UPDATED ORIGINAL

UI PAST
QUESTIONS(2019 2021
2023A &2023B)
ROMAN SERIES

PHYSICS 2019 ORIGINAL UI PAST QUESTIONS

1. The SI unit for magnetic flux is

A. Fluxon
B. Weber
C. Tesla
D. Gauss.
2. The SI unit of magnetic flux density is
A. the Tesla
B. the Henry
C. the Volt
D. the Volt-second
 3. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of N turns of cross-section
A held with its plane parallel to the field B is
A. NAB\2
B. NAB
C. NAB\4
D. 0
E. 2NAB
4. A bucket of water is hung from a spring balance. A piece of iron
is suspended in the water without touching the sides of touching
the bottom of the bucket. The reading of the spring balance
A. will increase
B. will decrease
C. does not change
D. varies with the increase of depth of the immersion of the iron piece
5. The rate of change of linear momentum of a body failing freely
under gravity is equal to its ___?
I. Kinetic Energy
II. Weight
III. Potential Energy
IV. Impulse
A. IV only
B. I&III only
C. II only
D. I only
E. None of the above
6. Brightness of bulb depends on voltage or current?
I. Current
II. Voltage
III. Resistance
 A. II only
B. I&III only
C. II only
D. I&II only
E. None of the above
7. The core of an electromagnet is made of soft iron because soft
iron has
I. small susceptibility
II. small retentivity
III. large retentivity
IV. Small density
V. Large susceptibility
A. I&III only
B. IV&V only
C. II&V only
D. III&V only
E. I&II
8. The position of a particle moving along x-axis given by x = (-2t3
+ 3t2 + 5)m. The acceleration of particle at the instant its
velocity becomes zero is:
A. 12m/s
B. -12m/s
C. -6m/s
D. zero
9. Which one of the following is not made of soft iron?
A. core of dynamo
B. core of transformer
C. Electromagnet
D. magnet of loudspeaker
 10. Which of the following substances magnetic susceptibility,
Xm is negative?
I. Diamagnetic
II. Paramagnetic
III. Ferromagnetic
A. II only
B. II&III only
C. I only
D. I&III only
E. III only
11. The equation a = 2 +3t2 represent the acceleration of a
particle in a time t. Find the instantaneous velocity as 4s.
A. 24m/s
B. 72m
C. 6m/s
D. 8m/s
12. Which the following statements is not correct about steel
and soft iron
A. steel is more magnetized and soft iron
B. permanent magnets are usually made of steel
C. soft iron is more readily magnetized than
D. soft iron more readily loses its magnetism than steel.
13. Which of the following is used to make permanent
magnets?
I. Soft iron
II. Steel
III. Nichrome
IV. Copper
A. I-IV
 B. I only
C. II&IV only
D. II-IV
E. II only
14. A simple pendulum of length 0.4m has a period 2s. what is
the period of a similar pendulum of length 0.8m at the same
place?
I. 2√2s
II. 2s
III. 8s
IV. 4s
A. II only
B. IV Only
C. III only
D. I only
15. A house is supplied with a 240V a.c mains. To operate a
door bell rated at 8V, a transformer is used. If number of turns
in the primary coil of the transformer is 900. Calculate the
number of turns in the second coil of the transformer
A. 30
B. 240
C. 248
D. 450
16. An induction coil is generally used to
A. rectify an alternating current
B. produce a large input voltage smoothen a pulsating
direct current
C. modulate an incoming signal
D. produce a large output voltage
17. A hose of cross-sectional area 0.5m2 is used to discharge
water from a water tanker at a velocity of 60ms 20s into a
container. If the container is filled completely, the volume of
the container is
A. 240m3
B. 60m3
C. 600m3
D. 2400m3
18. A transformer is designed to work from a 240V a.c. mains
and to give a supply of 8 V to ring a house-bell. The primary coil
has 4800 turns. How many turns will be in the secondary coil?
A. 40
B. 80
C. 160
D. 320
19. A step down transformer reduces 220 V to 11 V. The
primary coil draws 5 A current and secondary coil supplies 90 A.
Efficiency of the transformer will be:
A. 4.4%
B. 20%
C. 33%
D. 90%
20. The cross sectional area of pipe is 25m2 What is the
volumetric flow rate if water velocity is 10m/s
A. 200m/s
B. 300m/s
C. 250m/s
D. 240m/s
21. Rectifiers are used to convert
 A. alternating current to direct current
B. Direct current to alternating current
C. High voltage to low voltage
D. low voltage to high voltage
22. In a bridge rectifier, the number of diodes required is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
23. If two objects are each in thermal equilibrium with a third
object, then the two objects are in thermal equilibrium with
each other. This is a statement of
A. law of heat conservation
B. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. First law of thermodynamics
D. law of thermal preservation
24. Which law of thermodynamics is the basis of temperature
measurement ?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. none of the above
25. law of thermodynamics is also known as:
I. Law of conservation of energy
II. Law of conservation of mass
III. Law of multiple proportions
IV. Law of disproportionation
A. I-IV
B. II only
 C. III&IV only
D. I only
26. A weight of 1,000 grams hangs from a lever 20 cm to the
right of the fulcrum. At the left is a 500-gram weight 20 cm from
the fulcrum, and a 200-gram weight xcm away from the
fulcrum. What is the value of x that will make the lever
balanced
A. 30cm
B. 20cm
C. 50cm
D. 70cm
27. uniform rod PQ of mass 2kg and length of 1m is pivoted at
the end P. If a load of 14N is placed on it the centre, find the
force that should be applied vertically upwards at Q to maintain
2000N 5000N 10000N 20cmxcm 20cmthe rod in equilibrium
horizontally.
A. 7N
B. 68N
C. 28N
D. 17N
28. Two closed vessels contain equal volumes of boiling water
and are identical except that one is blackened on the outside
while the other is polished. Which of the following is correct?
A. The black vessel will cool faster because a black surface
radiates heat faster than a polished one
B. The polished vessel will cool faster because it reflects
heat better
C. The polished vessel will cool faster because it will
absorb less from the room
 D. The polished vessel will cool faster because a polished
surface is a good radiator Because black surfaces are
good radiators or emitters of
29. For a particle having an x coordinate that varies in time
according to the express x =4t – 2t2 . The instantaneous velocity
of the particle at t = 2.5s is:
A. 6m/s
B. 12 m/s
C. 10m/s
D. 0 m/s
30. The density of 400cm3 of palm oil was 0.9g/cm3 before
frying. If the density of the oil was 0.6g/cm after flying,
assuming no loss of oil due to spilling; its new volume was
A. 600cm3
B. 360cm3
C. 240cm3
D. 800cm3
31. For an ideal liquid:
I. shear modulus is infinite
II. bulk modulus is infinite
III. shear modulus is zero.
IV. bulk modulus is zero
A. I&IV only
B. II&III only
C. II only
D. I&II only
E. III&IV only
32. A box of mass 40kg is being dragged along the by a rope
inclined at 600 to the horizontal. The fictional force between the
 box and the floor is 10N and the tension on the rope is 300N.
how much work is done in dragging the box through a distance
of 4m?
A. 100j
B. 680j
C. 200j
D. 400j
33. The half –life of a radioactive element is 9 days. What
fraction of atoms has decayed in 36 days?
A. 1/16
B. 15/16
C. ¼
D. ½
34. The S.I unit of radioactivity is:
A. Becquerel
B. Curie
C. Rutherford
D. Roentgen
35. A radioactive substance is oxidized. What changes would
you expect to take place in the nature of radioactivity?
