10-11-2024

1701CMD303029240086 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A, the maximum particle velocity is four times its
wave velocity. The wavelength of the wave is -

(1)

(2)

(3) πA
(4) 2πA

2) The plane wave is described by the equation y = 3 cos , where x and y are in meters
and t in seconds. The maximum velocity of the particles of the medium due to this wave is -

(1) 30 m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 3/4 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

3) Equation of progressive wave is given by y = a sin π(40 t – x) where a and x are in meter and t in
second. The velocity of the wave in (m/s) is -

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 10
(4) 80

4) A plane wave is represented by x = 1.2 sin (314t + 12.56 y). Where x and y are distance measured
along in x and y direction in meters and t is time in seconds. This wave has -

(1) A wavelength of 0.25 m and travels in +ve x direction

(2) A wavelength of 0.25 m and travels in +ve y direction
(3) A wavelength of 0.5 m and travels in –ve y direction
(4) A wavelength of 0.5 m and travels in –ve x direction

5) Two waves represented as y1 = a sin , y2 = a cos ωt the resultant amplitude is -

(1) a
(2)
(3)
(4) 2a

6) Two springs, of force constants k1 and k2, are connected to a mass m as shown. The frequency of
oscillation of mass is f If both k1 and k2 are made four times their original values, the frequency of

oscillation becomes:

(1) f/2
(2) f/4
(3) 4f
(4) 2f

7) A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T. At time = 0, it is at its
position of equilibrium. The kinetic energy-time graph of the particle will look like :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A wave enters to water from air. In air frequency, wavelength, intensity and velocity are n1, λ1, I1
and v1 respectively. In water the corresponding quntities are n2, λ2, I2 and v2 respectively; then :

(1) I1 = I2
(2) n1 = n2
(3) v1 = v2
(4) λ1 = λ2

9) The function sin2 (ωt) represents

(1) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2π/ω
(2) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω
(3) a simple harmonic motion with a period 2π/ω
(4) a simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω

10) The total energy of the body executing S.H.M. is E. Then the kinetic energy when the
displacement is half of the amplitude, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A spring has a certain mass suspended from it and its period for vertical oscillation is T. The
spring is now cut into two equal halves and the same mass is suspended from one of the halves. The
period of vertical oscillation is now

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 2 T

12) A pendulum suspended from the celling of a train has a period T, when the train is accelerating
with a uniform acceleration a, the period of oscillation will

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remain unaffected
(4) Become infinite

13) A body of mass M and moving with velocity u makes a head - on elastic collision with another
stationary body of m. If A = m/M, then the ratio (f) of the loss of energy of M to its initial energy will
be -

(1) f = A (A + 1)2

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A body of mass 5kg explodes at rest into three fragments with masses in the ration 1 : 1 : 3. The
fragments with equal masses fly in mutually perpendicular directions with speeds of 21 m/s. The
velocity of the heavies fragment will be :
(1) 11.5 m/s
(2) 14.0 m/s
(3) 7.0 m/s
(4) 9.89 m/s

15) A uniform solid cone of height 20 cm is shown in figure. The distance of centre of mass of the

cone from point O is :

(1) 10 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 20/3 cm
(4) 3/2 cm

16) A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating without motion on still water. A man of mass 100 kg is
at one end and if he runs to the other end of the boat and stops, the displacement of the boat is :

(1) 1.5 m in the direction of displacement of the man

(2) 0.75 m in the direction of displacement of the man
(3) 1.5 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of the man
(4) 0.75 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of the man

17) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/s collides head on with a body of mass 1 kg
moving with a velocity of 4 m/s in opposite direction. After collision the two bodies stick together
and move with a common velocity :-

(1) (1/4) m/s

(2) (1/3) m/s
(3) (2/3) m/s
(4) (3/4) m/s

18) In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the
clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the
particle is :-
(1) 5.7 m/s
(2) 6.2 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) 5.0 m/s

19) A fly wheel rotating at 1200 rev/min is brought under uniform deceleration and stopped after 4
minutes, then what is angular deceleration in rad/sec2?

(1)

(2) 10 π

(3)

(4) 300

20) A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of diameter x. A body slides down the track
from point A which is at a height h = 4 cm. Maximum value of x to complete the loop successfully is:-

(1)

(2) 2 cm

(3)

(4)

21) Assertion : The centre of mass of a two particle system lies on the line joining the two particles,
being closer to the heavier particle.
Reason : Product of mass of one particle and its distance from centre of mass is numerically equal to
product of mass of other particle and its distance from centre of mass.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.
22) A ball falls from rest from a height h onto a floor, and rebounds to a height h/4. The coefficient of
restitution between the ball and the floor is :

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3)
(4) 3/4

23) A body of mass 1kg is tied to one end of a spring and whirled around in horizontal plane with a
constant angular velocity of . The elongation in the spring is 5 cm. The original length of
the spring is :- [Spring constant K = 1000 N/m]

(1) 16 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 14 cm
(4) 13 cm

24) When a ceiling fan is switched off its angular velocity reduces to 50% while it makes 36
rotations. How many more rotation will it make before coming to rest (Assume uniform angular
retardation)

(1) 18
(2) 12
(3) 36
(4) 48

25) Which one of the following statement is true?

(1) Momentum is conserved in elastic collisions but not in inelastic collision

(2) Total KE is conserved in elastic collisions but momentum is not
(3) Total KE is not conserved but momentum is conserved in inelastic collision
(4) KE and momentum both are conserved in all types of collisions

26) A resistor of 500 Ω and an inductor of 0.5 H are in series with an AC voltage source which is
given by sin (1000 t). The power factor of the combination is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 0.5
(4) 0.6

27) The current and voltage function in an AC circuit are:

I = 100 sin100t mA

V = 100 sin volt

the power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) 10 W
(2) 2.5 W
(3) 5 W
(4) 5 kW

28) When a DC voltage of 200 V is applied to a coil of self inductance H, a current of 1 A flows
through it. But by replacing DC source with AC source of 200 V, the current in the coil is reduced to
0.5 A. Then, the frequency of AC supply is :

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 75 Hz
(3) 60 Hz
(4) 50 Hz

29)

In series LCR circuit resonance occurs at frequency f = f0 , If at this moment amplitude of current is
I0 then calculate wattless current at the same moment -

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

30) If A and B are identical bulbs which bulb glows brighter :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both equally bright
(4) Can not say

31) In given circuit find the reading of ammeter and voltmeter.

