CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

Board Exam Trial Ratio

Prepared by: Prof. Maria Ria Velasquez, 5th placer, APRIL 2023 CLE

Part I. Institutional Correction 7. What classification of prisoners according to

degree of security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in
1. What was the first form of defense for open conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum
someone in a primitive society who did something security prisoners in case that escape?
wrong?
A. Super Maximum Security
A. Punishment B. Maximum Security
B. Penalty C. Medium Security
C. Fines D. Minimum Security
D. Retaliation
8. What is the lowest, authorized disciplinary
2. The public humiliation or public exhibition also punishment imposable to inmate?
means __________.
A. Close confinement
A. Banishment B. Extra fatigue
B. Social Degradation C. Reprimand
C. Public Execution D. Temporary cancellation of recreational
D. Public trial privileges

3. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a 9. What will be the classification of an inmate
criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by who is a first time offender or a newly arrived inmate?
prohibition to coming against a specified territory. This
is an ancient form of punishment called ___________. A. 1st Class
B. 2nd Class
A. Transportation C. 3rd Class
B. Banishment D. Colonist
C. Ostracism
D. Public Trial 10. Ibarra Alonzo was convicted to serve 6 years
of imprisonment. From this statement, he would be
4. The putting of offenders in prison for the classified as what kind of prisoner?
purpose of protecting the public and at the same time
rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo A. Insular Prisoner
institutional treatment program is referred to as B. Detention Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner
A. Imprisonment D. Provincial Prisoner
B. Trial
C. Detention 11. Dormitory refers to the facility exclusively
D. Conviction used as confinement area of all inmates within the
prison camp with specific consideration on spatial
5. It is the branch of the administration of designation. What is the recommended lot area per
Criminal Justice System charged with the responsibility inmate?
for the custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the
convicted offender. A. 20 sq. m.
A. Law Enforcement B. 25 sq. m.
B. Prosecution C. 30 sq. m.
C. Court D. 15 sq. m.
D. Corrections
E. Community 12. Poy Tan is the third higher ranking officer in
command in the Bureau of Corrections. What would be
6. This was chiefly a way of ridding the country his position and title in the Bureau?
of criminals, which later developed as a plan for
supplying new colonies with cheap labor. It was also A. Director General
an attempt to substitute for brutal punishment at home B. Deputy Director General
and an opportunity for rehabilitation in a new country. C. Director
D. Correction Chief Superintendent
A. Judicial Reprieve
B. Recognizance 13. Where does the exact location of Reception
C. Transportation and Diagnostic Center (RDC) in New Bilibid Prison
D. Benefit of the Clergy (NBP)?

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A. Camp Sampaguita
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway A. High risk inmate
C. Maximum Security Camp B. High profile inmate
D. Minimum Security Camp C. High value target
D. Medium risk inmate
14. It was formerly known as Luhit Penal
Settlement? 22. It is the person who checks the credential of
the person bringing the inmate to determine his/her
A. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm identity and authority.
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
C. Iwahig Penal Farm A. Gater
D. Leyte Regional Prison B. Records Unit
C. Desk Officer
15. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the D. Jail Warden
prison?
23. Who is the chairperson of the Classification
A. Doing assigned prison assignment Board of BJMP?
B. Reporting illegal activities
C. Selling illegal commodities A. Assistant Warden
D. Having business inside the prison facility B. Warden
C. Security Officer
16. Which of the following are the major goals of D. Custodial Officer
corrections?
24. The minimum number of times in counting
A. Deterrence, Punishment, Incapacitation, the prisoners on a daily basis
Treatment
B. Retribution, Deterrence, Incapacitation, A. At least 2 times
Rehabilitation B. At least 3 times
C. Punishment, confinement, retribution, C. At least 4 times
punishment D. At least 5 times
D. Deterrence, Retribution, Punishment,
Treatment 25. The imprisonment of the convicted offender
may serve, at the rate of highest minimum wage a day
17. Classification of the dormitory which can subject to a certain rules, for failure to pay a fine and
accommodate more than 500 inmates? if ordered to do so by judgment is referred to as
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
A. Type A B. Preventive imprisonment
B. Type B C. Secondary imprisonment
C. Type C D. Substitute imprisonment
D. Type D
26. A City Jail Warden must have a rank of
18. How many days before the election does an _______.
inmate are prohibited from going out?
A. Jail Inspector
A. 15 B. Jail Senior Inspector
B. 30 C. Jail Superintendent
C. 60 D. Jail Chief Inspector
D. 90
27. A security for the temporary detention of
19. During the 6th to 10th year of imprisonment, persons held for investigation or awaiting preliminary
how many days shall an inmate is allowed deductions hearing.
as GCTA?
A. Lock up Jail
A. 20 days for each month B. Ordinary Jail
B. 23 days for each month C. Workhouse Jail
C. 25 days for each month D. Provincial Jail
D. 30 days for each month
28. What is the rank of the Head of the BUCOR?
20. Bureau of Corrections is under the supervision
of _____. A. DILG Undersecretary
B. DILG Secretary
A. DOJ C. DOJ Undersecretary
B. DILG D. DOJ Secretary
C. DND
D. Provincial Government 29. Who approved the application of the prisoner
to be a colonist?
21. Jake is a famous celebrity here in the
Philippines and he was found guilty under the case of A. Director
serious physical injury. He will be classified as what B. Superintendent
kind of inmate? C. Senior Supt.

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D. Chief Supt.
A. BUCOR
30. In operation greyhound, all orders concerning B. BJMP
troop movements will emanate from him. C. CIW
D. Provincial Jails
A. Warden
B. Ground Commander 38. How many days an inmate shall stay in
C. Officer-in-charge Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit to undergo
D. Team Leader assessment by the different health professionals?

31. The lethal injection is consisting three A. At least 30 days

chemicals which will be injected to the person’s viable B. At least 60 days
body in the following sequence. C. Minimum period of 30 days but not exceeding
60 days
I. Sodium Thiopental D. Minimum period of 30 days but not exceeding
II. Potassium Chloride 90 days
III. Pancuronium Bromide
39. Who among the following is a provincial
A. I,II,III prisoner?
B. I,III,II
C. III,II,I A. A prisoner serving a term of 6 years and 1 day
D. II,I,III to 12 years
B. A prisoner serving a term of 6 months and 1
32. Detention prisoners who are awaiting day to 6 years
judgment or trial of their case are under the C. A prisoner serving a term of 6 months and 1
supervision and control of ______. day to 3 years
D. A prisoner serving a term of 3 years and
A. BJMP above
B. BUCOR
C. Provincial Jails 40. Can a detainee be granted of GCTA?
D. National Bilibid Prison
A. No, because he is not a convicted prisoner.
33. Books the newly committed inmate in the jail B. No, because GCTA is only for sentenced
blotter. prisoner.
C. Yes, if he qualifies for the number of years
A. Gater needed.
B. Records unit D. Yes, provided that he voluntarily offered into
C. Desk officer writing that he will be treated as such sentenced
D. Jail Warden prisoners.

