Review Notes for the

RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton

Chapter 5: Equipment Operation and Maintenance (150)
1. Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy
1. decreases the source-image distance (SID).
2. decreases patient dose.
3. improves image quality.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy a.) reduces the
distance between the x-ray tube (source) and the image intensifier (image receptor), i.e.,
the SID.
o It follows that the distance between the part being imaged (object) and the image
intensifier (image receptor), i.e., the OID, is also reduced.
 The shorter OID produces less magnification and b.) better image quality.
 As the SID is reduced, the intensity of the x-ray photons at the image intensifier's input
phosphor increases, stimulating the automatic brightness control (ABC) to decrease the
mA and thereby c.) decreasing patient dose (see Fig. 5-8).
(Fosbinder & Kelsey, pp 265-267)
Ans. D

2. How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle?
(A) The greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section.
(B) The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
(C) The less the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
(D) The tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness.
—————————————————————————
Tomography is a procedure that uses re-ciprocal motion between the x-ray tube and the
film to image structures at a particular level in the body, while blurring everything
above and below that level.
 The thickness of the level visualized can be varied by changing the tube angle
(amplitude).
o In general, the greater the tube angle, the thinner the section imaged.
o Thinner sections may be used for imaging small or intricate structures.
(Bushong, pp 297-299)
Ans. B

3. Typical examples of digital imaging include

1. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
2. computed tomography (CT).
3. pluridirectional tomography.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
CT and MRI are two common examples of digital imaging.
o Special equipment is also available for 1.) digital radiography (DR), or 2.) computed
radiography (CR): images produced by either a fan-shaped x-ray beam received by
linearly arrayed radiation detectors or a traditional fan-shaped x-ray beam
received by a light-stimulated phosphor plate.
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 Digital images can also be obtained in a.)digital subtraction angiography (DSA),
b.)
nuclear medicine, and c.) diagnostic sonography.
 Analog images are conventional images; they can be converted to digital images with a
device called a digitizer.
 Pluridirectional tomography refers to conventional tomographic equipment that is
capable of several x-ray tube movements.
(Bushong, p 372)
Ans. B

4. Which of the following image recording methods will require the greatest patient dose?
(A) Cassette-loaded spot film
(B) 105-mm spot film
(C) 35-mm cine
(D) Videotape
—————————————————————————
 Videotape and 105-mm spot films require less patient exposure because they are exposed
from the image on the output phosphor.

 Cassette-loaded spot films are exposed by the intensifying screens energized by x-ray
photons and therefore require greater exposure.
 Of all the fluoroscopic imaging techniques, Cinefluorography (35-mm cine) results in the
greatest patient dose, although it provides improved spatial resolution.
Cinefluorography uses an exposure rate that is almost ten times greater than the rate
used for conventional fluoroscopy.
(Fosbinder & Kelsey, pp 265-266)
Ans C

5. Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave-rectified x-ray unit, made using known
correct exposures, were underexposed. A synchronous spinning top test was performed
using 200 mA, 1/12 s, and 70 kVp, and a 20º arc is observed on the test film. Which of the
following is most likely the problem?
(A) The 1/12-s time station is inaccurate.
(B) The 200-mA station is inaccurate.
(C) A rectifier is not functioning.
(D) The processor needs servicing.
—————————————————————————
A synchronous spinning top test is used to test timer accuracy or rectifier function in
three-phase equipment.
o Because three-phase, full-wave-rectified current would expose a 360º arc each
second, a 1/12-s exposure should expose a 30º arc.
o Anything more or less indicates timer in accuracy.
o If exactly one-half the expected arc appears, one should suspect rectifier failure.
(Saia, p 434)
Ans. A

6. If exposure factors of 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.12 s yield an output exposure of 150 mR, what is
the mR/mAs?
(A) 0.32
(B) 3.1
(C) 17.6
(D) 31
—————————————————————————
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Determining mR/mAs output is often done to determine linearity among x-ray machines.
However, all the equipment being compared must be of the same type (e.g., all single-phase;
all three-phase, six-pulse; etc).
If there is linearity among these machines, then identical technique charts can be used. In
the example given, 400 mA and 0.12 s were used, equaling 48 mAs.
If the output for 48 mAs was 150 mR, then 1 mAs is equal to 3.1 mR (150 mR / 48 mAs = 3.1
mR/mAs).
(Bushong, pp 248-249)
Ans. B

7. Which of the following will occur as a result of a decrease in the anode target angle?
1. Less pronounced anode heel effect
2. Decreased effective focal spot size
3. Greater photon intensity toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 Target angle has a pronounced geometric effect on the effective, or projected, focal spot
size.
As the target angle decreases, the effective (projected) focal spot becomes smaller.
 This is advantageous because it will improve radiographic detail without creating a
heat-loading crisis at the anode (as would occur if the actual focal spot size were
reduced to produce a similar detail improvement).
 There are disadvantages, however. With a smaller target angle, the anode heel effect
increases; photons are more noticeably absorbed by the "heel" of the anode,
resulting in a smaller percentage of x-ray photons at the anode end of the x-ray
beam and a concentration of x-ray photons at the cathode end of the radiograph.
(Shephard, p 221)
Ans. C

8. Which of the waveforms illustrated in Figure 5-1 represents single-phase, full-wave-

rectified equipment?
(A) Figure 1
(B) Figure 2
(C) Figure 3
(D) Figure 4
—————————————————————————
Four waveforms are illustrated.
i. Number 1 represents unrectified alternating current, which has constantly changing
amplitude and periodically changing polarity; only the positive half-cycle is useful.
ii. Number 2 represents single-phase, full-wave-rectified current; the negative half-cycle
is rectified to a useful positive half-cycle.
iii. Numbers 3 and 4 represent three-phase rectified current;
 number 3 is three-phase, six-pulse.
 number 4 is three-phase, twelve-pulse.
(Kelsey & Fosbinder, pp 74-75, 83-85)
Ans. B

9. Components of digital imaging include

1. computer manipulation of the image.

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2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector.
3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the image receptor.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Traditional x-ray imaging involves formation of the x-ray image directly on the image
receptor (film).
In digital imaging, x-rays form an electronic image on a special radiation detector.
o This a.) electronic image can be manipulated by a computer and b.) stored in the computer
memory or c.) displayed as a matrix of intensities.
o This final digital image is often viewed on a computer monitor and looks just like a
traditional x-ray image, but the computer often has the capability of postprocessing
image enhancement.
(Bushong, p 376)
Ans. B

10. The minimum response time of an automatic exposure control (AEC)

(A) is the time required to energize the intensifying phosphors.
(B) is its shortest possible exposure time.
(C) functions to protect the patient from overexposure.
(D) functions to protect the tube from excessive heat.
—————————————————————————
The minimum response time, or minimum reaction time, is the length of the shortest
exposure possible with a particular automatic exposure control (AEC).
o If less than the minimum response time is required for a particular exposure, the
radiograph will exhibit excessive density.
o The problem may become apparent when using fast film / screen combinations or high
milliamperage, or when imaging small or easily penetrated body parts.
The backup timer functions to protect the patient from overexposure and the x-ray tube
from overload.
(Saia, p 246)
Ans. B

11. A mobile C-arm unit can provide

1. fluoroscopic images.
2. dynamic images.
3. static images.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
A mobile C-arm is used to obtain 1.fluoroscopic images in areas such as surgery, the
emergency department, and critical care units.
o The images can be a.) dynamic (moving), and b.) static (still) images can be obtained as
well.
o Many C-arms have additional capabilities, such as a.)subtraction and b.)recall and c.)storage
of previous images.
(Thompson et al, p 375)
Ans. D
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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton

12. The source of electrons within the x-ray tube is

(A) electrolysis.
(B) thermionic emission.
(C) rectification.
(D) induction.
—————————————————————————
The thoriated tungsten filament of the cathode is heated by its own filament circuit.
o The x-ray tube filament is made of thoriated tungsten and is part of the cathode assembly.
o It’s a.) circuit provides current and b.) voltage to heat it to incandescence, at which time it
undergoes thermionic emission the liberation of valence electrons from the filament
atoms.
Electrolysis describes the chemical ionization effects of an electric current.
Rectification is the process of changing AC to unidirectional current.
(Bushong, pp 126-127)
Ans. B

13. Which of the following causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode's focal track?
(A) Vaporized tungsten on the glass envelope
(B) Loss of anode rotation
(C) A large amount of heat to a cold anode
(D) Repeated, frequent overloading
—————————————————————————
As the filament ages, vaporized tungsten may be deposited on the port window and act as an
additional filter.
Tungsten may also vaporize as a result of anode abuse.
A. Exposures in excess of safevalues deliver sufficient heat to cause surface melts, or pits,
on the focal track.
o This results in roughening of the anode surface and decreased tube output.
B. Delivery of a large amount of heat to a cold anode can cause cracking if the anode does
not have sufficient time to disperse the heat.
C. Loss of anode rotation would cause one large melt on the focal track, as the electrons
would bombard only one small area.
o If the anode is not heard rotating, the radiographer should not make an exposure.
(Selman, pp 137-138)
Ans. D

14. What component of the x-ray tube is a graphite disc with a tungsten-rhenium track at its
periphery?
(A) Filament
(B) Focusing cup
(C) Anode
(D) Stator
—————————————————————————
 The x-ray tube is a vacuum glass envelope containing positive (anode) and negative
(cathode) electrodes.
 The anode is usually a graphite disc with the tungsten/rhenium focal track at its
periphery.
o Graphite serves to increase the heat loading capacity of the x-ray tube.
 The thoriated tungsten filament is part of the cathode assembly, which includes the
(molybdenum ) focusing cup and filament supporting wires.
 The stator is part of the induction motor that functions to rotate the anode.
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The materials of which x-ray tube components are made must be able to withstand the heat
produced by the x-ray tube during each exposure.
(Selman, pp 140-141)
Ans. C

15. In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control adjusts the

(A) kVp and mA.
(B) backup timer.
(C) mA and time.
(D) kVp and time.
—————————————————————————
As body areas of different thicknesses and densities are scanned with the image intensifier,
image brightness and contrast require adjustment.
 The automatic brightness control (ABC) functions to maintain constant brightness and
contrast of the output screen image, correcting for fluctuations in x-ray beam attenuation
with adjustments in kVp andor mA.
o There are also brightness and contrast controls on the monitor that the
radiographer can regulate.
(Bushong, p 335)
Ans. A

16. A photostimulable phosphor plate is used with

(A) computed radiography.
(B) radiographic intensifying screens.
(C) fluoroscopic intensifying screens.
(D) image intensified fluoroscopy.
—————————————————————————
A photostimulable (light stimulated) phosphor plate, or simply image plate, is used in
computed radiography.
Computed Radiography (CR) does not use traditional intensifying screens or film.
Rather, the CR cassette contains a photostimulable image plate (IP) which functions as the
image receptor (rather than film emulsion).
Upon exposure, the IP stores information.
The cassette is placed into a special scanner / processor where the IP is scanned with a laser
light and the stored image is displayed on the computer monitor.
(Shephard, pp 321-329) (Bushong, pp 378-379)
Ans. A

17. Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam?
1. Increase in added filtration
2. Increase in kilovoltage
3. Increase in milliamperage
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
a) As filtration is added to the x-ray beam, the lower-energy photons are removed and
the overall energy or wavelength of the beam is greater.
b) As kilovoltage is increased, more high-energy photons are produced, and again the
overall, or average, energy of the beam is greater.
I. An increase in milliamperage serves to increase the number of photons produced at

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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
the target, but is unrelated to their energy.
(Selman, p 171)
Ans. C

18. If an AP hip technique required 92 kVp with single-phase x-ray equipment, what kVp would
produce a comparable image with three-phase equipment?
(A) 69
(B) 75
(C) 81
(D) 103
—————————————————————————
 Single-phase x-ray equipment is much less efficient than three-phase equipment
because the voltage amplitude is always changing from zero to peak value and back
to zero again.
 With three-phase equipment, voltage never drops to zero, and x-ray emission is 12
percent greater.
o Therefore, if 92 kVp is used with single-phase equipment, 81 kVp (12 percent less)
will be required with three-phase equipment.
(Fauber, p 266)
Ans. C

19. Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode?
(A) 1.2-mm focal spot, 92 kVp, 1.5 mAs
(B) 0.6-mm focal spot, 80 kVp, 3 mAs
(C) 1.2-mm focal spot, 70 kVp, 6 mAs
(D) 0.6-mm focal spot, 60 kVp, 12 mAs
—————————————————————————
 Radiographic rating charts enable the operator to determine the maximum safe mA,
exposure time, and kVp for a particular exposure using a particular x-ray tube.
o An exposure that can be made safely with the large focal spot may not be safe for use
with the small focal spot of the same x-ray tube.
 The total number of heat units (HU) that an exposure generates also influences the
amount of stress (in the form of heat) imparted to the anode.
The product of mAs and kVp determines HU.
i. Group A produces 138 HU.
ii. Group B produces 240 HU.
iii. Group C produces 420 HU.
iv. Group D produces 720 HU.
 The least hazardous group of technical factors is, therefore, group A.
 Group D is also delivering its heat load to the small focal spot, making this the most
hazardous group of technical factors.
(Selman, pp 144-145)
Ans. A

20. Which of the following combinations will present the greatest heat-loading capability?
(A) 17º target angle, 1.2-mm actual focal spot
(B) 10º target angle, 1.2-mm actual focal spot
(C) 17º target angle, 0.6-mm actual focal spot
(D) 10º target angle, 0.6-mm actual focal spot
—————————————————————————
 The smaller the focal spot, the more limited the anode is with respect to the quantity of
heat it can safely accept.

