MANAGEMENT

2nd ROUND WORKSHEET FOR EXIT

EXAM ON THEMATIC AREA TWO
Courses
Human Resource Management, Organizational Behaviour and Leadership & Change
Management

STUDENT NAME:
STUDENT ID NO:
SECTION:
DEPARTMENT MANAGEMENT

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE STUDENTS

 ALL the questions are compulsory and MUST be answered
 Use only PEN for writing answers.
 Observe correct spelling.
 Double answers will not carry any marks.

LEVEL: UNDERGRADUATE
Date&
05 December 2022/Monday Time
Day

Type of Questions TOTAL ACTUAL REMARK

QUESTIONS MARK
I. MULTIPLE CHICE ONLY 500

TOTAL MARKS SECURED IN WORDS:

1. Which of the following consists of planning and decision-making?
(a) Organizing communication
(b) Directing traditional management
(c) Planning human resource management
(d) Controlling networking
2. ___ entails supervising, disciplining, evaluating, and managing the change of the
four managerial resources.
(a) Controlling
(b) Organizing
(c) Planning
(d) Directing
3. Fredrick Taylor stressed on ___
(a) Selecting the right people for the job
(b) Division of labour
(c) Unity of command
(d) Unity of direction
4. Organizations create ___ to standardize employee behavior
(a) Terms
(b) Informal practices
(c) Values
(d) Formal regulations
5. T-group is also referred to as ___.
(a) Team training
(b) Sensitivity training
(c) Survey feedback
(d) QWL
6. ___ creates both barriers and opportunities for workgroup interaction
(a) Performance evaluation
(b) Formal regulations
(c) Authority
(d) Physical work setting
7. Attributes that have a positive connotation in our culture tend to be positively
related to group productivity. They include
(a) Authoritarianism
(b) Dominance
(c) Sociability
(d) Unconventionality
8. Fayol suggested that organizations can be subdivided into ___ main areas of
activity?
(a) 12
(b) 14
 (c) 4
(d) 6

9. The extent to which a manager can use extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to control
other people is called:
(a) Influence
(b) Reward power
(c) Coercive power
(d) Legitimate power
10. Gardner developed the theory of ___.
(a) Learning
(b) Memory
(c) Multiple intelligence
(d) Dreams
11. ___is associated with a participative management background.
(a) Lewin
(b) Likert
(c) Eric
(d) Leavitt
12. The ability to control another‟s behavior because the individual wants to identify
with the power source is:
(a) Referent power
(b) Expert power
(c) Influence
(d) Reward power
13. An informal group that attempts to influence people outside the group by pooling
the resources and power of its members is known as
(a) A coalition
(b) An upward appeal
(c) An ingratiation group
(d) An impression management group
14. Who conducted the learning experiment on dogs- “To teach dogs to salivate in
response to the ringing of the bell?”
(a) Skinner
(b) Pavlov
(c) Bandore
(d) Sheldon
15. A neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning,
persuasion, and suggestions for alternatives is called a/an:
(a) Advisor
(b) Mediator
 (c) Negotiator
(d) Conciliator

16. When one party is willing to be self-sacrificing in order that the relationship can be
maintained, which conflict-handling intention will be used?
(a) Avoiding
(b) Compromising
(c) Problem solving
(d) Yielding
17. Eustress is considered as ___
(a) Good
(b) Bad
(c) Harmful
(d) Fatal
18. Change may bring some potential ___to the organizational power to some people.
(a) Barriers
(b) Opportunity
(c) Threat
(d) Benefit
19. The responses to the change depend upon the employee‟s ___ about the change.
(a) Attitude
(b) Experience
(c) Perception
(d) Motivation
20. Classical condition is a form of ___ learning process
(a) Manipulation
(b) Memory bored
(c) Dissociative
(d) Associative
21. The term used for the workers who entered the workforce from the early 1940s
through the early- 19060‟s
(a) Baby boomers
(b) Capitalists
(c) Veterans
(d) Labourers
22. According to ___ theory brain produces the emotion and corresponding
physiological behaviors at the same time
(a) James-Lange Theory
(b) Lazarus‟ appraisal Theory
 (c) Cannon-Bard Theory
(d) Schechter-singer Theory

23. ___ influence the behavior of a person in the early stages of life.
(a) Situation
(b) Family
(c) Environment
(d) Heredity
24. ___ propounded the cognitive dissonance theory.
(a) Blake
(b) Festinger
(c) Trompenaars
(d) Turner
25. Bodily involvement is the basis for the inclusion of basic emotions. Fear, grief, love,
rage. Who is associated with this finding?
(a) Gray
(b) Izard
(c) James
(d) Watson
26. Which is not one of the big five personality traits?
(a) Agreeableness
(b) Negative affectivity
(c) Introversion
(d) Openness to experience
27. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or
she belongs, we are using the shortcut called:
(a) Stereotyping
(b) Contrasting
(c) Categorizing
(d) Projecting
28. ___ is a cognitive process that enables us to interpret and understand our
surroundings.
(a) Cognition
(b) Perception
(c) Schema
(d) Semantic memory
29. Motivational concepts that focus on the perceived internal needs and outcomes of
individuals are referred to as:
(a) Process theories
 (b) Motivational theories
(c) Content theories
(d) Internal theories
30. Decision making occurs as a reaction to a
(a) Argument
(b) Problem
(c) Perception
(d) Expectation
31. Food, drink, sleep, oxygen, and an acceptable temperature are all examples of:
(a) Physiologic needs
(b) Safely needs
(c) Competence needs
(d) Social needs
32. Two mechanisms by which the perception process takes place include internal
processes and ___.
(a) External influences
(b) Central tendencies
(c) Skill assessment
(d) Process intensity
33. Who is credited with having developed the concept of a priority or hierarchy of
needs?
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) F.U. Herzberg
(c) A.H. Maslow
(d) T.P. Triumph
34. ___emphasizes “social ties or bonds‟ between individuals.
(a) Individualism
(b) Feminity
(c) Collectivism
(d) Masculinity
35. Top-level managers engage chiefly in ___ planning or long-range planning.
(a) Human resource planning
(b) Financial Planning
(c) Strategic Planning
(d) Succession Planning
36. Training starts with:
(a) Organization analysis
(b) Introduction
(c) Selection
(d) Planning
37. GLOBE project identified ___ cultural dimensions.
(a) Five
 (b) Nine
(c) Twelve
(d) Four
38. To be people smart ___ intelligence is required.
(a) High
(b) Spiritual
(c) Interpersonal
(d) Intrapersonal
39. The creative process model includes preparation, incubation, insight, and ___
(a) Verification
(b) Thinking
(c) Achievement
(d) Creativity
40. The ability is to apply specialized knowledge or expertise. All jobs require some
specialized expertise, and many people develop their technical skills on the job.
___programs can be used to develop this type of skill.
(a) Sensitivity Training
(b) Vocational and on-the-job training
(c) Mentoring
(d) Coaching
41. ___ focus on operations before they begin.
(A) Feedback Controls
(b) Feed Forward Controls
(c) Concurrent Controls
(d) Decisional Controls
42. What pattern of behavior in temporary groups consists of a first meeting, a phase
characterized by inertia, a transition resulting in major change, another phase of
inertia, and finally accelerated activity at an end meet?
(a) The punctuated-Balanced model
(b) The punctuated –Equilibrium model
(c) The inertia Effect
(d) The shortened-Balanced model
43. The keys to empowerment may be ___ to understand but they are ___ to implement
(a) Easy; easy
(b) Easy; hard
(c) Hard; easy
(d) Hard; hard
44. Which of the following is a political tactic?
(a) Creating an unfavourable image
(b) Associating with influential people
(c) Creating information
(d) None of the above
45. When one party perceives its interests are being opposed or set back by another
party, this is known as:
(a) Competition
(b) Conflict
(c) Dysfunctional conflict
(d) Equity
46. Which of the following situations tend to produce either functional or dysfunctional
conflict?
(a) Unclear policies, standards, or rules
(b) Inadequate communication
(c) Unclear job boundaries
(d) All of the above
47. ___and ___are two types of locus of control.
(a) Internal / external
(b) Social / political
(c) Mental / physical
(d) Emotional / social
48. ___ and ___ may help to overcome resistance to change.
(a) Power and politics
(b) Authority and threat
(c) Education and communication
(d) Social and political pressure
49. In this situation people generally get more committed towards the change. They are
directly involved in the change process.
(a) Education and communication
(b) Facilitation and support
(c) Participation and involvement
(d) Negotiation and agreement
50. How does a manager want to achieve his objectives?
(a) Efficiently (b) Effectively
(c) Efficiently and effectively (d) none of the above
51. A manager obtains the required capital
at 12% interest while the prevailing rate of interest happens to be 10%. How would
you describe such a manager?
(a) Efficient (b) Effective
(c) Efficient and Effective (d) Inefficient
52. What type of power management is?
(a) Visible (b) Invisible
(c) Separate (d) Collective
53. By evaluating results what does management try to find out and then takes
corrective action.
(a) Profit (b) Loss
(c) Deviations (d) None of these
54. In the context of business what does research refer to?
Finding out new products
Finding out new markets
Finding out new methods of distribution
All the above
55. What happens when the management of an organization gets weakened?
(a) Organization progresses (b) Production increases
(c) Profit increases (d) Organization faces heavy loss
56. Which one of the following sequence of process of management is correct:
Planning, Controlling, Organizing, Staffing
Staffing, Planning, Organizing, Controlling
Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Controlling
Organizing, Planning, Staffing, Controlling
57. Management is:
(a) An Activity (b) A process
(c) A Tradition (d) an Illusion
58. Management ensures:
Providing employment opportunities
Maintaining profit
Ensuring maximum utilization of resources
Control on cost
59. Management is important because:
It helps in achieving group goals
It helps in development of society
It increases efficiency
All of the above
60. Which of the following has formalized methods of acquiring training and
experience?
(a) Management (b) Law
(c) Medical (d) All of these
61. Which of the following have no representative professional organizations
available?
(a) Law (b) Management
(c) Medical (d) Accountancy
62. Which degree is essential to become a manager?
(a) [Link]. (b) [Link].
(c) M.B.A. (d) None of these
63. For which of following minimum qualification has not been prescribed?
(a) Manager (b) Doctor
(c) Lawyer (d) Chartered Accountant
64. What is the name of the management institute established in India?
(a) IIT (b) AIMA
(c) IIM (d) ICICI
65. “Art is bringing about of a desired result through application of skill”. Whose
statement is this?
(a) T.L. Massie (b) G.R. Terry
(c) Prof. Dalton E. McFarland (d) None of these
66. Whose specialty happens to be „personal skill‟?
(a) Profession (b) Art
(c) Science (d) None of these
67. Who said that management is a soft science?
(a) Ernest Dale (b) G.R. Terry
(c) Keynes (d) Fayol
68. The principles of Physics and Chemistry are stable. What is your opinion about
management?
(a) Stable (b) Unstable
(c) No principle is available (d) None of these
69. Management is a/an
(a) Art (b) Science
(c) Profession (d) All of the above
70. Name the country in which management is accepted as profession.
(a) America (b) Japan
(c) India (d) America and Japan
71. Management may be called which of the following science?
(a) Perfect Science (b) Physics
(c) Applied Science (d) Chemistry
72. Levels of management in an organization serve as a ________ line among the
different managerial posts.
(a) Strong (b) Dividing
(c) Weak (d) Straight