34. A written order of the court, or any other 41. Media representative may file a written
agency authorized by law to issue, entrusting an request with the Superintendent at least __ days prior
inmate to a jail for the purpose of safekeeping during to the proposed interview of an inmate.
the pendency of his/her case. A. 2
B. 3
A. Commitment Order C. 5
B. Carpeta D. 7
C. Mittimus Order
D. Prison Record 42. What is the prescribed color of uniform for the
detainees of the BJMP is
35. The jail social worker at the ICCU shall A. Brown
conduct in-depth interview with the newly admitted B. Orange
inmate, an interview that the “who the inmate is from C. Yellow
birth up to present”. D. Blue
A. Psychiatric Examination
B. Social Case Study 43. When does punishment have deterrent
C. Background Investigation effect?
D. Risk Assessment
A. Punishment disgraces the offender before
36. How many percent of the prisoner’s earnings public.
will be deposited in the trust fund? B. Punishment is serious compared with the
nature of offense
A. 20% C. Punishment serves as an example to the
B. 30% public.
C. 40% D. Punishment reduces the capacity of an
D. 50% individual to commit a crime.

37. Maria Clara is sentenced to serve an 44. Ideal number of days for proper classification
imprisonment of 3 years and 1 day. In what institution of newly arrived convicted offenders at the Directorate
she would be confined? for Reception and Diagnostics.

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A. 45 days A. To view the remains of a deceased relative
B. 30 days B. For medical examination/treatment or
C. 55 days hospitalization in an outside clinic or hospital
D. 15 days C. For attending the need of his immediate
family in the hospital in case of emergency
45. It is also called as block or isolation cell used D. To appear in court or other government
to separate unruly, dangerous or vulnerable prisoners agency as directed by the competent authority
from the general population, sometimes used as
punishment. 53. An inmate maybe excused from mandatory
labor if he or she is
A. Quarantine Unit A. Over 56 years of age
B. Reception Unit B. Over 60 years of age
C. Segregation Unit C. Over 65 years of age
D. Cell 45 D. Over 70 years of age

46. If the inmate agrees to abide by the same 54. This kind of ancient punishment is
disciplinary rules upon convicted prisoners, he shall be characterized by sending or putting away of an
asked to manifest his agreement in _______. offender which was carried out either by prohibition
A. Certification against coming into a specified territory such as an
B. Writing island to where the offender has been removed.
C. Certification and Writing A. Destierro
D. None of the above B. Banishment
C. Death
47. Used of telephone of inmate in prison after D. Incapacitation
showing good behavior is earned every 90 days. I such
case, an inmate is entitled to 55. Gallows is a long, low, narrow, single-decked
A. Not exceeding 5 minutes of call ships propelled by sails, usually vowed by criminals that
B. Not exceeding 10 minutes of call are used as jails and prison. This statement is ____.
C. Not exceeding 15 minutes of call A. True
D. Not exceeding 20 minutes of call B. False
C. Partially true
48. The purpose of classification is D. Partially false
A. To prepare inmate for prison life
B. To develop integrated and realistic program 56. It refers to the money paid to the relatives of
for prison a murdered person as compensation and to prevent
C. To orient inmate of prison life blood feud. “Payment for the victim or man’s price”.
D. All of the above A. Wergild
B. Lex Taliones
49. Strip search (naked search) should be C. Dowry
conducted D. Fines
A. In the presence of other inmates so that there
are witnesses 57. A criminal could avoid punishment by claiming
B. At the warden’s office refugee in a church for a period of _____ days at the
C. At the admission office in the presence of end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm
other jail personnel by a road or path assigned to him.
D. Private room where it will be out of the view A. 30
of others to avoid further establishment B. 40
C. 50
50. In Special Conduct Time Allowance (STAL), a D. 60
deduction of _____ from the period of sentence shall
be granted in case a prisoner does not leave his place 58. They pose lesser danger than maximum
of confinement during the earthquake. security prisoners in case they escape.
A. Minimum Security Prisoner
A. 1/5 B. Medium Security Prisoner
B. 2/5 C. Maximum Security Prisoner
C. 4/5 D. NOTA
D. 1/2
59. A device, tool or instrument used to hold
51. A deduction of sentence given to prisoner in back, keep in, check or control inmates. (e.g.,
recognition of his good conduct or good behavior. handcuffs)

A. GCTA A. Iron Leg Lock

B. STAL B. Handcuffs
C. Parole C. Instrument of Restraint
D. NOTA D. Metallic Chains

52. The Superintendent of the prison may 60. This refers to the institutional record (national
authorize an inmate to be taken out of prison in the record) of an inmate which consists of his
following instances, EXCEPT one. Mittimus/Commitment Order, the prosecutor’s

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information and the decision of the trial court, including D. Rendering personal services to fellow inmates
that of the appellate court, if any:
68. What is the dual purpose of the Correctional
A. Mittimus Order System here in the Philippines?
B. Carpeta
C. Commitment Order A. To rehabilitate and retaliate
D. Prison Record B. To punish and rehabilitate
C. To retaliate and revenge
61. It is an act of leaving from jail of an inmate D. To punish and to imprison
through unofficial and illegal ways or without any legal
order from the authorities. 69. It is called the Good Conduct Time Allowance
Law which was signed in 2013.
A. Jail break
B. Jail escape A. RA 10575
C. Noise barrage B. RA 10952
D. Jail incident C. RA 10592
D. RA 10175
62. Where does the lethal injection located?
70. Albert was under this type of search
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway conducted by the authorized officer wherein they check
B. Camp Sampaguita the whole body of Albert, including its orifice.
C. Camp Central
D. Camp Sta. Lucia A. Body Search
B. Strip Search
63. This is a warrant issued by the court bearing C. Frisk Search
its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or D. Rub Search
prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for
service of sentence or detention?
71. According to this ancient law that was
A. Mittimus practiced in the areas of Babylon, the killer is
B. Commitment Order answerable not to the family but to the king.
C. Search Warrant
D. Warrant of Arrest A. Code of Draco
B. Code of Kalantiaw
64. What is the purpose of fencing the C. Code of Hammurabi
surrounding in minimum security institution? D. Code of Lex Taliones

A. It is designed to prevent escapes 72. This word means redress.

B. It is designed for agricultural purposes
C. It is designed to facilitate open view of the A. Penology
surrounding B. Punishment
D. To keep away the civilian population from C. Penalty
entering the institution D. Correction

65. An _________ program employs prisoners in 73. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison
various product or good producing tasks. where W,X,Y and Z are inmates. All, except Z, escaped.
W surrendered after 24 hours, X surrendered after 2
A. Industrial days, and Y surrendered after 3 days. Who among
B. Agricultural them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance for
C. Operational loyalty?
D. Economical
A. X
66. He is the first leader to prescribe B. Y
imprisonment as correctional treatment for major C. W
offenders also responsible for the abolition of death D. X AND Y
penalty and torture as a form of punishment.
74. Commission of Art. 247 of RPC has a penalty
A. John Howard of banishing a person from the place where he
B. Alexander Maconochie committed a crime refers to what contemporary forms
C. William Penn of punishment?
D. Jeremy Bentham
A. Atonement
67. Which of the following is a minor offense in B. Destierro
jail? C. Retribution
D. Incapacitation
A. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places
in the jail where it is off limits to inmates -grave 75. The following are kinds of punishment during
B. Making untruthful statements or lies in official the ancient or primitive era, except
communication, transaction or investigation
C. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place A. Corporal punishment

