ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (FLASH BACK - 01st, NEET) : 28.07.

2024
[Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.] Full Marks : 720

is :
PHYSICS
(1) 30 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 60 cm (4) 50 cm
SECTION-A
07. Pro jectile is fired with in itial ve loci ty
(All questions are compulsory)
 ^ ^ ^ ^
01. A screw gauge having 100 equal divisions and a u  (6 i  15 j)m/s , where i and j are unit
pitch of length 1mm is used to measure the
vectors along horizontal and vertical direction
diameter of a wire of length 7.5 cm. The main
respectively. The horizontal range of projectile
scale reading is 1mm and 60th circular division
is : (g = 10 m/s2)
coincides with the main scale. Find the curved
surface area of the wire in cm2 to appropriate (1) 18 m (2) 36 m (3) 45 m (4) 24 m
significant figure. (Use = 3.14). 08. The vel ocity of a parti cle at t = 0 is
(1) 3.8 cm2 (2) 3.77 cm2  ^ ^
(3) 3.768 cm2 (4) 4.23 cm2 u  6 i  8 j m/s and a constant acceleration is
02. If acceleration of a particle at any time is given  ^ ^
by a  4 i  6 j m/s 2 . Find the displacement of the
a = 4t + 3 particle at t = 2 sec.
Calculate the velocity after 3s, if it starts from  ^ ^  ^ ^
rest : (1) r  (30 i  21 j)m (2) r  (18 i  30 j)m
(1) 18 m/s (2) 36 m/s
 ^ ^  ^ ^
(3) 27 m/s (4) 54 m/s (3) r  (20 i  28 j)m (4) r  (24 i  40 j)m
03. When particle moves in straight line with 09. A particle A is projected vertically upwards.
increasing spee d, the corre ct sign of Another particle B of same mass is projected at
acceleration ‘a’ and velocity ‘v’ can be : angle of 30°. Both reach the same height. The
(1) v = +ve, a = +ve (2) v = –ve, a = –ve ratio of the initial kinetic energy of A to that of
(3) v = +ve, a = –ve (4) both ‘1’ and ‘2’ B is :
04. A car starts from rest, moves w ith an 1 3 1 9
acceleration a and then decelerates at a constant (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 2 4
rate 2a for sometime to come to rest. If the total
time taken is t. The maximum velocity of car is 10. A rocket of initial mass 8000 kg is launched far
given by : away from gravitational influence. If it burns fuel
at constant rate of 20 kg/s and eject gases with
 2 exhaust speed of 15km/s then what will be the
(1) at (2) at
2 3 acceleration of rocket one minute after the
blast?
1
at
3
at (1) 32.75 m/s2 (2) 44.12 m/s2
(3) (4)
3 4 (3) 28.5 m/s2 (4) 36.25 m/s2
05. A body is projected vertically upwards with a 11. The figure shows the position - time (x – t) graph
velocity u. It crosses a point in its journey at a of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass
height h twice just after 2s and 8s. The value of 0.6 kg. The magnitude of each impulse is :
u in ms–1 is (take g = 10 ms–2) :
(1) 60 m/s (2) 45 m/s 12
(3) 55 m/s (4) 50 m/s x(m)
06. A conveyor belt is moving horizontally at a speed
of 6ms–1. A box of mass 30kg is genetly laid on
it. It takes 0.2s for the box to come to rest. If the t(sec)
belt continues to move uniformly, then the 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
distance moved by the box on the conveyor belt (1) 3.6 N-s (2) 7.2 N-s (3) 2.4 N-s (4) 4.8 N-s

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12. Two masses A and B of 18kg and 9kg respectively (3) Magnitude of velocity is constant but
are connected with a string passing over a direction changes.
frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table (4) Both magnitude and direction of velocity
as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction of change.
A with the table is 0.3. The minimum mass of C
that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving 16. A ball tied to an inextensible string is swing in a
is equal to : vertical circle. The physical quantity that
remains constant is :
C (1) earth’s pull on the ball
18kg (2) speed of the ball
A
(3) tension in the string
(4) centripetal force
9kg
17. A particle is moving along a circular path. The
B
angular velocity, linear velocity, angular
(1) 6 kg (2) 8 kg (3) 16 kg (4) 12 kg acceleration, and centripetal acceleration of the
particle at any instant, respectively, are
13. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and
m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley    
 , v ,  and a c . Which o f the follow ing
P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3
are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient relations is not correct ?
of friction = µ).        
(1)    (2)   v (3) v  a c (4)   a c
The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass.
18. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius
The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :
2km with a steady speed of 1080 km/h. Find its
(Assume m1 = 2m, m2 = m3 = m) centripetal acceleration.
(1) 50 m/s2 (2) 45 m/s2
m2 m3
(3) 55 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2
19. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass m
moving at speed v collides elastically with
m1
another block of same mass m which is initially
at rest. After collision the first block moves at
g(1  2) g(1  ) an angle to its initial direction and has a speed
(1) (2)
2 4 v
. The second block’s speed after the collision
g(1  4) g(1  ) 4
(3) (4) is :
2 2
14. Assertion : The work done during a round trip is v 3 13 15
(1) (2) v (3) v (4) v
always zero. 2 2 4 4
Reason : Displacement in the round trip is zero. 20. A body of mass 4kg is thrown vertically up with a
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and kinetic energy of 1200J. The height at which
Reason i s th e co rre ct e xpl anation of the kinetic energy of the body becomes half of
Assertion. the original value is : (acceleration due to gravity
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but = 10 ms–2)
Reason is not the correct explanation of (1) 7.5 m (2) 10 m (3) 15 m (4) 12.5 m
Assertion. 21. A body of mass 5 kg has momentum of 12 kg m/
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. sec. When a force of 0.5N is applied on it for 10
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. sec., the increase in its kinetic energy is :
15. A car moves on a circular road. It describes equal (1) 14.5 J (2) 17.5 J (3) 21.5 J (4) 10.5 J
angles about the centre in equal intervals of  ^ ^ ^
22. A particle moves from position r1  (2 i  3 j  7 k)m
time. Which of the following statements about
the velocity of the car is true ?  ^ ^ ^
to position r2  (12 i  8 j  5 k)m under the action
(1) Velocity is directed towards the centre of the
circle. ^ ^ ^
of force (5 i  2 j  4 k)N . The work done will be :
(2) Magnitude of velocity is not constant. (1) 72 J (2) 108 J (3) 96 J (4) 124 J
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23. A particle is projected horizontally from a height 29. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing
h. A constant horizontal velocity is given to the a liquid does not depend on :
particle. Taking g to be constant every where, (1) area of the bottom surface
kinetic energy (KE) of the particle with respect
to time t is correctly shown in : (2) nature of the liquid

E
(3) height of the liquid column
E
(4) acceleration due to gravity
(1) (2) 30. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.6 gm/cm3) over
t t mercury (de nsity = 13.6 gm/cm 3 ). A
O O
homogeneous sphere floats with two third of its
E E volume immersed in mercury and the other one-
third in oil. The density of the material of the
(3) (4) sphere in gm/cm3 is :
O t O t (1) 8.4 gm/cm3 (2) 7.6 gm/cm3
24. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which causes (3) 6.7 gm/cm3 (4) 9.3 gm/cm3
a displacement s in metres in it, given by the 31. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with :
1 3 (1) high density and high viscosity
relation s  t , where t is in seconds. Work
3 (2) low density and low viscosity
done by the force in 3 second is : (3) low density and high viscosity
(1) 192 J (2) 324 J (3) 243 J (4) 162 J (4) high density and low viscosity
25. If W represents the work done, then match the 32. A beaker of radius 20 cm is filled with a liquid of
two columns : surface tension 0.075 N/m. Force across an
A. Force is always along the velocity I. W=0 imaginary diameter on the surface of the liquid
B. Force is always perpendicular II. W < 0 is :
to velocity (1) 1.5 × 10–2 N (2) 3 × 10–2 N
C. Force is always opposite III. W > 0 (3) 6 × 10–2 N (4) 7.5 × 10–3 N
to velocity 33. A solid ball of volume V experiences a viscous
D. The object is stationary but the force F when falling with a speed v in a liquid. If
point of application of the force another ball of volume 27 V with the same
moves on the object velocity v is allowed to fall in the same liquid, it
(1) (A-III), (B-I), (C-II), (D-I) experiences a force :
(2) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-II) (1) 3 F (2) 9 F (3) 27 F (4) 81 F
(3) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I) 34. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
(4) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-II)
the water in the capillary is 4 g. Another capillary
26. A vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity on a tube of radius 4r is immersed in water. The mass
smooth horizontal road, then power delivered by of water that will rise in this tube is :
its engine must be :
(1) 1 g (2) 64 g (3) 8 g (4) 16 g
(1) uniform (2) zero
35. Statement I : It is better to wash the clothes in
(3) inceasing (4) decreasing
hot soap solution.
27. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress
Statement II : The surface tension of hot
is increased, then the ratio of stress to strain
solution is less than the surface tension of cold
(1) increases (2) decreases solution.
(3) remains constant (4) None of these (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
28. The length of a metal is l1 when the tension in incorrect.
it is T1 and is l2 when the tension is T2. The (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
original length of the wire is : correct.
T2l2  T1l1 T1l2  T2l1 (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) (2)
T2  T1 T1  T2 correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
T l  T2l1 T1l1  T2l 2
(3) 1 2 (4) incorrect.
T1  T2 T1  T2