A. radioactivity increases
B. radioactivity decreases
C. no change
D. indeterminate
36. Highly polished silvery surfaces are:
I. poor emitters but good reflectors of radiation
II. poor emmiters and poor reflectors of radiation
III. Good absorbers and good emitters of radiation
IV. poor absorber good emitter of radiation.
37. Which of the following law states that “good absorbers of
heat are good emitters”?
A. Stefan’s law
B. Kirchhoff’s law
C. Planck’s law
D. Wien’s law
38. Emissivity of a perfect black body is:
A. always
B. always 1
C. between 0 and 1
D. always > 1
39. Three 4 ohms resistors were connected in series by Tola
while Ade connected the same set of resistor parallel. The ratio
of the value obtained by Ade to that obtained by Tola is
A. 1:5
B. 1:10
C. 1:9
D. 1: 3
40. The effective resistances:
A. equal to the sum of the individual resistances
B. smaller than any of the individual resistances
C. greater than any of the individual resistances.
D. Sometimes greater and sometimes smaller than the
individual resistance
41. A mass of 0.5 kg is attached to one end of a helical spring
and produces an extension of 2.5cm. the ma now set into vertical
oscillation of amplitude 10mm. the period of oscillation is: (g =
10m/s2)
A. 0.35
 B. 100s
C. 200s
D. 280s
42. The period of a spring mass system depends on the
following except:
A. mass of the system
B. spring constant
C. stiffness of the string
D. amplitude of the motion
43. An automobile is travelling at 60km/hr. Calculate the
angular velocity of the 0.35m radius wheels.
A. 47 rad/s
B. 16.67 rad/s
C. 21 rad/s
D. 171.4 rad/s
44. Calculate the angular velocity of a 0.500 m radius bus tyre
when the bus travels at 10.0 m/s.
A. 10rad/s
B. 15rad/s
C. 30rad/s
D. 20rad/s
45. A string with a force 80N has an extension of 0.05m. If it
is used to shoot a stone of mass 20g, what is the velocity of the
stone?
A. 0.14m/s
B. 1.414m/s
C. 14.14m/s
D. 14.14m/s
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1. When heat falls on a body
A. it is absorbed in the body
B. it is reflected through the body
C. it is transmitted through the body
D. all of the above
2. If the halve life is 5.0*106s a sample of nuclei contains 3×10-6g
calculate the decay constant
A. 250-1s
B. 1.4×10-7s
C. 1.8×10-6s
D. 15s
3. Calculate the current in a cell with the EMF of 24V and internal
resistance of 1 ohms and resistance of 3 ohms
A. 4A
B. 6A
C. 8A
D. 12A
4. Calculate the internal resistance of a cell of 0.3A and 0.5A with
resistance of 15 &6 ohms
A. 3 ohms
B. 6 ohms
C. 7.5ohms
D. 8.5ohms
5. If the kinetic energy is double the debroglie factor increases by
 A. ½
B. 1/√2
C. 2
D. √2
6. A car with initial velocity of 4m/s and acceleration of 2m/s 2
calculate the distance in the 4th seconds
A. 10m
B. 7m
C. 25m
D. 20m
7. A gun of mass 15kg fires a bullet of mass 150g with a velocity of
1000m/s calculate the recoil velocity of the gun
A. 10m/s
B. 2m/s
C. 25m/s
D. -10m/s
8. X-rays are deflected by
I. magnectic field
II. gravitational field
III. electric field
IV. none of above
9. Which of the following is true for n-type semiconductors
A. immobile positive ions
B. immobile negative ions
C. holes as majority carrier
D. no majority carriers
10. The ratio of time taken of P&Q is 2:1 calculate the ratio of
distance of P:Q
A. 4:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
 D. 1:4
11. If the linear magnification of the objective and eyepiece
convex lenses of a compound microscope are 4&7 respectively
calculate the angular magnification of the microscope
A. 2
B. 3
C. 11
D. 28
12. The blue colour in sky is due to
A. dispersion of light
B. diffracion of light
C. refraction of light
D. scattering of light
13. colours of the rainbow is due to
A. Dispersion
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. refraction
14. The electrons responsible for the properties and reaction of
an element is
A. active electrons
B. valence electron
C. Net electron
D. Octet electron
15. Calculate the current in three 6ohms resistors connected in
parallel with 12V
A. 2A
B. 3A
C. 0.67A
D. 6A
16. In elastic collision
 I. energy is conserved
II. energy is decrease
III. energy is release
IV. linear momentum is conserved
A. I only
B. I&IV only
C. II only
D. III only
17. which of the following physical quantities are derived
I. area
II. Thrust
III. Pressure
IV. Mass
A. I-IV
B. I,II&III only
C. I,II&IV only
D. I&IV only
18. A cone in an unstable equilbrium has its potential energy
A. Decrease
B. Osscilating
C. unchanged
D. undulating
E. increase
19. The process through which free electron leave the surface of hot
metal is know as
A. photon emission
B. thermonic emission
C. photon emission
D. electron emission
20. Atomic bomb is an example of
A. fusion
 B. controlled fussion reaction
C. uncontrolled fission reaction
D. all of the above
21. The following are type of beam except
A. Parallel
B. Convergent
C. Emergent
D. divergent
22. Which of the following produced both transverse and
longitudinal wave
A. moving piston
B. sound
C. water
D. stretch string
23. Which of the following pairs is not part of electromagnectic
spectrum
I. Radiowave
II. beta wave
III. gamma wave
IV. alpha wave
A. I&II
B. II&IV
C. III&IV
D. I&III
E. I-IV
24. Which of the following does not cause a reduction of surface
tension
A. soap solution
B. alcohol
C. camphor
D. grease
 E. solvent
25. Which of the following characteristic must also be common to
both wave
I. Pitch
II. Intensity
III. Amplitude
IV. Frequency
A. I only
B. II&IV Only
C. I&IV Only
D. I,II&III Only
26. A body accelerating will have a constant speed if it is
A. falling from a height
B. In equilibrium
C. moving on a straight line
D. none of the above
27. The relationship between alpha particles and helium is
A. they are both deflected by magnectic field
B. they both have two protons and two neutrons
C. they both are not charged
D. none of the above
28. Long sightedness is also known as
A. myopia
B. Hypermyopia
C. presbyopia
D. astigmatism
29. A bottle weigh 10g in air it weighs 100g when fill with oil and
111g when fill with water calculate the relative density of the oil
A. 1.8
B. 0.9
C. 0.7
 D. 10
30. Two vessel of 30cm3 and 50cm3 respectively if a force of 100N is
acted on the larger vessel the force on the smaller vessel is
A. 50N
B. 40N
C. 60N
D. 80N
31. Given the acceleration to be 6.67 and radius 4×106 the mass of
the earth is
A. 16×1023kg
B. 76×1024kg
C. 16×1024kg
D. 76×1023kg
32. Factor affecting the speed of sound un air
I. Pressure
II. Loudness
III. Temperature
A. III Only
B. II&IV Only
C. I,II&III Only
D. I&II Only
33. Which of the following is correct about nuclear radiation
I. alpha particles deflected by both magnectic and electric field
II. gamma particles are not deflected by both magnectic and
electric field
III. beta particles are not deflected by both magnectic and electric
field
A. I&II Only
B. I Only
C. I,II&III Only
D. I&IV Only
34. A rider riding bicycle on an horizontal rope is an example of
A. neutral equilibrium
B. dynamic equilibrium
C. unstable equilibrium
D. stable equilibrium
35.The image of an erect candle, formed using a convex mirror, is
always:
A. virtual, inverted, and smaller than the candle
B. virtual, inverted, and larger than the candle
C. virtual, erect, and larger than the candle
D. virtual, erect, and smaller than the candle
E. real, erect, and smaller than the candle

