MASS AND BALANCE, PERFORMANCE

1. The position of the center of gravity can always be

determined by: A) dividing the total mass by the total
moment
B) *dividing the total moment by the total mass
C) subtracting the total mass from the total moment

2. The scheduled landing distance required is the

distance:
A) *From a screen of a designated height to the
point at which the aircraft has come to a complete
stop
B) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft
has come to a complete stop
C) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft
has decelerated to a speed of 20kts

3. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest

when it is loaded with a:
A) *high gross mass and forward centre of gravity
B) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity
C) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity

4. During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator

input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than
expected. This is an indication that:
A) the centre of gravity is too far forward
B) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of
gravity
C) *the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit
5. What effect has a centre of gravity close to the
forward limit?
A)* A reduced rate of climb
B) A better rate of climb capability
C) A decreased induced drag

6. If all the moments are positive when calculating

mass (weight) and balance, the position of the datum
would be at the:
A)* nose, or forward of the aircraft
B) trailing edge of the wing
C) main wheels centerline

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Gross acceleration is net acceleration minus
9.81m/s2
B) Gross landing distance is greater than net landing
distance
C) *Gross take-off distance is less than net take-off
distance

8. It is intended to fly a certified aircraft with both a full

traffic load and a full fuel load.
A) The CG will not be within the limits during the
flight
B) The CG might not be in limits any of the time
during the flight C)* The CG limits will be in limits all
of the flight

9. VLO is defined as:

A) *The maximum speed for landing gear operation
 B) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift
off the ground
C) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground

10. Given an aeroplane with:

Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel
is 5000 kg
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting,
the maximum permitted takeoff mass and maximum
traffic load are respectively:
A)* 130500 kg and 26500 kg
B) 125500 kg and 21500 kg
C) 125500 kg and 26500 kg

11. The rate of climb:

A) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
B) *Is approximately climb gradient times true
airspeed divided by 100
C) Is angle of climb times true airspeed

12. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual
centre of gravity is located in the middle between the
aft and forward limit of centre of gravity
B) *A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at
a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
C) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the
aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the
 aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to
increase elevator forces

13. The mass displacement caused by landing gear

extension:
A) creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment
B) creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment
C)* creates a longitudinal moment in the direction
(pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the type of
landing gear

14. 3mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway

is:
A) Flooded B) *Contaminated C) Damp

15. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit

which of the following is to be expected?
A) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off
B) A decrease in the landing speed
C) *A decrease in range

16. The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the

weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational
items’ (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg.
If the take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable
fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is:
A) 29600 kg B) 26900 kg C) *68400 kg

17. Density altitude is the:

A) Height above the surface
B)* Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard'
temperature
 C) Altitude reference to the standard datum plane

18. With respect to the arm ____ (i) of the aircraft

datum the arm is _____ (ii) and _____ (iii) of the
aircraft datum it is _____ (iv).
A) (i) forward (ii) positive (iii) aft (iv) negative
B) (i) aft (ii) negative (iii) forward (iv) positive
C) *(i) aft (ii) positive (iii) forward (iv) negative

19. Considering only structural limitations, on very

short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load
is normally limited by: A) Actual landing mass
B) Maximum take-off mass
C) *Maximum zero fuel mass

20. The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:

A)* The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance
expressed as a percentage
B) The increase of altitude to distance over ground
expressed as a percentage
C) Rate of climb to true airspeed

21. The handling and performance problems

encountered with a CG too far aft include:
A)*Degrade or loss of nose wheel steering
B) Higher stick forces per G loading with no risk of
over-stressing the airframe in manoeuvre
C) Improvement in nose wheel steering
22. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in
landing configuration is abbreviated as
A) VS1 B) *VSO C) VMC

23. An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg. The

maximum take-off, landing, and zero fuel mass are
identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi
fuel is 50 kg. The payload available is:
A) *1600 kg B) 2200 kg C) 2150 kg
24. The coefficient of lift can be increased either by
flap extension or by?
A) increasing the CAS
B)* increasing the angle of attack
C) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting

25. The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass

limitation for the:
A) Total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
B)* Strength of the wing root
C) Allowable load exerted upon the wing considering
a margin for fuel tanking