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B. Flight restriction Diagnostic for proper classification. The statement is
C. Death ______.
D. Incapacitation
A. True
76. These are the requisites of a valid Mittimus B. False – BJMP = ICCU
Order, except C. Partially True
D. Partially False
A. Seal of the Court
B. Signature of the Judge
C. Name of the President 85. It responds immediately and in shortest time
D. Attestation of the Clerk of Court for any form of jail incident/disturbance while waiting
for National/Regional STAR Team.
77. The close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall
be between _____ in any calendar month provided that A. Special Action Force
this punishment shall be imposed only in the case of B. Quick Response Team
an incorrigible prisoner, when other disciplinary C. Quick Reaction Group
measured had been proven ineffective. D. Short Response Force

A. 1 month to 2 months 86. When admitting an inmate for serving of his

B. 1 day to 7 days sentence, the officer-in-charge shall record the
C. Not more than 1 month inmate’s commitments in a chronological order:
D. Not more than 12 months I. Name of the Inmate
II. Sentence
78. What is the rank of the head of BUCOR? III. Reason for Commitment
IV. Date and Hour of Discharge or Transfer
A. Director General V. Date and Hour of Admission
B. Undersecretary
C. Chief A. I,II,III,IV,V
D. Director B. I,V,IV,II,III
C. I,III,II,V,IV
79. This is considered as the youngest and fastest D. I,II,V,IV,III
growing correctional institution in the country.
87. Under the classification process done under
A. Davao Prison DRD, this is the formulation of tentative treatment
B. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm program.
C. Leyte Regional Prison
D. Iwahig – A. Diagnosis
B. Treatment Planning
80. What will be the percentage deduction if a C. Execution of Treatment
detainee disagrees with detainees manifestation? D. Re-classification

A. 1/5 88. Who can revoked the status of an inmate as

B. 2/5 a colonist?
C. 3/5
D. 4/5 A. Chairman
B. Superintendent
81. ICCU stands for C. Warden
D. Asst. Warden
A. Inmate Collaboration Center Unit
B. Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit 89. If during a tsunami, an inmate escaped but
C. Inmate Charity and Custodial Unit decided to surrender within 48 hours, how many
D. NOTA percent would be deducted from his sentence?

82. NIMS stands for A. 1/5

B. 2/5
A. National Information Monitoring System C. Evasion of service of sentence
B. National Important Matter System
C. National Inmate Monitoring System 90. Under the BJMP Manual, he/she will be the
D. National Institute Monitoring System one who shall consolidate all the results and shall make
proper decision as to the classification of the inmates.
83. When should an inmate be transferred to the
Separation and Placement Center? A. Psychiatrist
B. Asst. Warden
A. 15 days before release C. Case Manager
B. 30 days before release D. Jail Social Worker
C. 60 days before release
D. Anytime 91. Under the BJMP Manual, all cases referred to
the Disciplinary Board shall be heard and decided
84. Under the BJMP Manual, a detainee or an within ______.
inmate shall undergo the Directorate for Reception and

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A. 3 days 99. Manila City Jail experience a sudden jail
B. 4 days break, as part of the SOP, who will sound the alarm?
C. 48 hours
D. 24 hours A. Desk Officer
B. Armorer
92. This is the term which referred to the C. Control Center
visitation of deceased member of an inmate that’s D. Officer-in-Charge
within 30 kilometer radius, for 3 hours.
100. This refers to the act of prisoner trying to
A. Furlaugh convert or induce another to change his religious
B. Furlow beliefs or the like while under confinement is referred
C. Furlough to as
D. Furlol A. Prosecuting
B. Proselytizing
93. This is a method of determining the rightness C. Fraternization
of an action by balancing the probable pleasures and D. Inducement
pains that it would produce.
Part II. Non-Institutional Correction
A. Calculus
B. Philosophic Calculus 1. As a criminologist, how would you describe
C. Felicific Calculus probation?
D. Imaginative Calculus
A. A privilege granted by the court to a person
94. Making frivolous/groundless complaint is convicted of a criminal offense to remain in the
under the level of ____ offense. community instead of actually going to prison/jail.
B. A disposition under which the defendant after
A. Minor conviction and sentenced, was released subject to
B. Less grave conditions imposed by the community and to the
C. Grave supervision of probation officer.
D. NOTA C. Both a and b
D. NOTA
95. All mail letters for the inmates before
distribution shall pass through ________ for inspection 2. A suspension of sentence implemented by
and examination of contents. the court as an alternative to incarceration.

A. Mail Examination A. Parole

B. Letter Checking B. Probation
C. Letter Sorting C. Pardon
D. Mail Censorship D. Commutation

96. All letters passed by the censors should bear 3. Carillo was convicted to a prison term of
the censor’s stamp at the _____ of each page and on prision correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
the envelope. The letter should be placed back in the
same envelope and resealed. A. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day.
B. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
A. Back day.
B. Conspicuous area C. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
C. Side day.
D. Top D. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day.

97. The Panopticon is a type of prison building 4. What is the effect of the recommitment of a
designed by English Philosopher Jeremy Bentham in probationer?
1785. The concept of the design was derived from the
word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”. Opticon means A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
B. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment
A. To allow observer to observe in full
B. Without the prisoner C. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum
C. To allow prisoners to watch sentence
D. To allow observer to play D. Serve the minimum sentence imposed

98. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within 5. Which has the authority to grant parole?
_____ after it has been posted, the mail should be
delivered to him. A. President
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
A. 24 hours C. Director of Prison
B. 48 hours D. Court - probation
C. 72 hours
D. 12 hours 6. To be eligible for the grant of conditional
pardon, what portion of must have been served by a
petitioner prisoner?

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A. ½ of the minimum of his indeterminate A. 1/3 of the definite prison term
sentence B. 1/3 of the minimum of his indeterminate
B. ½ of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
sentence C. ½ of the minimum of his indeterminate
C. 1/3 of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
sentence D. 1/3 of the maximum of his indeterminate
D. ¼ of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
sentence
15. Nature of the hearing in violation of a
7. One of the mandatory conditions to a probation.
probationer is to present himself to the probation
officer designated to undertake his supervision within A. Formal
____ from receipt or said order. B. Informal
C. Regular
A. 24 hours D. Summary
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours 16. These are the possible decisions of the Court
D. 45 days in the summary hearing of the violated condition of the
probationer, EXCEPT
8. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report
(PSIR) is submitted by the Probation Officer to the A. Dismiss the violation report
Court within B. Modification of probation order
C. Revocation order
A. 30 days D. NOTA
B. 60 days
C. 90 days 17. It is an executive clemency whereby the
D. 180 days convicted person should serve part of his sentence.