73. A ________ chain is formed from the top-level management to the lower-level
management.
(a) Vertical (b) Thick
(c) Scalar (d) Small
74. At what level of management does the Chief Executive Officer operate?
(a) Top-level (b) Middle-level
(c) Lower-level (d) None of these
75. To which level of management do the managers of first-line belong?
(a) Lower-level (b) Middle - level
(c) Top-level (d) None of these
76. What is that area called where the non-managerial members work?
(a) Shopping Area (b) Showroom Area
(c) Platform Area (d) Factory Area
77. „Thinking before doing‟, under which function of management is this performed?
(a) Controlling (b) Directing
(c) Organizing (d) Planning
78. Under what function of management does the determining of structure of roles
fall?
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Directing (d) Controlling
79. Under what function of management does the work of filling posts with people
fall?
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Staffing (d) Directing
80. Under what function of management does the „corrective action‟ fall?
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Directing (d) Controlling
81. What, out of the following, does not fall under directing?
(a) Planning (b) Supervision
(c) Leadership (d) Motivation
82. Number of levels of management is:
(a) One (b) two
(c) Three (d) four
 83. Coordination is needed where the efforts of ________ persons are required?
(a) One person (b) Two persons
(c) Three persons (d) Many persons
84. “Coordination is not a separate function of management but it happens to be the final
truth of all functions.” In what context this observation has been made?
(a) Coordination is the essence of management
(b) Coordination is not established automatically
(c) Coordination is a continuously moving process
(d) None of these
85. Which of the following is true?
(a) Coordination is not equally important at all levels of management
(b) Coordination has no importance
(c) Coordination is equally important at all levels of management
(d) None of these
86. Cooperation means ________ .
(a) Desire to work jointly (b) Determining Activities
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above
87. To what function of management is coordination associated with?
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Staffing, directing and controlling (d) All of these
88. What out of the following has been called the essence of management?
(a) Communication (b) Coordination
(c) Supervision (d) Leadership
89. What is the focus of attention when a manager is busy in planning activity?
(a) Coordination (b) Directing
(c) Controlling (d) Staffing
90. What information do we get about coordination through the medium of inter-
dependence of various processes?
(a) Meaning (b) Characteristics
(c) Need (d) None of these
91. The words cooperation and coordination are ________ .
(a) Opposite (b) Synonym
(c) Complementary (d) All the above
92. What contributes to the elimination of complexities of large-scale organizations?
(a) Planning (b) Directing
(c) Controlling (d) Coordination
93. On what basis the principles of management were derived?
(a) On the basis of observation (b) On the basis of experimental studies
(c) On the basis of both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
94. Where are the principles of management applicable?
 (a) In the field of business (b) In the non-business field
(c) In both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
95. What is the meaning of the universality of the principles of management?
(a) Applicable to all the fields (b) Applicable no where
(c) Applicable only to business (d) Applicable only to non-business field
96. Out of the following which one gives more strength to research work.
(a) Principles of management (b) Functions of management
(c) Levels of management (d) All the above
97. Which of the following, according to Foyal, happens to be the meaning of the
division of work?
a. Equitable division of the whole work among the persons available
b. Alloting a specific part of the whole work to every person
c. Both the above
d. None of the above
[Link] principle of management is violated if an employee gets orders from more than
one superior?
(a) Unity of command (b) Unity of direction
(c) Division of work (d) Scalar chain
99. „Three subordinates- S1, S2 and S3 receive orders from M1‟. In such a situation which
principle of management is being observed?
(a) Equity (b) Order
(c) Unity of command (d) Unity of direction
100. Which of the following principles aims at checking the ignoring of activities?
(a) Unity of command (b) Unity of direction
(c) Discipline (d) All the above
101. A purchase manager of a company has to purchase 500 tonnes of raw material. Apart
from the other suppliers in the market, his son also supplies that raw material. The
manager purchases the raw material from the firm of his son at a rate higher than the
market rate, which principle of management has been violated by this situation?
a. Unity of command
b. Unity of direction
c. Subordinating personal interest to general interest
d. Equity
102. Which of the following elements should be kept in mind while determining fair
remuneration?
(a) Cost of living (b) Demand of labourers
(c) Qualification (d) All of these
103. What type of Centralization Fayol talks about?
(a) Little Centralization (b) More Centralization
 (c) Effective Centralization (d) No Centralization
104. In what situation has Fayol permitted the violation of the Principle of Scalar Chain?
a. When the employee is extraordinarily capable
b. At the time of sudden happening
c. In all conditions and circumstances
d. In no condition or situation
105. The violation of which principle of management results in „disorderly flow of
information‟?
(a) Scalar Chain (b) Unity of Command
(c) Authority and Responsibility (d) Stability of employees

106. „A proper place for everything and everything in its right place‟, with which
order is this statement connected as explained in the principle of order?
(a) Material (b) Social
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above
107. What principle of management has been given by Henry Fayol?
a. Principle of Unity of command
b. Principle of optimum production
c. Principle of using science instead of rule of thumb
d. None of these
108. In which book Henry Fayol has mentioned the 14 principles of management:
a. General and industrial management (b) Principles based management
(c) General management (d) Industrial management
109. Which one is not the Henry Fayol‟s principle of management:
(a) Division of Work (b) Differential wages
(c) Scalar chain (d) Equity
110. According to which principle of management, all similar activities for the
fulfillment of one object must be kept under one authority.
(a) Equity (b) Centralization
(c) Unity of command (d) Unity of direction
111. How many Principles of Management has been given by Henry Fayol?
(a) 5 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 20
112. Who is the Father of Administrative Management?
(a) Taylor (b) Fayol
(c) Both (d) None of these
113. Which of the following system of management talks about cheap and efficient
way of doing a job?
(a) Administrative (b) Scientific
 (c) Both the above (d) None of the above
114. Which system of management talks of “complete mental change”?
(a) Administrative management (b) Scientific management
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