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 to take a turn while driving at the optimum
PHYSICS speed?
SECTION-B (1) Component of frictional force
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only) (2) Component of normal reaction
36. Consider the following statements : In a (3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
streamline flow of a liquid : (4) None of these
I. the kinetic energies of all particles arriving 43. A body of mass 10 kg explodes at rest into three
at a given point are same. fragments with masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The
II. the momenta of all particles arriving at a fragments with equal masses fly in mutually
given point are same. perpendicular directions with speeds of 12 m/s.
III. the speed of particles are below the critical The velocity of heaviest fragment in m/s will
velocity. be:
IV. the fluid is moving in the form of layers of (1) 8 2 m/s (2) 2 2 m/s
same velocities.
Which of the following options is correct ? (3) 4 2 m/s (4) 6 2 m/s
(1) I and III only (2) I, II and III only 44. Systematic errors can be :
(3) I, II, III and IV (4) III and IV only (1) negative only
37. In a hydraulic lift, compressed air exerts a force (2) positive only
F1 on a small piston having a radius of 4 cm.
(3) either positive or negative
This pressure is transmitted to a second piston
of radius 16 cm. If the mass of the load to be (4) None of these
lifted is 2000 kg, find the value of F1 ? 45. A stone falls from a balloon that is descending at
(g = 10 m/s2) a uniform rate of 20 m/s. The displacement of
the stone from the point of release after
(1) 1550 N (2) 1825 N (3) 2275 N (4) 1250 N
5 sec. is : (g = 10 m/s2)
38. A liquid is filled upto a height of 80 cm in a
(1) 275 m (2) 300 m (3) 175 m (4) 225 m
cylindrical vessel. The speed of liquid coming out
of a small hole at the bottom of the vessel is  ^ ^ ^  ^ ^ ^
46. If A  3 i  j  2k and B  i  2 j  4 k then the
(g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 5.6 m/s (4) 6.4 m/s  
unit vector along A  B is :
39. A constant power P is applied to a car starting
from rest. If v is the velocity of the car at time t, ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
then : 3 i  2 j  4k 4 i  3 j  2k
(1) (2)
29 29
 12 2 3 1
2
(1) v t (2) v  t (3) v  t (4) v  t
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
40. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of 2i 4 j k 4 i  j  2k
(3) (4)
radius 8 cm with a constant tan gential 21 21
acceleration. What is the magnitude of this 47. Choose the correct option given below :
acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle I. If speed of a body in a curved path is constant
becomes equal to 32 × 10–4 J by the end of the it has zero acceleration.
third revolution after the beginning of the
motion? II. When a body moves on a curved path with a
co nstant speed, it has accele rati on
(1) 0.2 m/s2 (2) 0.4 m/s2
perpendicular to the direction of motion.
(3) 0.75 m/s2 (4) 1.5 m/s2
III. Magnitude of the centripetal acceleration is
41. Two billiard balls of mass 0.08 kg each moving
in opposite directions with 15 ms–1 collide and v2
.
rebound with the same speed. If the time R
duration of contact is t = 0.016 s, then what is IV. Centripetal acceleration is directed away
the force exerted on the ball due to each other? from the centre.
(1) 300 N (2) 75 N (3) 100 N (4) 150 N Choose the correct option below.
42. On a banked road, which force is essential to (1) II and III only (2) I, III and IV only
provide the necessary centripetal force to a car
(3) I, II and III only (4) III only
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48. A block of mass 8 kg is suspended through two 53. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
light spring balances A and B. Then A and B will
(1) Cathode rays are emitted out from the
read respectively :
surface of cathode.
(2) Cathode rays travel in straight line.

A
(3) Anode rays are heavier than cathode rays.
(4) Anode rays are emitted out from the surface
of anode.
B 54. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation
have greater frequency ?
(1) X-rays (2) Ultraviolet rays
8kg
(3) Radio waves (4) Visible rays
(1) zero kg and 8 kg (2) 8 kg and zero kg 55. BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg (4) 8 kg and 8 g NF3 is polar where as BF3 is nonpolar, this is
49. A horizontal force of 20 N is necessary to just due to
hold a block stationary against a wall. The (1) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
coefficient of friction between the block and the
wall is 0.4. The weig ht of the block is : (2) N – F bond is more polar than B – F bond
(g = 10 m/s2) (3) NF3 is pyramidal where as BF3 is triangular
planar
(4) BF3 is electron deficient where as NF3 is not
20N 56. Assertion (A): The shape of XeF4 is square planar
Reason (R): In an octahedral geometry, a single
(1) 8 N (2) 20 N lonepair can occupy any position but a second
(3) 50 N (4) 25 N lonepair will occupy the opposite position to the
first lonepair.
50. A ball is thrown upwards with some angle with
vertical and it returns to ground describing a (1) If A is true but R is false.
parabolic path. Which of the following has the (2) If A is false but R is true.
same value at the time of throw and the time of
return to the ground : (Assume air resistance (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
negligible) explanation of A.
I. Kinetic energy of the ball (4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
II. Speed of the ball explanation of A.
III. Vertical component of velocity 57. Two electromagnetic radiations have wave
IV. Horizontal component of velocity numbers in the ratio 2 : 3. Their energies per
quanta will be in the ratio
Which of the following is correct option ?
(1) I, II, III and IV (2) II and IV only (1) 3 : 2 (2) 9 : 4
(3) I, II and IV only (4) IV only (3) 4 : 9 (4) 2 : 3
58. The ratio of circumference of third and second
orbits of He+ ion is :
CHEMISTRY
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
SECTION-A (3) 9 : 4 (4) 4 : 9
(All questions are compulsory) 59. The decreasing order of ionic size for the ions
51. Which one of the following is most likely to form F–, O2–, Na+, Al3+ is
an ionic bond:
(1) Al3+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(1) H & O (2) H & Cl (3) H & N (4) Na & Cl
(2) O2– > F– > Na+ > Al3+
52. Which of the following xenon compound has the
same number of lone pairs on central atom as (3) Al3+ > F– > Na+ > O2–
in I3– (4) O2– > Na+ > F– > Al3+
(1) XeO4 (2) XeF4 (3) XeF2 (4) XeO3
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60. Match the Column-I with Column-II 69. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II Column I Column II
[Molecular Type] [Shape/Geometry] (Orbital) (R vs. r Graph)
A. AB4E2 (i) T-shape
B. AB2E (ii) Square pyramidal
C. AB5E (iii)Bent
D. AB3E2 (iv) Square planar A. 3s P.
A B C D
(1) iv i iii ii
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) i ii iii iv B. 4s Q.
61. An electron revolves round Li2+ nucleus at a
distance of 1.587 Å. The speed of electron should
be :
(1) 2.188 × 106 m/s (2) 6.564 × 106 m/s
(3) 7.293 × 105 m/s (4) 7.293 × 106 m/s
62. Which of the following is not a permissible value C. 2p R.
of angular momentum of electron in H-atom ?