(1) 2.5 A, 2.5 V
(2) 25 A, 2.5 V
(3) 2.5 A, 25 V
(4) 2.5 A, 30 V

32) The r.m.s value of sinusoidal potential difference V shown in figure is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The voltage time (V-t) graph for triangular wave having peak value V0 is as shown in fig.

The rms value of V in time interval from t = 0 to T/4 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

34) A choke coil sould have :

(1) High inductance and high resistance

(2) low inductance and low resistance
(3) high inductance and low resistance
(4) low inductance and high resistance

35) In a series LCR circuit, the frequencies f1 and f2 at which the current falls to of the current
amplitude at resonance are separated by frequency interval :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) RC

SECTION-B

1) A wave travelling in positive X-direction with A = 0.2 m, velocity = 360 m/s and wavelength l = 60
m, then correct expression for the wave is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A particle performs simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. Its speed is trebled at the instant

that it is at distance from equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the motion is:

(1) 3A
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first s, after starting from
rest it travels a distance a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then :

(1) amplitude of motion is 3a

(2) time period of oscillations is 8
(3) amplitude of motion is 4a
(4) time period of oscillations is 6

4) A piece of cork is floating on water in a small tank. The cork oscillates up and down vertically
when small ripples pass over the surface of water. The velocity of the ripples being 0.21 ms–1, wave
length 15 mm and amplitude 5 mm, the maximum velocity of the piece of cork is
(1) 0.44 ms–1
(2) 0.24 ms–1
(3) 2.4 ms–1
(4) 4.4 ms–1

5) An earthquake generates both transvere (S) and longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth . The
speed of S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that of P waves is about 8.0 km/s. A seismograph records P
and S waves from an earthquake. The first P was arrives 4.0 min before the first S wave. The
epicenter of the earthquake is located at a distance about

(1) 25 km
(2) 250 km
(3) 2500 km
(4) 5000 km

6) A block, moving with constant velocity on a frictionless horizontal surface, collides with another
stationary block of equal mass. If the coefficient of restitution is e, what is the ration of speed of the
first block to the speed of second block after head on collision will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the
velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows, that :-
(A) its velocity is constant
(B) its K.E. is constant
(C) its acceleration is constant
(D) it moves in circular path

(1) Only B is correct

(2) B and D are correct
(3) A , B and D are correct
(4) All are correct

8) A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string of length L. It is imparted a horizontal velocity v0 at

the lowest point. A such that it completes a semicircular trajectory in the vertical plane with the
string becoming slack only on reaching the topmost point, C. Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ratio of Velocity at A and B (p)

(B) Ratio of tension at A and B (q)

(C) Ratio of Velocity at A and C (r)

(D) Ratio of kinitic energy at B and C is (s)

(1) A - p, B - q, C - s, D - r
(2) A - q, B - r, C - p, D - s
(3) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p
(4) A - s, B - p, C - r, D - q

9) A hole of radius R/2 has been cut out from left of the centre of a uniform disc of radius R and is
placed on right of the centre of disc as shown in figure. The centre of mass of resulting system is at a

distance R/n from centre of uniform disc. find the value of n.

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) None
10) A thin rod of length L and mass M is bend at the middle point O as shown in figure. Consider an
axis passing through two middle point O and perpendicular to the plane of the bent rod. Then

moment of inertia about this axis is :

(1) 2/3 mL2

(2) 1/3 mL2
(3) 1/12 mL2
(4) 1/24 mL2

11) A series AC circuit containing an inductor (20 mH), a capacitor (120 μF) and a resistor (60Ω) is
driven by an AC source of 24V/50Hz. The energy dissipated in the circuit in 60 s is :

(1) 2.26 × 103 J

(2) 3.39 × 103 J
(3) 5.65 × 102 J
(4) 5.17 × 102 J

12) Match the entries given in both the columns, For a series RLC AC circuit -

Column-I Column-II

(1) Circuit will be inductor dominant

(P) ωsource > ωresonant
(2) Circuit will be capacitor-dominant

Neither inductor, nor capacitor will be

(3)
(Q) ωsource < ωresonant dominant in circuit

(4) Current will lead voltage

(5) Current will lag voltage

(R) ωsource = ωresonant
(6) Current will be in phase with voltage
(1) P-2,5 ; Q-1,6 ; R-3,4
(2) P-1,5 ; Q-2,4 ; R-3,6
(3) P-2,6 ; Q-1,4 ; R-3,5
(4) P-1,5 ; Q-3,6 ; R-2,4

13) A box P and a coil Q are connected in series with an ac source of variable frequency. The emf of
source is 10 V. Box P contains a capacitance of 1μF in series with a resistance of 32Ω while coil Q
has a self-inductance 4.9 mH and resistance 68Ω . The frequency is adjusted so that the maximum
current flows in P and Q. The impedance of P and Q at this frequency will be :-

(1) 77 Ω, 97.6 Ω
(2) 32 Ω, 68 Ω
(3) 100 Ω, 77 Ω
(4) 77 Ω, 68 Ω

14) An alternating current circuit is shown in figure. In each branch the values of resistances and
corresponding reactance are shown. Match the elements of List I with List II and select the correct

option.