115. Which system of management gives due importance to „specialization‟?

(a) Scientific management (b) Administrative management
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
116. What study did Taylor make to set standard time for work?
(a) Time study (b) Fatigue study
(c) Motion study (d) Method study
117. What did Taylor want to standardize?
(a) Material (b) Machine and Tools
(c) Methods (d) All of these
118. In what two departments did Taylor divide the work of a factory manager?
a. Department of Planning and Production
b. Department of Planning and Finance
c. Department of Planning and Marketing
d. Department of Planning and Research
119. What type of revolutionary change is talked about by F.W. Taylor?
(a) Green Revolution (b) White Revolution
(c) Mental Revolution (d) None of these
120. Which management expert is talked about mental revolution?
(a) Fayol (b) Taylor
(c) Hamman (d) None of the above
121. What was the title of the research paper written by Taylor in 1903?
(a) Factory management (b) Shop management
(c) Office management (d) Production management
122. Which company did Taylor join in America in 1878 as a labourer?
a. Bethlehem Steel Works
b. American Steel Company
c. Midvale Steel Company
d. None of these
123. Under fatigue study:
a. Tiring work is given to employees
b. Employee‟s movements are increased
c. Record is maintained for time consumed on employee‟s work
d. Rest is given to employees during work
124. Which study is not done under scientific management:
(a) Motion (b) Profit
(c) Time (d) Fatigue
125. Scientific management brings:
(a) Social change (b) Economic change
(c) Mental change (d) Industrial change
126. In which year Taylor became an Engineer from a worker?
(a) 1878 (b) 1884
(c) 1901 (d) 1903
127. Business environment is a group of ________ powers.
(a) Special (b) General
(c) Internal (d) Special and General
128. Which of the following is not included in special powers of the business
environment.
(a) Technical Situations (b) Customers
(c) Suppliers (d) Investors
129. Which of the following has got the First Mover Advantage?
(a) Asian Paints (b) Goodlass Nerolac
(c) Kansai Paints (d) Maruti Udyog
130. Which of the following is available in time with the help of the study of
environment?
(a) Government Help (b) Foreign Aid
(c) Warning Signal (d) Material
131. The study of environment makes available ________ resources.
(a) Costly (b) Cheap
(c) Inferior (d) Useful
132. Which of the following is undergoing quick changes?
(a) Competition (b) Fashion
(c) Technique (d) All the above
133. ITC Hotels made a study of the business environment and planned to open
________ in India and abroad.
(a) Factories (b) Hotels
(c) Shops (d) Offices
134. With the help of the study of business environment an organization can improve its
________ .
(a) Present (b) Future
(c) Present and Future (d) Past
135. Which of the following is not a part of the internal environment?
(a) Customers (b) Objectives
 (c) Policies (d) Organization Structure
136. Which of the following is included in the Micro Environment (Operating
Environment)?
(a) Suppliers (b) Competitor
(c) Suppliers and Competitor (d) Economic Environment
137. Which of the following is included under the Macro Environment (or General
Environment)?
(a) Economic Environment (b) Political Environment
(c) Social and Legal Environment (d) All the above
138. A firm should make efforts that it has ________ type of customers?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Many
139. Which of the following is included in the Economic Environment?
(a) Economic System (b) Economic Policies
(c) Economic Conditions (d) All the above
140. Determination of the economic policies is for the purpose of regulating
________ .
(a) Political Environment (b) Social Environment
(c) Legal Regulatory Environment (d) Economic Activities
141. Under which environmental effect, IBM and Coca-Cola had to leave India?
(a) Political (b) Social
(c) Economic (d) Technical
142. Which of the following is a factor of the social environment of business?
(a) Customs (b) Level /Standard of Education
(c) Rate of Interest (d) All the above
143. Which component of business environment resulted in the relaxation of ban imposed
on the Foreign Direct Investment?
(a) Economic Environment (b) Political Environment
(c) Social Environment (d) Legal Regulatory Environment
144. With the introduction of Photostat Machines in the market, the carbon paper industry
was adversely affected. Which component of environment was responsible for it?
(a) Economic (b) Political
(c) Technical (d) All the above
145. Which of the following deals with the process of simplification of Import-
Export?
(a) Liberalisation (b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation and Privatisation (d) Globalisation
146. Reducing the role of Public Sector and increasing the role of Private Sector
falls under ________ .
(a) Liberalisation (b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation and Privatisation (d) Globalisation
(a) Liberalisation (b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation and Privatisation (d) Globalisation
149. Under Industrial Policy the role of ________ has been decided.
(a) Public Sector (b) Private Sector
(c) Public Sector and Private Sector (d) Government
150. Trade Policy brings under control the ________ .
(a) Import Trade (b) Export Trade
(c) Foreign Trade (d) Local Trade
151. The income and expenditure policy of the government is called ________ .
(a) Fiscal Policy (b) Industrial Policy
(c) Trade Policy (d) Monetary Reforms
147. In all the countries there is a free-flow of goods and services under which of
the following does it come?
[Link] ________ the Reserve Bank keeps control on the money supply in order to
achieve the objectives of the general economic policy.

(a) Fiscal Policy (b) Monetary Policy

(c) Trade Policy (d) Industrial Policy
152. Price control means that the companies will sell goods on the ________ price.
(a) Government (b) Market
(c) Printed (d) Voluntary
153. The entry of the multinational companies in large numbers in the Indian market has
created ________ .
(a) Huge Demand (b) Huge Supply
(c) Tough Competition (d) Huge Demand and Supply
154. With which of the following the Indian Companies have to compete?
(a) New and Old Indian Companies (b) Multinational Companies
(c) Imports (d) All the above.
155. As a result of the Economic Reforms the Seller Market has been replaced by
________ .
(a) Buyer Market (b) Foreign Market
(c) Whole-sale Market (d) Retail Market
156. These days companies cannot avoid investing in ________ .
(a) Research (b) Development
(c) Research and Development (d) Employees
157. Which factor is not included in Internal Environment?
(a) Objective (b) Policies
 (c) Public (d) Production-Method
158. ________ is included in Economic Environment.
(a) Economic System (b) Economic Policies
(c) Economic Conditions (d) All of the above
159. Which factor is not included in Micro Environment?
(a) Customer (b) Public
(c) Supplier (d) Production Capacity
160. Which factor is not included in Macro Environment?
(a) Economic Environment (b) Competitors
(c) Social Environment (d) Political Environment
161. Planning is ________ .
(a) Flexible (b) Stable
(c) Rigid (d) None of these
162. Planning is the ________ function of management.
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
163. ________ is the essence of Planning.
(a) Organizing (b) Controlling
(c) Forecasting (d) Directing