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1. What is the average velocity if V=4t-3t² in t=0 and t=2
A. 0m/s
B. 4m/s
C. -2m/s
D. 2m/s
2. The formation of rainbow is due to
A. Absorption
B. refraction
 C. diffraction
D. interference
3. When the force acting on a body is constant
I. the acceleration is uniform
II. the velocity increase in equal time
III. the acceleration is zero
IV. the velocity is constant
A. I-III only
B. II-IV
C. I&II Only
D. I only
E. II only
4. The radius of a car moving in a circular path was doubled. What
will be the centripetal force?
A. 4
B. 2
C. ½
D. 8
5. Which of these is not used to characterize waves
A. Speed
B. Amplitude
C. Frequency
D. Wavelength
6. The power supplied to a body of mass M at a time T is P. Find the
specific latent heat of the body
A. PT/M
B. MP/T
C. P/T²
D. M/PT
7. How many number of turns will be required to produce an output
voltage of 120V, if the input voltage is 240V and the number of
turns is 500
A. 750
B. 250
C. 1000
D. 500
8. What is the difference between a neutron and electron of
uranium.
A. 146
B. 54
C. 268
D. 92
9. Water will have the highest disorderliness have.
A. Water at 100°C
B. Steam at 100°C
C. Water at -0°C
D. Water at –50°C
10. During the change of state which of the following remains
unchanged.
A. temperature
B. volume
C. heat content
D. None
11. Assuming the fundamental unit of dimension force F,
velocity V, time T. Find the dimension of potential energy
A. F/T²
B. F/T
C. FVT
 D. (FV)/T
12. A plank of length 4 m is inclined to the ground such that
its one end is resting on the ground and the other end is 1 m
above ground level. Calculate the effort that has to be applied to
push a load of 48 N up the plank.
A. 15
B. 12
C. 30
D. 25
13. If two charged plates are maintained at a potential
difference of 2 KV what is the work done in taking a charge of
500 micro-Coulomb across the it
A. 10J
B. 1000J
C. 1J
D. 0.1J
14. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest
speed in a vacuum
I. Infrared rays
II. Radio waves
III. Light rays
IV. Ultraviolet rays Gamma rays
A. I & II
B. II &IV
C. IV only
D. All have same speed in a vacuum
15. Her name is to be the same size as the object the object
must be placed in a concave mirror at ?
A. F
 B. Pole
C. 2F
D. Infinity
16. An erect object is in front of a convex mirror a distance
greater than the focal length. The image is:
A. real, inverted, and smaller than the object
B. virtual, inverted, and larger than the object
C. real, inverted, and larger than the object
D. virtual, erect, and smaller than the object
E. real, erect, and larger than the object
17. The image of an object placed at the center of the
curvature of a concave mirror is
A. Inverted and magnified
B. at the principal focus
C. real and diminshed
D. at the center of the curvature
18. The unit of magnetic field is
I. Tesla
II. weber
III. Coulumb
IV. Weber/m²
A. I & IV
B. II only
C. I Only
D. III only
E. IV only
19. A spring of force constant 500 NM-1 is compressed such
that its length shortens by 5cm. The energy stored in the spring
is?
 A. 0.625 J
B. 6.250 J
C. 62.500 J
D. 625.000 J
20. The d.c generator has essentially the same components as
the a.c generator except the presence of?
A. slip-ring
B. carbon brushes
C. split ring
D. armature
21. As an object is moved from the center of curvature of a
concave mirror toward its focal point its image:
A. remains virtual and becomes larger
B. remains virtual and becomes smaller
C. remains real and becomes larger
D. remains real and becomes smaller
E. remains real and approaches the same size as the object
22. The unit of planks constant is
A. Energy × time
B. Frequency
C. Power
D. Energy
23. A transformer has 400 turns of wire in the primary coil and
40 turns in the secondary col. If the input voltage is 150 volts.
Calculate the magnitude of the output voltage
A. 150V
B. 55V
C. 36V
D. 15V
24. Given the units of the physical quantities below A= L/M ,
B= L/T. Find the unit of C, if A=BC
A. T/M
B. LM²
C. LM–³
D. L/T