List-I List-II

(I) i1 (P) 10 SI Unit

(II) i2 (Q) 20 SI Unit

(III) i3 (R) 3200 SI Unit

(IV) Total power of circuit (S) 1000 SI unit

(T) 600 SI unit

(1) I → Q;II → P;III → P;IV → R
(2) I → P;II → Q;III → R;IV → S
(3) I → T;II → R;III → P;IV → S
(4) I → T;II → T;III → R;IV → S

15) An series LCR circuit is resonating with a source whose emf varies with time as described in
diagram-1. If we replace source by another source whose emf varies with time according to
diagram-2, then :

(1) for getting resonance again, decrease R

(2) current will remain in phase with source voltage
(3) for getting resonance again, decrease C
(4) current will lead source voltage after replacing the source
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1)

LIST-II
LIST-I
(Reaction sequence involved)
(Name of the test)
M is metal)

A Borax bead test I MCO3 → MO [Link]

B Charcoal cavity test II MCO3 → MCl2 → M+2

C Cobalt nitrate test III MSO4 M(BO2)2 → MBO2 →

M

D Flame test IV
MSO4 MCO3 → MO → M
(1) A-Ill, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-Ill. B-IV. C-I, D-II
(3) A-Ill, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

2) During the detection of acidic radical present in a salt, a student gets a pale yellow precipitate
soluble with difficulty in NH4OH solution when sodium carbonate extract was first acidified with dil.
HNO3 and then AgNO3 solution was added. This Indicates presence of :

(1) I–
2–
(2) CO3
(3) Cl–
(4) Br–

3) Match List I with List II

List-I
List-II
(Preclpitating reagent
(Cation)
and conditions)

A NH4Cl + NH4OH I Mn2+

B NH4OH + Na2CO3 II Pb2+

C NH4OH + NH4Cl + H2S gas III Al3+

D dilute HCl IV Sr2+

(1) A-Ill, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-Ill, B-IV, C-II, D-l
(3) A-IV. B-III, C-II, D-l
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-l, D-II

4) In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl– ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of
the solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10% H2O2 turns organic layer blue Indicating formation
of chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of chromium In that Is

(1) +6
(2) +5
(3) +3
(4) +10

5) Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an organic
compound with FeSO4 In presence of concentrated H2SO4 indicates the presence of element/s

(1) Br
(2) S
(3) N and S
(4) N

6) In the precipitation of the iron group (Ill) In qualitative analysis, ammonium chloride is added
before adding ammonium hydroxide to:

(1) decrease concentration of –OH Ions

(2) increase concentration of Cl– Ions
(3) prevent interference by phosphate Ions
+
(4) increase concentration of NH4 ions Explanation

7)

List-II
List-I
Reagent used /
Element detected
roduct formed

A Nitrogen I Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]

B Sulphur II AgNO3

C Phosphorous III Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

D Halogen IV (NH4)2MoO4
(1) A-llI, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV. D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A·II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

8)
 List-I Elements List II colour imparted to the flame

(A) K (I) Brick Red

(B) Ca (II) Violet

(C) Sr (III) Apple Green

(D) Ba (IV) Crimson Red

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

9) Match the list I with List II

List-I Cations List-II Group reagents

(A) Pb2+, Cu2+ (i) H2S gas in presence of dilute HCl

(B) Al3+, Fe3+ (ii) (NH4)2CO3 in presence of NH4OH

(C) Co2+, Ni2+ (iii) NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl

(D) Ba2+, Ca2+ (iv) H2S in presence of NH4OH

(1) A → i, B →iii, C→iv, D→ii
(2) A → i, B →iii, C→ii, D→iv
(3) A → iii, B →i, C→iv, D→ii
(4) A → iv, B →ii, C→iii, D→i

10) The formula of the puple colour formed in test of sulphide using sodium nitroprusside is

(1) NaFe[Fe(CN)6]
(2) Na[Cr(NH3)2(NCS)4]
(3) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]
(4) Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]

11) In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which one of
the following cations may be present?

(1) Cu2+
(2) Sr2+
(3) Ba2+
(4) Ca2+

12) During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+, addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline
solution of the salt gives a bright red precipltate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+) present
respectively are:
(1) Dimethylglyoxime and Ni2+
(2) Dimethylglyoxlme and Co2+
(3) Nessler's reagent and Hg2+
(4) Nessler's reagent and Ni2+

13) What is ozonolysis product of ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both 1 & 2

14) Which of the following carboxylic acids undergoes decarboxylation most easily on heating?

(1) CH3CH2COOH

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Major product :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) One mole of gas occupying 3 litre volume is expanded against a constant external pressure of
one atm to a volume of 15 litre. The work done by the system is :-

(1) –1.215 × 103 J

(2) +12.15 × 103 J
(3) +121.5 × 103 J
(4) +1.215 × 103 J

17) In a certain chemical reaction ΔH = 150 KJ and ΔS = 10 J/K at 300 K. The value of ΔG would be

(1) –2850 J
(2) Zero
(3) +2850 J
(4) 147 KJ

18) 71g of Cl2 is allowed to expand freely into vaccum calculate value of q, w, ΔH ?

(1) w = 0, q > 0, ΔH = 0
(2) q = 0, ΔH = 0, w = 0
(3) q = 0, ΔH > 0, w = 0
(4) q > 0, w = 0, ΔH > 0

19) Which of the following does show the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following does show the standard formation of the product at 25°C and 1 atm ?

(1) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)

(2) 2H2O( ) + O2(g) → 2H2O2( )

(3)

(4) 2SO2 (g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)

21) Consider the reaction at 300 K

H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g) ΔH° = –185 kJ
If 2 mole of H2 completely react with 2 mole of Cl2 to form HCl. What is ΔU° for this reaction ?

(1) 0
(2) –185 kJ
(3) 370 kJ
(4) –370 kJ

22) Assertion : For a reaction

2NH3 (g) → N2 (g) + 3H2 (g): ΔH > ΔE
Reason : Enthalpy change is always greater than internal energy change.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
23) The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas
from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 27°C is :

(1) 38.3 J mol–1 K–1

(2) 35.8 J mol–1 K–1
(3) 32.3 J mol–1 K–1
(4) 42.3 J mol–1 K–1

24) NH4 Cl (s) → NH3 (g) + HCl (g) when the above reaction occurs, the entropy

(1) remains same

(2) decrease
(3) increases
(4) none of the above

25) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) At equilibrium, (ΔG)system is equal to zero

(2) At any temperature, the entropy of pure crysralline substance approaches zero
(3) For a spontaneous process, (ΔS)total is greater than zero
(4) The molar property of any extensive property is always intensive.