9. Upon receipt of the PSIR, the court shall A. Parole

decide to the application not later than B. Pardon
C. Probation
A. 10 days D. Reprieve
B. 15 days
C. 30 days 18. All except one are the requisites to be eligible
D. 60 days for review of a parole cases.

10. This is the effect of the grant of probation. A. Final Conviction

B. Served the minimum period of said sentence
A. The sentence will be executed C. Maximum period of sentence exceeds one
B. The execution of the sentence is suspended year
C. The probationer is sent to the prison D. NOTA
D. The prisoner is sent to the half-way house
19. An investigation conducted by parole officer
11. An inmate may be granted parole if he made before the grant of parole
A. Earned a good behavior while serving prison
term A. Post-Sentence Investigation
B. Earned good conduct time allowance credit B. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
C. Serve his minimum sentence C. Pre-Parole Investigation
D. NOTA D. Pre-Parole Investigation Report

12. It is a document that is issued to a parolee 20. It is exercise exclusively within the sound
when the maximum period of his prison term has discretion of the President for the objective of
expired? preventing miscarriage of justice or correcting
manifests injustice.
A. Certificate of final release
B. Certificate of final discharge A. Probation
C. Certificate of final release and discharge B. Parole
D. Certification of discharge C. Executive Clemency
D. Reprieve
13. The recipient of absolute pardon is ____ from
civil liability imposed upon him by the sentence. 21. The board shall assess and determine
whether the petitioner is qualified for parole, the
A. Conditionally exempted decision or action must be suspended by _______ of
B. Exempted the members of the Board.
C. Partially exempted
D. Not exempted A. 10 votes
B. 5 votes
14. An inmate may be eligible for commutation C. Majority
of sentence if he/she has served D. 15 votes

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22. Amnesty can be granted _____ trial or 30. Forerunner of parole.
conviction.
A. Mark System
A. Before B. Solitary System – PENNYSLVANIA
B. After C. Congregate System – Auburn
C. During D. Recognizance – forerunner of probation
D. All of the above
31. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases,
23. This is effect of the if the accused after except
conviction filed an appeal to the appellate court.
A. Carnapping
A. May still apply for probation B. Estafa
B. Sentence is deemed suspended C. Parricide
C. Waiver of probation D. Impeachment
D. All of the above
32. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition
24. Under the rules and methods employed by for absolute or conditional pardon if the crime
probation, what is the maximum number of minor committed is against the national security?
violations that would result in the revocation of the
probation order? A. DFA
B. COMELEC
A. 2 C. DOJ Secretary
B. 3 D. DND Secretary
C. 4
D. 5 33. Kind of executive clemency which exempts an
individual within certain limits or conditions from the
25. He is considered as the Father of Probation in punishment that the law inflicts for the offense he has
U.S. committed resulting from the partial extinction of his
criminal liability.
A. Edward Savage – first hired by the govt in us
B. Matthew Davenport Hill – father of probation A. Absolute Pardon
in England B. Conditional Pardon
C. John Augustus C. Reprieve
D. Teodulo Natividad – father of probation in PH D. Commutation of Sentence

26. Parole and Probation Administration is under 34. It is an act of clemency which changes the
the direction of heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer term
to shorter term.
A. Department of Finance
B. Department of Justice A. Amnesty
C. DILG B. Reprieve
D. BJMP C. Pardon
D. Commutation
27. Modifications of conditions for probation is
allowed _________. 35. This is a procedure which permits a
jail/prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week
A. Only upon the application of the community (Mon-Fri) and return to the jail to serve his sentence
B. At any time during the supervision during the weekend (sat-sun) or non-working hours.
C. 15 days after granting it
D. Any of these A. Amnesty
B. GCTA
28. How long is the period of probation of a C. Probation
defendant sentenced to a term of imprisonment of D. Delayed Sentence
more than one (1) year?
36. For amnesty to be granted, there should be
A. Not exceeding 6 years ______.
B. Not exceeding 8 years
C. Not exceeding 10 years A. Recommendation from Malacanang
D. Not exceeding 2 years B. Recommendation from U.N.
C. Application from PNP
29. The following are conditions of probation, D. Concurrence of the Congress
except
37. Probation in Philippines was first introduced
A. Granted by the court by virtue of _____ also known as Philippine Probation
B. He/she was once on probation Act of 1935.
C. Must not have committed any crime against
national security A. RA 4221
D. Penalty shall not exceed six years B. ACT 4221
imprisonment C. PD 765
D. PD 968

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 45. A probationer and parolee have this common,
38. This is the temporary withholding of except
sentence, before or after judgment; as where the
Judge is not satisfied with the verdict, or evidence is A. Both committed a crime
suspicious, or indictment is insufficient, or sometimes B. Both have been sentenced by the court
if it be a small felony or any favorable circumstances C. Both are persons
appear in the criminal’s character. D. Both have not served their sentence

A. Reprieve 46. Can a prisoner reject a grant of conditional

B. Executive Reprieve pardon?
C. Judicial Reprieve
D. Legislative Reprieve A. No, he is required by the law to accept it
because he is qualified
39. A term means “friend of court” B. No, he is obligated to accept conditional
pardon once it is granted to him
A. Amicos Curae C. Yes, he has the right to refuse the offer of
B. Amigos Curaie condition pardon
C. Amicus Curiae D. Yes, if the prisoner finds the conditions to be
D. NOTA unacceptable, he can reject the grant of pardon

40. It is a for of authorizing the PPA or the 47. What is the document required before the
Probation Office to secure any and all information on issuance of the CFRD?
the petitioner, shall be duly executed and signed by
him/her. A. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
B. Progress Report
A. Waiver of agreement C. Release Document
B. Waiver of liability D. Summary Report
C. Waiver cum authorization
D. Probation order 48. R.A. 4225 created what particular
government agency?
41. A parolee or pardonee, upon release from
prison through parole or pardon shall immediately A. DOJ
report to his/her supervising officer immediately upon B. BUCOR
release there from within C. Probation Office
D. BPP
A. 15 days
B. 30 days 49. Payment of civil liability by the probationer for
C. 45 days loss or damage incurred by the victim is known in
D. 60 days probation law as

42. In the event that the court orders the A. Indemnification

revocation of probation, the probationer must serve B. Reimbursement
the original sentence and the time he was placed on C. Payment
probation ______. D. Compensation

A. Will not be credited 50. How much is the salary of VPA?

B. Will be credited
C. Will be counted as time served A. P5,000/month
D. Will be partially credited B. P10,000/month
C. P15,000/month
43. A pardonee released on conditional pardon D. None
who violated the conditions of his release will be
recommitted and ordered to serve the remaining 51. What document will be issued by the BPP if
portion of his sentence. He will also be charged with the Parolee fails to report within 45 days to his/her
______ under the RPC. Supervising Officer?