26. The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by:

A) bearing strength of the taxiway pavement
B) taxi distance to take - off point
C)* structural considerations

27. The absolute ceiling is defined as:

A) The outer boundary of our galaxy
B) *The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is
0 ft/minute
 C) The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum

28. An aero plane’s weighing schedule indicates that

the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry
Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero
Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the
following is a correct statement in relation to this
aeroplane?
A) Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the
maximum useful load is 11980 kg
B) Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the
maximum useful load is 14780 kg
C) *Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and
the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980
kg

29. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed

V1:
A) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne
but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have
made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-
off
B) *Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot
is assumed to have made a decision to continue or
discontinue the take-off
C) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)

30. When determining the mass of fuel/oil and the

value of the SG is not known, the value to use is:
A) *Determined by the operator
B) Determined by the aviation authority
C) Set out in JAR OPS - 1 Section 1
31. Take-off distance available is:
A) TORA
B) the distance from brake release point to 35ft
screen height
C) *TORA plus clearway

32. The Maximum Structural Take-off Mass is:

A) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass
for take-off but excluding fuel
B)* the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass
at the start of the take-off run
C) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass on
completion of the refueling operation
33. The load factor in a turn in level flight with
constant TAS depends on:
A) the true airspeed and the bank angle
B) the radius of the turn and the weight of the
aeroplane
C) *the bank angle only

34. Which of the following statements is correct?

A)* The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is
restricted by structural limitations, performance
limitations and the strength of the runway
B) The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the
aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but
including the crew
C) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the
centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift
of fuel
35. The gross take off distance required for a single
engine Class B aircraft is the distance:
A) from the start of the run to a screen height of 35
feet
B) *from the start of the run to a screen height of 50
feet
C) from the start of the run to the point at which the
wheels are just clear of the ground multiplied by a
factor of 1.25

36. The Density Altitude:

A) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000
feet over mountains
B) *is used to determine the aeroplane performance
C) is equal to the pressure altitude

37. For a piston engine aircraft the Critical Altitude

is:
A) *The maximum altitude at which, in standard
atmosphere, it is possible to maintain a specified
power or a specified manifold pressure
B) The maximum altitude at which it is possible to
maintain a specified manifold pressure
C) The minimum altitude at which, in standard
atmosphere, it is possible to maintain a specified
power or a specified manifold pressure

38. The International Standard Atmosphere defines

an atmosphere where Sea level temperature (i) Sea
level pressure (ii) Sea level density (iii) temperature
lapse rate (iv) are:
 A) (i) 15° C (ii) 1013 mb (iii) 1.225 kg/m3 (iv) 1.98°
C/1000m
B) (i) 15° C (ii) 29.92 inch Hg (iii) 1013 kg/m3 (iv)
1.98° C/1000 ft
C) *(i) 15° C (ii) 14.5 psi (iii) 1.225 kg/m3 (iv) 6.5°
C/1000 m

39. Who establishes the limits of C of G?

A) The CAA B) *The manufacturer C) The
insurers

40. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Landing distance required on a grass runway will
be shorter than on tarmac because of the rougher
surface
B)* Deployment of lift dumpers will increase the
effectiveness of the wheel brakes
C) A reduced flap setting for landing will give a
shorter landing distance, as a result of reduced lift
and greater load on the wheels

41. Decreasing take off flap from 15° to 0° will

probably result in a _____ Vlof.
A) reduced B) greatly reduced C)* increased

42. The effect of a decrease in air density is to:

A) decrease the take-off distance and reduce the rate
of climb
B) increase the take-off distance and increase the
rate of climb
 C)* increase the take-off distance and reduce the
rate of climb

43. If an aeroplane lands below its Max Structural

Landing Mass but above the Performance Limited
Landing Mass for the arrival airfield:
1. It will not suffer physical damage as a result of the
extra mass.
2. Tyre temperature limits could be exceeded.
3. It might not have sufficient runway length in which
to stop safely.
4. A go-around might not be achievable.
5. It will increase structural fatigue.
A) *2, 3, 4 and 5 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

44. The Arm is the _____ (i) distance of a load as

measured from the aircraft _____ (ii).
A) (i) vertical (ii) aft limit
B)* (i) horizontal (ii) datum
C) (i) horizontal (ii) forward limit