164. Planning results in decreasing ________ .

(a) Coordination (b) Proper use of resource
(c) Future uncertainties (d) Control
165. ________ gives a complete detail of doing a particular
activity.
(a) Procedure (b) Budget
(c) Program (d) Method
166. What out of the following is the example of objective?
(a) Raising sales up to ™5000 crore (b) Giving employment to 1000 people
(c) Raising income by 3% (d) All of these
167. “The basis of promotion of employees will be age.” With which policy is this
statement related?
(a) Personnel (b) Sale
(c) Pricing (d) None of these
168. Which out of the following policies will you recommend?
(a) Strict (b) Lenient
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
169. Punishment can be awarded for not following a particular element of planning. Name
the element.
(a) Procedure (b) Policy
(c) Rule (d) Program
170. “In case the debts are not paid within a month interest at a definite rate will be
levied.” To what element of planning does this saying point out?
(a) Policy (b) Rule
(c) Procedure (d) Budget
171. What do we call the quantitative details of expected results?
(a) Rule (b) Program
(c) Procedure (d) Budget
172. Which of the following is not the internal element of limitation of Planning?
(a) Capital (b) Raw material
(c) Increase in population (d) Machine
173. What resources are specially kept in view in planning?
(a) Limited (b) Unlimited
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
174. [Link] what managerial level planning is needed?
(a) Top level (b) Middle level
(c) Lower level (d) All the levels
175. [Link] can the planning process be ignored?
(a) In ordinary situation (b) In case of emergency
(c) Both the above (d) In no situation
176. [Link] of different departments is ________ .
(a) Independent (b) Individual
(c) Mutually dependent (d) None of these
177. „Smoking is prohibited in the factory‟ what element of planning does it exemplify?
(a) Policy (b) Rule
(c) Procedure (d) Method
178. Rules are ________ details.
(a) Special (b) General
(c) Uncommon (d) None of these
179. What out of the following is the focus of planning?
(a) Budget (b) Objectives
(c) Program (d) Rules
180. Which one of the following is not an element of planning:
(a) Rules (b) Program
(c) Object (d) Staffing
181. Which one is not the characteristic of rules:
(a) Rules are rigid (b) Violation of rules is punishable
(c) Following rule is voluntary (d) Rule is a sort of order
182. Which one of the following is not a step of planning:
(a) To forecast (b) Establishing objectives
(c) Valuation of objectives (d) Induction of employees on the job
 183. Planning is a process:
(a) Periodic (b) Continuous
(c) Casual (d) Annual
184. It is not the feature of
budget:
(a) Budget creates illusion (b) Budget is an element of planning
(c) Budget relates to planning and control (d) Budgets are object oriented
185. Planning is helpful in increasing ________ .
(a) Cost (b) Loss
(c) Efficiency (d) None of these
186. Under what function of management the relationship between different posts
(positions) is explained?
(a) Planning (b) Communication
(c) Organization (d) Supervision
187. Where lays the need of organization?
(a) In business organization (b) In non-business organization
(c) In both (a) and (b) (d) No where
188. Which organization structure is consciously or deliberately established?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
189. Which organization structure is based on rules and procedures?
(a) Informal (b) Formal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
190. Which structure of organization is helpful in locating the inefficient employees?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above
191. Which organization structure does not have duplication of work?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
192. Which of the following is not the disadvantage of formal organization?
(a) Lack of initiative (b) Delay in work
(c) Lack of favoritism (d) Mechanical relationship
193. In which organization structure do we find “group norms”?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
194. Which of the following is written in the organization manual?
(a) Goods purchased
(b) Goods sold
(c) Meeting of Organization
(d) Authority and responsibility of different posts
195. Which of the following organizations lasts longer?
(b)
(a) Formal Divisional
(c) Both the above (d) Informal
196. ________ is more stable
organization.
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
197. Which one is not correct in respect of formal organization:
(a) Definite responsibility (b) Definite authority
(c) Effective control (d) Social popularity
198. Which one of the following is not a part of process of organization:
(a) Grouping of activities
(b) Doing complete Centralization
(c) Defining inter-relationship
(d) Knowing the objectives of enterprise
199. Which is not a feature of formal organization:
(a) It is personal (b) It is more stable
(c) It is deliberately created (d) It is based on rules and procedures
200. How many standardized forms of organization structure are there?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) No definite number
201. Which of the following are parts of formal organization?
(a) Functional organization (b) Line organization
(c) Line and staff organization (d) All of these
202. Which organization resists changes?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
203. What do we call the division of organization structure on the basis of products?
(a) Functional organization (b) Divisional organization
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
204. If a company deals in metal products and plastic products, what type of organization
will be useful for it?
(a) Informal (b) Functional
 (c) Both the above (d) Divisional
205. Which organization structure is compulsory?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
206. Departments are established on the basis of ________ in functional
organization.
(a) Activities (b) Products
(c) Demand (d) Market
207. In which situation the divisional structure happens to be appropriate?
(a) Where the number of major products is more than one
(b) Where the size of the organization is quite large
(c) Both the above
(d) Where primarily only one product is sold
208. Number of sub-ordinates under a superior is called:
(a) Office environment (b) Strict control
(c) Span of management (d) Scalar chain
209. In which type of organization, the principle of scalar chain is fully followed:
(a) Divisional organization (b) Formal organization
(c) Informal organization (d) None of the above
210. What is the key to managerial post?
(a) Responsibility (b) Authority
(c) Accountability (d) None
211. How is accountability created?
(a) By assigning responsibility (b) By assigning authority
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
212. What is the basis of delegation of authority?
(a) Centralization (b) Decentralization
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Division of labor
213. “Every step that increases the importance of the subordinates is called
Decentralization and any step that decreases it is called Centralization”. What is it
about?
(a) Formal organization (b) Informal organization
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
214. What is Decentralization?
(a) Short form of delegation
(b) Extended form of delegation
(c) Middle form of delegation
(d) None of these
215. Which of the following increases the importance of the subordinates?
(a) Centralization (b) Decentralization
 (c) Delegation (d) Specialization
216. Which of the following has a wider scope?
(a) Management (b) Centralization
(c) Decentralization (d) Delegation
217. „More delegation of authority helps managerial development‟ out of the
following with which this statement is related to?
(a) Delegation (b) Decentralization
(c) Centralization (d) All the above
218. On which of the following does Decentralization depend?
(a) Centralization (b) Specialization
(c) Scientific Management (d) Delegation
219. Which one is not correct in respect of delegation of authority:
(a) Increase in administrative work
(b) Development of sub-ordinates
(c) Convenience in business expansion
(d) Quick and better decision possible
220. Extended form of delegation of authority is called:
(a) Specialization (b) Centralization
(c) Decentralization (d) Division of labor
221. (I) Delegation of authority is inevitable and Decentralization is voluntary.
(II) Scope of delegation of authority is limited and the scope of Decentralization is broad.
Above both statement are:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Statement (I) is True and Statement (II) is False
(d) Statement (I) is False and Statement (II) is True

222. Our assets walk out of the door each evening. We have to make sure that they come
back the next morning. Here the assets refer to ________ .
(a) Vehicles (b) Goods
(c) Employees (d) Machines
223. Staffing is the ________ stage of management process.
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
224. While selecting manpower, ________ is kept in mind.
(a) Education (b) Experience
(c) Honesty (d) All the above
225. ________ is helpful in finding out a competent
employee.
(a) Planning (b) Staffing
 (c) Both the above (d) Organization
226. Introducing employees to the organization is called ________ .
(a) Recruitment (b) Selection
(c) Orientation (d) Placement
227. At what level of management staffing is needed?
(a) Top level (b) Middle level
(c) Lower level (d) At all levels
228. With what responsibility is staffing related to?
(a) Social (b) Political
(c) Government (d) Individual
229. What is the relationship between human resource development and staffing?
(a) Human resource management is bigger than staffing
(b) Staffing is bigger than human resource management
(c) Both are equal
(d) There is no relationship between the two
230. Which of the following is included in the human resource management?
(a) Recruitment (b) Specialized services
(c) Handling grievances (d) All the above
231. When does the Personnel Manager act as the Line Manager?
(a) When he performs the function of staffing as a function of management
(b) When he completes the job of staffing as part of functional area of management
(c) In both the above situations
(d) He never acts as the Line Manager
232. Which of the following is the element of staffing?
(a) Recruitment (b) Selection
(c) Training (d) All the above
233. What is not included in the staffing?
(a) Selection (b) Training
(c) Directing (d) Promotion
234. Recruitment is a ________ process.
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
235. Recruitment process starts with ________ .
(a) Strike (b) Lock out
(c) Demand of employees (d) Invitation to interested people
236. ________ is the internal source of recruitment.
(a) Transfer (b) Promotion
(c) Lay off (d) All the above
 237. Sending an inefficient employee to a lower position is called ________ .
(a) Transfer (b) Promotion
(c) Demotion (d) Lay off
238. What stage does the requisition of employees occupy in the process of recruitment?

(a) First (b) Second

(c) Third (d) Fourth
239. What do we call keeping the employee temporarily away from the person appointing
him?
(a) Demotion (b) Promotion
(c) Transfer (d) Lay off
240. Which source of recruitment is not available to the new organizations?
(a) Internal (b) External
(c) Both the above (d) Direct Recruitment
241. From which source of recruitment do we get Badli or casual employee?
(a) Direct Recruitment (b) Casual Callers
(c) Media Advertisement (d) Employment Exchange
242. To which source of recruitment the direct recruitment from educational institutions is
related?
(a) Employment Exchange (b) Campus Recruitment
(c) Management Consultants (d) Direct Recruitment
243. Which is not included in Internal Source of Recruitment?
(a) Transfer (b) Trade Union
(c) Promotion (d) Lay-off
244. ________ is included in Internal Source of Recruitment.
(a) Promotion (b) Transfer
(c) Both (d) None of these
245. ________ is included in External Source of Recruitment.
(a) Advertisement (b) Employment Exchange
(c) Both (d) None of these
246. ________ is that process of examining the applicants which ensures that only the
most appropriate persons have been appointed.
(a) Recruitment (b) Selection
(c) Training (d) Management
247. The purpose of ________ interview is to find out whether the applicant is physically
and mentally fit for the position.
(a) Preliminary (b) Employment
(c) Both the above (d) Collective (or Group)
248. Filling up of blank application form during the selection process contains information
about ________ .
(a) Qualifications (b) Personal information
 (c) Minimum Salary acceptable (d) All the above
249. ________ is included in the psychological test.
(a) Interest Test
(b) Intelligence Test
(c) Both the Above
(d) General Knowledge Test
250. Contract of employment contains ________ information.
(a) Job Title (b) Responsibilities
(c) Allowances (d) All the above
251. What type of the process selection is?
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
252. What is the first step in the process of selection?
(a) Selection Tests (b) Job Offer
(c) Preliminary Screening (d) Selection Decision
253. Which of the following aims at examining the interest of the candidate?
(a) Intelligence Test (b) Interest Test
(c) Aptitude Test (d) All the above
254. What does the Reference and Background test aims at knowing about the candidate?
(a) Character (b) Social Relations
(c) Both the above (d) Economic Condition
255. After crossing the bar of physical test which letter is given to the selected person?
(a) Letter of Regret (b) Appointment Letter
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above