26) Given,
NH3(g) + 3Cl2(g) NCl3(g) + 3HCl(g); ΔH1
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g); ΔH2
H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g); ΔH3
The heat of formation of NCl3(g) in terms of ΔH1, ΔH2 and ΔH3 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

27) The enthalpy of combustion of C6H6 is –3250 kJ when 0.39g of C6H6 is burnt in excess of oxgyen
in an open vessel, the amount of heat envolved is :

(1) 8.32 kJ
(2) 12.36 kJ
(3) 16.25 kJ
(4) 20.74 kJ

28) Consider the reaction at 300 K

C6H6(l) + O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(l);

ΔH = –3271 kJ
What is ΔU for the combustion of 1.5 mole of benzene at 27°C ?

(1) –3267.25 kJ
(2) –4900.88 kJ
(3) –4906.5 kJ
(4) –3274.75 kJ

29) Which of the following is not correct match.

(1) Oxallic acid – to remove rusting spots of iron

–
(2) [Ag(CN)2] = for electroplating of Ag
(3) Wilkinson catalyst – for polymerisation of Alkene
(4) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 – to remove pb poison

30) Which of the following complex can show ionisation, linkage, geometrical and optical, isomers?

(1) [Co(NO2)2(en)2]Br
(2) [Cr(NH3)4(CN)2]Cl
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br
(4) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]NO2

31) In which case recemic mixture is obtained on mixing its mirror images (d and ℓ) form in 1 : 1
molar ratio?

(1) trans - [Co(gly)3]

(2) [Ni(DMG)2]
(3) cis-[Cu(gly)2]
(4) [Zn(en)(gly)]+

32) Select complex in which co-ordination isomerism is not possible:

(1) [Co(en)3][Co(C2O4)3]
(2) [Pt(NH3)4][Pt(CN)4]
(3) [Pt(en)2][Pt(Cl4)]
(4) [Fe(NH3)6][Fe(NH2)6]

33) Among the following, the species that is both paramagnetic and coloured is.

2–
(1) [MnO4]
2–
(2) [TiCl6]
3–
(3) [VO4]
(4) CrO2Cl2

34) Which of the following electronic arrangement is/are possible for inner orbital complex?
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Select the correct code:

(1) I, IV
(2) II, III
(3) III only
(4) III, IV

35) For octahedral complex, The pairing of d electrons of metal ions is irrespective to nature of
ligands:

(1) d3 and d8
(2) d4 and d8
(3) d6 and d5
(4) d2 and d7

SECTION-B

1) Acidic ferric chloride solution on treatment with excess of potassium ferrocyanide given a
prussian blue coloured colloidal species it is

(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(2) K5Fe[Fe(CN)6]2
(3) HFe[Fe(CN)6]
(4) KFe[Fe(CN)6]

2) When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium iodide solution then the sol produced is

(1) Agl/I–
(2) Agl / Ag+
–
(3) Kl / NO3
–
(4) AgNO3 / NO3

3) Colour of CoO.Al2O3

(1) Green
(2) Blue
(3) Red
(4) white

4) Which is highest soluble

(1) CdS
(2) CuS
(3) PbS
(4) NiS

5) Cation + K4 [Fe(CN)6] → chocolate ppt Cation is.

(1) Fe+3
(2) Ca+2
(3) Cu+2
(4) Zn+2

6) Choose the compound which can react with [Ag(NH3)2]+ and on heating with alkaline KMnO4 gives
(CH3)2CH–CH2–COOH :

(1) CH3CH2CH2CC–CH3
(2) (CH3)2CHCH2CCH
(3) (CH3)3C–CCH
(4) (CH3)3C–CC–CH3

7) Alkyl halide Grignard Reagent Propane alkyl halide may be :-

(1) Ethyl iodide

(2) n-propyl chloride
(3) Isopropyl chloride
(4) 2 and 3 both

8) The enthalpy and entropy change for reaction

Br2 + Cl2 —→ 2BrCl
are 30 KJ mol–1 and 105 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in
equilibrium is :-

(1) 285.7 K
(2) 273 K
(3) 450 K
(4) 300 K

9) What is the enthalpy change for the given reaction, if enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and Fe2O3
are –1670 kJ mol–1 and –834 kJ mol–1 respectively ?
Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe

(1) –836 kJ mol–1

(2) +836 kJ mol–1
(3) –424 kJ mol–1
(4) +424 kJ mol–1

10) What will be DH for the reaction,

CH2Cl2 → C + 2H + 2Cl ?
(B.E. of C–H and C–Cl bonds are 416 kJ mol–1 and 325 kJ mol–1 respectively)

(1) 832 kJ
(2) 1482 kJ
(3) 650 kJ
(4) 1855 kJ

11) For a reaction to be spontaneous at any temperature, the condtions are

(1) ΔH = +ve, ΔS = +ve

(2) ΔH = –ve, ΔS = –ve
(3) ΔH = +ve, ΔS = –ve
(4) ΔH = –ve, ΔS = +ve

12) For a reaction at 300 K temperature, ΔH = 9.08 kJ mol–1 and ΔS = 35.7 JK–1 mol–1. Which of the
following statements is correct for the reaction :

(1) Reversible and Isothermal

(2) Reversible and Exothermic
(3) Spontaneous and Endothermic
(4) Spontaneous and Exothermic

13) In which of the following complex ion, the metal ion will have configuration according to
CFT?

3–
(1) [FeF6]
3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]
4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
+2
(4) [Fe(NH3)6]

14) Which of the following complex has more than one enantiomeric pair's?

(1) [M(en)2Cl2]
(2) [M(NH3)4Cl2]
(3) [Ma2b2c2]
(4) [M(Gly)3]

15) Which of the following compounds after mixing can not produce blue colouration?

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] and FeCl3 solution

(2) NH4OH and CuSO4
(3) Adding anhydrous CuSO4 to water
(4) Excess KCN + CuSO4 solution
 BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent the different types of roots. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct location and function.