45. At the moment of lift off:

A) rolling resistance is a maximum
B) lift is greater than mass
C)* lift is equal to weight

46. A twin-engine aeroplane is certified for a Max

Structural TOM and a Max LM of 58000 kg and 55000
 kg respectively. Given the information below, what is
the limiting takeoff mass for the aeroplane?
Performance Limiting TOM 61000 kg
Performance limiting LM 54000 kg
Operating mass 55000 kg
Trip fuel 3000 kg
Contingency fuel 5% of trip fuel
Alternate fuel 500 kg
Final reserve 500 kg
Flight duration 3 hours
Fuel consumption 500 kg per hour per engine
A) 61000 kg B) 58000 kg C)
*57000 kg

47. An upward runway slope:

A) decreases the take-off distance required
B) decreases the accelerated-stop-distance available
C)* increases the take-off distance required

48. The chemical fluids used to charge the aircraft‟

s toilets are counted as?
A)* part of the variable load
B) part of the under load
C) part of the basic empty mass
49. Traffic load is the:
A) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load
B) *Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass
C) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load

50. Which of the following combinations will produce

the best take-off performance in a normal
atmosphere?
 A) High altitude, high ambient temperature
B) High altitude, low ambient temperature
C)*Low altitude, low ambient temperature

51. The Basic Empty Mass is the:

A) Take-off mass minus the traffic load and the fuel
load
B) *Operating mass minus the crew and fuel load
C) Landing mass less traffic load

52. The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a

flight using the following data:
Block fuel: 40 000 kg
Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 800 kg
Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:
A) 40 400 kg B) *32 100 kg C) 32 900 kg

53. In mass and balance calculations the " index" is:

A) an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all
measurements are taken
B) *the moment divided by a constant aeroplane
unsafe to fly
C) a location in the aeroplane identified by a number

54. If a runway is wet, the landing distance required

for a dry runway (single engine class B):
 A) may be used un-factored
B)* must be increased by 15 percent
C) must be increased by 5 percent

55. The take-off mass of an airplane is 8600 kg

which includes a traffic load of 1890 kg and a usable
fuel load of 1230 kg. If the standard mass for the
crew is 190 kg the dry operating mass is?
A) 5290 kg B) 8410 kg C) *5480 kg

56. Consider the field length requirements for a

class B aircraft where no stop way or clearway is
available. In this case, the take-off distance must not
exceed:
A) 1.25 x TODA B)*1.25 x TORA C) 1.15
x TORA

57. The landing distance required will be increased

as a result of all of the following:
A) increased temperature, increased pressure
altitude, uphill runway slope
B) increased temperature, decreased pressure
altitude, downhill runway slope
C)*increased temperature, increased pressure
altitude, downhill runway slope

58. For a single engine class B aeroplane, take-off

distance should be increased by... percent for each...
percent upslope.
A) *5, 1 B) 3, 1 C) 2, 5
59. For an aeroplane Performance Class B the net
take-off flight path begins at a height of _____ and
ends at a height of _____ .
A) 35 feet; 1500 feet
B) 50 feet; 1000 feet
C) *50 feet; 1500 feet

60. What percentages of the headwind and tailwind

components are taken into account when calculating
the take- off field length required?
A)* 50% headwind and 150% tailwind
B) 100% headwind and 100% tailwind
C) 50% headwind and 100% tailwind

61. Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in

altitude in the shortest distance during climb after
takeoff?
A)*Vx B) Vy C) Va

62. Aircraft must be weighed:

A. on initial entry into service
B. if the mass and balance records have not been
adjusted for alterations or
modifications
C. every four years after initial weigh
D. whenever the cumulative changes to the dry
operating mass exceed plus or minus
0.5% of the maximum landing mass
E. if the cumulative change in CG position exceeds
0.5% of the mean aerodynamic
chord
A) A and C only
 B) *A, B, C, D and E
C) A, B and C only

63. When comparing Vx to Vy:

A)* Vy will always be greater than or equal to Vx
B) Vx will always be greater than Vy
C) Vx will sometimes be greater than Vy, but
sometimes be less than Vy

