
d) Paralysis
Ans. a) Hepatitis

106
 Section- E
(Pharmaceutical Chemistry- I)

107
1. Pharmaceutical Chemistry deals with
a) Drug metabolism
b) Formulation development
c) Drug design & biologically active molecule
d) Bioactivity determination.
Ans: - c) Drug design & biologically active molecule
2. Synthetic Pharmaceuticals is referred as
a) Refining of drugs
b) Creation of drugs in a most effective way
c) Quality analysis
d) Drug derivation from natural Sources.
Ans: - b) Creation of drugs in a most effective way
3. Error is the difference in
a) Measured and expected value
b) Measured and true value
c) Measured and calculated value.
Ans: - b) Measured and true value
4. Percentage Composition of a standard solution is given by
a) NIST
b) CDSCO
c) PCI
d) FDA
Ans: -a) NIST
5. Constant error is an example of
a) Systematic Error
b) Determinate Error
c) Indeterminate Error
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
6. Ultimate limitations comes in context of
a) Determinate error
b) Indeterminate error
c) Gross error
Ans: - b) Indeterminate error
7. Accuracy is
a) Directly proportional to absolute error
b) Inversely proportional to absolute error
c) Always equal
d) Both a&c
Ans: - b) Inversely proportional to absolute error
8. Difference between the experimental value and true value is

108
 a) Gross
b) Dynamic
c) Absolute
d) Relative
Ans: - c) Absolute
9. Precision refers to
a) Correctness of a measurement
b) Repeatability
c) Reproducibility
d) Both b&c
Ans: - d) Both b&c
10. How many significant figures present in the following number 87000?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
4) 1
Ans: - a) 5
11. How many significant figures present in the following number 1.50 X
10-3
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6
Ans: - b) 3
12. Which Organization provides guidelines on impurities in new drug
product?
a) International Council for Harmonization (ICH)
b) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c) CDSCO
d) Both a&b
Ans: -a) International Council for Harmonization (ICH)
13. Impurities imparts their effects on
a) Increasing therapeutic effect
b) Decreasing self-life
c) Increasing Compatibility
d) Decreasing toxic effect
Ans:-b) Decreasing self-life
14. Limit test is
A) Only Qualitative
B) Only Quantitative
C) Qualitative and semi quantitative
D) Semi Qualitative
Ans: - C) Qualitative and semi quantitative
15. Limit test uses the observing parameter as
a) Changes in color

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 b) Change in smell
c) Change in turbidity
d) Change in Viscosity
Ans: - c) Change in turbidity
16. Limit test of chloride uses precipitating agent
a) Silver nitrate
b) Silver Chloride
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Silver nitrate
17. Limit test of chloride gives
a) White ppt of HCl
b) Milky yellow ppt of silver chloride
c) White ppt of silver chloride
d) White ppt of Barium Chloride
Ans: - c) White ppt of silver chloride
18. Barium chloride is used in the limit test of
a) Chloride
b) Fluoride
c) Sulphate
d) Heavy metals
Ans: - c) Sulphate
19. Use of alcohol in limit tests is
a) To attain supersaturation
b) To Prevent Supersaturation
c) To gain Unsaturation
d) To Prevent Unsaturation
Ans: - b) To Prevent Supersaturation
20. Dil. Hydrochloric acid is not used in limit test of sulphate, if-
a) Analyte is highly acidic
b) Analyte is highly basic
c) HCl is used in the sample preparation
d) Analyte is a salt.
Ans: - c) HCl is used in the sample preparation
21. Use of citric acid in the limit test of iron is
a) To form complex with iron
b) Eliminate interference of other metal cations in the solution by
complex formation.
c) To provide a acidic medium
d) To neutralize the basic components.
Ans: - b) Eliminate interference of other metal cations in the solution
by complex formation.
22. Limit test of iron gives precipitation of
a) Pink to reddish purple color in acidic medium
b) Brown color in acidic medium

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 c) Deep blue color in alkaline medium.
d) Pink to reddish purple color in basic medium.
Ans: - d) Pink to reddish purple color in basic medium.
23. Limit test of iron requires standard solution of
a) Ferrous Sulphate
b) Ferritic Ammonium Sluphate
c) Ferrous gluconate
d) Ferrous fumarate
Ans: -b) Ferritic Ammonium Sluphate
24. In limit test of iron, iron primarily reacts with
a) Dithizone
b) Diphenyl thio-carbozone
c) Phenylpyridine
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
25. Complex formed between lead and dithizone shows
a) Violet color
b) Green color
c) Blue color
d) Black Color.
Ans: - a) Violet color
26. pH requirement in the limit test of lead is
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) Neutral
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Alkaline
27. Cloroform is used in lead’s limit test as
a) Extracting Solvent
b) Separating solvent
c) Precipitating agent
d) De-masking solvent
Ans: - a) Extracting Solvent
28. H2S Gas is used in the limit test of
a) Fluoride
b) Heavy metals
c) Sulphide
d) Iron
Ans: - b) Heavy metals
30. Pharmacopoeial method of Arsenic is based on
a) Gutzeit test
b) Arsenaid test
c) Electrophoresis
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Gutzeit test

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31. Arsenic in presence of acid and a reducing agent is converted into
a) Arsene Gas
b) Arsine Gas
c) Nascent Arsenic
d) Arsenic Oxide
Ans: - a) Arsene Gas
32. Gas produced in the arsenic limit test produces
a) Brown colored stain in mercurous chloride paper.
b) Yellow colored stain in mercuric chloride paper.
c) Yellow colored stain in mercurous chloride paper.
d) Brown colored stain in mercuric chloride paper.
Ans: b) Yellow colored stain in mercuric chloride paper
33. Gaseous impurities like H2S is trapped in the Arsenic limit test
apparatus with
a) Lead acetate cotton plug
b) Sodium acetate cotton plug
c) Lead chloride plug
d) None of the above.
Ans: -a) Lead acetate cotton plug
34. Limit of heavy metals as impurity in IP
a) 12ppm
b) 15 ppm
c) 20 ppm
d) 25 ppm
Ans: - c) 20 ppm
35. Favorable temperature for arsenic limit test is
a) Low temperature
b) Moderate temperature
c) High temperature
d) Room temperature
Ans: - b) Moderate temperature
36. The apparatus used in the limit test is
a) Nessler’s Cylinder
b) Kessler’s Cylinder
c) Measuring Cylinder
d) Graduated Cylinder
Ans: - a) Nessler’s Cylinder
37. Volumetric analysis refers to
a) Analysis based on Weight
b) Analysis based on Volume
c) Analysis based on non-metric system.
d) None of the above.
Ans: - b) Analysis based on Volume
38. Volumetric analysis is
a) Qualitative

112
 b) Semi Qualitative
c) Quantitative
d) Semi- quantitative
Ans: - c) Quantitative
39. Solution is
a) Homogenous mixture of two or more substance
b) Homogenous mixture of solute and solvent
c) Heterogeneous mixture of two or more substance
d) Impure mixture
e) Both a&b
Ans: - e) Both a&b
40. No. of moles of solute per liter of the solution is known as
a) Molality
b) Molarity
c) Normality
d) Mole fraction
Ans: - b) Molarity
41. Normality is
a) No. of moles/ 1000 ml of solution
b) No of gram equivalent/ 1000 ml of solution
c) No of gram equivalent/ 1000 ml o solvent
d) No. of moles/ 100 ml of solvent
Ans: - b) No of gram equivalent/ 1000 ml of solution
42. Gram equivalent (equivalent weight) for weak acid and bases is given
by
a) Weight in grams/ 1000 ml of solution
b) Molecular weight/ Acidity or basicity
c) Molecular weight/ gram of the solute
d) Acidity or basicity/ Molecular weight
Ans: - b) Molecular weight/ Acidity or basicity
43. Molality is given as
a) No of moles of solute/ 1 kg of solution
b) No of moles of solute/1 kg of solvent
c) No. of moles/ 1000 ml of solution
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) No of moles of solute/1 kg of solvent
44. % w/w is referred as
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡(𝑔𝑚)
a)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛(𝑔𝑚)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡(𝑔𝑚)
b)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 (𝑔𝑚)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡(𝑔𝑚)
c)
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 (𝑚𝑙)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡(𝑔𝑚)
d)
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛(𝑚𝑙)
𝑾𝒆𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕(𝒈𝒎)
Ans: - a)
𝑾𝒆𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏(𝒈𝒎)

113
45. Parts per billion is used to express the conc. of
a) Highly conc. Solution
b) Moderately conc. solution
c) Dilute solution
d) Very dilute solution.
Ans: - d) Very dilute solution.
46. Standard solution refers to
a) Known concentration solution
b) Unknown concentration solution
c) Partially known concentration
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Known concentration solution
47. Primary standard is
a) Impure
b) Pure
c) Water Absorbing
d) Very low molecular weight
Ans: - b) Pure
48. Potassium Permanganate is
a) Primary Standard
b) Secondary Standard
c) Tertiary Standard
d) Quaternary standard
Ans: - b) Secondary Standard
49. Choose the primary standard
a) Sodium Hydroxide
b) Zinc
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Carbon di oxide
Ans: - b) Zinc
50. Known concentrated solution in a titration is known as
a) Titrant
b) Titrand
c) Titragent
d) Titrachemical
Ans: - a) Titrant
51. Use of indicator in a titration is
a) To detect the end point
b) To increase the reaction rate
c) To neutralize impurities
d) To increase solubility
Ans: - a) To detect the end point
52. Completion of a titrimetric reaction is detected as
a) Equivalent point

114
 b) Stoichiometric equivalent
c) End point
d) Both a&b
Ans: - c) End point
53. Equivalent point and end point in a titrimetric analysis is
a) Equal
b) Different
c) Equivalent
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Different
54. Which of the following can’t be used as an indication of end point
a) Potentiometric determination
b) Chemical indicator causing color change
c) Conductimetric determination
d) Changes in temperature
Ans: - d) Changes in temperature
55. Bronsted theory defines acid as
a) Substance that releases proton in water.
b) Substance that releases proton in all solvents.
c) Substance that accepts proton
d) Substance that accepts proton in all solvents
Ans: - b) Substance that releases proton in all solvents
56. “A base”, according to Lewis concept is
a) Substance that accepts electron
b) Substance that release electron
c) Substance that release OH- ion.
d) Substance that accepts OH- ion
Ans:- b) Substance that release electron
57. Disadvantage of Arrhenius concept of acid and base is
a) It considers only non polar solvents
b) It considers only polar solvents
c) It considers only water as solvents
d) Both a&b
Ans: - c) It considers only water as solvents
58. Ammonia is Lewis
a) Acid
b) Base
c) Weak acid
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Base
59. pH ranges from
a) 0-7
b) 1-14
c) 0-14
d) 7-14

115
 Ans: - c) 0-14
60. Principle of acid base titration
a) Oxidation –reduction
b) Neutralization
c) Precipitation
d) Complexation
Ans: - b) Neutralization
61. Alkalimetry refers to
a) Quantification of a base with the use of standard acid solution
b) Quantification of an acid with the use of standard acid solution
c) Quantification of acid with the use of standard base solution
d) Quantification of a base with the use of standard base solution
Ans: - c) Quantification of acid with the use of standard base solution
62. Characteristic of acid base reaction
a) The reaction will always be stoichiometric
b) The reaction will be without any side reaction
c) Practically instant
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
63. pOH is
a) –log[OH-]
b) –log [H2O]
c)-log [H+]
d) log [OH-]
Ans: - a) –log [OH-]
64. Chemical change in end point of an acid base titration is
a) Sudden change in pH
b) Sudden change in solubility
c) Sudden change in color
d) Increase rate of reaction.
Ans: - a) Sudden change in pH
65. Example of a strong acid
a) Oxalic acid
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Thioglycholic acid
d) Glacial acetic acid
Ans: - b) Hydrochloric acid
66. Ka is
a) Association constant
b) Dissociation constant
c) Equilibrium Constant
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Dissociation constant
67. A weak base has
a) High Kb value

116
 b) Very low Kb value
c) Low Kb value
d) Very high Ka value
Ans: - c) Low Kb value
68. Equivalent point of an stong acid vs strong base titration is
a) Less than 7
b) Greater than seven
c) Equal to 7
d) 0
Ans: - c) Equal to 7
69. A salt is formed, when
a) Strong acid strong base react
b) Strong acid weak base react
c) Weak acid weak base react
d) Strong base weak acid react
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) all of the above
70. Neutralization curve is a representation of
a) Change in pH [Link] addition
b) Change in pH w.r.t titrant addition
c) Change in color with the addition of acid or base
d) Changes in salt quantification in an ongoing acid base reaction.
Ans: - b) Change in pH w.r.t titrant addition
72. Which indicator is used in strong acid- strong base titration
a) Thymol blue
b) Methyl orange
c) Phenolphthalein
d) Quinaldine Red
Ans: - c) Phenolphthalein
73. End point of a weak acid weak base titration may be
a) Equal to 7
b) Less than 7
c) Higher than 7
d) Depends on the pK value of acid and base
Ans: - d) Depends on the pK value of acid and base
73. pH at the equivalence point in a weak acid and a strong base titration
is
(a) >7
(b) 7
(c) 0
(d) <7
Ans: - (a) >7
74. Color changing pH range of methyl orange as an indicator is
(a) 8-9
(b) 3-5

117
 (c) 6-8
(d) 2-4
Ans: - (b) 3-5
75. The normal rain water is acidic due to
(a) CO2
(b) NH3
(c) NO2
(d) SO2
Ans: - (a) CO2
76. Change in color is due to dissociation of indicators into ion follows the
theory of,
a) Resonance theory
b) Ostwald theory
c) Quinonoid theory
d) Chromophore theory
Ans: - b) Ostwald theory
77. According to Ostwald theory, Color change depends on
a) Amount of indicator
b) Reactivity of analyte
c) Ratio of dissociated and un-dissociated ion
d) Purity of indicator
Ans: - c) Ratio of dissociated and undissociated ion
78. Quinonoid theory also known as
a) Chromophore theory
b) Ostwald theory
c) Resonance theory
d) None of the above
Ans: - Resonance theory
79. The reason a weak acid is dissolved in a non-aqueous solvent is
a) To achieve prominent end point
b) To fasten achieving end point
c) To more reactivity
d) High Purity
Ans: - a) To achieve prominent end point
80. Solvent used to add protons in a non aqueous titration is
a) Acetic acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Citric acid
d) GAA
Ans: - b) Sulphuric acid
81. Protogenic solvent will
a) Accept proton
b) Donate proton
c) Both donate and accept proton
d) Donate electron

118
 Ans: - b) Donate proton
82. Protophilic solvent will
a) Accept proton
b) Donate proton
c) Accept electron
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Accept proton
83. The solvents which are basic in nature and used to increase the acidity of
weakly acidic substances are known as
a) Protogenic solvents
b) Protophilic solvents
c) Amphiprotic solvents
d) Aprotic solvents
Ans: - b) Protophilic solvents
84. All the following are types of dissociating solvent, except
a) Protogenic solvents
b) Protophilic solvents
c) Amphiprotic solvents
d) Aprotic solvents
Ans: - d) Aprotic solvents
85. DMF is a
a) Protogenic solvents
b) Protophilic solvents
c) Amphiprotic solvents
d) Polar Aprotic solvents
e) Non-Polar Aprotic solvents
Ans: - d) Polar Aprotic solvents
86. Alcohols are
a) Polar Aprotic solvents
b) Amphiprotic solvent
c) Protophilic solvents
d) None of the above
Ans: -b) Amphiprotic solvent
87. Precipitation Titration are classified by which mechanism
a) Adsorption
b) Insoluble Color of compound at end point
c) Ion exchange
d) All of the above
Ans: - b) Insoluble Color of compound at end point
88. Argentometric titration is a
a) Diazotization Titration
b) Acid base Titration
c) Precipitation Titration
d) Redox Titration
Ans: -c) Precipitation Titration

119
89. Limitations of precipitation titration
a) Limited availability of a indicator
b) Slow rate of reaction
c) Limited specific precipitating agent
d) all of the above
Ans: - d) all of the above
90. Solubility is
a) Conc. of an unsaturated solution
b) Conc. of a saturated solution
c) Conc of a supersaturated solution
d) Conc of any solution.
Ans: -b) Conc. of a saturated solution
91. Precipitation occurs, when,
a) Ksp> ionic product
b) Ksp= ionic product
c) Ksp< ionic product
d) Doesn’t depends on Ksp
Ans: - c) Ksp< ionic product
92. In presence of an acid, Solubility of a salt is
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Not effected
d) Both a&c
Ans: - b) Increased
93. Argentometric titration is suitable for
a) CN-
b) Cl-
c) SCN-
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
94. Indicator used in Gay-Lussac’s precipitation titration
a) Potassium chromate
b) Potassium thiocyanate
c) Iron Alum
c) No indicator
Ans: - c) No indicator
95. Barium nitrate is used in Gay-Lussac’s precipitation titration
a) As coagulating agent
b) As precipitating agent
c) As complexing agent
d) As catalyst
Ans: - a) As coagulating agent
96. Mohr’s method can’t be used for the estimation of
a) NaCl
b) NaBr

120
 c) NaI (As I- will produce colored precipitate with AgNO3)
d) KBr
Ans: -c) NaI ( As I- will produce colored precipitate with AgNO3)
97. Titrant and indicator in. Mohr’s precipitation method
a) AgNO3, K2CrO4
b) AgCN, K2Cr2O7
c) AgNO3, K2Cr2O7
d) AgNO3, KSCN
Ans: - a) AgNO3, K2CrO4
98. Mohr’s precipitation method requires
a) Acidic medium
b) Basic Medium
c) Neutral Medium
d) None of the above
Ans: - c) Neutral Medium
99. At the end point, the precipitate formed in the Mohr’s method
a) Dark Red precipitate of Ag2Cro4
b) Reddish brown precipitate of Ag2CrO4
c) Reddish brown precipitate of Ag2Cr2O7
d) Light pink precipitate of Ag2Cro4
Ans: - b) Reddish brown precipitate of Ag2CrO4
100. Back titration method is
a) Mohr’s method
b) Fajan’s method
c) Volhard’s method
d) Non aqueous method
Ans: - c) Volhard’s method
101. Volhard’s method can analyze
a) Halogenides
b) Cyanides
c) Sulphides
d) Chromates
e) All of the above
Ans: - e) All of the above
102. The Two titrant used in Volhard’s method may be
a) AgNO3, KSCN
b) AgNO3, NH4SCN
c) NH4SCN, KSCN
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
103. Indicator used in Volhard’s method
a) Ferric ammonium sulphate
b) Iron Alum
c) Methylene Blue
d) Both a&b

121
 Ans: - d) Both a&b
104. End point of Volhard’s method can be detected by
a) Formation of Brown color precipitate
b) Formation of Red color precipitate
c) Formation of White color precipitate
d) Formation of Reddish-brown color.
Ans: - b) Formation of Red color precipitates
105. pH requirement in Volhard’s method is
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Not Specific
Ans: - d) Not Specific
106. Modified Volhard’s method is modification of Volhard’s method in
terms of
a) Use of precipitate protecting solvent
b) Use of Single indicator for both titrations
c) Use of a single titrating procedure
d) None of the above
Ans: -a) Use of precipitate protecting solvent
107. Protecting solvent used in the Modified Volhard’s method is
a) Chloroform
b) Benzene
c) Ethanol
d) Acetone
Ans: - a) Chloroform
108. Oxidation refers to
a) Gain of electron
b) Loss of Electron
Ans: - b) Loss of Electron
109. Reduction means
a) Loss of hydrogen
b) Addition of Hydrogen
c) Addition of Oxygen
d) Loss of water
Ans: - b) Addition of Hydrogen
110. Oxidizing agent is
a) Oxidizes others
b) Reduces others
c) Oxidizes itself
d) Reduces itself
e) Both a&d
Ans: - e) Both a&d
111. All of the following are oxidation, except
(A) Gain of oxygen

122
 (B) Loss of proton
(C) Increase in oxidation state
(D) Loss of electrons
Ans: - (B) Loss of proton
112. CO is an
a) Oxidizing agent
b) Reducing agent
Ans: - b) Reducing agent
113. Oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4
a) +5
b) +7
c) +6
d) +2
Ans: - b) +7
114. “-” sign in an oxidation no refers to,
a) LOE
b) GOE
c) Gain of proton
d) Increase in oxidation no.
Ans: - b) GOE
115. Equivalent weight of an Oxidizing/Reducing agent
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
a)
𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑦

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
b)
𝐵𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
c)
𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑜.

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
d)
𝑂𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑜.

𝑴𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒓 𝒘𝒆𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕
Ans: - c) 𝑪𝒉𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆 𝒊𝒏 𝒐𝒙𝒊𝒅𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒏𝒐.
116. Redox titration using potassium permanganate
a) Reductometry
b) Potentiometry
c) Permanganometry
c) Oxidimetry
Ans: - c) Permanganometry
117. Indicator used in Permanganometry is
a) Nitroferroin
b) Diphenyl amine
c) No indicator
d) Phenolphthalein

123
 Ans: - c) No indicator
118. KMnO4 in acidic medium produces Mn+2 ions producing
a) pink color
b) Colorless
c) purple color.
d) None of these
Ans: - Colorless
119. KMnO4 is
a) Primary Standard
b) Secondary Standard
c) Tertiary standard
d) Pseudo primary standard
Ans: - Secondary Standard
120. Permanganometry can analyse
a) Iron (II)
b) Oxalate
c) Nitrite
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
121. in a reaction C + H2O H2 +CO
a) Reducing agent is H2O
b) Oxidizing agent is H2O
c) Oxidizing agent is C
d) No Oxidation Reduction
Answer: - b) Oxidizing agent is H2O
H2O + C CO + H2
(+1)(-2) 0 +2 0 Oxidation State
122. Which reaction doesn’t undergo redox reaction?
a) Fe+2 Fe+3
b) Zn+2 Zn
c) VO+2 V2O3
2-
d) CrO4 Cr2O72-
2-
Ans: - d) CrO4 Cr2O72
123. Redox indicators
a) Shows different color in Oxidized or reduced state
b) Shows different color in different pH
c) Shows different color in different concentration
d) Color change depends on temperature.
Ans: -a) Shows different color in Oxidized or reduced state
124. Redox indicators are
a) Internal
b) External
c) Self
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above

124
125. Cerimetry uses standard substance
a) Ce (SO4)
b) Ce2(SO4)
c) Ce2(SO4)3
d) SeO2
Ans: - a) Ce (SO4)
126. Iodimetry is a redox reaction, where
a) I2 is used directly
b) I2 is used indirectly
c) I- is used
d) None of these
Ans: - a) I2 is used directly
127. Standard used in Iodatometry
a) KIO3
b) Direct I2
c) Na2S2O3
d) KI
Ans: - a) KIO3
128. Find out the change in oxidation state of Cr

Cr2O7-2+H2O2 Acidic medium CrO5

a) +6
b) -6
c) -1
d) +3
Ans: - a) +6
129. Redox reaction which uses direct I2
a) Iodometry
b) Iodimetry
c) Iodatometry
d) Iodidimetry
Ans: - Iodimetry
130. Complexometric titration is very favorable for the estimation of
a) Acid
b) Base
c) Non metals
d) Metals
Ans: -d) Metals
131. Color showed by the complexometric indicator at the end point is
a) Color of the indicator-analyte complex
b) Indicators own color
c) Color of analyte- complexing agent complex
d) Color of analyte- complexing agent complex
Ans: - b) Indicators own color
132. Which of the following is not a Complexing Agent?