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 As the target angle decreases, the actual focal spot can be increased while still
maintaining a small effective focal spot.
o Therefore, group B offers the greatest heat-loading potential, with a steep target
angle and a large actual focal spot.
 It must be remembered, however, that a steep target angle increases the heel effect, and
film coverage may be compromised.
(Selman, pp 145-146)
Ans. B

21. Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using
(A) a pinhole camera.
(B) a star pattern.
(C) radiopaque objects.
(D) a slit camera.
—————————————————————————
 Radiographic results should be consistent and predictable with respect to positioning
accuracy, exposure factors, and equipment operation.
o X-ray equipment should be tested and calibrated periodically as part of an on going
quality assurance program.
 The focal spot should be tested periodically to evaluate its size and its impact on recorded
detail; this is accomplished using 1.) a slit camera, 2.) a pinhole camera, or 3.) a star pattern.
o To test the congruence of the light and x-ray fields, a radiopaque object such as a
paper clip or a penny is placed at each corner of the light field before the test
exposure is made.
o After processing, the corners of the x-ray field should be exactly delineated by the
radiopaque objects.
(Carlton & Adler, p 443)
Ans. C

22. Which of the following devices is (are) component(s) of a typical fluoroscopic video display
system?
1. Videotape recorder
2. TV camera
3. TV monitor
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 The image on the image intensifier's output phosphor may be displayed for viewing
through the use of either a series of lenses or a fiberoptic link.
 The two devices needed in order to view the image are a 1.) TV camera tube and a2.) TV
monitor.
1.) The TV camera tube (usually a Plumbicon or Vidicon) converts the output phosphor
image into an electrical signal.
2.) The TV monitor (a cathode-ray tube) then converts the electrical signal into a visible
light image.
(Thompson et al, p 370)
Ans. C

23. If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 200 turns,
and the secondary coil has 100,000 turns, what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil?
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(A) 40 kV
(B) 110 kV
(C) 40 V
(D) 110 V
—————————————————————————
The high-voltage, or step-up, transformer functions to increase voltage to the necessary
kilovoltage. It decreases the amperage to milliamperage. The amount of increase or decrease
depends on the transformer ratio, that is, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil
to the number of turns in the secondary coil. The transformer law is as follows:
To determine secondary V,

.Vs Ns
— = —
.Vp Np

To determine secondary I:

.Ns Ip
— = —
.Np Is

Substituting known values,

x 100,000
—— = —— ; 200x = 22,000,000 ; x = 110,000 V (110 kVp)
220 200

(Selman, pp 84-85)
Ans. B

24. During cinefluorography, the camera shutter is open

(A) between frames.
(B) when the film moves.
(C) during exposures.
(D) all the time.
—————————————————————————
 The most frequent use of cinefluorography is for cardiac catheterizations.
o Cine film may be 16 or 35 mm in size.
 Cine cameras operate very much like movie cameras; the x-ray tube, camera shutter
device, and camera motor are all synchronized so that there is x-ray exposure only during
the shutter-open phase.
o Patient dose from cinefluorography is high, so it is very important that there be no
unnecessary exposure, such as during times when the film shutter is closed.
(Fosbinder & Kelsey, p 266)
Ans. C

25. What is the relationship between kilovoltage (kV) and the half-value layer (HVL)?
(A) As kV increases, the HVL increases.
(B) As kV decreases, the HVL decreases.
(C) If the kV is doubled, the HVL doubles.
(D) If the kV is doubled, the HVL is squared.
—————————————————————————

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The HVL of a particular beam is defined as that thickness of a material that will reduce the
exposure rate to one-half its original value.
The more energetic the beam (the higher the kV), the greater the HVL thickness required to
cut its intensity in half.
 Therefore, it may be stated that kV and HVL have a direct relationship:
o As kV increases, HVL increases.
(Selman, pp 122-123)
Ans. A

26. Exposures less than the minimum response time of an AEC may be required when
1. using high mA.
2. using fast film / screen combinations.
3. examining large patients or body parts.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The minimum response time, or minimum reaction time, is the length of the shortest exposure
possible with a particular AEC.
If less than the minimum response time is required for a particular exposure, the radiograph
will exhibit excessive density.
This problem becomes apparent when making exposures that require very short exposure
times, such as when using high milliamperage and fast film / screen combinations.
To resolve this problem, the radiographer should decrease the mA rather than the kVp, in
order to leave contrast unaffected.
(Saia, p 246)
Ans. B

27. In which of the following portions of the x-ray circuit is a step-down transformer located?
(A) High-voltage side
(B) Filament circuit
(C) Rectification system
(D) Secondary side
—————————————————————————
 Transformers are used to change the value of alternating current (AC).
o They operate on the principle of mutual induction.
o The secondary coil of the step-up transformer is located in the high-voltage
(secondary) side of the x-ray circuit.
 The step-down transformer, or filament transformer, is located in the filament circuit
and serves to regulate the voltage and current provided to heat the x-ray tube
filament.
 The rectification system is also located on the high-voltage, or secondary, side of the
x-ray circuit.
(Selman, pp 155-156)
Ans. B

28. Patient dose during fluoroscopy is affected by the

1. distance between the patient and the input phosphor.
2. amount of magnification.
3. tissue density.
(A) 1 only
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(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy decreases the SID and
patient dose (as SID is reduced, the intensity of the x-ray photons at the image intensifier's
input phosphor increases; the automatic brightness control then automatically decreases
the mA, and therefore patient dose).
Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy also decreases the OID,
and therefore magnification.
As tissue density increases, a greater exposure dose is required.
(Fosbinder & Kelsey, pp 265-267)
Ans. D

29. If 92 kV and 12 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase
equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase,
six-pulse equipment?
(A) 36 mAs
(B) 24 mAs
(C) 8 mAs
(D) 6 mAs
—————————————————————————
Single-phase radiographic equipment is much less efficient than three-phase equipment
because it has a 100 percent voltage ripple.
With three-phase equipment, voltage never drops to zero, and x-ray intensity is significantly
greater.
In order to produce similar density, only two-thirds of the original mAs would be used for
three-phase, six-pulse equipment (2/3 × 12 = 8 mAs).
With three-phase, twelve-pulse equipment, the original mAs would be cut in half.
(Saia, p 333)
Ans. C

30. The photoelectric process is an interaction between an x-ray photon and

(A) an inner-shell electron.
(B) an outer-shell electron.
(C) a nucleus.
(D) another photon.
—————————————————————————
In the photoelectric effect, a relatively low-energy incident photon uses all its energy to eject
an inner-shell electron, leaving a vacancy.
An electron from the shell above will drop to fill the vacancy, and a characteristic ray is
given up in the transition.
This type of interaction is more harmful to the patient, as all the photon's energy is
transferred to tissue.
(Bushong, pp 167-169)
Ans. A

31. Which of the following devices converts electrical energy to mechanical energy?
(A) Motor
(B) Generator
(C) Stator
(D) Rotor

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—————————————————————————
 A motor is the device used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
 The stator and rotor are the two principal parts of an induction motor.
 A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
(Selman, p 78)
Ans. A

32. The essential function of the photomultiplier is to

(A) provide a brighter fluoroscopic image.
(B) automatically restrict the field size.
(C) terminate the x-ray exposure once the image receptor is correctly exposed.
(D) automatically increase or decrease incoming line voltages.
—————————————————————————
 A photomultiplier, or phototimer, is a type of AEC that is used to automatically
terminate the x-ray exposure once the film is correctly exposed.
o Another type of AEC is the ionization chamber.
 An image intensifier functions to provide a brighter fluoroscopic image, and positive
beam limitation (PBL), or automatic collimation, serves to restrict the field size to
the size of the cassette/image receptor used in the bucky tray.
 The line voltage compensator automatically adjusts the incoming line voltage to the
x-ray machine to correct for any voltage drops or surges.
(Selman, pp 153-154)
Ans. C

33. A slit camera is used to measure

1. focal spot size.
2. intensifying-screen resolution.
3. SID resolution.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 A quality control program requires the use of a number of devices to test the efficiency
of various parts of the imaging system (Fig. 5-9).
 A slit camera, as well as a star pattern or pinhole camera, is used to test focal spot
size.
 A parallel line-type resolution test pattern is used to test the resolution capability of
intensifying screens.
(Bushong, p 431)
Ans. A

34. If one rectifier were malfunctioning, the resulting mAs would be

(A) one-fourth that expected.
(B) one-half that expected.
(C) twice that expected.
(D) four times that expected.
—————————————————————————
 When radiographs demonstrate half the expected density and the mA meter registers half
the selected milliamperage, rectifier failure is generally suspected.
o The equipment is said to be "half-waving" because the inverse voltage is not being
rectified to useful voltage.

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o The equipment can be tested for rectifier failure with the use of a spinning top
(synchronous type for three-phase equipment) test.
(Selman, pp 105-106)
Ans. B

35. A spinning top device can be used to evaluate

1. timer accuracy.
2. rectifier failure.
3. the effect of kVp on contrast.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 The spinning top test is used to evaluate timer accuracy or rectifier failure.
 With single-phase, full-wave-rectified equipment (120 pulses/s), for example, 12 dots
should be visualized when using the 1/10-s time station.
o A few dots more or less indicates timer inaccuracy. If the test demonstrated exactly
six dots, rectifier failure is strongly suspected.
 With three-phase equipment, a special synchronous spinning top (or oscilloscope) is
used and a solid black arc is obtained rather than dots.
o The length of this arc is measured and compared with the known correct arc.
(Selman, pp 105-106)
Ans. C

36. Which of the following will improve the spatial resolution of image-intensified images?
1. A very thin coating of cesium iodide on the input phosphor
2. A smaller-diameter input screen
3. Increased total brightness gain
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 An image's spatial resolution refers to its recorded detail.
o The effect of the input screen's phosphor layer is similar to the effect of the
phosphor layer thickness in intensifying screens; that is, as the phosphor layer can
be made thinner, recorded detail increases.
o Also, the smaller the input phosphor diameter, the greater the spatial resolution.
o A brighter image is easier to see, but does not affect resolution.
(Bushong, pp 337-339)
Ans. B

37. Circuit devices that will conduct electrons in only one direction are
1. resistors.
2. valve tubes.
3. solid-state diodes.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
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 Rectifiers change AC into unidirectional current by allowing current to flow through them
in only one direction.
o Valve tubes are vacuum rectifier tubes found in older equipment.
o Solid-state diodes are the types of rectifiers used in today's x-ray equipment. \
Rectification systems are found between the secondary coil of the high-voltage
transformer and the x-ray tube.
o Resistors, such as rheostats or choke coils, are circuit devices used to vary voltage or
current.
(Selman, p 101)
Ans. C

38. Decreased x-ray tube output can be attributed to

1. a roughened focal track.
2. tungsten deposits on the glass envelope.
3. excessive anode rotation.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
As the filament ages, 1.) vaporized tungsten is deposited on the port window of the glass
envelope.
It acts as a filter and decreases tube output.
A 2.) roughened focal track decreases tube output because x-ray photons have to penetrate the
uneven surface as they leave the focus.
High-speed anode rotation increases tube-heating capacity.
(Selman, pp 143-145)
Ans. C

39. Which of the following occurs during bremsstrahlung radiation production?

(A) An electron makes a transition from an outer to an inner electron shell.
(B) An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy.
(C) A high-energy photon ejects an outer-shell electron.
(D) A low-energy photon ejects an inner-shell electron.