A. Violation of conditional pardon A. Recommitment Order

B. Evasion of service of sentence B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Escape and evasion C. Violation Report
D. Breach of contract D. Order of Arrest and Recommitment

44. Parole although not a form of executive 52. Who approves the request for change of
clemency is residence of a probationer?

A. Judicial function A. BPP

B. Legislative function B. PPA
C. Executive function C. Court
D. Court function D. President

10 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

53. Can a person convicted of a crime with a B. False
prison term of less than 6 years be denied for the grant C. Partially true
of probation? D. Partially false

A. No, because PD 968 provides this right to the 61. When a probationer seeks to travel up to 30
convict whose sentence is below 6 years. days outside the territorial jurisdiction of the Probation
B. No, because probation is a matter of right. Office, he should file a request for outside travel for at
C. Yes, because probation is a matter of right. least how many days before the intended travel
D. Yes, because probation is only a matter of schedule?
privilege.
A. 3 days
54. What is this written order that BPP submits to B. 4 days
PPA in order to pull out an Investigating Officer? C. 5 days
D. 7 days
A. Release Order
B. Referral Order 62. Maximum number of case loads under
C. Search Order supervision of a Probation Aides.
D. Termination Order
A. 1:10
55. Under probation system, what is this written B. 1:3
order that court issues for the proper closure of a C. 1:5
probation case? D. 1:7

A. Release Order 63. The following are the mandatory conditions of

B. Referral Order probation, except one
C. Search Order
D. Termination Order A. Not to commit another offense during the
period of probation
56. Under R.A. 10707, how many days should the B. To present himself to the probation officer
probation officer needs to submit termination report to within 72 hours upon receipt of probation order
the trial court? C. Meet his family responsibilities
D. To report to the probation officer at least once
A. 30 days prior to end of probation – PD 968 a month during probation period
B. 15 days prior to the end of probation
C. 5 days prior to the end of probation 64. All except one are the instances wherein
D. NOTA supervision of parole and conditional pardon case
deemed to archive or close.
57. Are the probationers allowed to go abroad?
A. Certificate of Transfer of Residence
A. Yes B. Certified True Copy of Death Certificate of
B. No Deceased Client
C. Maybe C. Order of Recommitment issued by the Board
D. AOTA D. Formal receipt of Certificate of Final Release

58. Are the Parolees allowed to go or work 65. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving
abroad? and qualified petitioners, when does it become a
matter of right?
A. No, because they are still under Parole
commitment. A. After the submission of the Post-Sentence
B. No, because they can escape. Investigation Report
C. Yes, as long as it is approved by the B. When the convict files a petition for probation
Administrator of PPA and confirmed by the Board. C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. Yes, because they already served part of their D. When his probation is granted
sentence.
66. If a probationer did not comply with the
59. When a parolee violates to the conditions, if the reasons for non-compliance is not
contract/agreement, this summary hearing is meritorious, the court will issue a
conducted in order to prove whether he/she really
made a violation or not. A. Termination Order
B. Warrant of Arrest
A. Mini Trial C. Order of Arrest and Recommitment
B. Quorum D. Revocation Order
C. Qourum
D. Short Hearing 67. Which is true?
Statement 1: The age of the petitioner is a factor in
60. An ex-parolee who violates to his/her granting commutation of sentence.
previous parole conditions can still re-apply for parole. Statement 2: Parole is not a matter of right but rather
The statement is a matter of privilege to a qualified prisoner granted by
the President.
A. True

11 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2 A. True
C. Both statement B. False
D. Both are false C. True, only if the judgment provides subsidiary
imprisonment
68. He/she is a convicted defendant whose D. False, it is only applicable for the penalty of
application for probation has give due course by the imprisonment
court but failed to report to the probation officer or
cannot be located within a reasonable period of time. 76. The Director of the BUCOR or the Warden
shall forward the ___________ of the prisoner to the
A. Absconding Petitioner BPP for evaluation and consideration for parole.
B. Absconding Probationer
C. Disobedient Petitioner A. Mittimus
D. Uncooperative Probationer B. Commitment Order
C. Recommendation
69. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Board D. Prison Record and Carpeta
of Pardons and Parole?
77. Ms. Kim Chi was convicted of the crime of
A. DOJ Sec. homicide where she was sentenced to a penalty of
B. DILG Sec. Reclusion Temporal. She appealed the case to the
C. Parole and Probation Administrator higher court. While the appeal is pending, she filed a
D. President petition for parole. Which of the following statement is
correct?
70. Ex-officio member of BPP
A. It depends upon the Board whether to grant
A. DOJ Sec. or deny the petition
B. DILG Sec. B. Her petition must be acted upon because the
C. Parole and Probation Administrator penalty does not exceed 20 years
D. President C. Her petition must be acted upon because
sentence is not yet final
71. If you were convicted of a crime with a D. Her petition must be denied on the ground of
penalty of not more than 6 years, where are you going pending appeal
to apply for probation?
78. These are the authorized to order or approved
A. BPP the release of prisoners, except one
B. PPA
C. Court where you were convicted A. BPP in parole cases
D. DOJ B. Director of BUCOR upon the expiration of the
sentence of prisoner
72. The conviction and sentence clause of the C. President in cases of executive clemency or
statutory definition of probation clearly signifies that amnesty
probation affects D. PPA in cases of granting pardon

A. Only the criminal liability 79. A person who is placed under probation.
B. Only the civil liability
C. Both criminal and civil liabilities A. Client
D. Both criminal and civil liabilities, including B. Probationee
subsidiary C. Probationer
D. AOTA
73. A probationer is ordered by the Court to pay
certain amounts to the victim as part of his civil liability. 80. Probation is a form of _______.
To whom shall he pay the amount for the remittance
of the victim? A. Incarceration
B. Punishment
A. Personally to the victim C. Treatment
B. To the bank account of the victim D. Enjoyment
C. To the Clerk-of-Court of the Trial Court
D. AOTA 81. Branch of the Government which has the sole
authority to exercise pardon.
74. Probation is a mere privilege and its grant or
denial depend upon the Trial Court and when granted A. Legislative
becomes ______________. B. Executive
C. Judicial
A. Natural Right D. None
B. Constitutional Right
C. Statutory Right 82. Probation service is similar to parole service
D. Civil Right in a way that

75. Probation may be granted even if the A. Both services are performed by Prosecutors
sentence imposed is fine only. B. Both services are performed by President

12 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

C. Both services are under judiciary 91. A probationer is allowed to do the following
D. Both have similar investigation and except
supervision functions
A. Make periodic office report
83. A Parolee who is residing inside Metro Manila B. Stay away from bad people/society
shall report at least twice a month, and if outside, at C. Play in gambling den
least once a month. D. Work regularly and support the needs of his
A. True family
B. False
C. Partially True 92. The additional data which are collected from
D. Partially False PSI is called as

84. It is a written report submitted by Parole A. Relevant information

Officer to the BPP after his conduct of investigation. B. Collateral Information
C. Supplementary Information
A. Post-Sentence Investigation D. Background Information
B. Pre=Probation and Parole System
Investigation Report 93. To what agency is an alien parolee turned
C. Pre-parole Investigation over for disposition, documentation and appropriate
D. Pre-parole Investigation Report order?