Root Location Function

(1) (A) Napiform Turnip Respiration

(2) (B) Conical root Carrot Storage

(3) (B) Tuberous root Radish Respiration

(4) (C) Pneumato-phores Rhizophora Storage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Statement-I- Stem develops from the plumule of the embryo of a germinating seed.
Statement-II- Stem is generally woody and dark brown when young and later often become green.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

3) Statement-I- Stems may also get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns like in potato
and ginger.
Statement-II- Thorns protect plants from browsing animals.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

4) Name the petals A, B and C in vexillary aestivation shown in the below figure.
(1) A-Standards, B-Wing, C-Perianth
(2) A-Standard, B-Keel, C-Wing
(3) A-Wing, B-Keel, C-Wing
(4) A-Standard, B-wing, C-Keel

5) In Asparagus the branch become green and flat like a leaf, called:-

(1) Phylloclade
(2) Cladodes
(3) Phyllodes
(4) Bulbils

6) In racemose type of inflorescence the main axis continue to grow and the flower are borne
laterally in an ____

(1) Basipetal succession

(2) Acropetal succession
(3) Centripetal succession
(4) Centrifugal order

7) Statement-I : When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without
overlapping, as in Calotropis, it is said to be valvate.
Statement-II : If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular
direction as in Cassia and gulmohur, the aestivation is called imbricate.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

8) Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which correctly represent the

related floral formula :-

(1) Pea
(2) Brinjal
(3) Lily
(4) Mustard

9) Plant contain one chambered ovary but it becomes two chambered due to formation of the false
septum. It is

(1) Primrose
(2) Mustard
(3) Tomato
(4) China rose

10) Statement-I- In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite
to each other as in Calotropis.
Statement-II- In opposite type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner, as
in china rose.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

11) Match the following column l and column ll :

Column–l Column–ll

(a) Valvate (i) Calotropis

(b) Twisted (ii) Cotton

(c) Imbricate (iii) Cassia

(d) Vaxillary (iv) Bean

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

12) Statement-I- In pinnately compound leaf a number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the
rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf as in silk cotton.
Statement-II- In palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i.e at the
tip of petiole, as in neem.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
13) Match the following column l and column ll :

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v

(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, e-v
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iv

14) Statement-I- The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as aestivation.
Statement-II- The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect to the other
members of the same whorl is known as placentation

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

15) The given floral formulae A, B, C respectively belong to:

(1) Mustard, Asparagus, Petunia

(2) Asparagus, Mustard, Petunia
(3) Petunia , Mustard, Asparagus
(4) Petunia , Asparagus, Mustard

16) Assertion- Monocotyledonous seeds are endospermic.

Reason- In some seeds such as castor the endosperm formed is a food storing tissue and called
endospermic seeds.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) In the given following statements, select the correct statements

(a) A number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represent the midrib of the
leaf in palmately compound leaf
(b) The leaf base become swollen i.e sheathing leaf base in some leguminous plants
(c) Supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of the stem called stilt roots in Banyan and
Rhizophora
(d) Axillary buds of stems may also get modified into woody, straight pointed thorns as in Citrus and
Bougainvillea

(1) a, d are correct

(2) a, b, d are correct
(3) b, c are correct
(4) only d is correct

18) Assertion- In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis has limited growth and flowers are
borne in a basipetal order.
Reason- In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

19) Assertion- In some plants such as Rhizophora growing in swampy areas, many roots come out of
the ground and grow vertically upwards.
Reason- Rhizophora roots need help to get oxygen for respiration.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Match the following column l and column ll :

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-i

(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii

21) Assertion- A few millimetres below the region of meristematic activity is the root cap.
Reason- Root cap protects the tender apex of the root as it makes its way through the soil.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Match the column-I with column-II for fabaceae:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Pulses (i) Muliathi

(B) Fodder (ii) Trifolium

(C) Medicine (iii) Sem, moong

(D) Fibres (iv) Lupin

(E) Ornamentals (v) Sunhemp

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-v, D-i, E-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-ii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-v, E-iv
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-v, E-iii

23) Which of the following figure & its representative is correct :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

24) Find out the correct statements :

a. The roots which store food in Beet are Tap roots
b. Stems of maize & sugarcane have Prop roots coming out from upper nodes
c. In Monstera, roots arise from parts of the plant other than radicle
d. Turmeric act as organ of perennation

(1) c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b

25) Which statement is true among the following :

(a) When the stamens are united into more than two bundles this condition is seen in Citrus.
(b) When more than one carpel is present it can be free as in primrose.
(c) Opuntia have modified cylindrical stem for photosynthesis
(d) Irregular symmetry present in Cassia

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) Only a
(4) a, c and d

26) Floral formula related to given diagram is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Match the following

Responsible
A. for water I. Adventitous root
absorption

Supporting roots
B. II. Prop root
in monocots

Helpful in
survival Pneumatophores
C. III.
in adverse root
condition

Supporting roots
D. IV. Stilt root
in some dicot

Adaptation for
E. V. Conical root
food storage
(1) A - III, B - I, C - V, D - IV, E - II
(2) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E - V
(3) A - II, B - I, C - V, D - IV, E - III
(4) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - V, E - II

28) Consider the following statements :

(i) In cymose inflorescence the flowers are born in a acropetal order
(ii) Epigynous flower possess superior ovary.
(iii) In potato the ovary is semi-superior.
Of these statements :

(1) (ii) and (iii) are false and (i) is true

(2) (i) and (iii) are true and (ii) is false
(3) (i) and (ii) are true and (iii) is false
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) are false

29) Study the pedigree chart given below :- What does it show :-

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

(2) Inheritance of a sex-lined inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

30) Which symbol is not used in pedigree analysis?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II

a. XO type 1. Male heterogamety

b. XY type 2. Female heterogamety

c. ZW type
(1) a - 1, b - 2, c - 2
(2) a - 1, b - 2, c - 2
(3) a - 1, b - 1, c - 2
(4) a - 2, b - 2, c - 1

32) Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic while half the daughters are carriers. The
gene is located on

(1) X-chromosome of father

(2) Y-chromosome of father
(3) One X-chromosome of mother
(4) Both the X-chromosomes of mother

33) Which of the following show linkage group in coupling phase?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Variations are:

(1) Degree by which progeny differs from their parents

(2) Degree by which progeny similar to their parents
(3) Process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny
(4) True breeding lines

35) What is true for Mendel?

(1) Qualitative study of qualitative characters

(2) Quantitative study of quantitative character
(3) Qualitative study of quantitative characters
(4) Quantitative study of Qualitative characters

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following is an incorrect match ?