h h
(1) 1.5 (2) 0.5
 

h
(3) 1.25 (4) All of these

63. According to Molecular orbital theory the D. 3p S.
number of electrons that are paired in oxygen
molecule is
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 8 (1) (A-S), (B-R), (C-Q), (D-P)
64. Which of the following have identical bond order? (2) (A-P), (B-S), (C-Q), (D-R)
A. CN– B. O2– C. NO+ D. CN+ (3) (A-R), (B-S), (C-P), (D-Q)
(1) A, C (2) A, B (3) B, D (4) A, B and C (4) (A-P), (B-Q), (C-R), (D-S)
65. As the orbit number increases, the difference 70. Which of the following ion cannot act as an
in two consecutive energy levels : oxidizing agent ?
(1) remain constant (2) increases
(1) MnO4 (2) CrO24 (3) I– (4) Fe3+
(3) decreases (4) is unpredictable
71. Select the correct one for bond order is
66. For which transition in H-atom, the amount of
energy released will be maximum ? (1) N2 > O2 > Ne2 > F2
(1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 5 to n = 2 (2) O2 > N2 > F2 > Ne2
(3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 7 to n = 2 (3) N2 > O2 > F2 > Ne2
67. The correct order of chemical reactivity in terms (4) Ne2 > F2 > O2 > N2
of oxidising property is 72. The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is :
(1) N < O < Cl < F (2) N < Cl < O <F (1) +1 (2) +3 (3) –1 (4) 0
(3) N < O < F < Cl (4) Cl < N < F < O 73. Which of the following is correct order for radius
68. In which of the following pairs, both the species of elements/ions
are isoelectronic but the first one is large in size (1) Ca+2 < Cl– < S2–
than the second. (2) Cl– < S2– < Ca2+
(1) S2–, O2– (2) Cl–, S2– (3) S2– < Cl– = Ca2+
(3) F–, Na+ (4) N3–, P3– (4) S2– < Cl– < Ca2+
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74. The correct order of increasing electron affinity 83. In trimer of sulphur trioxide, the number of s-s
is bonds and -bonds are respectively
(1) O < S < F < Cl (2) O < S < Cl < F (1) 0, 3 (2) 0, 12 (3) 3, 6 (4) 8, 6
(3) S < O < F < Cl (4) S < O < Cl < F 84. In Py orbital the probability of finding electron
is zero in :
75. The number of moles of Cr2O72 needed to oxidize
(1) XY-plane (2) YZ-plane
0.136 equivalent of N2H5 through the reaction (3) XZ-plane (4) Y-axis
85. Select the correct statement
N2H5  Cr2O72  N2  Cr3   H2O is : As the s-character of a hybrid orbital decreases.

(1) 0.023 (2) 0.091 (3) 0.136 (4) 0.816 A. The bond angle decreases

76. Select the correct decreasing order of metallic B. The bond strength increases
character is : C. The bond length increases
(1) Na > Be > Si > P (2) P > Si > Be > Na D. Size of orbital increases
(3) Be > Si > P > Na (4) Si > P > Be > Na (1) A, C, D (2) B, C, D
77. Which of the following is odd one for dipole (3) A, B (4) All are correct
moment is
(1) H2 (2) CO2
CHEMISTRY
(3) HF (4) CCl4
78. Statement I : Threshold frequency is the SECTION-B
maximum frequency required for the ejection (Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
of electron from the metal surface. 86. The formal charge of the oxygen atom in the
Statement II : Threshold frequency is the +
O = N= C ion is
characteristic of a metal.
(1) Both Statements are correct and Statement II (1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) +1
is the correct explanation of Statement I. 87. Arrange the following compounds in increasing
(2) Both Statements are correct and Statement II order of acidi c streng th
is not the correct explanation of Statement I. Al2O3 ,SiO2 ,P2O3 and SO2
 X  Y  Z W
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. (1) Y < Z < W < X (2) X < Y < Z < W
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II (3) Z < X < Y < W (4) W < X < Y < Z
is correct.
88. The cathode rays experiment demonstrated that :
79. The molecular formula of chloride of Eka-
(1) -particles are the nuclei of He atoms.
Aluminium and Eka-silicon respectively are
(2) the e/m ratio for the particles of the cathode
(1) GaCl3, SiCl4 (2) GaCl3, AlCl3
rays varies gas to gas.
(3) AlCl3, SiCl4 (4) GaCl3, GeCl4
(3) cathode rays are streams of negatively
80. The incorrect matching pair for bond type and charged particles.
bond length is
(4) the mass of an atom is essentially all
(1) O – H – 96Pm contained in its very small nucleus.
(2) C = C – 133 Pm 89. Element (A) has electronic configuration ns2np1
(3) C – N – 116 Pm and Element (B) has electronic configuration
ns2np4. Thus the most probable compound
(4) N = O – 122 Pm
formed from A and B is
81. Equivalent weight of MnO4 in acidic, basic, (1) A2B (2) AB2
neutral medium is in the ratio of : (3) A6B3 (4) A2B3
(1) 3 : 5 : 15 (2) 5 : 3 : 1 90. A photo sensitive surface is receiving light of
(3) 5 : 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 15 : 5 wavelength 5000 Å at the rate of 10–7 J/s. The
number of photons received per second is :
82. The pair of species with similar shape is
(1) 2.5 × 1011 (2) 3.0 × 1032
(1) NCl3, PCl3 (2) CF4, SF4
(3) 2.5 × 1018 (4) 2.5 × 109
(3) PbCl2, CO2 (4) PF5, IF5
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91. Match the Column-I with Column-II 100. Which of the following reaction is redox ?
Column-I Column-II (1) Mg3N2 + 6H2O 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3
[IUPAC symbol] [Symbol of element] (2) CaC2 + 2H2O  Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
A. Unp (i) Bh (3) Ca(OCl)Cl + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + Cl2
B. Uns (ii) DS (4) PCl5 + 4H2O  H3PO4 + 5HCl
C. Une (iii)Mt
D. Uun (iv) Db
BOTANY
(1) A – ii; B – iii; C – iv; D – i
(2) A – iii; B – ii; C– i; D – iv SECTION-A
(3) A – iv; B – ii; C– iii; D – i (All questions are compulsory)
(4) A – iv; B – i; C– iii; D – ii 101. Which of the following statement is false ?
92. The orbit of single electron species from which (1) In deu tero myce tes onl y th e asexual/
when electron will jump in other orbit, the energy vegetative phases are known.
may be absorbed but not emitted out, is: (2) Large number of deuteromycetes member
helps in mineral cycling.
(1) first orbit (2) second orbit
(3) Basidiomycetes includes rusts and smuts.
(3) seventh orbit (4) infinite orbit
(4) In Basidiomycetes sex organs are well
93. The odd one for the hybridisation among given developed.
species is/are
102. In “Alternation of generation” among plant :
(1) SF6 (2) [Ni(CN)4]2– (1) The length of the haploid and diploid phases
(3) [Cr F6]3– (4) XeF6 may vary among different groups in plants.
94. Which of the following is different from other (2) The haploid and diploid phases are free living
three oxides. or dependent on others, also vary among
different groups.
(1) Cl2O7 (2) CO (3) N2O (4) NO
(3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
95. The ratio of energies of first excited state of He +
ion and ground state of H–atom is : (4) Alternation of generation means life from
birth to death.
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 16 : 1
103. Match List-I with List-II.
96. Assertion (A): Sulphur forms many compounds List I List II
in which octet rule is obeyed.
A. Peroxisome I. Prokaryote without
Reason (R): Due to absence of d-orbitals in walls
sulphur, it follows the octet rule. B. Mycoplasma cells II. Osmoregulation
(1) If A is true but R is false. C. Contractile Vacuole III. Lysosome
(2) If A is false but R is true. D. Hydrolytic enzymes IV. Photorespiration
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Choose the correct answer from the options
explanation of A. given below.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct (1) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-III)
explanation of A. (2) (A-III), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-II)
97. In the reaction, (3) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
P4 + NaOH + H2O PH3 + NaH2PO2, (4) (A-I), (B-II), (C-IV), (D-III)
the equivalent weight of P4 is : 104. Given below are some characteristics/feature
of some protists :
(1) M (2) M/3 (3) M/6 (4) 2M/3 A. The members having spores which possess
98. The atomic number(z) of the element with true walls.
highest ionisation enthalpy among the following B. They are saprophytic protists.
is C. Plasmodium formation is a characteristics
(1) Z = 16 (2) Z = 14 (3) Z = 13 (4) Z = 15 feature under suitable conditions.
99. V1 ml of permanganate solution of molarity M1 D. Fru itin g bo dies are formed duri ng
reacts exactly with V2 ml of ferrous sulphate unfavourable conditions.
solution of molarity M2, then Choose the correct group of protists which holds
these features.
(1) V1M1 = V2M2 (2) 5V1M1 = V2M2
(1) Protozonas (2) Euglenoids
(3) V1M1 = 5V1M2 (4) None of these
(3) Slime moulds (4) Chrysophytes
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105. The “Order” and “Class” for Musca domestica D. It belongs to class Sphenopsida.
is/are : Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Insecta and Diptera respectively. given below :
(2) Diptera and Insecta respectively. (1) A, B and C only (2) B, C and D only
(3) Primata and Insecta respectively. (3) B and C only (4) A, B, C and D only
(4) Insecta and Primata respectively. 110. Given below are two statements :
106. Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Presence of centrioles is a
Statement I : The movement of cell or the characteristics feature of animal cells.
surrounding fluid is done by small structre Statement-II : In plant cells cytokinesis is done
flagella. by formatio n of a furro w in the plasma
Statement-II : The flagella of prokaryotes is membrane.
structurally different from eukaryotic flagella. Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
given below : (1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false. (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true. (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II are true. (4) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
111. A structure known as prothallus is/are :
107. Select the mismatched pair among these :
(1) small, multicel lular, free livi ng and
(1) Anaphase-I : The homologous chromosome photosynthetic structure.
separate.
(2) small, unicellu lar, depende nt and
(2) Telophase-I : Dyad of cells is seen. photosynthetic structure.
(3) Pro phase-I : Nu clear me mbrane and (3) large, multicel lular, free-livi ng and
nucleolus reappear. photosynthetic structure.
(4) Metaphase-I : The bivalent chromosomes (4) large, unicellular, dependent and non-
align on the equatorial plate. photosynthetic structure.
108. Complete the following statement given below : 112. The members of this group having pigments
“Once the perfect (sexual) stages of members of which are identical to pigments of higher plants.
deuteromycetes were discovered they were often Identify them :
moved to ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively”.
(1) Slime moulds (2) Euglenoids
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ :
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Chrysophytes
(1) X – Mycoplasma, Y – Algae
113. Based o n th e fl oral characters fami ly
(2) X – Ascomycetes, Y – Basidiomycetes convolvulaceae and solanaceae are kept under
(3) X – Basidiomycetes, Y – Phycomycetes order :
(4) X – Phycomycetes, Y – Ascomycetes (1) Diptera (2) Sapindales
109. Identify the correct set of statements about the (3) Primata (4) Polymoniales
given figure below : 114. The antheridium and flask shaped archegonium
of bryophytes are :
(1) Multicellular (2) Unicellular
Leaves
(3) Non-cellular (4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
Stem 115. Endoplasmic reticulum have two distinct
Roots compartments, luminal and extra luminal which
are present in :
(1) former in cytoplasm and latter in inside ER
(2) the both are present in cytoplasm
A. It is homosporous.
(3) the former is inside ER and latter is in
B. It bears small leaves i .e., the y be ars
cytoplasm
microphylls.
(4) the body are present inside ER
C. It is a member of Pteridophytes.
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116. Th e ce ll w all havi ng composition of (1) A – T, B – F, C – T, D – F
polysaccharide and amino acid belongs to (2) A – T, B – F, C – T, D – T
kingdom :
(3) A – F, B – T, C – F, D – T
(1) Plantae (2) Fungi
(4) A – T, B – T, C – F, D – F
(3) Protista (4) Monera
123. Match List-I with List-II.
117. Which of the following statements is not
incorrect ? List I List II