85. Pardon by the President shall be extended A. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
_______________. B. BuCor
C. BPP
A. Upon the discretion of the President D. NBI
B. After the filing of Complaint/information
C. After the conviction of final judgment 94. These are the authorized to order or approved
D. Before prosecution and criminal action the release of prisoners, except one

86. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition E. BPP in parole cases
for absolute or conditional pardon if the crime F. Director of BUCOR upon the expiration of the
committed is against the national election? sentence of prisoner
G. President in cases of executive clemency or
A. DFA amnesty
B. Comelec H. PPA in cases of granting pardon
C. DND Sec
D. DOJ Sec 95. Whom to apply for parole?

87. Federal Probation Act signed by President A. PPA

Calvin Coolidge became on a law on ______ B. Chairman of BPP
C. Judge
A. 1899 D. DOJ Sec.
B. 1990
C. March 4, 1925 96. This is granted by the court.
D. December 4, 1989
A. Parole
88. Who among the following may be granted B. Probation
conditional pardon? C. Pardon
D. Amnesty
A. A prisoner with good behavior.
B. A prisoner who is 60 years old and above 97. What document shall be issued by the BPP for
C. A prisoner who served as bastonero the termination of parole case?
D. A sick prisoner, certified as such by gov’t
physician A. Summary Report
B. Termination Report
89. The word parole means C. Release Document – discharge on parole
D. Final Release and Discharge
A. Palabra de Honor
B. Word of Honor 98. Shortening of the sentence.
C. Word of Wisdom
D. Penance A. Pardon
B. Parole
90. VPA may be appointed from among the C. Reprieve
citizens of ______ D. Commutation

A. Good religious background 99. It is also called as General Pardon

B. High educational level
C. Good repute and probity A. Collective Pardon
D. High social standing or status B. Blanket Pardon
C. Group Pardon

13 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

D. NOTA 8. A resident/client is expected to have been
proven his ability to take on more responsibility hence
100. It refers to leniency or mercy needs lesser supervision.

A. Grace A. Entry/Orientation Phase

B. Power B. Primary Treatment
C. Damages C. Pre-re-entry Phase
D. Longevity D. Re-entry Phase
E. Aftercare
Part III. Therapeutic Modality
9. A resident/client is handled gently and is
1. A self-social learning treatment model used in expected to commit mistakes in the process of learning
the rehabilitation of drug offenders and other clients the program.
with behavioral problems.
A. Entry/Orientation Phase
A. Therapeutic Community B. Primary Treatment
B. Restorative Justice C. Pre-re-entry Phase
C. Therapeutic Program D. Re-entry Phase
D. Modality Program E. Aftercare

2. It serves as a guide to what direction the 10. The resident/client is focused in creating a
community is headed for the day. new lifestyle applying the tools and concept of TC.

A. Concept of the day A. Entry/Orientation Phase

B. Title of the day B. Primary Treatment
C. Program of the day C. Pre-re-entry Phase
D. Task of the day D. Re-entry Phase
E. Aftercare
3. Action or activity that reflects or brings out
the goodness in a man. 11. A phase wherein the client is learning how to
trust the environment by disclosing self to the
A. Intellectuality community and develop insight in the process.
B. Spirituality
C. Anger A. Entry/Orientation Phase
D. TC Philosophy B. Primary Treatment
C. Pre-re-entry Phase
4. The entire treatment process of an offender D. Re-entry Phase
requires individualized treatment program success will E. Aftercare
depend upon _____________.
12. Morning meeting is an activity under
A. Fiscal Planning and Allotment
B. Workable Classification Program A. Behavioral Management
C. Effective Custodial Discipline B. Emotional/Psychological Aspect
D. All of the above C. Intellectual/Spiritual Aspect
D. Vocational and Survival Aspect
5. There are four major programs under the
mandate of BJMP and they are the following, EXCEPT 13. This program is in line with the government’s
policy of providing timely and speedy access to the
A. Decongestion program government service.
B. Good governance
C. Provisions of basic needs A. Paralegal Program
D. Welfare and development program B. E-Dalaw Program
C. Help Desk
6. “I am here because there is no refuge, finally D. Behavioral Management Program
from myself”
14. Counselling is an activity under
A. Self-disclosure
B. Reflection A. Paralegal Program
C. Surrender B. E-Dalaw Program
D. Growth C. Emotional/Psychological Aspect
D. Behavioral Management Program
7. The phase wherein the client is focused on
the integration into society. 15. In extreme cases, when a resident is
incorrigible and becomes a threat to the community,
A. Entry/Orientation Phase the Director with the recommendation of the
B. Primary Treatment Disciplinary Board may transfer him/her to the nearest
C. Pre-re-entry Phase jail facility with an appropriate Court Order.
D. Re-entry Phase
E. Aftercare A. Bans
B. Expulsion

14 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

C. Banishment D. Haircut
D. Destierro E. Learning Experience

16. These are sanctions to the members who 24. It is done when negative behaviors or
commit repeatedly infractions or violations to the infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense
Cardinal Rules by prohibiting, disallowing or limiting an are done for the 2nd time.
activity or affiliation to a group.
A. Talk to
A. Bans B. Pull up
B. Restrictions C. Death with
C. Punishments D. Haircut
D. Penalty E. Learning Experience

17. Job functions are included in 25. A behavior shaping tool done involving a
panel of 5.
A. Behavioral Management
B. Emotional/Psychological Aspect A. Talk to
C. Intellectual/Spiritual Aspect B. Pull up
D. Vocational and Survival Aspect C. Death with
D. Haircut
18. Night activities in TC is held every _______ as E. Learning Experience
a recreational event to purposely instill fun, humor and
entertainment after an intense and hectic week. 26. It is an outright correction done by any
member of the TC Community to another member who
A. Friday has done a minor infraction but is not aware of it.
B. Saturday
C. Sunday A. Talk to
D. Monday B. Pull up
C. Death with
19. A TC Hierarchy that is responsible for D. Haircut
carrying-out tasks, duties and responsibilities of their E. Learning Experience
concerned departments.
27. Professional activity of helping individuals,
A. Department Crew groups or communities to enhance or restore their
B. Department Head capacity for psychological, emotional and social
C. Coordinator functioning and creating an environment favorable for
D. Chief Expediter the attainment of these goals.

20. A TC hierarchy that serves as liaison between A. Behavioral Management

resident and staff. B. Behavior Shaping Tools
C. Therapeutic Community
A. Department Crew D. Counseling
B. Department Head
C. Coordinator 28. It is also called genuineness and define as
D. Chief Expediter being honest and authentic in dealing with the client.