—————————————————————————
Two types of interaction between high-speed incident electrons and the tungsten target
atoms account for the production of x-rays within the x-ray tube:
(1) In the production of brems ("braking") radiation, a high-speed electron is attracted to the
positive nuclear charge of a tungsten atom.
o In doing so, it is "braked" and gives up energy in the form of an x-ray photon. Most of
the primary beam is made up of brems radiation.
(2) If the incident electron were to eject a K-shell electron, an L-shell electron would move
in to fill the vacancy.
o It releases a photon (K characteristic ray) whose energy equals the difference
between the K- and L-shell energy levels.
 This is characteristic radiation; it is responsible for only a small portion of the primary
beam.
(Saia, p 224)
Ans. B

40. When a pair of intensifying screens are mounted inside a cassette, a thicker screen may be
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mounted
(A) inside the front of the cassette.
(B) inside the lid (rear) of the cassette.
(C) with a water-soluble paste.
(D) using a more pliable adhesive.
—————————————————————————
There is often significant attenuation of the x-ray beam as it traverses the front screen and
the film.
Rare earth phosphors absorb significantly more x-ray photons than do calcium tungstate
screens.
Consequently, rear screen fluorescence may be diminished.
To compensate for the photon loss, the rear screen may be thicker (faster).
Water-soluble paste is never used to mount screens; rubber cement or a special adhesive
tape are recommended.
(Saia, p 224)
Ans. B

41. Tungsten alloy is the usual choice for the anode target material of radiographic equipment
because it
1. has a high atomic number.
2. has a high melting point.
3. can readily dissipate heat.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 The x-ray anode may be a molybdenum disc coated with a tungsten-rhenium alloy.
o Because tungsten has a high atomic number (74), it produces high-energy x-rays
more efficiently.
o Since a great deal of heat is produced at the target, tungsten's high melting point
(3410ºC) helps avoid damage to the target surface.
o Heat produced at the target should be dissipated readily, and tungsten's conductivity is
similar to that of copper.
o Therefore, as heat is applied to the focus, it can be conducted throughout the disc to
equalize the temperature and thus avoid pitting, or localized melting, of the focal
track.
(Selman, p 138)
Ans. D

42. Which of the illustrations in Figure 5-2 depicts the ionization-chamber type of automatic
exposure control?
(A) Figure A.
(B) Figure B.
(C) Both are ionization-chamber-type AEC.
(D) Neither is ionization-chamber-type AEC.
—————————————————————————
AEC devices are used in today's equipment and serve to produce consistent and comparable
radiographic results. In one type of AEC, there is an ionization chamber just beneath the
tabletop above the cassette/image receptor (A). The part to be examined is centered to it
(the sensor) and radiographed. When a predetermined quantity of ionization has occurred
(equal to the correct density), the exposure automatically terminates. In the other type of
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AEC, the phototimer, a small fluorescent screen is positioned beneath the cassette/image
receptor (B). When remnant radiation emerging from the patient exposes the film and exits
the image receptor, the fluorescent screen emits light. Once a predetermined amount of
fluorescent light is "seen" by the photocell sensor, the exposure is terminated. A special
cassette/image receptor, one without lead foil backing, is often required with this type of
AEC. In either case, the manual timer should be used as a backup timer. In case of AEC
malfunction, this would terminate the exposure, thus avoiding patient overexposure and
tube overload. (Saia, p 306)
Ans. A

43. The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, twelve-pulse rectified generator is about
(A) 100 percent.
(B) 32 percent.
(C) 13 percent.
(D) 3 percent.
—————————————————————————
Voltage ripple refers to the percentage drop from maximum voltage each pulse of current
experiences.
In single-phase rectified equipment, the entire pulse (half-cycle) is used; therefore, there is
first an increase to the maximum (peak) voltage value and then a decrease to zero potential
(90º past peak potential).
The entire waveform is used; if 100 kV were selected, the actual average kilovoltage output
would be approximately 70.
Three-phase rectification produces almost constant potential, with just small ripples
(drops) in maximum potential between pulses.
Approximately a 13 percent voltage ripple (drop from maximum value) characterizes the
operation of three-phase, six-pulse generators.
Three phase, twelve-pulse generators have about a 3.5 percent voltage ripple.
(Selman, p 162)
Ans. D

44. As the x-ray tube filament ages, it becomes progressively thinner because of evaporation.
The vaporized tungsten is frequently deposited on the window of the glass envelope. This may
1. act as an additional filter.
2. reduce tube output.
3. result in arcing and tube puncture.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Through the action of thermionic emission, as the tungsten filament continually gives up
electrons, it gradually becomes thinner with age.
 This evaporated tungsten is frequently deposited on the inner surface of the glass
envelope at the tube window.
o When this happens, it acts as an additional filter of the x-ray beam, thereby reducing
tube output.
o Also, the tungsten deposit may actually attract electrons from the filament, creating
a tube current and causing puncture of the glass envelope.
(Selman, pp 137-138)
Ans. D

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45. Which of the following devices is used to control voltage by varying resistance?
(A) Autotransformer
(B) High-voltage transformer
(C) Rheostat
(D) Fuse
—————————————————————————
 The autotransformer operates on the principle of self-induction and functions to select
the correct voltage to be sent to the high-voltage transformer to be "stepped up" to
kilovoltage.
 The high-voltage transformer increases the voltage and decreases the current.
 The rheostat is a type of variable resistor that is used to change voltage or current values.
It is frequently found in the filament circuit.
 A fuse is a device used to protect the circuit elements from overload by opening the
circuit in the event of a power surge.
(Selman, pp 90-91)
Ans. C

46. All of the following are components of the image intensifier, except the
(A) photocathode.
(B) focusing lenses.
(C) TV monitor.
(D) accelerating anode.
—————————————————————————
The input phosphor of an image intensifier receives remnant radiation emerging from the
patient and converts it to a fluorescent light image. Directly adjacent to the input phosphor is
the photocathode, which is made of a photoemissive alloy (usually a cesium and antimony
compound). The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to an
electron image. The electrons are carefully focused, to maintain image resolution, by the
electrostatic focusing lenses, through the accelerating anode and to the output phosphor for
conversion back to light. The TV monitor is not part of the image intensifier, but serves to
display the image that is transmitted to it from the output phosphor. (Bushong, pp 337-339)
Ans. C

47. When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier,

1. a smaller patient area is viewed.
2. the image is magnified.
3. the image is less bright.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
When a dual-field image intensifier is switched to the smaller field, the electrostatic focusing
lenses are given a greater charge in order to focus the electron image more tightly. The focal
point, then, moves further from the output phosphor (the diameter of the electron image is
therefore smaller as it reaches the output phosphor), and the brightness gain is somewhat
diminished. Hence, the patient area viewed is somewhat smaller and is magnified. However, the
minification gain has been reduced and the image is somewhat less bright.
(Bushong, pp 339-340)
Ans. D

48. A particular AP thoracic measurement is 25 cm. What tomographic sections are indicated if

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we desire one midline and one each anterior and posterior to midline?
(A) 8, 9, and 10 cm
(B) 10, 11, and 12 cm
(C) 12, 13, and 14 cm
(D) 14, 15, and 16 cm
—————————————————————————
Conventional x-ray images are two-dimensional and result in anatomic structures being
superimposed on one another in the radiographic image. We use various methods to achieve the
third dimension and to separate superimposed structures. Taking twoprojections at right angles
to each other, using oblique positions, and using tube angulation are all ways of accomplishing
this without special equipment. Tomographic equipment enables us to acquire images of
particular levels of structures within the body, using the principles of reciprocal motion and a
fulcrum. Exposing the image receptor with the fulcrum set at a particular level will clearly
demonstrate that level, with all structures above and below it blurred by the motion of the x-ray
tube and image receptor. If a part measures 25 cm, the midline is 13 cm (there are 12 cm
anterior to the 13-cm level and 12 cm posterior to the 13-cm level), so the required series of
cuts would be at 12, 13, and 14 cm. (Selman, p 281)
Ans. C

49. Together, the filtering effect of the x-ray tube's glass envelope and its oil coolant are
referred to as
(A) inherent filtration.
(B) added filtration.
(C) compensating filtration.
(D) port filtration.
—————————————————————————
The x-ray beam emitted from the target has a heterogeneous nature. The low-energy photons
within it must be removed because they are not penetrating enough to contribute to the image,
and because they do contribute to the patient's skin dose. The glass envelope and oil coolant
provide approximately 0.5 to 1.0 mm Al equivalent filtration, which is referred to as inherent
because it is a built-in, permanent part of the tube head. (Selman, p 132)
Ans. A

50. In the production of characteristic radiation at the tungsten target, the incoming electron
(A) ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron.
(B) ejects an outer-shell tungsten electron.
(C) is deflected, with resulting energy loss.
(D) is deflected, with resulting energy increase.
—————————————————————————
Characteristic radiation is oneof two kinds of x-rays produced at the tungsten target of the x-ray
tube. The incident, or incoming, high-speed electron ejects a K-shell electron. This leaves a hole
in the K shell, and an L-shell electron drops down to fill the K vacancy. Because L-shell electrons
have greater binding energy than do K-shell electrons, the L-shell electron gives up the
difference in binding energy in the form of a photon, a "characteristic x-ray" (characteristic of
the K shell). The energy of this characteristic ray is equal to the difference between the binding
energies of the K- and L-shell electrons. (Selman, p 114)
Ans. A

51. The procedure whose basic operation involves reciprocal motion of the x-ray tube and film
is
(A) cinefluorography.
(B) spot filming.

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(C) tomography.
(D) image intensification.
—————————————————————————
Structures that we wish to visualize are frequently superimposed on other structures of lesser
interest. Tomography uses reciprocal motion between the x-ray tube and the film to image
structures at a particular level in the body, while blurring everything above and below that
level. The thickness of the level visualized can be changed by changing the tube angle
(amplitude). The greater the tube angle, the thinner the section imaged. (Selman, pp 276-277)
Ans. C

52. Which of the following circuit devices must be connected in parallel?

(A) Filament ammeter
(B) Milliammeter
(C) Voltmeter
(D) Rectifiers
—————————————————————————
Voltmeters must be connected in parallel within a circuit, so as to be able to measure the
potential difference between two points. Ammeters are connected in series. Rectifiers are located
between the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer and the x-ray tube and function to
change AC to unidirectional current. (Selman, pp 51-52)
Ans. C

53. Which of the following is (are) characteristics of the x-ray tube?

1. The target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point.
2. The useful beam emerges from the port window.
3. The cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Anode target material with a high atomic number produces higher-energy x-rays more
efficiently. Because a great deal of heat is produced at the target, the material should have a high
melting point so as to avoid damage to the target surface. Most of the x-rays generated at the
focal spot are directed downward and pass through the x-ray tube's port window. The cathode
filament receives low-voltage current to heat it to the point of thermionic emission. Then high
voltage is applied to drive the electrons across to the focal track. (Selman, p 111)
Ans. D

54. Which of the following materials is most likely to be used for mammography filtration?
(A) Rh
(B) Al
(C) Cu
(D) W
—————————————————————————
Soft tissue radiography requires the use of long-wavelength, low-energy x-ray photons.
Therefore, very little filtration is used in mammography. Anything more than 1.0 mm Al would
remove the useful soft photons, and the desired high contrast could not be achieved. Dedicated
mammographic x-ray tubes will have either a Rhodium (Rh) or Molybdenum (Mo) target. A Mo
target tube is likely to have filtration of either 30 mm, Mo or 50 mm Rh. A Rh target tube is likely
to have filtration of 50 mm Rh. (Bushong, p 313)

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Ans. A
55. When the radiographer selects kilovoltage on the control panel, which device is adjusted?
(A) Step-up transformer
(B) Autotransformer
(C) Filament circuit
(D) Rectifier circuit
—————————————————————————
Because the high-voltage transformer has a fixed ratio, there must be a means of changing the
voltage sent to its primary coil; otherwise there would be a fixed kVp. The autotransformer
makes these changes possible. When kVp is selected on the control panel, the radiographer is
actually adjusting the autotransformer and selecting the amount of voltageto send to the high-
voltage transformer to be stepped up. The filament circuit supplies the proper current and
voltage to the x-ray tube filament for proper thermionic emission. The rectifier circuit is
responsible for changing AC to unidirectional current. (Selman, pp 88-89)
Ans. B

56. Dedicated radiographic units are available for

1. chest radiography.
2. head radiography.
3. mammography.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Special units have been designed to accommodate examinations with high patient volume.
Dedicated chest units are available that will transport a piece of unexposed film from the
magazine into position between a pair of intensifying screens, make a phototimed exposure, and
transport the exposed film to the automatic processor. Dedicated head units are available for
easy positioning of the skull, sinuses, mastoids, and so on. We are aware of the importance of
high-quality mammographic examinations; dedicated mammographic units with molybdenum
targets and other beneficial features are available. (Saia, p 417)
Ans. D

57. What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various
viewing and imaging apparatus?
(A) Output phosphor
(B) Beam splitter
(C) Spot film changer
(D) Automatic brightness control
—————————————————————————
The light image emitted from the output phosphor of the image intensifier is directed to the TV
monitor for viewing and sometimes to recording devices such as a spot film camera or cine film.
The light is directed to these places by a beam splitter or objective lens located between the
output phosphor and the TV camera tube. The majority of the light will go to the recording
device, while a small portion goes to the TV so that the procedure may continue to be monitored
during filming. (Selman, p 262)
Ans. B

58. As electrons impinge on the target surface, less than 1 percent of their kinetic energy is
changed to
(A) x-rays.

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(B) heat.
(C) gamma rays.
(D) recoil electrons.
—————————————————————————
The vast majority of target interactions involve the incident electrons and outer-shell tungsten
electrons. No ionization occurs, and the energy loss is reflected in heat generation. The
production of x-rays is an amazingly inefficient process: More than 99 percent of the electrons'
kinetic energy is changed to heat energy and less than 1 percent into x-ray photon energy. This
presents a serious heat buildup problem in the anode, as heat production is directly
proportional to tube current. (Selman, p 115)
Ans. A

59. Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration?