(1) Rhodophyceae have stored food as starch. A. Cr-Jacob disease I. Bacteria

(2) Phaeophyceae lacks flagella. B. Citrus Canker II. Viroids

(3) Chlorophyceae bears pyrenoids which are C. Red tides III. Prions
located in chloroplast. D. Smaller than viruses IV. Dinoflagellates
(4) Agar is a commercial product obtained from Choose the correct answer from the options
phaeophyceae. given below :
118. The algae having colonial-form and bacteria (1) (A-III), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-II)
having comma-shaped are : (2) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-I), (D-II)
(1) Vibrio and Volvox respectively (3) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
(2) Bacilli and Fucus respectively (4) (A-II), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-III)
(3) Volvox and Vibrio respectively 124. The given figure is of “Laminaria”. Mark the
(4) Prophyra and Cocci respectively selected term with their appropriate description.
119. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Prophase-II is much simpler than
prophase-I.
Reason (R) : Prophase-I has been divided into
X
five phases based on chromosomal behaviour.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : Y
Z
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. (1) X – Helps to attach with substratum.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a correct (2) Y – Leaf like photosynthetic organ.
explanation of (A). (3) Z – A type of stalk.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct (4) X – Leaf like photosynthetic organ.
explanation of (A).
125. Select the option which is not correct :
120. A typi cal gymn ospe rmou s pl ant has 20
chromosomes in root cells. What will be number (1) Half of the total CO 2 fixation on earth is
of chromosomes in the cells of it’s gametophytes? carried out by algae through photosynthesis.
(1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 60 (2) Algae decreases the level of dissolved oxygen
in their surrounding because they are
121. Mark the odd one with respect to the following : photosynthetic.
(1) Polymoniales (2) Poaceae (3) Laminaria along with many like sargassum,
(3) Poales (4) Sapindales porphyra are among the 70 species of marine
122. Consider the following statements and mark algae used as food.
them as True (T)/False(F) : (4) Hydrocolloids are produced by certain brown
A. Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and can survive and red algae especially their marine forms.
without oxygen. 126. When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
B. Spirogyra is a green algae which is non- then a condition develops known as:
motile. (1) Multicellular condition.
C. The structure of floridean starch is very (2) Multinucleate condition.
similar to cellulose. (3) Syncytium condition.
D. Pyrenoids contain starch besides protein. (4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’.
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127. Which of the following statement holds incorrect (2) By fusion of two vegetative cell of same
about “Ribosomes” ? genotype.
(1) It is a granular structure and observed by (3) By fusion of two somatic cell of same
George Palade as dense particles. genotype.
(2) They are composed of ribonucleic acid (RNA) (4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’
and proteins.
134. The mode of nutrition in slime moulds and
(3) “S” in the subu nits stands for the euglenoids are :
sedimentation coefficient and directly
measures size and mass. (1) Saprophytic and Photosynthetic
(4) It is not surrounded by any membrane. (2) Saprophytic and Heterotrophic
128. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
List-I List-II (4) Both are Photosynthetic.
A. Datura I. Family Felidae 135. The chromosome having terminal centromere
is :
B. Panthera II. Family Canidae
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric
C. Dog III. Family Anacardiaceae
D. Mango IV. Family Solanaceae (3) Telocentric (4) Sub-Metacentric
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
BOTANY
(1) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-III)
(2) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
SECTION-B
(3) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III) (Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
(4) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-IV) 136. Which of the following holds True about Mitosis?
129. The elaborate form of disease “BSE” is : (1) Mi tosi s he lps to resto re the n ucle o-
cytoplasmic ratio.
(1) Bovine spiral encephalon.
(2) Mitosis results in different genetic content.
(2) Baculo spongiform encephalopathy
(3) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (3) Mitosis may be seen in germ cells.
(4) Baculo spiral encephalon (4) Mitosis is also known as reductional division.
130. Choose the algae with their correct description 137. The fluid nature of the membrane is important
about their main characteristics. for functions like :
(1) Dictyota – Stored food (starch) A. Endocytosis
(2) Green algae – Flagella (2-8, equal, apical) B. Formation of intercellular junctions
(3) Fucus – Stored food (Floridean starch) C. Cell Growth
(4) Porphyra – Major pigments (Fucoxanthin) D. Cell Division
131. Who discovered the triple helical structure of E. Secretion
Collagen ? Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek. given below.
(2) Robert Brown. (1) A, B, C and D only (2) B, D and E only
(3) G.N.Ramachandran. (3) A, C, D and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E only
(4) Rudolf Virchow. 138. Given below are two statements :
132. Which of the following pair is non-membranous Statement-I : Classification is not a single step
in Animal cell ? process, it involves hierarchy of steps.
(1) Vacuole and Mitochondria Statement-II : Each step of classification
(2) Centrosome and Golgi bodies represents a rank or category.
(3) Ribosome and Lysosomes Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Ribosome and Centrosome given below.
133. The plasmogamy in basidiomycetes is brought (1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
about : (2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(1) By fusion of two vegetative or somatic cell of (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
different genotype.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
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139. Match List-I with List-II. 143. Identify the phases of cell cycle from the graph
List I List II given below :
A. Leucoplasts I. Stores Nutrients