(1) Perigynous flower – Rose and Peach

(2) Diadelphous – Chinarose
(3) Epigynous flower – Guava, Cucumber and ray florets of sunflower
(4) Polyadelphous – Citrus

2) Which is correct match ?

(1) Cymose – flowers born in acropetal order, Main axis continous to grow
(2) Recemose - Flower born in basipetal order, Main axis terminates by a flower.
(3) Cymose – flower born in basipetal order, Main axis terminates by a flower.
(4) Recemose – flower born in basipetal order, Main axis continous to grow.

3) Wings present in which type of aestivation :

(1) Valvate
(2) Vexillary
(3) Imbricate
(4) Twisted

4) Which type of inflorescence is found in solanaceae?

(1) Spike
(2) Spadix
(3) Catkin
(4) cymose

5) Which term is not related to androecium :

(1) Adelphy
(2) Steminode
(3) Epipatelous
(4) Apocarpous

6) Placentation, which have True septum is :

(1) Tomato
(2) Dianthus
(3) Mustard
(4) Pea

7) Which is not a correct match with its example

(1) Basal placentation – Marigold

(2) Parietal placentation – Argemone
(3) Axile placentation – Primrose
(4) Free central placentation – Dianthus

8) Which is incorrect match

(a) Apocarpous – Lotus (b) Syncarpous – Mustard
(c) Apocarpous–Tomato (d) Syncarpous – Rose

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and d
(4) c and d

9) Match the column – I to column - II :

a b c

(1) iii i ii

(2) ii i iii

(3) i ii iii

(4) iii ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Find out incorrect match :

(1) Stem tendril – Cucumber, Pumpkin

(2) Stem thorn – Citrus, Bougainvillea
(3) Offset – Mint, Banana
(4) Rhizome – Ginger, Turmeric

11) Some plant of arid regions modify their stem into flattened or fleshy structure which contain
chlorophyll for photosynthesis known as :

(1) Cladode
(2) Phyllo – clade
(3) Phyllode
(4) Steminode

12) Which is not correct match with its example :

(1) Phyllode – Australian acacia

(2) Leaf tendrils – lathyrus aphaca (wild pea)
(3) Leaf spine – cacti
(4) Leaf Pitcher – cucumber

13) Mendel's law of segregation in applicable to

(1) Dihybrid cross only

(2) Both dihybrid and monohybrid crosses
(3) Monohybrid cross only
(4) Dihybrid but not monohybrid cross

14) Incomplete dominance can be seen in:

(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

(2) Flower colour in pisum sativum
(3) Size of starch grains in pea
(4) 1 and 3 both

15) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

A single trait controlled by three or

(A) (i) Pleiotropy
more than three allele

A single trait controlled by three or

(B) (ii) Multiple allele
more than genes

A single gene exhibits multiple Polygenic

(C) (iii)
phenotypic expression inheritance
(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Unicellular organism are/have :

I. Capable in performing the essential functions of life.
II. Independent existance.
III. Bacteria, amoeba, euglena and paramecium.

(1) I & II statement incorrect

(2) Only II & III statement correct
(3) III statement incorrect
(4) All statement are correct
2) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
(Size) (Organisms)

a 1-2µm i Eukaryotic cell

b 0.02–0.2µm ii PPLO

c About 0.1µm iii Viruses

d 10–20µm iv Bacteria
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

3) Assertion : Golgi complex, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum and vacuoles are considered
together as endomembrane system.
Reason : Functions of golgi complex, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum and vacuoles are
coordinated.

(1) Assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason are false

4) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tiny tubular structure scattered in cytoplasm

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum divides intracellular space into two distinct compartments
(3) In absence of ribosomes endoplasmic reticulum appears rough
(4) RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis

5) In animals steroidal hormones are synthesised by which organelle?

(1) Golgi bodies

(2) Nucleus
(3) Vacuole
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

6) Statement-I : In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation in cytoplasm.

Statement-II : All eukaryotic cells are not identical

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
7) Match the column I and column II.

Column-I Column-II

Movement of water
a Active transport i
by diffusion

b Passive transport ii Na+/K+ pump

Movement of neutral
c Osmosis iii
solutes
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)

8) Cell wall of algae is differ from higher plant in having

(1) Cellulose
(2) Galactan
(3) Mannans
(4) Both (2) and (3)

9) Select the correct statements.

(a) Cell wall is nonliving in nature.
(b) Cell wall give shape to the cell.
(c) Cell wall do not protect cell from infection.
(d) Cell wall helps in cell to cell interaction.

(1) (a), (b), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) Only (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

10) Statement-I : Camillo golgi (1898) first observed darkly stained reticular structure near the
nucleus.
Statement-II : In golgi body, cisternae are stacked parallel to each other.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

11) Identify A,B,C and D–

(1) A-Neurohypophysis, B-Adenohypophysis, C-Pars distalis, D-Pars intermedia
(2) A-Adenohypophysis, B-Neurohypophysis, C-Pars intermedia[ D-Pars distalis
(3) A-Adenohypophysis, B-Neurohypophysis, C-Pars distalis, D-Pars intermedia
(4) A-Neurohypophysis, B-Adenohypophysis, C-Pars intermedia, D-Pars distalis

12) Identify A to E -
Islet of Langerhans
Has 2 types of main cells
→A-cells → secretes insulin → causes - D
→B-cells → secretes C → causes - E

(1) A - α, B - β, C- Glucagon, D-Hyperglycaemia, E-Hyperglycaemia

(2) A-β, B-α, C-Glucagon, D-Hypoglycaemia, E-Hyperglycaemia
(3) A-α, B-β, C-Cortisol, D -Hyperglycaemia, E-Hpoglycaemia
(4) A-β, B - α, C-Glucagon, D-Hyperglycaemia, E-Hypoglycaemia

13) Match the column

Column I Column II

Gametogenic
(a) Pituitary (i)
hormone

Hypophysis
(b) FSH (ii)
cerebrum

(c) Vasopressin (iii) Melatonin

Vestigeal
(d) Pineal body (iv)
hormone

(e) Prolactin (v) ADH

Milk
(f) MSH (vi)
production

a b c d e f

(1) iii i iv ii vi v

(2) ii vi i iii iv v

(3) ii i v iv iii vi

(4) ii i v iii vi iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) The given diagram represents the mechanism of action for two categories of hormones. Which of
the following options correctly identifies the lables A to I.