1. X-ray tube glass envelope
2. X-ray tube port window
3. Aluminum between the tube housing and the collimator
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Inherent filtration is that which is "built into" the construction of the x-ray tube. Before exiting
the x-ray tube, x-ray photons must pass through the tube's glass envelope and port window; the
photons are filtered somewhat as they do so. This inherent filtration is usually the equivalent of
0.5 mm Al. Aluminum filtration placed between the x-ray tube housing and the collimator is
added in order to contribute to the total necessary requirement of 2.5 mm Al equivalent. The
collimator itself is considered part of the added filtration (1.0 mm Al equivalent) because of the
silver surface of the mirror within. It is important to remember that as aluminum filtration is
added to the x-ray tube, the HVL increases. (Selman, p 132)
Ans. B

60. A quality control program includes checks on which of the following radiographic
equipment conditions?
1. Reproducibility
2. Linearity
3. Positive beam limitation/automatic collimation
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The accuracy of all three is important in order to ensure adequate patient protection.
Reproducibility means that repeated exposures at a given technique must provide consistent
intensity. Linearity means that a given mAs, using different mA stations with appropriate
exposure time adjustments, will provide consistent intensity. Positive beam limitation (PBL) is
automatic collimation and must be accurate to 2 percent of the SID. Light-localized collimators
must be available and must be accurate to within 2 percent. (Bushong, pp 430, 432)
Ans. D

61. What x-ray tube component does the number 5 in Figure 5-3 indicate?
(A) Anode stem
(B) Rotor

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(C) Stator
(D) Focal track
—————————————————————————
Figure 5-3 illustrates the component parts of a rotating-anode x-ray tube enclosed within a glass
envelope (number 3) to preserve the vacuum necessary for x-ray production. Number 8 is the
rotating anode with its beveled focal track at the periphery and its stem (at number 5). Numbers
6 and 7 are the stator and rotorthe two components of an induction motor, whose function it is
to rotate the anode. Number 1 is the filament of the cathode assembly, which is made of
thoriated tungsten and functions to liberate electrons when heated to white hot. Number 2 is
the molybdenum focusing cup, which functions to direct the filament electrons to the focal spot.
(Saia, p 424)
Ans. A

62. What x-ray tube component does the number 7 in Figure 5-3 indicate?
(A) Anode stem
(B) Rotor
(C) Stator
(D) Focal track
—————————————————————————
Figure 5-3 illustrates the component parts of a rotating-anode x-ray tube enclosed within a glass
envelope (number 3) to preserve the vacuum necessary for x-ray production. Number 8 is the
rotating anode with its beveled focal track at the periphery and its stem (at number 5). Numbers
6 and 7 are the stator and rotorthe two components of an induction motor, whose function it is
to rotate the anode. Number 1 is the filament of the cathode assembly, which is made of
thoriated tungsten and functions to liberate electrons when heated to white hot. Number 2 is
the molybdenum focusing cup, which functions to direct the filament electrons to the focal spot.
(Saia, p 424)
Ans. B

63. All of the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and
the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except the
(A) timer.
(B) kV meter.
(C) mA meter.
(D) autotransformer.
—————————————————————————
All circuit devices located before the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer are said to be
on the primary or low-voltage side of the x-ray circuit. The timer, autotransformer, and
(prereading) kV meter are all located in the low-voltage circuit. The mA meter, however, is
connected at the midpoint of the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer. When studying
a diagram of the x-ray circuit, it will be noted that the mA meter is grounded at the midpoint of
the secondary coil (where it is at zero potential). Therefore, it may be safely placed in the
control panel. (Selman, pp 150-151)
Ans. C

64. Which of the following systems function(s) to compensate for changing patient/part
thicknesses during fluoroscopic procedures?
(A) Automatic brightness control
(B) Minification gain
(C) Automatic resolution control
(D) flux gain
—————————————————————————

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Parts being examined during fluoroscopic procedures change in thickness and density as the
patient is required to change positions, and as the fluoroscope is moved to examine different
regions of the body that have varying thickness and tissue densities. The automatic brightness
control functions to vary the required mAs and/or kVp as necessary. With this method, patient
dose varies, and image quality is maintained. Minification and flux gain contribute to total
brightness gain. (Bushong, p 335)
Ans. A

65. Disadvantages of moving grids over stationary grids include which of the following?
1. They can prohibit the use of very short exposure times.
2. They increase patient radiation dose.
3. They can cause phantom images when anatomic parts parallel their motion.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
One generally thinks in terms of moving grids being totally superior to stationary grids because
moving grids function to blur the images of the lead strips on the radiographic image. Moving
grids do, however, have several disadvantages. First, their complex mechanism is expensive and
subject to malfunction. Second, today's sophisticated x-ray equipment makes possible the use of
extremely short exposures, a valuable feature whenever motion may be a problem (as in
pediatric radiography). However, grid mechanisms frequently are not able to oscillate rapidly
enough for the short exposure times, and as a result the grid motion is "stopped" and the lead
strips are imaged. Third, patient dose is increased with moving grids. Since the central rayis not
always centered to the grid because it is in motion, lateral decentering occurs (resulting in
diminished density), and consequently an increase in exposure is needed to compensate (either
manually or via AEC). (Shephard, p 249)
Ans. B

66. Electrical devices that allow current to flow in only one direction are called
(A) resistors.
(B) rheostats.
(C) rectifiers.
(D) transformers.
—————————————————————————
The primary, or low-voltage, side of the x-ray circuit requires AC for its operation, but the x-ray
tube operates most efficiently on current that flows in only one direction (unidirectional).
Therefore, the high-voltage side of the circuit contains the rectification system; here the current
is changed to unidirectional just before it reaches the x-ray tube. Solid-state diodes are the
rectifiers used in x-ray equipment because they allow current flow in only one direction.
Resistors, such as rheostats, may be used to vary circuit current or voltage. Transformers operate
on the principle of mutual induction and function to change the current and voltage values.
(Bushong, p 113)
Ans. C

67. The functions of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) include
1. storage of analog images.

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2. acquisition of digital images.
3. storage of digital images.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
PACS refers to a picture archiving and communication system. Analog images (conventional
images) can be digitized with a digitizer. PACS systems receive digital images and display them
on monitors for interpretation. These systems also store images and allow their retrieval at a
later time. PACS systems provide us with the option of a completely filmless radiology
department. (Shephard, pp 365-367)
Ans. C

68. How many half-value layers will it take to reduce an x-ray beam whose intensity is 78 R/min
to an intensity of less than 10 R/min?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8
—————————————————————————
HVL may be used to express the quality of an x-ray beam. The HVL of a particular beam is that
thickness of an absorber that will decrease the intensity of the beam to one-half its original value.
If the original intensity of the beam was 78 R/min, the first HVL will reduce it to 39 R/min, the
second HVL will reduce it to 19.5 R/min, and the third HVL will reduce the intensity to 9.75
R/min. (Bushong, p 52)
Ans. B

69. Double-focus x-ray tubes have two

(A) port windows.
(B) anodes.
(C) filaments.
(D) rectifiers.
—————————————————————————
A double-focus tube has two focal spot sizes available. These focal spots are actually two paths
availableon the focal track. There are, however, two filaments. When the small focal spot is
selected, the small filament is heated, and electrons are driven across to the smaller portion of
the focal track. When the large focal spot is selected, the large filament is heated, and electrons
are driven across to the larger portion of the focal track. (Selman, p 137)
Ans. C

70. The image intensifier's input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input
phosphor
1. is much larger than the output phosphor.
2. emits electrons and the output phosphor emits light photons.
3. absorbs electrons and the output phosphor absorbs light photons.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The image intensifier's input phosphor is six to nine times larger than the output phosphor. It

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receives the remnant radiation emerging from the patient and converts it into a fluorescent light
image. Very close to the input phosphor, separated only by a thin transparent layer, is the
photocathode. The photocathode is made of a photoemissive alloy, usually a cesium and
antimony compound. The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to
an electron image that is focused by the electrostatic lenses to the smaller output phosphor.
(Saia, p 439)
Ans. A

71. Inadequate collimation, when using automatic exposure control, often results in
1. an underexposed radiographic image.
2. an overexposed radiographic image.
3. the timer not terminating soon enough.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
—————————————————————————
The AEC automatically terminates the exposure when the proper density has been recorded on
the film. The important advantage of the phototimer, then, is that it can accurately duplicate
radiographic densities. It is very useful in providing accurate comparison in follow-up
examinations, and in decreasing patient exposure dose by decreasing the number of "retakes"
needed because of improper exposure. Remember that proper functioning of the phototimer
depends on accurate positioning by theradiographer. The correct photocell(s) must be selected,
and the anatomic part of interest must completely cover the photocell in order to achieve the
desired density. If collimation is inadequate and a field size larger than the part is used,
excessive scatter radiation from the body or tabletop can cause the AEC to terminate the
exposure prematurely, resulting in an underexposed radiograph. (Carlton & Adler, p 506)
Ans. A

72. An incorrect relationship between the primary beam and the center of a focused grid results
in
1. an increase in scattered radiation production.
2. grid cutoff.
3. insufficient radiographic density.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The lead strips of a focused grid are angled to correspond to the configuration of the divergent
x-ray beam. Thus, any radiation that is changing direction, as is typical of scatter radiation, will
be trapped by the lead foil strips. However, if the central ray and the grid center do not
correspond, the lead strips will absorb primary radiation. The absorption of primary radiation
is termed cutoff and results in diminished radiographic density. (Carlton & Adler, pp 273-274)
Ans. C

73. Several types of exposure timers may be found on x-ray equipment. Which of the following
types of timers functions to accurately duplicate radiographic densities?
(A) Synchronous

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(B) Impulse
(C) Electronic
(D) Phototimer
—————————————————————————
The synchronous timer is an old type of timer that does not permit very precise, short exposures.
The impulse timer permits a shorter,more precise exposure, and the electronic timer may be
used for exposures as short as 0.001 s. The phototimer, however, automatically terminates the
exposure when the proper density has been recorded on the film. The important advantage of
the phototimer, then, is that it can accurately duplicate radiographic densities. It therefore is
very useful in providing accurate comparison in follow-up examinations, and in decreasing
patient exposure dose by decreasing the number of "retakes" needed because of improper
exposure. Remember that proper functioning of the phototimer depends on accurate
positioning by the radiographer. (Selman, pp 153-154)
Ans. D

74. Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by single-phase equipment?
1. 100 percent voltage ripple
2. 13 percent voltage ripple
3. 3.5 percent voltage ripple
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
With single-phase, full-wave-rectified equipment, the voltage drops to zero every 180º (of the
AC waveform); that is, there is 100 percent voltage ripple. With three-phase equipment, the
voltage ripple is significantly smaller. Three-phase, six-pulse equipment has a 13 percent voltage
ripple, and three-phase, twelve-pulse equipment has only a 3.5 percent ripple. Three-phase,
twelve-pulse equipment comes closest to constant potential, as the voltage never falls below
96.5 percent of maximum value. (Selman, p 96)
Ans. A

75. The radiograph illustrated in Figure 5-4 was made using a single-phase, full-wave-rectified
unit with a timer and rectifiers that are known to be accurate and functioning correctly.
What exposure time was used to produce this image?
(A) 1/10 s
(B) 0.05 s
(C) 1/12 s
(D) 0.025 s
—————————————————————————
When a spinning top is used to test the timer efficiency of full-wave-rectified single-phase
equipment, the result is a series of dots or dashes, with each dot representing a pulse of
radiation. With full-wave-rectified current and a possible 120 dots (pulses) available per
second, one should visualize 12 dots at 1/10 s, 6 dots at 0.05 s, 10 dots at 1/12 s, and 3 dots at
0.025 s. Because three-phase equipment is at almost constant potential, a synchronous spinning
top must be used for timer testing, and the result is a solid arc (rather than dots). The number of
degrees covered by the arc is measured and equated to a particular exposure time. (Saia, p 434)
Ans. B
76. Radiation-sensitive automatic exposure control devices are known as
(A) automatic beam restrictors.
(B) ionization chambers.
(C) sensors.