DNA content
B. Amyloplasts II. Stores Carbohydrates
4C
C. Elaioplasts III. Stores oil and Fats
D. Aleuroplasts IV. Stores proteins 2C
A B C D
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
Time
(1) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I) A B C D
(2) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-IV) (1) G1 M G2 S
(3) (A-III), (B-II), (C-IV), (D-I) (2) G2 G1 S M
(4) (A-I), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-III) (3) G2 M G1 S
140. How many of the following statements is/are (4) G1 G2 | M S
correct ? 144. Nucleus was first described by Robert Brown as
A. In Gin kgo, the mul ticellu lar female a cell organelle in :
gameto phyte is also retai ned with in (1) 1898 (2) 1856 (3) 1809 (4) 1831
megasporangium. 145. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
B. Sexual reproduction in Eudorina is done by as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) :
Oogamous. Assertion (A) : RBCs lacks mitochondria in
C. Cytotax onomy in cludes chromosomal humans.
characterisation. Reason (R) : ATP synthesis in RBCs of human is
D. Li verw orts and Mo sses are under done by glycolysis.
Pteridophytes. In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
141. Identify the correct set of statements about the
given figure below : (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is a correct
explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
146. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Nerve cell I. Round and biconcave
A. It belongs to class basidiomycets B. Mesophyll cells II. Long and narrow
B. It’s common name is Mushroom and are C. Columnar cells III. Round and oval
edible. D. Red blood cells IV. Branched and long
C. It’s spores are produced endogenously and Choose the correct answer from the options
spores are asexual. given below :
D. Sex organs in this group are present. (1) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-III)
E. Karyogamy and Meiosis leads to formation of (2) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III)
four basidiospores. (3) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I)
given below. 147. The following are the steps of sexual cycle of
(1) A and B only (2) B and E only Fungi :
(3) A, B, C and D only (4) A, B and E only A. Plasmogamy
B. Meiosis in zygote
142. The Musca domestica contains 12 chromosomes
(2n) in each cell. If at G 1 the number of C. Karyogamy
chromosome is 12, what would be the number of Arrange them in correct sequence :
chromosome after s-phase ? (1) A B  C (2) A  C  B
(1) 48 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 06 (3) B  A  C (4) B  C A
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148. The most common method of reproduction in 153. Match the following w.r.t. frog –
bacteria : Column I Column II
(1) Sexual reproduction A. Fore brain I. Ce rebe llum &
(2) Endospore formation Medulla oblongata
(3) Binary fission B. Hind brain II. Include, olfactory lobes,
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ paired ce rebral
hemisph ere and
149. Match List-I with List-II. unpaired
List I List II diencephalon.
A. Eucalyptus I. Gymnosperms C. Mid brain III. A pair of optic lobes
B. Wolffia II. Over 100 metres D. Medulla oblongata IV. Passes out through
C. Sequoia III. Living fossil foramen magnum &
D. Ginkgo IV. Smallest angiosperms and continues into
spinal cord.
Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct option given below.
given below.
(1) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV)
(1) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-III)
(2) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-I), (D-II)
(2) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
(3) (A-II), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-III)
(3) (A-II), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-III)
(4) (A-II), (B-I), (C-III), (D-IV)
(4) (A-III), (B-I), (C-II), (D-IV)
154. Choose the correct distinctive features related
150. Given below are two statements :
with given phylum.
Statemen t-I : Th e M-phase starts wi th
Phylum Distinctive feature
karyokinesis and ends with cytokinesis.
(1) Coelenterata Co mb plates for
Statement II : The M-phase lasts more than
locomotion
95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(2) Ctenophora Cnidoblasts
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (3) Annelida Often w orm-shaped
elongated
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) Mollusca External skeleton of shell
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true. usually present
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. 155. Read the following statement and select the
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false. correct ones.
A. Areolar tissue forms a shock absorbing
cusion around the eye balls and kidneys.
ZOOLOGY B. Elastic fibro cartilage makes cartilages
SECTION-A flexible.
(All questions are compulsory) C. In simple cuboidal epithelium nuclei are
rounded and lie the centre of the cells.
151. Fertilization is usually A with B D. The free surface of columnar epithelium may
development in echinodermata. Fill in the have microvilli.
blanks ‘A’ and ‘B’ by chosing a correct option. (1) A, B & D (2) B, C & D
(1) A external, B  indirect (3) A, C & D (4) All of these
(2) A  external, B  direct 156. Consider the following statement regarding
(3) A  internal, B  indirect cockroach and mark the correct option.
(4) A  internal, B  direct I. Head is formed by the fusion of 6-segments.
152. ________ facilitates the cells to communicate II. Crop is the part of mid gut.
with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of III. Mouth parts are biting and chewing type.
adjoining cells. Choose the option that correctly (1) Only I & II are correct.
fills the blank.
(2) Only III is correct.
(1) Gap junction (2) Adhering junction
(3) Only I & III are correct.
(3) Tight junction (4) Desmotubule
(4) All of these.
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157. Choose the option representing a set of animals D. Heart of cockroach consists of elongated
in which air bladder is absent. muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of
(1) Trygon, Hippocampus, Catla, Pristis. thorax and abdomen.
(2) Carchardon, Pristis, Trygon, Hippocampus. (1) Only A and B (2) Only B and C
(3) Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Pterophyllum, Betta. (3) Only D and C (4) All of these
(4) Trygon, Carcharodon, Pristis, Scoliodon. 163. In ‘X’ notochord is present only in larva tail,
while in ‘Y’. It extends from head to tail region
158. How many of the feature given below belong to throught life. Select the correct option.
smooth muscle fibres ?
‘X’ ‘Y’
Attacte d to Ske leto n bo nes, Fusiform,
Multinucleated, Involuntary, Presence of A. Hemichordate Urochordate
Striations, Voluntary. B. Tunicate Hemichordate
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two C. Cephalochordate Cyclostome
159. Which of the following features is shared by both D. Urochordate Cephalochordate
Hemidactylus & Psittacula ? (1) Only D (2) Only B
(1) Pneumatic bones. (3) Only C & D (4) All of these
(2) Oviparous & show direct development. 164. A frog never drinks water but absorbs its through
(3) Poikilotherms with cold blooded. one of its respiratory organ. Identify the organ.
(4) Completely four chambered heart. (1) Buccal cavity (2) Skin
160. Assertion (A) : Cockroach is uricotelic animals. (3) Lungs (4) All of the above
Reason (R) : Malpighian tubules absorb 165. Sel ect the correct statemen t re garding
nitrogenous waste products and convert them Periplaneta americana ?
into uric acid which is excreted out through the (1) Females bear a pair of short thread like anal
hindgut. styles.
(1) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct (2) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
explanation of (A). mouth part.
(2) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not correct (3) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules
explanation of (A). present at the junction of midgut and hind
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. gut.
(4) (A) and (R) both are false. (4) none of these.
161. Mark the given statements True (T) or False (F). 166. Assertion (A) : The bone marrow in some bones
is the site of production of blood cells.
A. The cells of cartilage called chondrochytes
are enclosed in large cavities within matrix Reason (R) : Blood is the main circulating fluid
secreted by them. that help in the transport of various substances.
B. The cells of bone called osteocytes are (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
present in the spaces called lacunae. explanation of (A).
C. The bone-marrow in all bone is the site of (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
production of blood cells. explanation of (A).
D. The smooth muscle fibres taper at both end (3) Only (A) is true.
and show striation. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Choose the correct option given below. 167. Match the following.