125
 a) Diethyl triamine penta acetic acid
b) Ammonia
c) EDTA
d) Aniline
Ans: -d) Aniline
133. Metal ion indicators are
a) Redox indicators
b) Complexometric indicators
c) Potentiometric indicator
d) pH indicator
Ans: - b) Complexometric indicators
134. EBT shows color change in acidic to neutral medium as
a) Wine Red to blue
b) Pink to purple
c) Colorless to blue
d) Pink to orange
Ans: - a) Wine Red to blue
135. Principle of masking and damasking agents are
a) Precipitations
b) Complexation
c) Adsorption
d) a & b
Ans: -d) a&b
136. Complexometric titration involving calcium gluconate and EDTA is a
a) Direct titration
b) Back titration
c) Replacement
d) Indirect Anions
Ans: - a) Direct titration
137. EDTA is
a) Primary standard
b) Secondary standard
Ans: - b) Secondary standard
138. EBT also known as
a) Mordant black II
b) Eriochrome Black T
c) Solochrome Black
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
139. Which agent forms the complex with the metal ions that are not
required in the estimation?
a) De-masking agent
b) Masking Agent
c) Both
Ans: - b) Masking Agent

126
140. Example of adsorption indicators
a) Eosin
b) Methyl red
c) Phenolphthalein
d) Ninhydrin
Ans: - a) Eosin
141. Leveling effect by non-aqueous solvent is
a) Leveling the strength of Weak acids w.r.t Strong acids
b) Leveling the strength of Weak acids among weak acids
c) Leveling the strength of Weak bases w.r.t Strong bases
d) Both a&c
Ans: - d) Both a&c
142. Strong Bases are leveling solvent for
a) Acids
b) Bases
c) Both
Ans:- a) Acids
143. Differentiating solvent for Acid is
a) Weak acid
b) Weak base
c) Strong acid
d) Strong base
Ans: - a) Weak acid
144. Differentiating solvent for base is
a) Weak acid
b) Weak base
c) Strong acid
d) Strong base
Ans: - b) Weak base
155. Principle of gravimetric analysis
a) Determining the mass % of an ion in a known amount of impure
compound.
b) Determining the mass % of an ion in a known amount of pure
compound
c) Determining the volume of an ion in a known amount of impure
compound
d) Determining the force of attraction among different components of a
molecule.
Ans: - a) Determining the mass % of an ion in a known amount of
impure compound
156. Gravimetric analysis measures
a) Weight
d) Volume
c) Intermolecular forces of attraction
d) None of these

127
 Ans: - a) Weight
157. Principle method involve in gravimetric analysis is
a) Precipitation
b) Co-precipitation
c) Neutralization
d) Complexation
Ans: - a) Precipitation
158. Gravimetric analysis is a
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Pseudo direct
d) Back procedure
Ans: - a) Direct
159. Gravimetric factor following precipitation procedure is
𝐴𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑐 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑑𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒
a)
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑒
𝑊𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
b)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑒
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡
c)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑑𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑚𝑝𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
d)
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
𝑨𝒕𝒐𝒎𝒊𝒄 𝒘𝒆𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒅𝒆𝒔𝒊𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒂𝒏𝒂𝒍𝒚𝒕𝒆
Ans: - a)
𝑴𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒓 𝒘𝒆𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒑𝒓𝒆𝒄𝒊𝒑𝒊𝒕𝒂𝒕𝒆
160. Co-precipitation can be overcome by
a) Distillation
b) Digestion
c) Dissolving and re-precipitation
d) Both b&c
Ans: - Both b&c
161. Which is a mechanism of Co-precipitation?
a) Inclusion
b) Occlusion
c) Mechanical entrapment
d) Adsorption
e) All of the of the above
Ans: - e) All of the of the above
162. Process followed by filtration with the addition of hot water in a
gravimetric procedure is
a) Pre filtration
b) Post filtration
c) Washing
d) Ingestion
Ans: - c) Washing
163. Ignition of a precipitate in a gravimetric procedure is done up to
a) 1500 degree centigrade
b) 6 00 degree centigrade

128
 c) 100 degree centigrade
d) 1000 degree centigrade
Ans: - b) 600 degree centigrade
164. Ignition s in gravimetric analysis is done to remove
a) Moisture
b) Carbonic matter
c) All carbonic andnon-carbonic matter
d) Only non carbonic matter
Ans: - Carbonic matter
165. Common ion cases
a) Increase in dissociation of weak electrolyte
b) Decreases in dissociation of weak electrolyte
c) Completely stops dissociation of weak electrolyte
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Decreases in dissociation of weak electrolyte
166. Substances with solubility less than 0.01 mole per liter is known as
a) Soluble compound
b) Electrolytes
c) Sparingly soluble
d) Supersaturated solution
Ans:- c) Sparingly soluble
167. Effect of temperature on precipitates solubility is
a) Precipitation ∞ Temperature
1
b) Precipitation∞
Temperature
c) Constant
d) None of the above
𝟏
Ans: - b) Precipitation∞
𝐓𝐞𝐦𝐩𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞
168. Preferable conditions for precipitation is
a) Hot and dilute solution
b) Cold and dilute solution
c) Hot and concentrated solution
d) Cold and concentrated solution
Ans: - a) Hot and dilute solution
169. Co-precipitate
a) Increases conc. of desired ppt
b) Decreases conc. of desired ppt
c) Has no effect on desired ppt
d) Completely stops desired precipitation
Ans: -b) Decreases conc. of desired ppt
170. Process used to remove the impurities on the surface of the
precipitate is
a) Re-filtration
b) Washing

129
 c) Ignition
d) Digestion
Ans: - b) Washing
171. Convenient Whatman filter paper for filtration on gravimetric
analysis is
a) N0 2
b) No 41
c) No 42
d) No 39
Ans: - c) No 42
172. Temperature used for drying
a) Below 50 degree centigrade
b) Below 100 degree centigrade
c) Below 250 degree centigrade
d) All of the above
Ans: - c) Below 250 degree centigrade

173. Which of the following is desensitizing agents

a) Zinc chloride
b) Strontium chloride
c) Both a & b
c) Sodium fluoride
Ans: c) Both a & b
174. Example of antacid
a) Sodium Bicarbonate
b) Calcium Hydroxide
b) Magnesium Sulphate
d) All of these
Ans: D) All of these
175. A combination of antacids is prepared because
a) To attain the synergistic effect
b) To enhance the antacid effect
c) An attempt to balance the consti- passive effect of calcium and
aluminum with the laxative effect of magnesium
d) All of these
Ans: c) An attempt to balance the consti- passive effect of calcium
and aluminum with the laxative effect of magnesium
176. Aluminum hydroxide gel is used as
a) Cathartic
b) Protective and absorbent
c) Acidifying agent
d) Antacids
Ans. d) Antacids

130
177. Which is not a class of topical agents
a) Antibiotic
b) Protective
c) Antimicrobial
d) Astringents
Ans: - a) Antibiotic
178. The inorganic agent used to treat the GIT agent
a) Products for altering the gastric PH
b) Productive for intestinal inflammation
c) Adsorbents for intestinal toxins
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
179. Ferrous sulfate is also known as
a) Blue vitriol
b) Caustic potash
c) Condy’s Crystals
d) Melanterite
Ans. d) Melanterite
180. Dentifrices is used for
a) Antacid
b) Emetics
c) Dental product
a) Antimicrobial
Ans: - c) Dental product
181. Which is not a topical agent?
a) Antibiotic
b) Antimicrobial
c) Astringents
d) Protectives
Ans: - a) Antibiotic
182. Iron is absorbed from
a) Duodenum
b) Lower jejunum
c) Stomach
d) Ileum
Ans: - a) Duodenum
183. In the body iron is stored as a
a) Ferritin
b) Transferrin
c) Both
d) None
Ans: -a) Ferritin
184. Iron absorption takes place in which of the form?
a) Fe3+ (Ferric)
b) Fe2+ (Ferrous)

131
 c) Fe+1
d) a&b
Ans: - b) Fe2+ (Ferrous)
185. Which of the following iron preparation is not official in the IP?
a) Iron dextran injection
b) Iron sorbitol
c) Ferrous sulphate
d) Ferrous succinate
Ans: - d) Ferrous succinate
186. Green vitnol is
a) FeSO4
b) Ferrous gluconate
c) Ferrous fumarate
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) FeSO4
187. FeroSul is the brand name containing
a) Ferrous sulphate
b) Ferric oxide
c) Ferrous fumarate
d) Ferric ammonium citrate
Ans:- a) Ferrous sulphate
188. Ferrous Fumarate is
a) Orange color Fe+3 salts
b) Reddish orange Fe+2 salts
c) Yellowish red Fe+3 salts
d) Colorless Fe+2 salts
Ans: - b) Reddish orange Fe+2 salt
189. Ferrous Fumarate comes in
a) Syrup
b) Tablet
c) Emulsion
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
190. Ferric ammonium citrate is
a) Fe+2 salts
b) Fe+3 salts
c) Fe+1 salt
d) None of the above
Ans: -a) Fe+2 salts
191. Combination of Vit C and iron
a) Ferrous ascorbate
b) Ferric ascorbate
c) Ferrous fumerate
d) Ferrous citrate
Ans: - a) Ferrous ascorbate

132
192. Vit C is used with iron supplement to
a) Decrease metabolism
b) Increase absorption
c) Increase solubility
d) Decrease Absorption
Ans: - b) Increase absorption
193. Haematinics used in the treatment of anemia
a) Ferrous ascorbate
b) Cabonyl iron
c) Ferric ammonium citrate
d) Ferric hydroxide
e) Both a&b
Ans: - e) Both a&b
194. Highly pure iron source as Haematinics
a) Cabonyl iron
b) Ferrous ascorbate
c) Ferric hydroxide
d) Ferrous sulphate
Ans: - a) Cabonyl iron

195. What is the mechanism of action of antacids

a) Inhibiting acid production in the stomach
b) Stimulating acid production in the stomach
c) Absorbing acid in the stomach
d) Neutralizing acid in the stomach
Ans: - d) Neutralizing acid in the stomac
196. Which antacid is most likely to cause diarrhea as a side effect?
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Aluminum hydroxide
d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: - b) Magnesium hydroxide
197. What are the different forms in which antacids are available?
a) Tablets, capsules, liquids
b) Powders, liquids, gummies
c) Tablets, liquids, injections
d) Capsules, gummies, creams
Ans: - a) Tablets, capsules, liquid
198. Cathartics are used to
a) Acidity relief
b) Constipation relief
c) GI irritation relief
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Constipation relief
199. Ideal property of an ideal antacid

133
 a) Not absorbable
b) Not causes systemic alkalosis
c) Buffer’s in 4-6 pH
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
200. Excess magnesium sulphate leads to
a) Metal toxicity
b) GI irritation
c) Watery Diarrhea
d) Both b&c
Ans: - d) Both b&c
201. Antacid has all the characteristics, except:
a) Weak bases that neutralize gastric pH
b) Inhibits the formation of pepsin
c) Aluminum antacids cause diarrhea and magnesium antacids cause
constipation
d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium antacids cause
diarrhea
Ans: - d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium
antacids cause diarrhea
202. Drugs used to increase the acidity of stomach is
a) Antacids
b) Acidifying agent
c) Cathartic
d) Adsorbent
Ans: - b) Acidifying agent
203. Drugs which neutralizes alkaline body fluid (Blood) is
a) Systemic acidifiers
b) Urinary acidifies
c) Systemic acidifier
d) Acidifiers
Ans: - a) Systemic acidifiers
204. Water insoluble/ no systemic antacid is
a) Aluminum hydroxide
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Magnesium carbonate
d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: - d) Sodium bicarbonate
205. Hydrated Magaldrate is
a) Aluminium hydroxide
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Magnesium aluminium
Ans: - d) Magnesium aluminium
206. GIT’s Protective agent and adsorbents are

134
 a) Antacids
b) Protect mucosal linings of GIT
c) Saline cathartics
d) None of the above
Ans:- b) Protect mucosal linings of GIT
207. Achlorhydria is
a) Hyperacidity
b) Hypoacidity
c) No HCl secretion
d) Hyperchloremia
Ans: - c) No HCl secretion
208. Burnett syndrome is caused by
a) Mg antacid
b) Ca antacids
c) Al antacids
d) Sucralfate
Ans: - b) Ca antacids
209. Saline cathartics are
a) Water soluble and acts in intestine
b) Water insoluble and acts in stomach
c) Water insoluble and acts in intestine
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Water soluble and acts in intestine
210. Topical agent based their action or use divided into
a) Protective
b) Antimicrobial
c) Astringents
d) All of these
Ans: - d) All of these
211. Protective’s and adsorbents are
a) Absorbs intestinal toxins, bacteria
b) Provides protecting coating to the mucus membrane
c) Absorbs the released HCL
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
212. Microbicides acts on microbes by
a) Preventing the growth of the microbes
b) Killing the microbes
c) Both
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Killing the microbes
213. Silver nitrate as antimicrobial agent has advantages
a) Nontoxic to human cells
b) Effective against fungi and viruses.
c) At higher conc. it causes bacterial cell wall

135
 d) All of the above.
Ans:- d) All of the above.
214. Silver nitrate is stored at
a) In amber colored bottle, away from light
b) In cold condition
c) In proper light condition
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) In amber colored bottle
215. Antiseptic are
a) Used on living tissues
b) Used on non-living tissue
c) Both
d) It is same as disinfectants
Ans: - a) Used on living tissues
216. Silver produces antibacterial property primarily by
a) Outer cell envelop toxicity
b) Inner membrane toxicity
c) Increase the pH
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Inner membrane toxicity
217. Ionic silver is stored in
a) Glass
b) Plastic
c) Wooden cages
d) All of the above
Ans: - a) Glass
218. Chlorohexidine is a
a) Biocide
b) Biostatic
c) Biosensitizer
d) Bioenhancer
Ans: - a) Biocide
219. Chlorhexidine cases
a) Damage of inner membrane materials
b) Destabilization in membrane by osmosis
c) Causes reduction in biosynthesis of molecules
d) All of the above
Ans: - b) Destabilization in membrane by osmosis
220. Gingivitis can be treated by
a) Chlorhexidine
b) Silver nitrate
c) Boric acid
d) Hydrogen peroxide
Ans: - a) Chlorhexidine
221. Hydrogen peroxide is

136
 a) H2O3
b) H2O2
c) HPO4
d) H3PO4
Ans:- b)H2O2
222. H2O2 can be produced by
a) Reaction between H2 and O2
b) Reaction between sulphuric acid and hydrated barium peroxide
c) Reaction between H2O and O2
d) All of the above
Ans: - b) Reaction between sulphuric acid and hydrated barium
peroxide
223. H2O2 is used as
a) Preservative
b) Sterilizer
c) Disinfectant
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
224. Bleaching powder is
a) Calcium oxychloride
b) Calcium oxide
c) Calcium hydroxide
d) Calcium chloride
Ans: - a) Calcium oxychloride
225. Bleaching powder causes
a) Destroys outer membrane
b) Unfolds the proteins
c) Osmotic rupturing of cells
d) Creates pores on internal nuclear membrane
Ans: - b) Unfolds the proteins
226. Desensitizing agent in a dental product
a) Strontium fluoride
b) Zinc chloride
c) Strontium chloride
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
227. Dental caries are
a) Acids produced by microorganisms
b) Basic substances produced by microorganisms
c) Decomposition of teeth matters
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Acids produced by microorganisms
228. Popular formulation of Dentifrices is
a) Solution
b) Suspension

137
 c) Emulsions
d) Balm
e) Powder
Ans: - e) Powder
229. Common dentifrice is
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium phosphate
c) Sodium perborate
d) Sodium phosphate
Ans:- c) Sodium perborate
230. Which of the following is used in mouthwash
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Chlorhexidine
c) Povidone-iodine
d) all of the above
Ans: - d) all of the above
231. Agents which reduces dental hypersensitivity to heat and cold is
a) Anticaries agent
b) Desensitizing agent
c) Mouthwashes
d) Denture adhesive
Ans: -b) Desensitizing agent
232. CaCO3 is used as
a) Dentifrices
b) Mouthwash
c) Denture adhesive
d) Anticaries agent
Ans: - a) Dentifrices
233. Which one of the following is an anticaries agent?
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Sodium fluoride
c) Calcium gluconate
d) All of the above
Ans: - b) Sodium fluoride
234. Denture is
a) In borne Dental pairs
b) Prosthetic dental pairs
c) Single dental caps
Ans: - b) Prosthetic dental pairs
235. Denture cleaners are generally used to
a) Control the growth of microbes
b) Denture related inflammation
c) To clean the dentures
d) all of the above
Ans: - d) all of the above

138
236. Popular ingredients of denture cleaners
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Iodine
d) Hexidine
Ans: - a) Sodium hypochlorite
237. Medicinal gas used for resuscitation and inhalation therapy is
a) Nitrogen
b) Compressed air
c) Oxygen
d) All of the above
Ans: - c) Oxygen
238. Chemically favorable oxygen preparation method is
a) From hydrogen peroxide using manganese oxide as catalyst
b) From water
c) From nitrogen di oxides
b) All of the above
Ans: - a) From hydrogen peroxide using manganese oxide as
catalyst
239. Which medicinal gas is used as an insufflation’s gas and cryotherapy
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon di oxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Compressed air
Ans: - b) Carbon di oxide
240. Carbon di oxide is
a) Soluble in water
b) Insoluble in water
c) Partially insoluble
d) Sparingly soluble
Ans: - a) Soluble in water
241. Storing cylinder of CO2 is of
a) Blue color
b) Green color
c) Grey color
d) Yellow color
Ans:- c) Grey color
242. Three member heterocyclic ring is
a) Pyrrol
b) Cyclopropane
c) Furan
d) Ethylene oxide
Ans: - d) Ethylene oxide
243. Five member heterocyclic ring is
a) Azepine

139
 b) Azole
c) Azeine
d) None of the above
Ans:- b) Azole
244. Six membered heterocyclic ring containing N- atom at 1, 3positions
is
a) Pyrazine
b) Pyridine
c) Pyrimidine
d) Pyridazine
Ans:- c) Pyrimidine
245. Sodium bicarbonate is used as
a) An effective antacid
b) Inhalants
c) Calcium accumulation
d) Systemic laxative
Ans: -a) An effective antacid
246. Which one of the following drugs is a saline cathartic?
a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Magnesium trisilicate
c) Magnesium carbonate
d) Bismuth subcarbonate
Ans: -a) Magnesium sulphate
247. Which of the following medicinal gas is used as an anaesthetic?
a) NO
b) N2
c) CO2
d) O2
Ans: - a) NO
248. Mixture of gases are used in anesthesia
a) O2 and NO
b) O2 and CO2
c) CO2 and N2O
d) O2 , CO2 and N2O
Ans: - a) O2 and NO2
249. Haematinics are used in deficiency of
a) Iron
b) Zinc
c) Copper
d) Manganese
Ans: Iron
250. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?
a) Thiopental
b) Desflurane
c) K e t a m i n e

140
 d) Propofol
Ans: b) Desflurane
251. Which one of the following is not a stage of anesthesia?
a) Anti- allergic
b) Analgesia
c) Surgical anaesthesia
d) Delirium
Ans: a) Anti- allergic
252. Which one of the following GA
a) Halothane
b) Ether
c) Chloroform
d) Dicycloamine
Ans: - d) Dicycloamine
253. Which of the following GA is favorable for children?
a) Isoflurane
b) Desflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) None of the above
Ans: - c) Sevoflurane
254. Advantageous characteristic of nitrous oxide as
anaesthetics
a) Non inflammable
b) Good analgesia
c) Very rapid onset
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
255. Which of the following statement is correct regarding GA
a) Analgesia is produced before unconsciousness
b) Analgesia is produced after unconsciousness
c) No analgesia is produced
d) None of the above
Ans:- a) Analgesia is produced before unconsciousness
256. Ultra short acting anaesthetic is
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Thiopental sodium
c) Etomidate
d) Chloroform
Ans- b) Thiopental sodium
257. I. V used GA is
a) Halothane
b) Disflurane
c) Ether
c) Propofol
Ans:- Propofol

141
258. Halothane’ s Minimal alveolar concentration is
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 0. 75%
d) 7. 5%
Ans: - c) 0. 75%
259. Which oneofthe following is a dissociative anaesthesia
a) Fentanyl
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Chloroform
Ans: - c) Ketamine
260. Medullary paralysis results in
a) Depression of respiratory and cardiovascular centers
b) Paralysis of skeletal muscles
c) Paralysis of specific part of face
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Depression of respiratory and cardiovascular
centers
261. Barbiturate class of GA is
a) Diazepam
b) Thiopental Sodium
c) Phenot hiazine
d) All of the above
Ans: - b) Thiopental Sodium
262. Favorable storage condition ( after reconstitution) for
Thiopental Sodium is
a) Refrigerated for 24 hrs
b) Room temperature for 24 hrs
c) Refrigerated for 6 hrs
d) At cold t emperature
Ans: - a) Refrigerated for 24 hrs
263. Ketamine hydrochloride is
a) OTC drug
b) Prescript ion medicine
c) Nutrit ional supplement
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Prescription medicine
264. Propofol is
a) Short acting anaesthesia
b) Causes lack of memory
c) Use to maintain anaesthesia
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) all of the above
265. Sedatives produce

142
 a) Depression of CNS wit hout inducing sleep
b) Reduces pain sensat ion
c) Induces sleep
d) Insomnia
Ans: - a) Depression of CNS without inducing sleep
266. Sedative in high doses produces
a) Local Anaest het ics
b) Allergy
c) Hypnosis
d) CNS st imulat ion
Ans: - c) Hypnosis
267. Phenobarbitone is
a) 5- ethyl- 5- phenyl Barbit uric acid
b) 2- ethyl- 5- phenyl Barbituric acid
c) 3- ethyl- 3- phenyl barbit uric acid
d) 4- ethyl- 5- phenyl barbituric acid
Ans: - a) 5- ethyl- 5- phenyl Barbituric acid
268. Gardenal is a brand name of the drug
a) Diazepam
b) Haloperidol
c) Phenobarbitone
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: - c) Phenobarbitone

269. Benzodiazepine drugs

a) Diazepam
b) Alprazolam
c) Phenobarbitone
d) Both a&b
Ans: - d) Both a&b
270. Sedatives and Hypnotics are generally taken
a) At bed time
b) At morning
c) At the middle of the day
d) Generally, can be taken at any time
Ans: - a) At bed time
271. Sedatives are
a) Anxiolytic agent
b) Sleep inducer
c) Produces hypnosis
d) Causes severe memory loss
Ans: - a) Anxiolytic agent
272. Diazepam contains

143
 a) 1, 2 benzodiazepine ring
b) 1, 4 benzodiazepine ring
c) 1, 3 benzodiazepine ring
d) 1, 5 benzodiazepine ring
Ans: - b) 1, 4 benzodiazepine ring
273. Alprazolam causes
a) GABA increase
b) Dopamine Decreases
c) Not related to GABA
d) GABA decrease
Ans:- d) GABA increase
274. Xanax is a brand name of
a) Diazepam
b) Nitrazepam
c) Alprazolam
d) Clonazepam
Ans:- c) Alprazolam
275. Barbiturate sedative hypnotic is
a) Phenobarbital
b) Nitrazepam
c) Ketamine HCl
d) All of the above
Ans: - a) Phenobarbital
276. Psychosis is related by
a) Neuroleptics
b) Schizophrenia
c) Bipolar disorder
d) Disordered thought
e) All of the above
Ans: - e) All of the above
277. Antipsychotics are also known as
a) Neuroleptics
b) Psychotropic medication
c) Ant schizophrenic drugs
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
278. First generation antipsychotic is
a) Generally more potent than Second generation
b) Generally less potent than Second generation
c) Same potency
d) Only discovered earlier than second generation one
Ans: - b) Generally less potent than Second generation
279. Second generation antipsychotics are
a) D2 and 5HT2A agonist
b) D2 and 5HT2A antagonist