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(D) backup timers.
—————————————————————————
AEC devices are used in today's equipment and serve to produce consistent and comparable
radiographic results. In one type of AEC, there is an ionization chamber just beneath the tabletop
above the image receptor. The part to be examined is centered to it (the sensor) and
radiographed. When a predetermined quantity of ionization has occurred (equal to the correct
density), the exposure automatically terminates. In the other type of AEC, the phototimer, a
small fluorescent screen is positioned beneath the image receptor. When remnant radiation
emerging from the patient exposes the film and exits the image receptor, the fluorescent screen
emits light. Once a predetermined amount of fluorescent light is "seen" by the photocell sensor,
the exposure is terminated. In either case, the manual timer should be used as a backup timer. In
case of AEC malfunction, this would terminate the exposure, thus avoiding patient overexposure
and tube overload. (Saia, p 244)
Ans. B

77. Advantages of battery-powered mobile x-ray units include their

1. ability to store a large quantity of energy.
2. ability to store energy for extended periods of time.
3. lightness and ease of maneuverability.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
There are two main types of mobile x-ray equipment: capacitor discharge and battery-powered.
Although capacitor discharge units are light and therefore fairly easy to maneuver, the battery-
powered mobile unit is very heavy (largely because it carries its heavy-duty power source). It is,
however, capable of storing a large mAs capacity for extended periods of time. These units
frequently have a capacity of 10,000 mAs, with 12 h required for a full charge.
(Carlton & Adler, p 101)
Ans. B

78. The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is a result of

1. flux gain.
2. minification gain.
3. focusing gain.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
—————————————————————————
The brightness gain of image intensifiers is 5000 to 20,000. This increase is accomplished in two
ways. First, as the electron image is focused to the output phosphor, it is accelerated by high
voltage (this is flux gain). Second, the output phosphor is only a fraction of the size of the input
phosphor, and this decrease in image size represents another brightness gain, termed
minification gain. Total brightness gain is equal to the product of minification gain and flux gain.
(Saia, p 244)
Ans. C

79. The type(s) of radiation produced at the target is (are)

1. photoelectric.
2. characteristic.

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3. bremsstrahlung.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
X-ray photons are produced in two ways as high-speed electrons interact with target atoms.
First, if the high-speed electron is attracted by the nucleus of a tungsten atom and changes its
course, the energy given up as the electron is "braked" takes in the form of an x-ray photon. This
is called bremsstrahlung ("braking") radiation, and it is responsible for the majority of the x-ray
photons produced at the conventional tungsten target. Second, a high-speed electron may eject
a tungsten K-shell electron,leaving a vacancy in the shell. An electron from the next energy level,
the L shell, drops down to fill the vacancy, emitting the difference in energy as a K characteristic
ray. Characteristic radiation makes up only about 15 percent of the primary beam.(Selman, pp
113-115)
Ans. C

80. Which of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kVp, using
the appropriate x-ray tube rating chart?
1. mA and exposure time
2. Focal spot size
3. Imaging-system speed
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Given the milliamperage and exposure time, a radiographic rating chart enables the
radiographer to determine the maximum safe kVp for a particular exposure. Because the heat
load an anode will safely accept varies with the size of the focal spot and the type of
rectification, these variables must be identified. Each x-ray tube has its own radiographic rating
chart. The speed of the imaging system has no impact on the use of a radiographic rating chart.
(Selman, p 145)
Ans. B

81. The advantages of large-format spot film cameras, such as 100-mm and 105-mm, over
smaller-format cameras, such as 70-mm and 90-mm, include
1. improved image quality.
2. decreased patient dose.
3. decreased x-ray tube heat load.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Spot film cameras are rapidly replacing conventional spot film cassettes. A significant advantage
of spot film cameras is the big reduction in patient dose that their use permits. However, as the
film format increases, so do image quality, patient dose, and heat production. Patient dose,
however, is still so much smaller than the dose with conventional spot film cassettes that it is
almost insignificant when the small improvement in image quality afforded by cassette spot
films is considered. (Bushong, p 344)
Ans. A

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82. In which of the following examinations would a cassette front with very low absorption
properties be especially important?
(A) Abdominal radiography
(B) Extremity radiography
(C) Angiography
(D) Mammography
—————————————————————————
Because mammography uses such low kVp levels, cassette/image receptor front material
becomes especially important. Any attenuation of the beam by the image receptor front would
be most undesirable. Low-attenuating carbon fibers or special plastics that resist impact and
heat softening (e.g., polystyrene and polycarbonate) are frequently used as image receptor front
material. (Carlton & Adler, p 585)
Ans. D

83. With three-phase equipment, the voltage across the x-ray tube
1. drops to zero every 180º.
2. is 87 to 96 percent of the maximum value.
3. is at nearly constant potential.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
—————————————————————————
With single-phase, full-wave-rectified equipment, the voltage is constantly changing from 0 to
100 percent of its maximum value. It drops to 0 every 180º (of the AC waveform); that is, there
is 100 percent voltage ripple. With three-phase equipment, the voltage ripple is significantly
smaller. Three-phase, six-pulse equipment has a 13 percent voltage ripple, and three-phase,
twelve-pulse equipment has a 3.5 percent ripple. Therefore, the voltage never falls below 87 to
96.5 percent of its maximum value with three-phase equipment, and it closely approaches
constant potential [direct current (DC)]. (Carlton & Adler, pp 98-99)
Ans. D

84. In order to be used more efficiently by the x-ray tube, alternating current is changed to
unidirectional current by the
(A) filament transformer.
(B) autotransformer.
(C) high-voltage transformer.
(D) rectifiers.
—————————————————————————
Rectifiers (solid-state or the older valve tubes) permit the flow of current in only one direction.
They serve to change AC, which is needed in the low-voltage side of the x-ray circuit, to
unidirectional current. Unidirectional current is necessary for the efficient operation of the x-
ray tube. The rectification system is located between the secondary coil of the high-voltage
transformer and the x-ray tube. The filament transformer functions to adjust the voltage and
current going to heat the x-ray tube filament. The autotransformer varies the amount of voltage
being sent to the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer so that the appropriate kVp can
be obtained. The high-voltage transformer "steps up" the voltage to the required kilovoltage and
steps down the amperage to milliamperage. (Carlton & Adler, p 78)
Ans. D

85. If the distance from the focal spot to the center of the collimator's mirror is 6 in, what

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distance should the illuminator's light bulb be from the center of the mirror?
(A) 3 in
(B) 6 in
(C) 9 in
(D) 12 in
—————————————————————————
The collimator assembly includes a series of lead shutters, a mirror, and a light bulb. The mirror
and light bulb function to project the size, location, and center of the irradiated field. The bulb's
emitted beam of light is deflected by a mirror placed at an angle of 45º in the path of the light
beam. In order for the projected light beam to be the same size as the x-ray beam, the focal spot
and the light bulb must be exactly the same distance from the center of the mirror.
(Carlton & Adler, p 442)
Ans. B

86. In order to maintain image clarity in an image intensifier system, the path of electron flow
from the photocathode to the output phosphor is controlled by
(A) the accelerating anode.
(B) electrostatic lenses.
(C) the vacuum glass envelope.
(D) the input phosphor.
—————————————————————————
The input phosphor of an image intensifier receives remnant radiation emerging from the
patient and converts it to a fluorescent light image. Directly adjacent to the input phosphor is
the photocathode, which is made of a photoemissive alloy (usually a cesium and antimony
compound). The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to an
electron image. The electrons are carefully focused, to maintain image resolution, by the
electrostatic focusing lenses, through the accelerating anode and to the output phosphor for
conversion back to light. (Carlton & Adler, p 537)
Ans. B

87. During a fluoroscopic examination, the milliamperage is

(A) less than 5
(B) 10 to 20
(C) 50 to 75
(D) 100 to 500
—————————————————————————
Conventional fluoroscopic milliamperagemust not exceed 5 mA. In image-intensified
fluoroscopy, the average tube current is between 1.0 and 3.0 mA. The combination of electron
acceleration and image minification within the image intensifier functions to increase image
brightness 5000 to 20,000times. When a spot film is taken, the mA automatically increases to
the required level. (Carlton & Adler, p 536)
Ans. A

88. Characteristic x-rays are produced when

(A) high-speed electrons are attracted by a tungsten nucleus and decelerated.
(B) orbital electrons move from an outer shell to fill an inner-shell vacancy.
(C) orbital electrons move from an inner shell to fill an outer-shell vacancy.
(D) an outer-shell electron is ejected from orbit.
—————————————————————————
Characteristic radiation is produced at the target when a high-energy incident electron ejects a

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K-shell tungsten electron. Because the L-shell electron is at a higher energy level than the K-
shell electron, it liberates the excess energy in the form of a K characteristic x-ray as it makes its
transit to the K shell.Characteristic radiation makes up only about 15 percent of the primary
beam. Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced when high-speed electrons are attracted by a
tungsten nucleus and decelerated. Brems radiation makes up the majority of the primary beam
(about 80 to 85 percent). (Selman, p 115)
Ans. B

89. The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the
(A) densitometer.
(B) sensitometer.
(C) penetrometer.
(D) spinning top.
—————————————————————————
The spinning top test may be used to test timer accuracy in single-phase equipment. A spinning
top is a metal disc with a small hole in its outer edge that is placed on a pedestal about 6 in high.
An exposure is made (e.g., 0.1 s) while the top spins. Because a full-wave-rectified unit produces
120 x-ray photon impulses per second, in 0.1 s the film should record 12 dots (if the timer is
accurate). Because three-phase equipment produces almost constant potential rather than
pulsed radiation, the standardspinning top cannot be used. An oscilloscope or synchronous
spinning top must be employed to test the timers of three-phase equipment. (Selman, p 106)
Ans. D

90. Which of the following equipment is mandatory for performance of a myelogram?

(A) Cine camera
(B) 105-mm spot film
(C) Tilting x-ray table
(D) Tomography
—————————————————————————
Myelography requires that contrast media be instilled into the lumbar subarachnoid space and
distributed via gravity to various levels of the subarachnoid space. This gravitational
distribution is accomplished through the use of an x-ray table that is capable of angling or tilting
during the procedure. (Bontrager, p 734)
Ans. C

91. The device that receives the remnant beam, converts it into light, and then increases the
brightness of that light is the
(A) cine camera.
(B) spot film camera.
(C) image intensifier.
(D) television monitor.
—————————————————————————
The visual apparatus that is responsible for visual acuity and contrast perception is the cones
within the retina. Cones are also used for daylight vision. Therefore, themost desirable condition
for fluoroscopic viewing is to have a bright enough image to permit cone (daylight) vision, for
better detail perception. The image intensifier accomplishes this. The intensified image is then
transferred to a TV monitor for viewing. Cine and spot film cameras record fluoroscopic events.
(Selman, pp 259-260)
Ans. C

92. Features of x-ray tube targets that function to determine heat capacity include the
1. rotation of the anode.

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2. diameter of the anode.
3. size of the focal spot.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Each time an x-ray exposure is made, less than 1 percent of the total energy is converted to x-
rays, and the remainder (more than 99 percent!) of the energy is converted to heat. Thus, it is
important to use target material with a high atomic number and high melting point. The larger
the actual focal spot size, the larger the area over which the generated heat is spread and the
more tolerant the x-ray tube is. Heat is particularly damaging to the target if it is concentrated
or limited to a small area. A target that rotates during the exposure is spreading the heat over a
large area, the entire surface of the focal track. If the diameter of the anode is greater, the focal
track will be longer and heat will be spread over an even larger area. (Saia, p 225)
Ans. D

93. All of the following devices are likely to be located on the typical x-ray unit control panel,
except a(n)
(A) mA meter.
(B) kVp selector.
(C) timer.
(D) filament ammeter.
—————————————————————————
Because the radiographer must be able to select a different mA, kVp, and exposure time for each
patient, the typical control panel will have selector switches for each of these functions. An mA
meter on the control panel functions to give a readout of the milliamperagefor each exposure. It
is good practice to get a glimpse of this meter during each exposure to ascertain that there was
indeed an exposure and that the meter registers the selected milliamperage. An mA meter will
not have time to register, say, 300 mA during a very fast exposure; rather, just a slight
movement of the needle will be observed. In such a case, an mAs meter could be used to check
the accuracy of the exposure. The kVp and timer selectors are required on the control panel for
use by the radiographer. The filament ammeter regulates the amount of current to the x-ray
tube filament circuit, and the equipment serviceperson must make any required adjustment in
this device. (Thompson et al, p 167)
Ans. D

94. All of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe exposure using
a radiographic tube rating chart, except the
(A) type of rectification.
(B) focal spot size.
(C) anode rotation speed.
(D) SID.
—————————————————————————
A radiographicrating chart enables the operator to determine the maximum safe milliamperage,
time, and kVp for a given exposure. Because the heat load that a particular anode will safely
accept varies with the size of the focal spot, type of rectification, and anode rotation, these
variables must also be identified. Each x-ray tube has its own radiographic rating chart. SID has
no impact on anode heat load, but rather affects patient dose and film density. (Selman, p 145)
Ans. D

95. The contrast improvement factor of a grid will be greatest with

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(A) high-ratio grids with many lines per inch.
(B) low-ratio grids with many lines per inch.
(C) high-ratio grids with fewer lines per inch.
(D) low-ratio grids with fewer lines per inch.
—————————————————————————
Contrast improvement factor is the ratio of the radiographic contrast obtained using a grid to
that obtained without a grid. In general, the greater the lead content of the grid, the better the
"cleanup" of scatter radiation and the higher the contrast improvement factor. The greater the
number of lead strips per inch, the thinner they must be and the less visible they will be.
However, the thinner the lead strips, the greater the likelihood of energetic scatter radiation
passing through them and reachingthe film. Therefore, in order to maintain grid efficiency and
an adequate contrast improvement factor, a higher-ratio grid with fewer lines per inch is
preferred. (Selman, pp 237-238)
Ans. C

96. Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second?
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Capacitance
—————————————————————————
Current is defined as the amount of electric charge flowing per second. Voltage is the potential
difference existing between two points. Resistance is the property of a circuit that opposes
current flow. Capacitance describes a quantity of stored electricity. (Selman, pp 46-47)
Ans. B

97. The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image can vary with
1. milliamperage.
2. kilovoltage.
3. patient thickness.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The thicker and more dense the anatomic part being studied, the less bright will be the
fluoroscopic image. Both mA and kVp affect the fluoroscopic image in a way similar to the way
in which they affect the radiographic image. For optimum contrast, especially taking patient
dose into consideration, higher kVp and lower mA are generally preferred. (Bushong, p 335)
Ans. D

98. During a fluoroscopic exam, x-ray photons exiting the patient then travel to which of the
following?
(A) output phosphor
(B) focusing lens
(C) input phosphor
(D) photocathode
—————————————————————————
X-ray photons emerging from the patient in fluoroscopy then travel to the image intensifier. The
first part of the image intensifier is the input phosphor, where each x-ray photon is converted to

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many visible light photons. This light interacts with the photocathode and is converted to
electrons that are directed by the focusing lens to the output phosphor. At this final point the
fluoroscopic image is minified, brighter, and inverted. (Bushong, pp 337-338)
Ans. C

99. Which of the following techniques is used to evaluate the dynamics of a part?
(A) Fluoroscopy
(B) Stereoscopy
(C) Tomography
(D) Phototiming
—————————————————————————
The dynamics, or motion, of a part must be studied during a "real-time" examination such as
fluoroscopy affords. Stereoscopy is a technique used to produce a radiographic third dimension.
Tomography produces sectional images of body parts by blurring superimposed structures
above and below the section, or level, of interest. A phototimer is one type of AEC device.
(Bushong, p 335)
Ans. A

100. The function of a plumbicon and vidicon is to convert:

(A) x-ray photon energy to visible light energy
(B) light energy to x-ray photon energy
(C) light to an electrical signal that is sent to the TV monitor
(D) an electrical signal to a light signal that is sent to the TV monitor
—————————————————————————
The plumbicon and vidicon are television camera tubes used in image intensified x-ray imaging.
The plumbicon or vidicon is coupled with the output phosphor of the image intensifier, collects
the light emitted by the output phosphor, and converts it to an electrical signal. This signal then
travels to the TV monitor where it is viewed. X-ray photon energy is changed to visible light
energy at the input phosphor of the image intensifier. (Bushong, p 340)
Ans. C

101. Which of the following is the correct formula for determining heat units for a three-
phase, twelve-pulse x-ray machine?
(A) kVp × mA × time
(B) mA × kVp × mAs
(C) kVp × mAs × 1.35
(D) mA × time × kVp × 1.41
—————————————————————————
Each time an x-ray exposure is made, heat is produced in the x-ray tube. Actually, of all the
energy used to make an exposure, 99.8 percent is converted to heat and only 0.2 percent is
converted to x-ray photon energy. Since greater heat production leads to increased wear and
tear on the x-ray tube, thereby decreasing its useful life, it behooves the radiographer to be able
to calculate heat units (HU) and to understand the means of keeping heat production to a
minimum. Heat units for a single-phase x-ray unit are determined by using the formula HU = mA
× kVp × time. Heat units for a three-phase, six-pulse x-ray unit are determined by using the
formula HU = mA × kVp × time × 1.35. Heat units for a three-phase, twelve-pulse x-ray unit are
determined by using the formula HU = mA × kVp × time × 1.41. High-mAs technical factors
produce far more heat units than low-mAs technical factors. (Carlton & Adler, p 125)
Ans. D

102. If a high-voltage transformer has 100 primary turns and 35,000 secondary turns, and is
supplied by 220 Volts and 75 A, what are the secondary voltage and current?

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(A) 200 A and 77 V
(B) 200 mA and 77 kVp
(C) 20 A and 77 V
(D) 20 mA and 77 kVp
—————————————————————————
The high-voltage, or step-up, transformer functions to increase voltage to the necessary
kilovoltage. It decreases the amperage to milliamperage. The amount of increase or decrease is
dependent on the transformer ratiothe ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil to the
number of turns in the secondary coil. The transformer law is as follows:
To determine secondary V,

.Vs Ns
 = 
.Vp Np

To determine secondary I:

.Vs Ip
 = 
.Vp Is

Substituting known factors,

x 35,000
 =  ; 100x = 7,700,000 ; x = 77,000 V (77 kVp)
220 100

35,000 75
 =  ; 35,000x = 7500 ; x = 0.214 A (214 mA)
100 x

(Selman, pp 84-85)
Ans. B

103. Rare earth phosphors that may be used in intensifying screens include
1. cesium iodide.
2. gadolinium oxysulfide.
3. lanthanum oxybromide.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Rare earth phosphors are not scarce; they are difficult to separate from other materials with
which they are combined in the earth. Rare earth phosphors are much more efficient than
calcium tungstate in absorbing x-ray photons and converting their energy into fluorescent light.
Examples of rare earth phosphors are gadolinium oxysulfide and lanthanum oxybromide.
Cesium iodide is the phosphor of preference for the input phosphor of an image intensifier.
(Selman, p 182)
Ans. C

104. Star and wye configurations are related to

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(A) autotransformers.
(B) three-phase transformers.
(C) rectification systems.
(D) automatic exposure controls.
—————————————————————————
The terms star and wye (or delta) refer to the configuration of transformer windings in three-
phase equipment. Instead of having a single primary coil and a single secondary coil, the high-
voltage transformer has three primary and three secondary windingsone winding for each
phase (see Fig. 5-10, on page 288). Autotransformers operate on the principle of self-induction
and have only one winding. Three-phase x-ray equipment often has three autotransformers.
(Selman, p 163)
Ans. B

105. Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the
useful beam is termed
(A) scattered radiation.
(B) secondary radiation.
(C) leakage radiation.
(D) remnant radiation.
—————————————————————————
Scattered and secondary radiations have been deviated in direction while passing through a part.
Leakage radiation is that which emerges from the leaded tube housing in directions other than
that of the useful beam. Tube head construction must keep leakage radiation to less than 0.1
R/h at 1 m from the tube. Remnant radiation is that which emerges from the patient to form the
radiographic image. (Selman, p 403)
Ans. C

106. Extended film processing of 3 minutes can be valuable for which of the following
procedures?
(A) macroradiography
(B) mammography
(C) computed tomography
(D) computed radiography
—————————————————————————
Extending film processing from the traditional 90 seconds to 3 minutes can promote higher
image contrast and reduce patient dose in mammography. Macroradiography (magnification
radiography) uses traditional x-ray film processing. CT typically utilizes digital imaging, and CR
does not use traditional film-loaded cassettes (Fosbinder & Kelsey, p 211)
Ans. A

107. A technique chart should be prepared for each AEC x-ray unit and should contain the
following information for each type of examination:
1. Photocell(s) used
2. Optimum kVp
3. Backup time
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The AEC automatically adjusts the exposure required for body parts that have different

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thicknesses and densities. Proper functioning of the phototimer depends on accurate positioning
by the radiographer. The correct photocell(s) must be selected, and the anatomic part of interest
must completely cover the photocell in order to achieve the desired density. If collimation is
inadequate, and a field size larger than the part is used, excessive scatter radiation from the
body or tabletop can cause the AEC to terminate the exposure prematurely, resulting in an
underexposed radiograph. Backup time should always be selected on the manual timer
toprevent patient overexposure and to protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat production
should the AEC malfunction. Selection of the optimum kV for the part being radiographed is
essentialno practical amount of mAs can make up for inadequate penetration (kV), and
excessive kV can cause the AEC to terminate the exposure prematurely. A technique chart is
therefore strongly recommended for use with AEC; it should indicate the optimum kV for the part,
the photocells that should be selected, and the backup time that should be set. (Carlton & Adler, p
508)
Ans. D

108. A light-absorbing dye is frequently incorporated during the manufacture of screens to

(A) reduce the diffusion of fluorescent light.
(B) decrease film contrast.
(C) increase screen speed.
(D) increase the useful life of the screen.
—————————————————————————
Remnant radiation emerging from the patient causes fluorescence of the cassette's front
intensifying screen. This fluorescent light not only exposes the adjacent film emulsion, but also
can pass through the film base to the opposite emulsion. Because the fluorescent light diffuses
as it travels to the opposite emulsion, there is a decrease in image sharpness. This occurrence,
called crossover, is minimized by the incorporation of a light-absorbing dye in the active layer.
(Shephard, pp 73-74)
Ans. A

109. All of the following are associated with the anode except
(A) the line focus principle.
(B) the heel effect.
(C) the focal track.
(D) thermionic emission.
—————————————————————————
The rotating anode has a target (or focal spot) on its beveled edge, which forms the target angle.
As the anode rotates, it constantly turns a new face to the incoming electrons; this is the focal
track. That portion of the focal track that is bombarded by electrons is the actual focal spot, and
because of the target's angle, the effective or projected focal spot is always smaller (line focus
principle). The anode heel effect refers to decreased beam intensity at the anode end of the x-
ray beam. The electrons impinging on the target have "boiled off" the cathode filament as a
result of thermionic emission. (Selman, pp 138-139)
Ans. D

110. Figure 5-5 illustrates the

(A) anode heel effect.
(B) reciprocity law.
(C) line focus principle.
(D) inverse square law.
—————————————————————————
Figure 5-5 depicts the line focus principle; it illustrates that the actual focal spot (number 1) is
always larger than the effective, or projected/apparent, focal spot (number 2). The actual focal

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spot is a finite area on the anode that is bombarded by electrons from the filament. Because of
the anode's bevel, the effective focal spot is foreshortened and therefore is smaller than the
actual focal spot. The anode heel effect has to do with the variation in intensity of the x-ray
beam as it is emitted from the focus. The anode heel effect is more apparent with small anode
angles. (Selman, pp 138-139)
Ans. C

111. The number 2 in Figure 5-5 indicates the

(A) effective focal spot.
(B) actual focal spot.
(C) focal track.
(D) thermionic emission.
—————————————————————————
Figure 5-5 depicts the line focus principle; it illustrates that the actual focal spot (number 1) is
always larger than the effective, or projected/apparent, focal spot (number 2). The actual focal
spot is a finite area on the anode that is bombarded by electrons from the filament. Because of
the anode's bevel, the effective focal spot is foreshortened and therefore is smaller than the
actual focal spot. The anode heel effect has to do with the variation in intensity of the x-ray
beam as it is emitted from the focus. The anode heel effect is more apparent with small anode
angles. (Selman, pp 138-139)
Ans. A

112. Which of the following are features of fluoroscopic equipment that are designed
especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and personnel?
1. Protective curtain
2. Filtration
3. Focal spot
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The protective curtain, which is usually made of leaded vinyl with at least 0.25 mm lead
equivalent, must be positioned between the patient and the fluoroscopist to greatly reduce
exposure to energetic scatter from the patient. As with overhead equipment, fluoroscopic total
filtration must be at least 2.5 mm Al equivalent to reduce excessive exposure to soft radiation.
Focal spot size is unrelated to patient or personnel exposure. (Bushong, pp 533-534)
Ans. B

113. Advantages of 100-mm spot filming over cassette spot filming include
1. less patient exposure.
2. lower film cost.
3. practical storage.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Strip or cut spot films are obtained photographically, using the light emitted from the image
intensifier's output phosphor. Consequently, much less patient exposure is involved. The film is
smaller than cassette film, and this also lessens the exposure. The size of these films (about 4 x 4

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in) decreases the amount of filing space needed. Because multiple frames may be exposed per
second, their use also decreases exam time because the interruption of changing spot cassettes
is eliminated. The smaller the film size, the less silver required, and so the less costly the film.
(Bushong, p 344)
Ans. D

114. Capacitor discharge mobile x-ray units

1. use a grid-controlled x-ray tube.
2. are typically charged before the day's work.
3. provide a direct current output.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
There are two main types of mobile x-ray units: capacitor discharge and battery-powered. The
capacitor discharge units consist of a capacitor, or condenser, which is given a charge and then
stores energy until the x-ray tube uses it to produce x-rays. The charge may not be stored for
extended periods, however, because it tends to "leak" away; the capacitor must be charged just
before the exposure is made. Its x-ray tube is grid-controlled, permitting very fast (short)
exposure times. Capacitors dischargea direct current (as opposed to single- or three-phase
pulsating current) in which the kilovoltage decreases by a value of approximately 1 kV per mAs.
Thus, although the value at the onset of the exposure may be 20 mAs and 80 kVp, at the end of
the exposure the kV value will be approximately 60. In addition, capacitor discharge units
permit only limited mAs values, usually 30 to 50 mAs per charge. (Bushong, p 118)
Ans. C