A–Steroid hormone, B–Receptor, C–Secondary messenger, D–Non – Steroid hormone, E –

(1) Nucleus, F–Hormone receptor complex, G–Genome, H–Physiological responese mRNA,
I–Protein.
A–Non –steroid hormone, B–Receptor, C–Secondary messenger, D – steroid hormone,
(2)
E–Nucleus, F–Hormone – receptor complex, G–Genome, H–mRNA, I–Protein
A–Steroid hormone, B–Enzyme, C–primary messenger, D–Non–steroid hormone, E–Nucleus,
(3)
F–Hormone –receptor compled, G–Genome, H–mRNA, I–Protein
A–Steroid hormone, B–Enzyme, C–Secondary messenger, D–Non –steroid hormone, E–Nucleus,
(4)
F–Hormone –receptor complex, G–genome, H–mRNA, I–Protein

15) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

Regulates blood
A. ANF (i)
calcium levels

Decreases blood
B. MSH (ii)
pressure

C. GIP (iii) Pigmentation

Inhibits gastric
D. TCT (iv)
secretion
(1) A –(iv), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iii)
(2) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(iii)
(3) A–(iv), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(ii)
(4) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)

16) The given table enlists various hormones and their chemical nature. Select the option which
completes the table

Hormone Chemical composition

(i) Peptide

Thyroxin (ii)

Testosterone (iii)

(iv) Amino acid derivative

 i ii iii iv

1 Cortisol Steroid Polypeptide Estradiol

2 Insulin Protein Polypeptide Epinephrice

3 Cortisol Protein Iodothyronine Estradiol

4 Insulin Steroid Iodothyronine Epinephrine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Which of the following is correct for adrenal medulla:

It is responsible for secretion of catecholamines which are hormones of fight or flight. these
(1)
hormones are responsible for pupilary contraction and piloerection.
Adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called adrenaline and nor–adrenaline which are rapidly
(2) secreted in response to stress of any kind and during emergency situation and inhibit the
secetion of digestive juice.
It secretes two hormones called epinephrine and nor– epinephrine which are also known as
(3) emergency hormones. These hormones increase alertness, pupilary contraction, raising of hairs
and inhibit the breakdown of proteins.
Epinephrine hormone causes almost the same effects as those caused by nor–epinephrine but
(4) differ in this respect that epinephrine has a lesser effect on cardiac activity than
nor–epinephrine hormone.

18) The thyroid gland hormones play an important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate,
development and maturation of the central nervous system. Consider only these two functions of
thyroid hormones and find which disorder can occur if there is reduced secretion of this hormone
during early life?

(1) Cretinism/Dwarfism
(2) Myxoedema or gull's disease
(3) Simple goitre
(4) Hashimoto's disease

19) Match the following:

(I) Glucagon (A) CMI/AMI

(II) Testosterone (B) Maturation of CNS

(III) Thymosins (C) Libido/spermatogenesis

(IV) Thyroxine (D) Hyperglycemia

(1) I–C, II–A, III–D, IV–B
(2) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B
(3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
(4) I–C, II–D, III–A, IV–B
20) Adrenal cortex can be divided into three layers.
Match the following with their correct counter part

Zona Middle
(I) (A)
reticularis layer

(P) Aldosterone

Zona Outer
(II) (B)
fasciculata layer

(Q) Testosterone

Zona Inner
(III) (C)
glomerulosa layer

(R) Cortisol
(1) I–C–Q, II-C–P, III–A–R
(2) I–C–Q, II–A–R, III–B–P
(3) I–C–P, II–B–Q,III–A–R
(4) I–C–P, II–A–P, III–B–R

21) Match the following with their correct counterpart/surce:

Hormone Source Function

Inhibit gastric
I. TCT A. GIT P.
motility

II. PTH B. Thyroid Q. Vasoldilator

III. ANF C. Parathyroid R. Hypercalcemic

IV. GIP D. Heart S. Hypocalcemic

(1) I–B–S, II–C–P, III–B–R, IV–A–Q
(2) I–B–S, II–C–Q, III–A–P, IV–D–R
(3) I–B–S, II–C–R, III–D–Q, IV–A–P
(4) I–B–P, II–A–R, III–C–Q, IV–D–S

22) Which hormone interacts with membrane bound receptor and does not normally enter the target
cell?

(1) FSH
(2) Estrogen
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Cortisol

23) Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass
through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it:

(1) Somatostation, Oxytocin

(2) Cortisoal, Estrogen
(3) Insulin, Glucagon
(4) Thyroxine, Insulin

24) Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(1) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism.

(2) Thymus–Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
Parathyroid–Secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ion from blood into
(3)
bones during calcification.
Pancreas–Delta cells of Islets of Islets of langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates
(4)
glycolysis in liver.

25) Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are:

(1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and calcitonin

(2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids
(3) insulin, glucagon, cortisol and PTH
(4) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and PTH

26) Location of pineal gland w.r.t forebrain is.

(1) Anterior
(2) Lateral
(3) Dorsal
(4) Ventral

27) Which of the following conditions are responsible for decrease calcium level is blood.

(1) increase secretion of paratharmone

(2) increase secretion of thyrocalcitonin
(3) High volume of calciferol
(4) More reabsorption of Ca2+ in uriniferous tubule

28) Which hormone play an major role in differentiation of lymphocyte.

(1) Melatonin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Thymosin
(4) Cortisol

29) One day while walking, you feel you have put your foot on the snake which of the following
biological mechanism would you face.

(1) Sympathetic system activation

(2) Knee-jerk reflex
(3) Adrenal medulla activation
(4) More then one is correct

30) Arrange the following layer of adrenal cortex from inside to outside.
A – Zona glomerulose
B – Zona reticularis
C – Zona fasciculus

(1) A – B – C
(2) B – C – A
(3) C – A – B
(4) A – C – B

31) Aldosterone act on renal tubule, stimulates reabsorption of.

(1) Na+
(2) K+
(3) Phosphate
(4) 2 and 3 both

32) Androgenic steroids are secreted by.