21. A TC hierarchy communicates with A. Empathy

department heads in execution of job functions. B. Warmth
C. Congruence
A. Department Crew D. Respect
B. Department Head E. Confidentiality
C. Coordinator
D. Chief Expediter 29. The ability to perceive the client’s feelings and
to demonstrate accurate perception of the client
22. A TC Hierarchy that supervises the over-all
functions of the department in the TC family. A. Empathy
B. Warmth
A. Department Crew C. Congruence
B. Department Head D. Respect
C. Coordinator E. Confidentiality
D. Chief Executive
30. It is also called “unconditional positive
23. It is done when negative behaviors or regard”. It involves accepting and caring about the
infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense client as a person regardless of any evaluation or
are done for the 3rd time or more or for first time prejudices on the client’s behavior or thoughts.
offender.
A. Empathy
A. Talk to B. Warmth
B. Pull up C. Congruence
C. Death with D. Respect

15 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

E. Confidentiality
38. TC is a place where
31. Belief in the client’s ability to make
appropriate decisions and deal appropriately with his A. One can change-unfold; the group can foster
or her life situations, when given a safe and supportive change; individuals must take responsibility; structures
environment. must accommodate this; act as if go through the
motion
A. Empathy B. One can’t change-unfold; the group can’t
B. Warmth foster change; individuals must take responsibility;
C. Congruence structures must accommodate this; act as if go through
D. Respect the motion
E. Confidentiality C. One can change-unfold, the group can
neglect change; groups and peers take responsibility;
32. It means that anything discussed during structures must hinder this; act as if go through the
counseling sessions is held absolutely private and not motion.
be discussed anywhere. D. NOTA

A. Empathy 39. Pepito was released from the jail and sent to
B. Warmth LGU units for his follow-up session to maintain his skills
C. Congruence and positive behavior. What phase of treatment
D. Respect describes in this situation?
E. Confidentiality
A. Entry/Orientation Phase
33. Permanent group of peers and leaders that B. Primary Treatment
meet regularly while the residents are in treatment. C. Pre-re-entry Phase
D. Re-entry Phase
A. Static Group E. Aftercare
B. Peer Confrontation Group
C. Secrets 40. Through self-discovery, Elsa became part of
D. Encounter Group the community and learn to trust people around her.
E. Extended Group What phase of treatment does this belongs?

34. It is commonly known as “safety valve” within A. Entry/Orientation Phase

the community which is high pressures and structured. B. Primary Treatment
C. Pre-re-entry Phase
A. Static Group D. Re-entry Phase
B. Peer Confrontation Group E. Aftercare
C. Secrets
D. Encounter Group 41. Daily ritual that starts the day in a TC facility.
E. Extended Group It is attended by the whole community and lasts for an
hour.
35. Group activity where participants are given
the opportunity to unload emotional baggage and thus A. Morning Meeting
experience freedom from internal psychological B. General Meeting
conflict. C. Pre-morning Meeting
D. Staff Meeting
A. Static Group
B. Peer Confrontation Group 42. This meeting is done early in the morning
C. Secrets prior to Morning Meeting. Senior members of the
D. Encounter Group community will meet for about 15 minutes to discuss
E. Extended Group the attitude of residents previously. It is where the
senior members formulate solutions to the concerns
36. It is known as a probe marathon and typically discussed and to be executed during the day.
has 5 to 12 residents. It is conducted by 2 highly
trained members. A. Morning Meeting
B. General Meeting
A. Static Group C. Pre-morning Meeting
B. Peer Confrontation Group D. Staff Meeting
C. Secrets
D. Encounter Group 43. This phase of encounter group involves
E. Extended Group verbalization of concerns or honest disclosure of
emotions that has been provoked during interpersonal
37. These are groups that have been chosen by interactions with another resident.
the staff and are based on peers.
A. Confrontation
A. Static Group B. Exploration
B. Peer Confrontation Group C. Resolution and Commitment
C. Secrets D. Socialization
D. Encounter Group
E. Extended Group

16 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

44. At this phase, it involves structured social 51. Duration of Pre-morning Meeting
events where all those in an encounter group will have
ample time to mend fences with those they have A. 15 minutes
offended or hurt in the past. B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
A. Confrontation D. 1 hour
B. Exploration
C. Resolution and Commitment 52. As part of the morning meeting, participants
D. Socialization and facilitators recites the __________.

45. The resident involved will now express how A. TC Philosophy

he feels about the whole thing and may own up his B. TC Program
behavior which has caused the conflict. C. TC Core Values
D. TC Mission and Vision

A. Confrontation 53. Mr. Tommy, as a counselor, is aware that he

B. Exploration still needs to improve himself in dealing with his client
C. Resolution and Commitment in order to build a more effective counselling. Which of
D. Socialization the following psychosocial skill for counseling was
demonstrated?
46. The feeling expressed of the resident are
further examined and find out how it could have A. Empathy
resulted in such a way to evoke awareness on the B. Warmth
connection of behavior, feelings and attitude. C. Respect
D. Congruence
E. Confidentiality
A. Confrontation
B. Exploration 54. Counselors in TC change regularly every
C. Resolution and Commitment
D. Socialization A. 1 month
B. 2 months
47. It is introduced to provide the residents the C. 4 months
opportunity to learn how to reason ably and put D. 6 months
together arguments in a logical manner.
55. Information gathering in counseling session
A. Grab bag lasts for how many minutes?
B. Meditation
C. Seminars A. 10 minutes
D. Debate B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
48. It is used to help an individual establish a D. 30 minutes
practice of moving his attention within, finding his
place of relaxation and peace by contacting his inner 56. An older member of the community tasked to
wisdom. provide guidance to the newly-committed residents.

A. Grab bag A. Friend

B. Meditation B. Big Brother
C. Seminars C. Director
D. Debate D. Coordinator

49. It enhances the residents ability to 57. The highest position attained by a resident in
communicate, analyze ideas and develop insights TC Hierarchy, who works with the staff in running the
about themselves with the use of identification with the house and implementing rules.
inanimate object.
A. Friend
A. Grab bag B. Big Brother
B. Meditation C. Director
C. Seminars D. Coordinator
D. Debate
58. The highest staff facility who has direct
50. It provides intellectual stimulation and seek command to both residents and staff.
personal involvement among the residents. It is a way
of providing information, improving the resident’s A. Friend
speaking and writing abilities. B. Big Brother
C. Director
A. Grab bag D. Coordinator
B. Meditation
C. Seminars 59. It refers to all residents of the TC Community.
D. Debate
A. TC Community

17 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

B. TC Family B. Understand rather than be understood
C. TC Association C. What goes around comes around
D. TC Organization D. Personal growth before vested status

60. Online or e-marketing of PDL livelihood 68. Uses Bible as the primary source of inspiration
products is being run by the _________. to change

A. Welfare and Development Office A. Eclectic Approach

B. Alternative Learning System B. Spiritual Approach
C. Office of the Jail Warden C. Behavioral Approach
D. Business Administration Office D. Sports Approach

61. These are the Separation of Categories under 69. First level of Shaping Behavioral Tools
the UN Standard Treatment for PDL, except
A. Talk to
A. Men and women should be separated B. Pull up
B. Untried prisoners shall be kept separated C. Dealt with
from convicted prisoners D. Haircut
C. Prisoners should be separated according to
the nature of their offense/crime 70. Which of the following are the cardinal rules
D. None in BJMP therapeutic community?

