PERIODIC TABLE (exercise-1)

DEVELOPMENT OF PERIODIC TABLE

8. In the general electronic configuration -
1. Which of the following is not a (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2, if value of n =
Doeberiner triad ? 7 the configuration will be -
(1) Li, Na, K (2) Mg, Ca, Sr (1) Lanthenides
(3) Cl, Br, I (4) S, Se, Te (2) Actinides
(3) Transition elements
2. In the Doberiener’s triad all three element (4) None
have same -
(1) Electronic configuration 9. Which of the following statement is false?
(2) Properties (1) Elements of ns2np6 electronic
(3) Number of shells configuration lies in 1st to 6th period
(4) (1) & (2) both (2) Typical elements lies in 3rd period
(3) The seventh period will accommodate
3. The elements which occupy the peaks of thirty two elements
the atomic volume curve are - (4) Boron and silicon are diagonally
(1) Fe, Co, Ni (2) Cl, Br, I related
(3) K, Rb, Cs (4) Ne, Ar, Kr
10. Sixth typical element is -
4. Elements which occupied position in the (1) Al (2) Mg (3) S (4) O
lother meyer curve, on the peaks, were - 11. Which of the following electronic
(1) Alkali metals configurations in the outermost shell is
(2) Highly electro positive elements characteristic of alkali metals ?
(3) Elements having large atomic volume (1) (n – 1)s2p6ns2p1 (2) (n – 1)s2p6d10 ns1
(4) All (3) (n – 1)s2p6ns1 (4) ns2np6(n – 1)d10
5. Atomic no. is the base of - 12. The fourteen elements collectively placed
(i) Lother meyer curve in 3rd group and 7th period are called -
(ii) Newland octave rule (1) Typical elements
(iii) Modern periodic table (2) Representative element
(iv) Doeberiener triad rule (3) Actinides
(v) Long form of periodic table (4) Lanthenones
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) (2) (iii), (v)
(3) (i), (iv) (4) (i), (iii), (v) 13. Which of the following statement is
wrong for the transition elements ?
6. The discovery of which of the following (1) Transition elements are placed from
group of elements gave a death blow to the 3rd to 6th period
Newlands Law - (2) Last electron enters in (n – 1)d orbital
(1) Inert gases (3) Exhibits variable valency
(2) Alkali metals (4) General electronic configuration is
(3) Transuranic element (n – 1)d1–10 ns1,2
(4) Halogens 14. Which of the following general electronic
configuration for transition elements is
7. Justification of putting H in VII A group not correct
is - (1) (n + 1) s1–2 nd1–10
(1) H is gas (2) ns1–2 (n – 1)d1–10(Where n = 2, 3, 4...)
(2) H is non metal
(3) ns0,1,2(n – 1)s2 p6 d1–10
(3) It form NaH like salt
(4) (n – 1)d1–10 ns0–2
(4) It has ortho and para allotropes
15. Which of the following set of elements
belongs to same period ?
PERIOD, GROUP & BLOCK
(1) Zn, Cd, Hg (2) Fr, Ra, U
 (3) K, Ca, Ag (4) None (4) Metals of B-subgroups

16. In 6th period of the modern periodic table, 23. Which of the follownig match is correct -
electronic energy levels is in the order - (1) Last natural element – Uub
(1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p (2) 6s, 6p, 4f, 5d (2) General electronic configuration of IA
group – ns2
(3) 5f, 5d, 6s, 6p (4) None
(3) Inert gas element lies in 2nd – 6th
period
17. The electronic configuration of four (4) Typical elements – 3rd period elements
elements are given below. Which element
does not belong to the same block as 24. Which of the following statement is
others - wrong ?
(1) [Xe] 6s24f145d10 (2) [Ar] 4s2 3d5 (1) All the actinides are synthetic (man
(3) [Rn] 7s2 5f7 6d1 (4) [Kr] 4d6 5s2 made) elements
(2) In the Lanthanides last electron enters
18. Elements having ns2np6 valence shell in 4f orbitals
electronic configuration lies in - (3) Np93 onwards are transuranic
(1) ‘O’ gp. and 1st – 7th period elements
(4) Lanthenum is d-block element
(2) 18th gp. and 2nd – 6th period
(3) 18th gp. and 1st – 6th period
25. An ion M+3 has electronic configuration
(4) All are correct [Ar] 3d10 4s2 element M belongs to -
(1) s-block (2) p-block
19. True statement is - (3) d-block (4) f-block
(1) All the transuranic elements are
synthetic elements 26. General electronic configuration of and
(2) Elements of third group are called penultimate and outermost shell is (n – 1)
bridge elements s2 (n – 1) p6 (n – 1) d5 ns1 (if n = 4) then
(3) Element of 1s2 configuration is placed number of proton in the nucleus will be -
in IIA group (1) 25 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 30
(4) Electronic configuration of elements
of a group is same 27. Which two elements are in same period as
well as same group of modern periodic
table -
20. Which of the following matches are (1) Z = 23, Z 31 (2) Z = 65, Z = 66
wrong ? (3) Z = 52, Z = 87 (4) Z = 58, Z = 46
(a) Cm96 – actinide element
(b) U92 – Lw103 Transurnic elements 28. Which of the following sequence contains
(c) Pm61 – Man made element atomic number of only representative
(d) Ar – Kr Anomalous pair elements ?
Correct answer is - (1) 55, 12, 18, 53 (2) 13, 33, 54, 83
(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) a, b (4) Only d (3) 3, 33, 53, 87 (4) 22, 33, 55, 66

29. From atomic number 58 to 71, elements

21. An element ‘X’on emitting an -particle,
are placed in-
do not change its group number in the (1) 5th period and III A group
periodic table. The element is - (2) 6th period and III B group
(1) Lanthanum (2) Cerium (3) separate period and group
(3) Lawrencium (4) Radium (4) 7th period and IV B group
22. Transition elements are - 30. Which statement is wrong for the long
(1) Alkali metals form of periodic table ?
(2) Metals of A-subgroups (1) Number of periods are 7 and groups 18
(3) Metals of p-block
 (2) No. of valence shell electrons in a (3) 0.8 Å, 0.8 Å (4) 0.8 Å, 0.37 Å
period are same
(3) III B group contains 32 elements 39. In which of the following compounds
(4) Lanthanides and actinides are placed manganese show maximum radius -
in same group (1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4
(3) MnO (4) K3[Mn(CN)6]
SCHREENING CONSTANT Zeff
ECTIVE ACTOMIC RADIUS 40. The radius of potassium atom is 0.203 nm.
The radius of the potassium ion in
31. The screening effect of d-electrons is - nanometer will be -
(1) Equal to the p-electrons (1) 0.133 (2) 0.231 (3) 0.234 (4) 0.251
(2) Much more than p-electrons
(3) Same as f-electrons 41. Atomic radii of Fluorine and Neon in
(4) Less than p-electrons Angstrom units are given by -
(1) 0.72, 1.60 (2) 1.60, 1.60
32. Screening effect is not observed in :- (3) 0.72, 0.72 (4) None of these
(1) He+ (2) Li +2
(3) H (4) All of these 42. Arrange the following in order of
increasing atomic radii Na, Si, Al, Ar -
33. Which statement is false ? (1) Na < Si < Al < Ar
(1) Screening effect increases down the (2) Si < Al < Na < Ar
group (3) Ar < Al < Si < Na
(2) Zeff increases down the group (4) Na < Al < Si < Ar
(3) Zeff. increases in a period
(4) All 43. The best reason to account for the general
tendency of atomic diameters to decrease
34. The correct order of atomic size of C, N, as the atomic numbers increase within a
P, S follows the order - period of the periodic table is the fact that
(1) N < C < S < P (2) N < C < P < S (1) Outer electrons repel inner electrons
(3) C < N < S < P (4) C < N < P < S
(2) Closer packing among the nuclear
35. Which group of atoms have nearly same particles is achieved
atomic radius ? (3) The number of neutrons increases
(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs (2) Li, Be, B, C (4) The increasing nuclear charge exerts a
(3) Fe, Co, Ni (4) F, Cl, Br, I greater attractive force on the electrons

36. Which of the following order of radii is 44. Spot the incorrect order of atomic radii
correct ? (1) rCu > Zn (2) rCl > F (3) rP > S (4) rSc > Ti
(1) Li < Be < Mg (2) H+ < Li+< H–
(3) O < F < Ne (4) Na+ > F– > O–2 45. Which has the lowest anion to cation size
ratio ?
37. Incorrect statement is (1) LiF (2) NaF (3) CsI (4) CsF
(1) Atomic size  Zeff
(2) Atomic size  negative charge 46. If the ionic radii of K and F are nearly
1 the same (i.e. 1.34 Å) then the atomic radii
(3) Atomic size  of K and F respectively are
Bond order
(1) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (2) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å
(4) Atomic size  Screening effect
38. The covalent and vander Waal’s radii of (3) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å (4) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å
hydrogen respectively are
(1) 0.37 Å, 0.8 Å (2) 0.37 Å, 0.37 Å
47. In which of the following pairs, both the (1) Na+, Zn, Be, Li+ (2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
species have nearly the same size (3) F–, Cu, Be, H– (4) O–2, Ni, Be, He
IONIZATION ENTHALPY
(1) Al, Ga (2) Li+, Mg2+
(3) Fe, Co (4) All the three 56. Which of the following order of IE is
correct ?
48. Which is correct order of size of O, O2–, (1) Li > Be < Mg (2) H+ < Li+ + < H–
F– and F ? (3) O < F < Ne (4) Na+ > F– > O–2
(1) O2– > O > F– > F (2) O > O2– > F > F–
(3) O2– > F– > F > O (4) O2– > F– > O > F 57. IP is influenced by -
(1) Size of atom
49. Which of the following is different from (2) Effective nuclear charge
other three oxides ? (3) Electrons present in inner shell
(1) MgO (2) SnO (3) PbO (4) ZnO (4) All

50. Arrange the elements in increasing order 58. Compared to the first ionisation potential,
of atomic radius Na, Rb, K, Mg - the value of second ionisation potential of
(1) Na, K, Mg, Rb (2) K, Na, Mg, Rb an element is -
(3) Mg, Na, K, Rb (4) Rb, K, Mg, Na (1) Negligible (2) Smaller
(3) Greater (4) Double
51. Which of the following sequence is
correct for decreasing order of ionic radius 59. Among the following elements (Whose
? electronic configuration is give below) the
(1) Se–2, I–-, Br–, O–2, F– one having the highest ionisation energy is
(2) I–, Se–2, O–2, Br–, F– -
(3) Se–2, I–, Br–, F–, O–2 (1) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (2) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
(4) I–, Se–2, Br–, O–2 , F– 2
(3) [Ne] 3s 3p 5
(4) [Ne] 3s2

52. In which of the following pair radii of 60. Which of the following has 2nd IP < Ist IP?
second species is smaller than that of first (1) Mg (2) Ne (3) C (4) None
species -
(1) Li, Na (2) Na+, F–, 61. The second ionisation potentials in
–3 +3
(3) N , Al (4) Mn+7, Mn+4 electron volts of oxygen and fluorine
atoms are respectively given by -
53. K+, Ar, Ca2+ and S2– contains - (1) 35.1., 38.3 (2) 38.3, 38.3
(1) Same electronic configuration and (3) 38.3, 35.1 (4) 35.1, 35.1
atomic volume
(2) Different electronnic configuration 62. The correct values of ionization enthalpies
but same IP. (in kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively
(3) Same electronic configuration but are -
different atomic volume (1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256
(4) None (2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
54. Which of the following is not (4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
isoelectronnic series ?
(1) Cl–, P3–, Ar (2) N3–, Ne, Mg+2 63. Element X, Y and Z have atomic numbers
+3
(3) B , He, Li +
(4) N3–, S2–, Cl– 19, 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the
following statements is true?
55. From the given set of species, point out the (1) Their ionisation potential would increase
species from each set having least atomic with the increasing atomic number
radius - (2) ‘Y’ would have an ionisation potential
(A) O–2, F–, Na+ (B) Ni, Cu, Zn in between those of ‘X’ and ‘Z’
(C) Li, Be, Mg (D) He, Li+, H–
 (3) ‘Z’ would have the highest ionisation 72. Which ionisation potential (IP) in the
potential following equation involves the greatest
(4) ‘Y’ would have the highest ionisation ammount of energy-
potential (1) K+ → K+2 + e– (2) Li+ → Li+2 + e–
64. IInd IP of which of the element is (3) Fe → Fe+ + e– (4) Ca+ → Ca+2 + e–
maximum- 73. The element having highest I.P. in the
(1) Lithium (2) Oxygen from of two series C, N, O and Si, P, S -
(3) Nitrogen (4) Fluorine (1) P (2) N (3) S (4) O
65. The first (IE1) and second (IE2) ionization 74. Out of Na+, Mg+2, O–2 and N–3, the pair of
energies (kJ/mol) of a few elements species showing minimum and maximum
designated by Roman numerals are given IP would be -
below. Which of these would be an alkali (1) Na+, Mg+2 (2) Mg+2, N–3
metal ? –3
(3) N , Mg +2
(4) O–2, N–3
IE1 IE2
(1) I 2372 5251 −
→ M (g) +
75. (a) M (g) (b) M (g) → M (g)
(2) II 520 7300 + +2 +2 +3
(3) III 900 1760 (c) M (g) → M (g) (d) M (g) → M (g)
(4) IV 1680 3380 Minimum and maximum I.P. would be of-
(1) a, d (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) d, a
66. The ionisation potential of isotopes of an
element will be - 76. Consider the following ionisation
(1) Same reactions
(2) Different A(g) → A + (g) + e − IE in (KJ/mol) is A1
(3) Depends on atomic masses
(4) Depends on number of neutrons A + (g) → A +2 (g) + e − IE in (KJ/mol) is A2
A +2 (g) → A +3 (g) + e − IE in (KJ/mol) is A3
67. Among the following elements (Whose then correct order of IE is -
electronic configuration is given below) (1) A1 > A2 > A3 (2) A1 = A2 = A3
the one having the highest ionisation (3) A1 < A2 < A3 (4) A3 = A2 < A1
energy is -
(1) (Ne) 3s23p3 (2) (Ne) 3s23p4
2 77. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element
(3) (Ne) 3s (4) (Ar) 3d104s24p2
are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV
respectively. Thhe element is likely to be
68. Which of the following is an amphoteric
:-
oxide ?
(1) Na (2) Si (3) F (4) Ca
(1) MgO (2) Al2O3 (3) SiO2 (4) P2O5

69. Least basic oxide is - 78. In the given process which oxidation state
(1) Fe2O3 (2) FeO (3) BaO (4) Na2O is more stable.
M(g) → M(g)+ IE1 = 7.9 eV
70. Select the correct order of I.E. - M(g) → M(g)
+ +2
IE2 = 15.5 eV
(1) Cl– > Cl > Cl+ (2) Cl+ > Cl > Cl– (1) M+ (2) M+2 (3) Both (4) None
(3) Cl > Cl+ > Cl– (4) Cl– > Cl+ > Cl
79. The correct order of decreasing second
71. IE1 IE2 and IE3 of an element are 10 eV, ionization energy of Li, Be, Ne, C, B
15 eV, 45 eV respectively, the most stable (1) Ne > B > Li > C > Be
oxidation state of theh element will be - (2) Li > Ne > C > B > Be
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4 (3) Ne > C > B > Be > Li
(4) Li > Ne > B > C > Be
80. In which of the following element has 89. The process requiring the absorption of
highest value of ionisation energy - energy is -
(1) Ti (2) Zr (1) F → F– (2) Cl → Cl–
(3) Hf (4) None of these (3) O → O2– (4) H → H–

81. What is the correct order of ionisation 90. O(g) + 2e– → O2–(g) Heg = 744.7 KJ/mole.
energy : The positive value of Heg is due to -
(1) K < Cu < Cu+ < K+ (1) Energy is released to add to 1e– to O–1
(2) K < Cu+ < Cu < K+ (2) Energy is required to add to 1e– to O–1
(3) Cu+ < K < Cu < K+ (3) Energy is needed to add on 1e– to O
(4) K+ < Cu+ < Cu < K (4) None of the above is correct

ELECTRON GAIN ENTHALPY 91. The electron affinity

(1) Of carbon is greater than oxygen
82. The correct order of electron affinity of B, (2) Of fluorine is less than iodine
C, N, O is- (3) Of fluorine is less than chlorine
(1) O > C > N > B (2) B > N > C > O (4) Of sulphur is less than oxygen
(3) O > C > B > N (4) O > B > C > N
92. Consider the following conversions
83. In which case the energy released is (i) O(g) + e– → O– (g) ; H1
minimum - (ii) F(g) + e– → F–(g) ; H2
(1) Cl → Cl– (2) P → P– (iii) Cl(g) + e– → Cl– (g) ; H3
(3) N → N– (4) C → C– (iv) Na(g) → Na+(g) ; H4
incorrect statement is -
84. Which of the following is energy releasing (1) H1 and H2 is less negative than H3
process
(2) H2 is more negative than H1
(1) X– → X(g) + e– (2) O–(g) + e– → O2–
(3) H2, H3 are negative while H1 is
(3) O(g) → O+(g)+ e– (4) O(g) + e– → O–(g) positive
(4) H1, H2 and H3 are negative while
85. The correct electron affinity order of N, O,
H4 is positive
S, Cl is
(1) O < N < Cl < S (2) Cl > O > S > N
93. In which of the following process, least
(3) N < O < S < Cl (4) N = Cl > O = S
energy is required -
−
86. Which of the following electronic (1) F(g) −
→ F(g) + e − (2) P(g) → P(g) + e −
−
configuration is expected to have highest (3) S(g) −
→ S(g) + e − (4) Cl(g) → Cl(g) + e −
electron affinity
(1) 2s2 2p0 (2) 2s2 2p2
94. In the formation of a chloride ion, from an
(3) 2s22p3 (4) 2s2 2p1
isolated gaseous chlorine atom, 3.8 eV
energy is released, which would be equal
87. Which of the following configuration will
to :-
have least electron affinity -
(1) Electron affinity of Cl–
(1) ns2np5 (2) ns2np2
2 3 (2) Ionisation potential of Cl
(3) ns np (4) ns2np4
(3) Electronegativity of Cl
(4) Ionisation potential of Cl–
88. Second electron affinity of an element is-
(1) Always exothermic +
95. Process, Na (g) ⎯⎯
I
→ Na (g) ⎯⎯
II
→ Na (s)
(2) Endothermic for few elements
(3) Exothermic for few elements (1) In (I) energy released, (II) energy
(4) Always endothermic absorbed
(2) In both (I) and (II) energy is absorbed
 (3) In both (I) and (II) energy is released (3) 1.08 Å (4) 1.28 Å
(4) In (I) energy absorbed, (II) energy
released 103. Mulliken scale of electronegativity uses
the concept of -
96. Which of the following will have the most (1) E.A. and EN of pauling
negative electron gain enthalpy and which (2) E.A. and atomic size
the least negative? (3) E.A. and I.P.
(1) F, Cl (2) Cl, F (4) E.A. and bond energy
(3) Cl, S (4) Cl, P
104. Electronegativity scale of pauling is based
ELECTRO NEGATIVITY upon -
(1) Bond length (2) Bond energy
97. Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, (3) Atomic radius (4) Covalent radius
C and Si is -
(1) N < P < C < Si (2) N > C > Si > P 105. If the ionisation potential is IP, electron
(3) N = P > C = Si (4) N > C > P > Si affinity is EA and electronegativity is x
then which of the following relation is
98. Increasing order of electronegativity - correct -
(1) Bi < P < S < Cl (2) P < Bi < S < Cl (1) 2X – EA – IP = 0
(3) S < Bi < P < Cl (4) Cl < S < Bi < P (2) 2EA – X – IP = 0
(3) 2IP – X – EA = 0
99. The pair with minimum difference in (4) All of the above
electronegativity is -
(1) F, Cl (2) C, H 106. The electronegativities of the following
(3) P, H (4) Na, Cs elements H, O, F, S and Cl increase in the
order -
100. Electronegativity of the following (1) H < O < F < S < Cl
elements increases in the order - (2) Cl < H < O < F < S
(1) O < N < S < P (2) P < S < N < O (3) H < S < O < Cl < F
(3) P < N < S < O (4) S < P < N < O (4) H < S < Cl < O < F

101. Among the following least and most polar 107. The nomenclature of ICl is iodine chloride
bonds are respectively - because-
(a) C – I (b) N – O (1) Size of 1 < Size of Cl
(c) C – F (d) P – F (2) Atomic number of 1 > Atomic
(1) d and c (2) a and d number of Cl
(3) b and d (4) b and c (3) E.N. of 1 < E.N. of Cl
(4) E.A. of I < E.A. of Cl
102. The X–X bond length is 1.00 Å and C–
C bond length is 1.54 Å. If
electronegativities of ‘X’ and ‘C’ are 3.0
and 2.0 respectively, the C-X bond length
is likely to be -
(1) 1.27 Å (2) 1.18 Å
 EXERCISE–I
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 3 4 2 1 3 2 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 2
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 1
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 1 4 1 4 3 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 3 4
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 3
[Link]. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 3 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 4 1 3 2
[Link]. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107
Ans. 2 2 3 2 1 4 3
 PERIODIC TABLE (exercise-2)

1. Which of the following orders of ionic radii are correct?

(a) Li < Be < Na (b) Ni < Cu < Zn
(c) Ti > V > Cr (d) Ti > Zr ~ Hf
Correct answer is –
(1) All (2) a, b (3) b, c (4) b, d