(1) Ovary
(2) Pancreas
(3) Pineal
(4) Adrenal

33) Progesterone hormone is secreted in blood by which organ of human body.

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Pituitary gland
(3) Ovary
(4) Growing ovarian follicle

34) Two lobe of thyroid gland are inter connected by.

(1) Isthemus
(2) Infandibulum
(3) Stroma
(4) Follicle

35) Leydig are found in :-

(1) Ovaries and secrete progesterone

(2) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(3) Testis and secrete androgen
(4) Pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin.

SECTION-B

1) Select the correct statement regarding plant vacuoles

(1) The vacuole is membrane less space found in the cytoplasm.

(2) Vacuole store water sap and excretory product
(3) In plant cell vacuole is absent
(4) In plant cell, tonoplast facilitates the transport of ion along the concentration gradients only

2) Match the column I and column II.

Column-I Column-II

Engulfing the food

a Contractile vacuole i
particle

Vacuole membrane in
b Food vacuole ii
plant

Osmoregulation and
c Tonoplast iii
excretion
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)

3) Which of the following have double membrane covering?

I. Ribosome II. Mitochondria
III. Golgi body IV. Chloroplast
V. Lysosome VI. Nucleus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Assertion : Mitochondria and chloroplast are called semiautonomous cell orgenelle.

Reason : Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own genomic DNA and able to produce all
proteins which they need.

(1) Assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

5) Which of the following statements is not correct w.r.t lysosomes?

(1) Autophagic vacuoles are also called suicidal bags
(2) They are rich in hydrolytic enzymes like lipase, proteases and carbohydrases
(3) Lysosome represent as member of endomembranous system
(4) There are responsible for the packing of materials and transport

6) Hormone which inhibits the muscle contraction in uterus is :-

(1) Progesterone
(2) FSH
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Vasopressin

7) Identify the hormone which is secreted by the pituitary gland (a small gland at the base of brain).
Which is responsible to make milk after baby birth

(1) PRL
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Relaxin
(4) Inhibin

8) Among the following which hormome is not produced by corpus luteum ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) GH
(4) Relaxin

9) In hormone action, if receptor molecules are romoved from target organ, the target organ will

(1) continue to respond to hormone

(2) not respond to hormone
(3) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(4) continue to respond but in the reverse way.

10) Receptors for steroid hormones are mainly located

(1) on cell wall

(2) on cell surface
(3) in nucleus
(4) on endoplasmic reticulum

11) Which is true?

(1) Deficiency of growth hormones leads to cretinism.

(2) LH induces mammary glands to produce milk
(3) FSH stimulates testes to produce sperm cells
(4) Adrenalin reduces blood pressure.

12) Which hormone decrease blood Ca+2 level in the body?

(1) Adrenalin
(2) Growth hormone
(3) FSH
(4) Thyrocalcitonin

13) Which statements are false true.

(a) Calcitonin regulates metabolism of calcium
(b) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscies during birth
(c) Grave's disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal gland.
(d) ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine production

(1) a and c are true, b and d are false.

(2) a and d are true, b and c are false.
(3) a and b are true, c and d are false.
(4) a, b and c are true, d only is false.

14) Which of the following takes part in salt balancing?

(1) Mineralocorticoid
(2) Glucocorticoid
(3) Somatotropin
(4) Follitrophin

15)

Column I (Endocrine Column II (Position

glands) in body)

(1) Pituitary gland (p) Above kidney

(2) Thyroid gland (q) Inside pancreas

(3) Adrenal gland (r) On larynx

(4) Islets of langerhans (s) On gonads

(t) At the base of brain

(1) 1 = s, 2 = t, 3= p, 4 = q
(2) I = q, 2 = s, 3= t, 4 = p
(3) 1 = t, 2 = r, 3 = p, 4 = q
(4) 1 = p, 2 - q, 3 = r, 4 = s
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 3 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 3 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 1 1 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 2 1 4 1 1 4 3 1 1 4 2 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 1 3 1 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 3 3 3 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

26) R = 500 Ω
XL = ω × L = 1000 × 0.5 = 500

cos ϕ =

27) P = Vrms Irms cos ϕ cos ϕ = cos

= 2.5 W

28) (for DC)

(for AC)

XL = ωL = 2πfL

29)

At resonance freq. current & voltage will be in same phase so ϕ = 0

wattless current = I0 sinϕ = I0 sin 0° = 0

30) ∵ XL << XC ; hence bulb A glows brighter

For A ⇒ and

For B ⇒

31) I =
XL – XC = 10Ω
Potential drop at combination of L & C = i(XL – XC) = 2.5 × 10 = 25 V

32)
33) V =

Vrms =

34) Concept

35) Q =

∴ Δω =

46)

R = 60Ω, f = 50Hz, ω = 2πf = 100 π

xC =
xC = 26.52 Ω
xL = ωL = 100π × 20 × 10–3 = 2πΩ
|xL – xC| = 20.24 ≈ 20

z=
z=

cosϕ =

Pavg = VI cosϕ, I =

=
= 8.64 watt
Q = P.t = 8.64 × 60 = 5.18 × 102

47) XL = ωsource L &

(i) If ωsource > ωresonant then XL > XC
⇒ Circuit will be inductor-dominant
⇒ Current will lag voltage
(ii) If ωsource < ωresonant then XL < XC
⇒ Circuit will be capacitor-dominant
⇒ Current will lead voltage
(iii) If ωsource = ωresonant then XL = XC
⇒ Neither inductor, nor capacitor will be dominant in circuit
⇒ Current will be in phase with voltage

48) ω =

ω= =

XL = ωL = × 4.9 × 10–3 = 0.7 × 102 = 70Ω

XC = = 70 Ω

ZP = ≈ 77 Ω

ZQ = ≈ 97.6 Ω

49)

Irms = ;Z=

I1 = = = 20A

I2 = = = 10A

I3 = = 10A

As we know Pavg =
Pavg = Pde + Pcf + Pbg

Pavg = + +
= 3200

50)
 ω2 < ωR from diagram
Circuit will behave as capacitance circuit
∴ Current leads voltage

CHEMISTRY

BOTANY

ZOOLOGY