144
 c) Less Extra pyramidal effect than 1 st generation
d) Both b&c
Ans: - d) Both b&c
280. Which of the following is used as antipsychotics?
a) Diazepam
b) Chlorpromazine hydrochloride
c) Nitrous oxide
d) None of the above
Ans: - b)Chlorpromazine hydrochloride
281. Extra pyramidal effects are prominent in
a) Haloperidol
b) Olanzapine
c)Ziprasidone
d) Quetapine
Ans: - a) Haloperidol
282. Which one of the following is not a D2 and 5HT2A antagonist?
a) Olanzapine
b) Risperidone
c) Clozapine
d) Iloperidone
Ans:- c) Clozapine
283. Clozapine belongs to
a) Sulpiride derivative
b) Benzodiazepine derivative
c) Barbiturates
d) Quinpirole derivative
Ans: - b) Benzodiazepine derivative
284. Atypical neuroleptic class is
a) Thioxanthenes
b) Phenothiazenes
c) Dibenzodiazepine
d) Butyrophenones
Ans: - c) Dibenzodiazepines
285. Olanzapine belongs to
a) Dibenzazepine
b) Benzisothiazole
c) Dibenzoxazepine
d) Thienobenzodiazepine
Ans: - d) Thienobenzodiazepine
286. The two-benzene ring in Phenothiazine is linked by
a) Two N atom
b) N and S atom
c) N and O atom
d) N and Silicon atom
Ans: - b) N and S atom

145
287. Haldol is a brand name of antipsychotic agent
a) Chlorpromazine Hydrochloride
b) Haloperidol
c) Risperidone
d) Lurasidone
Ans: - b) Haloperidol
288. Resperidone is used in
a) Mania
b) Schizophrenia
c) Mixed episode
d) all of the above
Ans: - d) all of the above
289. Pyrimidine ring is present in
a) Chlorpromazine Hydrochloride
b) Resperidone
c) Haloperidol
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Resperidone
290. Sulpiride is
a) 1st generation antipsychotic
b) 2nd generation antipsychotic
c) Mixed
d) Not an antipsychotic
Ans:- b) 2nd generation antipsychotic
291. Sulpiride belongs to the class of
a) Benzodiazepine
b) Benzamide
c) Phenothiazene
d) Dibenzoazepine
Ans:- b) Benzamide
292. Quetiapine is
a) Typical antipsychotic
b) Atypical antipsychotics
Ans:- b) Atypical antipsychotics
293. Which one of the following antipsychotics is us with mood stabilizer?
a) Lurasidone
b) Quetiapene
c) Respiridone
d) All of the above
Ans: - a) Lurasidone
294. Latuda is a brand name of
a) Quetiapene
b) Sulpiride
c) Lurasidone
d) Respiridone

146
 Ans: - c) Lurasidone
295. Which one of the following was first extensively used as
anticonvulsant?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Valproic acid
c) Carbamazepine
d) Phenytoin
Ans: -a) Phenobarbital
296. Anticonvulsants approved to prevent migraine headaches
a) Phenobarbital
b) Valproic acid
c) Carbamazepine
d) Phenytoin
Ans: - b) Valproic acid
297. Anticonvulsant preferred for trigeminal neuralgia
a) Phenytoin
b) Fosphenytoin
c) Carbamazepine
d) All of the above
Ans: - c) Carbamazepine
298. Drug which is not involve in inactivation of Voltage dependent
sodium channel in convulsion
a) Carbamazepine
b) Lamotrigine
c) Phenytoin
d) Vigabatrin
Ans: - d) Vigabatrin
299. 5,5-diphenyl imidazolidine-2,4-dione is also known as
a) Phenytoin
b) Carbamazepine
c) Valproic Acid
d) Gabapentin
Ans: - a) Phenytoin
300. Dilantin is a brand name containing
a) Phenytoin
b) Diazepam
c) Vigabatrin
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: - a) Phenytoin
301. Phenytoin is
a) Oxazolidinedione derivative
b) Hydantoin derivative
c) Phenothiazine derivative
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Hydantoin derivative

147
302. Carbamazepine can be used in
a) Psychomotor seizures
b) Tonic clonic seizures
c) Trigeminal neuralgia
d) All of them
Ans: - d) all of them
303. Antiepileptic drugs are also known as
a) Thymoleptics
b) Antiseizure drugs
c) Anti convulsants
d) Both b&c
Ans: - d) Both b&C
304. Common seizure in children is
a) Psychomotor seizures
b) Tonic-clonic seizure
c) Petit mal seizures
d) None of the above
Ans: - c) Petit mal seizures
305. Barbiturate class antiepileptic drug is
a) Phenytoin
b) Diazepam
c) Phenobarbital
d) Clonazepam
Ans: - c) Phenobarbital
306. CBZ is
a) Carbamazepine
b) Clonazeoam
c) Vigabatrin
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Carbamazepine
307. Gabapentin is preferred in
a) Diabetic neuropathy
b) Partial seizures
c) Depression
d) Both a&b
e) Both b&c
Ans: - d) Both a&b
308. Preferred drug in akathisia
a) Clonazepam
b) Diazepam
c) Nitazepam
d) All
Ans: - a) Clonazepam
309. Lamotrigine is sold under brand name
a) Lamictal

148
 b) Sabril
c) Topamax
d) all of the above
Ans: - a) Lamictal
310. Heterocyclic ring present in Phenytoin is
a) Pyridine
b) Imidazolidine
c) Pyrimidine
d) Pyrrol
Ans: - b) Imidazolidine
311. Dopamine is
a) Neurotransmitter
b) Endogenous inflammatory compound
c) Chemo-transporter
d) None f the above
Ans: - a) Neurotransmitter
312. Thymoleptics are
a) Analeptics
b) Hypoglycemic agent
c) Antidepressants
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: - c) Antidepressants
313. Tricyclic antidepressant is
a) Fluvoxamine
b) Venlafaxine
c) Imipramine
d) Moclobemide
Ans: - c) Imipramine
314. Imipramine is
a) 3-(10, 11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo [b, f] azepin-5-yl)-N,N-
dimethylpropan-1-amine
b) 4-(10, 11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo [b, f] azepin-5-yl)-N,N-
dimethylbutane-1-amine
c) 5-(10, 11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo [b, f] azepin-6-yl)-N,N-
dimethylpentane-1-amine
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) 3-(10,11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo[b,f]azepin-5-yl)-N,N-
dimethylpropan-1-amine
315. Dibenzazepine is present in
a) Acetylcholine
b) Duloxetine
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Imipramine
Ans: - d) Imipramine
316. Imipramine is sold under brand name

149
 a) Lasix
b) Xanax
c) Antidep
d) Benadryl
Ans: - c) Antidep
317. Which of the following is not used as antidepressants?
a) Indomethacine
b) Amitriptyline Hydrochloride
c) Citalopram
d) Imipramine Hydrochloride
Ans: - a) Indomethacine
318. Amitriptyline Hydrochloride is
a) MAO inhibitors
b) SNRI s
c) SSRI
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) MAO inhibitors
319. Catecholamine contains side chain
a) Amide
b) Amine
c) Imine
d) None of the above
Ans: -b) Amine
320.

Common name of the structure is

a) Epineprine
b) Nor epinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonine

Ans: - Nor-epinephrine

321. 1- (3, 4-Dihydroxy phenyl)-2-methylamino ethanol is

a) Adrenaline
b) Noradrenaline
c) Dopamine
d) Isoprenaline

150
 Ans: - a) Adrenaline
322. Naphazoline is
a) 1-(2- napthyl methyl) -2- imidazoline
b) 2-(3-Napthyl methyl)-2—imidazoline
c) 3-(1-napthyl methyl)-2- imidazoline
d) 2-(1-napthyl methyl)-2-imidazoline
Ans:- d) 2-(1-napthyl methyl)-2-imidazoline
323. Selective alpha 1blocker is

a) Prazosine

b) Clonidine

c) Phentolamine

d) all of the above

Ans: - a) Prazosin
324. Acetylcholine acts on heart by
a) M1 Receptor
b) Nnreceptor
c) M2 receptor
d) Nm receptor
Ans: - c) M2 receptor
325. Dimethylcarbamoyloxy and trimethylanilinium is
a) Atropine Sulphate
b) Neostigmine,
c) Pilocarpine
d) Acetylcholine
Ans: - b) Neostigmine
326. Drugs interacts with cholinergic receptor and produces similar
action as Ach
a) Sympatholytic
b) Cholinergic agonist
c) Para-sympatholytic
d) Adrenergic agonist
Ans: - b) Cholinergic agonist
327. Northix is a brand name of
a) Epinehrine
b) Nor-adrenaline
c) Adrenaline
d) Neostigmine
Ans: - b) Nor-adrenaline
328. Albuterol is
a) Salbutamol

151
 b) Haloperidol
c) Isoprenol
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Salbutamol
329. Not a cholinergic agonist
a) Pilocarpin
b) Neostigmine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Bethanechol
Ans: - b) Neostigmine
330. Acetylcholine hydrolyzed by
a) Acetylcholine inhibitase
b) Acetylcholine reductase
c) Acetylcholine esterase
d) all of the above
Ans: - c) Acetylcholine esterase
331. Enzyme needed in acetylcholine synthesis is
a) Choline acetyltransferase
b) Acetylcholine esterase
c) Acetylcholine reductase
d) None of them
Ans: - a) Choline acetyltransferase
332. Cholinomimetic alkaloid is
a) Carbacol
b) Physostigmine
c) Pilocarpine
d) All of them
Ans: - c) Pilocarpine
333. Anticholinergic agent used in organophosphorus poisoning is
a) Neostigmine
b) Carbacol
c) Atropine
c) Muscarin
Ans: - c) Atropine
334. Cyclic ring present in atropine is
a) Cyclopentane
b) Cycloheptane
c) Cyclohexane
d) None of the above
Ans: - b) Cycloheptane
335. Tropin brand name contains
A) Tropicamide
b) Tacrine hydrochloride
c) Atropine
d) Tolazoline

152
 Ans: - c) Atropine
336. Pralidoxime chloride is
a) Anti cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Neostigmine antagonist
c) Indirect acting cholinergic agent
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
337. CVS targeting drugs are used in
a) CHF
b) Arrhythmia
c) Angina pectoris
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above
338. Digitalis can be isolated from
a) Digitalis purpurea
b) Digitalis lanata
c) Both of them
Ans: - c) Both of them
339. Cardiac glycosides on hydrolysis give
a) Glyson and sugar
b) Aglycone and sugar
c) Salt of a glycone
d) Salt of aglycone
Ans: - b) Aglycone and sugar
340. Beta blocker is
a) Verapamil
b) Diltiazem
c) Propranolol
d) Nicorandil
Ans: - c) Propranolol
341. Calcium Channel Blocker is
a) Verapamil
b) Diltiazem
c) Nicorandil
d) Both a&b
Ans: d) Both a&b
342. Drug used in angina is
a) Aspirin
b) Nitroglycerine
c) Glyceryl Trinitrate
d) Both a&b
e) Both b&c
Ans: - e) Both b&c
343. Following ACE inhibitor is
a) Propranolol

153
 b) Aspirin
c) Captopril
d) None of the above
Ans: - c) Captopril
344. Quinidine obtained from
a) Cinchona bark
b) Cinnamon Bark
c) Ashoka Bark
d) Arjuna Bark
Ans: - a) Cinchona bark
345. Propranolol brand name
a) Atenol
b) Betaloc
c) Vasopten
d) Ciplar
Ans: - d) Ciplar
346. Quinidine contains
a) Xanthine heterocycle
b) Quinoline heterocycle
c) Pyridine heterocycle
d) Acridine heterocycle
Ans: - b) Quinoline heterocycle
347. Diueretics causes
a) Unconciousness
b) CNS Stimulation
c) Decrease Urine secretion
d) Increase urine Secretion
Ans: - d) Increase urine Secretion
348. Benzthiazide is
a) Moderately potent
b) Thiazide derivative
c) High ceiling diuretics
d) Both a&b
e) Both b&c
Ans: - d) Both a&b
349. Very potent/loop/high ceilings diuretic is
a) Furosemide
b) Triamterene
c) Ammoniam chloride
d) Calcium chloride
Ans: - a) Furosemide
350. Which diuretic contain furan heterocycle
a) Frusemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Hydrochlorothiazide

154
 d) Urea
Ans: - a) Furosemide
351. Which of the given is the Brand name of furosemide
a) Lasix
b) Cotaryl
c) Valium
d) Benadryl
And: - a) Lasix
352. Which is an aldosterone blocking agent?
a) Spironolactone
b) Amiloride
c) Urea
d) Mannitol
Ans: - Spironolactone
353. Loop diuretics are also known as
a) Very potent
b) High ceilings diuretics
c) Both of them
d) None of them
Ans: -Both of them
354. Which of these is intermediate acting insulin
a) Neutral insulin
b) Ultra-lante insulin
c) Isophane insulin
d) None of them
Ans: -c) Isophane insulin
355. Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Polyphagia
c) Polydipsia
d) All of them
Ans: - d) all of them
356. Enzymes in digestive fluids which inactivate insulin are
a) Pepsin and chymotrypsin
b) Trypsin and histidine
c) Histamine and antihistamines
d) None of them
Ans: -a) Pepsin and chymotrypsin
357. DiaBeta brand contains
a) Furosemide
b) Glibanclamide/ Glyburide
c) Ethacrynic acid
d) Acarbose
Ans: - b) Glibanclamide/Glyburide

155
358. Glibenclamide is also known as
a) Glyburide
b) Glipizide
c) Glipmine

d) Glipilime
And: - a) Glyburide
359. Dibeta SR is the brand name of
a) Furosemide
b) Metformin
c) Ethacrynic acid
d) Acarbose
And:-b) Metformin
360. Insulin is secreted by which cells of pancreases
a) Beta-cells of langerhans
b) Alpha -cells of langerhans
c) Gamma -cells of langerhans
d) U-cells of langerhans
Ans: - a) Beta-cells of langerhans
361. Insulin should be stored at
a) 2-9 degree
b) 2-8 degree
c) 2-6 degree
d) 2-5 degree
Ans:-b) 2-8 degree
362. Amongst the given insulin preparations, which one is long-
actinginsulin?
a) Isophane insulin
b) Lente insulin
c) Ultralente insulin
d) Neutral insulin
Ans: -c) Ultralente insulin
363. Analgesics decreases pain by acting on......
a) CNS or peripherally without altering consciousness.
b) Hypothalamus altering consciousness
c) CNS by altering consciousness
d) Hypothalamus without altering consciousness
Ans: - a) CNS Or peripherally without altering consciousness.
364. Aspirin is also known as
a) Citric acid
b) Acetyl salicylic acid
c) Acetic acid
d) None of them
Ans:-b) Acetyl salicylic acid

156
365. Aspirin is used as .......
a) Analgesic
b) Anti-rheumatic
c) Anti-inflammatory
d) All of them
Ans: - d) All of them
366. Preferential COX-2 inhibitor is....
a) Piroxicam
b) Diclofenac
c) Rofecoxib
d) Aspirin
Ans:-b) Diclofenac
[Link] acetic acid derivative...
a) Ibuprofen
b) Paracetalamol
c) Diclofenac
d) Phenacetin
Ans: - c) Diclofenac
368. Ecosprin is brand name of
a) Spironolactone
b) Paracetamol
c) Aspirin
d) Salicylic acid
Ans: - c) Aspirin
369. Selective COX-2 inhibiter is....
a) Paracetamol
b) Celecoxib
c) Aspirin
d) Diclofenac
Ans: - b) Celecoxib
370. Enolic acid derivative is
a) Indole
b) Piroxicam
c) Diclofenac
d) Mefenamic acid
Ans:-b) Piroxicam
371. Example of NSAID
a) Morphine
b) Aspirin
c) Cortisone
d) Naloxone
Ans: - b) Aspirin
372. Abbreviation of NSAID
a) Narcotic steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
b) Narcotic substance and inotropic drugs

157
 c) Non-steroidalanti-inflammatory drug
d) Non-steroidal and inflammatory drug
Ans: -c) Non-steroidalanti-inflammatory drug
373. MOA of NSAID is
a) Inhibit the release and synthesis of prostaglandin

b) Inhibit the Cox enzymes

c) Both a&b
d) None of them
Ans: -c) Both a&b
374. Bufan brand name contains
a) Ibuprofen
b) Paracetamol
c) Aspirin
d) Piroxicam
And: -a) Ibuprofen
[Link] the drug belonging to topical azoles class
a) Para amino salicylic acid
b) Clotrimazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Terbinafine
And:-b) Clotrimazole
[Link] is from......
a) Triazole class
b) Topical azoles
c) Allylamines
d) None of the above
Ans: - a)Triazole class
377. Griseofulvin is
a) Triazole class
b) Topical azoles
c) Benzofuran heterocycle containing antifungal agent
d) All of the above
Ans: - c) Benzofuran heterocycle containing antifungal agent
378. Drugs used in treatment of mycoses is
a) Tolnaftate
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Fluconazole
d) All of the above
Ans:- d) All of the above
379. Candidiasis is
a) Fungal infection in stomach
b) Fungal infection in intestine
c) Fungal infection on skin

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 d) None of them
Ans:- c) Fungal infection on skin
[Link] pedis is...
a) Leprosy
b) Athletes foot
c) Ringworm infection

d) None of them
Ans: - b) Athletes foot
[Link]-B is derived from
a) Streptomyces nodosus
b) Streptomyces noursei
c) Streptomyces griseus
d)None of them
Ans:- a) Streptomyces nodosus
382. IUPAC name of INH is
a) Pyrazine-4-carbohydrazide
b) Pyridine-4-carbohydrazide
c) Pyrimidine-4-carbohydrazide
d) Pyridine 4-carboxamide
Ans: -a) Pyridine-4-carbohydrazide
383. Name the drug containing pyrazine ring...
a) Para amino salicylic acid
b) Pyrazinamide
c) Isoniazid
d) Ethambutol
Ans: - b) Pyrazinamide
384. Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line drug of tuberculosis
a) Ethionamide
b) Ethambutol
c) Thioacetazone
d) Isoniazid
Ans: - b) Ethambutol
385. Functional group present in INH
a) Carboxamide
b) Carbonyl group
c) Carboxylic group
d) Carbohydrazide
Ans: - d) Carbohydrazide
386. Storage condition for rifampicin is....
a) Temperature below 15°C
b) Temperature above 15°C
c) Temperature should be 30°C
d) Temperature between 15°C-30°C
Ans: -a) Temperature below 15°C

159
[Link] of these antitubercular drugs are also active against leprosy
a) Ethambutol
b) Diazepam
c) Haldol

d) Isoniazid
Ans:-a) Ethambutol
388. First line antitubercular drugs are having...
a) High efficacy, high potency, Less side effect
b) Low efficacy, high potency. Less side effect
c) High efficacy, low potency, Less side effect
d) Low efficacy low potency, Less side effect
Ans: - a) High efficacy, high potency, less side effect
389. Major Symptoms of TB is
a) Fever
b) Pain
c) Weight loss
d) Persistent cough (Chronic)
Ans: -d) Persistent cough (Chronic)
390. Salicylic acid derivative belonging to Anti TB is
a) Methyl salicylic acid
b) Para amino salicylic acid (PAS)
c) Acetyl salicylic acid
d) Salicylic acid
Ans:-b) Para amino salicylic acid (PAS)
391. Which of the following can be usedin pregnancy to treat malaria
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Pyrazinamide
Ans: - b) Chloroquine
392. Antimalarial drug belonging to pyrimidine derivative is
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Pyrazinamide
Ans:-a) Pyrimethamine
393. The antimalarial drug having gametocidal effect is
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Primaquine
Ans:-d) Primaquine
394. Malaria is caused due to
a) Plasmodium vivax

160
 b) Plasmodium falciparum
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) All of the above
Ans: - d) All of the above

395. Why only female anopheles mosquito is responsible for malaria

a) To obtain blood needed to nurture their eggs
b) They can only bite
c) Male cannot bite
d) Male can lead to another disease
Ans: - a) To obtain blood needed to nurture their eggs
396. Malignant malarial attack is caused due to
a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Plasmodium falciparum
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium ovale
Ans:-b) Plasmodium falciparum
397. Chloroquine act by
a) inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis
b) inhibiting hemozoin formation
c) Inhibiting benzoin formation
d) DHFR inhibition
Ans: -b) inhibiting hemozoin formation
398. Amoquin is Brand name of
a) Pentaquine
b) Chloroquine
c) Amodiaquine
d) Quinacrine
Ans: - b) Chloroquine
399. Unwanted effect of SULPHONAMIDE is....
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Peripheral neuritis
c) Crystalluria
d) Black water fever
Ans: - c) Crystalluria
400. SULPHONAMIDE used in eye infection....
a) Sulfamethoxazole
b) Sulfadiazine
c) Sulfadimethoxine
d) Sulfacetamide
Ans: - d) Sulfacetamide
401. SULPHONAMIDE used in treatment of burn infection is
a) Sulfamethoxazole
b) Sulfadiazine
c) Silver Sulfadiazine

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 d) Sulfacetamide
And:- c) Silver Sulfadiazine
402. COTRIMOXAZOLE IS the combination of...
a) Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
b) Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine
c) Trimethoprim andmephedrone
d) Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
Ans: -a) Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
403. Two famous brand names of COTRIMOXAZOLE...
a) Septran, Sepmax
b) Setride, Phenosulf
c) Ganicil, Aubril
d) Debenal, Aubril
Ans: -a) Septran, Sepmax
404. Drug containing PYRIMIDINE ring…..
a) Sulfamethoxazole
b) Sulfadiazine
c) Sulfadazine
d) Sulfamethoxine
Ans: - b) Sulfadiazine
405. IUPAC Name of SULPHAMETHOXAZOLE is
a) N'(2-methyl-4-isoxazolyl) sulfonamide
b) NI (5-methyl-3-isoxazolyl) sulfanilamide
c) N'(5-methyl-3-isoxazolyl) sulfonamide
d) N'(2-methyl-3-isoxazolyl) sulfonamide
Ans:-b) NI (5-methyl-3-isoxazolyl) sulfanilamide
[Link] the moiety present inSULPHONAMIDES
a) Acridine
b) Sulfanilamide
c) Sulphamoyl
d) None of them
Ans:-b) Sulfanilamide
407. DAPSONE is
a) Sulphonyldianiline
b) Sulfadiazine
c) Sulphahydrine
d) None of the above
Ans: - a) Sulphonyldianiline
408. SULPHONAMIDE act by
a) Competitive inhibitor of PABA
b) Non Competitive inhibition
c) Competitive stimulation
d) None of them
Ans: - a) Competitive inhibitor of PABA

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[Link] are
a) Bactericidal
b) Bacteriostatic
c) Bacteriomatic
d) Bacteriovatic
Ans:-b) Bacteriostatic
410. Intermediate acting SULPHONAMIDE is
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulfamethoxazole
c) Sulphaguanidine
d) Sulphacetamide
Ans: - d) Sulphacetamide
411. Penicillin - G is also known as
a) Benzyl Penicillin
b) Phenoxy methyl penicillin
c) Propyl penicillin
d) Phenyl penicillin
Ans:-a) Benzyl Penicillin
412. Route of administration of Ampicillin......
a) Intradermal
b) Subcutaneous
c) Sublingual
d) Intravenous
Ans: - d) Intravenous
413. Major side effect of Tetracycline...
a) Nausea
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Hepatic toxicity
d) Diarrhea
Ans: - c) Hepatic toxicity
414. Brand name of erythromycin is.....
a) Althrocin
b) Grisorol-Fp
c) Achromycin
d) Otocin
Ans:- a) Althrocin
415. Basic structure of Penicillin include
a) Beta lactam ring
b) Thiazolidine ring
c) Both
d) None of the above
Ans: - c) Both
416. Erythromycin is
a) Macrolide antibiotic
b) Antifungal