256. What is included in Psychological Test?

(a) Interest Test (b) Intelligence Test
(c) Aptitude Test (d) All of the above
257. Under training the employees are trained in ________ field/fields.
(a) A particular (b) Two
(c) Three (d) All
258. The meaning of development is to make the employees efficient in ________
field/fields.
(a) A particular (b) Two
(c) Three (d) All
259. The word development is linked or associated with ________ .
(a) Managers
(b) Workers
(c) Supervisors
 (d) Workers and Supervisors
260. The word Training is associated with ________ .
(a) Managers (b) Workers
(c) Supervisors (d) Workers and Supervisors
261. When a person undergoes a course in engineering, is ________ .
(a) Training (b) Education
(c) Development (d) All the Above
262. Which of the following training is given to the top level managers?
(a) Labor Relations
(b) Financial Management
(c) Production Management
(d) All the Above
263. Under which training method factory like conditions are created?
(a) Induction Training (b) Apprenticeship Training
(c) Vestibule Training (d) Internship Training
264. Under which training method, both the technical institutes and the business
organizations jointly impart training to their members?
(a) Induction Training (b) Apprenticeship Training
(c) Vestibule Training (d) Internship Training
265. (I) Training is job-oriented and development is career oriented.
a. Scope of training is broad and that of development is limited.
Above both statements are:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Statement (I) is True and Statement (II) is False.
(e) Statement (I) is False and Statement (II) is True.
266. Directing is the ________ stage of management process.
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
267. ________ is included under
directing.
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Supervision (d) Staffing
268. Directing is necessary at the
________ level of management.
(a) Top (b) Lower
(c) Middle (d) All
269. Which of the following principle is necessary for
management?
 (a) Unity of Command (b) Harmony of Objectives
(c) Follow Through (d) All the above
270. Which of the following is the element of directing?
(a) Communication
(b) Motivation
(c) Communication and Motivation
(d) Organization
271. ________ is not included in Directing.
(a) Planning (b) Leadership
(c) Communication (d) Motivation
272. In supervision there is a ________ relationship between the supervisor and the
subordinates.
(a) Distant (b) Close
(c) Face to Face (d) Almost nothing (Nil)
273. A supervision performs role of ________ .
(a) As a Key Man (b) As a Middle Man
(c) As a Human Relation Specialist (d) All the above
274. What out of the following does supervision ensure?
(a) Ensures issuing instructions (b) Facilitates Control
(c) Both the above (d) Industrial Conflicts
275. Who of the following ensures that the work is progressing at the desired speed or not?
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Communication (d) Supervision
276. The purpose of motivation is that process which creates ________ among the people
to achieve desired objectives.
(a) Competition (b) Excitement
(c) Conflict (d) Cooperation
277. The characteristic of motivation happens to be ________ .
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Positive and Negative (d) Quantitative
278. Abraham Maslow propounded the Need Hierarchy Theory in the year
________.
(a) 1843 (b) 1943
(c) 1893 (d) 1963
279. Physiological needs include ________
.
(a) Food (b) House
(c) Clothes (d) All the above
280. According to Maslow a person satisfies his ________ needs one after the other in a
definite order.
 (a) Seven (b) Five
(c) Three (d) Six
281. ________ is an example of monetary motivation.
(a) Bonus (b) Status
(c) Job (d) Job Security
282. Job security means the ________ of
Job.
(a) Insecurity (Instability) (b) Stability
(c) Demotion (d) Promotion

283. Which of the following creates ability to work?

(a) Education (b) Training
(c) Education and Training (d) Motivation
284. 19. Which of the following is the example of negative motivation?
(a) Demotion (b) Suspension
(c) Termination (d) All the above
285. What is the name of the need which makes an individual to take his ability to the
highest level?
(a) Esteem Need (b) Self Actualization Need
(c) Security Need (d) All the above
286. What type of financial motivation helps the employees in satisfying one of the
following needs?
(a) Physiological (b) Security
(c) Physiological and Security (d) Esteem
287. Which of the following needs of the employees are satisfied by the non-financial
motivation?
(a) Social (b) Esteem
(c) Self-Actualization (d) All the above.
288. The objective of leadership is to make use of ________ per cent of the ability of an
individual.
(a) 40 (b) 50
(c) 80 (d) 100
289. 2 289. A person who has the ability to influence others is called
. ________ .
(a) Leader (b) Manager
(c) Chief Manager (d) Supervisor
290. Manager + Leadership ability = ________ .
(a) Loss (b) Success
(c) Failure (d) Nothing (Zero)
 291. ________ is necessary for the existence of a leader.
(a) Manager (b) Employee
(c) Follower (d) Worker
292. Which of the following is the characteristic of leadership?
(a) Influencing Process (b) Physical Features
(c) Knowledge (d) Integrity

293. Which of the following leadership styles has the specialty of centralized
authority?
(a) Autocratic leadership style (b) Democratic leadership style
(c) Free-rein leadership style (d) none of the above
294. From which of the following leadership styles yields the advantage of high level
motivation?
(a) Autocratic leadership style (b) Democratic leadership style
(c) Free-rein leadership style (d) none of the above
295. In order to complete the process of communication, there should at least be
________persons.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
296. During the process of communication there is an exchange of
________ .
(a) Ideas (b) Orders
(c) Feelings (d) All the above
297. In the process of communication, feedback aims at knowing
________ .
(a) Message has been properly received (b) Message has been understood
(c) Both the above (d) Message has been followed
298. ________ is an example of the medium of communication.
(a) Letter (b) Telephone
(c) E-Mail (d) All the Above
299. Loss of letter during the process of communication is the example of
________.
(a) Decoding (b) Message
(c) Encoding (d) Noise
300. ________ Communication is also called Grapevine Communication.
(a) Written (b) Informal
(c) Formal (d) Oral
301. „Wrong interpretation of message‟ - what type of communication barrier is
it?
(a) Semantic (b) Emotional
(c) Organizational (d) Personal
302. „Lack of attention‟ - What type of Communication barrier is it?
(a) Semantic (b) Emotional
(c) Organizational (d) Personal
303. The presence of more managerial levels - what type of communication barrier is
it?
(a) Semantic (b) Emotional
(c) Organizational (d) Personal
304. Which of the following is the personal communication barrier?
(a) Fear of challenge to authority (b) Organizational Policies
(c) Un clarified Assumptions (d) Premature Evaluation
305. Which of the following communication spreads rumors?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Written (d) All the Above
306. Which of the following communication spreads quickly?
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Written (d) All the above