115. X-ray tube life may be extended by

1. using low-mAs/high-kVp exposure factors.
2. avoiding lengthy anode rotation.
3. avoiding exposures to a cold anode.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
X-ray tube life may be extended by using exposure factors that produce a minimum of heat, that
is, a lower mAs and higher kVp combination, whenever possible. When the rotor is activated,
the filament current is increased to produce the required electron source (thermionic
emission). Prolonged rotor time, then, can lead to shortened filament life as a result of early
vaporization. Large exposures to a cold anode will heat the anode surface, and the big
temperature difference can cause cracking of the anode. This can be avoided by proper warming
of the anode prior to use, thereby allowing sufficient dispersion of heat through the anode.
(Selman, pp 143-145)
Ans. D

116. The transition of orbital electrons from outer to inner shells gives rise to
(A) Compton scatter.
(B) pair production.
(C) bremsstrahlung radiation.
(D) characteristic radiation.
—————————————————————————

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When a low-energy x-ray photon interacts with tissue, a K-shell orbital electron may be ejected
from its orbit. Because the K shell must be filled, an L-shell electron drops down to fill the K
vacancy. Because the L-shell electron is at a higher energy level, it liberates the excess energy in
the form of a K characteristic x-ray as it makes its transit to the K shell. K characteristic
radiation is soft radiation and is readily absorbed by tissue. This is a description of the
photoelectric effect, in which all of the incident photon energy is absorbed by tissue, resulting in
high radiographic contrast. Characteristic radiation is also produced at the target when an
incident electron ejects a K-shell tungsten electron; this is responsible for only about 15 percent
of the photons produced at the target. (Selman, pp 114-115)
Ans. D

117. Which of the following modes of a trifield image intensifier will result in the highest
patient dose?
(A) Its 25-in mode.
(B) Its 17-in mode.
(C) Its 12-in mode.
(D) Diameter does not affect patient dose.
—————————————————————————
Most image intensifier tubes are either dual-field or trifield, indicating the diameter of the
input phosphor. When a change to a smaller-diameter mode is made, the voltage on the
electrostatic focusing lenses is increased, and the result is a magnified, but dimmer, image.
The milliamperage will automatically be increased to compensate for the loss in brightness
with a magnified image, resulting in higher patient dose in the smaller-diameter modes.
(Bushong, pp 339-340)
Ans. C

118. Off-focus, or extra-focal, radiation may be minimized by

(A) avoiding the use of very high kilovoltages.
(B) restricting the x-ray beam as close to its source as possible.
(C) using compression devices to reduce tissue thickness.
(D) avoiding extreme collimation.
—————————————————————————
Off-focus, or extrafocal, radiation is produced as electrons strike metal surfaces other than
the focal track and produce x-rays that emerge with the primary beam at a variety of angles.
This radiation is responsible for indistinct images outside the collimated field.
Mounting a pair of shutters as close to the source as possible minimizes off-focus radiation.
(Bushong, p 135)
Ans. B

119. The advantage(s) of collimators over aperture diaphragms and flare cones include(s)
4. the variety of field sizes available.
5. more efficient beam restriction.
6. better cleanup of scattered radiation.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
—————————————————————————
There are three types of beam restrictors:
1.) aperture diaphragms,
2.) cones and cylinders,
3.) collimators.

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 The most practical and efficient type is the collimator.
o Its design makes available an infinite number of field size variations that are not
available with the other types of beam restrictors.
o Because aperture diaphragms and flare cones have a fixed aperture size and shape,
their beam restriction is not as efficient as that of the variable-size collimator.
 Aperture diaphragms, cones and cylinders may be placed on a collimator track so that the
illuminated crosshairs are visualized.
o Although the collimator assembly contributes approximately 1.0 mm Al equivalent to
the added filtration of the x-ray tube (because of the plastic exit portal and silver-
coated reflective mirror), its functions are unrelated to the cleanup of scattered
radiation.
 This is because the patient is the principal scatterer, and grids function to clean up
scattered radiation generated by the patient.
(Bushong, pp 225-227)
Ans. B

120. An automatic exposure control device can operate on which of the following principles?
1. A photomultiplier tube charged by a fluorescent screen
2. A parallel-plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons
3. Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 A phototimer is one type of AEC that actually measures light.
o As x-ray photons penetrate and emerge from a part, a fluorescent screen beneath the
image receptor glows, and the fluorescent light charges a photomultiplier tube.
o Once a predetermined charge has been reached, the exposure automatically
terminates.
 A parallel-plate ionization chamber is another type of AEC.
o A radiolucent chamber is located beneath the patient (between the patient and the
film).
o As photons emerge from the patient, they enter the chamber and ionize the air
within it.
o Once a predetermined charge has been reached, the exposure is automatically
terminated.
 Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor refers to the principle of
mutual induction.
(Selman, pp 153-154)
Ans. C

121. Periodic equipment calibration includes testing of the

4. focal spot.
5. mA.
6. kVp.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Radiographic results should be consistent and predictable, not only in terms of positioning
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accuracy but with respect to exposure factors and image sharpness as well.
 X-ray equipment should be calibrated periodically as part of an on going quality
assurance program.
i. The quantity (mAs) and quality (kVp) of the primary beam have a big impact on the
quality of the finished radiograph.
ii. The focal spot should be tested periodically to evaluate its impact on image
sharpness.
(Bushong, pp 430-431)
Ans. D

122. Which of the following functions to increase the mA?

(A) increase in charge of anode
(B) increase in heat of the filament
(C) increase in kVp
(D) increase in focal spot size
—————————————————————————
o The x-ray tube filament is made of thoriated tungsten.
o When heated to incandescence (white hot), the filament liberates electrons a process
called thermionic emission.
o It is these electrons that will become the tube current (mA).
o As heat is increased, more electrons are released and mA increases.
(Bushong, pp 126-127)
Ans. B

123. A backup timer for the AEC serves to

1. protect the patient from overexposure.
2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat.
3. increase or decrease master density.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
o When an AEC is installed in the x-ray circuit, it is calibrated to produce radiographic
densities as required by the radiologist.
o Once the part being radiographed has been exposed to produce the correct film density,
the AEC automatically terminates the exposure.
o The manual timer should be used as a backup timer; in case the AEC fails to terminate
the exposure, the backup timer would:
1.) protect the patient from overexposure

2.) protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat load.

o The master density is generally set on normal to produce the required densities.
o In special cases, when this produces excessive or insufficient density, the master density
may be adjusted to plus or minus density.
(Selman, p 154)
Ans. B

124. Fractional-focus tubes, with a 0.3-mm focal spot or smaller, have special application in
(A) magnification radiography.
(B) fluoroscopy.
(C) tomography.
(D) image intensification.
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—————————————————————————
o Magnification radiography may be used to demonstrate small, delicate structures that are
difficult to image with conventional radiography.
o Because object-image distance (OID) is an integral part of magnification radiography,
the problem of magnification unsharpness arises.
o The use of a fractional focal spot (0.3 mm or smaller) is essential to the maintenance of
image sharpness in magnification films.
o Radiographic rating charts should be consulted, as the heat load to the anode may be
critical in magnification radiography.
o The long exposures typical of image-intensified fluoroscopy and tomography make the
use of a fractional focal spot generally impractical and hazardous to the anode.
(Selman, p 226)
Ans. A

125. In the radiographic rating charts shown in Figure 5-6, what is the maximum safe kVp
that may be used with the 1-mm focal spot, single-phase x-ray tube, using 300 mA and 1/50 s
exposure?
(A) 80 kVp
(B) 95 kVp
(C) 105 kVp
(D) 112 kVp
—————————————————————————
o A radiographic rating chart enables the radiographer to determine the maximum safe mA,
exposure time, and kVp for a given exposure using a particular x-ray tube.
o Because the heat load that an anode will safely accept varies with the size of the focal
spot, type of rectification, and anode rotation, these variables must also be identified.
o Each x-ray tube has its own characteristics and its own rating chart.
o First, find the chart with the identifying single-phase sine wave in the upper right corner
of the chart and the correct focal spot size in the upper left corner of the chart (chart C).
o Once the correct chart has been identified, locate 1/50 (0.02) s on the horizontal axis
and follow its line up to where it intersects with the 300-mA curve.
o Then draw a line to where this point meets the vertical (kVp) axis; it meets at between
100 and 110 kVp, or approximately 107 kVp.
o This is the maximum permissible kVp exposure at the given mAs for this x-ray tube.
o The radiographer should always use somewhat less than the maximum exposure.
o This same procedure is followed to answer the next two questions.
(Selman, p 145)
Ans. C

126. In Figure 5-6, which of the illustrated x-ray tubes permit(s) an exposure of 400 mA, 0.1 s,
and 80 kVp?
1. Tube A
2. Tube B
3. Tube C
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
o Only x-ray tubes A and B, the three-phase-rectified x-ray tubes, will safely permit this
exposure.

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o Locate 0.1 s on the horizontal axis and follow it up to where it intersects with the 400-
mA curve.
o X-ray tube A will permit over 150 kVp safely, while x-ray tube B will safely permit only
about 92 kVp.
o Notice the significant difference between the two, which is solely due to the difference in
focal spot size!
o X-ray tube C will permit only about 75 kVp at the given mAs.
(Selman, p 145)
Ans. B

127. In Figure 5-6, what is the maximum safe mA that may be used with 0.1 s exposure and
120 kVp, using the three-phase, 2-mm focal spot x-ray tube?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700
—————————————————————————
o Find the correct chart for the three-phase, 2-mm focal spot x-ray tube. Locate 0.1 s on
the horizontal (seconds) axis and follow it up to where it intersects with the 120-kVp
line on the vertical (kVp) axis.
o They intersect midway between the 600- and 700-mA curves, at approximately 650 mA.
o Thus, 600 mA is the maximum safe milliamperage for this particular group of exposure
factors and x-ray tube.
(Selman, p 145)
Ans. C

128. Referring to the anode cooling chart in Figure 5-7, if the anode is saturated with 300,000
heat units (HU), how long will the anode need to cool before another 160,000 heat units can
be safely applied?
(A) 3 min
(B) 4 min
(C) 5 min
(D) 7 min
—————————————————————————
o Each x-ray exposure made by the radiographer produces hundreds or thousands of heat
units at the target.
o If the examination requires several consecutive exposures, the potential for extreme
heat load is increased.
o Just as each x-ray tube has its own radiographic rating chart, each tube also has its own
anode cooling curve to describe its unique heating and cooling characteristics.
o An x-ray tube generally cools most rapidly during the first 2 min of non-use.
o First, note that the tube is saturated with heat at 300,000 heat units.
o In order for another 160,000 heat units to be safely applied, the x-ray tube must first
release 160,000 heat units, which means that it has to cool down at least to 140,000 heat
units.
o Find the 140,000 point on the vertical axis and follow across to where it intersects with
the cooling curve.
o It intersects at about the 4-min point.
(Selman, p 147)
Ans. B

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129. A high-speed electron entering the tungsten target is attracted to the positive nucleus of
a tungsten atom and, in the process, is decelerated. This results in
(A) characteristic radiation.
(B) Bremsstrahlung radiation.
(C) Compton scatter.
(D) photoelectric effect.
—————————————————————————
The incident electron has a certain amount of energy as it approaches the tungsten target.
 If the positive nucleus of a tungsten atom attracts the electron, changing its course, a
certain amount of energy is released during the "braking" action.
o This energy is given up in the form of an x-ray photon called Bremsstrahlung
("braking") radiation.
 Characteristic radiation is also produced at the target (less frequently) when an incident
electron ejects a K-shell electron, and an L-shell electron drops into its place.
o Energy is liberated in the form of a characteristic ray, and its energy is
representative of the difference in energy levels.
 Compton scatter and the photoelectric effect are interactions between x-ray photons and
tissue atoms.
(Selman, p 113)
Ans. B

130. Target angle will have an effect on the

1. severity of the heel effect.
2. focal spot size.
3. heat load capacity.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 As the target angle is decreased (made steeper), a larger actual focal spot may be used,
while still maintaining the same small effective focal spot.
o Because the actual focal spot is larger, it can accommodate a greater heat load.
o However, with steeper (smaller) target angles, the anode heel effect is accentuated
and can compromise film coverage.
(Selman, pp 138-139)
Ans. D

131. Light-sensitive automatic exposure control devices are known as

(A) phototimers.
(B) ionization chambers.
(C) sensors.
(D) backup timers.
—————————————————————————
 AECs are used in today's equipment and serve to produce consistent and comparable
results.
i. In first type of AEC, there is an ionization chamber beneath the tabletop above the
image receptor.
o The part to be examined is centered to it (the sensor) and radiographed.
When a predetermined quantity of ionization has occurred (equal to the correct density),
the exposure automatically terminates.
ii. With the second type of AEC, the phototimer, a small fluorescent screen is positioned
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beneath the cassette.
o When remnant radiation emerging from the patient exposes the film and exits the
cassette, the fluorescent screen emits light.
o Once a predetermined amount of fluorescent light has been "seen" by the photocell
sensor, the exposure is automatically terminated.
 In either case, the manual timer should be used as a backup timer; in case of AEC
malfunction, the exposure would terminate, thus avoiding patient overexposure and
tube overload.
(Saia, p 244)
Ans. A

132. Delivery of large exposures to a cold anode or the use of exposures exceeding tube
limitation can result in
1. increased tube output.
2. cracking of the anode.
3. rotor bearing damage.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 A large quantity of heat applied to a cold anode can cause enough surface heat to crack
the anode.
Excessive heat to the target can cause pitting or localized melting of the focal track.
o Localized melts can result in vaporized tungsten deposits on the glass envelope, which
can cause a filtering effect, decreasing tube output.
o Excessive heat can also be conducted to the rotor bearings, causing increased friction
and tube failure.
(Selman, p 146)

Ans. C

133. What is the device that is used to absorb scattered radiation produced in the patient before
it reaches the image receptor?
(A) Photomultiplier
(B) Beam restrictor
(C) Ionization chamber
(D) Grid
—————————————————————————
Scattered radiation is produced in the part being radiographed during every exposure.
If this scatter reaches the image receptor, it has a degrading effect on the resulting
image.
o Scattered radiation does not contribute useful information to the image; rather, it
covers the image with a layer of fog.
A grid is a device made of alternating strips of lead and radiolucent material that is
placed between the part being examined and the image receptor.
o It functions to collect scattered radiation before it reaches the image receptor.
 Although the use of a grid generally requires a sizable increase in mAs, and therefore in
patient dose, this is more than compensated for by the significant increase in image
quality.
(Shephard, pp 244-245)
Ans. D
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134. To determine how quickly an x-ray tube will disperse its accumulated heat, the
radiographer uses a(n)
(A) technique chart.
(B) radiographic rating chart.
(C) anode cooling curve.
(D) spinning top test.
—————————————————————————
i. An anode cooling curve identifies how many heat units the anode can accommodate and
the length of time required for adequate cooling between exposures.
ii. A radiographic rating chart is used to determine if the selected mA, exposure time, and
kVp are within safe tube limits.
iii. A technique chart is used to determine the correct exposure factors for a particular part
of the body of a given thickness.
iv. A spinning top test is used to test for timer inaccuracy or rectifier failure.
(Selman, p 147)
Ans. C

135. Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total
number of heat units produced with a given exposure using three-phase, six-pulse equipment?
(A) mA × time × kVp
(B) mA × time × kVp × 3.0
(C) mA × time × kVp × 1.35
(D) mA × time × kVp × 1.41
(E)
—————————————————————————
 The number of heat units produced during a given exposure with single-phase equipment
is determined by multiplying mA × time × kVp.
 Correction factors are required with three-phase equipment.
1) Unless the equipment manufacturer specifies otherwise, heat units for three-
phase, six-pulse equipment are determined by multiplying mA × time × kVp ×
1.35.
2) Heat units for three-phase, twelve-pulse equipment are determined by
multiplying mA × time × kVp × 1.41.
(Selman, pp 145-146)
Ans. C

136. A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue density variations,
is the
(A) phototimer.
(B) penetrometer.
(C) grid.
(D) rare earth screen.
—————————————————————————
 Radiographic reproducibility is an important concept in producing high-quality
diagnostic films.
o Radiographic results should be consistent and predictable, not only in terms of
positioning accuracy, but with respect to exposure factors as well.
 AEC devices (phototimers and ionization chambers) automatically terminate the x-ray
exposure once a predetermined quantity of x-rays has penetrated the patient, thus
ensuring consistent results.
(Saia, p 461)

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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
Ans. A

137. Radiographs from a particular single-phase, full-wave-rectified x-ray unit were

overexposed, using known correct exposures. A spinning top test was performed at 200 mA,
0.05 s, and 70 kVp, and eight dots (dashes) were visualized on the finished film. Which of the
following is indicated?
(A) The 0.05-s time station is inaccurate.
(B) The 200-mA station is inaccurate.
(C) A rectifier is not functioning.
(D) The processor needs servicing.
—————————————————————————
 The spinning top test is used to test timer accuracy or rectifier operation.
o Because single-phase, full-wave-rectified current has 120 useful impulses per second,
a 1-s exposure of the spinning top should demonstrate 120 dots.
o Therefore, a 0.05-s exposure should demonstrate six dots.
Anything more or less than that indicates that the time station needs calibration.
If exactly one-half of the expected number of dots appears, one should suspect rectifier failure.
(Saia, p 434)
Ans. A

138. The rear intensifying screen within a cassette may intentionally be made somewhat
thicker to
(A) compensate for photon absorption within the front screen.
(B) improve the resolution capability of the screens.
(C) reduce the amount of light reflectance.
(D) minimize crossover.
—————————————————————————
 There can be significant attenuation of the beam as it traverses the front screen and film.
 Rare earth phosphors absorb significantly more x-ray photons than did calcium
tungstate screens.
o Consequently, rear screen fluorescence may be diminished.
To compensate for the loss of photons, the rear screen may be thicker (and therefore
faster).
(Carlton & Adler, p 335)
Ans. A

139. If a radiograph exposed using an AEC is overexposed because an exposure shorter than
the minimum response time was required, the radiographer generally should
(A) decrease the mA.
(B) use the minus density.
(C) use the plus density.
(D) decrease the kVp.
—————————————————————————
Because using the master control's minus-density adjustment involves decreasing the
exposure time (and this is not possible), this adjustment will be ineffective.
Decreasing the kVp will produce a change in radiographic contrast.
Because too long an exposure time results in excessive density, the best way to
compensate is to decrease the milliamperage.
(Carlton & Adler, p 105)
(Shephard, p 286)
Ans. A

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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
140. Which of the following would be appropriate cassette front material(s)?
1. Tungsten
2. Magnesium
3. Bakelite
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 The cassette is used to support the intensifying screens and x-ray film.
 It should be strong and should provide good screen / film contact.
The cassette front should be made of a sturdy material with a low atomic number,
because attenuation of the remnant beam is undesirable.
Materials most commonly used for cassette fronts
1.) Bakelite (the forerunner of today's plastics)
2.) magnesium (the lightest structural metal)
 The high atomic number of tungsten makes it inappropriate as a cassette front material.
(Shephard, p 41)
Ans. C

141. The most commonly used types of automatic exposure control devices are the
1. ion chamber.
2. photomultiplier tube.
3. cathode ray tube.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 AECs were originally developed in order to achieve more consistent and reproducible
film densities.
This consistency reduces the number of retakes, thereby reducing patient exposure dose.
o The two AECs that are most commonly used employ either a
1.)
photomultiplier tube
2.)
ion (or ionization) chamber.
The ion chamber is positioned between the table and the cassette, whereas the
photomultiplier is located below the cassette (Fig. 5-11).
(Shephard, pp 275-276)
Ans. A

142. The technique that is used to improve diagnostic quality by removing superimposed
anatomic details from an x-ray image is called
(A) xeroradiography.
(B) subtraction.
(C) CT.
(D) MRI.
—————————————————————————
(A) Subtraction technique is used most frequently with angiographic films.
o Tiny vessels needing evaluation are frequently superimposed on bony details.
o The blood vessels may be "subtracted out" by using either a digital or a manual
subtraction technique.
(B) Xeroradiography involves imaging a structure on an electrically charged plate.
Reviewer A&R
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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
o The electrostatic image is converted to a visible image in a special
conditioner/processor.
(Carlton & Adler, p 288)
Ans. B

143. A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The
resulting image looks like a
(A) series of dots or dashes, each representative of a radiation pulse.
(B) solid arc, with the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time.
(C) series of gray tones, from white to black.
(D) multitude of small, meshlike squares of uniform sharpness.
—————————————————————————
 When a spinning top is used to test the efficiency of a single-phase timer, the result is a
series of dots or dashes, with each representing a pulse of radiation.
With full-wave-rectified current and a possible 120 dots (pulses) available per second,
one should visualize 12 dots at 1/10
s, 24 dots at 1/5 s, 6 dots at 1/20 s, and so on.
However, because three-phase equipment is at almost constant potential, a synchronous
spinning top must be used, and the result is a solid arc (rather than dots).
The number of degrees taken up by the arc is measured and equated to a particular exposure
time.
A multitude of small, meshlike squares describes a screen contact test.
An aluminum step wedge (penetrometer) may beused to demonstrate the effect of kVp on
contrast (demonstrating a series of gray tones from white to black), with a greater number of
grays demonstrated at higher kVp levels.
(Saia, p 434)
Ans. B

144. Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on

1. the thickness and density of the object.
2. positioning of the object with respect to the photocell.
3. beam restriction.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
 The AEC automatically terminates the exposure when the proper density has been
recorded on the film.
o The important advantage of the phototimer, then, is that it can accurately duplicate
radiographic densities.
 It is very useful in providing accurate comparison in follow-up examinations, and in
decreasing patient exposure dose by reducing the number of "retakes" needed
because of improper exposure.
 The AEC automatically adjusts the exposure required for body parts with different
thicknesses and densities.
 However, proper functioning of the phototimer depends on accurate positioning by
the radiographer.
 The correct photocell(s) must be selected, and the anatomic part of interest must
completely cover the photocell in order to achieve the desired density.
 If collimation is inadequate and a field size larger than the part is used, excessive
scatter radiation from the body or tabletop can cause the AEC to terminate the

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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
exposure prematurely, resulting in an underexposed radiograph.
(Carlton & Adler, pp 503-506)
Ans. C

145. The image intensifier's input phosphor is generally composed of

(A) cesium iodide.
(B) zinc cadmium sulfide.
(C) gadolinium oxysulfide.
(D) calcium tungstate.
—————————————————————————
 The image intensifier's input phosphor receives the remnant beam from the patient and
converts it to a fluorescent light image.
 In order to maintain resolution, the input phosphor is made of cesium iodide crystals.
a) Cesium iodide is much more efficient in this conversion process than was the
phosphor previously used, zinc cadmium sulfide.
b) Calcium tungstate was the phosphor used in cassette intensifying screens for many
years prior to the development of rare earth phosphors such as gadolinium
oxysulfide.
(Bushong, p 337)
Ans. A

146. The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on the
1. tube current.
2. target material.
3. square of the kilovoltage.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
The greater the number of electrons making up the electron stream and bombarding the
target, the greater the number of x-ray photons produced.
Although kV is usually associated with the energy of the x-ray photons, because a greater
number of more energetic electrons will produce more x-ray photons, an increase in kV will
also increase the number of photons produced.
Specifically, the quantity of radiation produced increases as the square of the kilovoltage.
The material composition of the tube target also plays an important rolein the number of x-
ray photons produced.
The higher the atomic number of this material, the denser and more closely packed the
atoms making up the material are, and therefore the greater the chance of an interaction
between a high-speed electron and the target material.
(Bushong, pp 148-151)
Ans. D

147. A parallel-plate ionization chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel
through it. This is the operating principle of which of the following devices?
(A) Automatic exposure control
(B) Image intensifier
(C) Cine film camera
(D) Spot film camera
—————————————————————————
A parallel-plate ionization chamber is a type of AEC.

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Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
o A radiolucent chamber is beneath the patient (between the patient and the film).
o As photons emerge from the patient, they enter the chamber and ionize the air within it.
o Once a predetermined charge has been reached, the exposure is automatically
terminated.

(Carlton & Adler, pp 503-506)

Ans. A

148. Excessive anode heating can cause vaporized tungsten to be deposited on the port
window. This can result in
1. decreased tube output.
2. tube failure.
3. electrical sparking.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Vaporized tungsten may be deposited on the inner surface of the glass envelope at the
tube (port) window.
o It acts as an additional filter, thereby reducing tube output.
o The tungsten deposit may also attract electrons from the filament, creating sparking and
causing puncture of the glass envelope and subsequent tube failure.
(Selman, pp 137-138)
Ans. D

149. The input phosphor of the image intensifier tube functions to convert
(A) kinetic energy to light.
(B) x-rays to light.
(C) electrons to light.
(D) fluorescent light to electrons.
—————————————————————————
The image intensifier's input phosphor receives the remnant radiation emerging from
the patient and converts it into a fluorescent light image.
o Very close to the input phosphor, separated by a thin transparent layer, is the
photocathode.
The photocathode is made of a photoemissive alloy, usually an antimony and cesium
compound.
The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to an electron
image that is focused by the electrostatic lenses to the output phosphor.
(Bushong, p 337)
Ans. B

150. Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-induction?
1. Autotransformer
2. Choke coil
3. High-voltage transformer
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
—————————————————————————
Reviewer A&R
Question & Answer

52
Review Notes for the
RADIOGRAPHY EXAM Appelton
The principle of self-induction is an example of the second law of electromagnetics (Lenz's
law), which states that an induced current within a conductive coil will oppose the
direction of the current that induced it.
o It is important to note that self-induction is a characteristic of alternating current (AC)
only.
o The fact that AC is constantly changing direction accounts for the opposing current set
up in the coil. Two x-ray circuit devices operate on the principle of self-induction.
1.) The autotransformer operates on the principle of self-induction and enables the
radiographer to vary the kilovoltage.
2.) The choke coil also operates on the principle of self-induction; it is a type of variable
resistor that may be used to regulate filament current.
A. The high-voltage transformer operates on the principle of mutual induction.
(Selman, p 89)
Ans. B

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