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 c) Antiviral
d) None of them
Ans: a) Macrolide antibiotic
417. Brand names of tetracycline....
a) Campicillin, Ampilox

b) Hostacycline, Tetrastar
c) DoloCrocin
d) None of them
Ans: - b) Hostacycline, Tetrastar
[Link] a bacteriostatic antibiotic
a) Penicillin
b) Erythromycin
c) Cephalosporin
d) Amikacin
Ans: - b) Erythromycin
419. Protein synthesis inhibitor is .......
a) Amikacin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Ampicillin
d) Tetracycline
Ans: - b) Chloramphenicol
420. Metabolic pathway inhibitor is....
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Ampicillin
c) Tetracycline
d) Sulfamethoxazole
Ans:-d) Sulphamethoxazole
431. Anticancer drugs are also known as...
a) Anti-neoplastic drugs
b) Cytotoxic drugs
c) Both a&b
d) None of them
Ans: -c) Both a&b
432. Antibiotics working on cancer treatment are obtained from
a) Streptomyces
b) Streptococcus
c) Staphylococcus
d) Neissereia
Ans:- a) Streptomyces
[Link] of these belongs to nitrogen mustard class
a) Methotrexate
b) Azathioprine
c) Cyclophosphamide

164
 d) 6- Mercaptopurine
Ans:- c) Cyclophosphamide
434. Antimetabolites purine antagonist is
a) Methotrexate
b) Azathioprine
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) 6- Mercaptopurine
Ans: - d) 6- Mercaptopurine
435. From antimetabolites pyrimidine antagonist is.....
a) Methotrexate
b) 5-flutouracil
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) 6- Mercaptopurine
Ans:-b) 5-flutouracil
436. Folic acid antagonist is
a) Methotrexate
b) 5-flutouracil
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) 6- Mercaptopurine
Ans: - a) Methotrexate
[Link] natural plant products having anti-cancerous properties
a) Vincristine
b) Vinblastine
c) Both a&b
d) None of them
Ans: - c) Both a & b
438. Alkylating agents works by....
a) Interfering in DNA replication and inhibiting it's synthesis
b) By interfering with cell wall synthesis
c) By inhibiting the metabolic pathway
d) None of them.
Ans: a) Interfering in DNA replication and inhibiting its synthesis
439. Anticancer drug used in treatment of ectopic pregnancy
a) Methotrexate
b) S-fluorouracil
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) 6- Mercaptopurine
Ans: -a) Methotrexate

165
 Section- F
(Biochemistry and clinical
pathology)

166
1. The common monosaccharides formula is
a) CnH2nOn
b) C2nH2On
c) CnH2O2n
d) CnH2nO2n
Ans: a) CnH2nOn
2. The common polysaccharides formula is
a) (C6H10O5)n
b) (C6H12O5)n
c) (C6H10O6)n
d)C6H10O6)n
Ans :a) (C6H10O5)n
3. α-D-glucose and β -D-glucose are
a) Stereoisomers
b) Epimers
c) Anomers
d) Keto-aldo pairs
Ans : b)Anomers
4. Two sugar molecules differ from each other only in configuration
around a single carbon atom are referred as
a) Epimers
b) Anomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Stereoisomers
Ans: a) Epimers
5. Compounds having different spatial configuration but structurally
similar are termed as
a) Stereoisomers
b) Anomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Epimers.
Ans: a) Stereoisomers
6. The carbohydrate of the blood group substancesis
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Arabinose
d) Maltose
Ans: b) Fructose
7. Which of the following is sugar alcohol
a) Mannitol
b) Trehalose
c) Xylulose
d) Arabinos
Ans: a) Mannitol
8. Invert sugar is

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 a) Lactose
b) Sucrose
c) Hydrolytic products of sucrose
d) Fructose
Ans: c) Hydrolytic products of sucrose
9. The composition of Sucrose is
a) Glucose + glucose
b) Glucose + fructose
c) Glucose + galactose
d) Glucose + mannose
Ans: b) Glucose + fructose
10. Name the non-reducing sugar from the following
a) Isomaltose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Trehalose
Ans: d) Trehalose
11. Name the reducing sugar from the following
a) Sucrose
b) Trehalose
c) Isomaltose
d) Agar
Ans: c) Isomaltose
12. Mutarotation defines as Change in pH
a) Change in optical rotation
b) Conductance
c) Chemical properties
Ans: b) Optical rotation
13. Polysaccharides refers as
a) Contain many monosaccharide units which may or may not be of the
same kind
b) Function mainly a storage or structural compounds
c) Are present in large amounts in connective tissue
d) All ofthese
Ans: d) All of these
14. Which of the following is not synthesized from Acetyl CoA
a) Fatty acid
b) Cholesterol
c) Pyruvic acid
d) Citric acid
Ans: c) Pyruvic acid

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15. Which of the following statements on glucose metabolism is true?
a) The conversion of Glucose to lactate occurs only in theR.B.C 227
b) Glucose enters most cells by a mechanism in which Na+ and glucose
are cotransported
c) Pyruvate kinase catalyses an irreversiblereaction
d) An elevated level of insulin leads to a decreased level of fructose 2, 6-
bisphosphate in hepatocyte
Ans: c) Pyruvate kinase catalyses an irreversible reaction
16. The glycolysis is mediated by
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
17. Which of the following enzyme is not required in HMP shunt?
a) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase
b) Glucose-6-p-dehydrogenase
c) Transketolase
d) Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
Ans: a) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase
18. Cori cycle is
a) Synthesis of glucose
b) reuse of glucose
c) uptake of glycose
d) Both a) & b)
Ans: b) Both a) & b)
19. Monosaccharides and disaccharide is distinguished by which test?
a) Bial’s test
b) Seliwanoff’s test
c) Barfoed’s test
d) Hydrolysis test
Ans: c) Barfoed’s test
20. Which of the following is not reduced by Barfoed’s solution?
a) Glucose
b) Mannose
c) Sucrose
d) Ribose
Ans: c) Sucros

169
21. Identify the true statements regarding [Link]
a) It is an anaerobicprocess

b) It occurs incytosol

c) It contains no intermediates forGluconeogenesis

d) It is amphibolic innature

Ans: d) It is amphibolic innature

22. Glucose enters into the cellsby
a) Insulin independenttransport

b) Insulin dependenttransport

c) Enzyme mediatedtransport

d) Both a) and b)

Ans: d) Both a) and b)

23. With concentrated urine, Benedict's test is less likely to produce
weakly positive results because of action of
a) Urea
b) Uric acid
c) Ammonium salts
d) Phosphates
Ans: b) Uric acid
24. Identify the true statements regarding [Link]
a) It is an anaerobicprocess

a) It occurs incytosol

b) It contains no intermediates forGluconeogenesis

c) It is amphibolic innature

Ans: d) It is amphibolic innature

22. Glucose enters into the cellsby
a) Insulin independenttransport

b) Insulin dependenttransport

c) Enzyme mediatedtransport

d) Both a) and b)

170
 Ans: d) Both a) and b)
23. With concentrated urine, Benedict's test is less likely to produce
weakly positive results because of action of
a) Urea
b) Uric acid
c) Ammonium salts
d) Phosphates
Ans: b) Uric acid
24. Tissues produce lactic acid from glucose. This phenomenon is
knownas
a) Aerobic glycolysis
b) Oxidation
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d)Anaerobic glycolysis
Ans: d) Anaerobic glycolysis
25. An allosteric enzyme which is responsible for regulating the rate of T.C.A
cycle is

a) Malatedehydrogenase

b) Isocitratedehydrogenase

c) Fumarase

d) Aconitase

Ans: b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

26. Which of the following is act as rate limiting enzyme of
gluconeogenesis?
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d) Pyruvate kinase
Ans: c) Pyruvate carboxylase
27. In glycogenesis process, Glucose molecule should be converted to
a) Glucuronic acid
b) Pyruvic acid
c) UDP glucose
d) Sorbitol
Ans: c) UDP glucose
28. Before pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle it must be converted to
a) Acetyl CoA

171
 b) Lactate
c) α-ketoglutarate
d) Citrate
Ans: c) Acetyl CoA
29. Dextrose is also known as
a) Dextrin
b) D-Fructose
c) D-Glucose
d) Glycogen
Ans: c) D-Glucose
30. All proteins contain the
a) Same 20 amino acids
b) Different amino acids
c) 300 Amino acids occurring in nature
d) Only a few amino acids
Ans: a) Same 20 amino acids
31. Proteins contain which of the following
a) Only L- α - amino acids
b) Only D-amino acids
c) L-Amino acids
d) Both (A) and (B)
Ans: a) Only L- α – amino acids
32. Sulphur containing amino acid is
a) Methionine
b) Valine
c) Leucine
d) Asparagine
Ans: a) Methionine
33. Name the essential amino acid
a) Aspartate
b) Tyrosine
c) Methionine
d) Serin
Ans: c) Methionine
34. Which of the following is true for non essential amino acids?
a) Are not components of tissue proteins
b) May be synthesized in the body from essential aminoacids
c) Have no role in the metabolism
d) May be synthesized in the body in diseased states

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 Ans: b) May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids
35. Protein naturation results in
a) Disruption of primary structure
b) Breakdown of peptide bonds
c) Destruction of hydrogen bonds
d) Irreversible changes in the molecule
Ans: b) Breakdown of peptide bonds
36. Million-Nasse’s reaction is specific for the amino acid:
a) Valine
b) Tyrosine
c) Methionine
d) Arginie
Ans: b) Tyrosine
37. Histones are referred as
a) Identical to protamine
b) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine
c) Proteins with high molecular weight
d) Insoluble in water and very dilute acids
Ans: b) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine
38. The α-helix and β-pleated sheet in protein are examples of
a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure
Ans: b) Secondary structure
39. The description of tertiary structure of a protein is
a) The order of amino acids
b) Location of disulphide bonds
c) Loop regions of proteins
d) The ways of protein folding
Ans: d) The ways of proteinfolding
40. Conversion of trypsinogen to active trypsinrequired
a) Enterokinase
b) Bile salts
c) HCl
d) Mg+
Ans: a) Enterokinase
41. In G.I.T., the result of protein digestion
a) Dipeptide

173
 b) Tripeptide
c) Polypeptide
d) Amino acid
Ans: d) Amino acid
42. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found in
a) Mitochondria only
b) Cytosol only
c) Both mitochondria and cytosol
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Both mitochondria and cytosol
43. A substance acting as a connection between the urea cycle and the
citric acid cycle is
a) Malate
b) Citrate
c) Succinate
d) Fumarate
Ans: d) Fumarate
44. The following enzyme regulates the urea cycle
a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
b) Ornithine transcarbamylase
c) Argininosuccinase
d) Arginase
Ans: a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
45. Tryptophan could be considered as precursor of
a) Melanotonin
b) Thyroid hormones
c) Melanin
d) Epinephrine
Ans: a) Melanotonin
46. The rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholaminesis
a) Decarboxylation of dihydroxyphenylalanine
b) Hydroxylation of phenylalanine
c) Hydroxylation of tyrosine
d) Oxidation of dopamine
Ans: c) Hydroxylation of tyrosine
47. Ninhydrin with evolution of CO2 forms a blue complex with
a) Peptide-bond
b) α-Aminoacids
c) Serotonin

174
 d) Histamin
Ans: b) α-Amino acids
48. Which of the following is a dipeptide?
a) Anserine
b) Glutathione
c) Glucagon
d) β Lipoprotein
Ans: a) Anserine
49. How does a protein stabilize its secondary structure?
a) Van der wall forces
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Covalent bond
d) Hydrophobic bond
Ans: b) Hydrogen bonding
50. Which of the following reactions of urea cycle requires ATP
a) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and citrulline
b) Synthesis of citrulline and argininosuccinate
c) Synthesis of argininosuccinate and arginine
d) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and argininosuccinate
Ans: c) Synthesis of argininosuccinate and arginine
51. Which is requires for biosynthesis of proteins
a) Amino acids
b) Amino acids and nucleic acids
c) Amino acid, nucleic acids and ATP
d) Amino acids, nucleic acids, ATP, GTP, enzymes and activators
Ans:d) Amino acids, nucleic acids, ATP, GTP, enzymes and
activators are required
52. The link between the TCA cycle and urea cycle is
a) Fumarate
b) Malate
c) Pyruvate
d) Citrate
Ans: a) Fumarate
53. Pyruvic acid can be obtained by transamination of alanine with
a) α- keto glutaric acid
b) Acetoacetic acid
c) β−OH butyric acid
d) Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid
Ans: a) α- keto glutaric acid

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54. One of the following 4 amino acids is not require for completion of
urea cycle except, identify
a) Aspartic acid
b) Arginine
c) Ornithine
d) Glycine
Ans: d) Glycine
59. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at which it has a
a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) No charge
d) None of these
Ans: b) Negative charge
60. Many proteins have hydrogen bonding, which leads in a coiled pattern
known as
a) α-helix
b) β-helix
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Ans: a). α-helix
61. Transamination is a
a) Irreversible process
b) Reversible process
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Ans. b) Reversible process
62. Hemoglobin contains a protein with a structure known as
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quarternary
Ans: d) Quarternary
63. Proteinous compounds that catalyse biological processes are referred
to as
a) Activators
b) Catalysts
c) Enzymes
d) Hormones
Ans: c) Enzymes

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64. Million’s test show positive result for
a) Phenylalanine
b) Glycine
c) Tyrosine
d) Proline
Ans: c) Tyrosin
65. Biuret test is identification test for
a) Two peptide linkage
b) Phenolic group
c) Imidazole ring
d) None of these
Ans: a) Two peptide linkage
66. Which of the following is not a lipid?
a) Phospholipid
b) Steroid
c) Carbohydrate
d) Triglyceride
Ans: c) Carbohydrate
67. One of the following is not a function ofproteins, identify
a) Catalysis of chemicalreactions
b) Storage of geneticinformation
c) Transport of molecules across membranes
d) Structural support
Ans: b) Storage of genetic information
68. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a) Catalyzing chemical reactions
b) Storing genetic information
c) Providing structuralsupport
d) Transporting molecule
Ans: b) Storing geneticinformation
69. Triglyceride is a
a) Simple lipid
b) Complex lipid
c) Derived lipid
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Derived lipid
70. Which of the following molecules can help proteins fold by acting as
molecular chaperons?
a) Carbohydrate

177
 b) Vitmin
c) Lipids
d) Amides
Ans: c) Lipid
71. Which of the following macromolecules has the greatest possible
structural changes among all living things?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) [Link] d) Lipids
Ans: d) Lipids
72. Vitamins are
a) Accessory food factors
b) Generally synthesized in the body
c) Produced in endocrine glands
d) Proteins in nature
Ans: a) Accessory food factors
73. Vitamin A or retinal is a
a) Steroid
b) Polyisoprenoid compound containing acyclohexenyl ring
c) Benzoquinone derivative
d) 6-Hydroxychromane
Ans: b) Polyisoprenoid compound containing acyclohexenyl ring
74. Fat soluble vitaminsare
a) Soluble in alcohol
b) One or more Propene units
c) Stored in liver
d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
75. One manifestation of vitamin A deficiency is
a) Painful joints
b) Night blindness
c) Loss of hair
d) Thickening of long bones
Ans: a) Night blindness
76. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
a) Ricket and osteomalacia
b) Tuberculosis of bone
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Skin cance

178
 Ans: a) Ricket and osteomalacia
77. The most important natural antioxidant is
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin K
Ans: b) Vitamin E
78. Which of the following vitamins aids in blood clotting?
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin A
Ans: a) Vitamin K
79. Beriberi is caused due by the deficiency of
a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin B1
Ans: d) Vitamin B1
80. Which of the following nutrient deficiencies cause megaloblastic
anemia?
a) Pyridoxine
b) Niacin
c) Folic acid
d) Cobalmine
Ans: c) folic acid
81. Which of the following is a hormone precursor vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin D
Ans: d) Vitamin D
82. Which vitamin among the following have coenzyme function?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
83. Find the water-soluble vitamin?

179
 a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin C
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
84. Ascorbic acid also acts as an
a) Reducing agent
b) Oxidizing agent
c) Oxidizing and reducing agent both
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Reducing agent
85. What is Thymine?
a) Water soluble vitamin
b) Fat soluble vitamin
c) Purine base
d) Pyrimidine base
Ans: d) Pyrimidine base
86. Which of the following isthe most essential nutrient for a woman to
prevent birth defects during pregnancy?
a) Thiamin
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin
Ans: (b) Folic acid
87. Which of the following is a composition of coenzymeA?
a) Retinol
b) Pyridoxine
c) Retinoic acid
d) Pantothenic acid
Ans: d) Pantothenic acid
88. Which of the following is not true about Ascorbic acid?
a) It shows antioxidant activity
b) It is a strong reducingagent
c) It can be synthesized in the body
d) Involved in the hydroxylation of prolyl and lysyl-residues of collagen
Ans: c) It can be synthesized in the body
89. Match the following
a) Vitamin B12 1. biotin
b) Vitamin B1 2. Ascorbic acid

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 c) Vitamin C 3. Thiamine
d) Vitamin H 4. Cyanocobalamin a) a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1 b) a-4 b-2 c-1 d-3 c)a-
3 b-4 c-1 d-2 d) a—2 b-3 c-4 d-1
Ans: a) a – 4 b – 3 c – 2 d – 1
90. What is the main basis for the classification of the vitamins?
a) Structure
b) Functions
c) Solubility
d) Composition
Ans: c) Solubility
91. Another name of niacin?
a) Vitamin B3
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin B5
d) Vitamin D
Ans: a) Vitamin B3
92. Which of the following vitamin act as reducingagent?
a) Biotin
b) Folic acid
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Pyridoxine
Ans: c) Ascorbic acid
93. Vitamin B1 coenzyme (TPP) also involved in
a) Oxidative decarboxylation
b) Hydroxylation c) Transamination
d) Carboxylation
Ans: a) Oxidative decarboxylation
94. Which vitamin deficiency cause Magenta tongue
a) Riboflavin
b) Thiamin
c) Nicotinic acid
d) Pyridoxie
Ans: a) Riboflavin
95. Vitamin is essential for tansaminations?
a) Nicotinamide
b) Pyridoxine
c) Thiamine
d) Riboflavin
Ans: d) Riboflavin

181
96. Enzymes are
a) Lipids
b) carbohydrates
c) Proteins
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Proteins
97. The catalytic behaviour of enzyme depends on which factor
a) Primary structure of protein
b) Secondary structure of proteins
c) Tertiary structure of proteins
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
98. The inactive form of enzyme is also knownas
a) Co-enzyme
b) Zymogen
c) Co-factor
d) Both B and C
Ans: b) Zymogen
99. Which enzymes are required to catalyse the hydrogen transfer
reaction?
a) Reductase
b) Dehydrogenase
c) Oxidases
d) Peroxidases
Ans: b) Dehydrogenase
100. Name the enzyme catalyzes the transfer a group from one molecule
to another?
a) Transferase
b). Oxidoreductase
c) Hydrolase
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Transferase
101. All digestive enzymes are classified as?
a) Transferase
b) Oxidoreductase
c) Hydrolase
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Hydrolase

182
102. Enzymatic activity is changed due to which type of attachment
between enzyme and molecule
a) Metallic
b) Covalent
c) Peptide
d) Glycosidic bond
Ans: b) Covalent
103. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) Effectors and modifiers are same
b) Allosteric enzyme do not obey double-reciprocal plot
c) Lactate dehydrogenase have 5 isomers
d) Phosphorylation is an example of covalent modification
Ans: b) Allosteric enzyme do not obey double-reciprocal plot
[Link] are?
a) Same size of enzyme but different function
b) Different function different size
c) Multiple forms of enzyme
d) Both A and B
Ans: c) Multiple forms of enzyme
105. Whch enzymes are known as allostericenzymes?
a) Those having active site
b) Those having allosteric site
c) Those having modifiers
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
106. When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate
concentration, which of the following is obtained?
a) Hyperbolic curve
b) Parabola
c) Straight line with positive slope
d) Straight line with negativeslope
Ans: a) Hyperbolic curve
107. Which one of the following is known as rate determining step of
Michaelis Menten kinetics?
a) The complex dissociation step to produce products
b) The complex formation steps
c) The product formation step
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a) The complex dissociation step to produce products

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 108. The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic
rate is
a) Repressor
b) Inhibitor
c) Modulator
d) Regulator
Ans: b) Inhibitor
109. Holoenzyme is
a) Functional unit
b) Apo enzyme
c) Coenzyme
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Functional unit
110. Competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
a) Competes with the enzyme
b) Irreversibly binds with the enzyme
c) Binds with the substrate
d) Competes with the substrate
Ans: d. Competes with the substrate
111. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following.
a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine
Ans: d) Adenine
112. Which of the following are not the components of RNA?
a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Cytosine
Ans: a) Thymine
113. Which of the following statements istrue?
a) Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
b) Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
c) The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a
glycosidic linkage
d) The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
Ans: c) The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar
moiety by a glycosidic linkage

184
114. What is the composition of nucleoside?
a) a sugar + a phosphate
b) a base + a sugar
c) a base + a phosphate
d) a base + a sugar + phosphate
Ans: b) a base + a sugar
115. What is the composition of nucleotide?
a) a sugar + a phosphate
b) a base + a sugar
c) a base + a phosphate
d) a base + a sugar + phosphate
Ans: d) a base + a sugar + phosphate
116. The sugar moiety found in DNA is
a) Deoxyribose
b) Ribose
c) Lyxose
d) Ribulose
Ans: a) Deoxyribose
117. In DNA molecule
a) Guanine content does not equal cytosine content
b) Adenine content does not equal thymine content
c) Adenine content equals to thymine content
d) Guanine content equals cytosine content
Ans: d) Guanine content equals cytosine content
118. An increased melting temperature of duplex DNA results from a high
content of
a) Adenine + Thymine
b) Thymine + Cytosine
c) Cytosine + Uracil
d) Cytosine + Adenine
Ans: b) Thymine + Cytosine
119. The first codon to be translated on mRNA is
a) AUG
b) GGU
c) GGA
d) AAA
Ans: a) AUG
120. Which of the following is false about phosphodiester linkage?