307. The process of converting the message into communication symbols is known
as:
(a) Feedback (b) Decoding
(c) Media (d) Encoding
308. Controlling is needed at ________ levels.
(a) Top level (b) Middle level
(c) Lower level (d) All
309. Controlling is related to ________ .
(a) Results (b) Individuals
(c) Things (d) Managers
310. First step in the controlling process is ________.
(a) Taking corrective action (b) Analyzing the deviations
(c) Determining standards (d) Measurement of actual progress
311. Cost at ™100 per unit is an example of ________ standard.
(a) Quantitative (b) Qualitative
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above
312. Chief basis of standards is ________ .
(a) Quantity (b) Quality
(c) Time (d) All the above
313. ________Standard is associated with production.
(a) Quality (b) Quantity
(c) Quality and Quantity (d) Labor
314. Strike is ________ cause of deviation.
 (a) Human (b) Uncertain conditions
(c) Various hindrances (d) Defective standards
315. Hindrance in the supply of electricity is ________ cause of deviation.
(a) Human (b) Uncertain conditions
(c) Various hindrances (d) Defective standards
316. Which function of management is controlling?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Last
317. „Planning in the absence of controlling is meaningless‟. What does this
statement indicate in respects of both?
(a) Only planning is essential (b) Only controlling is essential
(c) Both are essential (d) Both are unnecessary
318. „Controlling in the absence of planning is blind‟ what does this statement
indicate in respect of both?
(a) Only planning is essential
(b) Only controlling is essential
(c) Both are essential
(d) Both are unnecessary
319. When does the measuring of actual performance become meaningful?
a. When the standards have been set
b. When the standards have not been set
c. When standards are more than the need
d. When standards are less than the need
320. Which of the following is associated with the marketing standard?
(a) Sale expenses (b) Capital expenses
(c) Quantity (d) Dispute Rate
321. Which of the following is related to the finance and accounting standard?
(a) Sale expenses (b) Capital expenditure
(c) Quantity (d) Dispute late
322. Which of the following is associated with the Personnel Management?
(a) Individual production (b) Target of sales persons
(c) Absenteeism Rate (d) Flow of capital
323. Which of the following qualities the standards should have?
(a) Achievable (b) Measurable
(c) Flexible (d) All the above
324. Which of the following types a deviation can be?
(a) Negative (b) Positive
(c) None (Nil) (d) All the above
325. Which deviation is the most important?
(a) Negative (b) Positive
(c) None (Nil) (d) All the above
326. ________ is not included in the controlling process.
(a) Measurement of actual performance.
(b) Comparison of actual performance with standards.
(c) Doing work of financial management.
(d) Analyzing deviations.
327. What type of nature the control has?
(a) Positive Approach (b) Negative Approach
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
328. An efficient control system helps to:
(a) Achieve objectives (b) boost Employee‟s Morale
(c) Efficient use of Resources (d) All of the above
329. That part of management which is connected with the financial activities is
called ________ management.
(a) Personnel (b) Financial
(c) Production (d) All the above
330. Fixed assets investment decision is called ________ .
a. Management of working capital
b. Capital budgeting
c. Financing decision
d. None of these
331. Shareholder‟s current wealth in a company = ________ × ________ .
(a) Face value of shares × Market price per share
(b) Number of shares × Face value of shares
(c) Number of shares × Market price per share
(d) Number of shares × Profit per share
332. Financial planning means ________ of financial activities.
(a) Determining (b) Pre-determining
(c) Later -determining (d) Not determining
333. Under financial management a forecast of receipts and payments is made and the
shortage or sufficiency of ________ is ensured.
(a) Capital (b) Human resource
(c) Material (d) All the above
334. With the help of the financial planning a situation of continuous ________ can
be maintained.
(a) Minimum Capital (b) Liquidity
(c) Maximum Capital (d) (b) and (c)
335. With the help of financial planning capital can be made available at
________cost.
 (a) More (b) Medium
(c) Minimum (d) Zero
336. Without ________ no business planning can be successfully
implemented.
(a) Dividend decision (b) Investment decision
(c) Both of above (d) Financial planning
337. _______ is the example of a financial decision.
(a) Investment decision (b) Financing decision
(c) Dividend decision (d) All of these
338. What is included in financial management according to the traditional
approach?
(a) Arranging finance (b) Using finance effectively
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
339. What is influenced by the financing decision?
(a) Market price of shares (b) Cost of capital
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
340. Which branch of management does take care of the efficient planning and
controlling of the financial activities of an organization?
(a) Production management
(b) Financial management
(c) Marketing management
(d) Personnel management
341. What is the chief financial question before an organization?
a. How much finance will be required for various business activities?
b. How much amount can be acquired from various resources?
c. How the profit of the business will be divided?
d. All of these

342. A person buys 100 shares @ ™100 per share of XYZ company. After some time
the market price of shares becomes ™120 per share. How much wealth shall he
have in the company.
(a) ™12,000 (b) ™ 8,000
(c) ™ 10,000 (d) ™ 10,120
343. What is included in financial planning?
a. Determining financial objectives
b. Determining financial policies
c. Determining financial procedures
d. All of these
344. What out of the following, financial planning helps to achieve?
(a) Arrangement of material (b) Financial control
 (c) Arrangement of machinery (d) All of above
345. Which out of the following happens to be a financial decision?
(a) Investment decision (b) Financing decision
(c) Dividend decision (d) All of these
346. The meaning of capital structure relates to the percentage of
________ sources.
(a) Long-term (b) Medium term
(c) Short-term (d) Current
347. Capital Structure is called ________ .
(a) Quantitative aspect (b) Qualitative aspect
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
348. ________ is not included in owner‟s capital?
(a) Equity share capital (b) Long-term debt
(c) Preference share capital (d) Retained profit
349. ________capital should be preferred while arranging for a long-term
finance?
(a) Preference share capital (b) Equity share capital
(c) Debt or borrowed capital (d) Retained earning
350. Keeping in view the high rate of Income Tax the company should give priority to
________ capital.
(a) Debt (b) Equity
(c) Preference (d) Owner
351. The importance of „Trading on Equity‟ lies in the fact that if the company is
earning more profit, it can make use of borrowed capital and preference share
capital and by doing so it can increase the income of ________
(a) Preference Shareholders (b) Lenders
(c) Equity Shareholders (d) Government
352. What does affect the value of company?
(a) Capital cost (b) Market price of shares
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
353. What out of the following is the effect of optimum capital structure?
(a) Capital cost-minimum (b) Total value of company-maximum
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Market price of shares minimum
354. What capital out of the following should be used in case of better cash flow
position?
(a) Debt Capital (b) Equity Share Capital
(c) Both of the above (d) None of these
355. What capital out of the following should be used in case of low rate of interest
on debt?
(a) Equity Share Capital (b) Preference Share Capital
(c) Debt Capital (d) None of these
 356. A company is attracted to what capital out of the following with reference to
floatation costs?
(a) Equity Share Capital (b) Preference Share Capital
(c) Debt Capital (d) None of these
357. What capital out of the following is better with reference to control?
(a) Equity Share Capital (b) Preference Share Capital
(c) Debt Capital (d) None of these
358. Fixed capital means that capital which is used in purchasing ________
assets.
(a) Current assets (b) Fixed assets
(c) Material (d) All the above
359. Use of machines makes the use of fixed capital ________ .
(a) More (b) Nil
(c) Less (d) Very little
360. When the fixed assets are available on rent the need for fixed capital
is ________.
(a) More (b) Excessive
(c) Nil (d) Less
361. The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called
________.
(a) Net working capital (b) Gross working capital
(c) Fixed capital (d) Working capital
362. ________ will be the amount of net working capital if the value of current assets
is ™ 50,000 and the current liabilities is ™35,000?
(b) ™
(a) ™ 50,000 35,000
(d) ™
(c) ™15,000 85,000
363. Enough working capital is an index of the ________ of business.
(a) Strength (b) Weakness
(c) Liquidity (d) Loss
364. The objective of working capital is to determine the ________ amount of current
assets and current liabilities.
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum
(c) Optimum (d) Equal
365. Those organizations which make cash sales need ________ working capital.
(a) Less (b) Nil
(c) More (d) Very much
366. In case of price-rise ________ working capital is required in order to maintain
the previous level of production.
(a) Less (b) More
(c) Nil (d) Very little
 367. In what type of organizations is the investment in fixed assets essential?
(a) Trading (b) Manufacturing
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
368. What is the decision to invest in fixed assets called?
(a) Management of working capital
(b) Capital budgeting
(c) Financing decision
(d) None of these
369. Which investment decisions are difficult to be changed?
(a) Fixed capital decision (b) Working capital decision
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
370. Which of the following is not included in current assets?
(a) Cash (b) Stock
(c) Debtor (d) Long-term investment
371. Why is working capital important?
a. To buy land
b. To buy building
c. To make payment for routine expenses
d. To buy machine
372. What is the meaning of the management of working capital?
a. To maintain the continuity of sufficient amount of working capital.
b. To make cash available in large amount.
c. To keep the working capital at the minimum level.
d. To keep the working capital at the maximum level.
373. What out of the following happens because of the optimum amount of working
capital?
(a) Profitability increases (b) No decrease in liquidity
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Decrease in liquidity

374. There is more need of working capital in businesses where the demand to be
seasonal. What out of the following is the cause?
(a) Capital remains stuck up for a long time in the raw material
(b) Capital remains stuck up for a long time in the manufactured goods
(c) Both the above
(d) More machines are needed

375. Financial market ________ financial assets.

 (a) Creates (b) Exchange
(c) Creates and Exchange (d) None of the above
376. ________ is a part of money market.
(a) Commercial Bill (b) Equity share
(c) Preference share (d) Debentures
377. Money market deals in ________ securities.
(a) Short-term (b) Long-term
(c) Short-term and long-term (d) Mid-term
378. The term of the Treasury Bill cannot be more than ________ year.
(a) One (b) Two
(d) Ten
(c) Five
379. Call money or call loans are ________ .
(a) Fixed (b) Liquid
(c) Costly (d) Cheap
380. It is necessary for an investor to obtain Certificate of Deposits for ™ ________
lakh.
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 25 (d) 50
381. ________ is a part of capital market.
(a) Call Money (b) Primary Market
(c) Secondary Market (d) Primary and Secondary Market