2. If the difference in atomic size of :

Na – Li = x Rb – K = y Fr – Cs = z
Then correct order will be
(1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z
(3) x < y < z (4) x < y << z

3. The correct order of size would be -

(1) Ni < Pd Pt (2) Pd < Pt < Ni
(3) Pt > Ni > Pd (4) Pd > Pt > Ni

4. Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) SO2 is anhydride of sulphuric acid
(2) NO2 is anhydride of nitric acid
(3) Cl2O7 is anhydride of perchloric acid
(4) N2O is anhydride of nitrous acid

5. The chloride of an element ‘L’ gives neutral solution in water. The element ‘L’ belongs
to group -
(1) 13th (III A) (2) 15th (VA)
(3) I (IA) (4) 16th (VIA)

6. Element P, Q, R and S belong to the same group. The oxide of P is acidic, oxide of Q and
R are amphoteric while the oxide of S is basic. Which of the following elements is the
most electropositive?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

7. The electronic configuration of some neutral atoms are given below -

(a) 1s22s1 (b) 1s22s22p3
2 2 5
(c) 1s 2s 2p (d) 1s22s22p63s1
In which of these electronic configuration would you expect to have highest (i) IE 1, (ii)
IE2
(1) c,a (2) b,a (3) c,b (4) b,d
8. Out of I, Fe, H and Cl the pair of species showing minimum and maximum IP would be
-
(1) H, Fe (2) I, Cl (3) Fe, H (4) I, H

9. First ionization energy is lowest with

(1) Lead (2) Carbon
(3) Silicon (4) Tin
Passage (10 to 15)
Ionization energies of five elements in kcal/mol are given below :
Atom I II III
P 300 549 920
Q 99 734 1100
R 118 1091 1652
S 176 347 1848
T 497 947 1500

10. Which element is a noble gas ?

(1) P (2) T (3) R (4) S

11. Which element form stable unipositive ion ?

(1) P (2) Q (3) S (4) T

12. The element having most stable oxidation state + 2 is ?

(1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) T

13. Which is non-metal (excluding noble gas) ?

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

14. If Q reacts with fluorine and oxygen, the molecular formula of fluoride and oxide will be
respectively :
(1) QF3, Q2O3 (2) QF, Q2O
(3) QF2, QO (4) None of these

15. Which of the following pair represents elements of same group ?

(1) Q, R (2) P, Q (3) P, S (4) Q, S

16. K ⎯⎯
a
→ K + ⎯⎯
b
→ K +2 , Ca ⎯⎯
c
→ Ca + ⎯⎯
d
→ Ca +2
If a, b, c, d are ionisation energies, the which of the following order is not correct?
(1) c > a (2) b > a (3) d > c (4) b < d

17. The order of ionisation potential between He+ ion and H-atom (both species are in
gaseous state) is -
(1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)
(2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)
(3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)
(4) Cannot be compared

18. Successive ionisation energies of an element A are 100 eV, 150 eV, 181 eV, 2000 eV,
2200 eV correct statement regarding A is -
(1) Element ‘A’ may be metal
(2) Formula of oxide of A may be A2O3
(3) Oxide of element A may beamphoteric
(4) All are correct

19. The maximum 2nd I.E. is of -

(1) Mn (2) Sc (3) Cr (4) Ti
20. Arrange Cl, F, F–, Cl–, in increasing order of ionisation potential ?
(1) F– < Cl– < Cl < F
(2) Cl– < F– < Cl– < F
(3) Cl– < F– < F < Cl
(4) F– < Cl– < F < Cl

21. The IE1 & IE2 of three elements A, B & C are given as (IE in KJ/mol).
A B C
1 E1 400 550 1150
1 E2 2650 1070 2090
Identify the element which represent a non-metal-
(1) A (2) B
(3) Both A and B (4) C

22. In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property
indicated against it?
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– - increasing ionic size
(2) B < C < N < O - increasing first ionization energy
(3) I < Br < F < Cl - increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb - increasing metallic radius
23. The incorrect statement is -
(1) IE2 Se > As (2) IE3 Mn > Fe
(3) IE3 C > N (4) IE2 Cr > Cu

24. Second electron gain enthalpy ?

(1) is always negative
(2) is always positive
(3) can be positive or negative
(4) is always zero

25. To which of the following atom, the attachment of electron is most difficult ?
(1) Radon (2) Nitrogen
(3) Oxygen (4) Radium

26. Which of the following ions is most unlikely to exist ?

(1) Li– (2) Be– (3) B– (4) F–

27. The incorrect statement among the following is :-

(1) Helium has the highest first I.P. in the periodic table
(2) The process O (g) + e → O (g) is
– – 2–
endothermic
(3) The electron affinities of S and P are less than that O and N respectively
(4) In any period, the first ionisation potential of noble gas is the highest
28. Which of the following elements have the differ value of electronegativity -
(1) H (2) S (3) Te (4) P

29. In which of the following pairs of elements the electronegativity of first element is less
than that of second element -
(1) Zr, Hf (2) K, Rb
(3) Cl, S (4) None the above

30. Select the group where EN increases down the group -

(1) Ca, Sr, Ba (2) Zn, Cd, Hg
(3) F, Cl, Br (4) Li, Na, K
31. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M1–O–H and M2–O–H are prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5 and H = 2.1, then the nature
of two solutions will be respectively-
(1) acidic, basic (2) acidic, acidic
(3) basic, acidic (4) basic, basic

32. Mark the incorrect statements out of the following :

(1) He has the highest I.E.1 in the periodic table
(2) Cl has the highest E.A. out of all the elements in the periodic table
(3) Hg and Br are liquid at room temperature
(4) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble gas is lowest

33. Which of the following statements concerning elements with atomic number 10 is not
true ?
(1) It forms covalent network solid
(2) Element is monoatomic
(3) It has a zero value of electron affinity
(4) It has extremely high value of ionization energy

34. Which one of the following order of given properties is correct ?

(1) Atomic radius - Li < Be < B
(2) Ionisation potential - Li < Be < B
(3) Electron affinity - Li < Be < B
(4) Electronegativity - Li < Be < B

EXERCISE–II
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 4 3 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
Ans. 4 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 1 4 1 4
 CHEMICAL BONDING (exercise-1)

EXERCISE–I

1. Which one of the following element will never obey octet rule:
(1) Na (2) F (3) S (4) H

2. Which is not an exception to octet rule?

(1) BF2 (2) SnCl4 (3) BeI2 (4) ClO2

3. Which of the molecule is not hypovalent but completes its octet -

(1) AlCl3 (2) AlBr3 (3) AlF3 (4) BF3

4. Which of the following species are hypervalent ?

1. ClO4–, 2. BF3, 3. SO42–,4. CO32–
(1) 1,2,3 (2) 1,3 (3) 3,4 (4) 1,2

5. Which of the following compound is electron defficient?

(1) B2H6,AlCl3 (2) C2H6,Al2Cl6
(3) SF2, Cl2O (4) NaBH4,ICl

6. Which is not exception of octet rule?

(1) BF3 (2) SnCl4
(3) Bel2 (4) SCl4

7. Which of the following is not follow octet rule?

(1) CO2 (2) PCl3
(3) ICl (4) CIF3

8. Most favourable conditions for electrovalent bonding are:

(1) Low ionisation potential of one atom and high electron affinity of the
other atom
(2) High electron affinity and high ionisation potential of both the atom
(3) Low electron affinity and low ionisation potential of both the atoms
(4) High ionisation potential of one atom and low electrons afinity of the
other atom

9. Electrovalent compounds or ionic compounds do not show stereoisomerism.

The reason is:
(1) Presence of ions
(2) Strong electro static force of attraction
(3) Brittleness
(4) Non-directional nature of ionic bond
10. Formula of a metal oxide is MO, formula of its phosphate will be -
(1) M3(PO4)2 (2) MPO4
(3) M2(PO4)2 (4) M2(PO4)3

11. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of :

(1) Free electrons
(2) Free molecules
(3) Free sodium and chloride atoms
(4) Free sodium and chloride ions

12. Which of the following statements about LiCl and NaCl is wrong:
(1) LiCl has lower melting point that NaCl
(2) LiCl dissolves more in organic solvents whereas NaCl does not
(3) LiCl would ionise in water more than NaCl
(4) Fused LiCl would be less conducting than fused NaCl

13. Which of the following bonds will have directional character:

(1) Ionic bond
(2) Metalic bond
(3) Covalent bond
(4) Both covalent & metallic

14. Compound of a metal ‘M’ is M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be -
(1) M3N (2) MN (3) M3N2 (4) M2N3

15. In which of the following pair the boilling point of first compound is not
more than the second
(1) KCl, Cl2 (2) Ne, He
(3) PH3, AsH3 (4) HF, HCl

16. The electronic structure of four elements a, b, c and d are

a = 1s2, b = 1s2, 2s2 2p2, c = 1s2 2s2 2p5,
d = 1s2 2s22p6
The tendency to form electrovalent bond is greates in -
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
17. KCl easily dissolves in water because -
(1) It is a salt of K
(2) It reacts with water
(3) It hydrolysed with water
(4) Its ions are easily solvated

18. An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to combine chemically with
the atom whose atomic number is -
(1) 11 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 10

19. Highest melting point would be of -

(1) AlCl3 (2) LiCl (3) NaCl (4) BeCl2

20. Out of the following the compound with maximum ionic nature are -
(1) Metal oxide (2) Metal chloride
(3) Metal phosphide (4) Metal sulphide

21. The pair of elements which on combination are most likely to form an ionic
compound is
(1) Na and Ca (2) K and O
(3) O and Cl (4) Al and I

22. Which of the following has the lowest melting point -

(1) SrF2 (2) BeF2 (3) BaF2 (4) MgF2

23. Which of the following substance will have highest b.p.t. ?

(1) He (2) CsF
(3) NH3 (4) CHCl3

24. This is not the characteristics of ionic compound-

(1) Brittle nature
(2) Solubility in polar solvent
(3) Directional bond
(4) Conduction of electricity in fused state

25. Which of the following does not show electrical conduction ?

(1) diamond
(2) graphite
(3) sodium chloride (fused)
(4) potassium
26. Among the following which compounds will show the highest lattice energy
?
(1) KF (2) NaF (3) CsF (4) RbF
27. Which of the following compound has highest melting point?
(1) NaCl (2) KCl (3) MgO (4) BaO

28. Which of the following is non-conducting in water?

(1) green vitrol (2) KNO3
(3) alcohol (4) Potash alum

29. The compound which contain both ionic and covalent bonds is -
(1) CH4 (2) HNO3
(3) KNO3 (4) KCl

30. Which compound has the weakest bond?

(1) Diamond (2) Neon(solid)
(3) KCl (4) water (ice)

31. Highest melting point would be of

(1) AlCl3 (2) LiCl
(3) NaCl (4) MgCl2

32. LiCl is soluble in organic solvent while NaCl is not because:

(1) Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl
(2) Ionisation potential of Li is more than that of Na
+ +
(3) Li has more hydration energy than Na ion
(4) LiCl is more covalent compound than that NaCl

33. In solid argon the atoms are held together

(1) by ionic bonds
(2) by hydrogen bonds
(3) By vander-waals forces
(4) By hydrophobic bonds

34. Which pair in the following has maximum and minimum ionic character
respectively:
(1) LiCl, RbCl (2) RbCl, BeCl2
(3) BeCl2, RbCl (4) AgCl, RbCl

35. Which is most ionic:

(1) P2O5 (2) MnO
(3) CrO3 (4) Mn2O7
36. Correct order of polarising power is:
(1) Cs+ < K+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < K+ < Cs+
(3) Mg+ < Al3+ < K+ < Cs+
(4) K+ < Cs+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
37. The correct order of decreasing polarisable ions is :
(1) Cl– > Br– > I– > F–
(2) F– > I– > Br– > Cl–
(3) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–
(4) l– > Br– > Cl– > F–

38. The atomic number of element A and B respectively are 4 and 17. What is
the type of bond formed between A and B?
(1) Ionic (2) Covalent
(3) Polar covalent (4) Coordinate

39. Variable covalency is exhibited by

(1) P and S (2) N and O
(3) N and P (4) F and Cl

40. Which compound of xenon is not possible -

(1) XeF2 (2) XeF4 (3) XeF5 (4) XeF6

41. Nitrogen does not form NF5 because:

(1) Nitrogen is member of V group
(2) It contains no empty d-orbital
(3) The bond energy of NN is very high
(4) Inert pair effect exists in the molecule

42. Which of the following fluorides does not exists?

(1) NF5 (2) PF5 (3) AsF5 (4) SbF5

43. The strength of bonds by 2s – 2s, 2p – 2p and 2p – 2s overlapping has the

order:
(1) s – s > p – p > s – p
(2) s – s > p – s > p – p
(3) p – p > s – p > s – s
(4) p – p > s – s > p – s
44. In which of the excitation state of chlorine ClF3 is formed:
(1) In ground state
(2) In third excitation state
(3) In first excitation state
(4) In second excitation state

45. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?

(1) NH4Cl (2) HCN
(3) H2O2 (4) CH4
46. Which among the following molecules have sp3d hybridisation with one
lone pair of electrons on the central atom ?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4]+
(iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only.

47. The bonds present in N2O5 are:

(1) Only ionic
(2) Covalent & coordinate
(3) Only covalent
(4) Covalent & ionic

48. The pair of compounds which can form a co-ordinate bond is:
(1) (C2H5)3B and (CH3)3N
(2) HCl and HBr
(3) BF3 and NH3
(4) (1) and (3) both

49. Which of the following has no co-ordinate bond ?

(1) PH3 (2) P2H6+2
(3) P2H5+ (4) PH4+

50. By the hybridization of one s & one p orbitals it will be obtained -

(1) Two orbitals mutually at 90º angle
(2) Two orbitals mutually at 180º angle
(3) Two orbitals mutually at 120º angle
(4) Two orbitals mutually at 150º angle
51. Shape of a molecule having 4 bond pairs and two lone pairs of electrons,
will be -
(1) Square planar (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Linear (4) Octahedral

52. In compounds X, all the bond angles are exactly 109°28’. X is -

(1) Chloromethane
(2) Carbon tetrachloride
(3) Iodoform
(4) Chloroform

53. The molecule that has linear structure is -

(1) SiO2 (2) SO2 (3) NO2 (4) CO2
54. In which of the following species the angle arround the central atom is
exactly equal to 109°28’ :
(1) SF4 (2) NH3 (3) NH4+ (4) None

55. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural ?

NO3− , CO32− , ClO3– , SO3
(1) NO3− , CO32– (2) SO3 , NO3−
(3) ClO3− , CO32− (4) CO32− , ClO3−

56. Which of the following match is not correct:

(1) ICI −2 — Linear ion
(2) ICI −4 — Square planar ion
(3) XeF2 — Linear molecule
(4) SO 24− — Trigonal planar ion

57. The hybridization of phosphorous in POCl3 is the same as in:

(1) P in PCl3 (2) S in SF4
(3) Cl in CIF3 (4) B in BCl3

58. The geometrical arrangement and shape of are respectively

(1) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry, linear shape
(2) Hexagonal geometry, T-shape
(3) Triangular planar goemetry, triangular shape
(4) Tetrahedral geometry, pyramidal shape
59. Which of the following set contains species having same angle arround the
central atom:
(1) SF4, CH4, NH3 (2) NF3, BCl3, NH3
(3) BF3, NF3, AlCl3 (4) BF3 BCl3, BBr3

60. The order of increasing bond angle in the molecules BeCl2, BCl3, CCl4 and
SF6 is:
(1) SF6 < CCl4 < BCl3 < BeCl2
(2) BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4 < SF6
(3) SF6 < CCl4 < BeCl2 < BCl3
(4) BCl3 < BeCl2 < SF6 < CCl4

61. Among the following orbital/bonds, the angle is minimum between -

(1) sp3 bonds (2) px and py orbitals
(3) H–O–H in water (4) sp bonds
62. When p-character of hybridised orbital (formed by s and p orbitals)
increases. Then the bond angle -
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Becomes twice
(4) Remains unaltered

63. Match list l with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
List I List II
(Compound) (Shape)
(1) CS2 1. Bent
(2) SO2 2. Linear
(3) BF3 3. Trigonal planer
(4) NH3 4. Tetrahedral
5. Trigonal pyramidal
Code : (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 2 1 3 5
(2) 1 2 3 5
(3) 2 1 5 4
(4) 1 2 5 4

64. CO2 is isostructure with :

(I) HgCl2 (II) SnCl2 (III) NO2 (IV)C2H2
The correct answer is :
(1) I, IV (2) I, II
(3) II, III (4) I, II, III
65. In which mlecule s–p overlapping occurs?
(1) CH3 (2) NH3
(3) H2O (4) None of these

66. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of

(1) Similar electron affinitie of C and Cl
(2) Its regular tetrahedral geometry
(3) its planar geometry
(4) similar sizes of C and Cl atoms

67. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?

(i) PbCl4 (ii) BF3 (iii) SnCl2 (iv) CS2
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

68. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?

(1) o-Dichlorobenzene
(2) m-Dichlorobenzene
(3) p-Dichlorobenzene
(4) All have equal values
69. PCl5 is non polar because
(1) P – Cl bond is non-polar
(2) Its dipole moment is zero
(3) P – Cl bond is polar
(4) P & Cl have equal electronegativity

70. Dipole moment of CO2 is zero which implies that :

(1) Carbon and oxygen have equal electronegativities
(2) Carbon has no polar bond
(3) CO2 is a linear molecule
(4) Carbon has bond moments of zero value

71. Which of the following molecule does not possess a permanent dipole
moment?
(1) H2S (2) SO2 (3) SO32– (4) CS2

72. Which of the following has the highest value of dipole moment?
(1) HCl (2) HF (3) HI (4) HBr

73. Which of the following molecule have zero dipole moment?

(1) BF3 (2) CH2Cl2
(3) NF3 (4) SO2
74. BeF2 has zero dipole moment whereas H2O has dipole moment because:
(1) Water is linear
(2) H2O is bent
(3) F is more electronegative than O
(4) Hydrogen bonding is present in H2O

75. The dipole moment of NH3 is:

(1) Less than dipole moment of NCl3
(2) Higher than dipole moment of NCl3
(3) Equal to the dipole moment of NCl3
(4) None of these

76. The correct oreder of dipole moment is:

(1) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(2) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(3) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O
(4) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4

77. What conclusion can be draw from the fact that BF3 has no dipole moment
but PF3 is does:
(1) BF3 is not symmetrical but PF3 is symmetrical
(2) BF3 molecule must be linear
(3) Atomic radius of P is larger than that of B
(4) BF3 molecule must be planar triangular
78. Dipole moment is shown by:
(1) 1, 4 - dichlorobenzene
(2) Cis 1, 2 - dichloro ethene
(3) Trans -1, 2 - dichloro ethene
(4) benzene

79. The dipole moment of given molecules are such that -

(1) BF3 > NF3 > NH3
(2) NF3 > BF3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > NF3 > BF3
(4) NH3 > BF3 > NF3

80. Maximum number of H–bonding is shown by

(1) H2O (2) H2Se (3) H2S (4) HF

81. Weakest hydrogen bond is:

(1) O – H ......N (2) S – H .....S
(3) F – H ......F (4) N – H .....N
82. The boiling points of methanol, water and dimethyl ether are respectively
65ºC, 100ºC and 34.5ºC. Which of the following best explains these wide
variations in b.p.?
(1) The molecular mass increases from water (18) to methanol (32) to
diethyl ether (74)
(2) The extent of H-bonding decreases from water to methanol while it is
absent in ether
(3) The extent of intramolecular H-bonding decreases from ether to
methanol to water
(4) The density of water is 1.00 g mL–1,methanol 0.7914 g mL–1 and that of
diethyl ether is 0.7137 g mL–1

83. The correct order of volatility is :

(1) NH3 < H2O
(2) p-nitro phenol < o-nitro phenol
(3) CH3OH > CH3 – O – CH3
(4) HF > HCl

84. The crystal lattice of ice is mostly formed by -

(1) Ionic forces
(2) covalent bonds
(3) intramolecular H-bonds
(4) covalent as well as H-bonds
85. The boiling points at atmospheric pressure of HF, H2S, NH3 can be arranged
in the following order -
(1) HF > NH3 > H2S
(2) HF > H2S >NH3
(3) HF < H2S < NH3
(4) HF< NH3 < H2S

86. In ice, the length of H-bonds -

(1) is less than that of covalent bonds
(2) is greater than that of covalent bonds
(3) is same as that of covalent bonds
(4) can be less greater or same as that of covalent bonds

87. Which statement is correct ?

(1) Boiling point of H2O, NH3, HF are maximum in their respective group
due to intermolecular H-bonding
(2) b.p. of CH4 out of CH4, SiH4, GeH4 and SnH4 is least due to weak
intermolecular force of attraction
(3) formic acid forms dimer by H-bonding
(4) all are correct
88. On the basis of molecular orbital theory which molecules does not exist
(1) H2 (2) He2 (3) HeH (4) Li2

89. Maximum bond energy will be shown by the species

(1) O2+ (2) O2 (3) O2– (4) O2–2

90. If the z-axis is the molecular axis, then  MOs are formed by the overlap of
(i) pz and pz (ii) py and py
(iii) sz and pz (iv) px and px
(1) (ii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) (4) (i), (iii)

91. Which of the following is the correct order of stability?

(1) H2 > H2+ > He2 > He2+
(2) H2 > He2+ > H2+ > He2
(3) H2 > H2+ > He2+ > He2
(4) H2 > He2 > H2+ > He2+