185
 a) 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl
group of the next nucleotide
b) 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl
group of the next nucleotide
c) 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl
group of the next nucleotide
d) 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl
group of the next nucleotide
Ans: a) 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-
hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide
121. Building blocks of nucleic acids are ___
a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleosides
c) Amino acids
d) Histones
Ans: a) Nucleotides
122. Biosynthesis of proteins need chain terminating codons, they are
a) UAA, UAG and UGA
b) UGG, UGU and AGU
c) AAU, AAG andGAU
d) GCG, GCA and GCU
Ans: a) UAA, UAG and UGA
123. Replication of DNAis
a) Conservative
b) Semi-conservative
c) Non-conservative
d) None of these
Ans: b) Semi-conservative
124. Direction of DNA synthesisis
a) 5’ →3’
b) 3’ →5’
c) Both a) and
b) d) None of these
Ans: a) 5’ →3’
125. Formation of RNA primer is due to
a) Precedes replication
b) Follows replication
c) Precedes transcription
d) Follows transcription

186
 Ans: a) Precedes replication
126. Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) DNA
Ans: d) DNA
127. Daily requirement of macronutrients (mg/kg)
a) =100
b) >10 0
c) =50
d) >50
Ans: b).>100
128. Deficiency of calcium in the body due to the absence of
a) Vit A
b) Vit D
c) Vit B
d) Vit C
Ans: b)Vit d
129. Citric acid cycle is also knownas
a) Glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle
c) Glycogenesis
d) Glycogenolysis
Ans: b) Krebs cycle
130. The major lipids involved in formation of cell membrane are
a) Triglycerides
b) Phospholipids
c) Sphingomyelins
d) Fatty acids
Ans: b) Phospholipids
131. Triglyceride is a
a) Simple lipid
b) Complex lipid
c) Derived lipid
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Derived lipid
132. A fatty acid that is not synthesized in man is
a) Linoleic acid

187
 b) Oleic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Stearic acid
Ans: a) Linoleic acid
133. Synthesis of fatty acid occursin
a) Cytosol
b) Mitochondria
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) All of the above
Ans: a) cytosol
134. Ketone bodies are fromed due to metabolism of
a) Carbohydrate
b) Protein
c) Fat
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
135. The degree of unsaturation of lipids can be measured as
a) Iodine number
b) Saponification number
c) Reichert Meissel number
d) Polenske number
Ans: a) Iodine number
136. This is an example of derived lipids
a) Terpenes
b) Steroids
c) Carotenoids
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
137. The fats and oils are rich in , respectively
a) Unsaturated fatty acids
b) Saturated fatty acids
c) Saturated and unsaturated fatty acids
d) None of these
Ans: c) Saturated and unsaturated fatty acids
138. Which of the following is not true about lipids?
a) They are either strongly hydrophobic or amphipathic
b) They are more soluble in water
c) Extraction of lipids from tissues require organic solvents
d) They are insoluble in water

188
 Ans: b) They are more soluble in water
139. One of the following is not anaerobic reaction?
a) Glycolysis
b) Oxidative phosphorylation
c) Fermentation Citric acid cycle
d) Citric acid cycle
Ans: c) Fermentation Citric acid cycle
140. The product essential for oxidative phosphorylation in the kreb’s
Cycle is
a) NADPH and ATP
b) Acetyl CoA
c) CO2 and oxaloacetate
d) NADH and FADH2
Ans: d) NADH and FADH2
141. In Kreb’s cycle a single-molecule of glucose generates molecules
of Acetyl CoA
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Ans: c) 2
142. Which of the following accepts hydrogen from malate?
a) FAD
b) NAD
c) NADP
d) FM N
Ans: b) NAD
143. Which Krebs cycle Intermediate is used in the synthesis of Amino
Acids?
a) Citric acid
b) Malic acid
c) Isocitric acid
d) 𝛼-ketoglutaric acid
Ans: d) 𝛼-ketoglutaric acid
144. Kreb cycle takes place in aerobic respiration, because
a) Electron transport chain requires aerobic conditions to operate
b) Oxygen is a reactant
c) Oxygen has a catalytic function
d) All of the above

189
 Ans: a) a) Electron transport chain requires aerobic conditions to
operate
145. Compounds are formed in urea cycle
a) Argininosuccinate
b) Ornithine
c) Fumarate
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
146. The first amino group entering into urea cycle obtained from
a) Carbamoyl phosphate
b) Ornithine
c) Citrulline
d) Argininosuccinate
Ans: a) carbamoyl phosphate
147. In urea cycle nitrogen molecules are derived from
a) Ammonia and aspartic acid
b) Nitrate
c) Nitrite
d) Ammonia
Ans: a) Ammonia and aspartic acid
148. Name the byproducts of urea
a) One urea molecule, one ammonia molecule, one ATP molecule, and o
ne fumaric acid molecule
b) One urea molecule, one AMP molecule, two ADP molecule, and one
fumaric acid molecule.
c) One aspartic acid molecule, one ammonia molecule, one ATP
molecule, and one fumaric acid molecule.
d) Two urea molecules, two ammonia molecules, one ATP molecule, and
one fumaric acid molecule.
Ans: b) One urea molecule, one AMP molecule, two ADP molecule,
and one fumaric acid molecule.
149. In urea cycle's the source of carbon atoms while producing urea is.
a) CO2
b) Glucose
c) aspartic acid
d) Arginine.
Ans: a) CO2
150. In urea cycle which of the following conversion takes place
a) Keto acids into amino acids

190
 b) Amino acids into keto acids
c) Ammonia into a less toxic form
d) Ammonia into a more toxic form
Ans: c) Ammonia into a less toxic form
151. What constitutes a single urea cycle cycle?
a) One molecule each of carbon dioxide, ammonia, three ATP molecules,
and aspartic acid
b) One urea molecule, one AMP molecule, two ADP molecules, and one
fumaric acid molecule.
c) One aspartic acid molecule, one ammonia molecule, one ATP
molecule, and one fumaric acid molecule.
d) Two urea molecules, two ammonia molecules, one ATP molecule, and
one fumaric acid molecule
Ans: a) One molecule each of carbon dioxide, ammonia, three ATP
molecules, and aspartic acid
152. Which of the following is a common compound shared by TCA cycle
and Urea Cycle.
a) α – Ketoglutarate
b) Succinyl COA
c) Oxaloacetat e
d) Fumarate
Ans: d) Fumarate
153. Kreb Cycle in nature
a) Anabolic
b) Catabolic
c) Amphibolic
d) None
Ans: c) Amphibolic
154. TCA cycle is actively involved in
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Phosphorylation
c) Both a & b
d) None
Ans: a) Gluconeogenesis
155. Krebs' Cycle is generally referred as the aerobic Phase of
Respiration
a) The Electron Transport System must continue to function in anaerobic
conditions.
b) It takes in oxygen.

191
 c) Oxygen serves as a catalyzer.
d) No to All of the Above
Ans: a) The Electron Transport System must continue to function in
anaerobic conditions
156. Which of the following is not involved in Kreb’s cycle
a) Acetylation
b) Dehydrogenation
c) Oxidative Phosphorylation
d) Decarboxylation
Ans: c) Oxidative Phosphorylation
157. The carbohydrate of the blood group substances is
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Arabinose
d) Maltose
Ans: b) Fructose
158. Kreb’s Cycle is also known as
a) EMP pathway
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Glyoxylate Cycle
d) Glycolate Cycle
Ans: b) Citric acid cycle
159. Which of the following oxidative phosphorylations takes place during
electron transport?
a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosomes
c) Golgi bodies
d) Chloroplas t
Ans: a) Mitochondria
160. Which form of an amino acid incorporates nitrogen?
a) Nitrite
b) Glutamate
c) Nitrate
d) Ammonium ion
Ans: d) Ammonium ion
161. Transamination reaction catalyzed by enzyme
a) Nitric oxide synthase
b) Decarboxylase
c) Aminotransferase

192
 d) Glutamate decarboxylase
Ans: a) Nitric oxide synthase
162. Intermediates of which of the following metabolic pathways have not
been used in the synthesis of amino acids?
a) Glycolysis
b) Fatty acid biosynthesis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Pentose phosphate pathway
Ans: b) Fatty acid biosynthesis
163. Name the amino acid which does not involve in transamination
during amino acid catabolism.
a) Proline
b) Threonine
c) Lysine
d) Serine
Ans: d) Serine
164. Which of the following disease caused due to an error in amino acid
metabolism, it is also a hereditary disease
a) Homocystinuria
b) Albinism
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Branched-chain ketoaciduria
Ans: c) Phenylketonuria
165. Transamination reaction is catalyzed by which enzyme?
a) Amino transferase
b) Amino acid dehydratase
c) Transaminase
d) Both A and C
Ans: d) Both A and C
166. Amino acid which can be removed through oxidative deamination?
a) Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Aspartate
d) L-glutamate
Ans: d) Lglutamate
167. Match the following
A. Transamination 1. Amino acid oxidase
B. Oxidative deamination 2. Amino acid dehydratase
C. Non-oxidative deamination 3. Glutamate dehydrogenase

193
D. Oxidative deamination 4. Amino transferase
a) a – 4 b – 3 c – 2 d – 1
b) a-2 b-1 c-3 d-4
c) a-4 b-2 c-3 d-1
d) a-3 b-1 c-2 d-4
Ans: a) a – 4 b – 3 c – 2 d – 1
168. Transamination reaction occurs when
a) Ammonia is liberated
b) Amino group is transferred
c) Amino group is converted
d) all of the above
Ans: b) Amino group is transferred
169. Citrullinemia is the disorder of which pathway?
a) Transamination
b) Deamination
c) Urea cycle
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Urea cycle
170. PKU is caused due to defect in which metabolism?
a) Phenylalanine
b) Glutamic acid
c) Tryptophan
d) Aspartic acid
Ans: a) Phenylalanine
171. Name the enzyme which is defective in classic PKU
a) Phenylalanine hydrolase
b) Dihydrobiopterin reductase
c) Dihydrobiopterin synthesis
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Phenylalanine hydrolase
172. Mental retardation is caused by
a) Citrullemia
b) Arginosuccinicaciduria
c) Argininemia
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
[Link] compound is accumulated during the defective Ornithine
trans carboxylase enzyme?
a) Ornithine

194
 b) Ammonia
c) Citrulline
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Citrulline
174. Which of the following fluid compartments contains the largest
volume of water?
a) Plasma
b) Interstitial compartment
c) Intracellular compartment
d) extracellular compartment
Ans: c) Intracellular compartment
175. Which of the following fluid compartments contains the lowest
volume of water?
a) Plasma
b) Interstitial compartment
c) Intracellular compartment
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Plasma
176. One of the important causes of secondary dehydration is
a) Dysphagia
b) Oesophageal varices
c) Oesophageal varices
d) Gastroenteritis
Ans: d) Gastroenteritis
177. Important finding of secondary dehydration is
a) Intracellular oedema
b) Cellular dehydration
c) Thirst
d) Muscle pain
Ans: b) Cellular dehydration
178. One of the major cations present in soft tissue and body fluidsis
a) Mg
b) S
c) Mn
d) Co
Ans: a) Mg
179. The major cation found in intracellular fluid is
a) Sodium
b) Potassium

195
 c) Calcium
d) Magnesiu m
Ans: b) Potassium
180. The hormone regulates sodium metabolism
a) Insulin
b) Aldosterone
c) PTH
d) Somatostatin
Ans: b) Aldosterone
181. Cause of hypercalcemia is
a) Hyperparathyroidism
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Hypothyroidism
Ans: a) Hyperparathyroidism
182. Hyperchloremia is related with
a) Hyponatremia
b) Hypernatremia
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Respiratory acidosis
Ans: c) Metabolic alkalosis
183. Hypernatremia may seen in
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Diuretic medication
c) Heavy sweating
d) Kidney disease
Ans: a) Diabetes insipidus
184. Hypermagnesemia may be observed in
a) Hyperparathyroidism
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Kwashiorkor
d) Primary aldosteronism
Ans: a) Hyperparathyroidism
185. Oedema can occur due to
a) Plasma Na and Cl aredecreased
b) Plasma Na and Cl areincreased
c) Plasma proteins are decreased
d) Plasma proteins are increased
Ans: d) Plasma proteins are increase

196
186. Which mineral is loss during recurrent vomiting?
a) Potassium
b) Chloride
c) Bicarbonate
d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
187. Urinary water loss is increased in
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Chronic glomerulonephritis
d) All of these
Ans: b) Diabetes insipidus
188. Body water is regulated by the hormone:
a) Oxytocin
b) ACTH
c) FSH
d) Epinephrine
Ans: a) Oxytocin
189. Which mineral deficiency [Link] hypochromic
a) Iron
b) Mg
c) Ca
d) Zn
Ans: a) Iron
190. Calcium is related to which of the following?
a) Osteoporosis
b) Anemia
c) Hypernatremi a
d) Wilson’s disease
Ans: a) Osteoporosis
191. Wilson’s disease isrelated to
a) Copper b) cobalt
c) Zinc
d) Zinc
Ans: a) Copper
192. Imbalance of potassium metabolism caused
a) Hyperphosphatemia
b) Hypophosphatemia
c) Rickets

197
 d) Osteomalacia
Ans: b) Hypophosphatemia
193. Fluorine is important for
a) Teeth
b) Blood
c) RBC
d) All of these
Ans: a) Teeth
194. Deficiency of which minerals leads to goitre
a) Iodine
b) Iron
c) Cobalt
d) Calcium
Ans: a) Iodine
195. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Ans: a) A
196. Which one from the following is produced by lymphocytes?
a) Immunity
b) Susceptibility
c) AIDS
d) all of the above
Ans: a) Immunity
197. The normal RBC count in millions/cu mm in human body is
a) 8-10
b) 1-2
c) 5-6
d) 12-14
Ans: c) 5-6
198. The normal volume of urine excreted in one day (litres)
a) 5-6
b) 10-11
c) 8-9
d) 2-3
Ans: a) 5-6
199. Urea is a

198
 a) Abnormal constituent of urine
b) Normal constituent of urine
c) Strange compound of urine
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Normal constituent of urine
200. Rothera's test is carried out to find out
a) Proteins in urine
b) Carbohydrates in urine
c) Ketones in urine
d) Blood in urine
Ans: c) Ketones in urine
201. Presence of bile salts in urine indicate
a) Ketosis
b) Jaundice
c) Cancer
d) Diabetes
Ans: b) Jaundice
202. What happens in anemia?
a) Increased haemoglobin
b) Decreased haemoglobin
c) Balanced hemoglobin
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Decreased haemoglobin
203. The normal platelet count approximately near is per cu mm of blood
a) 0.5-100,000
b) 150,000-450,000
c) 300,000
d) 120000-130000
Ans: b) 150,000-450,000
204. Which of the following is the function of the human liver?
a) Production of bile
b) Metabolization of fats
c) Metabolization of carbohydrates
d) All of the above.
Ans: d) All of the above.
205. Albumin is produced by _.
a) Heart
b) Lungs
c) Liver

199
 d) Endocrine glands
Ans: c) Liver
206. Cirrhosis is a liver disease described by the abnormal structure and
functioning of the liver. Cirrhosis is mainly diagnosed by _ _.
a) Blood Test
b) Liver biopsy
c) Physical examination
d) All of the above
Ans: b) Liver biopsy
207. Which of the following statements is true about the human liver?
a) Liver is triangular in shape
b) Liver is the only visceral organ that can regenerate
c) Liver is the largest and the internal organ of the human body
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
208. Which sample from the list below is often collected for a liver
function test?
a) Blood sample
b) Urine sample
c) Intestine Biopsy sample
d) Sputum sample
Ans: a) Blood sample
209. Which one of the following enzymes serves as a sensitive indicator of
alcoholic liver disease?
a) Alanine transaminase
b) Aspartate transaminase
c) Alkaline phosphatase
d) Gamma-Glutamyltransferase
Ans: b) Aspartate transaminase
210. Which of the following is the gold standard substance for the
clearance test used for the estimation of GFR?
a) Para-amino-hippuric acid
b) Creatinine
c) Inulin
d) Glucose
Ans: c) Inulin
211. Which of the following is pyrimidine nucleotide?
a) Uracil
b) Cytosine

200
 c) Thymine
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
212. RNA doesn’t have
a) Uracil
b) Adenine
c) Thymine
d) Guanine
Ans: c) Thymine
213. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b) 2
214. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?
a) 2
b) 0
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: c).3
215. Which of the following instruments can be used to analyze the
arrangement of nucleotides in DNA?
a) Electron microscope
b) Light microscope
c) X-Ray crystallography
d) Ultracentrifuge
Ans: c) X-Ray crystallography
216. Which of the following carries genetic information from DNA for
protein synthesis?
a) sn-RNA
b) r-RNA
c) m-RNA
d) t-RNA
Ans: c) m-RNA
217. Construction of recombinant DNA requires
a) Cleaving DNA with a restriction endonuclease and joining with
polymerase
b) Cleaving and joining DNA with restriction endonuclease

201
 c) Cleaving DNA with a restriction endonuclease and joining with ligase
d) Cleaving DNA with ligase and joining with endonuclease
Ans: c) Cleaving DNA with a restriction endonuclease and joining
with ligase
218. Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?
a) Watson and Francis Crick
b) Frederick Sanger
c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d) Mendel
Ans: a) Watson and Francis Crick
219. Which of the following is obtained when the rate of enzyme activity is
plotted against the concentration of the substrate?
a) Straight line with negativeslope
b) Straight line with positiveslope
c) Parabola
d) Hyperbolic curve
Ans: d) Hyperbolic curve
220. Name one of the intracellular second messengers
a) Glycine
b) Glutamate
c) Acetylcholine
d) IP3
Ans: d) IP3
221. Fats are abundantly found in
a) Reproductive tissue
b) Vegetative tissue
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Ans: a) Reproductive tissue
222. Natural lipids are readily soluble in
a) Oil
b) Mercury
c) Water
d) None of those
Ans: d) None of those
223. Identify the unsaturated fatty acids from the following
a) Linoleic acid
b) Oleic acid
c) Palmitoleic acid

202
 d) All of these
Ans: d) All of these
224. Triglycerides which are liquid at room temperature, they are
referred to as?
a) Oils
b) Solid
c) Fats
d) None of these
Ans: a) Oils
225. The method for synthesis of glucose from fat is known as
a) Glycolysis
b) Kreb’s cycle
c) Saponification
d) Gluconeogenesis
Ans: d) gluconeogenesis
226. What electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to renal
dysfunction?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hyponatremia
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hypomagnesemia
Ans: a) Hyperkalemia
227. What enzyme is frequently used for assessing liver function?
a) Creatine kinase
b) Alanine transaminase (ALT)
c) Amylase
d) Troponine
Ans: b) Alanine transaminase (ALT)
228. Hormone that is commonly used as a marker for thyroidfunction?
a) Thyroxine (T4)
b) Triiodothyronine (T3)
c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
d) Calcitonin
Ans: c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
229. Which one of the following is a glomerular filtration rate indicator?
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Bilirubin
d) Glucose

203
 Ans: b) Creatinine
230. The tests which is used to evaluate tubular function of the kidneys?
a) Urine glucose test
b) Urine protein test
c) Urine osmolality test
d) Urine electrolyte test
Ans: d) Urine electrolyte test
231. Which of the following tests evaluates the kidney's ability to
concentrate urine?
a) Urine pH test
b) Urine specific gravity test
c) Urine protein test
d) Urine glucose test
Ans: b) Urine specific gravity test
232 Which of the following tests evaluates the kidneys' ability to eliminate
acid?
a) Blood pH test
b) Urine pH test
c) Serum bicarbonate test
d) Serum electrolyte test
Ans: b) Urine pH test
233. Which of the following tests is used to monitor kidney function?
a) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test
b) Serum creatinine test
c) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) test
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
234. Name the major lipid component of cell membranes?
a) Triglycerides
b) Cholesterol
c) Phospholipids
d) Steroids
Ans: c) Phospholipids
235. The type of lipid that is solid at room temperature are known as
a) Triglyceride
b) Cholesterol
c) Phospholipid
d) Saturated fatty acid
Ans: d) Saturated fatty acid

204
236. What is the primary function of enzymes in cells?
a) Energy storage
b) Signal transduction
c) Protein synthesis
d) Catalyzing chemical reactions
Ans: d) Catalyzing chemical reactions
237. What is the basic molecule used for energy storage incells?
a) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b) Glucose c) Glycogen
d) Fatty acids
Ans: a) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
238. Elements which is generally found in biomolecules?
a) Carbon
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Iron
Ans: d) Iron
239. Which of following is a monosaccharide?
a) Sucrose
b) Lactose
c) Fructose
d) Maltose
Ans: c) Fructose
240. What is the building block of proteins?
a) Nucleotide
b) Fatty acid
c) Amino acid
d) Monosaccharide
Ans: c) Amino acid
241. Name the hormones involved in controlling blood glucose levels?
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Cortisol
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
242. Enzyme is used in PCR?
a) EcoRII
b) EcoRI
c) Taq DNA polymerase

205
 d) HR
Ans: c) Taq DNA polymerase
243. Amount of KOH required to neutralize the free and combined fatty
acid in one gram of a given fat is called _
a) Polenske number
b) Acid number
c) Saponification number
d) Iodine number
Ans: c) Saponification number
244. Which of the lipid among the following have a direct glycosidic
linkage between the head-group sugar and the backbone glycerol?
a) Ether lipids
b) Sphingolipids
c) Glycolipids
d) Phospholipids
Ans: c) Glycolipids
245 Which of the following hormones induces phospholipase C to become
activation?
a) Adrenaline
b) Serotonin
c) Cortisol
d) Vasopressin
Ans: d) Vasopressin
246. Which one of the following proteins is not involved in cell-cell
interaction?
a) Cadherin
b) Cytochrome C
c) Integrin
d) N-CAM
Ans: b) Cytochrome C
247. Which of the following is not a factor for activity of an enzyme?
a) Nucleotides
b) Association with regulatory protein
c) Sequestration
d) Allosteric regulation
Ans: a) Nucleotides
248. In urea cycle's the source of carbon atoms while producing urea is.
a) CO2
b) Glucose

206
c) aspartic acid
d) Arginine
Ans: a) CO2

207
 Section- G
(Pharmacology)

208
1. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs.
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of
drug.
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action.
d) The study of methods of new drug development.
Ans: b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and
excretion of drug.
2. Which of the following part receive the drug slowly?
a) Liver
b) Brain
c) Muscle
d) Kidney
Ans: b) Brain
3. What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Large and lipid-soluble
b) Large and lipid-insoluble
c) Small and lipid-soluble
d) Small and lipid-insoluble
Ans: c) Small and lipid-soluble
4. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Adverse effects of drugs
c) Therapeutic action of drugs
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism.
Ans: d) Distribution of drugs in the organism.
5. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion).
b) Aqueous diffusion.
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis.
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion).
Ans: d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion).
6. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance.
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier.
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
following any route administration.
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose.