(1) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-T (2) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-F Column I Column II
(3) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-T (4) A-F, B-F, C-T, D-T A. Sea-Pen I. Antedon
162. Which of the following statements is/are B. Sea-Urchin II. Pennatula
correct? C. Sea-cucumber III. Echinus
A. The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times D. Sea-lily IV. Cucumaria
to reach the adult form.
Choose the correct option.
B. Male bear a pair of short, thread like anal
(1) (A-I), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-II)
styles which are absent in female.
(2) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
C. Cockroaches are brown or black bodied
animals that are included in class insecta of (3) (A-II), (B-I), (C-III), (D-IV)
phylum arthropoda. (4) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-III), (D-II)
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168. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing animal contains (1) Non-symmetrical (2) Asymmetical
respiratory organ like, gills, book gills, book lungs (3) Radial (4) Bilateral
(or) tracheal system ?
174. Which of the following phylum is being described
by the given statements ?
(i) Digestion is intracellular.
(ii) They have a water transport or canal system.
(iii) They reproduce asexually by fragmentation
and sexually by formation of gametes.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(iv)These are primitive multicellular animals
and have cellular level of organisation.
(1) Ctenophora (2) Coelenterata
169. Statemen t-I : Hemichordata was earlier (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Porifera
considered as sub-phyllum under phylum 175. Which of the following pairs of animals comprises
chordata. Jawless fishes ?
Statement-II : Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus (1) Lampreys & Hagfishes
are urochordates.
(2) Ascidia & Doliolum
(1) Both Statements are correct.
(3) Branchiostoma & Ascidia
(2) Both Statements are incorrect.
(4) Petromyzon & Lancelet
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
incorrect. 176. Which of the following group of animals belongs
to the same phylum ?
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
is correct. (1) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
170. Which one of the following features is common (2) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
in scropion, prawn & dragon fly ? (3) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
(1) Three pairs of legs and segmented body. (4) Earthworm, Liver fluke, Tapeworm
(2) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae. 177. Cardiac muscles are :
(3) Jo inte d appendages and chi tino us (1) Unstriated, Involuntary, Uninucleated
exoskeleton.
(2) Striated, Involuntary with Intercalated disc
(4) All of these.
(3) Involuntary and Unstraited
171. Which statement best described the connective
tissue ? (4) Striated, Voluntary with Syncytial condition
(1) It is derived from ectoderm and is usually 178. Find the incorrectly matched pair.
layered. (1) Saliva — Exocrine secretion
(2) It is derived from mesoderm and tissue most (2) Cartilage — Highly vascular matrix
abundant. (3) Blood — Liquid matrix
(3) It is derived from endoderm and secretes
(4) Areolar — Lo osel y packed matrix of
metabolic substances.
protein fibers
(4) It is derived from mesoderm and conducts
179. Which of the following epithelium form the inner
impulses.
lining of lungs alveoli, blood vessels and
172. Which of the following tissue is not found in the peritoneum of body cavity ?
skin of man ?
(1) Squamous (2) Columnar
(1) Epithelial tissue
(3) Cuboidal (4) Ciliated columnar
(2) Areolar tissue
180. Cockroach are brown or black bodied animals
(3) Dense fibrous connective tissue that are included in class _____ of phylum _____.
(4) None of these
(1) insecta, mollusca
173. Animal like annelids, arthropods, etc. where the
(2) insecta, arthropoda
body can be divided into identical left and right
halves in only one pl ane exhi bit ______ (3) insecta, annelida
symmetry. (4) reptilia, arthropoda
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181. Assertion (A) : Connective tissues are most III. The fertilisation in porifera is internal and
abundant and widely distributed in the body of development is direct.
complex animals. IV. In coelenterata, cnidoblasts are used for
Reason (R) : They are named connective tissues anchorage, defence and for capture of prey.
because of their special function of linking and Choose the correct option given below.
supporting others tissues/organ of the body. (1) (I-T), (II-T), (III-F), (IV-T)
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) (I-T), (II-T), (III-T), (IV-T)
explanation of (A).
(3) (I-F), (II-F), (III-F), (IV-T)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is the not correct (4) (I-T), (II-F), (III-T), (IV-F)
explanation of (A).
187. Match the following :
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
Column I Column II
(4) Both (A) & (R) are false. A. Rana I. Poison string
182. Which of the following is not a characteristic of B. Pterophyllum II. A tympanum represent
phylum Echinodermata ? ear.
(1) They are diploblastic. C. Trygon III. Electric organ
(2) They have bilateral symmetry at larval stage. D. Torpedo IV. Skin i s co vere d wi th
(3) They have a water vascular system. cycloid/ctenoid scales
(4) The have an internal skeleton. Choose the correct option given below :
183. Which of the following statement is/are correct (1) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-IV)
for class amphibia ? (2) (A-III), (B-II), (C-I), (D-IV)
I. Fertilization is internal. (3) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I)
II. The heart is two chambered i.e. one auricle (4) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-III)
and one ventricle. 188. Select the correct match pair.
III. Body is divisible into head and trunk. (1) Air bladder — Chondrichthyes
IV. Respiration is through gills only. (2) Radula — Mollusca
(1) Only II (2) Only I & II (3) Pleurobrachia — Cnidaria
(4) Stomochord — Chordata
(3) Only III (4) All of these.
184. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct 189. A female frog lays (i) ova at a time. The
option.
fertilization and development are (ii) . The
Hyla : Amphibia :: Lamprey : _________ .
eggs hatch into tadpodes, which metamorphose
(1) Osteichthyes (2) Cyclostomata into frogs.
(3) Reptile (4) Chondrichthyes Identify (i) & (ii) respectively.
185. The type of connective tissue that joins bones (1) 250–300; internal
to bone is : (2) 2500–3000; external
(1) Dense regular (3) 3000–3500; internal
(2) Specialized connective tissue (4) 3000–3500; external
(3) Adipose tissue 190. Select the true statement regarding frog.
(4) Dense irregular (1) Body is divisible into head and trunk.
(2) Neck and tail are absent.
(3) Above the mouth, a pair of nostrils is present.
ZOOLOGY (4) All of these.
SECTION-B 191. Consider the following statements :
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only) A. Porifera are coelomates
186. Mark the given statements true (T) (or) False (F). B. Aschelminthes are acoelomates.
I. Cho anocytes (or) co llar cel ls l ine the C. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates.
spongocoel and the canals. D. Annelids are true coelomates.
II. The body of sponges is supported by a skeleton Choose the correct answer from the options
made up of spicules or spongin fibres. given below :
(1) Only D (2) Only B (3) Only A (4) Only C
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192. Read the following statements. 196. Small group of worm-like marine animals with
I. Pinctada is commonly know as pearl oyster organ-system level of organisation present in the
and Pila as apple snail. phylum.
II. Sepia is commonly known as cuttle fish and (1) Aschelminthes (2) Platyhelminthes
octopus as devil fish. (3) Ctenophora (4) Hemichordata
III. Digestive system complete in echinodermata 197. In which of the following connective tissues, the
with mouth on the dorsal side and anus on cells does not secrete fibres of elastin (or)
ventral side of body. collagen ?
IV. The most distinctive feature of sponges is the (1) Cartilage (2) Bone
presence of water vascular system. (3) Blood (4) Areolar tissue
Choose the option with all correct statements : 198. Which of the following is/are absent in female
(1) Only I & II (2) Only II & III cockroach ?
(3) Only III & IV (4) All of these (1) Collateral gland
193. Assertion (A) : All members of animalia are (2) Boat shaped sternum & Spermatheca
multicellular. (3) Anal cerci & Collateral gland
Reason (R) : All of them do not exhibit the same (4) Anal style & Phallic gland
pattern of organisation of cells.
199. Closed circulatory system does not present in :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A). (1) Pheretima, Pila, Musca domestica.

(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not correct (2) Limulus, Anopheles.
explanation of (A). (3) Hirudinaria, Salpa, Bombyx.
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect. (4) Nereis, Balanoglossus.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect. 200. Water enter through minute pores (ostia) in the
194. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula, body wall into a central cavity, spongocoel from
present in the phylum _______ . where it goes out through the osculum, present
in the phylum _________ .
(1) Chordata (2) Arthropoda
(1) Porifera (2) Mollusca
(3) Echinodermata (4) Mollusca
(3) Cnidaria (4) Echinodermata
195. Select the incorrect match pair.
(1) Hypostome — Cnidaria
(2) 6-15 pairs of gill slits — Urochordata
(3) Hermaphrodite — Porifera
(4) Placoid scales — Chondrichthyes

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 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
for

NEET 2025
Flash Back - 01st
Date : 28.07.2024

PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY

Contact. Office: B-58, Buddha Colony, Patna - 800 001, Tel. : 0612-3508700, Website : www.goalinstitute.org
 SOLUTION AITS (FLASH BACK - 01st, NEET) : 28.07.2024

PHYSICS  ^ ^
 r  (20 i  28 j)m
SECTION-A
1
mu12
103 (K.E.)A 2 u12 u12 u22 sin2 
01. L.C.  = 10–5 m,   H 
100 09. (K.E.)B 1 2 , ,
mu22 u2 2g 2g
d = 1 × 10–3 + 60 × 10–5 = 1.60 mm 2
Surface area = dl
u12 1
= 3.14 × 1.6 × 10–3 × 7.5 × 10–2  sin2  
u22 4
= 37.68 × 10–5 m2 = 3.768 × 10–4 m2
= 3.768 cm2 3.8 cm2 (in significant fig.) dm
10. Fu = 15 × 103 × 20 = 300 × 103 N,
v 3 dt
dv
02.
dt
 4t  3 ,  dv   (4t  3)dt m = 8000 – 20 × 60 = 6800 kg,
0 0
F 300  103
3 a  = 44.1176 44.12 m/s2
 4t2  3 m 6800
 v  3t   2t 2  3t 
 0
 2  0 12
11. v = 6 m/s,
= 2 × 32 + 3 × 3 = 2 × 9 + 9 = 27 m/s. 2
04. v = at1 = bt2, t = t1 + t2 p = 2mv = 2 × 0.6 × 6 = 12 × 0.6 = 7.2
 v = at1 = b(t – t1) = bt – bt1  p = 7.2 N-s
12. µ(18 + mc)g = 9g,
bt
(a + b)t1 = bt, t1  ab
, 9 90
18  mc   = 30 kg
0.3 3
bt ab
va  t , put b = 2a
ab ab mc = 30 – 18 = 12 kg
2
a  2a 2a 2 2mg  (2m)g 2mg(1  ) g(1  )
v t  t  at 13. a  
a  2a 3a 3 4m 4m 2
2u
05. T = t1 + t2 = 2 + 8 = 10, T  10 , v2 5
g 18.  ar , 1080  = v = 300 m/s,
r 18
2u = 10 × 10 = 100 u = 50 m/s
6 3002
06. u = at, a  = 30 m/s2, 0 = u2 – 2as, ar  = 45, ar = 45 m/s2
0.2 2000
u2  6  6 2
s = 0.6 m = 60 cm. 1 1 v 1
2a 2  30 19. mv2  m    mv22 ,
2 2 4 2
2ux uy 2  6  15 180
07. R   = 18 m.
g 10 10 v2 15 2 15
v2   v  v22 , v2  v
16 16 4
1 2
08. s  ut  at
2 1 1
20. mu2  mv 2  mgh ,
2 2
  1  2  (6 ^i  8 ^j)  2  1 (4 ^i  6 ^j)  22
 r  ut at
2 mgh = 1200 – 600 = 600 J,
2

^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ 600
 12 i  16 j  8 i  12 j  20 i  28 j h = 15 m
4  10
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 p2i 122 122 V
4 3
r ,
21. K.Ei = Ki    , 33. F = 6rv,
2m 2  5 10 3

p = Ft = 0.5 × 10 = 5, pf = 12 + 5 = 17, 4 3 4
V = 27 V  27  r  (3r)3
3 3
p2f 172 172
Kf    ,
2m 2  5 10 F'
 F = 6(3r)v,  3, F= 3F
F
172 122 1
K f  Ki    [172  122  5  29] h
10 10 10 34. hr = h × 4r, h '  ,
4
145 r2h = 4g,
 = 14.5 J.
10
h
(4r)2    =  × r2h × 4 = 4 × 4 = 16 g
   ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ 4
22.  r  r2  r1  12 i  8 j  5 k  2 i  3 j  7 k

^ ^ ^
 10 i  5 j  12 k PHYSICS
SECTION-B
  ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
W  F ·  r  (5 i  2 j  4 k) · (10 i  5 j  12 k)
F1 F2
37. 
= 50 + 10 + 48 = 108 J. A1 A2
1 1
23. K.E.  mv 2  m(v 2y  v 2x ) A1 (4  102 )2  2000  10
2 2  F1   F2 
A2   (16  102 )2
1 1
 mu2  mg 2t 2 (v y  gt)
2 2 2  104
 = 1250
16
ds 1
24.  v   3t2  t2 ,  F1 = 1250 N
dt 3
38. v  2gh  2  10  0.8  16 = 4 m/s
1 1
W  K.E.  m(v 2f  v 2i )   m  v 2f
2 2 dv
39. P = Fv = mav  m v,
1 dt
  6  92 = 3 × 81 = 243 J
2
v2
 Pdt  m vdv  m = Pt v2 t, v t
T1 l1  l 2
28. T1 = K(l1 – l), T2 = K(l2 – l), T  l  l
2 2
1
40. mv 2  32  10 4 ,
 T1l2 – T1l = T2l1 – T2l, 2
T1l2 – T2l1 = T1l – T2l = (T1 – T2)l
64  104
T l  T2l1 v2  = 64 × 10–2, v = 0.8 m/s
 l  12 10  103
T1  T2
v2 = 2ats,

Vdg 
V
 0.6  g 
2V
 13.6  g 0.82 = 2at × 2 × 8 × 10–2 × 3 = 96 × 10–2 × at
30.
3 3
0.64  102 64 2
 d = 0.2 + 9.067  at    = 0.2123 m/s2
96 96 3
 d = 9.267 9.3 gm/cm3
 at 0.2 m/s2
32. F = T × d = 0.075 × 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 × 0.075
= 3 × 10–2 N 2mv 2  0.08  15
41. F  = 150 N
t 0.016

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 60. [NCERT (Page No. 115)]
10
43. m1   1 = 2 kg = m , m3 = 6 kg, 61. for Li2+, Z=3
5 2
rn = 1.587 Å
|p1| = 2 × 12 = 24  p  p12  p22  242  242
n2
or, 0.529Å  = 1.587 Å
 24 2 = 6v3, 3
or, n2 = 9
v3 = 4 2 m/s
or, n3
1 2 1
45. h = ut + gt  20  5   10  52
2 2 Z
= 100 + 5 × 25 = 225 m Vn  2.188  106 m/s 
n
  ^ ^ ^
46. A  B  4 i  3 j  2k , 3
V3 (Li2 ) = 2.188 ×106 m/s ×
unit vector along 3

^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ = 2.188 × 106 m/s

  4 i  3 j  2k 4 i  3 j  2k
(A  B)   h

42  32  (2)2 29 62. Angular moment of e  n ·
2
49. W = µN = 0.4 × 20 = 8N
where, n is +ve integer.

h h
3·  1.5
CHEMISTRY 2 
SECTION-A h h
1·  0.5
51. [NCERT (Page No. 106)] 2 
Na has low ionisation enthalpies and Cl has high h h
2.5  1.25
electron gain enthalpy form ionic bond. 2 
53. Anode rays depend on gas in discharge tube. They Not a permissible value.
are not emitted out from the surface of anode.
63. [NCERT (Page No. 130)]
54. Radio Visible UV X 64. Isoelectronic species have same bond order.
waves rays rays rays 65. E2 – E1 > E3 – E2 > E4 – E3 > .........
 67. [NCERT (Page No. 99)]
wavelength increases
70. In I–, iodine is in it’s lowest oxidation state and


frequency increases can act only as reducing agent.
71. [NCERT (Page No. 131)]
1 2 +1 x
57.  o
2 3 72. K [Co(CO)4]
(+1) + x + 0 × 4 = 0
1/ 1 2
or,  x  1
1/ 2 3
74. [NCERT (Page No. 90)]
hc / 1 2
or, 
hc / 2 3 +6 +3
 2 3
75. N2H5  Cr2O 7  N2  Cr  H2 O
n factor  6
E1 2
or, 
E2 3 No. of equivalent of Cr2O72