382. Primary market is associated with ________ issues.

(a) Old (b) New
(c) Old and New (d) Very Old
383. Secondary market deals with the ________ of existing securities.
(a) Purchase (b) Sale
(c) Purchase-sale (d) Stock
384. Which is the major part of financial system?
(a) Financial market
(b) Financial institutions
(c) Financial securities
(d) All of above
385. Which of the following is included in the financial assets?
(a) Shares (b) Debentures
(c) Treasury bill (d) All the above
386. Which of the following is the supply side of finance?
(a) Financial Institutions
(b) Insurance Companies
(c) Financial Institutions and Insurance Companies
(d) Industry
387. Which of the following performs the functions of giving imputes to saving and
transfers them to more productive uses?
(a) Wholesale Market (b) Retail Market
(c) Financial Market (d) Financial Institutions
388. Which of the following falls in the Category of Zero Coupon Bond?
(a)Treasury Bill (b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit (d) Commercial Bill
389. Which of the following is the method of collecting capital?
(a) Public Issue (b) Offer for Sale
(c) Private Placement (d) All the above
390. Sensex is dependent on ________ companies.
(a) 30 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 500

391. The Index of NSE is called ________ .

(a) INDEX (b) NIFTY
(c) SENSEX (d) LISTING
392. Educating the investor is the ________ function of SEBI.
(a) Protective (b) Regulatory
(c) Both the above (d) Developmental
393. Which of the following takes advantage of the internal trading?
a. All shareholders
b. All Debenture holders
c. People having secret information of the company
d. All the employees
394. According to the traditional point of view ________ is called market.
(a) Actual Buyer (b) Possible Buyer
(c) The group of actual and possible buyers (d) Special Place
395. ________ is called marketer.
(a) Satisfaction Seeker (b) Satisfaction Provider
(c) Seller (d) Service Provider
396. Customer is the ________ of the market.
(a) King (b) Servant
(c) Sympathiser (d) Seller
397. With the onset of the thought of producing a thing the process of ________
starts.
(a) Buying (b) Selling
(c) Marketing (d) Producing
398. ________ starts after the production of things.
(a) Buying (b) Selling
(c) Marketing (d) Advertising

399. _______ point of view lays stress upon customer‟s

welfare.
(a) Production (b) Product
(c) Marketing (d) Social Marketing
400. ________ is the central point in the marketing point of
view.
(a) Customer‟s satisfaction (b) Customer‟s welfare
(c) Quality of the Product (d) Quantity of Product
401. „Products are not purchased but sold‟, with which point of view is this statement
associated?
(a) Product (b) Sale
(c) Production (d) Marketing
402. The collection of utilities is known as ________ .
(a) Purchaser (b) Seller
(c) Product (d) Market
403. Which of the following is the function of marketing?
(a) Promotion (b) Physical Distribution
(c) Transport (d) All the above
404. Under which of the following importance is given to consumer‟s satisfaction?
(a) Marketing (b) Selling
(c) Production (d) Selling and Production
405. Under which philosophy of marketing, efforts are made to bring down the cost of
production to the minimum?
(a) Production concept (b) Product concept
(c) Marketing concept (d) Selling concept
406. Under which concept the companies push for the betterment of the quality of
their products in their efforts for marketing?
(a) Production concept (b) Product concept
(c) Marketing concept (d) Selling concept
407. Customer‟s satisfaction alone can ensure success. Which marketing concept
holds this view?
 (a) Production concept (b) Product concept
(c) Marketing concept (d) Selling concept
408. Which of the following is a factor of marketing mix?
(a) Product (b) Price
(c) Promotion (d) All the above
409. Which of the following is the example of Dunlop?
(a) Branding (b) Brand
(c) Brand Name (d) Brand Mark

410. Which of the following is the example of Shaving Cream?

(a) Primary Packaging (b) Secondary Packaging
(c) Transport Packaging (d) None of the above
411. ________ is compulsory for advertisement.
(a) Expenditure (b) Effort
(c) Both the above (d) Television
412.________ is an advantage of advertisement.
(a) Better Reach (b) Less Effective
(c) Rigidity (d) Lack of Feedback
413. ________ is objection to advertisement.
(a) Undermines social values
(b) Decrease in price
(c) Knowledge on various products
(d) Improvement in Quality of Product
414. ________ removes doubts immediately.
(b) Personal
(a) Advertisement Selling
(c) Sales Promotion (d) Publicity
415. ________ develop relationship.
(a) Publicity (b) Advertisement
(d) Personal
(c) Sales Promotion Selling
416. ________ makes flexibility available.
(a) Publicity (b) Advertisement
(d) Personal
(c) Sales Promotion Selling
417. Which of the following plays an important role in introducing a new product to
the consumers?
(a) Publicity (b) Personal Selling
(c) Sale Promotion (d) Advertisement
 418. Which of the following can offer expert opinion to the consumers?
(a) Publicity (b) Advertisement
(c) Sale Promotion (d) Personal Selling
419. Sales promotion is helpful in making ________ effective.
(a) Advertisement (b) Personal selling
(c) Both the above (d) Publicity
420. Which of the following is a sales promotion activity?
(a) Rebate (b) Discount
(c) Product Combination (d) All the above
421. „Providing finance at 0%‟ which of the following adopts this method.
(a) Advertisement (b) Personal Selling
(c) Sales Promotion (d) Publicity
422. To provide protection to the consumers against the improper behavior of the
producers and sellers is called ________ .
a. Consumers Protection Act
b. Consumer Protection
c. Consumer Welfare
d. Consumer Education
423. Under the amended Consumer Protection Act, 1993 the time limit for filing a
complaint has been limited to a period of ________ year.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
424. When a single consumer fails to get his rights protected, he seeks the help of
________ .
(a) Trade Union (b) Consumer Association
(c) Labor Union (d) None of the above
425. Don‟t purchase in haste‟, this is an important ________ of the consumer.
(a) Responsibility (b) Right
(c) Act (d) All the above

426. The consumer organizations collect the samples of the products for ________ .
(a) Sell them
(b) Check them
(c) Get bribe from the sellers
(d) Distribute them among the poor
427. Consumer organizations are making efforts to ________ their number.
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
 (c) Stabilize (d) None of the above

428. Disputes of ________ amount are settled at the level of District Forum?
(a) Up to rupees ten lakh
(b) Up to rupees thirty lakh
(c) Up to rupees fifty lakh
(d) Up to rupees twenty lakh
429. ________ is not a part of the three tier judicial machinery?
a. Tehsil Forum
b. District Forum
c. State Commission
d. National Commission

430. ________ broadcasts the programme „Apne Adhikar‟ with reference to consumer
protection?
(a) All India Radio (b) Doordarshan
(c) Advertising Agency (d) All of these
431. ________ is an example of the unfair trade practice?
a. Hoarding
b. Issuing a gift scheme
c. Not observing prescribed standards
d. All of these
432. Which of the following Acts is related to the Consumer‟s protection?
a. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
b. Indian Companies Act, 1956
c. Indian Partnership Act
d. Indian Contract Act
433. A producer of Surajmukhi claimed in an advertisement in a national newspaper
that his product has large amount of vitamins, Minerals and Proteins. However,
tests indicated that it was a false claim. Whose example is this?
(a) Exploitation of consumer
(b) Welfare of consumer
(c) Information for consumer
(d) None of these
434. Which of the following happens to be a feature of the Consumer Protection Act?
a. Coverage of items
b. Coverage of sectors
 c. Compensatory nature of provisions
d. All of these
435. Which of the following is not a part of the three-tier grievance redressal
machinery?
a. International Commission
b. National Commission
c. State Commission
d. District Forum
436. Who, of the following, cannot be considered a consumer?
a. A person who buys things to further sell them consideration.
b. A person who gets things without consideration.
c. A person who uses things without the permission of the purchasers.
d. All the above
437. Which of the following is not the example of unfair trade practice?
a. Wrong information about goods/services.
b. Compelling consumers to buy gas stove while getting gas connection.
c. Not observing prescribed standards.
d. Indulging in hoarding
438. Supplying wrong bills by the Electricity and Telephone Departments
exemplifies which of the following?
(a) Deficiency of services (b) Defective things
(c) Charging more price (d) Unfair trade practice
439. Which of the following is a basis for a complaint?
(a) Defective things (b) Deficiency in service
(c) Charging more price (d) All of these
440. Who of the following cannot file a complaint?
(a) Individual consumer
(b) Consumer association that has not been recognized
(c) Central government
(d) State government
441. Which of the following is a consumer organization?
(a) Common Cause, New Delhi (b) Voice, New Delhi
(c) Consumer Forum, Udipi (d) All of these

442. Human resource evolved around mid – 90s from the

 a. Concept of human relations
b. Concept of personnel management
c. Concept of organizational behaviour
d. Neither of these.