209
 Ans: c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic
circulation following any route administration.
7. Which route of drug administration is lead to the first-pass
metabolism?
a) Sublingual
b) Oral
c) Intra-venous
d) Intra-muscular
Ans: b) Oral
8. What is major characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect.
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function.
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver.
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory.
Ans: b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function.
9. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug
administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected.
b) Oily solutions can be injected.
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections.
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration.
Ans: b) Oily solutions can be injected.
10. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances.
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
c) Glucose formation.
d) Binding to plasma proteins.
Ans: b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or
hydrolysis.
11. Most drugs are active in their form and inactive in their
form.
a) Non-polar; Polar
b) Polar; Non-polar
c) Water-soluble; Lipid-soluble
d) Lipid-insoluble; Water-insoluble
e) Neutral; Neutral
Ans: a) Non polar, polar
12. Which cytochrome is mainly responsible for drug metabolism?
a) P-450
b) C-3b
c) C-3a

210
 d) C-2a
Ans: a) P-450
13. Km value indicates
a) Purity of enzyme
b) Physiological role
c) Half-life enzyme drug complex
d) Affinity
Ans: c) Half-life enzyme drug complex
14. Half -life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination.
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite.
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug.
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins.
Ans: a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during
elimination.
15. The rate of absorption of a drug is affected by
a) Route of drug administration
b) Solubility of the drug
c) Site of administration
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
16. When the drug is introduced in the bone h- marrow, this route is
called-
a) Intravenous
b) Intrathecal
c) Intramedullary
d) Intra-arterial
Ans: c) Intramedullary
17. Drugs used to relieve pain are-
a) Antipyretics
b) Analgesic
c) Antibiotics
d) Anti-pruritics
Ans: b) Analgesic
18. An agent used to increase the level of haemoglobin content in the
blood is–
a) Haematinics
b) Haemostatic
c) Oxytocics
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Haematinics

211
19. ED50 is used to determining the
a) Toxicity
b) Potency
c) Efficacy
d) Safety
Ans: d) Safety
20. Plasma drug monitoring is done for
a) Drug with high therapeutic index
b) Drug with high safety margin
c) Drug with low safety margin
d) None
Ans: c) Drug with low safety margin
21. Which of the following parameter signifies the effective drug removal
from the body
a) Bioavailability
b) Safety
c) Volume of distribution
d) Clearance
Ans: d) Clearance
22. Major mechanism of transportation of drugs across biological
membrane is by
a) Active transport
b) Passive diffusion
c) Facilitated diffusion
d) Endocytosis
Ans: a) Active transport
23. The rate of drug absorption is greatest in
a) The small intestine
b) The large intestine
c) The stomach
d) All of these
Ans: a) The small intestine
24. Which type of drugs penetrate CNS better?
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Weak acids
d) Weak bases
Ans: a) Lipid soluble
25. Which route is suitable for insulin
a) Oral
b) Intravenous

212
 c) Intramuscular
d) Subcutaneous
Ans: d) Subcutaneous
26. The most common adverse reaction of insulin is
a) Hypoglycaemia
b) Hyperglycaemia
c) Urticaria
d) Angioedema
Ans: a) Hypoglycaemia
27. MAO inhibitors in general raise the brain level of
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Nor adrenaline
d) Adrenaline
e) All of these
Ans: e) All of these
28. Nicotinic receptor are seen in
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Visceral smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Salivary glands
Ans: a) Skeletal muscle
29. High plasma protein binding
a) Increase volume of distribution of drug
b) Facilitate glomerulus filtration of drug
c) Minimise drug interactions
d) Generally, make the drug long acting.
Ans: d) Generally make the drug long acting.
30. Biotransformation of drug is generally directed to
a) Active the drug
b) Inactive the drug
c) Convert non-lipid soluble drug into soluble metabolite
d) Convert lipid soluble drug into non soluble metabolite.
Ans: d) Covert lipid soluble drug into non soluble metabolite.
31. A pro-drug is
a) Active drug that is transformed to an inactive
b) An inactive drug is that transformed to active drug
c) The pro type member of a class of drug
d) A drug stored in body tissues
Ans: b) An inactive drug is that transformed to active drug.
32. Which of the following is a pro drug?

213
 a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Captopril
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
Ans: a) Enalapril
33. Agonists affect the receptor in the following manner
a) Alter its amino acid sequence
b) Alter its alignment of subunits
c) Denature the receptor protein
d) Induce covalent bond formation
Ans: b) Alter its alignment of subunits
34. Which of the following is a G protein couple receptor
a) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
b) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
c) Glucocorticoid receptor
d) Insulin receptor
Ans: Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
35. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are located in
a) On parasympathetic effector cells
b) Vascular endothelium
c) In autonomic ganglia
d) None of these
Ans: b) Vascular endothelium
36. The cardiac muscarinic receptors are
a) M1 subtype
b) M2 subtype
c) Selectively blocked
d) Function through the PIP2IP3/DAG pathway
Ans: b) M2 subtype
37. Which of the following secretions is not stimulated by Acetylcholine
a) Bile
b) Tear
c) Pancreatic juice
d) Insulin
Ans: a) Bile
38. Pilocarpinemainly is used for
a) Urinary retention
b) Paralytic ileus
c) Glaucoma
d) All of these
Ans: c) Glucoma

214
39. Which of the following is a pro-drug of adrenaline which is used for
glaucoma
a) Dorzolamide
b) Dipivefrine
c) Brimonidine
d) Phenylproanolamine
Ans: b) Dipivefrine
40. Which organ is most sensitive to action of atropine
a) Gastric gland
b) Heart
c) Salivary gland
d) Thyroid gland
Ans: c) Salivary gland
41. Which hormone having longest half-life?
a) Nor adrenaline
b) Adrenaline
c) Aldosterone
d) Thyroxin
Ans: d) Thyroxin
42. L-Dopa is
a) Converted to methyl dopa in the body
b) Antagonized by nicotinic acid
c) Antagonised by riboflavin
d) Combined with carbidopa for enhance effect
Ans: d) Combined with carbidopa for enhance effect
43. Amphetamine is used in the treatment of
a) Narcolepsy
b) Anxiety disorder
c) Psychosis
d) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
Ans: a) Narcolepsy
44.  blockers are contra indicated in
a) Hypertension
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Congestive heart failure (CHF)
d) Anxiety states
Ans: c) Congestive heart failure (CHF)
45. Which is the rate limiting enzyme is responsible for synthesis of
catecholamines?
a) Tyrosine hydroxylase
b) Dopa decarboxylase

215
 c) Dopamine -hudroxylase
d) Noradrenaline N-methyl transferase
Ans: a) Tyrosine hydroxylase
46. …………. is the major neurotransmitter in the peripheral
sympathetic nervous system
a) Norepinephrine (NE)
b) Epinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Tyrosine
Ans: a) Norepinephrine (NE)
47. Which cell secreate the Insulin?
a) G cell
b)  cell
c)  cell
d) None of these
Ans:  cell
48. H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in
a) All type of allergic reactions
b) Certain type-I allergic reaction only
c) Certain type-IV allergic reaction only
d) Bronchial asthma
Ans: b) Certain type-I allergic reaction only
49. The following 5HT receptor is not a G protein couple receptor
a) 5HT1
b) 5HT2
c) 5HT3
d) 5HT4
Ans: c) 5HT3
50. 5HT play a role in the following except
a) Haemostasis
b) Causation of Migraine
c) Regulation of BP
d) Regulation of heart rate
Ans: c) Regulation of BP
51. The following is a selective 5HT4 agonist
a) Clozapine
b) Diazepam
c) Buspirone
d) Cisapride
Ans: d) Cisapride

216
52. The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are more effective in
migraine
a) With aura
b) Without aura
c) Than ergotamine
d) Combined with propranolol
Ans: b) Without aura
53. The prostanoid that consistently constricts blood vessels is
a) Prostaglandin E2
b) Prostaglandin F2
c) Thromboxane A2
d) Prostacyclin
Ans: c) Thromboxane A2
54. Montelukast blocks the action of the .............. Autocoid.
a) Prostacyclin
b) Leukotriene B4
c) Leukotriene C4/D4
d) All of these
Ans: c) Leukotriene C4/D4
55. Following enzyme is converted Angiotensin-I to Angiotensin-II
a) ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)
b) Aminopeptidases
c) Mono Amino oxidase
d) All of these.
Ans: a) ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)
56. The following analgesic lacks anti-inflammatory action
a) Paracetamol
b) Ibuprofen
c) Diclofenac sodium
d) Piroxicam
Ans: a) Paracetamol
57. Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly
a) Aspirin
b) Diclofenac
c) Mephenamic acid
d) Paracetamol
Ans: a) Aspirin
58. Select the first-choice drug for acute gout
a) Allopurinol
b) Dexamethasone
c) Cochicine

217
 d) Indomethacin
Ans: d) Indomethacin
59. Antitussives act by
a) Liquifying bronchial secretions
b) Raising the cough centre
c) Reducing cough inducing impulses from the lungs
d) Both B and C are correct
Ans: d) Both B and C are correct
60. Which of the following in not an antitussive
a) Turbutaline
b) Dextromethorphan
c) Dextroproopoxyphene
d) Ambroxol
Ans: c) Dextroproopoxyphene
61. The most prominent side effects of Salbutamol are
a) Rise in blood pressure
b) Hyperglycaemia
c) Muscle tremor
d) Hypoglycaemia
Ans: c) Muscle tremor
62. Which of following is a fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator
a) Salbutamol
b) Salmeterol
c) Ipratropium bromide
d) Ambroxol
Ans: a) Sulbutamol
63. Alcohol should not be given with
a) Sulphonamides
b) Clonidine
c) Reserpine
d) Metronidazole
Ans: d) Metronidazole
64. Which of the following antibiotic is effective in treatment of typhoid
fever?
a) Gentamycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Ampicillin
d) Ciprofloxacin
Ans: b) Erythromycin
65. Cotromizole is a combination of
a) Sulfadiaxine + trimethoprim

218
 b) Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim
c) Sulfadioxine + dapsone
d) Sulfadioxine + pyrimethamine.
Ans: b) Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim
66. Which of the following has the highest oral bioavailability:
a) Moxifloxacin
b) Amphotricin
c) Amoxacillin
d) Penicillin
Ans: a) Moxifloxacin
67. Which of the following drug effective in the treatment of pox virus,
mycobacterium TB infection?
a) Tetracycline
b) Refampicin
c) Isoniazid
d) Amoxacillin
Ans: b) Refampicin
68. 5 alpha reductase enzyme is inhibited by:
a) Flutamide
b) Spiranolactone
c) Cyproterone
d) Fenastride
Ans: d) Fenastride
69. All of the followings increase calcium deposition in bones except
a) Sodium fluoride
b) Gallium nitrate
c) Stanchiomranelate
d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: d) Sodium bicarbonate
70. Fatty liver is a side effect of
a) Valproic acid
b) Novobiocin
c) Alpha methyl dopa
d) Estradiole
Ans: a) Valproic acid
71. Long-acting benzodiazepine is
a) Oxizepam
b) Lorazepam
c) Diazepam
d) Thiopental
Ans: c) Diazepam

219
72. What organ is responsible for metabolism in the “First pass effect”?
a) Brain
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Liver
Ans: d) Liver
[Link] the second messenger of G protein couple receptor.
a) Adenylyl Cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipids C
d) cAMP
Ans: d) cAMP
74. Tolerance develops because of
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Ans: d) None of these
75. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
a) Accumulation
b) Synergism
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
Ans: b) Synergism
76. Therapeutic index is a
a) A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of drug indication
b) A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
c) A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
d) A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug
e) None of these
Ans: a) A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of drug
indication
77. Local anesthetics produce
a) Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness
b) Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness
c) Alleviation of anxiety and pain
d) A stupor or somnolent state
Ans: b) Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness.
78. Most drugs are either acids or bases.
a) Strong; Strong
b) Strong; Weak

220
 c) Weak; Weak
d) Weak; Strong
Ans: c) Weak, Weak
79. Which of the following enteral administration routes has the largest
first-pass effect?
a) SL (sublingual)
b) Buccal
c) Rectal
d) Oral
Ans: d) Oral
80. Which amino acids is responsible for the conversion into
catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
a) Alanine
b) Proline
c) Lysine
d) Tyrosine
e) Valine
Ans: d) Tyrosine
81. Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Ach
Ans: b) Norepinephrine
82. The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and
which of the following types of amines?
a) Methyl amine
b) Ethyl amine
c) Butyl amine
d) Propyl amine
Ans: a) Methyl amine
83. Which of the following agents is used as an inhalation drug in asthma?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Lobeline
d) Homatropine
Ans: b) Ipratropium
84. Norepinephrine produces:
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vasodilatation
c) Bronchodilation

221
 d) Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma
Ans: a) Vasoconstriction
85. Isoproterenol is:
a) Both an  and -receptor agonist
b) 1-selective agonist
c) 2-selective agonist
d) Nonselective beta receptor agonist
Ans: d) Nonselective beta receptor agonist
86. The mechanism of action of carbidopais:
a) Stimulating the synthesis, release, or reuptake of dopamine
b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxylase
c) Stimulating dopamine receptors
d) Selective inhibition of catecol-O-methyltransferase
Ans: b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxylase
87. Which of the following abused drugs do not belong to sedative agents?
a) Barbiturates
b) Tranquilizers
c) Cannabinoids
d) Opioids
Ans: c) Cannabinoids
88. Mechanism of action of aspirin is:
a) Converts inactive plasminogen into active plasmin
b) Inhibits COX and thus thromboxane synthesis
c) Enhances the interaction between antitrombin III and both thrombin
and the factors involved in the intrinsic clotting
d) Inhibits the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex
Ans: b) Inhibits COX and thus thromboxane synthesis
89. Drugs most commonly used in chronic heart failure are:
a) Cardiac glycosides
b) Diuretics
c) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
90. Hormones are:
a) Products which is secreted by endocrine gland
b) Mediators of inflammatory process
c) By-products of tissue metabolism
d) Product of exocrine gland secretion
Ans: a) Products which is secreted by endocrine gland
91. Progesterone hormone is secreted by:
a) Ovarian follicles

222
 b) Corpus luteum
c) Granulosa and theca cells
d) All of the above
Ans: b) Corpus luteum
92. Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of:
a) Riboflavin
b) Ascorbic acid
c) Nicotinic acid
d) Thiamine
Ans: d) Thiamine
93. Which of the following antienzymes is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: d) Acetazolamide
94. Which of the following enzymes improves GIT functions (replacement
therapy):
a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
Ans: a) Pepsin
95. Which of the following enzymes is used as antineoplastic?
a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
Ans: c) L-asparaginase
96. This drug increases lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity in adipose tissue:
a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
c) Nicotinic acid (Niacin)
d) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
Ans: d) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
97. This drug both inhibits an enzyme and indirectly enhances clearance
of low density lipoproteins (LDL):
a) Cholestyramine
b) Lovastatin
c) Nicotinic acid
d) Probucol (Lorelco)

223
 Ans: b) Lovastatin
98. Which of this drug binds bile acids in the GI tract:
a) Cholestyramine
b) Nicotinic acid
c) Gemfibrozil
d) Probucol
Ans: a) Cholestyramine
99. This drug decreases blood levels of high density lipoproteins (HDL):
a) Lovastatin
b) Nicotinic acid
c) Gemfibrozil
d) Probucol
Ans: d) Probucol
100. Mechanism of action of calcitonin is:
a) Inhibits hydroxyapatite crystal formation, aggregation, and dissolution
b) Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts
c) Activates bone resorption
d) Inhibits macrophages
Ans: b) Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts
101. The drug acts at the proximal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
Ans: a) Acetazolamide
102. The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Hydrochlorothiazide
103. The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl-
cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Ans: a) Loop diuretics
104. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and
recovery?
a) Nitrous oxide

224
 b) Desflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
[Link] drug is an analog of prostaglandin E1?
a) Misoprostole
b) Mifepristole
c) Sucralfate
d) Omeprazole
Ans: a) Misoprostole
106. All of the following drugs used for iron deficiency anemia except:
a) Ferrous sulphate
b) Folic acid
c) Ferrous gluconate
d) Ferrous fumarate
Ans: b) Folic acid
107. Pernicious anemia is developed due to deficiency of:
a) Erythropoetin
b) Vitamin B12
c) Iron
d) Vitamin B6
Ans: b) Vitamin B12
108. Which of the following antianginal agents is a calcium channel
blocker?
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Dipyridamole
c) Minoxidil
d) Nifedipine
Ans: d) Nifedipine
109. Migraine is a disorder connected with:
a) Thrombosis of cerebral vessels
b) Brain haemorrhage
c) Dysfunction of regulation of cerebral vessel tonus
d) Malignant growth in brain
Ans: c) Dysfunction of regulation of cerebral vessel tonus
110. Which of the following hormones are produced by the
hypothalamic gland?
a) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c) Aldosterone
d) Estradiol

225
 Ans: a) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
111. Secretory products of pancreatic β-cells are:
a) Glucagon, proglucagon
b) Insulin, C-peptide, proinsulin, islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP)
c) Somatostatin
d) Pancreatic polypeptide (PP)
Ans: b) Insulin, C-peptide, proinsulin, islet amyloid polypeptide
(IAPP)
112. Glucagon is:
a) A glycoprotein with a molecular weight of 6000
b) A peptide – identical in all mammals – consisting of a single chain of
29 amino acids
c) A afructoolygosaccharide
d) A small protein with a molecular weight of 5808 having disulphide
linkage
Ans: b) A peptide – identical in all mammals – consisting of a single
chain of 29 amino acids.
113. Indication of vitamin D3 is:
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Paget's disease
c) Hypophosphatemia
d) Osteomalacia
Ans: c) Hypophosphatemia
114. Mechanism of penicillins’ antibacterial effect is:
a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall
b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall
d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of
cell membrane permeability
Ans: a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall
115. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability
Ans: b) Inhibition of protein synthesis.
116. Mechanism of Rifampin action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II
d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis

226
 Ans: b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
117. Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agents is having
fastest on set of action?
a) Nitric oxide.
b) Isoflurane.
c) Nitrous oxide.
d) Nitrogen dioxide
Ans: c) Nitrous oxide.
118. Which of the following drug is used for stimulate the heart?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Morphine
c) Digitalis
d) Streptomycin
Ans: c) Digitalis
119. Broad spectrum antibiotics are used to treat
a) A small range of infection
b) A wide range of bacteria
c) All type of bacteria
d) Few bacteria only
Ans: b) A wide range of bacteria
120. Long term used of sedative induce
a) Emotional feelings
b) Stomach cancer
c) Loss of memory
d) Suicidal thoughts
Ans: c) Loss of memory.
121. Morphine and codeine are derived from
a) Rose
b) Opium
c) Eucalyptus
d) Pea plant
Ans: b) Opium
122. Drugs generally producing allergic reactions generally act as:
a) Complete antigens
b) Haptenes
c) Antibodies
d) Mediators
Ans: b) Haptenes
123. The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest response is:
a) Lugol’s iodine
b) Radioactive iodine

227
 c) Propylthiouracil
d) Lithium carbonat
Ans: a) Lugol’s iodine
124. The insulin receptor is a:
a) Ion channel regulating receptor
b) Tyrosine protein kinase receptor
c) G-protein coupled receptor
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Tyrosine protein kinase receptor
125. Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except:
a) Ocular tonometry
b) Urethral dilatation
c) Tooth extraction
d) Blocking the signals of neurones.
Ans: c) Tooth extraction
126. Disulfiram is used for the treatment of:
a) Acute alcoholic intoxication
b) Both physically and psychologically dependent alcoholics
c) Alcoholics psychologically but not physically dependent on alcohol
d) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Ans: c) Alcoholics psychologically but not physically dependent on
alcohol
127. The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is:
a) Glomerular filtration
b) Tubular secretion
c) Hepatic metabolism
d) Excretion in bile
Ans: a) Glomerular filtration
128. Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic:
a) Triamterene
b) Trimethoprim
c) Tizanidine
d) Trimetazidine
Ans: a) Triamterene
129. The percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 33%
Ans: c) 20%
130. The daily dietary requirement of vit B12 by an adult is:

228
 a) 1-3 μg
b) 50-100 μg
c) 0.1-0.5 mg
d) 1-3 mg
Ans: a) 1-3 μg
131. Hydroxyethyl starch is a:
a) Plasma expander
b) Haemostatic
c) Heparin substitute
d) Bile acid sequestrant
Ans: a) Plasma expander
132. Granisetron is a:
a) Second generation antihistaminic
b) Drug for peptic ulcer
c) Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy
d) New antiarrhythmic drug
Ans: c) Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy
133. Ciprofloxacin is not active against:
a) H. influenzae
b) [Link]
c) Enterobacter spp.
d) Bacteroidesfragilis
Ans: d) Bacteroidesfragilis
134. Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the
following infection:
a) Typhoid
b) Shigella enteritis
c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
d) Gonorrhoea
Ans: b) Shigella enteritis
135. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following
organisms except:
a) Methicillin resistant Staph. Aureus
b) Penicillinase producing Staph. Aureus
c) Penicillinase producing [Link]
d) β-lactamase producing [Link]
Ans: a) Methicillin resistant Staph. Aureus
136. Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic:
a) Demeclocycline
b) Oxytetracycline
c) Minocycline

229
 d) Doxycycline
Ans: c) Minocycline
137. The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma
pneumoniae is:
a) Doxycycline
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Gentamicin
Ans: a) Doxycyclin
138. The most important mechanism of bacterial resistance to an
aminoglycoside antibiotic is:
a) Plasmid mediated acquisition of aminoglycoside conjugating enzyme
b) Mutational acquisition of aminoglycoside hydrolysing enzyme
c) Mutation reducing affinity of ribosomal protein for the antibiotic
d) Mutational loss of porin channels
Ans: a) Plasmid mediated acquisition of aminoglycoside conjugating
enzyme
139. Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to:
a) Any two or more antitubercular drugs
b) Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug
c) Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs
d) All five first line antitubercular drugs
Ans: c) Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs
140. Indicate the drug(s) that is/are used to treat chronic hepatitis B:
a) Human interferon α
b) Lamivudine
c) Amantadine
d) Both 'A' and 'B
Ans: d) Both 'A' and 'B
141. What is the causative agent of TB and typhoid?
a) Plasmodium parasites
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Flavivirus genus
d) None of these
Ans: b) Mycobacterium tuberculosi
142. DENV virus are for which disease
a) Malaria
b) Dengue
c) Tuberculosis
d) Cholera
Ans: b) Dengue

230
143. The drug of choice for Kala azar is:
a) Pentamidine
b) Amphotericin B
c) Sodium stibogluconate
d) Ketoconazole
Ans: c) Sodium stibogluconate
144. What is true of ivermectin:
a) It is the most effective drug for strongyloidosis
b) It is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis
c) It can be used to treat pediculosis
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
145. Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by
chemotherapy:
a) Bronchogenic carcinoma
b) Choriocarcinoma
c) Malignant melanoma
d) Colorectal carcinoma
Ans: b) Choriocarcinoma
146. Bioassay is carried out to measure
a) The pharmacological activity of drug
b) Avoid the clinical trials for new drug
c) Detect the impurity of given drug
d) Screen the pharmacogenetic influences of new drug.
Ans: a) The pharmacological activity of drug

147. Antidote of Atropine is

a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Pralidoxime
d) None of these
Ans: b) Physostigmine
148. Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine
a) Respiratory difficulty
b) Palpitation
c) Cerebral haemorrhage
d) Tremor
Ans: c) Cerebral haemorrhage
149. Grey baby syndrome is side effect of which drug?
a) Kenamycin
b) Amikacin

231
 c) Streptomycin
d) Chloramphenicol
Ans: b) Amikacin
150. Name the DNA virus which does not utilise host cell RNA
polymerase for replication
a) Adino virus
b) Herpes virus
c) Papilloma virus
d) Poxy virus
Ans: d) Poxy virus
151. Leprosy is caused by
a) Mycobacterium
b) Cocai
c) E. Coli
d) Basilus
Ans: a) Mycobacterium
152. Malaria is which type of disease
a) Bacterial
b) Viral
c) Protozoal
d) All of these
Ans: c) Protozoal
153. Which of the following is not an antifungal agent?
a) Meconazole
b) Clotrimazole
c) Fluconazole
d) Neomycin
Ans: d) Neomycin
154. Which of the sulfonamide is used in the treatment of malaria?
a) Sulfadoxine
b) Sulfadimidine
c) Sulfafurazole
d) Sulfasalazine
Ans: a) Sulfadoxine
155. Effective vinca alkaloid to treat lung cancer is
a) Vinrosidine
b) Vincristine
c) Vinblastine
d) Vinorelbine
Ans: d) Vinorelbine
156. A parenteral anticoagulant drug is:

232
 a) Penicillin
b) Phfenindione
c) Warfarin
d) Heparin
Ans: d) Vinorelbine
157. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
a) ACTH
b) Leutinzing hormone
c) Adrenalin
d) Lactogenic hormone
Ans: d) Lactogenic hormone
158. Mannitol is a type of
a) Loop diuretic
b) Osmotic diuretic
c) Potassium sparing diuretic
d) Carbonic anhydrase diuretic
Ans: b) Osmotic diuretic
159. Chemotherapy agents are also known as
a) Antineoplastics
b) Ophthalmics
c) Total parental nutrition solutions
d) Large volumes of IV solution
Ans: a) Antineoplastics
160. A metabolite of SPIRONOLACTONE is.
a) Aldosterone
b) Canrenone
c) Corticosterone
d) Pregnenolone
Ans: b) Canrenone
161. Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?
a) Tranexamic acid
b) Streptokinase
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Streptokinase
162. Pharmacovigilance is used for
a) To monitor the drug toxicity
b) To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
c) Monitoring of drugs
d) Study about the pharmacological action of the drug.
Ans: a) To monitor the drug toxicity.

233
163. The drug used for influenza-A prevention.
a) Acyclovir
b) Rimantadine
c) Saquinavir
d) Foscamet
Ans: b) Rimantadine
164. Neuroleptics are used to treat.
a) Neurosis
b) Psychoiss
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
Ans: b) Psychoiss
165. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in Parkinsons
disease?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Glutamate
c) Dopamine
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
166. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat.
a) Psychoiss
b) Sleep disorders
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
Ans: b) sleep disorders
167. Which is effective in the treatment of mushroom poisoning?
a) Pralldoxime
b) Pilocarpine
c) Neostigmine
d) Atropine
Ans: d) Atropine
168. Acetyl salicylic acid is commonly used as
a) Tear gas
b) A fertiliser
c) A pain killer
d) A sedative
Ans: c) A pain killer
169. The antidote for DDT poisoning is.
a) Adrenaline
b) Atropine
c) Barbiturate

234
 d) Amphetamine
Ans: b) Atropine
170. The word pharmacology is derived from.
a) Pharma and cology
b) Pharmakon & gignocology
c) Pharmakon& logos
d) Pharma& logy
Ans: c) Pharmakon& logos
171. B.C.G vaccine is given to protect the child against.
a) Diphtheria
b) Tetanus
c) Typhoid
d) Tuberculosis
Ans: d) Tuberculosis
172. Which anticoagulant is used for blood sugar estimation?
a) Double oxalate
b) EDTA
c) Heparin
d) Potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride
Ans: d) Potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride
173. Lachrymal glands produce:
a) Tear
b) Wax
c) Sweat
d) Sebum
Ans: a) Tear
174. Agents used for reducing acidity in stomach is termed as.
a) Acidifier
b) Protective
c) Adsorbent
d) Antacid
Ans: d) Antacid
175. Drugs suppressing nausea and vomiting are.
a) Anti-emetic
b) Anti-diarrheal
c) Anti-ulcer
d) Antiseptic
Ans: a) Anti-emetic
176. Passive immunity is obtained by injecting.
a) Antiserum
b) Antigens

235
 c) Vaccines
d) Antibodies
Ans: d) Antibodies
177. The presence of pathogenic bacteria in blood is called.
a) Toxemia
b) Septicemia
c) Bacteremia
d) Anemia
Ans: b) Septicemia
178. Kala Azar is a type of.
a) Giardiasis
b) Leishmaniasis
c) Helminthiasis
d) Schistosomiasis
Ans: b) Leishmaniasis
179. The disease caused by Entamoebahistolytica.
a) Malaria
b) Trypanosomiasis
c) Filariasis
d) Amoebiasis
Ans: d) Amoebiasis
180. Phenobarbitone is a
a) Sedative
b) Antitussive
c) Antipsychotic
d) Anxiolytic
Ans: a) Sedative
181. A leukotriene receptor antagonist used in allergic cough is.
a) Rofecoxib
b) Theophylline
c) Losartan
d) Montelukast
Ans: d) Montelukast
182. BCG vaccines are prepared from the
a) M. Tuberculosis
b) M. Bovis
c) M. Microtia
d) M. Africanum
Ans: b) M. Bovis
183. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers is
a) ACTH

236
 b) Prolactin
c) Adrenaline
d) Lactogenic hormone
Ans: b) Prolactin
184. Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma
a) Albumin
b) 1 – acid glycoprotein
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Both (a) and (b)
185. Which of the following acids has the highest degree of ionization in
an aqueous solution?
a) Aspirin pKa = 3.5
b) Indomethacin pKa = 4.5
c) Warfarin pKa = 5.1
d) Ibuprofen pKa = 5.2
e) B1Phenobarbital pKa = 7.4
Ans: a) Aspirin pKa = 3.5
186. The appropriate pH range for ophthalmic products is
a) 2.0 – 3.0
b) 4.0 – 6.0
c) 6.0 – 8.0
d) 8.0 – 10.0
Ans: c) 6.0 – 8.0
187. Tachyphylaxis is
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Rapidly developing tolerance
c) Rapidly decrease response
d) A synergism between two types of drugs
e) None of these
Ans: c) Rapidly decrease response
188. Two drugs having similar effects are termed as
a) Heterergic drugs
b) Isomer drugs
c) Homergic drugs
d) Antagonistic drugs
e) None of the above
Ans: e) None of the above
189. pH difference between extracellular and intracellular fluid is
a) Nil
b) 0.2

237
 c) 0.3
d) 0.8
Ans: d) 0.8
190. Hippocrates is known as
a) Father of modern Medicine
b) Father of Pharmacognosy
c) Father of Polypharmacy
d) Father of Pharmacology
Ans: a) Father of modern Medicine
191. Substance secreted into the blood by a neuron is
a) Neurohormone
b) Neuromodulator
c) Neuromediator
d) Neurotransmitter
Ans: d) Neurotransmitter
192. Which of the following was the first compound to be
identifiedPharmacologicallyas a transmitter in the CNS?
a) Dopamine
b) Adrenaline
c) Acetylcholine
d) Norepinephrine
Ans: c) Acetylcholine
193. Following general anesthetic is not metabolized by human tissues
a) Halothane
b) Desflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
Ans: d) Nitrous oxide
194. Diazepam is used as a muscle relaxant for
a) Deep intra-abdominal operation
b) Tetanus
c) Diagonosis of myasthenia gravis
d) None of these
Ans: c) Diagonosis of myasthenia gravis
195. The most effective single drug in parkinsonism is
a) Bromocriptine
b) Depomine
c) Levodopa
d) Biperiden
Ans: c) Levodopa
196. Gabapentin acts

238
 a) As GABAA agonist
b) As precursor of GABA
c) By enhancing GABA release
d) By GABA independent mechanism
Ans: c) By enhancing GABA release
197. Which of the following is most useful in determining the rate of
elimination of a drug in general?
a) Drug concentration in stool (bilary elimination)
b) Drug concentration in blood
c) Drug concentration in brain
d) Drug concentration in urine (renal elimination)
Ans: d) Drug concentration in urine (renal elimination)

239
 Section- H
(Pharmacognosy)

240
1. 1 IU of vitamin A is
a) 0.0344 ug of standard preparation
b) 0.344 ug of standard preparation
c) 0.443 mg of standard preparation
d) 0.77g of standard preparation
Ans: b) 0.344 ug of standard preparation
2. Drugs containing Saponinare used as
a) Laxative
b) Bitter tonic
c) Expectorant
d) Emetic
Ans: c) Expectorant
3. Entire parts of the following drugs are effective except
a) Ergot
b) Belladonna
c) Ephedra
d) Clove
Ans: d) Clove
4. Keris’s test is used for
a) Caffeine
b) Presence of deoxy sugar
c) Rancidity of fats and oils
d) Aloes
Ans: c) Rancidity of fats and oils
5. Drug not belonging to volatile oil class
a) Peppermint
b) Castor Oil
c) Clove
d) Garlic

241
 Ans: b) Castor oil
6. Monophybrids describes
a) One pair of different characters
b) Two pairs of different characters
c) More than two pairs of different characters
d) None of the above
Ans: a) One pair of different characters
7. Drug which does not show carminative property
a) Dill
b) Mentha
c) Cardamom
d) Senna
Ans:a) Dill
8. Which of the following is not a micronutrient?
a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Molybdenum
d) Hydrogen
Ans: c) Molybdenum
9. All are true about leaflets, except
a) Bud or branch is absent in leaflets
b) Leaflets are arranged in pairs
c) Leaflets are asymmetric at the bases
d) Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.
Ans: d) Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.
10. Cholcine is used for
a) Cancer
b) Gout
c) Hypercholestemia
d) Hypertension

242
 Ans: b) Gout
11. Caruncle is present in
a) Nutmeg
b) Cardamom
c) Strophanthus
d) Castor
Ans: d) Castor
12. The biological source of cotton fiber is
a) Cyamopsis tetragonolobus
b) Gossypium barbadense
c) Arachis hypogaea
d) Saraca indica
Ans: b) Gossypium barbadense
13. Silk consists of:
a) Keratin
b) Fibroin
c) Resins
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Resins
14. The callus is
a) Differentiated cell mass
b) Biomass
c) Isolated roots
d) Undifferentiated cell mass
Ans: d) undifferentiated cell mass
15. Marine fungus is the source for
a) Penicillin
b) Cephalosporin
c) Zonarol
d) Avarol

243
 Ans: b) Cephalosporin
16. Is not the function of the cell wall of the plant
a) Protect the protoplast
b) Provide mechanical support to the organ
c) Check the rate of transpiration
d) Give green colour to leaf
Ans: b) Provide mechanical support to the organ
17. Drug used as antimalarial
a) Tulsi
b) Ginseng
c) Ashwagandha
d) Artemesia
Ans: d) Artemesia
18. Closed collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of
a) Dicotyledonous plant
b) Monocotyledonous plant
c) Weeds
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Monocotyledonous plant
19. Dragendroff reagent which will not give positive test for
a) Emetine
b) Caffeine
c) Morphine
d) Codeine
Ans: b) Caffeine
20. lodine value for oils and fats is measured as
a) Iodine present in oils
b) Extent of unsaturation
c) Extent of saturation
d) None of the above

244
 Ans: b) Extent of unsaturation
21. Chlorophytum borivilianum is used as
a) Anti-fertility
b) Antipyretic
c) Aphrodisiac
d) Expectorant
Ans: c) Aphrodisiac
22. The number of milligrams of KOH required to combine with fatty
acids which are present in glyceride from in 1 gram of sample of oil or fat
is called
a) Difference between saponification value and acid value
b) Ester value
c) Acid value
d) Both a and b
Ans: d) Both a and b
23. for vitamin A,
a) 1IU is, contains 76 mg of standard preparation
b) 1IU is contained 0.025 ug of standard preparation
c) 1IU is present in 0.344ug of standard preparation
d) 1 IU is present in 7.7 ug of standard preparation
Ans: c) 1IU is present in 0.344ug of standard preparation
24. Manoalide, a marine drug, is
a) Antifungal
b) Muscle relaxant
c) Anti-inflammatory
d) Antipyretic
Ans: c) Anti-inflammatory
25. Drug used as bronchodilator
a) Liquorice
b) Tea

245
 c) Ipecacuanha
d) Vasaka
Ans: c) Ipecacuanha
26. In which Ayurvedic formulation preservative is notrequired?
a) Lepa
b) Vatika
c) Asava
d) Pisti
Ans: c) Asava
27. Drug used as emetic
a) Agar
b) Isapghul
c) Ipecas
d) Banana
Ans: c) Ipecas
28. Centroxylic vascular bundle is present in
a) Malefern
b) Sweat flag
c) Maize
d) Sunflower
Ans: a) Malefern
29. Open collateral vascular bundles are thecharacteristics of
a) Dicotyledonous plant
b) Monocotyledonous plant
c) Weeds
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Dicotyledonous plant
30. Which marine drug has a cardiovascular activity?
a) Spongosine
b) Anthropleurins

246
 c) Saxitoxin
d) a and b
Ans: d) a and b
31. Corm is present in
a) Saffron
b) Colchicum
c) Nux-vomica
d) a and b
Ans: d) a and b
32. Relation between ester value saponification valueand acid value is
a) Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value
b) Ester Value = Saponification value + Acid value
c) Acid value = Ester value - Saponification value
d) b and c
Ans: a) Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value
33. lodine number of fat is determined to know:
a) Free fatty acid
b) Average molecular size
c) Relative unsaturation
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Relative unsaturation
34. In plant tissue culture surface sterilization of explantis done by
a) Sodium hypochloride
b) Bromine water
c) Hydrogen peroxide
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
35. Gibberelin obtained from fungus is
a) Gibberellin fujikuroi
b) Fusarium heterospermum

247
 c) Aspergillus niger
d) a and b
Ans: d) a and b
36. Adaptogen are substances which
a) Improve physical endurance
b) Maintain stamina in adverse and difficult environment
c) Increase the tolerance to change in environment
d) All of the above
And: d) All of the above
37. Which one is essential vitamin in culture media?
a) Thiamine
b) Ascorbic acid
c) Pantothenic acid
d) Biotin
Ans: a) Thiamine
38. Which one is not an intermediate in shikimik acidpathway?
a) Erythrose 4 phosphate
b) Chrosmic acid
c) Shikimik acid
d) Prephenic acid
Ans: a) Erythrose 4 phosphate
39. Aril is present in
a) Nutmeg
b) Cardamom
c) Strophanthus
d) Castor
Ans: a) Nutmeg
40. Aril is
a) Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed
b) Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy floweringglume of grasses

248
 c) Warty out growth from micropyle
d) Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed
Ans: d) Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed
41. Halphen's test is used for
a) Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant
b) Detection of artificial invert sugar
c) Saponins
d) Tannins
Ans: a) Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant
42. According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:
a) Transmitting sense impression to the mind
b) Providing the static energy for holding body tissuestogether
c) All digestive and metabolic activities
d) Lubrication of various points of friction
Ans: c) All digestive and metabolic activities
43. Palisade ratio is
a) Total number of palisade cells beneath each upperepidermal cell
b) Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll
c) Average number of palisade cells beneath eachupper epidermal cells
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Average number of palisade cells beneath eachupper
epidermal cells
44. Natural cytokinin is
a) Kinetin
b) Zeatin
c) Adenine
d) None
Ans: b) Zeatin
45. Chrysanthemum is mainly used as
a) Pesticide

249
 b) Insecticide
c) Rodenticide
d) Larvicide
Ans: b) Insecticide
46. Which of the following causes fruit ripening?
a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Gibberellins
d) Ethylene
Ans: d) Ethylene
47. All are plant growth promoters except
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Gibberellin
d) Cytokinin
Ans: a) Abscisic acid
48. Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?
a) Golgi complex
b) Plastid
c) Argon
d) Mitochondria
Ans: d) Mitochondria
49. Which is not one of the parameters of quantitativechemical tests of fixed
oils and fat?
a) Viscosity
b) Reichert-Meissel value
c) Peroxide value
d) Hydroxyl value
Ans. a) Viscosity
50. Sarpagandha is related to-

250
 a) Rauwolfia
b) Arjuna
c) Nux-vomica
d) Physostigma
Ans: a) Rauwolfia
51. Deadly night shade plant is related to-
a) Hyoscyamus niger
b) Datura stramonium
c) Belladonna
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Belladonna
52. Which one of these reagents is used to indicate the presence
ofemetine?
a) Picric acid
b) Potassium chlorate
c) potassium bismuth iodide
d) lodine in potassium iodide solution
Ans: b) Potassium chlorate
53. Nux-vomica seed belongs to the family-
a) Rubiaceae
b) Loganiaceae
c) Papaveraceae
d) Apocynaceae
Ans: b) Loganiaceae
54. Which part of the Dill fruit contains oil?
a) Entire fruit
b) Endosperm
c) Vittae
d) Mericarp
Ans: c) Vittae

251
55. Pale and black catechu are differentiated on the basis ofpresence/
absence of-
a) Catechin
b) Quercetin
c) Gambier fluorecin
d) Gums
Ans: c) Gambier fluorecin
56. Camphor is obtained from which plant?
a) Eucalyptus globulus
b) Cinnammonnum camphora
c) Chenopodium ambrosoids
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Cinnammonnum camphora
57. Cymbopogon citratus belongs to the family-
a) Graminae
b) Lauraceae
c) Myrtaceae
d) Rubiaceae
Ans: a) Graminae
58. Turmeric possess saffron colour due to presence of-
a) Curcumin
b) Turmerone
c) Curcumens
d) Phellandrene
Ans: a) Curcumin
59. Bees wax mainly contains-
a) Palmitin
b) Myricin
c) Stearin
d) Cerotic acid

252
 Ans: b) Myricin
60. Free cinnamic acid is present in-
a) Colophony
b) Storax
c) Asafoetida
d) Balsam of tolu
Ans: d) Balsam of tolu
61. Silk fibres obtained from-
a) seeds of gossypium
b) Cacoons of Bombyx mori
c) Synthetic source
d) Corchorus cupsularin
Ans: b) Cacoons of Bombyx mori
62. Pungency of chilies is due to the presence of?
a) Capsaicin
b) Capsanthin
c) Carotene
d) Pungent protein
Ans: a) Capsaicin
63. Peppermint oil is synonym for-
a) Mentha oil
b) Chenopodium oil
c) Cardamom oil
d) Lemon oil
Ans: a) Mentha oil
64. Terpentine oil contains mainly-
a) citral
b) a-pinene
c) Limonene
d) Phellandrene

253
 Ans: b) a-pinene
65. Which one of these alkaloids is volatile in nature?
a) Narcotine
b) Papaverine
c) Nicotine
d) Thebaine
Ans: a) Narcotine
66. Keller-Killiani test is specified for-
a) Aglycon part of digitalis glycosides
b) Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
c) Both Glycon and Aglycon part
d) none of the above
Ans: b) Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
67. Which one of these is adulterant of digitalis leaves?
a) Verbascum thapsus
b) Digitalis lutea
c) Digitalis thapsi
d) none of the above
Ans: a) Verbascum thapsus
68. Revand chini is common name for-
a) Aloe
b) Rhubarb
c) Cascara
d) Cinnamon
Ans: b) Rhubarb
69. Amylum is synonym for-
a) starch
b) cellulose
c) sodium alginate
d) isaphgol mucilage

254
 Ans: a) starch
70. The marmelosin is constituent of-
a) Agar
b) Acacia gum
c) Bael
d) Karaya gum
Ans: c) Bael
71. Urginea maritimma is used as-
a) Purgative
b) Astringent
c) Cardiotonic
d) Anti-infective
Ans: c) Cardiotonic
72. Vasaka is used as-
a) Expectorant
b) sedative
c) stimulant
d) cardiac tonic
Ans: a) Expectorant
73. The source of Indian acacia is-
a) Acacia arabica
b) Gelidium amansi
c) Astragalus gummifur
d) Sterculia urens
Ans: a) Acacia arabica
74. Ashwagandha is common name for-
a) Wthania somniferum
b) Holarrhena antidysentrica
c) Bacopa moneira
d) Centella asiatica

255
 Ans: a) Wthania somniferum
75. Quinine and quinidine is differed in-
a) Chemical structure
b) solubility
c) In rotating the plane of polarized light
d) none of the above
Ans: c) In rotating the plane of polarized light
76. Cinchona belongs to family-
a) Rutaceae
b) Apocynaceae
c) Rubiaceae
d) Lauraceae
Ans: c) Rubiaceae
77. Which one of these is called a Indian tobacco?
a) Lobelia
b) Nicotina
c) Cocca leaves
d) none of the above
Ans: a) Lobelia
78. Drugs may be
a) Organic in nature
b) Inorganic in nature
c) both A and B
d) None of the above
Ans: Both a and b
79. Aloe belongs to family
a) Euphorbiaceae
b) Plantagenaceae
c) Liliaceae
d) Leguminosae

256
 Ans: c) Liliaceae
80. Tinnevelly Senna is found in
a) Egypt
b) Nile
c) South India
d) Sudan
Ans: c) South India
81. Adulteration is done due to
a) Scarcity of drug
b) Expensive drug
c) Similarity in morphology
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
82. Cassia obovata also known as
a) Dog senna
b) Palthe senna
c) Tinnevelly senna
d) Alexandrian senna
Ans: a) Dog Senna
83. Colour of castor oil is
a) Brown
b) Blue
c) Colourless
d) Olive
Ans: c) Colourless
84. Aloe is used as
a) Purgative
b) To cure sun burn
c) Hair tonic
d) All of the above

257
 Ans: d) All of the above
85. Ricin are
a) Alkaloids
b) Toxins
c) Lectins
d) Pigments
Ans: b) Toxins
86. Direct adulteration is done with
a) Artificially manufactured material
b) with inferior quality material
c) with exhausted material
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
87. Pharmacognosy was coined by
a) Pelletier
b) Sertuener
c) Stars and Otto
d) Seydler
Ans: d) Seydler
88. Ayurvedic pharmacopoeia of India has adopted type of
classification system
a) Chemical
b) Morphological
c) Pharmacological
d) Alphabetical
Ans: d) Alphabetical
89. The classification system comprising of chemical type of compound
and evolution of plant is
a) Chemical
b) Taxonomical

258
 c) Chemotaxonomical
d) Morphological
Ans: c) Chemotaxonomical
90. Who is considered as father of Indian medicine?
a) Seydler
b) Charak
c) Sushruta
d) Hippocrates
Ans: c) Sushruta
91. One of the following is not macronutrients
a) Iron
b) Boron
c) Copper
d) Phosphorous
Ans: b) Boron
92. Shark liver oil is source of drug
a) Animal
b) Mineral
c) Marine
d) Plant
Ans: c) Marine
93. Talc is source of drug
a) Animal
b) Mineral
c) Marine
d) Plant
Ans: b) Mineral
94. Mayer's reagent consist of
a) Potassium Bismuth Iodide
b) Potassium Mercuric Iodide

259
 c) Saturated solution of picric acid
d) Iodine in KI
Ans: b) Potassium Mercuric Iodide
95. Examples of proto alkaloid is
a) Ergot
b) Cinchona
c) Colchicum
d) Kurchi
Ans: c) Colchicum
96. Gentian is used as
a) Sweetener
b) CNS Stimulant
c) Bitter
d) Emetic
Ans: d) Emetic
97. Aloe obtained from the dried juice of the leaves of
a) Aloe barbadensis
b) Rheum palmatum
c) Ricinus communis
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Aloe barbadensis
98. Rhubarb is obtained from rhizome of
a) Ricinus communis
b) Aloe barbadensis
c) Rheum Palmatum
d) None of the above
Ans: c) Rheum Palmatum
99. Which part of rhubarb is used?
a) Leaves
b) Bark

260
 c) Juice
d) Rhizome
Ans: d) Rhizome
100. Rhubarb contains
a) Anthraquinone derivatives
b) Mucilage
c) Barbaloin
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Anthraquinone derivatives
101. Castor oil belongs to the family of
a) Polygonaceae
b) Liliaceae
c) Euphorbiaceae
d) Plantaginaceae
Ans: c) Euphorbiaceae
102. Castor oil contains
a) Ricinoleic acid
b) Gallic acid
c) Cinnamic acid
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Ricinoleic acid
103. Ispaghula obtained from the dried seeds of
a) Plantago ovata forskal
b) Ricinus communis
c) Rheum Palmatum
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Plantago ovata forskal
104. Ispaghula belongs to the family of
a) Scophulariaceae
b) Lauraceae

261
 c) Euphorbiaceae
d) Plantaginaceae
Ans: c) Euphorbiaceae
105. Which part of ispaghula is used?
a) Seed
b) Rhizome
c) Leaves
d) Fruit
Ans: a) Seed
106. Senna contains
a) Sennoside A
b) Sennoside B
c) Sennoside C
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
107. Digitalis obtained from the dried leaves of
a) Cassia angustifolia
b) Digitalis purpurea
c) Terminalia Arjuna
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Digitalis purpurea
108. Among the following which is used as a cardiotonics
a) Arjuna
b) Senna
c) Rhubarb
d) Cinnamon
Ans: a) Arjuna
109. Arjuna belongs to the family of
a) Umbelliferae
b) Scrophulariaceae

262
 c) Combretaceae
d) Solanaceae
Ans: c) Combretaceae
110. Which part of Arjun is used
a) Seed
b) Bark
c) Fruit
d) Leaves
Ans: b) Bark
111. Arjuna contains
a) Tannins
b) Triterpenoid saponins
c) Arjunic acid
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
112. Cardamom belongs to the family of
a) Zingiberaceae
b) Umbelliferae
c) Combretaceae
d) Leguminosae
Ans: a) Zingiberaceae
113. Among the following which is used as laxative
a) Coriander
b) Fennel
c) Clove
d) Ispaghula
Ans: d) Ispaghula
114. Fennel obtained from the dried ripe fruits of the plant
a) Coriandrum sativum
b) Foeniculum vulgare

263
 c) Terminalia arjuna
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Foeniculum vulgare
115. Black pepper belongs to the family of
a) Piparaceae
b) Umbelliferae
c) Combretaceae
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Piparaceae
116. Among the following which is not a carminative
a) Fennel
b) Asafoetida
c) Senna
d) Cinnamon
Ans: c) Senna
117. Tulsi obtained from the dried leaves of
a) Ocimum sanctum
b) Adhatoda vasica
c) Catharanthus roseus
d) None of the above
Ans: a) Ocimum sanctum
118. Tulsi belongs to the family of
a) Acanthaceae
b) Labiatae
c) Apocyanaceae
d) Hypocreaceae
Ans: b) Labiatae
119. Among the following which is used as an antitussive
a) Vasaka
b) Ergot

264
 c) Cinnamon
d) Clove
Ans: a) Vasaka
120. Turmeric is used as
a) Antiseptics
b) Laxative
c) Carminative
d) Antitussive
Ans: a) Antiseptics
121. Amla contains
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin D
Ans: b) Vitamin C
122. Is known as father of medicine
a) Aristotle
b) Dioscorides
c) Hippocrates
d) Galen
Ans: c) Hippocrates
123. Drug is not under the class of organized drug
a) Leaves
b) Flowers
c) Fruits
d) Gums
Ans: d) Gums
124. Drug is not under the seed class
a) Nux vomica
b) Digitalis

265
 c) Stropanthus
d) Isapgol
Ans: b) Digitalis
125. Drug which does not belong to leaves class
a) Senna
b) Digitalis
c) Eucalyptus
d) Turmeric
Ans: d) Turmeric
126. Drug which does not belong to fruit class
a) Artemesia
b) Fennel
c) Coriander
d) Colocynth
Ans: a) Artemesia
127. Dried latex of the drug is used, except
a) Opium
b) Gatta parcha
c) Papain
d) Balsam
Ans: b) Gatta parcha
128. Roots of the following drugs are effective except
a) Rauwolfia
b) Ipecacuanha
c) Turmeric
d) Aconite
Ans: d) Aconite
129. Leaves of the following drugs are effective except
a) Senna
b) Digitalis

266
 c) Clove
d) Vasaka
Ans: c) Clove
130. Drug not belonging to volatile oil class
a) Peppermint
b) Clove
c) Castor oil
d) Garlic
Ans: c) Castor oil
131. Antimalarial drug is
a) Rauwolfia
b) Vasaka
c) Vinca
d) Cinchona
Ans: d) Cinchona
132. Chaulmoogra oil used as
a) Antitumour
b) Antileprotics
c) Antihypertensive
d) All of the above
Ans: b) Antileprotics
133. Ipecacuanha are used as
a) Antiseptic
b) Antitumour
c) Antidysenteries
d) None
Ans: c) Antidysenteries
134. Garlic belongs to which family?
a) Linaceae
b) Dioscoreaceae

267
 c) Liliaceae
d) None
Ans: c) Liliaceae
135. Which of the following has antibacterial property?
a) Allim
b) Allicin
c) Albumin
d) Mucilage
Ans: b) Allicin
136. Linseed oil is extracted from
a) Flax
b) Quinoa
c) Hemp
d) Psyllium
Ans: a) Flax
137. On warming Agar in a solution of KOH, a colour develops
a) Canary yellow
b) Light yellow
c) Dark yellow
d) Green yellow
Ans: a) Canary yellow
138. Which of the following are used in plasters and polishes?
a) Beeswax
b) Acacia
c) Linseed
d) Lanolin
Ans: a) Beeswax
139. Yeast and shark liver oil are example of
a) Vitamin
b) Tannins

268
 c) Enzymes
d) Protein
Ans: a) Vitamin
140. Asafoetida acts as a
a) Sedative
b) Purgative
c) Laxative
d) Antihelmintic
Ans: c) Laxative
141. Which system of medicine is believed in like cure like
a) Ayurvedic
b) Unani
c) Siddha
d) Homeopathy
Ans: d) Homeopathy
142. Gambier is another name of
a) Pale catechu
b) Vasaka
c) Malabar nut
d) None
Ans: a) Pale catechu
143. Oil not used as vehicles in injectables
a) Arachis oil
b) Olive oil
c) Sesame oil
d) Corn oil
Ans: d) Corn oil
144. Which one is not the biological source of cinchona?
a) Cinchona calisaya
b) Cinchona officinalis

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 c) Cinchona indica
d) Cinchona succirubra
Ans: c) Cinchona indica
145. Belladona leaf adulterated with
a) Cinnamon leaf
b) Ailanthus leaf
c) Senna leaf
d) Mentha leaf
Ans: b) Ailanthus leaf
146. Ergometrine is used as
a) Gout
b) Expectorant
c) Antitussive
d) Oxytocic action
Ans: d) Oxytocic action
147. Glycosidicdrug having laxative property
a) Senna
b) Rhubarb
c) Quassia
d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
148. Trukish opium is commonly known as
a) Chemist opium
b) Chinese opium
c) Druggist opium
d) None of these
Ans: c) Druggist opium
149. Thorn apple is the synonym of
a) Cinchona
b) Belladonna
c) Stramonium
d) None of these
Ans: c) Stramonium
150. Medicine prepared in the form of tablets or pills are known as
a) Taila
b) Gutika
c) Lehya

270
d) Churna
Ans: b) Gutika

271
 Section- I

(Human Anatomy and

Physiology)

272
1. Holoenzyme is made of
(a) Apoenzyme and Zymogen
(b) Apoenzyme and Co-enzyme
(c) Co-enzyme and Prosthetic group
(d) Prosthetic group and Co-factor
Ans - (b) Apoenzyme and Co-enzyme
2. Which of the following organelle is called ‘Suicidal Bag’
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Ribosome
Ans - (c) Lysosome
3. Most abundant blood cells in the human body are
(a) WBCs
(b) RBCs
(c) Platelets
(d) Plasma Cells
Ans - (b) RBCs
4. Number of iron atoms in one haemoglobin molecule are
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 8
Ans - (c) 4
5. Which of the following is not
(a) co-enzymea. NAD
(b) NADP
(c) FAD
(d) Mn++
Ans - (d). Mn++
6. Activity of allosteric enzymes are influenced by
(a) Allosteric modulators
(b) Allosteric site
(c) Catalytic site
(d) None of the above
Ans- (a) Allosteric modulators
7. In competitive inhibition, inhibitors bears (a) close structural similarity
with the
a) Co-enzyme
(b) Co-factor
(c) Prosthetic group
(d) Substrate
Ans- (d) Substrate
8. Enzyme acts best at a particular temperature called

273
 (a) Catalytic Temperature
(b) At normal Body temperature
(c) Optimum temperature
(d) None of the above
Ans- (c) Optimum temperature
9. Lock and Key model is also known as
(a) Template model
(b) Induced fit model
(c) Khosland’s Model
(d) Enzyme-substrate interaction model
Ans - (a) Template model
10. Which bond is not associated with Enzyme-substrate interaction -
(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) Ionic bonds
(c) Di-sulfide bonds
(d) Van deer Waal’s force of attraction
Ans - (c) Di-sulfide bonds
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(a) Enzymes are protein in nature
(b) Enzymes are colloidal in nature
(c) Enzymes are thermolabile
(d) Enzymes are inorganic catalyst
Ans - (d) Enzymes are inorganic catalyst
12. Apoenzymes dissociates from co-enzymes due to
(a) Change in pH
(b) Change in temperature
(c) Change in substrate concentration
(d) Change in inhibitor concentration
Ans - (a) Change in pH
13. Which of the following enzyme inhibitions shows decreased Km
Value?
(a) Competitive inhibition
(b) Un-competitive inhibition
(c) Non-competitive inhibition
(d) Feed back inhibition
Ans - (a) Competitive inhibition
14 Amount of total blood volume in an individual is approximately
(a) 50 ml/Kg body weight
(b) 60 ml/Kg body weight
(c) 90 ml/Kg body weight
(d) 80 ml/Kg body weight
Ans- (d) 80 ml/Kg body weight
15. Normal blood pH is
(a) 7.3
(b) 7.2

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 (c) 7.4
(d) 8.4
Ans - (c) 7.4
16. Haematocrit value is the ratio of
(a) WBC to plasma
(b) Platelets to plasma
(c) RBCs to plasma
(d) Total blood cells to plasma
Ans - (c) RBCs to plasma
17. Plasma represents percent of total blood volume
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 5
Ans - (c) 55
18. Normal amount of plasma protein ranges from
(a) 2.2-4.3 gm%
(b) 4.4-6.3 gm%
(c) 6.4-8.3 gm%
(d) 8.4-10.2 gm%
Ans - (a) 2.2-4.3 gm%
19. Which component of protein contribute to maximum percentage to
total plasma protein
(a) Albumin
(b) Globulin
(c) Fibrinogen
(d) Prothrombin
Ans - (a) Albumin
20. Serum does not contain
(a) Calcium
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Factor VIII
(d) Factor-X
Ans - (a) Calcium
21. Combination of heam with O2 is called
(a) Oxyhaemoglobin
(b) Oxidation
(c) Oxygenation
(d) Oxidized haem
Ans - (a) Oxyhaemoglobin
22. Adult haemoglobin contains polypeptide chains
(a) 2α, 2γ
(b) 2α, 2β
(c) 2α, 2δ
(d) 2β, 2γ

275
 Ans - (b) 2α, 2β
23. Each haemoglobin molecules carries number of O2
molecules
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 8
Ans - (d) 8
24. Each gram% of haemoglobin, when fully saturated, can
carry ml of O2
(a) 1.34 ml
(b) 3.14 ml
(c) 4.13 ml
(d) 5ml
Ans - (b) 3.14 ml
25. In Sickle cell anaemia, the defect lies in which polypeptide
(a) Alpha chain
(b) Beta chain
(c) Gamma chain
(d) Delta chain
Ans - (b) Beta chain
26. Average mean corpuscular diameter is µm
(a) 5.1
(b) 6.3
(c) 7.3
(d) 8.5
Ans - (c) 7.3
27. Increase in RBC count beyond 10 million per cu mm is known as
(a) Anisocytosis
(b) Poikilocytosis
(c) Polycythemia
(d) Leucocytosis
Ans - (c) Polycythemia
28. During erythropoiesis haemoglobin first appears in
(a) Early normoblast
(b) Intermediate normoblast
(c) Late normoblast
(d) Pronormoblast
Ans - (b) Intermediate normoblast
29. During hypoxia Kidney releases
(a) Renin
(b) Renal Erythopoietic factor
(c) Erythropoietin
(d) None of the above
Ans - (b) Renal Erythopoietic factor

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 30. Intrinsic factor is secreted by
(a) Liver
(b) Chief cells of stomach
(c) Parietal cells of stomach
(d) Beta cells of pancreas
Ans - (c) Parietal cells of stomach
31. Which of the following extrinsic factor is required for maturation of
RBC’s
(a) Vit B12
(b) Folic acid
(c) Iron
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans – d) Both (a) and (b)
32. Largest WBCs in peripheral blood is
(a) Neutrophil
(b) Large lymphocyte
(c) Monocyte
(d) Eosinophil
Ans - (c) Monocyte
33. The process by which WBCs squeeze through pores in capillary wall is
(a) Chemotaxis
(b) Pinocytosis
(c) Opsonization
(d) Diapedesis
Ans – d) Diapedesis
34. Smallest blood cell is
(a) Small lymphocyte
(b) Platelet
(c) RBC
(d) Neutrophil
Ans - (b) Platelet
35. Commonest anaemia in India is
(a) Pernicious anaemia
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Iron deficiency anaemia
(d) None of the above
Ans - (c) Iron deficiency anaemia
36. The term ER was coined by
(a) Camillo Golgi
(b) Porter
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Benda
Ans - (b) Porter

277
37. Which of the following organelle has a continuous connection with
nuclear membrane?
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Lysosome
(c) RER
(d) SER
Ans - (b) Lysosome
38. In RER, ribosomes are located on
(a) the cytoplasmic side
(b) on the luminal side
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) all throughout
Ans - (a) the cytoplasmic side
39. Which of the following statements were true regarding ER
(a) ER provides structural framework to the cell
(b) ER acts as intra cellular transporting system
(c) SER is involved in the synthesis of lipid
(d) All of the above
Ans - (d) All of the above
40. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Golgi
Apparatus?
(a) sorting and packaging
(b) exocytosis of melanin granules
(c) exocytosis of thyroxine hormone
(d) all of the above
Ans - (d) all of the above
41. The term Golgi apparatus was coined by
(a) Camillo Golgi
(b) Robert Brown
(c) Robert Hook
(d) Benda
Ans - (a) Camillo Golgi
42. F0-F1 Particles are located on
(a) Thylakoids
(b) inner mitochondrial membrane
(c) Golgian vacuoles
(d) None of the above
Ans - (b) inner mitochondrial membrane
43. In mitochondria cristae act as sites for
(a) protein synthesis
(b) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
(c) breakdown of macromolecules
(d) Oxidation–reduction reaction
Ans - (d) Oxidation–reduction reaction
44. Mitochondrial inner membrane is rich in which phospholipid

278
 (a) Phosphatidyl inositol
(b) Phosphatidyl serine
(c) Cardiolipin
(d) Phosphatidyl choline
Ans - (c) Cardiolipin
45. Which of the following is NOT a function of mitochondrion
(a) electron transport and associated ATP production
(b) Fatty acid breakdown
(c) non-shivering thermogenesis
(d) glycolysis and associated ATP production
Ans - (d) glycolysis and associated ATP production
46. Who coined the term mitochondria?
(a) Kolliker
(b) Benda
(c) Fleenming
(d) Robert Brown
Ans - (b) Benda
47. Nucleus was first discovered by
(a) Robert Hook
(b) Strasburger
(c) Robert Brown
(d) None of the above
Ans - (c) Robert Brown
48. Nuclear membrane is in continuous connection with
(a) SER
(b) RER
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Lysosomes
Ans - (b) RER
49. The number of nuclear pores depends on
(a) Size of cells
(b) Transcriptional activity of the cell
(c) DNA content of the cell
(d) all of the above
Ans - (b) Transcriptional activity of the cell
50. The DNA Protein ratio in chromatin is
(a) 3:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 4:1
Ans - (c) 1:1
51. The function of nucleolus is
(a) RNA synthesis
(b) DNA synthesis
(c) Histone synthesis

279
 (d) Ribosomal subunit synthesis
Ans - (d) Ribosomal subunit synthesis
52. The basic protein of the nucleus are
(a) nucleohistones.
(b) nuceoprotamines
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans - (c) both (a) and (b)
53. Lysosomes are present in all except
(a) muscle cells
(b) acinar cells
(c) erythrocytes
(d) hepatocytes
Ans - (c) erythrocytes
54. Which of the following is the function of lysosomes?
(a) autophagy
(b) autolysis
(c) digestion
(d) all of the above
Ans – (d) all of the above
55. Lysosomes are involved in
(a) Extracellular digestion
(b) Intracellular digestion
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans - (c) both (a) and (b)
56. Who identified lysosome?
(a) Novikoff
(b) Claude
(c) Palade
(d) none of the above
Ans - (a) Novikoff
57. All the following has ribosomes except
(a) nucleus
(b) mitochondrion
(c) chloroplast
(d) cytoplasm
Ans - (a) nucleus
58. In 70S ribosome ‘S’ stands for
(a) S.I unit
(b) Solubility factor
(c) Svedberg unit
(d) None of the above
Ans - (c) Svedberg unit
59. 80S ribosomes are found in

280
 (a) Eukaryotes
(b) Prokaryotes
(c) Both eukaryotes and Prokaryotes
(d) Eukaryotic plant cells
Ans - (a) Eukaryotes
60. The subunits of 80S ribosomes include
(a) 40S and 50S
(b) 30S and 50S
(c) 40S and 60S
(d) 20S and 60S
Ans - (c) 40S and 60S
61. The subunits of 70S ribosomes include
(a) 40S and 50S
(b) 30S and 40S
(c) 30S and 50S
(d) 20S and 50S
Ans - (c) 30S and 50S
62. 70S ribosomes occur in
(a) Viruses
(b) prokaryotes
(c) eukaryotic plant cells
(d) eukaryotic animal cells
Ans - (b) prokaryotes
63. Ribosomes are made up of
(a) RNA only
(b) RNA and Proteins
(c) RNA, DNA and Proteins
(d) nucleic acids, proteins and lipids
Ans - (b) RNA and Proteins
64. The rough ER is specially well developed in cells actively engaged in
(a) Protein synthesis.
(b) Nucleotide synthesis
(c) Lipid synthesis
(d) Secretory functions
Ans - (a) Protein synthe
65. The nucleus contains
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Chromosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans - (c) Chromosomes
66. Plasma membrane is
(a) Permeable
(b) Selectively permeable
(c) Impermeable

281
 (d) Semi-permeable
Ans - (b) Selectively permeable
67. Most accepted structural model of plasma membrane is
(a) Sandwitch model
(b) Unit membrane model
(c) Lamellar model
(d) Fluid-mosaic model
Ans - (d) Fluid-mosaic model
68. Plasma membrane is composed of
(a) Glycoproteins
(b) Lipoproteins
(c) Chromoproteins
(d) Lipids
Ans - (b) Lipoproteins
69. Ribosomes contain maximum amount of
(a) Steriods
(b) Lipids
(c) RNA
(d) DNA
Ans - (c) RNA
70. Which structure is present in animal cell but is absent from plant cell?
(a) Centrioles
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans - (a) Centrioles
71. A unit membrane is about:
(a) 50-60 Å thick
(b) 60-75 Å thick
(c) 75-100 Å thick
(d) 100-120 Å thick
Ans - (c) 75-100 Å thick
72. The enzymes which break up starch into sugar are called
(a) Hydrolases
(b) Amylases
(c) Lipases
(d) Nucleases
Ans - (b) Amylases
73. Apoenzyme is a
(a) Protein
(b) Carbohydrate
(c) Vitamin
(d) Amino acid
Ans - (a) Protein
74. Coenzyme is:

282
 (a) Always a protein
(b) Often a metal
(c) Always an inorganic compound
(d) Often a vitamin
Ans - (d) often a vitamin
75. Enzymes are named after their substrates by adding suffix :
(a) -in
(b) -ase
(c) -ose
(d) -sin
Ans - (c) -ose
76. Enzyme exist in the cells as
(a) Solid
(b) Crystals
(c) Colloid
(d) None of the above
Ans - (c) Colloid
77. An enzyme brings about:
(a) Reduction in activation energy
(b) Increase in reaction time
(c) Increase in activation energy
(d) All the above
Ans - (a) Reduction in activation energy
78. Which of the following statement is “NOT’ correct?
(a) All enzymes are thermolabile
(b) All enzymes are biocatalysts
(c) All enzymes are proteins
(d) All proteins are enzymes
Ans - (d) All proteins are enzymes
79. Who discovered blood groups?
(a) F. Galton
(b) Carl Linnaeus
(c) Edward Jenner
(d) C. Landsteiner
Ans - (d) C. Landsteiner
80. Enzymes bringing about hydrolysis of esters and peptides are :
(a) Transferases
(b) Lyases
(c) Hydrolases
(d) All of the above
Ans - (c) Hydrolases
81. Aerobic respiration is performed by :
(a) Glyoxisomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes

283
 (d) Chloroplast
Ans - (b) Mitochondria
82. Bile reduces the surface tension and causes
(a) Emulsification of fat
(b) Digestion of fat
(c) Absorption of fat
(d) All of the above
Ans - (d) All of the above
83. Dialysis causes
(a) Separation of colloids from crystalloids
(b) Purification of colloids
(c) Precipitation of colloids
(d) None of the above
Ans - (a) Separation of colloids from crystalloids
84. Ultrafiltration helps in
(a) Formation of Glomerular filtrate
(b) Formation of urine
(c) Accumulation of proteins
(d) Separation of vitamins
Ans - (a) Formation of Glomerular filtrate
85. pH of RBC is lower due to
(a) Na+-K+ Pump action
(b) Gibb’s Donnan Effect
(c) Efflux of OHfrom RBC
(d) None of the above
Ans - (b) Gibb’s Donnan Effect
86. Gibb’s Donnan effect creates
(a) Diffusion
(b) Surface tension
(c) Osmotic pressure
(d) None of the above
Ans - (c) Osmotic pressure
87. Transmembrane potential results due to
(a) Donnan Effect
(b) Influx and efflux of oppositely charged ions
(c) Retention of anions inside the membrane
(d) All the above
Ans - (a) Donnan Effect
88. Rate of diffusion of a substance depends on
(a) Presence of semi-permeable membrane
(b) Concentration gradient of solute
(c) Concentration of solvent
(d) Concentration of ions
Ans - (b) Concentration gradient of solute
89. Homeostasis means

284
 (a) Control of internal environment of the body
(b) Adaptation with the environment
(c) Constant environment of the body
(d) All of the above
Ans - (c) Constant environment of the body
90. Diffusion is more rapid in
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) Mixture of liquid and gas
Ans - (c) Gas
91. In Osmosis, movement of occurs through the semi-
permeable
membrane
(a) Solvent
(b) Solute
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All the above
Ans - (a) Solvent
92. Viscosity of blood increases with rise in
(a) Albumin
(b) Globulin
(c) Fibrinogen
(d) Prothrombin
Ans - (a) Albumin
93. Osmotic pressure across the capillary wall is exerted by
(a) Size of the molecule
(b) Shape of the molecule
(c) Concentration of the molecule
(d) All the above
Ans - (c) Concentration of the molecule
94. Effect of change of temperature on viscosity involves
(a) Increase in viscosity
(b) Decrease in viscosity
(c) No change
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans - (d) Both (a) and (b)
95. pH means
(a) –log [H+]
(b) –log10 [H+]
(c) –log [H]
(d) log [H+]
Ans - (b) –log10 [H+]
96. Microcytic anaemia develops in
(a) Vit B12 deficiency

285
 (b) Folic acid deficiency
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans - (c) Both (a) and (b)
97. Extrinsic system of blood clotting is initiated by
(a) Factor-III
(b) Factor-VIII
(c) Factor-II
(d) Factor-I
Ans - (a) Factor-III
98. One of the following is NOT an anticoagulant
(a) Heparin
(b) Protein-c
(c) Antithrombin-III
(d) Thrombin
Ans - (d) Thrombin
99. Following are the membrane bound cell organelles except
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Lysosome
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Peroxisome
Ans - (c) Ribosomes
100. The intrinsic protein present in the cell membrane mainly functions
as
(a) Enzymes
(b) Carrier
(c) Pores
(d) Channels
Ans- (a) Enzymes

286

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