= No. of equivalent of N2H5

9
a0 
58. Circumference of 3rd orbit 2r3
 2 9 6 × mole of Cr2O72  0.136
 4
Circumference of 2nd orbit 2r2 a  4
0 2 0.136
2  mole of Cr2O7  = 0.0226 = 0.023 mol
6
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76. [NCERT (Page No. 85)]
77. [NCERT (Page No. 112)] 90. 10 –7 Js–1
80. [NCERT (Page No. 108)] 10–7 J energy received in one second
+7
Acidic
+2 ETotal = 10–7 J
81. MnO4  Mn2
n factor  5 25
hc  2  10 Jm
EPhoton  7 = 4 × 10–19 J
M  5  10 m
Equivalent weight 
5
E Total 10  10 8
+7 +6 Number of photons (n)  
MnO4 Ba sic
  MnO24 
EPhoton 4  10 19
n factor  1
= 2.5 × 1011
Equivalent weight = M 91. [NCERT (Page No. 80)]
MnO4
neutral
 MnO2
 93. [NCERT (Page No. 124)]
n factor  3 94. [NCERT (Page No. 94)]

M 22
Equivalent weight  95. E 2 (He  )   13.6 eV  = –13.6 eV
3 22
M M
:M: 12
5 3 E1(H  atom)   13.6 eV  = –13.6 eV
12
or, 3 :15 : 5  E2 (He+) : E1 (H-atom) = 1 : 1
96. [NCERT (Page No. 105/106)]
O O
S –3
0 +1
O O 97. P 4 + NaOH + H2 O PH 3 + NaH2PO2
n1 = 12
83. O O n2 = 4
S S
O O
O 12  4 48
n-factor of P4  12  4  =3
84. For Py–orbital 16
Angular node = XZ-plane.
M
 equivalent mass of P4 
3

CHEMISTRY 98. For element, Z = 15

Electronic configuration
SECTION-B
= 1s22s22p63s2 3p
3
86. [NCERT (Page No. 104)]

1 
Formal change = 6 – 4 – 4  0
2 Due to exactly half filled 3p orbitals
the element have highest
87. [NCERT (Page No. 93)]
ionisation enthalpy
Along the period acidity of oxides increases as the
+7 +2 +2 +3
electronegativity difference between element and 2+ 3+
99. KMnO4 + FeSO4 Mn + Fe
oxygen decreases. nf = 5 nf = 1
89. Valance electron Valency No. of milli-eq. of KMnO4 =
A  ns2np1 3 3 No. of milli-eq. of FeSO4
B  ns2np4 6 2 or, 5V1M1 = V2M2
 B has more electronegative than B.
 Thus A3+ B2–
 Thus compound formed is A2B3
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 140. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 03]
BOTANY
141. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 18]
SECTION-A
142. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 121]
101. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 18]
143. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 121]
102. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 19]
In G1 – DNA content – 2C
104. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 15] Then In S – DNA content – 4C
105. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 08] In M – It again becomes – 2C
106. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 99] 144. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 100]
107. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 126,127] 145. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 97]
108. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 18] 146. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 89]
109. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 31,32] 147. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 17]
110. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 91,124] 148. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 14]
111. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 32] 149. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 34]
112. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 15] 150. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 121]
113. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 07]
114. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 29]
115. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 98] ZOOLOGY
116. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 11] SECTION-A
117. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 26,27] 151. [NCERT (Pg. 45)]
118. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 12,24] 153. [NCERT (Pg. 83)]
119. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 126,127] 155. [NCERT (Pg. 51)]
120. Cells of gametophytes have ploidy of n. 157. [NCERT (Pg. 48)]
121. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 07,08] 159. [NCERT (Pg. 50)]
122. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 27] 163. [NCERT (Pg. 46)]
123. [New NCERT (Class-11)Chapter-02] 164. [NCERT (Pg. 80)]
124. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 27] 167. [NCERT (Pg. 41)]
125. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 26] 168. [NCERT (Pg. 44,45,46)]
126. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 124] 169. [NCERT (Pg. 45)]
127. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 98] 170. [NCERT (Pg. 44)]
128. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 07] 174. [NCERT (Pg. 40)]
129. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 21] 175. [NCERT (Pg. 47)]
130. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 27] 176. [NCERT (Pg. 44)]
131. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 86] 182. [NCERT (Pg. 45)]
132. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 88] 183. [NCERT (Pg. 48)]
133. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 18] 184. [NCERT (Pg. 48)]
134. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 15]
135. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 101]
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-B
BOTANY 186. [NCERT (Pg. 40, 41)]
SECTION-B 187. [NCERT (Pg. 48)]
136. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 125] 188. [NCERT (Pg. 44)]
137. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 94] 189. [NCERT (Pg. 84)]
138. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 06] 190. [NCERT (Pg. 80)]
139. [New NCERT (Class-11)Pg. 97] 191. [NCERT (Pg. 43)]

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192. [NCERT (Pg. 45)]
194. [NCERT (Pg. 44)]
195. [NCERT (Pg. 46-47)]
196. [NCERT (Pg. 45)]
199. [NCERT (Pg. 44)]
200. [NCERT (Pg. 40)]

FLASH BACK - 01 - 28.07.2024 - ANS. KEY

01. (1) 26. (2) 51. (4) 76. (1) 101. (4) 126. (4) 151. (1) 176. (1)
02. (3) 27. (3) 52. (3) 77. (3) 102. (3) 127. (3) 152. (1) 177. (2)
03. (4) 28. (2) 53. (4) 78. (4) 103. (1) 128. (1) 153. (4) 178. (2)
04. (2) 29. (1) 54. (1) 79. (4) 104. (3) 129. (3) 154. (4) 179. (1)
05. (4) 30. (4) 55. (3) 80. (3) 105. (2) 130. (2) 155. (2) 180. (2)
06. (3) 31. (3) 56. (3) 81. (4) 106. (2) 131. (3) 156. (3) 181. (2)
07. (1) 32. (2) 57. (4) 82. (1) 107. (3) 132. (4) 157. (4) 182. (1)
08. (3) 33. (1) 58. (3) 83. (2) 108. (2) 133. (1) 158. (4) 183. (3)
09. (1) 34. (4) 59. (2) 84. (3) 109. (3) 134. (3) 159. (2) 184. (2)
10. (2) 35. (3) 60. (3) 85. (1) 110. (4) 135. (3) 160. (1) 185. (1)
11. (2) 36. (2) 61. (1) 86. (3) 111. (1) 136. (1) 161. (2) 186. (1)
12. (4) 37. (4) 62. (3) 87. (2) 112. (2) 137. (4) 162. (4) 187. (4)
13. (4) 38. (2) 63. (3) 88. (3) 113. (4) 138. (3) 163. (1) 188. (2)
14. (3) 39. (4) 64. (1) 89. (4) 114. (1) 139. (2) 164. (2) 189. (2)
15. (3) 40. (1) 65. (3) 90. (1) 115. (3) 140. (1) 165. (4) 190. (4)
16. (1) 41. (4) 66. (3) 91. (4) 116. (4) 141. (4) 166. (2) 191. (1)
17. (1) 42. (2) 67. (2) 92. (1) 117. (3) 142. (2) 167. (2) 192. (1)
18. (2) 43. (3) 68. (3) 93. (2) 118. (3) 143. (3) 168. (3) 193. (2)
19. (4) 44. (3) 69. (2) 94. (1) 119. (3) 144. (4) 169. (3) 194. (4)
20. (3) 45. (4) 70. (3) 95. (1) 120. (3) 145. (2) 170. (3) 195. (2)
21. (1) 46. (2) 71. (3) 96. (1) 121. (2) 146. (3) 171. (2) 196. (4)
22. (2) 47. (1) 72. (3) 97. (2) 122. (4) 147. (2) 172. (2) 197. (3)
23. (4) 48. (4) 73. (1) 98. (4) 123. (1) 148. (3) 173. (4) 198. (4)
24. (3) 49. (1) 74. (1) 99. (2) 124. (4) 149. (1) 174. (4) 199. (2)
25. (1) 50. (3) 75. (1) 100. (3) 125. (2) 150. (1) 175. (1) 200. (1)

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