64. An aeroplane may be weighed:

A)* in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar
B) in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance
C) at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield

65. An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where

the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg.
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg
Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 600 kg
Trip fuel 17830 kg
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass Is 40970 kg the traffic load
that can be carried on this flight is:
A) 21220 kg B) 21500 kg C)
*21080 kg

66. The following data applies to an aeroplane which

is about to take off:
 Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg
Crew baggage in hold 110 kg
Fuel on board 60700 kg
From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.
A) *78900 kg B) 17450 kg C) 78150
kg

67. A revenue flight is planned for the transport

aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield limited. The
following data applies:
Dry Operating Mass 34921 kg
Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9730 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg
Alternate fuel 1600 kg
Passengers on board 130
Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg
Baggage per passenger 14 kg
Traffic load Maximum possible
Use the loading manual provided and the above
data. Determine the maximum cargo load that may
be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane
landing mass.
A)*4533kg B) 4530 kg C) 5400 kg

68. The length of a clearway may be included in:

A) the distance to reach V1
 B) the accelerate-stop distance available
C) *the take-off distance available

69. A light aircraft has the datum 20 inches behind

the nose wheel and 70 inches forward of the main
wheels. The readings on the weighing scales are 255
N nose wheel and 1010 N on each main wheel. What
is the BEM and CG position?
a) *2275 kg and 60 inches aft of datum
b) 2321 kg and 60 inches aft of datum
c)2322 kg and 55 inches aft of datum

70. What is the maximum mass an aeroplane can be

loaded to before it moves under its own power?
a)*Maximum structural ramp mass
b) Maximum structural take-off mass
c)Maximum regulated ramp mass

71. The specific range (SR) is :

A)* the distance that the aircraft would fly per
kilogram of fuel
B) the distance that the aircraft would fly without
using the reserve fuel
C) the distance that the aircraft would fly with full
fuel
72. Prior to departure an MRJT is loaded with
maximum fuel of 20,100 lt. at an SG of 0.78.
Calculate the maximum allowable traffic load that
can be carried given the following data:
Performance Limited TOM 67200 kg
Performance Limited LM 54200 kg
DOM 34930 kg
 Taxi fuel 355 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg
A)*13197 kg B) 16842 kg C) 13092
kg

73. In a power-off glide in still air, to obtain the

maximum glide range, the aircraft should be flown:
A) at a speed corresponding to the minimum drag
coefficient
B) *at a speed corresponding to the maximum lift-to-
drag ratio
C) at a speed close to the stall

74. The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to

operate a flight carrying the maximum possible fuel
load. Using the following data as appropriate,
determine the mass of fuel on board at start of take-
off.
Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass:
60 400 kg
Landing airfield: not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg
Fuel required for flight:
Taxi fuel: 715 kg
Trip fuel: 8600 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg
Alternate fuel 1500 kg
Additional reserve 400 kg
Traffic load for flight 11000 kg
 A) 15 815 kg B) 16 080 kg C) *14
470 kg

75. Define Balance Arm:

a) BA=Mass /Moment
b)*BA=Moment /Mass
c) BA=Mass /Distance

76. Determine the maximum take-off mass given:

MSTOM 43,000 kg
MSLM 35,000kg
PLLM 33,000kg
MZFM 31,000 kg
DOM 19,000 kg
Total Fuel capacity 12,500 kg
Trip Fuel 9,000 kg
Contingency fuel 1000 kg
Alternate fuel 500 kg
Final reserve fuel 400 kg
Traffic load 9000 kg
A) 40,000 kg B) 43,000 kg C) *42,000
kg

77. In straight and level flight the lift is opposed by

the:
A) *weight B) drag C) drag and
weight

78. Is it possible to fly a certified aircraft at a

Regulated Take-off mass with both a full traffic load
and a full fuel load?
 a)*It might be possible on some aircraft providing the
mass and CG remain within limits
b) Yes, all aircraft are able to do this
c) No, it is not possible on any aeroplane

79. Reference zero is a point 35ft vertically beneath

the aircraft at the end of:
A) *TODR B) ASDA C) TODA

80. How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the

gliding range?
A) *Has no effect on range above
B) Increases range
C) Decreases range