25. A substance has a resistivity of 7.1×10–⁶ ohm meter, an

increase in Temperature causes the resistivity to increase, the
semiconductor is likely
A. Metal
B. Semiconductor
C. Gas
D. Electrolyte
26. ___ is not a fundamental parameter of wave power
A. Velocity
B. Frequency
C. Wavelength
D. Amplitude
27. As an object is moved from a distant location toward the
center of curvature of a concave mirror its image:
A. remains virtual and becomes smaller
B. remains virtual and becomes larger
C. remains real and becomes smaller
D. remains real and becomes larger
E. changes from real to virtual
28. If the area between the plates of a capacitor and the
distance are both doubled, the capacitance will
A. Increase
 B. Doubled
C. Quadruple
D. Remain unchanged
29. The electric field strength of a body of charge 4C as a
potential of 10MV is
A. 2.5×10–¹²
B. 2.5×10–⁶
C. 2.5×10–⁹
D. 2.5×10–³
30. If two capacitors of 40micro-farad and 20micro-farad in
parallel is connected to a voltage of 12 V. Calculate the total
capacitance and the voltage of each capacitor
A. 60micro-farad, 12V
B. 60micro-farad, 6V
C. 13.3micro-farad, 6V
D. 13.3micro-farad, 12V
31. A car 4m long moving at a velocity of 25m/s was beside a
lorry 20m long with a velocity 19mls. At t = 0, the distance
between them was 10m. How long will it take the car to
overtake the lorry
A. 2s
B. 9s
C. 5s
D. 3s
32. If the refractive index of glass is 1.25, what is the critical
angle at the air-glass interface?
A. sin-¹ 1/2
B. sin-¹ 2/3
C. sin-¹ 4/5
 D. sin-¹ 8/9
33. If the angle of incidence is 25°. During total internal
reflection the critical angle is equal to θ. Which of the following
is correct
A. θ is greater than 25°
B. θ is less than 25°
C. θ is equal to 25°
D. θ is equal to 50°

34.body P has a mass M and a body Q has a mass 16M, the

ratio of their frequency if the force constant is the same is.
A. 16:1
B. 4:1
C. 1:16
D. 1:4
35.Calculate the torque I'd the distance between the two arms is
20cm and has a force of 40N.
A. 800J
B. 8000J
C. 160J
D. 8J
36.In order for two sound waves to produce audible beats, it is
essential that the two waves have:
A. the same amplitude
B. the same frequency
C. the same number of harmonics
 D. slightly different amplitudes
E. slightly different frequencies
37. Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales agree numerically at a reading of:
A. -40
B. 0
C. 273
D. 301
E. 574
38.The units of capacitance are equivalent to:
A. J/C
B. V/C
C. J2/C
D. C/J
E. C2/J
39.The order of increasing wavelength for
I. blue
II. green
III. red
IV. yellow light is:
A. III, IV, II, I
B. I III, II, IV
C. I II, IV, III,
D. III I, II, IV,
E. IV II, I, III,
40.Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic
waves?
I. they consist of changing electric and magnetic fields
 II. they travel at different speeds in vacuum, depending on
their frequency
III. they transport energy
IV. they transport momentum they can be reflected
A. I-IV
B. II only
C. I II&IV
D. IV only
E. I only

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PHYSICS 2023B UI PQ ROMAN SERIES