443. HRM is concerned with ……………………. In organization, with the focus on

company‟s policies, strategies, procedures and system in order to attain the
business objectives in an effective and efficient manner.

a. Managing the people

b. Managing the machinery
c. Managing finance
d. Managing everything

444. „HRM is the process of acquiring, training, appraising and compensating

employees and of attending to their labour relations, health and safety and
fairness concerns‟. Mention the speaker:
a. David A. Decenzo and S.P. Robbins
b. Gary Dessler
c. Edwin B. Flippo
d. [Link]

445. Which one is not a nature of HRM?

a. Multidisciplinary approach
b. Continuous function
c. Backward- looking approach
d. Developmental approach.

446. Which of the following is not a scope of HRM

a) Compensation, remuneration and other benefits
b) Training and development
c) Personnel records
d) Job analysis

447. The nature of HRM includes

a) Coordinating force
b) Attention for individual growth
c) forward- looking approach
d) All of the above.

448. The scope of HRM includes

a) Training and development

b) Performance appraisal
c) Job evaluation
d) all of the above.
449. To ensure a safe and healthy working environment that will add positively to the
efficiency level of the employees.
a) is an importance of HRM
b) is an objective of HRM
c) Is a scope of HRM
d) Both of the above.
450. Maintenance is an example of

a) Operative function
b) Managerial function
c) Recruitment function
d) Motivation function.

451. The HR managers advises the top level management and also the heads of the
departments and divisions, is an example of

a) Operative function
b) Advisory function
c) Managerial function

d) All of the above.

452. Given points (i) planning (ii) Organising (iii) development (iv) controlling, the
points indicating managerial functions of HRM are:

a) (i) , (ii) and (iii)

b) (ii) ,(iii) and (iv)
c) (i) ,(ii) and (iv)
d) (i) , (iii) and (iv).

453. Job procurement stands for

a) Recruitment and selection

b) Compensation and benefits
c) Welfare and safety
d) None of the above.

454. ______________ does not come under the preview of HRM.

a) Human resource planning
b) Job analysis
c) Job evaluation
d) Culture of employee.

455. HRM is

a) a key to organizational success

b) Not dynamic
c) Non utilization of human capital
d) Not integrated with organizational objectives.

456. HRM is concerned with the ------------------- in the organisation.

a. company

b. people

c. industry

d. society

457. HRM can be understood as a process of

a. Processing

b. Developing

c. Maintaining People

d. All the above

458. HRM is an art of

a. Preparation of a task

b. Coordinating middle management

c. Helping top management

d. Managing people

459. Why are employers interested in employee engagement?

a. To encourage employees to trust their manager.

b. To make a quick profit

c. To make employees work harder for less

d. Because engaged employees are more motivated and prepared to

give their best to make the firm succeed.

460. HR policy makes employees

a. Train for future positions

b. Better person /worker

c. A knowledgeable person
 d. All the above

461. Healthy HRM practices can help the organization

a. To reduce the disputes/ conflicts

b. To increase the promotional opportunities

c. To realize the employees

d. To maintain cardinal relationship

462. ------------------practices teach individuals team work and adjustment.

a. Personnel management

b. Effective Human Resource

c. Employee welfare

d. Healthy, safety and welfare

463. _____________ can be promoted for the top level job.

a. Potential employees

b. Legal employees

c. Skilled employees

d. Trained employees

464. When industrial development increased by HR, it also stimulates

a. Organizational modifications

b. Economy

c. Technology

d. Socio cultural change

465. HR also focuses on

a. Physical and emotional capital

b. The confident of employees

c. Communication styles of the workers

d. Attitude of the worker

466. Working condition activities refers with

a. Policy and procedure of a firm

b. Health, safety, welfare services

c. Culture of the organization

467. ___________ is the art and science.

a. Labour legislation

b. Human Resource Management

c. Allotment of right job to right one

d. All of the above

468. The scope of the HRM start from the

a. Manpower needs

b. Organizational needs

c. Social needs

d. Industry welfare
469. ____________ influence the financial wealth of the organization.

7) Technological conditions

8) Social conditions

9) Political conditions

10) Economical conditions

470. _________ of Human Resource in the country influence

the HRM function of any organization.

a. Structure

b. Values

c. Education

d. All the above

471. ____ is the major strategy of our country's HR focused to face the foreign
organization.

a. Challenge the competition

b. Focus on product

c. Recruitment of employees from other country

d. None of the above

472. Human Resource Management is the process of

a. Recruitment and selection

b. Analysing the skills

c. Workforce utilization

d. None of the Above

473. Management in HRM refers to

a. Labour unions

b. Proper and maximum utilization of resources

c. Top management

d. Operations management

474. The core purpose of HRM is

a. Select the right person for the task

b. Satisfaction of employees

c. Safety of employees

d. Make efficient purpose of existing HR

475. What is meant by the term 'management by objectives'?

a. a. A system of giving the authority to carry out certain jobs by

those lower down the management hierarchy

b. The system of management that is based on bringing together experts into a team

c. The setting of objectives by superior with the subordinates to bring about the
achievement of the organizational goals.
d. The control of the organization by those in the 'head office'.

476. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR

department?

a. Employee relation

b. Training and Development

c. Accounting
d. Recruitment and Selection

477. The role of HR director is

a. solving the disputes

b. Extension of plan

c. Administration

d. Training and development

478. The perspective for the need of HR is

a. Select the legal employee

b. Promote the skill employee

c. Distinguishing the features of employees

d. To right person for the right job

479. HRM is

a. Inter - related

b. Inter dependent

c. Interacting

d. All the above

480. The skill and talents of HR

a. Need an opportunity

b. Obtained by the management

c. Exemplified

d. Represented
481. __________ practices will help to overcome the HR promotions.

a. Employment

b. Economic

c. Innovative

d. Cultural changes

482. _____ is the big problem for every organization.

a. Recruiting and selecting

b. Attracting and retaining

c. Performance appraisal

d. Promotion and transfer

483. The name of the facilitator in the HR department.

a. People's champion

b. Supervisor

c. Chief executive

d. Leader

484. HRM policy is

a. Place of action

b. A decision making

c. Is a mission

d. All the above

485. HRM policies lies in

a. An organization value

b. Philosophy

c. Concepts and principles

d. All the above

486. Human resource policies are

a. Mitigate the company's risk of liability

b. Increase the benefit

c. Reduce the labour turnover

d. None of the above

487. HRD will develop the

a. Executive development

b. Strategic development

c. Planning and decision making

d. Organizational and personal skills

488. HRD deals with functions such as

a. Career development

b. Mentoring

c. Coaching

d. All the above

489. Stephen Knauf defined HRA as “the measurement & of
Human organizational inputs such as recruitment, training
experience & commitment.

a. Qualification

b. Accounting

c. Development

d. None of the above

490. A key HR role in the firm will be multidisciplinary consulting around.

a. Individual

b. Team

c. Business unit

d. All of the above

491. The alignment of the HRM function with organizational goals is referred to as:

a. an HR balanced scorecard

b. Strategic human resources management (Strategic HRM)

c. concreteness or congruence

d. Human Resources program evaluation

492. To add value to HRM, the use of an HRIS is focused primarily

on increasing which of the following kind of tasks or activities?

a. transactional

b. benchmarking

c. transformational

d. re-engineering

493. HR shared service includes

a. Recruitment function

b. Customer Care Service

c. Payroll Function

d. All of the above

494. HR Accounting is a systematic method of

a. Identifying cost involved in HR

b. Value of HR

c. Worth of HR
d. All of the above
495. The alignment of the HRM function with organizational goals is referred to as:

a. An HR balanced scorecard

b. Strategic human resources management (Strategic HRM)

c. Concreteness or congruence

d. Human Resources program evaluation

496. Why are employers interested in employee engagement?

 a. To encourage employees to trust their manager.

b. To make a quick profit

c. To make employees work harder for less

d. Because engaged employees are more motivated and prepared to give

their best to make the firm succeed.
497. Employee training requires to meet

a. Job requirement

b. Job enhancement

c. Job Analysis

d. Job Enrichment
498. _____________ can be promoted for the top level job.

a. Potential employees

b. Legal employees

c. Skilled employees

d. Trained employees
499. What is Harmonious relationship at workplace?

a. Friendly in nature

b. Pleasing and consistent

c. Cordial and available

d. All the above

500. Sending employees for higher studies.

a. Process of appraisal

b. Process of selection

c. Motivation

d. Learning and development

Thank You!