81. If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than

anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack
will:
A) Be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance
will increase
B) *Be greater, drag will increase and endurance will
decrease
C) Remain constant, drag will increase and
endurance will increase

82. For a piston engine aircraft the service ceiling

corresponds to:
A) The altitude for which the power required and
power available curves are tangential
B)*The altitude at which the aircraft is capable of a
climb rate of 100 feet per minute
 C) The greatest altitude at which more than one
speed is available

83. Due to a mistake in the load sheet the aeroplane

is 100 kg heavier than you believe it to be. As a
consequence:
A) V1, VMU, VR will all occur earlier
B) VR will be higher
C)* VMU will be higher

84. The handling and performance problems

encountered when an aircraft is overloaded include:
A)* The stall speed is increased
B) The stall speed is decreased
C) The take-off and landing runs are decreased

85.
Given
Dry operating Weight (DOW) =33510 kg Load=7600
kg
Trip fuel (TF) =2040 kg final reserve fuel=983 kg
Alternate fuel=1100 kg Contingency fuel=5% of trip
fuel
Which of the listed estimated weight is correct?
A) Estimated take-off weight=45233 kg
B) *Estimated launching weight at
destination=43295 kg
C) Estimated take-off weight=43295 kg
86. Documentation: [Link] be established prior to
each flight [Link] enable the commander to
determine that the load and its distribution is such
that the limits of the aircraft are not exceeded
[Link] include the name of the person preparing the
document 4. Must be signed by the person
supervising the loading to the effect that the load
and its distribution is in accordance with data on the
document 5. Must include the aircraft commander's
signature to signify acceptance of the document.
a) 2, 4 and 5 only b) 1, 4 & 5 only c)*all
the above.

87. Clearway may not exceed:

A) 150% ASDA B) 50% TODA
C)*50% TORA

88. Once the documentation has been signed prior

to flight:
a) No load alterations are allowed
b) Documented last minute changes to the load may
be incorporated
c)*Acceptable last minute changes to the load must
be documented.

89. When flying at the best angle of climb speed:

A) an aeroplane will be flying at a higher airspeed
than when flying at the best rate of climb speed
B)*a specific altitude can be reached in the shortest
distance
C) a propeller driven aeroplane will be flying at
minimum power speed
90. Vref is:
A) 1.43 x Vs B) *1.3 x Vs C) 1.15
x Vs

91. Which is the correct sequence of speeds during

take-off?
A) *VMCG, V1, VR, V2
B) V1, VMCG, VR, V2
C) V1, VR, V2, VMCA

92. In relation to runway strength, the ACN:

a) *May exceed the PCN by up to 10%
b) May not exceed 90% of the PCN
c) May never exceed the PCN

93. An aeroplane may be weighed:

a) In an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance
b) In a quiet parking area clear of the normal
maneuvering area
c) *In an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar

94. If 567 kgs of fuel at SG 0.812 are on board an

aircraft, the amount of fuel in US gallons is:
a) 161 USG b) 168 USG c) *184 USG

95. 5600 USG is equivalent to how many imperial

gallons?
a) 6338 imp b) 4366 imp c)* 4663 imp

96. An upward runway slope:

A) Decreases the take-off distance required
 B) Increases the accelerated-stop-distance
available
C*) Increases the take-off distance required

97. Which statement is correct?

A) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in
case of engine failure
B) *VR is the speed at which rotation should be
initiated
C) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure

98. For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for

maximum range is:
A) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration
B) That which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio
C) *That which gives the minimum value of drag
99. An aeroplane has the following masses: EST.
LWT= 50 000 kg Trip fuel= 4300 kg Contingency
fuel= 215 kg Alternate fuel (final reserve included) =
2100 kg Taxi= 500 kg Block fuel= 7115 kg before
departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9
000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight should
read:
a)*4300 kg b) 9000 kg c) 4700 kg

100. MTOW-55 TONS

MLW-52 TONS
MZFW-38 TONS
DOM-29 TONS
FUEL CONSUMPTION-1600KG/HR
DIST.-1500 NM
RESERVE FUEL-2.75TONS
TAS-260 KTS
FIND MAX PAYLOAD IN STILL AIR?
A)* 9 TONS B) 9.21 TONS C) 9.92 TONS