1. A nanosecond is:
A. 10⁹s
B. 10−9 s
C. 10−10 s
D. 10−12s
2. The SI standard of length is based on:
 A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a
meridian passing through Paris
B. wavelength of light emitted by Hg
C. wavelength of light emitted by Kr86
D. a precision meter stick in Paris
E. the speed of light
3. During a short interval of time the speed v in m/s of an
automobile is given by v = at2 + bt3,where the time t is in
seconds. The units of a and b are respectively:
A. m ·s2; m.s4
B. s3/m; s4/m
C. m/s2; m/s3
D. m/s3; m/s4
E. m/s4; m/s5
4. Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the
dimension L/T. Then B has the dimension:
A. T/M
B. L2/TM
C. TM/L2
D. L2T/M
E. M/L2T
5. The average speed of a moving object during a given interval of
time is always:
I. The magnitude of its average velocity over the interval
II. The distance covered during the time interval divided by the
time interval
III. one-half its speed at the end of the interval
IV. its acceleration multiplied by the time interval E. one-half its
acceleration multiplied by the time interval
 A. II only
B. III only
C. I&IV only
D. I only
E. IV only
6. The coordinate of a particle in meters is given by x(t) = 16t −
3.0t3, where the time t is in seconds. The particle is momentarily
at rest at t =
A. 0.75 s
B. 1.3 s
C. 5.3s
D. 7.3 s
E. 9.3 s
7. A drag racing car starts from rest at t = 0 and moves along a
straight line with velocity given by v = bt2, where b is a
constant. The expression for the distance traveled by this car
from its position at t = 0 is:
A. bt3
B. bt3/3
C. 4bt2
D. 3bt2
E. bt3/2
8. Which Of the following situations, which one is impossible?
I. A body having velocity east and acceleration east
II. A body having velocity east and acceleration west
III. A body having zero velocity and non-zero acceleration
IV. A body having constant acceleration and variable velocity
V. A body having constant velocity and variable acceleration
A. II&III
 B. IV only
C. III&IV only
D. V only
E. IV&V only
9. Throughout a time interval, while the speed of a particle
increases as it moves along the x axis,its velocity and
acceleration might be:
A. positive and negative, respectively
B. negative and positive, respectively
C. negative and negative, respectively
D. negative and zero, respectively
E. positive and zero, respectively
10. A particle moves on the x axis. When its acceleration is
positive and increasing:
I. its velocity must be positive
II. its velocity must be negative
III. it must be slowing down
IV. it must be speeding up
A. II only
B. IV only
C. I&III only
D. I only
E. None of the above
11. A ball is in free fall. Its acceleration is:
A. downward during both ascent and descent
B. downward during ascent and upward during descent
C. upward during ascent and downward during descent
D. upward during both ascent and descent
E. downward at all times except at the very top, when it is zero
12. A ball is in free fall. Upward is taken to be the positive
direction. The displacement of the ball during a short time
interval is:
A. positive during both ascent and descent
B. negative during both ascent and descent
C. negative during ascent and positive during descent
D. positive during ascent and negative during descent
E. none of the above
13. A baseball is thrown vertically into the air. The
acceleration of the ball at its highest point is:
I. zero
II. g
III. Up
IV. 2g,
V. Down
A. II&III
B. I ONLY
C. II&V
D. IV & V
E. IV & III
14. A particle moves at constant speed in a circular path. The
instantaneous velocity and instantaneous acceleration vectors
are:
A. both tangent to the circular path
B. both perpendicular to the circular path
C. perpendicular to each other
D. opposite to each other
E. none of the above
15. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
 I. Mass
II. Density
III. Speed
IV. Temperature
A. II only
B. IV only
C. I&III only
D. II&IV only
E. None of the above
16. Mass differs from weight in that:
I. all objects have weight but some lack mass
II. weight is a force and mass is not
III. the mass of an object is always more than its weight
IV. mass can be expressed only in the metric system
A. II&IV only
B. I only
C. II only
D. I&III only
E. None of the above
17. A car travels east at constant velocity. The net force on the
car is:
I. East
II. west
III. up
IV. down
V. zero
A. I&III only
B. V only
C. II&IV only
 D. I only
E. IV only
18. A block slides down a frictionless plane that makes an
angle of 30◦ with the horizontal. The acceleration of the block is:
A. 980 cm/s2
B. 566 cm/s2
C. 849 cm/s2
D. zero
E. 490 cm/s2
19. A ball is thrown downward from the edge of a cliff with an
initial speed that is three times the terminal speed. Initially its
acceleration is
I. upward
II. greater than g
III. less than g
IV. Downward
V. equal to g
A. I&III only
B. III&IV only
C. IV&V only
D. I&II only
E. II&IV only
20. An object moving in a circle at constant speed:
I. must have only one force acting on it
II. is not accelerating
III. is held to its path by centrifugal force
IV. has an acceleration of constant magnitude
V. has an acceleration that is tangent to the circle
A. II only
B. IV&V only
C. III only
 D. IV Only
E. V only
21. An object of mass m and another object of mass 2m are
each forced to move along a circle of radius 1.0 m at a constant
speed of 1.0 m/s. The magnitudes of their accelerations are:
I. Equal
II. in the ratio of √2: 1
III. in the ratio of 2 : 1
IV. in the ratio of 4 : 1 zero
A. III only
B. IV only
C. V only
D. I only
E. II only
22. Which of the following bodies has the largest kinetic
energy?
I. Mass 3M and speed V
II. Mass 3M and speed 2V
III. Mass 2M and speed 3V
IV. Mass M and speed 4V
V. All four of the above have the same kinetic energy
A. III&IV Only
B. II only
C. I only
D. V only
E. III only
23. Two trailers, X with mass 500 kg and Y with mass 2000
kg, are being pulled at the same speed. The ratio of the kinetic
energy of Y to that of X is:
I. 1:1
II. 2:1
 III. 4:1
IV. 9:1
V. 1500:1
A. II only
B. IV only
C. I only
D. V only
E. III only
24. The weight of an object on the moon is one-sixth of its
weight on Earth. The ratio of the kinetic energy of a body on
Earth moving with speed V to that of the same body moving
with speed V on the moon is:
I. 6:1
II. 36:1
III. 1:1
IV. 1:6
V. 1:36
A. III only
B. IV only
C. V only
D. I only
E. II only
25. Which of the following is the correct combination of
dimensions for energy?
I. MLT
II. LT2/m
III. ML2/T2
IV. M2L3T
V. ML/T2
A. II only
B. III only
 C. II&IV only
D. V only
E. I only
26. Two objects with masses of m1 and m2 have the same
kinetic energy and are both moving to the right. The same
constant force Fn is applied to the left to both masses. If m1 =
4m2, the ratio of the stopping distance of m1 to that of m2 is:
I. 1:4
II. 4:1
III. 1:2
IV. 2:1
V. 1:1
A. III only
B. V only
C. I&II only
D. III&IV
E. II only
27. The mechanical advantage of any machine is:
I. the efficiency of the machine
II. the work done by the machine
III. the ratio of the work done by the machine to the work
expended on it
IV. the ratio of the force exerted by the machine to the
force applied to it
V. the ratio of the force applied to the machine to the force
exerted by it
A. I&II only
B. IV only
C. III only
D. V only
E. II only
 28. Suppose that the fundamental dimensions are taken to be:
force (F), velocity (V) and time(T). The dimensions of potential
energy are then:
I. F/T
II. FVT
III. FV/T
IV. F/T2
V. FV2/T2
A. II only
B. III only
C. IV&V only
D. I only
E. IV only
29. An elevator is rising at constant speed. Consider the
following statements:
I. the upward cable force is constant
II. the kinetic energy of the elevator is constant
III. the gravitational potential energy of the Earth-elevator
system is constant
IV. the acceleration of the elevator is zero
V. the mechanical energy of the Earth-elevator system is
constant
A. all five are true
B. only II and V are true
C. only IV and V are true
D. only I, II, and III are true
E. only I, II, and IV are true
30. Momentum may be expressed in:
A. kg/m
B. gram·s
C. N·s
 D. kg/(m·s)
E. N/s
31. The momentum of an object at a given instant is
independent of its:
I. Inertia
II. mass
III. speed
IV. velocity
V. acceleration
A. I-IV
B. III only
C. V only
D. III-V
E. III&V only
32. Two bodies, A and B, have equal kinetic energies. The
mass of A is nine times that of B. The ratio of the momentum of
A to that of B is:
A. 1:9
B. 1:3
C. 1:1
D. 3:1
E. 9:1
33. Two objects, P and Q, have the same momentum. Q has
more kinetic energy than P if it:
A. weighs more than P
B. is moving faster than P
C. weighs the same as P
D. is moving slower than P
E. is moving at the same speed as P
34. A golf ball of mass m is hit by a golf club so that the ball
leaves the tee with speed v. The club is in contact with the ball
 for time T. The magnitude of the average force on the club on
the ball during the time T is:
A. mvT
B. mv/T
C. (1/2)mv2T
D. mv2/(2T)
E. mT2/(2v)
35. An inelastic collision is one in which:
I. momentum is not conserved
II. kinetic energy is conserved
III. total mass is not conserved
IV. momentum is conserved
V. kinetic energy is not conserved
VI. the total impulse is equal to the change in kinetic energy
A. I-III
B. IV&V only
C. VI only
D. I&II only
E. III IV&V
36. An elastic collision is one in which:
I. momentum is not conserved
II. kinetic energy is conserved
III. total mass is not conserved
IV. momentum is conserved
V. kinetic energy is not conserved
VI. the total impulse is equal to the change in kinetic
energy
A. VI only
B. I&II only
C. III&IV Only
D. II&IV only
 E. IV&V only
37. A wheel starts from rest and spins with a constant angular
acceleration. As time goes on the acceleration vector for a point
on the rim:
A. decreases in magnitude and becomes more nearly tangent
to the rim
B. decreases in magnitude and becomes more early radial
C. increases in magnitude and becomes more nearly tangent
to the rim
D. increases in magnitude and becomes more nearly radial
E. increases in magnitude but retains the same angle with the
tangent to the rim
38. The newton·second is a unit of:
A. work
B. angular momentum
C. power
D. linear momentum
E. none of these
39. To produce beats it is necessary to use two waves:
A. traveling in opposite directions
B. of slightly different frequencies
C. of equal wavelengths
D. of equal amplitudes
E. whose ratio of frequencies is an integer
40. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer
both give the same reading for a certain sample. The
corresponding Celsius temperature is:
A. 574◦ C
B. 232◦ C
C. 301◦ C
D. 614◦ C
 E. 276◦ C
41. A metal sample of mass M requires a power input P to just
remain molten. When the heater is turned off, the metal
solidifies in a time T. The specific latent heat of fusion of this
metal is:
A. P/MT
B. T /PM
C. PM/T
D. PMT
E. P T /M
42. The formation of ice from water is accompanied by:
A. absorption of energy as heat
B. temperature increase
C. decrease in volume
D. an evolution of heat
E. temperature decrease
43. Two identical rooms in a house are connected by an open
doorway. The temperatures in the two rooms are maintained at
different values. Which room contains more air?
A. the room with higher temperature
B. the room with lower temperature
C. the room with higher pressure
D. neither because both have the same pressure
E. neither because both have the same volume

44. The pressures p and volumes V of five ideal gases, with the
same number of molecules, are given below. Which has the
highest temperature?
A. p = 1 × 105Pa and V= 10 cm3
B. p = 3 ×105Pa and V= 6 cm3
 C. p = 4×105Pa and V= 4 cm3
D. p = 6×105Pa and V= 2 cm3
E. p = 8 ×105Pa and V= 2 cm3
45. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on:
I. the temperature
II. the pressure
III. the volume
IV. mass
A. I-IV
B. II&III only
C. III only
D. I only
E. I&II only
46. The potential difference between the ends of a 2-meter
stick that is parallel to a uniform electric field is 400 V. The
magnitude of the electric field is:
A. zero
B. 100 V/m
C. 200 V/m
D. 400 V/m
E. 800 V/m
47. Each plate of a capacitor stores a charge of magnitude 1
mC when a 100-V potential difference is applied. The
capacitance is:
A. 5 µF
B. 10 µF
C. 50 µF
D. 100 µF
E. none of these
48. To charge a 1-F capacitor with 2 C requires a potential
difference of:
 A. 2 V
B. 0.2 V
C. 5 V
D. 0.5 V
E. none of these
49. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor can be
increased by:
I. increasing the charge
II. decreasing the charge
III. increasing the plate separation
IV. decreasing the plate separation
V. decreasing the plate area
A. I&III only
B. IV only
C. I&V only
D. III&V only
E. II only
50. If both the plate area and the plate separation of a
parallel-plate capacitor are doubled, the capacitance is:
A. doubled
B. halved
C. unchanged
D. tripled
E. quadrupled
51. Acceptor atoms introduced into a pure semiconductor at
room temperature:
A. increase the number of electrons in the conduction band
B. increase the number of holes in the valence band
C. raise the Fermi level
D. increase the electrical resistivity
E. none of the above
52. An acceptor replacement atom in silicon might have
electrons in its outer shell.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
53. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor with plate
area A and plate separation d is given by:
A. E0d/A
B. E0d/2A
C. E0A/d
D. E0A/2d
E. Ad/E0
54. Which of the following is NOT correct for a simple
magnifying glass?
A. The image is virtual
B. The image is erect
C. The image is larger than the object
D. The object is inside the focal point
E. The lens is diverging
55. Sound differs from light in that sound:
A. is not subject to diffraction
B. is a torsional wave rather than a longitudinal wave
C. does not require energy for its origin
D. is a longitudinal wave rather than a transverse wave
E. is always monochromatic
56. The rainbow seen after a rain shower is caused by:
A. diffraction
B. interference
C. refraction
 D. polarization
E. absorption
57. X rays are:
A. electromagnetic waves
B. negatively charged ions
C. rapidly moving electrons
D. rapidly moving protons
E. rapidly moving neutrons
58. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is:
I. proportional to the plate area
II. proportional to the charge stored
III. independent of any material inserted between the plates
IV. proportional to the potential difference of the plates
V. proportional to the plate separation
A. I-V
B. II only
C. III only
D. I&V
E. I only
59. If the potential difference across a resistor is doubled:
I. the current is doubled
II. the current is halved
III. the resistance is doubled
IV. the resistance is halved
A. II only
B. I&III only
C. I only
D. IV only
E. III only
60. The resistance of a rod does NOT depend on:
I. its temperature
II. its material
III. its length
IV. its conductivity
V. the shape of its (fixed) cross-sectional area
A. I-IV
B. IV&V only
C. V only
D. I II&III
E. IV only
61. A step-down transformer is used to:
A. increase the power
B. decrease the power
C. increase the voltage
D. decrease the voltage
E. change ac to dc
62. Select the correct statement :
I. ultraviolet light has a longer wavelength than infrared
II. blue light has a higher frequency than x rays
III. radio waves have higher frequency than gamma rays
IV. gamma rays have higher frequency than infrared waves
V. electrons are a type of electromagnetic wave
A. IV only
B. I-III
C. II III&IV
D. III only
E. II&IV
63. Consider :
I. radio waves (r),
II. visible light (v),
III. infrared light (i),
IV. x-rays (x),
V. and ultraviolet light (u). In order of increasing frequency,
they are:
A. I, II, III, IV, V
B. I, III, II, V, IV
C. III, I, II, V, IV
D. III, II, I, V, IV
E. I, III, II, IV, V
64. The Sun is about 1.5 × 1011 m away. The time for light to
travel this distance is about:
A. 4.5 × 1018 s
B. 8 s
C. 8 min
D. 8 hr
E. 8 yr

65. Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation

travels at the greatest speed in vacuum?
A. Radio waves
B. Visible light
C. X rays
D. Gamma rays
E. All of these travel at the same speed
66. Radio waves differ from visible light waves in that radio
waves:
I. travel slower
 II. have a higher frequency
III. travel faster
IV. have a lower frequency
V. require a material medium
A. IV only
B. III&V only
C. III only
D. I&II only
E. II only
67. An electromagnetic wave is generated by:
A. any moving charge
B. any accelerating charge
C. only a charge with changing acceleration
D. only a charge moving in a circle
E. only a charge moving in a straight line
68. A virtual image is one:
A. toward which light rays converge but do not pass through
B. from which light rays diverge but do not pass through
C. from which light rays diverge as they pass through
D. toward which light rays converge and pass through
E. with a ray normal to a mirror passing through it
69.
When you stand in front of a plane mirror, your image is:
I. real
II. erect
III. smaller than you
IV. the same size as you
V. virtual
VI. Inverted
A. I II&III
 B. I II&IV
C. II III&V
D. II IV&V
E. I IV&VI
70.
An object is 2 m in front of a plane mirror. Its image is:
A. virtual, inverted, and 2 m behind the mirror
B. virtual, inverted, and 2 m in front of the mirror
C. virtual, erect, and 2 m in front of the mirror
D. real, erect, and 2 m behind the mirror
E. none of the above
71. A card marked IAHIO8 is standing upright in front of a
plane mirror. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The image is virtual
B. The image shifts its position as the observer shifts his
position
C. The image appears as 8OIHAI to a person looking in the
mirror
D. The image is caused mostly by specular rather than diffuse
reflection
E. The image is the same size as the object
72. The angle between a horizontal ruler and a vertical plane
mirror is 30◦. The angle between the ruler and its image is:
A. 15◦
B. 30◦
C. 60◦
D. 90◦
E. 180◦
73. A convex spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If an
object is placed 6 cm in front of it the image position is:
 A. 4 cm behind the mirror
B. 4 cm in front of the mirror
C. 12 cm behind the mirror
D. 12 cm in front of the mirror
E. at infinity
74. The image produced by a convex mirror of an erect object
in front of the mirror is always:
A. virtual, erect, and larger than the object
B. virtual, erect, and smaller than the object
C. real, erect, and larger than the object
D. real, erect, and smaller than the object
E. none of the above
75. An erect object is located between a concave mirror and
its focal point. Its image is:
A. real, erect, and larger than the object
B. real, inverted, and larger than the object
C. virtual, erect, and larger than the object
D. virtual, inverted, and larger than the object
E. virtual, erect, and smaller than the object

76. At what distance in front of a concave mirror must an

object be placed so that the image and object are the same size?
A. a focal length
B. half a focal length
C. twice a focal length
D. less than half focal length
E. more than twice a focal length
77. A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If
an object is placed 18 cm in front of it the image position is:
A. 7.2 cm behind the mirror
 B. 7.2 cm in front of the mirror
C. 36 cm behind the mirror
D. 36 cm in front of the mirror
E. at infinity
78. What type of eyeglasses should a nearsighted person
wear?
A. diverging lenses
B. bifocal lenses
C. converging lenses
D. plano-convex lenses
E. double convex lenses
79. Light from some stars shows an apparent change in
frequency because of:
A. interference
B. refraction by layers of air
C. diffraction
D. reflection
E. relative motion
80.
The units of the Planck constant h are those of:
A. energy
B. power
C. momentum
D. angular momentum
E. frequency
81. An electron in a K shell of an atom has the principal
quantum number:
A. n = 0
B. n = 1
C. n = 2
 D. n = 3
E. n = ∞
82. A group of electromagnetic waves might
I. be monochromatic
II. be coherent
III. have the same polarization direction .Which of these describe
the waves from a laser?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III
83. The “e” in laser stands for:
A. electric
B. emf
C. energy
D. emission
E. entropy
84. The r in laser stands for
(ANS:Radiation)
85. The s in laser stands for
(ANS:Stimulated)
86. The a` in laser stands for
(ANS:Amplification)
87. The ``L`` in laser stands for
(ANS:Light)
88. For a metal at room temperature the temperature
coefficient of resistivity is determined primarily by:
A. the number of electrons in the conduction band
B. the number of impurity atoms
C. the binding energy of outer shell electrons
 D. collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
E. none of the above
89. For a pure semiconductor at room temperature the
temperature coefficient of resistivity is determined primarily by:
A. the number of electrons in the conduction band
B. the number of replacement atoms
C. the binding energy of outer shell electrons
D. collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
E. none of the above
90. A certain material has a resistivity of 7.8 × 103 Ω · m at
room temperature and it increases as the temperature is raised
by 100◦ C. The material is most likely:
A. a metal
B. a pure semiconductor
C. a heavily doped semiconductor
D. an insulator
E. none of the above
91. A certain material has a resistivity of 7.8 × 103 Ω · m at
room temperature and it decreases as the temperature is raised
by 100◦ C. The material is most likely:
A. a metal
B. a pure semiconductor
C. a heavily doped semiconductor
D. an insulator
E. none of the above
92. A certain material has a resistivity of 7.8 × 10−8 Ω · m at
room temperature and it increases as the temperature is raised
by 100◦ C. The material is most likely:
A. a metal
B. a pure semiconductor
C. a heavily doped semiconductor
 D. an insulator
E. none of the above
93. donor atoms introduced into a pure semiconductor at room
temperature:
A. increase the number of electrons in the conduction band
B. increase the number of holes in the valence band
C. lower the Fermi level
D. increase the electrical resistivity
E. none of the above
94. A donor replacement atom in silicon might have electrons
in its outer shell.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
95. LED” stands for:
A. Less Energy Donated
B. Light Energy Degrader
C. Luminescent Energy Developer
D. Laser Energy Detonator
E. none of the above
96. A light emitting diode emits light when:
A. electrons are excited from the valence to the conduction
band
B. electrons from the conduction band recombine with holes
from the valence band
C. electrons collide with atoms
D. electrons are accelerated by the electric field in the
depletion region
E. the junction gets hot
97. The isotopes of an element:
A. cannot be separated at all
B. occur well separated in nature
C. have similar chemical behavior
D. cannot be separated by physical methods
E. have equal masses

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ANSWERS TO PHYSICS ROMAN SERIES

PHYSICS 2019
1. The unit of magnetic flux is weber while that of flux density is
tesla(wbm-2) B
2. A
3. Ø=NABcosø D
4. A
5. m(v-u)\t=F=mg C
6. D
7. Soft iron is easily magnetized due to high susceptibility and also
loses its magnetism as soon as the current is turned off (small
retentivity ) C
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. By integration v=2t + t3 B
12. A steel has low susceptibility and high retentivity
13. E
14. T1\T2=√(L1\L2) D
15. A
16. D
17. Q=AV C
18. C
19. D
20. Q=AV C
21. A
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. D energy can neither be created nor destroy
26. Sum of clockwise moment = sum of anticlockwise moment
C
27. D
28. Black surfaces are good radiators or emitter of heat A
29. By differentiation V=4 - 4t A
30. A
31. Bulk modulus is infinite while shear modulus is zero B
32. W=Fn×d D
33. B
34. A
35. Physical or chemical properties don’t affect radioactivity C
36. Poor emitter and good reflector of heat
37. Kirchhoff radiation law(be expecting 3 to 4 A-level
questions) B
38. B
39. C
40. Effective resistance in parallel is smaller than any of the
individual resistance B
41. Mg=ke then T=2∏√(m\k) no correct answer
42. D
43. A
44. V=wr D
45. Law of conservation of mechanical energy 1\2fe=1\2mv2

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PHYSICS 2021
1. D heat may be absorbed reflected and transmitted
2. B
3. B E=I(r+R)
4. C
5. B
6. S=ut +1\2at2 s=u(t4-t3) +a\2(t24- t23) → s=4(1) +(16-9) →11m is
very correct but not in the option
7. D
8. IV only same with gamma ray
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. A rainbow is an optical phenomenon caused by refraction
internal reflection and dispersion of light in water droplets :
They are formed primarily due to dispersion of white light A
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. E
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. g=GM\R2 A (note g is 6.67 not 9.8)
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. D diminished erect and virtual
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PHYSICS 2023A
1. Avg velocity=∆x\∆t by integrating x=2t2 -t3
Avg velocity=x2 -x0\t2 – t0 A
2. Rainbows are formed when light from the sun is scattered by
water droplets through the process called refraction B
3. C
4. They are inversely proportional F=mv2\r C
5. V=F¥ B
6. Q=ML recall that Q=PT thus PT=ML → L=PT\M A
7. Vs\Ns=Vp\Np → Ns=VsNp\Vp → 120×500)\240 = 250 B
8. The most common one is U-238 with 92 protons\electrons and
146 number of neutrons The difference=146-92=54 B
9. Gaseous state has the highest entropy B
10. A
11. P.E=mgh=fh →h=vt C
12. B
13. W=QV C
14. All travel at the same speed(speed of light) D
15. At the centre of curvature (2F) C
16. Imageis always VED (virtual erect and diminished) D
17. D
18. A
19. E=1\2Fe =1\2Ke2 A
20. Slip rings are in AC while split rings are in DC (C)
21. C
22. Joule.seconds A
23. D
24. A
25. On raising the temperature electrical conductivity of metal
decreases while that of a semiconductor increases A
26. D
27. D
28. D
29. …
30. (A) voltage is constant in parallel connection
31. C
32. C
33. At total internal reflection the angle of incidence equals
the critical angle C
34. B
35. D
36. E
37. E
38. E C2\J
39. V→I→B→G→Y→O→R (C)
40. B travel at the same speed
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 PHYSICS 2023B
1. Milli(10-3) micro(10-6) nano(10-9) pico(10-12) femto(10-15) atto(10-
18
)B
2. E
3. V=at2 : V=bt3 (D)
4. A (2023A QUE REPEATED)
5. A
6. It is momentarily at rest when the velocity is zero V=dx\dt =16-
-9t2 16--9t2=0 → t2=16\9 : t=4\3=1.34 (B)
7. B x=∫vdt
8. D
9. C
10. E
11. A
12. D
13. g and down C
14. perpendicular to each other C
15. E temperature is independent of the direction
16. C
17. B
18. a=gsinø E
19. D
20. D
21. D it is equal
22. K.E=1\2mv2 E
23. E
24. A the mass is constants
25. ML2T-2 B
26. E
27. B
28. B PQ REPEATED
29. E
30. D
31. C
32. D
33. B The higher the KE the higher the speed
34. B
35. B
36. D both are conserved
37. D
38. D momentum or impulse
39. B
40. C
41. E (2023A que repeated)
42. A
43. B
44. PV=kT directly proportional i.e the higher the PV the
higher the T (B)
45. D
46. V=Ed (C)
47. B
48. A
49. Increase by increasing the area and decreasing the plate
separation (B)
50. C
51. A
52. C
53. C
54. E
55. D
56. C 2023A que repeated
57. A
58. Directly proportional to the area E
59. V=IR (C)
60. R=pl\A (C )
61. D
62. A
63. R→I→V→U→X→G (B)
64. C
65. E
66. A
67. A
68. B
69. D
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. A
74. DEV (A)
75. MEV (C)
76. Must be placed at centre of curvature which is twice the
focal length (C )
77. D
78. A
79. Doppler effect caused by relative motion (E)
80. D
 81. B
82. E
83. Emission
84. Radiation
85. Stimulated
86. Amplification
87. Light
88. D
89. A
90. A
91. B
92. A
93. B
94. C
95. Light //emitting diode
96. A
97. D

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