62. It is an integral part in prisoner’s rehabilitation i. No sex or sexual acting out

which serves as an outlet for human expression and a ii. No illegal drugs/alcohol
form of release from one’s inherent desire to create. iii. No violence or threat or violence
iv. No stealing
A. Music
B. Sports A. I,II,III
C. Arts and Crafts B. I,II,III,IV
D. Drama C. I,II
D. III,IV
63. Provides States with detailed guidelines for
protecting the rights of persons deprived of their 71. It refers to act of making an individual
liberty, from pre-trial detainees to sentenced prisoners. incapable of committing a crime by execution or
banishment, and in more modern times by execution
A. United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for or lengthy periods of incarceration.
the Treatment of Prisoners
B. Geneva Convention A. Rehabilitation
C. Nelson Mandela Rules B. Incapacitation
D. Both a and c C. Reformation
D. Restoration
64. When to break confidentiality?
72. It is the process whereby victims, offenders
A. Children are being neglected or abused and communities affected by a particular offense meet
B. Appearance in the Court as a witness or client to find a way to restore or make amends for the harm
express plan to commit suicide resulting from an offense.
C. Client express plan to harm others
D. All of the above A. Rehabilitation -MAKING OFFENDER A LAW
ABIDING CITIZEN
65. The principal guiding rule observed by all B. Incapacitation
residents in a TC Community with heavier C. Reformation – CHANGING AN INMATE’S
corresponding consequences. BEHAVIOR
D. Restoration
A. Jail Rules
B. House Rules 73. TCMP was introduced in what year?
C. Cardinal Rules
D. No Rules A. 2000
B. 1999
66. The chain of command of residents in TCMP. C. 1998
D. 1997
A. Chain of Command
B. Command Group 74. Therapeutic Community Modality Program
C. Hierarchical Structure (TCMP): inside the institution
D. All of the above __________________________________: outside the
institution
67. “Whatever you do unto others will be done
unto you” is an example of what TC unwritten A. Therapeutic Community Outside Program
philosophies? B. Therapeutic Community External Program
C. Therapeutic Community Ladderized Program
A. Act as if D. NONE

18 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 82. Under the British Democratic Maxwell Jones-
75. Under the American Drug-Free Hierarchy Type TC, the face to face communication refers to
Concept Based TC, these are the elements that
comprises them: A. Permissiveness
B. Democracy
i. Community C. Communalism
ii. Hierarchy D. Reality Testing
iii. Self-help
iv. Communalism 83. You have to continually confront them with
v. Confrontation their own image.

A. I,II,III,IV,IV A. Permissiveness
B. I,II,III,IV B. Democracy
C. I,II,III,V C. Communalism
D. I,II,IV,V D. Reality Testing

76. This is the phase wherein the client becomes 84. Equal chance and opportunities
part of the community starting as a crew member of
the Housekeeping Department. A. Permissiveness
A. Entry/Orientation Phase B. Democracy
B. Primary Treatment C. Communalism
C. Pre-re-entry D. Reality Testing
D. Re-entry
E. Aftercare 85. You can freely express your thoughts without
any negative repercussions.
77. It is considered as a backbone program of
BJMP. A. Permissiveness
B. Democracy
A. TCMP C. Communalism
B. TCLP D. Reality Testing
C. TGP
D. TIP 86. Tyron often neglected to organized his bed,
so, the staffs requested him to teach incoming resident
78. Interfaith program is one of the core on how to maintain their bed neat and orderly.
programs of TCLP.
A. Talk to
A. True B. Pull up
B. False C. Haircut
C. Partially true D. Learning experience
D. Partially false
87. Snow White was inadequate to handle
79. What are the four interconnected challenging life circumstances, but thanks to TC
development aspects of TCMP? Program, he had learned to manage and deal difficult
situations and able to understand the significance of
A. Behavior Management, Emotional and shaping the behavior.
Pyschological, Intellectual and Spiritual, Vocational and
Survival A. Entry/Orientation Phase
B. Behavior Management, Physical B. Primary Treatment
Management, Industrial Management, Social C. Pre-re-entry Phase
Management D. Re-entry Phase
C. Behavioral, Instrumental, Educational, E. Aftercare
Individual
D. None 88. Iya will remain in custody until her case is
resolve or until she send to the BUCOR if she found
80. It is done if there is a repeated breach to guilty.
cardinal rules.
A. Entry/Orientation Phase
A. Haircut B. Primary Treatment
B. Learning experience C. Pre-re-entry Phase
C. General meeting D. Re-entry Phase
D. Expulsion E. Aftercare

81. Action/ activity given to a resident subjected 89. The principal guiding rule observed by all
to haircut or general meeting. residents in a TC Community with heavier
corresponding consequences.
A. Haircut
B. Learning experience E. Jail Rules
C. General meeting F. House Rules
D. Expulsion G. Cardinal Rules
H. No Rules

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 structures must accommodate this; act as if go through
90. Poy participates in varieties of activities inside the motion
the jail facility that are suitable for his abilities in order G. One can change-unfold, the group can
to maximize his development. neglect change; groups and peers take responsibility;
structures must hinder this; act as if go through the
A. Entry/Orientation Phase motion.
B. Primary Treatment H. NOTA
C. Pre-re-entry Phase
D. Re-entry Phase 98. TCMP was introduced in what year?
E. Aftercare
E. 2000
91. Duration of Morning Meeting F. 1999
G. 1998
A. 15 minutes H. 1997
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes 99. Under the American Drug-Free Hierarchy
D. 1 hour Concept Based TC, these are the elements that
comprises them:
92. What is the proper pattern of counselling
session? i. Community
ii. Hierarchy
i. Information gathering iii. Self-help
ii. Conclusion iv. Communalism
iii. Discussion v. Confrontation
iv. Introduction
E. I,II,III,IV,IV
A. I,II,III,IV F. I,II,III,IV
B. IV,II,III,I G. I,II,III,V
C. IV,I,III,II H. I,II,IV,V
D. IV,III,II,I
100. Last or extreme level of Shaping Behavioral
93. To introduce and institutionalized TCMP as Tools
the _______ program of the BJMP for inmate
development E. Talk to
F. Pull up
A. Needed G. Expulsion
B. Essential H. Bans
C. Backbone
D. Nucleus

94. TCMP is under this BJMP Core Program

A. E-dalaw
B. Help-Desk
C. Behavioral
D. Paralegal

95. TCMP was made in order to make the suicidal

people to be God-centered individuals.

A. True
B. False
C. Partially True
D. Partially False

96. The chain of command of residents in TCMP.

E. Chain of Command
F. Command Group
G. Hierarchical Structure
H. All of the above

97. TC is a place where

E. One can change-unfold; the group can foster

change; individuals must take responsibility; structures
must accommodate this; act as if go through the
motion
F. One can’t change-unfold; the group can’t
foster change; individuals must take responsibility;

20 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER