1.

Which of the following cardioselective beta-blockers has been shown to decrease

mortality in patients with congestive heart failure (CHF)?

A) Propranolol
B) Bisoprolol
C) Labetalol
D) Pindolol

2. Which of the following drugs is used for the reversal of muscle relaxation caused by
vecuronium?

A) Physostigmine
B) Rivastigmine
C) Sugammadex
D) Gallantamine

3. Aprepitant is a drug used in treatment of some cases of chemotherapy induced

nausea and vomiting. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

A) NK1 antagonist
B) NK3 antagonist
C) NK1 agonist
D) NK2 agonist

4. Which of the following is an inclusion criterion for the shorter bedaquiline regimen in
the treatment of tuberculosis?

A) Extrapulmonary TB like Tubercular meningitis

B) Rifampicin resistance with both KatG and inhA mutation
C) Rifampicin-sensitive TB
D) Rifampicin-resistant but fluoroquinolone-sensitive TB

5. A patient is found on a railway track with hot dry skin, raised temperature, dilated
pupils, slurred speech, and a staggering gait. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A) Dhatura poisoning
B) Alcohol intoxication
C) Opioid overdose
D) Cocaine poisoning

6. A woman at 8 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the

following is the most appropriate treatment option?

A) Methimazole
B) Carbimazole
C) Propylthiouracil
D) Radioactive iodine

7. A woman at 30 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

A) Warfarin
B) Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)
C) Apixaban
D) Fondaparinux

8. Which of the following is represented in the below figure by drug X?

A) Epsilon Amino Caproic acid
B) Clopidogrel
C) Tenecteplase
D) Aspirin

9. A patient presents with hypertension. He has a history of renal stones and has
experienced a few episodes of renal colic. Which diuretic is the most appropriate to
use?

A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone

10. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for an overactive bladder in
a patient with dementia?

A) Tolterodine
B) Tiotropium
C) Telenzepine
D) Tropicamide

Note: Although anticholinergics are avoided in a patient with Alzheimer’s disease but
none of the other drugs is used in overactive bladder from the given options

11. Which of the following statements regarding the patch used in the given figure is
correct?

a. It is Equal Mixture of Local Anaesthetics

b. It contains lignocaine and ropivacaine in ratio of 50 percent each
c. Excessive use can result in methemoglobinemia
 d. 5 ml of 5 percent mixture contains 50 mg lignocaine

12. Which of the following chelating agents is contraindicated in iron poisoning?

A) BAL (British Anti-Lewisite)

B) EDTA
C) DTPA
D) Desferrioxamine

13. Lignocaine is used in a loading dose for the treatment of arrhythmias. The loading
dose of this drug depends upon which of the following factors?

A) Clearance

B) Volume of distribution

C) Half-life

D) Bioavailability

14. A person was taking an antihypertensive drug and continued taking it despite
developing constipation, dry mouth, and dizziness. He was taking it regularly but forgot
to take it during a trip abroad and has now developed a hypertensive emergency. Which
antihypertensive was he likely taking?

A) Amlodipine
B) Clonidine
C) Lisinopril
D) Telmisartan

15. A patient being treated for hypertriglyceridemia developed flushing,

hyperglycemia, and raised liver enzymes. Which drug is the most likely cause?

A) Atorvastatin
B) Fenofibrate
C) Nicotinamide
D) Ezetimibe
 16. Which of the following drugs, when given with erythromycin, can cause QT
prolongation and Torsades’ de pointes?

A) Astemizole
B) Cetirizine
C) Loratadine
D) Promethazine

17. An alcoholic patient was hospitalized. Which of the following is used to

prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures?

A) Lorazepam
B) Fomepizole
C) Disulfiram
D) Buspirone

18. Which of the following statements about Ciclesonide is incorrect?

A) Oral candidiasis is common with its use.

B) It has fewer side effects than other inhalational corticosteroids.
C) It is a prodrug activated by bronchial esterase.
D) It has comparable efficacy to other inhalational corticosteroids.

19. Identify the type of inhibition from the given graph

 a. Competitive

b. Non-competitive

c. Un-competitive

d. Allosteric

20. Why is atropine mixed with diphenoxylate in combination medications?

A) Atropine decreases the adverse effect of diphenoxylate

B) To prevent abuse of diphenoxylate
C) To enhance the antidiarrheal effect
D) Atropine produces direct spasmolytic action

21. A 25-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of burning sensation
during urination and a purulent discharge from the penis for the past 5 days. He has had
unprotected sexual intercourse with a new partner two weeks ago. On examination, the
urethral meatus is erythematous, and there is a noticeable purulent discharge. A Gram
stain of the discharge reveals intracellular gram-negative diplococci. The patient is
otherwise healthy and has no known drug allergies. What is the most appropriate
treatment for this patient?

A) Azithromycin
B) Cefixime
C) Metronidazole
D) Doxycycline

22. A patient presents with symptoms of tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, and

hypocalcemia after consuming an unknown substance. There was presence of high
anion gap metabolic acidosis. Which of the following substances was most likely
consumed?

A) Iron
B) Methanol
C) Ethylene glycol
D) Digoxin
 23. In which phase of clinical trials is drug dosing is determined?

A) Phase 1
B) Phase 2
C) Phase 3
D) Phase 4

24. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works
by inhibiting the synthesis of which nucleotide?

A) AMP
B) CMP
C) UMP
D) TMP

25. A patient with HIV on treatment with tenofovir, lamivudine, and atazanavir/ritonavir is
diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the following TB drugs should be changed to avoid
drug interactions?

A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampicin
C) Ethambutol
D) Streptomycin

26. Which of the following is commonly used for maintenance therapy in opioid abuse?

A) Clonidine
B) Buprenorphine
C) Butorphanol
D) Naloxone

27. Caffeine is a widely used stimulant that promotes wakefulness. Which of the following
mechanisms is responsible for this effect?

A) Adenosine antagonism
B) Increased discharge of norepinephrine from the locus ceruleus
C) Inhibition of GABA receptors
D) Stimulation of dopamine release

28. A 6-year-old child presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of
palpitations, shortness of breath, and dizziness. The child has no significant past medical
history. On examination, the heart rate is 220 beats per minute, blood pressure is 90/60
mmHg, and the child appears anxious but is otherwise stable. An ECG confirms the diagnosis
of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). What is the initial recommended dose of
adenosine for this child?

A) 0.1 mg/kg
B) 0.2mg/kg
C) 0.5mg/kg
D) 1.0 mg/kg

29. A 65-year-old patient presents with symptoms of bone pain, anemia,

hypercalcemia, and renal impairment. A bone marrow biopsy confirms the diagnosis of
multiple myeloma. The patient is started on a treatment regimen. Which of the following
treatments is most likely associated with the reactivation of herpes zoster?

A) Bortezomib
B) Lenalidomide
C) Daratumumab
D) Melphalan

30. Which of the following is a Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor that can be
used for the treatment of ADHD?

A) Reboxetine
B) Methylphenidate
C) Guanfacine
D) Modafinil

31. An 18 year old boy from Rajasthan weighing 50 kg is diagnosed with mixed P. vivax
and P. falciparum malaria. What is the appropriate treatment regimen on day 2?

A) Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Primaquine 2.5 mg (6 tablets)

B) Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Primaquine 7.5 mg (6 tablets)
C) Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine (750/37.5 mg) (2 tablets) +
Primaquine 2.5 mg (6 tablets)
D) Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine (750/37.5 mg) (2 tablets) +
Primaquine 7.5 mg (6 tablets)
NOTE: 1. SP is given on day 1. Artesunate is given for three days (day 1-3). Primaquine
dose is 45 mg for P falciparum single dose on day 2 whereas in vivax or mixed infections
it is 15 mg daily for 14 days)

32. Which of the following growth hormone analogue that is not used for
treatment of GH deficiency but s used in the treatment of HIV-associated
lipodystrophy?

A) Tesamorelin
B) Qunalonene
C) Somatropin
D) Pegvisomant

33. A 45-year-old patient with a history of depression was initially being treated
with sertraline, but his symptoms were not adequately controlled. His medication
regimen was changed to include an MAO inhibitor and amitriptyline. Shortly after the
change in medication, the patient developed agitation, seizures, hyperreflexia, and
tremors. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Cyproheptadine
B) Flumazenil
C) L-carnitine
D) Leucovorin