92. Bond order in C2+ is

1 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
2 3 2
93. The bond-orders of the given species are such that -
(1) O2– > O2+ > O22– > O2
(2) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
(3) O2+ > O22– > O2– > O2
(4) O22– > O2 > O2+ > O2–

94. Molecular orbital electronic configuration of Be2, will be -

(a) K K, 2s2
(b) K K, 2s2,  * 2s2
(c)  1s2,  * 1s2,2s2,  * 2s2
(d)  1s2,  * 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
Correct answer is -
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, c

95. Which of the following has fractional bond order?

(1) O22+ (2) O22− (3) F22− (4) H −2
96. N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions, N −2 and O−2 respectively. Which of
the following statements is wrong?
(1) In N −2 , N-N bond weakens
(2) In O−2 , O-O bond order increases
(3) In O−2 , O-O bond order decreases
(4) N −2 becomes paramegnetic

97. The energy of 2s orbital is greater, than 1s * orbital because -
(1) 2s orbital is bigger than 1s * orbital
(2) 2s orbital is a bonding orbital where as 1s * is an antibonding orbital

(3) 2s orbital has a greater value of n than 1s * orbital

(4) None

98. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO and having same bond order is:
(1) CN − (2) O+2 (3) O−2 (4) N +2

99. Which of the following is paramagnetic:

(1) O−2 (2) CN − (3) CO (4) NO+

100. The molecule having one unpaired electron is -

(1) NO (2) CO (3) CN– (4) O2

EXERCISE–I
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 1 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 1 3
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 1 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 4 3 1 4 1 1 4 1
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 2 1 4 2 3 1
[Link]. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 1 1 1
 CHEMICAL BONDING (exercise-2)
1. Which of the following molecule is 8. The M.P. of SnCl4 is less than of SnCl2,
having complete octet - the suitable reason for the observed fact is:
(1) BeCl2 (dimer) (2) BeH2 (dimer) (1) There is more charge on Sn+4
(3) BeH2 (s) (4) BeCl2 (s) (2) The size of Sn+4 is small
(3) Ionic potential () of Sn+4 is high
2. In which of the following compounds (4) The shape of SnCl4 is tetrahedral
octet is complete and incomplete for all
atoms - 9. Which type of bond is not present in
Al2Cl6, Al2(CH3)6, AlF3, BeCl2, BeH2 HNO2 molecule -
Dimer Dimer (1) Covalent
(1) IC IC IC C C (2) Co-ordinate
(2) C IC IC C IC (3) Ionic
(3) C IC C IC IC (4) Ionic as well as Co-ordinate
(4) IC C IC IC IC
10. The boiling point of ICl is nearly 40°C
(Note : C for complete octet and IC for
higher than that of Br2 although the two
incomplete octet.)
subtances have the same relative
molecular mass. This is bacause:
3. The molecule exhibiting maximum
(1) ICl is ionic compound
number of non-bonding electron pairs
(2) I-Cl bond is stronger than Br-Br bond
(.p.) around the central atom is -
(3) ICl is polar covalent molecular while
(1) XeOF4 (2) XeO2F2
– Br2 is non polar
(3) XeF3 (4) XeO3
(4) Ionization energy IP of Iodine is less
than that of Br
4. Compound with the highest melting point
is - 11. The pair which have maximum value of
(1) BaCl2 (2) CaCl2
 , would be -
(3) BeCl2 (4) MgCl2
(1) Cs2O, NO2 (2) CO2, ZnO
5. In the Born-Haber cycle for the formation (3) BeO, Al2O3 (4) Cl2O, NO2
of solid common salt (NaCl), the largest 12. Ionic potential () of electropositive
contribution comes from - element will be highest in which of the
(1) the low ionization potential of Na following compound -
(2) the high electron affinity of Cl (1) CsCl (2) MgCl2
(3) the low Hvap of Na(s) (3) AlF3 (4) SF6
(4) the lattice energy
13. In [Fe(CO)5], hybridisation state and
6. For two ionic solids, CaO and KI. Identify number of co-ordinate bonds are -
the wrong statement among the following (1) sp3d, 5 (2) dsp2, 10
- (3) d2sp2, 5 (4) dsp3, 10
(1) Lattice energy of CaO is much larger
than that of KI 14. Which of the following compound is not
(2) KI is soluble in benzene hydrolysed with water ?
(3) CaO has higher melting point (1) SiCl4 (2) NCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) BCl3

15. The nature of -bond in perchlorate

(4) KI has lower melting point (ClO4–) ion is -
(1) O(d) – C(p) (2) O(p) – C(p)
7. Which of the following pairs will form the
most stable ionic bond ? (3) O(p) – C(d) (4) O(d) – Cl(d)
(1) Na and Cl (2) Mg and F 16. The true statements fromt he following are
(3) Li and F (4) Na and F -
(a) PH5, NCl5 and BiCl5 do not exist
 (b) I3+ has bent geometry (1) d x 2 – y2 , d z2 , s, p x , p y
(c) XeF4 is non-polar molecule (2) d xy , s, p x , p y , p z
(d) CO and C2–2 has same bond order
(3) s, px, py, pz, d z2
(e) MgCl2 has more ionic nature than MgO
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d (4) d x 2 – y2 , s, p x , p y
(3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d, e
23. Incorrect code regarding shape is -
17. Which of the following have covalent,
coordinate and ionic all three type of (1) Linear : N3– , (CN)2, ICl2–
bonds - (2) Pyramidal : CH 3– , NH3, XeO3
(a) NH4Cl (b) KNO3 (3) Trigonal planar : CH3 , CH3• , CH3
(c) K3[Fe(CN)6] (d) H2CO3 (4) Tetrahedral : SiH4, Ni(CO)4, [CuBr4]–2
(1) Only c (2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c only (4) a, b, c and d 24. Which is not correct:
18. The group of substances in which at (1) Bond angle H–S–H < H–OH
melting point covalent bond breaks up - (2) Bond angle F–O–F < Cl–O–Cl
(1) Nacl, KCl, CaCl2 (3) Bond angle H–P–H < H–N–H
(2) I2(S), CH4(S), dry ice (4) Bond angle Cl–Sn–Cl > Cl–Hg–Cl
(3) B4C, dimond, SiC
(4) All of the above 25. Which of the following set is not correct?
(1) SO3, O3, NH +4 all have coordinate bonds
19. Linear structure is assumed by -
(2) H2O, NO2, ClO 2– all are ‘V’ shape
(I) NCO– (II) CS2
+
molecules
(III) NO 2 (IV) Solid BeH2 (3) I3 – , ICl2– , NO 2+ ; all are linear molecules
(1) all four (2) (II), (III) and (IV) (4) SF4, SiF4, XeF4 are tetrahedral in shape
(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (II) and (III)
26. In which one of the following species has
20. The shapes of XeF4, XeF5– andSnCl2 are- central atom of different hybridization
(1) octahedral, trigonal bipyramidal and state than the other three ?
bent (1) SiH4 (2) BF4–
(2) Sq. pyramidal, pentagonal planar and (3) CH4 (4) [Ni (CN)4]–2
linear
(3) Sq. Planar, pentagonal planar and 27. Correct statement for the following
angular reaction
(4) See-saw, T-shaped and linear NH3 + H + → NH 4+
21. Which of the following process are (1) hybridised state changed
associated with change of hybridization of (2) bond angle increases
the underlined compound? (3) NH3 act as Lewis acid
(1) Al(OH)3 ppt. dissolved in NaOH (4) regular geometry changed
(2) B2 H 6 is dissolved in THF 28. The hybridization states of the central
(3) SiF4 vapour is passed through liq. HF atoms of the ions I3–, ICl4– and ICl2– are
respectively
(4) Solidification PCl5 vapour (1) sp2, dsp2, sp3
Correct answer is - (2) sp3d, sp3d2 and sp3d
(1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 1, 3, 4 (3) sp3d, sp3d, dsp2
(3) 2, 3, 4 (4) 1, 2, 3 (4) sp, sp, dsp2
22. The AsF5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. 29. Pick out the incorrect statement.
The hybrid orbitals used by the As atoms
for bonding
 (1) sp3d hybridisation involves d x 2 − y2 36. Which of the following molecules are
expected to exhibit intermolecular H-
orbital bonding?
(2) Hybridised orbital form -bond when (I) Acetic acid (II) o-nitrophenol
overlaps with other orbitals. (III) m-nitrophenol (IV) o-boric acid
(3) SF2 molecule is more polar than CS2 Select correct alternate :
(4) o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p- (1) I, II, III (2) I, II, IV
nitrophenol. (3) I, III, IV (4) II, III, IV
30. Species having zero dipole moment: 37. Incorrect order of viscosity
(1) XeF4 (2) SO2 (1) H2SO4 > HNO3
(3) SF4 (4) CH2Cl2 (2) H2O > CH3OH
(3) o-nitro phenol > p-nitro phenol
31. Which of the following species are (4) Glycol > ether
symmetrical
(a) XeF4 (b) XeF6 38. Which of the following can form H-Bond
(c) SO2 (d) NH3+2 with water?
Correct answer is - (1) HCN (2) NH4F
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, d (3) NaHCO3 (4) All
39. Which of the following does not form a
32. Decreasing order of dipole moment of the hydrogen bond with water?
following compounds is - (1) (CH3)2CO (2) CH3CN
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3OH (4) C2H6
40. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The
NO2 NO2 compound contains the species
(A) (B) (C)
(1) K+, F– and H+ (2) K+, F– and HF
(1) A > B > C (2) C > A > B (3) K+ and [HF2]– (4) [KHF]+ and F2
(3) C > B > A (4) A > C > B
41. The pair of molecules forming strongest
33. For which of the following molecule hydrogen bonds are
significant µ  0 (1) SiH4 and SiF4
Cl CN OH SH (2) CH 3 − C −CH 3 and CHCl3
(a) (b) (c) (d) ||
O
Cl CN OH SH
(1) Only (c) (2) (c) and (d) (3) H − C − OH and CH 3 − C − OH
|| ||
(3) Only (a) (4) (a) and (b) O O
(4) H2O and H2
34. Which of the following order of polarities
of molecules is correct? 42. Which is the weakest among the following
(1) HF > NH3 > PH3 types of bonds?
(2) CH4 > NH3 > H2O (1) Debye force
(3) CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 (2) Metallic bond
(4) BF3 > BeF2 > F2 (3) Dipole-dipole bond
(4) Hydrogen bond
35. Which set of molecules is polar?
(1) XeF4, IF7, SO3 43. Which of the following compounds show
(2) PCl5, C6H6, SF6 intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(3) SnCl2, SO2, NO2 (A) o-nitrophenol (B) p-nitrophenol
(4) CO2, CS2, C2H6 (C) phenol (D) salicylaldehyde
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) A and D (4) B and C
44. Incorrect order of melting point and 52. In which of the following compounds
boiling point - resonance does not occurs -
(1) NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3 (a) H2O (b) SiO2
(2) HF > HBr > HCl (c) SO3 (d) CO2
(3) H2O > HF > NH3 Correct answer is -
(4) H2O > C2H5OH > CH3 – O–CH3 (1) a and d (2) a and b
(3) c and d (4) b, c and d
45. The intermolecular force in hydrogen
fluoride is due to - 53. Which one is the most resonance
(1) Dipole-induced dipole interaction stabilized amongest the following -
(2) Dipole -dipole interactions (1) NO3– (2) NO2–
(3) Hydrogen bond (3) SO2 (4) O3
(4) Disperson interaction
54. In PO43–, the formal charge on each
46. Correct order of volatility - oxygen atom and the P–O bond order
(1) H2SO4 > HNO3 respectively are
(2) H2O > CH3OH (1) – 0.75, 0.6 (2) – 0.75, 1.0
(3) o-nitro phenol > p-nitro phenol (3) – 0.75, 1.25 (4) – 3, 1.25
(4) Glycol > ether
55. In which of the following set, the value of
47. Increasing strength of H–bonding (X --- bond order will be 2.5
H–X) in S, O,F,Cl,N is - (1) O2+, NO, NO+2, CN
(1) Cl, S, N,O, F (2) N, Cl, S, O, F (2) CN, NO+2, CN–, F2
(3) S, Cl, N, O, F (4) S, N, Cl, O, F (3) O2+, NO+2, O2+2, CN–
(4) O22+, O2–, O2+, O2
48. In CuSO4.5H2O bond presents :
(1) Coordinate Bond 56. Of the following species which has the
(2) Covalent and Coordinate highest bond order and shortest bond
(3) Covalent, Coordinate, Ionic and H-bond length
(4) only ionic NO, NO+, NO2+, NO–
(1) NO only
49. In which of the following molecule, the (2) Bond order of NO is highest and bond
shown hydrogen bond is not possible: length of NO2+ is shortest
H
(3) NO+ only
O
O (4) NO2+ only
H H C
(1) N H N H (2) O 57. The diamagnetic molecule is
H H H (1) Super oxide ion
O
O H Cl H (2) Oxygen molecule
O (3) Carbon molecule
(3) (4) Cl Cl C H
(4) Unipositive ion of nitrogen molecule
O
Cl H
ON O 58. Which of the following molecule contains
net -bond only?
50. Correct order of volatility is
(1) B2 (2) C2
(1) NH3 < H2O
(3) C2–2 (4) Both 1 & 2
(2) p-nitrophenol < o-nitrophenol
(3) CH3OH > CH3 – O – CH3 59. The incorrect statement is
(4) HF > HCl (1)  * p have two nodal planes
51. Resonance is not shown by - (2) Bond order of HeH+ is 0.5
(1) C6H6 (2) CO2 (3) In NCO–, C is sp hybridised
(3) CO32– (4) SiO2 (4) O3 is polar while O2 is non polar
60. Which one of the following molecules is
expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?
(1) C2 (2) N2– (3) O2 (4) S2

61. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that is

NO+ is 3. Which of the following
statements is true for these two species?
(1) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in
NO
(2) Bond length in NO is greater than in
NO+
(3) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in
NO
(4) Bond length is unpredictable

62. The paramagnetic property of the oxygen

molecule is due to the presence of
unpaired electrons present in
(1) (2px)1 and (  * 2px)1
(2) (2px)1 and (2py)1
(3) (  * 2py)1 and (  * 2px)1
(4) (  * 2py)1 and (2py)1

63. In which of the following ionisation

processes, the bond order has increased
and the magnetic behaviour has changed
(1) NO → NO+ (2) O2 → O2+
(3) N2 → N2+ (4) C2 → C2+

64. Which of the following species exhibits

the diamagnetic behaviour?
(1) O2+ (2) O2 (3) NO (4) O22–
 EXERCISE–II
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 3
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 1 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 3 4 4 3
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 1 4 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 1
[Link]. 61 62 63 64
Ans. 2 3 1 4
 HYDROGEN (exercise-1)
1. Hydrogen has three isotops, the number of 8. Hydrogen readily combines with metals
possible molecule will be – and thus shows its
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12 (1) Electropositive character
(2) Electronegative character
2. Which of the following statement is not (3) both (1) and (2)
true for 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 respectively –
(4) None of these
(1) They are isotopes of each other
(2) They have similar electronic
configuration 9. Which acid used in formation of H2 gas ?
(3) They exist in the nature in the ratio (1) Concentrated H2SO4
[Link] (2) Conc. HNO3
(4) Their atomic masses are in the ratio (3) Dilute HNO3
[Link] (4) Dilute HCl

3. Hydrogen has the tendency to lose one e– 10. Which of following reaction does not
and formation of H+, In this respect it form H2?
resembles with : (1) Fe + H2SO4 (2) Sn + H2SO4
(1) Alkali metal
(3) Cu + H2SO4 (4) Zn + H2SO4
(2) Carbon
(3) Alkaline earth metal
(4) Halogens 11. Match List I (Fuels) with List II
(composition) and select the correct
4. Hydrogen is : answer using the codes given below the
(1) Electropositive lists
(2) Electronegative List I (Fuels) List II(Composion)
(3) Both electropositive as well as A. water gas i. A mixture of CO
electronegative and N2
(4) Neither electropositive nor B. Producer gas ii. Methane
electronegative
C. Coal gas iii. A mixture of
CO and H2
5. False statement for H atom
(1) It resembles halogens in some D. Natural gas iv. A mixture of
properties. CO, H2, CH4 and
(2) It resembles alkali metals in some CO2
properties A B C D
(3) It cannot be placed in Ist group of (1) iii i iv ii
periodic table (2) iii i ii iv
(4) It can be placed in 17th group periodic (3) i iii iv ii
table (4) iii ii iv i
6. Which is the lightest gas ?
12. Which of the following metals give H2 on
(1) Nitrogen (2) Helium
(3) Oxygen (4) Hydrogen reaction with NaOH :
I : Zn, II : Mg, III : Al, IV : Be
7. Hydrogen readily combines with non- (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, IV
metals and thus it shows its (3) II, IV (4) I, III
(1) Electronegative character
(2) Electropositive character 13. H2 gas cannot be prepared by :
(3) both (1) and (2) (1) Be + NaOH (2) Pb + NaOH
(4) None of these (3) Mg + NaOH (4) Sn + NaOH
14. Which combination cannot be used for the 21. Weakest reducing agent :
preparation of hydrogen gas in the (1) Atomic hydrogen
laboratory ? (2) Nascent hydrogen
I. zinc/conc. H2SO4 ; (3) Molecular hydrogen
II. zinc/dil. HNO3 (4) All
III. pure zinc/dil. H2SO4
22. The correct order of reactivity among
(1) I and II (2) I, II, III
I (atomic hydrogen); II (Dihydrogen) and
(3) III only (4) I and III III (Nascent hydrogen) is
(1) I > II > III (2) I > III > II
15. In which reaction H2 gas evolved. (3) II > III > I (4) III > II > I.
(1) Zn + H2SO4 (conc.) →
(2) Zn + NaOH (conc.) → 23. The adsorption of hydrogen by platinum is
(3) F2 + H2O → known as
(4) Cl2 + H2O → (1) Hydrogenation
(2) Reduction
16. Hydrogen does not combine with (3) Dehydrogenation
(1) Antimony (2) Sodium (4) Occlusion
(3) Bismuth (4) Helium
24. Nascent hydrogen consists of
(1) Hydrogen atoms with excess of energy
17. Which of the following produces
(2) Hydrogen molecules with excess
hydrolith with dihydrogen energy
(1) Mg (2) Al (3) Cu (4) Ca (3) Hydrogen ions in excited state
(4) Solvated protons
18. Hydrogen combines with other elements
by : 25. Hydride gap in periodic table is from:
(1) Losing an electron (1) Group 7 to group 9
(2) Gaining an electron (2) Group 5 to group 7
(3) Sharing an electron (3) Group 4 to group 6
(4) Losing, gainig or sharing electron (4) Group 7 to group 10

19. Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent and 26. A molten ionic hydride on electrolysis
thus resembles gives :
(1) H2 is liberated at anode
(1) Halogen
(2) H2 is liberated at cathode
(2) Noble gas
(3) H+ ions moving towards the cathode
(3) Radioactive elements (4) H+ ions moving towards the anode
(4) Alkali metals
27. The hydrides of the first elements in
20. Which is true about different forms of groups 15-17 namely NH3, H2O and HF
hydrogen : respectively show abnormally high values
(1) ortho hydrogen has same spins of two for melting and boiling points. This is due
nuclei clockwise or anticlockwise to :
(2) para hydrogen has different spins of (1) small size of N, O and F
two nuclei (2) the ability to form extensive
(3) at absolute zero, there is 100% para intermolecular H-bonding
form and at high temperature, there is 75% (3) the ability to form extensive
intramolecular H-bonding
ortho form
(4) Effective vander Waal's interaction
(4) all are correct
28. Which of the following is electron rich 37. Which of the following statements about
hydride? H2O2 is not true –
(1) CH4 (2) HF (3) B2H6 (4) None (1) Both oxidising and reducing agent
(2) Two hydroxyl group of H2O2 lie in the
29. H2O2 can be obtained when following same plane
reacts with H2SO4 except with : (3) Same structure in liquid and solid form
(4) None of these
(1) PbO2 (2) BaO2
(3) Na2O2 (4) KO2
38. Bleaching action of H2O2 is due to its :
(1) Oxidising nature
30. HCl is added to the following oxides, (2) Reducing nature
which one would give H2O2 ? (3) Acidic nature
(1) BaO2 (2) MnO2 (4) Thermal instability
(3) PbO2 (4) NO2
39. Acidic order of following compounds is :
31. In the Merck's process, the reagents (I) H2O2, (II) H2O, (III) H2, (IV) D2O
involved for the preparation of hydrogen (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > IV > III
peroxide are (3) IV > I > II > III (4) I > II > IV > III
(1) BaO2, HCl (2) Na2O2, H2SO4
(3) BaO2, H2CO3 (4) PbO2, H2O 40. Among the following, identify the
compound which can act as both oxidizing
32. The oxide that gives hydrogen peroxide and reducing agents
on the treatment with a dilute acid is (1) H2O2 (2) H2 (3) SO2 (4) All
(1) MnO2 (2) PbO2
(3) Na2O2 (4) TiO2 41. In which of the following reaction
hydrogen peroxide is a reducing agent
33. Hydrogen peroxide is manufactured by (1) 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + 2H2O
the auto oxidation of (2) Cl2 + H2O ⎯→ 2HCl + O2
(1) Naphthalene (3) 2HI + H2O2 ⎯→ 2H2O + I2
(2) Anthracene (4) H2SO3 + H2O2 ⎯→ H2SO4 + H2O
(3) 2-Butyl anthraquinol
(4) None 42. Correct ORDER of acidity & dielectric
constant is
34. In the reaction 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 (1) H2O2 > D2O > H2O
(2) D2O > H2O2 > H2O
oxidation state of oxygen changes as :
(3) H2O2 > H2O > D2O
(1) Only – 1 to –2
(4) None
(2) Only – 1 to zero
(3) Both of the above 43. Correct order of BP is :-
(4) –1 to –3 (1) H2 > H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2
(2) H2O2 > H2 > D2O > H2O > D2
35. H2O2 does not act as : (3) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2 > H2
(1) oxidant, reductant (4) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > H2 > D2
(2) bleaching agent
(3) antiseptic 44. Decomposition of H2O2 retarded by :
(4) catalyst NH—C—CH3
(1) O (2) MnO2
36. An aqueous solution of H2O2 (Acetanilide)
(1) Alkaline (2) Neutral (3) Zn (4) Colloidal Ni
(3) Strongly acidic (4) weekly acidic
45. The dipole moment of H2O2 is 2.1D. This 53. Heavy water reacts respectively with CO2,
indicates that the structure of H2O2 is : SO3, P2O5 and N2O5 to give the
(1) Linear (2) Non-linear compounds :
(3) Symmetrical (4) None (1) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO2, DNO2
(2) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO4, DNO2
46. The structure of H2O2 is (3) D2CO3, D2SO3, D3PO4, DNO2
H (4) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO4, DNO3
H H
(1) (2) O O
O O 54. Which of the following pairs produce
H
deutronitric acid
H (1) NO2, H2O (2) NO, D2O
(3) H—O—O—H (4) O O (3) N2O5, D2O (4) N2, D2O
OH
55. Heavy water is not used for drinking
because:
47. Which of following true structure of
(1) It is poisonous.
F2O2?
F (2) It is costly.
(3) It physiological action is different
O
(1) (2) F—O—O—F from ordinary water.
O (4) Its chemical properties are different
F from ordinary water.
(3) None (4) Both
56. The geometry of water molecule is same
48. Density of H2O is maximum at: as that of :
(1) 0º C (2) 100º C (1) Chlorine oxide
(3) –273º C (4) 4ºC (2) Boron trifluoride
(3) CO2
49. Which is true statement about D2O and (4) C2H4
H2O :
(1) D2O has lower dielectric constant than 57. High boiling point of water is due to :
H2O (1) High dielectric constant
(2) NaCl is more soluble in D2O than in (2) Low dissociation constant
H2O (3) It's high specific heat
(3) both are correct (4) Hydrogen bonding
(4) none is correct
58. Water acts as excellent solvent due to :
50. Which does not react with cold water : (1) Neutral nature
(1) Sic (2) AIN (3) CaC2 (4) Al4C3 (2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) High dielectric constant
51. Deuteromethane can be prepare if D2O
(4) None of these
reacts with
(1) Al4C3 (2) CaC2
59. Temporary hardness of water due to
(3) Both (4) None
presence of :
(1) CaCl2, MgSO3
52. 4D2O + 3Fe ⎯⎯⎯ Redhot
→ Fe3 O4 + gas. The
(2) Ca+2, Mg+2
gas produced in the above reaction is:
(3) K, CaCO3
(1) O2 (2) H2 (3) D2 (4) None
(4) Ca(HCO3)2, Mg(HCO3)2
60. The formula of sodium zeolite which is
used in permutit process for softening
water is
(1) Na2O. Al2O3. Si2O4.xH2O
(2) Na2O. Al2. Si2O4.xH2O
(3) Na2O. AlO3. SiO4.xH2O
(4) K2Al2SiO8.xH2O

61. Permutit is a technical name given to:

(1) Aluminates of Ca and Na
(2) Hydrated silicates of Al and Na
(3) Silicates of Ca and Na
(4) Silicates of Ca and Mg

62. Hard water when passed through ion

exchange resin containing RCOOH
group, becomes free from
(1) Cl– (2) SO4–2 (3) H3O+ (4) Ca+2

63. When zeolite is treated with hard water the

sodium ion are exchange with
(1) H+ (2) Ca+2 (3) OH– (4) SO42–

64. When zeolite (Hydrated sodium

aluminium silicate) is treated with hard
water the sodium ions are exchanged with
(1) OH ions (2) SO42– ions
2+
(3) Ca ions (4) H+ ions

65. Temporary hardness of water can be

removed by
(1) Addition of potassium permanganate
(2) boiling
(3) Filtration
(4) Addition of chlorine

66. Which of the following can effectively

remove all types of hardness of water
(1) Soap (2) Washing soda
(3) Slaked lime (4) None of these
 HYDROGEN (exercise 2)
1. Which of the following process can be use (2) Reaction with KMnO4 in acid medium
to obtain high purity dihydrogen - (3) Reaction with a ferrous salt
(1) Zn + 2NaOH ⎯→ Na2ZnO2 + H2 (4) Reaction with lodides
(2) Castner-kellener cell
(3) C + H2O ⎯→ CO + H2
8. Acidified K2Cr2O7 on oxidation by H2O2
(4) Electrolysis of warm aqueous barium
hydroxide solution between nickel gives :
electrodes. (1) CrO5
(2) Blue solution
2. Which of the following is water gas shift (3) Chromium peroxide
reaction ? (4) All of these
(1) CH4 + H2O ⎯⎯1270K
Ni
→ CO + 3H2
(2) C + H2O ⎯⎯
1270K
Ni
→ CO + H2 9. H2O2 restores the colour of old lead
paintings, blackened by the action of H2S
(3) CO + H2O ⎯⎯→
673K
CO2 + H2
catalyst gas, by :
(4) C + O2 ⎯⎯ → CO2
573K
(1) By oxidising PbS to PbSO4
(2) Converting PbCO3 to Pb
3. Which of the following process is called, (3) Converting PbO2 to Pb
coal gasification. (4) Oxidising PbSO3 to PbSO4
(1) CH4 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯ 1270k
Ni
→ CO + 3H2
(2) C + H2O ⎯⎯⎯
1270K
→ CO + H2 10. An inorganic compound liberates O2 when
(3) CO + H2O ⎯⎯⎯→673k
Catalyst
CO2 + H2 heated and turns an acid solution of KI
Violet and reduces acidified KMnO4. The
(4) C + O2 ⎯⎯⎯
573K
→ CO2
substance is:
4. Which property of hydrogen do not (1) KNO3 (2) Pb(NO3)
resemble with alkali metals? (3) H2O2 (4) D2O
(1) Electronic configuration
(2) Lose one electron to form unipositive 11. Decolourisation of acidified potassium
ion permanganate occurs when H2O2 is added
(3) Forms oxides, halides and sulphides to it. This is due to:
(4) Ionisation enthalpy
(1) Reduction of KMnO4
5. Which is correct? (2) Oxidation of KMnO4
(1) Isotopes shows similar chemical (3) Both oxidation and reduction of
properties due to presence of same no. KMnO4
of p+. (4) None of these
(2) H, D & T shows isotop effect due to
presence of same number of e–. 12. Acidified solution of chromic acid on
(3) Bond energy of D2 is less then H2 due
treatment with H2O2 yields:
to greater reduce mass D2.
(4) None of the above (1) CrO5 + H2O + K2SO4
(2) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + O2
6. Deuterium resembles hydrogen in (3) CrO3 + H2O + O2
chemical properties but reacts: (4) Cr2O2 + H2O + O2
(1) More vigorously than hydrogen 13. In the hydrogen peroxide molecule:
(2) Just as hydrogen (1) The four atoms are arranged in a non-
(3) Slower than hydrogen linear and non planar manner
(4) Faster than hydrogen (2) O–H bonds are polar but molecule is
7. H2O2 acts as a reducing agent in its: non-polar
(1) Reaction with lead sulphide
 (3) Two hydrogen atoms are connected on (1) Ca(HCO3)2 (2) Ca2Na2P6O18
one of the oxygen (3) Ca2P2O7 (4) both (2) & (3)
(4) All the four atoms are in the same 21. Species that is not correctly matched
plane. according to given method
14. Which is not true in case of H2O2: (1) Clark’s method : Ca(OH)2
(1) It is decomposed by MnO2 (2) Calgon method : Na2P6O182–
(2) It behaves as reducing agent towards (3) Permutit method : NaAlSiO4
KMnO4
(3) It is more stable in case of Sun light (4) Synthetic resin method : RSO3Na
(4) It acts as oxidizing agent as well as 22. Which is not correctly, matched
reducing agent in acid and basic Process Remove hardness
solutions both. (1) Boiling Temporary
15. Which of the following statement is (2) Clark’s Temporary
correct for H2O2? (3) Ion exchange Both temporary &
Permanent
(1) It is a planar structure
(4) All are correct
(2) It is a non planar structure and has
dihedral angle (solid phase) > dihedral 23. Which one of the following process will
angle (gas phase) produce permanent hard water?
(3) It is a non planar structure and has (1) Addition of Na2SO4 to water
dihedral angle (solid phase) < dihedral (2) Saturation of water with Ca(HCO3)2
angle (gas phase)
(4) It is a non planar structure and has (3) Saturation of water with MgCO3
same dihedral angle in solid as well as (4) Saturation of water with CaSO4
gas phase 24. Zeolites are extensively used in:
16. Hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified (1) Increasing the hardness of water
potassium dichromate, to produce blue (2) Softening of water and catalyst
colour by: (3) Preparing heavy water
(4) Mond’s process
(1) Cr2O72– (2) CrO42–
(3) CrO5 (4) Cr2O3 25. Hydrogen does not obtained when zinc
reacts with:
17. In which of the following reaction
(1) [Link] (2) Hot 20% NaOH
hydrogen peroxide is a reducing agent? (3) Cold water (4) dil. H2SO4
(1) 2FeCl2+2HCl+H2O2→2FeCl3+2H2O
26. Point out the incorrect statement:
(2) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2 (1) Permanent hardness is due to sulphates
and chlorides of Ca and Mg
(3) HI + H2O2 → 2H2O + I2
(2) Permanent hardness can be removed
(4) H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O by boiling water
18. The correct order in which the O–O bond (3) Hardness of water depends upon its
length increasing in the following: soap consuming power
(1) O3 < H2O2 < O2 (2) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (4) Temporary hardness is due to
(3) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (4) H2O2 < O2 < O3 bicarbonates of calcium and
magnesium
19. Which one of the following removes
temporary hardness of water? 27. In calgon process of water softening when
(1) Slaked lime (2) Plaster of paris Na6P6O18 displace Ca+2 ions of hard water,
(3) CaCO3 (4) Hydrolith which of the following compound is
formed ?
20. In calgon process of water softening when (1) Ca(HCO3)2 (2) Ca2Na2P6O18
Na6P6O18 displace Ca+2 ions of hard water, (3) Ca2P2O7 (4) Both (2) & (3)
which of the following compounds is
formed -
 HYDROGEN (exercise 3)

EXERCISE – III
1. Which of the following reaction produces 5. The H–O–H angle in water molecule is
hydrogen? [AIIMS 2005] about [AIIMS 2011]
(1) Mg + H2O (2) BaO2 + HCI (1) 90º (2) 180º (3) 102º (4) 105º
(3) H2S4O8 + H2O (4) Na2O2 + 2HCl
6. When two ice cubes are pressed over each
2. Some statements about heavy water are other, they unite to form one cube. Which
given below [AIPMT 2005] of the following forces is responsible to
(i) Heavy water is used as a moderator in hold them together?
nuclear reactors. [AIIMS 2012]
(ii) Heavy water is more associated than (1) Hydrogen bond formation
ordinary. (2) vander walls forces
(iii) Heavy water is more effective solvent (3) Covalent attraction
than ordinary water. (4) Ionic interaction
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iii) 7. Which of the following statements about
hydrogen is incorrect? [AIIMS 2016]
3. Which of the following is correct for
(1) Dihydrogen acts as a reducing agent
hydrogen? [AIIMS 2009] (2) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which
(1) It can form bonds in +1 as well as – 1 tritium is the most common
oxidation state (3) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic
(2) It is always collected at cathode only salts
(3) It has one less e– then inert gas (4) Hydronium ion, H3O+, exists freely in
(4) It has same electronegativity as halogens. solution.

4. Which of the following process permanent

hardness of water can be removed, by
adding [AIIMS 2010]
(1) Soda lime
(2) Sodium bicarbonate
(3) Washing soda
(4) Sodium chloride
 EXERCISE # I

[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 1 4
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 1 4 4
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 4 1
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 2 4 2 3 2 2

EXERCISE # II

[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 2
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 2 4 4 2 3 2 2

EXERCISE # III

[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 1 1 1 3 4 1 2
 S-BLOCK (exercise 1)

1. Which of the following electronic (3) Rb+ (aq.) (4) Li+ (aq.)
configurations in the outermost two shells
is characteristic of the alkaline earth 8. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in
metals ? aqueous solution is maximum for –
(1) (n – 1)s2p6ns2 (2) (n – 1)s2p6d10ns2 (1) Li+ (2) Na+ (3) K+ (4) Rb+
(3) (n – 1)s2p6ns2p1 (4) None of these
9. Aqueous solutions of lithium salts are not
2. Which of the following configurations good conductors of electricity, because
represents the s–block element ? of–
(1) [Ar]3d104s1 (2) [Ne]3s2 3p1 (1) High hydration energy of Li ion
(3) [He] 2s22p63s1 (4) None of these
(2) High ionization energy of Li ion
3. The similarity in the properties of alkali (3) Small size of Li ion
metals is due to : (4) Non-metallic character of Li ion
(1) their same atomicity.
(2) similar outer shell electron 10. Atomic radii of alkali metals (M) follow
configuration. the order : Li < Na < K < Rb but ionic radii
(3) same energy of valence shell. in aqueous solution follows the reverse
(4) same principal quantum number of order Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+. The reason
valence shell. for the reverse order is -
(1) Increase in the ionisation energy
4. Which one of the following metals is
largest in the periodic table ? (2) Decrease in the metallic bond
(1) K (2) Cs (3) Zn (4) Ba character
(3) Increase in the electropositive
5. The set representing the correct order of character
ionic radius is :
(4) Decrease in the amount of hydration
(1) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+
(2) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ 11. The most electropositive amongst the
(3) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ alkaline earth metals is :
(4) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+ (1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Ba

6. The hydration enthalpies of alkali metal 12. The ionization enthalpy of alkaline earth
ions : metals is :
(1) decrease with increasing ionic size
(1) greater than elements of 1 and 13
down the group.
groups.
(2) increase with increase in ionic size
(2) less than alkali metals.
down the group.
(3) remain same with increase ionic size (3) greater than alkali metals.
down the group. (4) equal to alkali metals.
(4) first decrease from Li to K and then 13. Which of the following statement is
increase of Rb to Cs. incorrect ?
(1) The atomic radius of Na is greater than
7. In aqueous solution, the largest ion is -
that of Mg.
(1) Na+ (aq.) (2) Cs+ (aq.)
 (2) Metallic bond of Mg is stronger than
the metallic bond in Na. 19. The density of –
(3) Melting and boiling points of Mg are (1) Na > K (2) Na = K
less than those of Ca. (3) K > Na (4) Li > K
(4) Mg and Ca both impart characteristic
colour to the flame. 20. Strong reducing agent of alkali metals is :
(1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Cs
14. Which one of the following properties
increases on moving down the group from 21. In K, Rb and Cs, the decreasing order of
Li to Cs ? reducing power in gaseous state is –
(1) Melting point (1) K > Cs > Rb (2) Cs > Rb > K
(2) Hardness of metals
(3) K < Cs < Rb (4) Rb > Cs > K
(3) Tendency to lose electron
(4) Metallic bond strength+ 22. Strong reductant in IIA and IA group is
(1) Ba, Li (2) Li, Be
15. Which is having highest m.p. –
(3) Cs, Ba (4) Ba, Cs
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Sr

16. With the increase in atomic weights 23. Weak reductant in alkali metal is –
melting points of the alkali metals (1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Cs
(1) increase
(2) Decrease 24. Which of the following alkaline earth
metals is strongest reducing agent
(3) Remain constant
(1) Ca (2) Sr (3) Ba (4) Mg
(4) do not show definite trend

17. Select the correct statement. 25. In vies of their low ionisation energies the
(1) Density of alkali metals regularly alkali metals are -
increases in moving down the group (1) Weak oxidising agents
from Li to Cs. (2) Strong reducing agents
(2) Group 1 elements are the largest in (3) Strong oxidising agents
their horizontal periods in the periodic
(4) Weak reducing agents
table (exclude noble gases).
(3) The melting and boiling points of 26. Strong reductant in IIA and IA group in
group 1 elements increases on moving gas medium –
down from Li to Cs.
(1) Ba, Li (2) Li, Be
(4) Alkali metals are more harder than
(3) Cs, Ba (4) Ba, Cs
alkaline earth metals.
27. Consider the following points -
18. The correct order of density of following
elements is : (Mg, Ca, Sr) (A)Cs is the strongest reducing agent in IA
group element
(1) Mg > Ca > Sr (2) Ca > Mg > Sr
(B) Be does not form peroxide in II A
(3) Ca < Mg < Sr (4) Mg < Ca < Sr group elements
 (C) The density of potassium is less than 33. A fire work gives out crimson coloured
sodium light. It contains a salt of
(D)In alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, (1) Ca (2) Na (3) Sr (4) Ba
lithium has the minimum value of
M.P. 34. The yellow coloured flame is of –
Correct statement are - (1) Na (2) K (3) Ca (4) Ba
(1) (A) & (B) are correct
(2) (A), (B) & (C) are correct 35. On allowing ammonia solution of s-block
(3) (B) & (C) are correct metals to stand for a long time, blue colour
(4) (B), (C) & (D) are correct becomes fade. The reason is
(1) Formation of NH3 gas
28. Select the correct statement with respect (2) Formation of metal amide
to alkali metals.
(3) Cluster formation of metal ions
(1) Melting points decrease with
increasing atomic number. (4) Formation of metal nitrate
(2) Density of potassium is less then
36. On heating sodium metal in the current of
sodium
dry ammonia leads to the formation of
(3) Salts of Li to Cs impart characteristic
which gas–
colour to flame.
(1) NaNH2 (2) NaN3
(4) All of these.
(3) NH3 (4) H2
29. In India at the occasion of marriages, the
fire works used give green flame. Which 37. An element having electronic
one of the following radicals may be configuration 1s 2s 2p , 3s , 3p6, 4s1 will
2 2 6 2

present ? form –
(1) Na+ (2) K+ (3) Ba2+ (4) Ca2+ (1) Acidic oxide
30. Alkali metals give colour in Bunsen flame (2) Basic oxide
due to (3) Amphoteric oxide
(1) Low ionization potential (4) Neutral oxide
(2) low m.p.
(3) softness 38. Which of the following is an amphoteric
oxide -
(4) one electron in outermost orbit
(1) CaO (2) SrO (3) BeO (4) MgO
31. Which of the following does not give
flame colouration - 39. In the presence of oxygen, on heating,
(1) MgCl2 (2) BaCl2 lithium forms
(3) CaCO3 (4) SrCO3 (1) LiO (2) LiO2 (3) Li2O (4) Li2O2

32. Which of the following imparts violet 40. The basic strength of which hydroxide is
colouration to the Bunsen burner non- maximum ?
luminous flame - (1) LiOH (2) NaOH
(1) NaCl (2) BaCl2 (3) CaCl2 (4) KCl (3) CsOH (4) KOH

41. Cesium oxide will be –

 (1) Very strongly basic
50. Oxygen ions structure in its peroxide,
(2) Acidic
superoxide, oxide -
(3) Weakly basic
(1) O2–, O22+, O2–2 (2) O2–2, O2–, O–2
(4) Amphoteric
(3) O2–2, O–2, O2– (4) O2–, O2–2, O–2
42. A compound which can be used in space
51. Which is used in purification of air in the
vehicles to absorb CO2 and liberate O2 is space craft -
–
(1) Slaked lime
(1) NaOH (2) Na2O
(2) Quick lime
(3) Na2O2 (4) CaO + NaOH
(3) Potassium superoxide
43. Which metal will not form superoxide: (4) CaCl2
(1) Li (2) Be (3) Na (4) All
52. Which of the following is paramagnetic
44. Which of the following elements form (1) K2O (2) K2O2 (3) KO2 (4) Na2O
super oxide as major product when heated
53. Which of the following oxide having O2–2
in excess of air ?
(peroxide) anion:
(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Cs (4) Li
(1) Na2O (2) BaO2 (3) RbO2 (4) KO2
45. Sodium burns in dry air to give :
54. When Na and Li placed in dry air we get:
(1) Na2O (2) Na2O2
(1) NaOH, Na2O, Li2O
(3) NaO2 (4) Na3N
(2) Na2CO3, Na2O2, Li2O
46. The oxide that gives hydrogen peroxide (3) Na2O, Li3N
on treatment with a dilute cold acid is : (4) Na2O, Li2O, Li3N
(1) PbO2 (2) Na2O2 (3) MnO2 (4) SnO2
55. The alkali metal that reacts with nitrogen
47. Which of the following are not amphoteric directly to form nitride is
- (1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Rb
(A) Be(OH)2 (B) Sr(OH)2
56. A piece of magnesium ribbon was heated
(C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Al(OH)3
to redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen
(1) A & C (2) B & C
and on cooling water was added, the gas
(3) A & D (4) B & D evolved was -
48. Which one of the following is most basic? (1) Ammonia (2) Hydrogen
(1) BeO (2) MgO (3) SiO2 (4) P2O5 (3) Nitrogen (4) Oxygen
49. Quick lime and slaked lime respectively 57. One mole of magnesium nitride on the
are - reaction with an excess of water gives –
(1) CaCO3 & Ca(OH)2 (1) Two moles of ammonia
(2) CaO & Ca(OH)2 (2) One mole of nitric acid
(3) Ca(OH)2 & CaO (3) One mole of ammonia
(4) CaO & CaCO3 (4) Two moles of nitric acid
58. Which pair form same gas product with 67. The minimum equivalent conductance in
water – fused state is shown by -
(1) Ca, CaO (2) Ca, CaH2 (1) MgCl2 (2) BeCl2
(3) Na, Na2O (4) Na2O, CaO (3) CaCl2 (4) SrCl2

59. A compound which upon hydrolysis 68. Lithium chloride is highly soluble in –
releases ammonia is – (1) C6H6 (2) H2O (3) D2O (4) All
(1) Li3N (2) LiNO3
69. MgBr2 and MgI2 are soluble in acetone
(3) NaNO3 (4) None of these
because of –
60. Which of the following hydrides is not (1) Their ionic nature
ionic - (2) Their covalent nature
(1) CaH2 (2) BaH2 (3) SrH2 (4) BeH2 (3) Their co-ordinate nature
(4) None is correct
61. Thermal stability of hydrides of first
group elements follows the order - 70. Which of the following halides has the
(1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH highest melting point –
(2) LiH > KH > NaH > RbH (1) NaCl (2) KCl (3) NaBr (4) NaF
(3) LiH > RbH > KH > NaH
71. Which of the following exists as hydrated
(4) LiH > KH > RbH > NaH
salt –
62. Which of the following hydride is (1) NaCl (2) LiCl (3) RbCl (4) KCl
covalent and polymeric –
72. When NaCl is dissolved in water, the
(1) CaH2 (2) BeH2
sodium ion is -
(3) NaH (4) BaH2
(1) oxidised (2) reduced
63. More stable hydride is – (3) Hydrolysed (4) hydrated
(1) Cs – H (2) Rb – H
73. Anhydrous MgCl2 can be prepared by
(3) K – H (4) Li – H
heating MgCl2.6H2O –
64. Which pair of metal on heating form oxide (1) in a current of dry HCl gas
and nitride in air- (2) with carbon
(1) Li, Na (2) Na, Mg (3) until it fuses
(3) Li, Ba (4) K, Mg (4) with lime
74. Of the metals Be, Mg, Ca and Sr of group
65. Which metal does not form ionic hydride– II A in the periodic table the least ionic
(1) Na (2) Rb (3) Ca (4) Be chloride would be formed by -
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Sr
66. Which of the following 0.2 moles of
hydrogen on hydrolysis – 75. Which of the following has electrovalent
(1) 0.1 mole of LiH (2) 0.2 mole of LiH linkage –
(3) 0.3 mole of LiH (4) 0.4 mole of LiH (1) CaCl2 (2) AlCl3 (3) SiCl4 (4) PCl3
76. Which of the following is soluble in 84. The thermal stability of alkaline earth
organic solvents like ethanol? metal carbonates MgCO3, CaCO3, BaCO3
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) RbCl and SrCO3 decreases as –
(1) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > BrCO3
77. Which of the following halides are ionic
in nature? (2) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3
(1) BaX2 (2) CaX2 (3) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3
(3) SrX2 (4) All of these (4) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3

78. Among the alkaline earth metals, the 85. Which of the metal carbonates is
element forming predominantly covalent decomposed on heating ?
compound is : (1) MgCO3 (2) Na2CO3
(1) Ba (2) Sr (3) Ca (4) Be
(3) K2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
79. Li does not resemble other alkali metals in
86. Maximum thermal stability is shown by
following properties -
(1) Li2CO3 decomposes into oxides while (1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
other alkali carbonates are thermally (3) SrCO3 (4) BaCO3
stable
(2) LiCl is predominantly covalent 87. Which of the following compounds has
(3) Li3N is stable maximum thermal stability ?
(4) All (1) K2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) Li2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
80. There is loss in weight when mixture of
Li2CO3 and Na2CO3.10H2O is heated 88. Which of the following can not
strongly. This loss is due to – decompose on heating to give CO2?
(1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3.10H2O (1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) both (4) None (3) KHCO3 (4) BaCO3
81. Potassium carbonate when heated to high
89. The pair whose both species are used in
temperature –
antacid medicinal preparations is -
(1) Gives CO2
(1) NaHCO3 and Mg(OH)2
(2) Gives O2
(3) Gives CO (2) Na2CO3 and Ca(HCO3)2
(4) Gives no gas at all (3) Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(OH)2
(4) Ca(OH)2 and NaHCO3
82. Which of the following carbonate will not
decompose on heating – 90. On passing excess of CO2 in lime water,
(1) BaCO3 (2) ZnCO3 its milky appearance disappears because
(3) Na2CO3 (4) Li2CO3 (1) Soluble Ca(OH)2 is formed
(2) Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
83. Stable oxide is obtained by heating the (3) Reaction becomes reversible
carbonate of the element -
(4) Calcium compound evaporated
(1) Li (2) K (3) Na (4) Rb
91. Which does not exists in solid state -
 (1) LiHCO3 (2) CaCO3 (1) AgNO3 (2) KNO3
(3) NaHCO3 (4) Na2CO3 (3) Cu (NO3)2 (4) Pb(NO3)2

92. Select the correct order of thermal 99. Which salt on heating does not give brown
stability of alkali metal bicarbonates : coloured gas ?
(1) LiHCO3 > NaHCO3 > KHCO3 > (1) LiNO3 (2) NaNO3
RbHCO3 (3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) AgNO3
(2) RbHCO3 > KHCO3 > NaHCO3 >
LiHCO3 100. Which of the following salts on heating
gives a mixture of two gases ?
(3) KHCO3 > RbHCO3 > NaHCO3 >
LiHCO3 (1) Ca(NO3)2 (2) NaNO3
(4) RbHCO3 > NaHCO3 > LiHCO3 > (3) KNO3 (4) RbNO3
KHCO3
101. An alkali metal nitrate on heating
93. Which of the following compounds has decomposes and liberates two different
minimum thermal stability ? gases along with an oxide. The alkali
metal is :
(1) Li2SO4 (2) Na2SO4
(1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Cs
(3) K2SO4 (4) Rb2SO4
102. The products obtained on heating LiNO3
94. Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O on heating to about
will be –
120ºC forms plaster of pairs which has
chemical composition represented by – (1) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (2) Li3N + O2
(1) 2CaSO4.3H2O (2) CaSO4.H2O (3) Li2O + NO + O2 (4) LiNO2 + O2
(3) 2CaSO4.H2O (4) CaSO4 103. Metallic magnesium is prepared by –
95. The right order of the solubility of (1) Reduction of MgO by coke
sulphates of alkaline earth metals is : (2) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Mg
(1) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr (NO3)2
(2) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr (3) Displacement of Mg by iron from
MgSO4 solution
(3) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
(4) Electrolysis of molten MgCl2
(4) Mg > Ca > Ba > Be > Sr
104. Calcium is obtained by –
96 Maximum solubility of alkaline earth
metal sulphate is shown by - (1) Calcination of lime stone
(1) MgSO4 (2) CaSO4 (2) Electrolysis of calcium chloride in
H2O
(3) SrSO4 (4) BaSO4
(3) Reduction of calcium oxide with
97. Nitrate is converted into metal oxide on Carbon
heating. This metal is - (4) Electrolysis of molten calcium
(1) Li (2) Na chloride
(3) Mg (4) (1) and (3) both
105. Both Be and Al becomes passive on
98. NO2 is not obtained on heating – reaction with conc. Nitric acid due to –
 (1) The non reactive nature of the metal (4) calcium carbonate
(2) The non reactive nature of the acid
110. Sodium carbonate can be manufactured by
(3) The formation of an inert oxide layer
Solvay’s process but potassium carbonate
on the surface of the metals
cannot be prepared because:
(4) None of these
(1) K2CO3 is more soluble
106. The commercial production of sodium (2) K2CO3 is less soluble
carbonate is done by - (3) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3
(1) Lead chamber process (4) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3
(2) Haeber's process
111. Which of the following products are
(3) Solvay's process
obtained in the electrolysis of brine
(4) Castner's process
solution (i.e. NaCl solution) in Castner-
Kellner cell ?
107. Crystals of washing soda lose nine
molecules of water when exposed to dry (1) Na, H2
air. This phenomenon is known as - (2) Na-amalgam
(1) Dehydration (2) Hydration (3) Na-amalgam, NaOH
(3) Deliquescence (4) Efflorescence (4) NaOH, Cl2, H2.

108. The raw material used in the Solvay 112. What products are formed during the
process for the manufacture of sodium electrolysis of a aqueous solution of
carbonate comprises sodium chloride ?
(1) Sodium chloride and carbon dioxide I. Cl2 (g) , II. NaOH (aq). ,
III. H2(g).
(2) Ammonia and carbon dioxide (1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) Sodium chloride, limestone and (3) I and III only (4) All of these
ammonia
113. Crude common salt becomes damp on
(4) Sodium chloride, limestone and
keeping in air because :
carbon dioxide
(1) It is hygroscopic in nature.
109. The by-product of Solvay ammonia (2) It contains MgCl2 and CaCl2 as
process is : impurities which are deliquescent in
(1) carbon dioxide nature.
(2) ammonia (3) (1) and (2) both.
(3) calcium chloride (4) None.
 S-BLOCK EXERCISE --2
1. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution 5. Sodium amalgam on reaction with water
of Zn+2 ions, a white precipitate appears yields :
and on adding excess NaOH, precipitate (1) Hg + NaOH
dissolves. In this solution zinc exists in the
(2) Hg + NaOH + O2
–
(3) Hg + NaOH + H2
(1) Cationic part
(4) HgO + NaOH + H2
(2) Anionic part
(3) both in cationic and anionic part 6. Lithium is the only alkali metal which is
(4) there is no zinc left in the solution not placed in kerosene but is wrapped in
paraffin wax, because -
2. Compounds of alkaline earth metals are (1) It reacts with kerosene
less soluble in water than the (2) It floats to the surface of kerosene
corresponding alkali metal salts due to: because of low density
(1) their high ionisation energy (3) It does not react with air and H2O
(2) their low electronegativity (4) None
(3) their low hydration energy
7. Which is correct order of ionic mobility in
(4) their high lattice energy aqueous medium -
+ + +
3. Halides of alkaline earth metals from (1) Li (aq) < Na (aq) < Rb (aq)
hydrates such as MgCl2.6H2O, 3+
(2) Al(aq)
2+ +
< Mg(aq) < Na(aq)
CaCl2.6H2O, BaCl2.2H2O and
+ + +
SrCl2.2H2O. This shows that halides of (3) Rb (aq) > Na (aq) > K(aq)
group 2 elements -
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Are hygroscopic in nature
(2) Act as dehydrating agents 8. Considering greater polarization in LiCl
as compared to that in NaCl, which of the
(3) Can absorbs moisture from air
following statements you would expect to
(4) All of these be wrong -
4. Alkali metals are soluble in liquid NH3. (1) LiCl has lower melting point than
As the concentration of metal increases, NaCl
solution turns blue to bronze. It reflects
(2) LiCl dissolves more in organic
the change in magnetic property of the
solution - solvents than NaCl
(3) LiCl will ionize in water more than
(1) Diamagnetic to paramagnetic
NaCl
(2) Paramagnetic to diamagnetic
(4) Fused LiCl would be less conducting
(3) Weak to intense paramagnetic than fused NaCl
(4) No change in magnetic property
9. One mole of a substance (A) on reacting 15. Which metal bicarbonates does not exist
with excess of water, gives two mole of in solid state ?
readily combustible gas and an alkanline (i) LiHCO3 (ii) Ca(HCO3)2
solution. The alkaline solution gives white
(iii) Zn (HCO3)2 (iv) AgHCO3
turbidity with (CO2). The substance (A) is
- (1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) i, ii, iii
(1) CaH2 (2) NaH (3) i, ii, iv (4) ii, iii, iv
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) NaNO3
16. X and Y are two metals. When burnt in air,
10. Which of the following compounds is not X forms only oxide while Y forms oxide
obtained when the products obtained from and nitride. The metals X and Y may be –
the electrolysis of brine are mixed ? (1) Ca and Mg (2) Na and Mg
(1) NaCl (2) H2 (3) Li and Na (4) Na and K
(3) NaOCl (4) Cl2
11. When dry ammonia gas is passed over 17. Which of the following statements is
heated sodium (in absence of air) the incorrect ?
product formed is – (1) Sodium and potassium are soft and
(1) sodium hydride silvery white metals
(2) sodium nitride (2) Sodium and potassium in air get
(3) sodamide tarnished due to the formation of a
(4) Sodium cyanamide layer of oxide or carbonates
12. Sodium peroxide is used to purify the air (3) Sodium and potassium burn in dry
in submarines and confined spaces oxygen (excess) giving peroxides
because –
(4) Sodium and potassium are kept under
(1) It removes CO2 and produces O2
kerosene to avoid the contact with air
(2) It decomposes to form Na2O
and moisture
(3) It reacts with oxygen to form sodium
superoxide
(4) None of these 18. Calcium imide on hydrolysis gives gas (B)
13. The fluoride which is most soluble in which on oxidation by bleaching powder
water is – gives gas (C). Gas (C) on reaction with
(1) CaF2 (2) BaF2 (3) SrF2 (4) BeF2 magnesium give compound (D) which on
hydrolysis gives again gas (B). Identify
14. The pairs of compounds which cannot
exist together in aqueous solution are – (B), (C) and (D) –

(I) NaH2PO4 and Na2HCO3 (1) NH3, N2, Mg3N2

(II) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 (2) N2, NH3, MgNH
(III) NaOH and NaH2PO4 (3) N2, N2O5, Mg(NO3)2
(IV) NaHCO3 and NaOH (4) NH3, NO2, Mg(NO2)2
(1) I, II, III (2) III, IV
(3) I, IV (4) II, III
19. A compound X on heating gives a 24. Identify the incorrect statement –
colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in (1) Magnesium is lighter than calcium
water to obtain Y. Excess CO2 is bubbled (2) The atomic radius of Mg is smaller
through aqueous solution of Y and Z is than that of Ca
formed. Z on gentle heating gives back X. (3) Mg alloys are used in the construction
The X is – of air crafts
(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) Mg is used as a reducing agent
(3) Na2CO3 (4) NaHCO3
25. Which of the following statement is true -
20. Which of the following statement is false (1) NaHCO3 and KHCO3 have same
? crystal structure
(1) The milk of magnesia used as antacid (2) On heating Li2CO3 gives Li2O and
is chemically MgO + MgCl2 CO2
(2) Stability of alkali metal peroxides (3) Among alkali metals, Li metal has
increases with increase in atomic
high I.E. and impart no colour to flame
number
(4) Li2SO4 form alum
(3) Anhydrous MgCl2 cannot be prepared
by direct heating of MgCl2.6H2O 26. The increasing order of solubility is -
(4) All of these (1) LiHCO3 < KHCO3 < NaHCO3
(2) NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < LiHCO3
21. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained from
(3) KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < LiHCO3
-
(4) LiHCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3
(1) Cu(NO3)2 (2) Hg(NO3)2
(3) NaNO3 (4) AgNO3 27. The reducing property of alkali metals

follows the order -
22. Metal M + air ⎯⎯→ A ⎯H⎯⎯O
→ B
2
⎯HCl
⎯⎯→
(1) Na < K < Rb < Cs < Li
White fumes; Metal M can be –
(2) K < Na < Rb < Cs < Li
(1) Li, Mg or Al (2) Li, Al or K
(3) Li < Cs < Rb < K < Na
(3) Na, K or Mg (4) Li, Na or K
(4) Rb < Cs < K < Na < Li

28. Hybridisation of BeCl2 in vapour state at

23. Identify the correct statement –
100ºC and in solid state respectively are :
(1) Sodium carbonate on heating evolves
(1) sp2, sp3 (2) sp, sp2
carbon dioxide
(3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp, sp
(2) Sodium nitrate on heating evolves
nitrogen dioxide 29. Among the following halides, the one
(3) Sodium hydroxide decompose on which has the least water of crystallisation
heating (i.e. less than six) in hydrated molecule is
(4) Sodium bicarbonate on heating evolve :
carbon dioxide (1) BaCl2 (2) CaCl2
(3) SrCl2 (4) MgCl2
30. Which of the following statements is (1) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
False? (2) MI > MBr > MCl > MF
(1) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are deliquescent. (3) MCl > MF > MBr > MI
(2) Lithium is least reactive but the (4) MI > MF > MCl > MBr
strongest reducing agent amongst all
the alkali metals. 36. Property of alkaline earth metals that
(3) Liquid sodium metal is used as a increases with their atomic number is :
collant in fast breeder nuclear reactors. (1) Thermal stability of their carbonates.
(4) Lithium iodide is the most ionic in (2) Electron negativity.
nature among alkali metal halides. (3) Hydration enthalpies of their metal
31. In Solvay process of manufacture of ions.
Na2CO3, the by products obtained from (4) Solubility of their sulphates.
recovery tower are :
37. The highest lattice energy corresponds to
(1) NH4Cl, CaO, CO2
–
(2) CaO, Na2CO3, CaCl2
(1) MgO (2) CaO (3) SrO (4) BaO
(3) CaCl2 , CO2 , NH3
(4) Na2CO3 , CaCl2 , CO2 38. All alkali metal superoxides contain the
32. The increasing order of solubility is - [O2–] ion. They are –

(1) CaCO3 , KHCO3 , NaHCO3 (1) paramagnetic

(2) NaHCO3 , KHCO3 , CaCO3 (2) colored compounds

(3) KHCO3 , NaHCO3 , CaCO3 (3) oxidizing agents

(4) CaCO3 , NaHCO3 , KHCO3 (4) all of these

33. On commercial scale, sodium hydroxide 39. Which does not exist in solid state.
is prepared by : (1) NaHCO3 (2) NaHSO3
(1) Dow's process (3) LiHCO3 (4) CaCO3
(2) Solvay process
(3) Castner-Kellner cell 40. On addition of metal, colour of liquid NH3
(4) Hall-Heroult process solutions converts into bronze, the reason
is :
34. Which of the following statements is false
? (1) Ammoniated electrons
(1) BeCl2 exists as dimer in the vapour (2) Metal amide formation
state and polymeric in the solid state (3) Liberation of NH3 gas
(2) Calcium hydride is called hydrolith (4) Cluster formation of metal ions
(3) The oxides of Be and Ca are
amphoteric
(4) Bicarbonates of Na is soluble in water

35. The correct order of melting point of alkali

metal halides is :
 S-BLOCK EXERCISE – 3

1. The paramagnetic species is – 7. The products formed when an aqueous

[AIIMS 2003] solution of NaBr is electrolyzed in a cell
(1) KO2 (2) SiO2 (3) TiO2 (4) BaO2 having inert electrodes are -
[AIIMS 2006]
2. On dissolving moderate amount of
(1) Na and Br2
sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low
(2) Na and O2
temperature, which one of the following
does not occur - [AIIMS 2003] (3) H2, Br2 and NaOH
(1) Blue coloured solution is obtained (4) H2 and O2
(2) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
8. The pair whose both species are used in
(3) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor
antacid medicinal preparations is –
of electricity
[AIIMS 2006]
(4) Liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic
(1) NaHCO3 and Mg(OH)2
3. A solid compound ‘X’ on heating gives (2) Na2CO3 and Ca(HCO3)2
CO2 gas and a residue. The residue mixed (3) Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(OH)2
with water forms ‘Y’. On passing an
(4) Ca(OH)2 and NaHCO3
excess of CO2 through ‘Y’ in water, a
clear solution. ‘Z’, is obtained. On boiling 9. The correct order of the mobility of the
‘Z’, compound ‘X’ is reformed. The alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is
compound ‘X’ is – [AIPMT 2004]
[AIPMT-2006]
(1) CaCO3 (2) Na2CO3 + + + +
(1) K > Rb > Na > Li
(3) K2CO3 (4) Ca(HCO3)2
(2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
4. The correct sequence of increasing (3) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
covalent character is represented by – (4) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+
[AIPMT 2005]
(1) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl 10. The correct order of increasing thermal
(2) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and
BeCO3 is – [AIPMT-2007]
(3) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(4) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3
(2) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
5. Which of the following gives propyne on (3) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
hydrolysis - [AIIMS 2005]
(4) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3
(1) Al4C3 (2) Mg2C3 (3) B4C (4) La4C3
11. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous
6. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is -
solution is – [AIPMT-2008]
(1) Al(OH)3, LiOH [AIIMS 2005]
(1) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
(2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
(2) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(3) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2
(3) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2
(4) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
12. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent 18. Match List I with List II for the
character decreases in the order – compositions of substances and select the
[AIPMT-2009] correct answer using the code given below
(1) MCl > MI > MBr > MF the lists- [AIPMT MAINS-2011]
(2) MF >MCl >MBr > MI List-I List-II
(3) MF > MCl > MI > MBr Substances Composition
(4) MI >MBr > MCl > MF
(A) Plaster of Paris (i) CaSO4. 2H2O
13. Which of the following alkaline earth (B) Epsomite (ii) CaSO4.½H2O
metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy
(C) Kieserite (iii) MgSO4.7H2O
higher than the lattice enthalpy?
(D) Gypsum (iv) MgSO4.H2O
[AIPMT-2010]
(1) CaSO4 (2) BeSO4 (v) CaSO4
(3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4 Code : (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
14. Property of the alkaline earth metals that
increases with their atomic number: (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
[AIPMT-2010] (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Solubility of their hydroxides in water (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(2) Solubility of their sulphates in water
19. Which of the following statements is
(3) Ionization energy incorrect? [AIPMT MAINS-2011]
(4) Electronegativity
(1) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3
15. Which one of the following compounds is (2) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid
a peroxide? [AIPMT-2010] ammonia to give blue solution.
(1) KO2 (2) BaO2 (3) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium
(3) MnO2 (4) NO2 silicate
(4) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH
16. The compound A on heating given a to give Al(OH)3
colourless gas and a residue that is
dissolved in water to obtained B. Excess 20. Which one of the alkali metalsk, forms
of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous only, the normal oxide, M2O on heating in
solution of B, C is formed which is air? [AIPMT-2012]
recovered in the solid form. Solid C on
(1) Li (2) Na (3) Rb (4) K
gentle heating gives back A. The
compound – [AIPMT (M)-2010] 21. In the replacement reaction
(1) Na2CO3 (2) K2CO3
CI + MF → CF + MI
(3) CaSO4.2H2O (4) CaCO3

17. Which of the following compounds has The reaction will be most favourable if M
the lowest melting point ?[AIPMT-2011] happens to be– [AIPMT MAINS-2012]
(1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2 (1) K (2) Rb (3) Li (4) Na
(3) CaBr2 (4) CaI2
22. On heating which of the following 25. Which of the following oxides is most
releases CO2 most easily? acidic in nature ? [NEET-2018]
[Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) MgO (2) BeO (3) BaO (4) CaO
(1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
26. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the otder of
(3) K2CO3 (4) Na2CO3
ionic character is - [NEET-2018]
23. Which of the following statements is (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
false? [NEET-2016] (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
+2
(1) Ca ions are important blood in (3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
clotting (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
2+
(2) Ca ions are not important in
maintaining the regular beating of 27. Crude sodium chloride obtained by
heart crystallization of brine solution does not
contain [NEET-2019]
(3) Mg+2 ions are important in the green
parts of plants (1) MgSO4 (2) Na2SO4
(4) Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP (3) MgCl2 (4) CaSO4

24. In context with beryllium, which one of 28. Which of the alkali metal chloride (MCl)
the following statements is incorrect? forms its dihyrate salt (MCl.2H2O) easily?
[NEET-2019]
[NEET-2016]
(1) LiCl (2) CsCl
(1) It is rendered passive by nitric acid
(3) RbCl (4) KCl
(2) It forms Be2C
(3) Its salts rarely hydrolyze 29. Which of the following is an amphoteric
(4) Its hydride is electron-deficient and hydroxide? [NEET-2019]
polymeric (1) Sr(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2
(3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2
 EXERCISE # 1
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 3 3
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 1 4
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 3
[Link]. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 4 2 2 1
[Link]. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113
Ans. 1 1 4 4 3 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 3

EXERCISE # 2
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 2 2 4 3 1 4 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 4 1 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 4

EXERCISE # 3
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 4
 P-BLOCK (exercise -1)

BORON FAMILY

1. Al and Ga have same radii because of -

(1) Greater shielding power of s-electrons of Ga atoms
(2) Poor shielding power of s-electrons of Ga atoms
(3) Greater shielding power of d-electrons of Ga
(4) Poor shielding power of d-electrons of Ga atoms

2. Thallium shows different oxidation states because –

(1) Of its high reactivity
(2) Of inert pair effect
(3) Of its amphoteric nature
(4) It is a transition metal

3. Which oxide is more stable than the other three :

(1) Tl2O3 (2) TI2O (3) Ga2O (4) In2O

4. Stable compounds in +1 oxidation state is formed by :

(1) B (2) Al (3) Ga (4) Tl

5. B3+ cannot exist in aqueous solution because of its :

(1) Strong reducing ability.
(2) Strong oxidizing ability.
(3) Small size and large charge.
(4) Large size and small charge

6. In diborane
(1) 4 bridged hydrogens and two terminal hydrogen are present
(2) 2 bridged hydrogens and four terminal hydrogen are present
(3) 3 bridged and three terminal hydrogen are present
(4) None of the above
7. Which hydride does not exist :
(1) BH3 (2) H2F2 (3) SbH3 (4) N2H4

8. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to the structure of diborane?

(1) All the terminal B–H bond length are equal.
(2) The terminal B–H bond is a 2-centre 3-electron bond.
(3) The terminal B–H bond is a 2-centre 2-electron bond.
(4) The bridge H is a 3-centre 2-electron bond.
B B

9. The type of hybridization of boron in diborane is :

(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d2
10. Inorganic graphite is :
(1) B3N3H6 (2) B2H6
(3) BN (4) BF3

11. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c–2e as well as 2x–2e bonds reacts with
ammonia gas at a certain temperature, gives a compound (Y), isostructural with benzene.
Compound (X) with ammonia at a high temperature produces a substance(Z) :
(1) (X) is B2H6.
(2) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite.
(3) (Y) is B3N3H6
(4) All of these

12. By which of the following reactions is borazine prepared?

(1) B2H6 + NH3(excess) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
low temperature
⎯→
(2) B2H6 + NH3(excess) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
high temperature
→
(3) B2H6 + NH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
(ratio 2NH3 :1B2 H 6
high temperature

(4) None of the above

13. Which of the following is false statements?
(1) Boranes are easily hydrolysed
(2) LiAlH4 reduces BCl3 to borane
(3) BH3 is a Lewis acid
(4) All the B–H distances in diborane (B2H6) are equal

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A. BBr3 i. Dimer
B. Tl2O ii. Trigonal planar
C. B(OH)3 iii. Basic
D. AlCl3 iv. Monobasic acid
A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iv iii i ii
(4) ii iv ii iii

15. The product obtained in the reaction of diborane with excess of ammonia is :
(1) B2H6.NH3 (2) B2H6.2NH3
(3) (BN)x (4) Borazine

16. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of benzene because :

 (1) B–N bond is non-polar
(2) B–N bond is polar
(3) Borazole has electrons in it
(4) Of localized electrons in it

17. There are two H-bridge bonds in diborane molecule because there are :
(1) Only 12 electrons
(2) 14 electrons
(3) 2 electrons less required for bonding.
(4) Two electrons more than required for bonding.
18. Pick up the wrong statement -
(1) Anhydrous AlCl3 exists as Al2Cl6
(2) Anhydrous AlCl3 is a trigonal planar molecule
(3) Anhydrous AlCl3 fumes in air
(4) Anhydrous AlCl3 is ionic

19. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both Lewis acids and BCl3 is stronger than AlCl3.
(2) BCl3 and AlCl3 both Lewis acids and AlCl3 is stronger that BCl3.
(3) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both equally strong Lewis acids.
(4) Both BCl3 and AlCl3 are not Lewis acids.

20. The product formed in the reaction,

BCl3 + H2O ⎯→ Product is :
(1) H3BO3 + HCl (2) B2O3 + HOCl
(3) B2H6 + HCl (4) No reaction

21. BF3 on hydrolysis forms :

(1) H3BO3
(2) HBF4
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

22. Which of the following can be detected by the borax-bead test ?

(1) Ni2+ (2) Co2+
(3) Pb2+ (4) Both (1) & (2)

23. The hydrolysis of borax produces -

(1) An acidic medium
(2) A basic medium
(3) A neutral medium
(4) An acidic or neutral medium
24. The borax bead test is based upon the formation of :
(1) Boron oxide (2) Boric acid
(3) Meta borates (4) Elemental boron
25. Borax Na2B4O7.10H2O is actually :
(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O
(2) Na2[B4O4(OH)6].7H2O
(3) Na2[B4O3(OH)8].6H2O
(4) Na2[B4O2(OH)10].5H2O

26. Borax on heating with cobalt oxide forms a blue bead of :

(1) Co(BO2)2 (2) CoBO2
(3) Co3(BO3)2 (4) Na3Co(BO3)2

27. Which of the following can be detected by the borax-bead test?

(1) NiO (2) CuO
(3) PbO (4) Both (1) and (2)

28. On the addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution of borax, the compound formed
is :
(1) Orthoboric acid (2) Boron hydride
(3) Metaboric acid (4) Pyroboric acid

29. Water softener is :

(1) Borax
(2) Zeolite
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

30. The borax bead is chemically :

(1) B2O3 (2) Na2B4O7
(3) Na3BO3 (4) B2O3 + NaBO2

31. Borax bead test is responded by :

(1) Divalent metals
(2) Heavy metals
(3) Light metals
(4) Metal which forms coloured metaborates

32. Which of the following oxides is acidic ?

(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3 (3) Ga2O3 (4) In2O3

33. In the following reaction -

B(OH)3 + H2O → [B(OH)4]– + H+
(1) B(OH)3 is a Lewis acid
(2) B(OH)3 is a Lewis base
 (3) B(OH)3 is amphoteric
(4) None is correct
34. Which of the following statements about H3BO3 is not correct?
(1) It is a strong tribasic acid.
(2) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax.
(3) It has a layer structure in which planar H3BO3 units are joined by hydrogen bonds.
(4) It does not act as proton donor but acts as a Lewis acid by accepting hydroxyl ion.

35. Which of the following is correct?

(1) H3BO3 can be considered to be lewis acid.
(2) The correct order of lewis acid strength order is BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3.
(3) One mole borax in aqueous solution will require one mole HCl for titration.
(4) B2H6 can be methylated completely to give B2(CH3)6.

36. Boric acid polymerizes due to :

(1) the presence of hydrogen bonds.
(2) its acidic nature.
(3) its geometry.
(4) its mobobasic nature.

37. A mixture of boric acid with ethyl alcohol burns with green adged flame due to the
formation of :
(1) Ethyl borax (2) Ethyl borate
(3) Methyl borax (4) Methyl borate

38. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda
because -
(1) Washing soda is expensive
(2) Washing soda is easily decomposed
(3) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(4) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide.

39. B2O3 is :
(1) Ionic (2) Basic
(3) Acidic (4) Amphoteric
40. When orthoboric acid (H3BO3) is heated the residue left is :
(1) Boron
(2) Metaboric acid
(3) Boric anhydride
(4) Borax

41. Aqueous solution of potash alum is :

(1) Alkaline (2) Acidic
(3) Neutral (4) Soapy
42. Alum is found to contain hydrated monovalent cation [M(H2O)6]+, trivalent cation
[M'(H2O)6]3+ and SO42– in the ratio of :
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 2

43. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added in excess to the solution of potash alum,
we obtain :
(1) A white precipitate
(2) Bluish white precipitate
(3) A clear solution
(4) A crystalline mass

CARBON FAMILY

44. The metallic character of group-14 –

(1) Decreases from top to bottom
(2) Increases from top to bottom
(3) Does not change gradually
(4) Has no significance

45. Which of the following is not characteristic property of carbon ?

(1) Catenation
(2) Multiple bond forming
(3) Availability of d-orbitals for bonding
(4) Highest electronegativity in the group

46. Among the elements of group 14, the reducing power of the divalent species decreases
in the order
(1) Ge > Sn > Pb (2) Sn > Ge > Pb
(3) Pb > Sn > Ge (4) Sn > Pb > Ge

47. The non existence of PbI4 is due to :

(1) Small size of Pb4+ ions and large size I– ions
(2) Highly oxidising power of Pb4+ ions
(3) Highly reducing power of I– ions
(4) Both (2) and (3)

48. Which of the following statement is not true ?

(1) SnCl2 is ionic solid
(2) SnCl4 is reducing in nature
(3) SnCl2 is reducing in nature
(4) SnCl4 is covalent liquid

49. Elements of group-14 :

(1) exhibit oxidation state of +4 only.
(2) exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4.
 (3) form M–2 and M4+ ions
(4) form M2+ and M4+ ions

50. Least stable hydride is:

(1) Methane (2) Plumbane
(3) Silane (4) Germane

51. The structure and hybridization of Si(CH3)4 is –

(1) bent, sp (2) trigonal, sp2
(3) octahedral,sp d (4) tetrahedral sp3
3 2

52. The halide that is not hydrolysed is –

(1) SiCl4 (2) SnCl4 (3) CCl4 (4) PbCl4

53. Which does not exist :

(1) [CCl6]2– (2) [SiF6]2–
(3) [GeF6]2– (4) [SnCl6]2–

54. Which of the following is rapidly hydrolysed?

(1) CCl4 (2) SiCl4 (3) SnCl4 (4) PbCl4

55. Which of the following reactions is not correct?

(1) CF4 + 2F– → [CF6]2–
(2) SiF4 + 2F– → [SiF6]2–
(3) GeCl4 + 2Cl– → [GeCl6]2–
(4) SnCl4 + 2Cl– → [SnCl6]2–
56. CCl4 is inert towards hydrolysis but SiCl4 is readily hydrolysed because :
(1) carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can expand its octet.
(2) ionisation potential of carbon is higher than silicon.
(3) carbon forms double and triple bonds.
(4) electronegativity of carbon is higher than that of silicon.

57. Which of the following statement is false?

(1) Dry ice is solid CO2
(2) CO2 is weakly acidic
(3) CO2 and SiO2 are linear molecules
(4) CO2 is a gas while SiO2 is solid

58. CO forms a volatile compound with

(1) Nickel (2) Copper
(3) Sodium (4) Aluminium

59. Which of the following lead oxides is ‘sindur’:

(1) PbO (2) Pb2O3 (3) PbO2 (4) Pb3O4
60. Carbon suboxide C3O2 has :
(1) Bent structure
(2) Trigonal planar structure
(3) Linear structure
(4) Distorted tetrahedral structure

61. Carbon monoxide acts as a Lewis base because it has :

(1) A double bond between C and O atoms
(2) A triple bond between C and O atoms
(3) A lone pair of electrons on the C atom
(4) Two lone pairs of electrons on the O atom

62. Carborundum is obtained when silica is heated at high temperature with

(1) Carbon
(2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Calcium carbonate
63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A. (SiH3)3N i. 3 centre-2-electron
bond
B. BF3 ii. sp3-hybridization
C. SiO2 iii. p-p bond
D. B2H6 iv. p-d bond
A B C D
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iv iii ii i

64. Match List (Fuels) with List II (composition) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Fuels) (Composition)
A. Water gas i. A mixture of CO and
N2
B. Producer gas ii. Methane
C. Coal gas iii. A mixture of CO
and H2
D. Natural gas iv. A mixture of CO,
H2, CH4 and CO2
A B C D
(1) iii i iv ii
(2) iii i ii iv
 (3) i iii iv ii
(4) iii ii iv i

65. Semi water gas mixture of –

(1) CO, H2 and CO2
(2) CO, H2 and N2
(3) CO2, N2 and H2
(4) N2, CO and coal gas

66. The dry ice is –

(1) Solid ice with any water
(2) Solid sulphur dioxide
(3) Solid carbon dioxide
(4) Solid benzene
67. Producer gas is a mixture of –
(1) CO and N2 (2) CO2 and H2
(3) CO and H2 (4) CO2 and N2

68. Synthesis gas is a mixture of –

(1) Steam and carbon monoxide
(2) Carbonmonoxide and nitrogen
(3) Hydrogen and carbon monoxide
(4) Hydrogen and methane

69. Water gas is an important fuel. It is a mixture of –

(1) H2O + air (2) CO + H2
(3) CO + CO2 (4) H2O + CO

70. When steam is passed over red hot coke, the outgoing gas contains –
(1) Producer gas
(2) Water gas
(3) Coal gas
(4) None of the above

71. A gas which burns with blue flame is –

(1) CO (2) O2
(3) N2 (4) CO2

72. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in water are –
(1) CO2, H2CO3, HCO3–, CO32–
(2) H2CO3, CO32–
(3) CO32–, HCO3–
(4) CO2,H2CO3

73. Which of the following statement is correct?

 (1) Dry ice is molecular solid.
(2) CO2 is strongly acidic.
(3) CO2 and SiO2 are linear molecules.
(4) CO2 is a acidic while SiO2 is amphotaric.

74. CO is :
(1) Reductant
(2) Poisonous gas
(3) Neutral to litmus
(4) All
75. Which is/are true statements?
(1) Diamond is unaffected by conc. acids but graphite reacts with hot conc.HNO3 forming
mellitic acid, C6(COOH)6.
(2) CO is toxic because it forms a complex with haemoglobin in the blood.
(3) In C3O2, all carbons are sp hybridised.
(4) All are true statements.

76. H2SO4 is not used for the preparation of CO2 from marble chips because :
(1) it does not react.
(2) huge amount of heat is evolved.
(3) the reaction is vigorous.
(4) calcium sulphate is sparingly soluble and get deposited on marble chips and stops the
reaction.

77. A colourless gas which burns with blue flame and reduces CuO to Cu is :
(1) N2 (2) CO (3) CO2 (4) NO2

78. When steam is passed through red hot coke :

(1) CO2 and H2 are formed.
(2) CO and N2 are formed.
(3) CO and N2 are formed.
(4) Petrol gas is obtained.

79. Red lead is :

(1) PbO (2) PbO2
(3) Pb3O4 (4) Pb2O3

80. The oxide which is not a reducing agent is :

(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) ClO2

81. CO2 in water behaves as :

(1) Weak dibasic acid H2CO3
(2) Weak monobasic acid HO–CO2H
 (3) Weak diacid base CO(OH)2
(4) Weak monoacid base HO–CO2H

82. Silicone contains :

(1) Si = O group

O
(2) –O–Si–O–group
O

R
(3) –O–Si–O–group
( )
R
(4) Si = O group

83. Silicons are a group of organosilicon polymers containing :

(1) Si–O–Si linkages
(2) O–Si–O linkages
(3) Si–C–Si linkages
(4) Si–Si–O linkages

84. The repeating structural unit in silicone is:

R
(1) SiO2 (2) –Si–O–
R
R
(3) O–Si–O– (4) –Si–O–O–R
R R

85. Identify correct option regarding silicones:

(1) They are naturally existing polymers.
(2) In silicones chain length can be controlled by using compounds like (CH3)2SiCl2.
(3) In silicon polymers cross links can be created by using compounds like RSiCl 3.
(4) None of the above

86. Consider the following route of reactions:

R2SiCl2 + Water ⎯→ (A)
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Polymerisation
→ (B)
Compound (B) in above reaction is :
(1) Dimer silicone
(2) Linear silicone
(3) Cross linked silicone
(4) Polymerisation of (A) does not occur
87. The structural until present in pyro silicates is :
(1) Si3O96– (2) SiO46–
 (3) Si2O76– (4) (Si2O52–)n

88. Methanides are :

(1) Mg2C3, Be2C, Al4C3 and CaC3
(2) Mg2C3, Be2C and Al4C3
(3) Be2C, Al4C3 and CaC2
(4) Be2C and Al4C3

89. Percentage of lead in lead pencil is :

(1) 31.6% (2) 84%
(3) 20% (4) Zero

90. Bucky ball or buck minister fullerene is :

(1) An allotrope of carbon
(2) It is referred as C-60
(3) It has sp2-hybridised nature and resembles with soccer ball
(4) all of these

91. Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is –

(1) Diamond (2) Graphite
(3) Peat (4) Coal

92. Which is correctly matched?

(1) Diamond : mechanical isotropy
(2) Graphite : Isotropic conductivity
(3) Fullerine : dangling bonds present
(4) None

NITROGEN FAMILY

93. The low reactivity of nitrogen is due to-

(1) Small atomic radius
(2) High electronegativity
(3) Stable configuration
(4) High bond dissociation energy

94. Which of the following reaction is suitable for obtaining very pure nitrogen?
(1) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq) ⎯→ N2(g) + 2H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)

(2) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯ → N2+4H2O+Cr2O3

(3) Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯ → Ba + 3N2
(4) All of the above
95. Nitrogen reacts with calcium carbide to give :
(1) Calcium nitride
(2) Calcium cyanide
(3) Calcium cyanamide
(4) Calcium nitrate

96. On heating, ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately, we get :

 (1) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide.
(2) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with barium azide.
(3) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide.
(4) N2 in both cases.

97. Out of the following which does not librate N2 gas on heating :
(1) NaNO2+NH4Cl (2) Ba(N3)2
(3) O3 + NO (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7

98. Acidic nitrogen hydride is -

(1) N2H4 (2) N3H
(3) NH2OH (4) NH3

99. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angle of the following hydrides is-
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3

100. Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction when -

(1) White P is heated with NaOH
(2) Red P is heated with NaOH
(3) Ca3P2 reacts with water
(4) P4O6 is boiled with water

101. Which of the following statements are not correct about the hydrides of group 15
elements ?
(1) The hydrides of the elements of group 15 are ionic and have planar triangular shape
(2) The thermal stability of the hydrides decreases down the group
(3) The basic character of the hydrides decreases down the group
(4) The reducing nature of the hydrides increases down the group
102. Which of the following salts give NH3 in alkaline medium ?
(1) (NH4)2CO3 (2) (NH4)2SO4
(3) NH4Cl (4) All of the above

103. White phosphorous on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of the products. This is a :
(1) dimerisation reaction
(2) disproportionation reaction
(3) condensation reaction
(4) precipitation reaction

104. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) P4O10 + H2O ⎯→ reactants involved
in formation of H3PO4.
(2) CaC2 + H2O ⎯→ C2H2 + Ca(OH)2;
Ca3P2 + H2O ⎯→ PH3 + Ca(OH)2
reactions involved in Holmes signal.
(3) PH3 + HI ⎯→ PH4I ⎯⎯⎯ → KI +
KOH
 H2O + PH3; purification of PH3
(4) PH3 + HI ⎯→ PH4I;
show Lewis acidic nature of PH3

105. Ammonia reacts with excess of chlorine to form :

(1) N2 and NH4Cl (2) NCl3 and HCl
(3) NH4Cl and NCl3 (4) N2 and HCl

106. The wrong statement about NH3 is :

(1) It is oxidised with oxygen at 700°C in the presence of platinum.
(2) It gives reddish brown ppt. with nessler's reagent.
(3) It can be dried by P2O5, H2SO4 and CaCl2.
(4) It gives white fumes with HCl.

107. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with an excess of water gives :
(1) Two moles of ammonia
(2) One mole of nitric acid
(3) One mole of ammonia
(4) Two moles of nitric acid

108. Ammonia can be dried by :

(1) Conc. H2SO4
(2) P4O10
(3) CaO
(4) Anhydrous CaCl2

109. Which of the following propertiy is not related with PH3?

(1) It is a colorless gas having rotten fish smell.
(2) It is non poisonous.
(3) It is slightly soluble in water.
(4) It is a weak Lewis base.

110. Which of the following order(s) is/are incorrect?

(1) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 (reducing character)
(2) N2O < NO < N2O3 < N2O5 (oxidation state on nitrogen atom)
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (basicity)
(4) AsH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > PH3 (reducing character)

111. In which of the following option product gas X and Y (other than water vapour) are
same?
(1) Mg2C2 + H2O ⎯→ X;
Al4C3 + H2O ⎯→ Y

(2) NH4NO3 ⎯⎯ → X;
 
(NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯ → Y

(3) NH4Cl ⎯⎯ → X; Urea ⎯⎯⎯→Y
2 H O

(4) Zn + dil. HNO3 ⎯→ X;

Ag + dil HNO3 ⎯→ Y

112. When white pnosphorous is heated with caustic soda, the compounds formed are -
(1) PH3 + NaH2PO3 (2) PH3 + NaH2PO2
(3) PH3 + Na2HPO3 (4) PH3 + NaH2PO4

113. Which one of the following pentafluorides cannot be formed -

(1) PF5 (2) AsF5 (3) SbF5 (4) NF5
114. Bismuth does not form stable pentahalide because of -
(1) Its higher electronegativity
(2) Its smaller size
(3) Inert pair effect
(4) Non availability of d-orbitals

115. Which one of the following does not undergo hydrolysis -

(1) AsCl3 (2) SbCl3 (3) PCl3 (4) NF3

116. The solid PCl5 exists as -

(1) PCl5 molecules (2) P2Cl10
(3) [PCl4]+ [PCl6]¯ (4) None of these

117. PCl5 is kept in well stoppered bottles because -

(1) It is highly volatile
(2) It reacts with oxygen
(3) It reacts readily with moisture
(4) It is explosive

118. PCl5 exists but NCl5 does not because -

(1) Nitrogen has no vacant d-orbital
(2) NCl5 is unstable
(3) Nitrogen atom is much smaller
(4) Nitrogen is highly inert.

119. The dimerisation of NO2 as the temperature is lowered is accompanied by -

(1) An increase in pressure
(2) A darkening in colour
(3) A decrease in paramagnetism
(4) The formation of a colloid

120. Which of the following reagents can separate nitric oxide from nitrous oxide -
(1) Sodium nitroprusside solution
 (2) Ferrous sulphate solution
(3) Nessler's reagent
(4) Tollen's reagent

121. In P4O6 the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each phosphorus atom is -
(1) 1.5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

122. Which of the following is basic in nature?

(1) H3PO3 (2) H3BiO3
(3) H3AsO3 (4) H3SbO3

123. The number of molecules of water needed to convert one molecule of P2O5 into
orthophosphoric acid is –
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 5

124. Which of the following oxides will be least acidic?

(1) P4O6 (2) P4O10
(3) As4O6 (4) P2O5

125. Which of the following oxides is most acidic?

(1) As2O3 (2) P2O3
(3) Sb2O3 (4) N2O3

126. Least acidic and most acidic oxides of nitrogen are -

(1) N2O, N2O5 (2) N2O, N2O4
(3) N2O, NO (4) N2O, N2O3

127. What is false about N2O5?

(1) It is anhydride of HNO3
(2) It is a powerful oxidizing agent
(3) Solid N2O5 is called nitronium nitrate
(4) Structure of N2O5 contains no [N → O] bond

128. Which pair of oxides of nitrogen isparamagnetic ?

(1) NO, N2O (2) N2O5, NO2
(3) N2O5, N2O (4) NO, NO2

129. Which of the following is used as anaesthetic?

(1) NH3 (2) NO (3) N2O (4) NO2

130. The nitrogen oxide(s) that does not contain N–N bond(s) is :
(1) N2O (2) N2O3 (3) N2O4 (4) N2O5

131. P2O5 is used extensively as a :

 (1) Dehydrating agent
(2) Catalytic agent
(3) Reducing agent
(4) Preservative

132. P-oxide ⎯⎯⎯

H 2O
→ A ⎯⎯⎯→ Heating

B + C ⎯⎯⎯ 200 C
→ D. Incorrect statement is :
contain Acid
P − H bond
(1) Gas B is PH3.
(2) D is pyrophosphoric acid.
(3) A is H3PO3.
(4) D on strong heating gives P2O3.

133. Which is/are wrong about P4O10 molecule ?

(1) Each P atom can be considered to be sp3 hybridised.
(2) There are six P–O–P bonds in the molecule.
(3) There are two types of P–O bond lengths.
(4) P–O–P angle is 180°.

134. Which of the following phosphorus oxyacids can act as a reducing agent ?
(1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO4
(3) HPO3 (4) H4P2O7

135. Which of the following oxy acids of Phosphorus is a reducing agent and monobasic?
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3
(3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O7

−H O
−[O]
136. 2P ⎯⎯⎯
2
→ Q ⎯⎯⎯ → R
If P is parent phosphoric acid then according to given information the incorrect statement
is :
(1) Q is pyro form and R is hypo form of given present oxy acid P.
(2) Number of H-atoms present in each given oxy acid is equal to its basicity.
(3) In P, Q, R oxy acids, oxidation state of central atom remains same.
(4) All given oxy acids have p–d bond(s) in their structure.
137. Conc. HNO3 is yellow coloured liquid due to :
(1) Dissolution of NO in conc. HNO3.
(2) Dissolution of NO2 in conc. HNO3.
(3) Dissolution of N2O in conc. HNO3.
(4) Dissolution of N2O5 in conc. HNO3.

138. Which of the following process is not involved in Ostwald's process for the manufacture
of HNO3?
(1) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Pt
500K, 9bar

4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(2) 2NO(g) + O2 2NO2(g)
 (3) 3NO2(g) + H2O(l) ⎯→
2HNO3(aq) + NO(g)
(4) None

139. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give :

(1) HI (2) HOI
(3) HOIO2 (4) HOIO3

140. NO2 is formed when :

(1) Cu reacts with conc. HNO3
(2) Zn reacts with conc. HNO3
(3) Pb(NO3)2 is heated
(4) All

141. Which one of the following acid possesses oxidising, reducing and complex forming
properties?
(1) HNO3 (2) HCl
(3) H2SO4 (4) HNO2

142. Which of the following does not produce NO2 gas with conc. HNO3?
(1) Cu (2) I2 (3) Ag (4) Au

143. Each of the following is true of white and red phosphorous except that they :
(1) are both soluble in CS2.
(2) can be oxidised by heating in air.
(3) consist of the same kind of atoms.
(4) can be converted into one another.

144. The P–P–P bond angle in white phosphorus is -

(1) 120° (2) 90°
(3) 60° (4) 109° 28'

OXYGEN FAMILY

145. Ozone is -
(1) An isobar of oxygen
(2) An isotope of oxygen
(3) A polymer of oxygen
(4) An allotrope of oxygen

146. Ozone acts as :

(1) oxidising agent (2) reducing agent
(3) bleaching agent (4) All

147. A black sulphide when treated with ozone becomes white. The white compound is :
(1) ZnSO4 (2) CaSO4
 (4) BaSO4 (4) PbSO4

148. Dry bleaching is done by :

(1) Cl2 (2) SO2 (3) O3 (4) Zero

149. Which of the following is responsible for turning starch–iodide paper blue when it is
brought in contact with O3?
(1) Liberation of iodine
(2) Liberation of oxygen
(3) Formation of alkali
(4) Reaction of ozone with litmus paper

150. Which one of the following property is not correct for ozone?
(1) It oxidises lead sulphide.
(2) It oxidises potassium iodide.
(3) It oxidises mercury.
(4) It cannot act as bleaching agent in dry state.

151. Pick out the statement/s that is/are wrong:

(1) Oxygen is paramagnetic in all the three states of matter.
(2) Ozone is diamagnetic.
(3) Ozone is a linear molecule.
(4) The O–O bonds in ozone have considerable double bond character.
152. The correct increasing order of reducing power of the following is -
(1) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(2) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(3) H2Se < H2Te < H2O < H2S
(4) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te

153. Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic while H2O is neutral. This
is because-
(1) Water is a highly associated compound
(2) H – S bond is weaker than H – O bond
(3) H2S is a gas while H2O is a liquid
(4) The molecular weight of H2S is more than that of H2O

154. The increasing thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 follows sequence -
(1) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(2) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(3) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te
(4) H2Se < H2O < H2S < H2Te

155. H2S gas changes a filter paper dipped in lead acetate solution into :
(1) Black (2) Red
(3) Green (4) Yellow

156. The correct order of decreasing stability of hexafluorides of group 16 members is-
(1) SF6 > SeF6 > TeF6
 (2) TeF6 > SeF6 > SF6
(3) SF6 > TeF6 > SeF6
(4) TeF6 >SF6 > SeF6

157. A solution of SO2 in water reacts with H2S precipitating sulphur. Here SO2 acts as -
(1) An oxidising agent
(2) A reducing agent
(3) An acid
(4) A catalyst

158. Vegetable colouring matter in presence of moisture is bleached by SO2 due to -

(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction
(3) Sulphonation (4) Unsaturation
159. The number of S–S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9) is :
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) One (4) Zero

160. Caro's acid is -

(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O8
(3) H2SO3 (4) H2SO5

161. Concentrated H2SO4 is not used to prepare HBr from KBr because it -
(1) Oxidizes HBr
(2) Reduces HBr
(3) Causes disproportionation of HBr
(4) Reacts too slowly with KBr

162. The commercial name for peroxodisulphuric acid is -

(1) Sulphuric acid
(2) Marshall's acid
(3) Sulphuric acid crystals
(4) Sulphurous acid

163. When water is added in conc. H2SO4 the reaction is exothermic because -
(1) H2SO4 is viscous
(2) Hydrates of H2SO4 are formed
(3) H2SO4 is corrosive
(4) None of these

164. H2SO4 reacts with sugar and acts as -

(1) A dehydrating agent
(2) An reducing agent
(3) A sulphonating agent
(4) None of these
165. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case
of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because :
(1) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
(2) HI is of violet colour
(3) HI gets oxidised to I2
(4) HI changes to HIO3
166. By which of the following SO2 is formed?
(1) Reaction of dilute H2SO4 with O2.
(2) Heating Fe2(SO4)3.
(3) Reaction of concentrated H2SO4 with Cu.
(4) None

167. Column-I Column-II

(A) Caro's acid (p) –S–S– bond
(B) Polythionic (q) –S=S bond
acid
(C) Pyrosulphuric (r) –S–O–S– bond
acid
(D) Thiosulphuric (s) –S–O–S– bond
acid
(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(2) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
(3) A-s, B-p, C-r, D-q
(4) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-p

168. In which of the following reaction conc. H2SO4 is not used as on oxidising agent?
(1) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
(2) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
(3) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
(4) None

169. HCOOH reacts with conc. H2SO4 to produce :

(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) NO (4) NO2

170. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as strong oxidising agent which of the following element is
oxidised by conc. H2SO4 into two gaseous products?
(1) Cu (2) S (3) C (4) Zn

171. When conc. H2SO4 is added to charcoal :

(1) there is no reaction.
(2) water gas is formed.
(3) SO2 and CO2 are evolved.
 (4) CO and SO2 are evolved.
172. The decreasing tendency to exist in puckered 8-membered ring structure is -
(1) S > Se > Te > Po
(2) Se > S > Te > Po
(3) S > Te > Se > Po
(4) Te > Se > S > Po

173. The decreasing order of catenation of group 16 elements is -

(1) O > S > Se > Te
(2) S > O > Se > Te
(3) S > Te > O > Se
(4) O > S > Te > Se

HALOGEN FAMILY

174. Fluorine does not show positive oxidation states because -

(1) It is most electronegative element
(2) It forms only anions in ionic compounds
(3) It cannot form multiple bonds
(4) It shows non-bonded electron pair repulsion due to small size

175. When iodine reacts with NaF, NaBr and NaCl -

(1) It gives mixture of F2, Cl2 and Br2
(2) It gives chlorine
(3) It gives bromine
(4) None of the above

176. Of the following statements -

(a) Cl2 gas is dried by using conc. H2SO4
(b) Fluorine have highest oxidising power
(c) Oxidising power of halogens follow the order I2 > Br2 > Cl2
(d) HI is the strongest acid among HI, HBr, HCl
(1) a, b and d are corrects
(2) a, c are corrects
(3) b, c are corrects
(4) c, d are corrects
177. Volatile nature of halogen is because -
(1) Halogen molecules are bonded by strong forces
(2) Halogen molecules are bonded by electrostatics force
(3) The forces existing between the discrete molecule are only weak vander waal’s force
(4) Halogen molecules are more reactive

178. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched -

 (1) A halogen which is liquid at room temperature-Bromine
(2) The most electronegative element - Fluorine
(3) The most reactive halogen-Fluorine
(4) The strongest oxidising agent – Iodine

179. When iodine is dissolved in CCl4, the colour that result is -

(1) Brown (2) Bluish green
(3) Violet (4) Colourless

180. Which reaction is possible -

(1) I2 + 2NaBr –→ Br2 + 2NaI
(2) I2 + 2NaCl –→ Cl2 + 2Nal
(3) Br2 + 2NaCl –→ Cl2 + 2NaBr
(4) Cl2 + 2NaBr –→ Br2 + 2NaCl

181. The solubility of iodine in H2O may be increased by the addition of -

(1) Na2S2O3 (2) CHCl3
(3) KI (4) CS2

Cold and dilute NaOH

(A) + NaCl + H2O
182. Cl2
Hot and conc. NaOH
(B) + NaCl + H2O
Compounds (1) and (2) are -
(1) NaClO3, NaClO
(2) NaOCl2, NaOCl
(3) NaClO4, NaClO3
(4) NaOCl, NaClO3
183. Which of the following is a flase statement?
(1) Halogens are oxidizing agent.
(2) Halogens show only (–1) oxidation state.
(3) HF molecules form intermolecule H-bonds.
(4) Fluoride is highly reactive.

184. Select the correct statement(s) from the following :

(1) Fluorine displace other halogens from the corresponding halides.
(2) Fluorine reacts slowly with halogens.
(3) Fluorine does not decompose water.
(4) Except fluorine, other halogens directly combine with carbon.

185. Which of the following does not decolourise iodine?

(1) Na2SO3 (2) Na2S2O3
(3) NaCl (4) NaOH
186. An inorganic salt when heated with concentrated H2SO4 evolves a colourless pungent
smelling gas but with concentrated H2SO4 and MnO2 evolves moist litmus paper. The
coloured gas is :
(1) NO2 (2) Cl2 (3) Br2 (4) I2

187. Which is bad conductor of electricity?

(1) H2F2 (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI

188. Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid unlike other hydrogen halides because -

(1) F atom is small in size
(2) HF is a weakest acid
(3) HF molecule are hydrogen bonded
(4) Fluorine is highly reactive

189. The property of halogen acids, that indicated incorrect is -

(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI.......acidic strength
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF.......reducing strength
(3) Hl > HBr > HCl > HF......bond length
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI .....thermal stability
190. Which of the following has the greatest reducing power -
(1) HBr (2) HI (3) HCl (4) HF

191. HCl cannot form H2Cl2, while HF can form hydrogen bonds -
(1) Fluorine is more reactive .
(2) HF is more reactive.
(3) Fluorine atom is highly electronegative and can form hydrogen bonds.
(4) None

192. Which of the following gases can be dried by concentrated H2SO4?

(1) HCl (2) HBr (3) HI (4) H2S

193. Which of the following is a mixed anhydride ?

(1) P4O10 (2) SO3
(3) Cl2O6 (4) SO2

194. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent ?

(1) HCIO (2) HClO2
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO4

195. Which has maximum pH in aqueous solution ?

(1) NaClO (2) NaClO2
(3) NaClO3 (4) NaClO4
196. Consider the oxy acids HClOn series, here value of n is 1 to 4. Then incorrect statement
regarding these oxy acids is :
(1) acidic character of oxy acids increases with increasing value of n.
(2) oxidising power of oxy acids increasing with decreasing value of n.
(3) thermal stability of oxy acids decreases with increasing value of n.
(4) Cl–O bond order decreases with decreasing value of n.
197. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) All form HOXO type oxy acid.
(2) Only chlorine and bromine form oxy acids.
(3) All halogens form oxy acids.
(4) Only iodine forms oxy acid.

198. Which one of the following oxy acid of fluorine exists?

(1) HOF (2) HFO2 (3) HFO4 (4) HFO3

199. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1) ClO3–, sp3 pyramidal
(2) ClO4–, sp3 tetrahedral
(3) ICl4–, sp3d2 square planar
(4) ICl2–, dsp2 trigonal bipyramidal

200. T-shape molecule are -

(1) ClF3 (2) ICl3
(3) BrF3 (4) All of these

201. Which of the following interhalogen compounds is not possible ?

(1) IF7 (2) IF5 (3) CIF3 (4) FCl3

INERT GAS

202. The inert gases can be isolated and separated by -

(1) Electrolysis of their compounds
(2) Fractional distillation of liquid air
(3) Adsorption on charcoal
(4) Both (2) and (3)

203. The first compound of noble gases prepared by N-Bartlett was -

(1) Xe+[Pt F6]¯ (2) XeF4
(3) XeF6 (4) XeOF4
204. The forces acting between noble gas atoms are -
 (1) van der Waals forces
(2) Ion-dipole forces
(3) London or dispersion forces
(4) Magnetic forces

205. The ease of liquefication of noble gases decreases in the order -

(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(3) Kr > Xe > He > Ar > Xe
(4) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne

206. Which of the following noble gas was reacted with PtF6 by Bartlett to prepare the first
noble gas compounds ?
(1) He (2) Xe (3) Ar (4) Kr

207. In solid argon, the atoms are held together by -

(1) Ionic bonds
(2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Vander Waals’ forces
(4) None of these

208. Which noble gas most abundant in atmosphere?

(1) He (2) Ne (3) Ar (4) Kr

209. The noble gas which is radioactive is ?

(1) Argon (2) Helium
(3) Radon (4) Xenon

210. Which of the following noble gas does not form clathrate compound?
(1) Kr (2) Ne (3) Xe (4) Ar

211 The structure of XeF6 is -

(1) Distorted octahedral
(2) Pyramidal
(3) Tetrahedral
(4) None of these
212. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives -
(1) Xe (2) XeO2 (3)XeO3 (4) XeOF2

213. XeF4 on partial hydrolysis produces -

(1) XeF2 (2) XeOF2
(3) XeOF4 (4) XeO3
214. Select the correct matching -
List I List II
A : XeF4 i. Pyramidal
B : XeF6 ii. T-shape
C : XeO3 iii. Distorted
octahedral
D : XeOF2 iv. Square planar
A B C D
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) iv i iii ii

215. The xenon compoun(s) that are iso-structural with IBr2– and BrO3– respectively are -
(1) Linear XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3
(2) Bent XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3
(3) Bent XeF2 and planar XeO3
(4) Linear XeF2 and tertrahedral XeO3

216. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe?
(1) XeF4 (2) XeF6 (3) XeF2 (4) XeO3

217. XeF6 dissolves in anhydrous HF to give a good conducting solution which contains?
(1) H+ and XeF7– ion
(2) HF2– and XeF5+ ions
(3) HXeF6+ and F– ions
(4) None of these

218. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to form an adduct. The shapes of cation and anion in the adduct
are respectively :
(1) square planar, trigonal bipyramidal
(2) T-shaped, octahedral
(3) square pyramidal, octahedral
(4) square planar, octahedral
219. XeF2 reacts with SbF5 to form :
(1) [XeF]+ [SbF6]– (2) [XeF3]– [SbF4]–
(3) Xe– [PtF6]+ (4) XeF4

220. Identify the incorrect statement (structure is including the location of lone pair of
electrons) :
(1) XeO2F2 has 7 bonded electron pairs and one valence shell lone pair of electron. Its
structure is square pyramidal with one pi bond.
 (2) XeO2F2 has 7 bonded electron pairs and one valence shell lone pair of electrons. Its
structure is trigonal bipyramidal with two pi bonds.
(3) XeF6 has 6 bonded electron pairs and one valence shell lone pair of electrons. Its
structure is pentagonal bipyramidal.
(4) XeF2 has 5 electron pairs (bonded and valence shell lone pairs both) and its structure
is trigonal bipyramidal.

221. The compound that cannot be formed by xenon is :

(1) XeO3 (2) XeF4
(3) XeCl4 (4) XeO2F2

222. Which of the following is not correct -

(1) XeO3 has four  and four  bonds
(2)The hybridisation of Xe in XeF4 is sp3d2.
(3) Among noble gases, the occurrence of argon is highest in air.
(4) Liquid helium is used as cryogenic liquid

223. The mixture which is used by sea divers for respiration is of -

(1) N2 and O2 (2) Helium and O2
(3) Argon and O2 (4) Neon and O2

224. Helium oxygen mixture is used by deep sea divers in preference to nitrogen oxygen
mixture because-
(1) Helium is much less soluble in blood than nitrogen
(2) Nitrogen is much less soluble in blood than helium
(3) Due to high pressure deep under sea nitrogen and oxygen react to give poisonous
nitric oxide
(4) Nitrogen is highly soluble in water
 EXERCISE # I
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 2 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 2 3 4 1 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 4 2 3 1 1 4 1 3 4 4 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 3 3
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 1 4 3
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 3 3 1
[Link]. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 2
[Link]. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 3 2
[Link]. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 2 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 4 4 1 1 3 2 4 3 4
[Link]. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 4 4 1 3 4 4 4 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 4 4
[Link]. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 1 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 3 4
[Link]. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 3 4 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 3 1 4 4
[Link]. 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
Ans. 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1
[Link]. 221 222 223 224
Ans. 3 1 2 1
 P- BLOCK (exercise 2)

Boron Family

1. Boron does not form B3+ ions whereas Al forms Al3+ ions. This is because :
(1) The size of B atom is smaller than that of Al
(2) The sum of IE1 + IE2 + IE3 of B is much higher than that of Al
(3) the sum of IE1 + IE2 + IE3 of Al is much higher thant that of B
(4) Both (1) and (2)

2. TlI3 is an ionic compound which furnishes the following ions in solution :

(1) Tl3+ and I– ions
(2) Tl+ and I3– ions
(3) Tl+, I– ions and I2
(4) Tl+ and I– ions

3. Correct order of property is :

(1) Ga+ < In+ < Tl+ – Stability
(2) Tl+3 > In+3 > Ga+3 – Oxidising character
(3) Tl+ > Tl+3 – Stability
(4) All the above

4. The ion(s) that act/s are as an oxidising agent in solution is/are :

(1) Ti+ and Al3+ (2) B3+ and Al3+
(3) Ti3+ only (4) B3+ only

5. In BF3 :
(1) B-F bond has some double bond character and this bond is delocalised
(2) All the B-F bonds are single covalent in nature
(3) Bond energy and bond-length of B-F bond indicate its single bond character
(4) All of the above bonds are ionic
6. In BF3, the B-F bond length is 1.30 Å, when BF3 is allowed to be treated with Me3N, it
forms an adduct, Me3N → BF3, The bond length of B-F in the adduct is:
(1) Greater than 1.30Å
(2) Smaller than 1.30 Å
(3) Equal to 1.30 Å
(4) None of these

7. The compound showing maximum covalent character is –

(1) BI3 (2) BCl3 (3) BF3 (4) BBr3

8. Which of the following is not an ionic trihalide –

(1) AlF3 (2) BF3 (3) InF3 (4) GaF3
9. Which one is a not Lewis acid ?
(1) PCl3 (2) AlCl3 (3) NCl3 (4) AsCl3

10. Which of the following is Lewis acid ?

(1) SiF4 (2) FeCl3 (3) BF3 (4) all

11. Which of the following is not hydrolysed?

(1) NCl3 (2) BCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) SiCl4

12. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridization of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1
complex of BF3 and NH3-
(1) N : Tetrahedral, sp3; B : Tetrahedral, sp3
(2) N : Pyramidal, sp3; B : Pyramidal, sp3
(3) N : Pyramidal, sp3; B : planar, sp2
(4) N : Pyramidal, sp3; B : tetrahedral, sp3

13. Boron compounds behave as lewis acids because of their –

(1) acidic nature
(2) covalent nature
(3) ionization property
(4) electron deficient nature
14. Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because aluminium –
(1) can not form a polymer
(2) has high ionization potential
(3) belongs to third group
(4) can have higher co-ordination number

15. Al2O3 can be converted to anhydrous AlCl3 by heating –

(1) Al2O3 with Cl2 gas
(2) Al2O3 with HCl gas
(3) Al2O3 with NaCl in solid state
(4) A mixture of Al2O3 and carbon in dry Cl2 gas

BX3 + NH3 ⎯⎯⎯ → BX3/NH3 + Heat of adduct formation (H)

R.T.
16.
The numerical value of H is found to be maximum for :
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3 (3) BBr3 (4) BI3

17. BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exist as dimer (B2H6) because :
(1) Chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen.
(2) There is p-p back bonding in BCl3 but BH3 does not contain such bonding.
 (3) Large sized chlorine atoms do not fit between the small boron atoms whereas small
sized hydrogen atoms get fitted between boron atoms.
(4) None of these

18. From B2H6, all the following can be prepared except

(1) B2O3 (2) H3BO3
(3) B2(CH3)6 (4) NaBH4

19. B2H6 reacts with (CH3)3N to produce:

(1) BH3+N– (CH3)3
(2) B2H6+N– (CH3)2CH3.BH3
(3) (CH3)3N+BH3–
(4) BH3N+(CH3)2CH3BH3
20. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c-2e as well as 2c-2e bonds reacts with
ammonia gas at a certain temperature, gives a compound (Y), isostructural with benzene.
Compound (X) with ammonia at a high temperature produces a substance (Z) :
(1) (X) is B2H6
(2) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
(3) (Y) is B3N3H6
(4) All of these

21. The bonds present in borazole (B3N3H6) are:

(1) 9,6 (2) 12, 3
(3) 6,9 (4) 15 Only

22. The two types of bonds present in B2H6 are covalent and –
(1) Ionic
(2) co-ordinate
(3) Hydrogen bridge bond
(4) None

23. Reaction of diborane with ammonia gives initially :

(1) B2H6.NH3
(2) Borazole
(3) B2H6.3NH3
(4) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–

24. On excessive methylation of B2H6, maximum increase in mol. wt. will be :

(1) 70 (2) 56 (3) 84 (4) 42

25. On hydrolysis, diborane produces :

(1) H3BO2 + H2O2 (2) H3BO3 + H2
(3) B2O3 + O2 (4) H3BO3 + H2O2

26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about (inorganic benzene)?
(1) It contains p–d back bond.
(2) It does not give addition product with HCl like organic benzene.
 (3) Each boron and nitrogen atom is sp2–hybridised.
(4) Its disubstituted derivatives given equal no. of ortho, meta and para derivatives like
disubsituted organic benzene.
27. Consider the following statements for diborane:
1. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridized.
2. B–H–B angle is 180°.
3. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atom.
4. There are only 12 bonding electrons available.
(1) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(2) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(3) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(4) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

28. In diborane, the two H–B–H angles are nearly :

(1) 60°, 120° (2) 95°, 120°
(3) 95°, 150° (4) 120°, 180°

29. Which of the following is false statements?

(1) Boranes are easily hydrolysed.
(2) LiAlH4 reduces BCl3 to borane.
(3) BH3 is a lewis acid.
(4) All the B–H distance in diborane (B2H6) are equal.

30. In Borax bead test formation of :

(1) Metaborate
(2) Ortho borate
(3) Ortho boric acid
(4) BN


31. Na2B4O7.10H2O ⎯⎯
→ X+NaBO2+H2O,

X + Cr2O3 ⎯⎯ → Y (green coloured). The X and Y are :
(1) Na3BO3 and Cr(BO2)3
(2) Na2B4O7 and Cr(BO2)3
(3) B2O3 and Cr(BO2)3
(4) B2O3 and CrBO3

 
32. X ⎯⎯ → Y ⎯⎯ → Z (Glassy material)
Z + CoO ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → W. (Blue bead)
Oxidising
Flame
Incorrect statement is :
(1) Aqueous solution of X is basic in nature but acidic buffer solution.
(2) W is Co(BO2).
(3) Z is (NaBO2 + B2O3)
(4) X can be prepared by reaction of colemanite with Na2CO3.
33. Borax is converted into crystalline boron by the following steps :

→ B2O3 ⎯⎯
→ H3BO3 ⎯⎯
Borax ⎯⎯ →B
X Y

X and Y respectively :
 (1) HCl, Mg (2) HCl, C
(3) C, Al (4) HCl, Al

34. Which of the following compound gives acid, during hydrolysis?

(1) BF3 (2) B2O3
(3) Na2B4O7 (4) All of these

35. Which is not true about borax?

(1) It is a useful primary standard for titrating against acids.
(2) One mole of borax contains 4 B–O–B bonds.
(3) Aqueous solution of borax can be used as buffer.
(4) It is made up of two triangular BO3 units and two tetrahedral BO4 units.

36. In borax, number of B–O–B links and B–OH bonds present are, respectively :
(1) five and four (2) four and five
(3) three and four (4) five and five

37. The colour of the borax bead is due to the formation of a/an :
(1) glass-like metal metaborate bead
(2) hard boric oxide crystal
(3) opaque metal hexaborate bead
(4) glass-like metal orthoborate bead

38. Which one of the following statement about H3BO3 is not correct ?
(1) it is a strong tribasic acid
(2) it is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax
(3) it has a layer structure in which planer BO3 units are joined by hydrogen bonds
(4) it does not act as proton donor as it act as a lewis acid by accepting hydroxyl ions
Carbon Family

39. H2C2O4 ⎯⎯⎯→

Conc.
H SO
A + BA is neutral and B is acidic. Gas A and B is absorbed by conc.
2 4

:
(1) CuCl2, KOH (2) Cu2Cl2, KOH
(3) KOH, Cu2Cl2 (4) CuCl2, H2SO4

40. When SnCl4 react with excess NaOH, a water soluble compound is formed. Which is :
(1) Sn(OH)4 (2) Na2SnO2.XH2O
(3)Na2SnO3.XH2O (4) SnO2.XH2O

41. Which of the following is a redox reaction?

(1) PbO2 + HCl ⎯→
(2) PbO + HCl ⎯→
(3) PbO2 + NaOH ⎯→
 (4) SnO2 + HCl ⎯→

42. Incorrect statement for both CO2 and SO2 is :

(1) Both are acidic oxides
(2) Both form milky solution when passed in slaked lime
(3) Both can act as reducing agent
(4) None of the above

43. SiO2 reacts with :

(a) Na2CO3 (b) CO2
(c) HF (d) HCl
(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d

44. Silica dissolves in excess of HF due to formation of :

(1) SiF4 (2) SiH4
(3) H2SiF6 (4) H2SiF4

45. Correct statement about SiO2 :

(1) Can react with HF and NaOH
(2) Si make 4 bonds
(3) It can be amorphous/crystalline
(4) All

46. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in water are :
(1) CO2, H2CO3, HCO3–, CO32–
(2) H2CO3, CO32– only
(3) CO32–, HCO3– only
(4) CO2, H2CO3 only

47. Often a ground-glass stopper gets stuck in the neck of a glass bottle containing an NaOH
solution. The reason is that :
(1) There are particles of dirt in between.
(2) A solid silicate is formed in between by the reaction of the SiO2 of glass with NaOH.
(3) Solid Na2CO3 is formed in between by reaction of the CO2 of air and NaOH.
(4) Glass contains a boron compound which forms a precipitate with the NaOH solution.

48. Incorrect statement is :

(1) CCl4 is used as fire extinguisher because it give incombastible vapours.
(2) Graphite can be converted into diamond at high pressure.
(3) All tetrahalides of carbon family element act as strong lewis acids.
(4) Reducing nature of divalent species of carbon family elements decrease on moving
down the group.
49. Which of the following is incorrect for group 14 elements?
(1) The stability of dihalides are in the order CX2 < SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(2) The ability to form p-p multiple bonds among themselves increases down the
group.
(3) The tendency for catenation decreases down the group.
(4) They all form oxides with the formula MO2.

50. Which of the following properties describes the diagonal relationship between boron and
silicon?
(1) BCl3 is not hydrolysed while SiCl4 can be hydrolysed.
(2) Both form oxides B2O3 is amphoteric and SiO2 is acidic.
(3) Both metals dissolve in cold and dilute nitric acid.
(4) Silicide and boride salts are hydrolysed by water.

51. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Thy hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl gives a disiloxane.
(2) The hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 gives a chain compound.
(3) The hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 gives a cross-linked polymer.
(4) The hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 used to stop chain growth.

52. Which of the following allotropic forms of carbon is isomorphous with crystalline
silicon?
(1) Graphite (2) Coal
(3) Coke (4) Diamond

53. Carbon-60 contains :

(1) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
(2) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons
(3) 30 pentagons and 30 hexagons
(4) 24 pentagons and 36 hexagons

54. Buckminsterfullerene is prepared by :

(1) The pulsed laser vapourization of graphite.
(2) Vapouring carbon by resistive heating.
(3) Passing an arc discharge between carbon electrodes in a tube containing helium at
100 torr.
(4) All of these
55. The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO4 tetrahedral, that share
corners with adjacent tetrahedra. The charge of the silicate anion is :
(1) – 4 (2) – 8 (3) – 6 (4) – 2

NITROGEN FAMILY
56. Nitrogen forms N2 but phosphorus do not forms P2, but it exists as P4 the reason for this
is -
(1) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atoms
(2) p - p bonding is weak
(3) p - p bonding is strong
(4) Multiple bond is formed easily

57. Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because –

(1) Its atom has a stable electronic configuration
(2) It has low atomic radius
(3) Its electronegativity is fairly high
(4) Dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high

58. Nitrogen is liberated by the thermal decomposition of –

(1) NH4NO2 (2) NaN3
(3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (4) All the three

59. Which of the following compounds does give N2 on heating?

(1) NH4NO2 (2) NH4NO3
(3) NaN3 (4) (1) and (3) both

60. The orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced
to metal by aluminium powder. The orange and the green solids are, respectively :
(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7 and Cr2O3
(2) Na2Cr2O7 and Cr2O3
(3) K2Cr2O7 and CrO3
(4) (NH4)2CrO4 and CrO3
61. Out of the following which does not librate N2 gas on heating :
(1) NaNO2 + NH4Cl
(2) Ba(N3)2
(3) O3 + NO
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7

62. Which of the following reaction is suitable to obtain very pure nitrogen?
(1) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq) ⎯→ N2(g) + 2H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)

(2) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯ → N2+4H2O + Cr2O3

(3) Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯ → Ba + 3N2
(4) All of the above

63. Which thermal decomposition can give N2 gas?

(1) NH4NO2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(3) NH4Cl (4) 1 and 2

64. Consider the following sequence of reaction.

 Na+NH3(g) ⎯→ [X] ⎯⎯⎯ N 2O
→ [Y] ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ [Z] (Pure gas)
Identify [Z] gas :
(1) N2 (2) NH3 (3) O2 (4) H2

65. Which reaction is correct?

(1) NH4NO2 ⎯⎯⎯ NaOH
→ N2O (Main gaseous product)

(2) NH4NO2 ⎯⎯ → NH3 (main gaseous product)

(3) NH4Cl ⎯⎯ → N2 (main gaseous product)

(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯ → N2 (main gaseous product)

66. Correct match is :


(1) NH4NO2 ⎯⎯ → Pure and dry N2

(2) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯ → NH3 gas

(3) KClO3 ⎯⎯ → disproportion

(4) NH4NO3 ⎯⎯ → No residue
67. On heating a mixture of NH4Cl and KNO2, we get -
(1) NH4NO3 (2) KHN4(NO3)2
(3) N2 (4) NO

68. Excess of ammonia reacts with chlorine to form -

(1) N2 and NH4Cl (2) NCl3 and HCl
(3) NH4Cl and NCl3 (4) N2 and HCl

69. The increasing order of boiling point of hydrides of group 15 elements is -

(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3
(2) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(4) AsH3 < PH3 < NH3 < SbH3

70. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides gradually becomes closer to
90° on going from N to Bi. This shows that gradually-
(1) The basic strength of the hydrides increases
(2) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H bonding
(3) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase
(4) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the central atom

71. NH3 has a much higher B.P. than PH3 because –

(1) NH3 has a larger molecular weight
(2) NH3 undergoes umbrella inversion
(3) NH3 forms hydrogen bond
(4) NH3 contains ionic bonds whereas PH3 contains covalent bonds

72. Which one has the lowest boiling point?

 (1) NH3 (2) PH3 (3) AsH3 (4) SbH3

73. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives –
(1) One mole of phosphine
(2) Two mole of phosphoric acid
(3) Two mole of phosphine
(4) One mole of phosphorus pentoxide
74. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(1) PH3 is more basic than NH3
(2) PH3 is less basic than NH3
(3) PH3 is equally basic as NH3
(4) PH3 amphoteric while NH3 is basic

75. Ammonia can be dried by –

(1) Conc. H2SO4
(2) P4O10
(3) CaO
(4) Anhydrous CaCl2

76. Holme's signals can be given by using :

(1) CaC2 + CaCN2 (2) CaC2 + Ca3P2
(3) CaCN2 + C (4) Ca3P2 + CaCN2

77. NH3 can't be obtained by :

(1) heating of NH4NO3 or NH4NO2
(2) heating of NH4Cl or (NH4)2CO3
(3) heating of NH4NO3 with NaOH
(4) reaction of AIN or Mg3N2 or CaCN2 with H2O

78. Compound A undergoes hydrolysis to produce a colourless gas with rotten fish smell.
The gas gives a vortex ring. The gas is :
(1) PH3 (2) P2O3 (3) P2O5 (4) P2S5

79. Which of the following property is not related with PH3 ?

(1) It is a colourless gas having rotten fish smell.
(2) It is non poisonous.
(3) It is slightly soluble in water.
(4) It is a weak Lewis base.

80. With excess of Cl2, ammonia forms :

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Nitrosyl chloride
 (3) Ammonium chloride
(4) Nitrogen trichloride
81. Which of the following product is not formed by the reaction of PH4I and KOH?
(1) KI (2) PH3 (3) H2O (4) P2O3

82. The reaction of white phosphorus with aqueous NaOH gives phosphine along with
another compound. The reaction type; the oxidation states of phosphorus in phosphine
and the other product are respectively :
(1) Redox reaction ; – 3 and – 5
(2) Redox reaction ; + 3 and + 5
(3) Disproportionation reaction ; – 3 and – 5
(4) Disproportionation reaction ; – 3 and + 1

83. PH3 can be obtained by :

(a) Heating hypophosphorus acid
(b) Heating orthophosphorus acid
(c) Reacting white phosphorus with hot conc. NaOH
(d) Hydrolysis of calcium phosphide
(1) c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) b, c (4) All

84. Incorrect statement about PH3 is :

(1) It is product by hydrolysis of Ca3P2.
(2) It gives black ppt. (Cu3P2) with CuSO4 solution.
(3) Spontaneously burns in presence of P2H4.
(4) It does not react with B2H6.

85. For which element would XH3 be a stable species :

(1) C (2) Si (3) P (4) S

86. Ca3P2 + H2O ⎯→ A + B (gas)

B + HI ⎯→ C ⎯⎯
D
→ B + KI + H2O
B, C, D are :
(1) P2H4, PH4I, KNO3
(2) PH3, PH4I, KOH
(3) H3PO2, I2, KOH
(4) PH3, P2H4, KClO3
87. PCl3 reacts with water to form -
(1) PH3 (2) H3PO3 and HCl
(3) POCl3 (4) H3PO4

88. Pick out the incorrect statement –

(1) In PCl5, P atom is sp3d-hybridized and has trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(2) PCl5 on hydrolysis forms oxy-acids
 (3) PCl5 acts as Lewis acid
(4) In PCl5 the axial chlorine atoms are closer to central ‘P’ atom than equatorial chlorine
atoms

89. The hydrolysis of NCl3 by water produce-

(1) NH2OH and HOCl
(2) NH2NH2 and HCl
(3) NH4OH and HOCl
(4) NH2Cl and HOCl

90. When excess of water is added to BiCl3

solution -
(1) Ionization of BiCl3 is increased
(2) A white ppt. of Bi(OH)3 is obtained
(3) BiCl3 is hydrolysed to give white ppt. of BiOCl
(4) BiCl3 is precipitated

91. Phosphorus trichloride, PCl3 undergoes, hydrolysis at room temperature to produce an

oxoacid. It has the formula :
(1) HPO3 (2) H3PO3
(3) H3PO4 (4) H3PO2

92. The correct statement(s) regarding PCl5 is/are :

(1) In solid phase, hybridisation of P-atom in cation is sp3.
(2) In vapour phase, all P–Cl bond lengths are equal.
(3) In vapour and solid phase, central atom has one lone pair.
(4) In solid phase, anion has only one type of bond angle.
93. Which of the following halide of nitrogen is stable?
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) NBr3 (4) NI3

94. A + H2O ⎯→ B + HCl

B + H2O ⎯→ C + HCl
Compound (A), (B) and (C) will be respectively :
(1) PCl5, POCl3, H3PO3
(2) PCl5, POCl3, H3PO4
(3) SOCl2, POCl3, H3PO3
(4) PCl3, POCl3, H3PO4

95. H3PO3 is obtained by an hydrolysis of :

(1) P4O6 (2) PCl3 (3) Both (4) None

96. The hydrolysis of PCl5 with D2O produces :

(1) D3PO2 + DCl (2) D3PO3 + DCl
(3) D3PO4 + DCl (4) DH3 + DCl
97. How many P–O bonds and how many lone pairs respectively are present in P4O6
molecule -
(1) 12, 4 (2) 8, 8
(3) 12, 16 (4) 12, 12

98. In P4O10, the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each phosphorus atom is -
(1) 2.5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

99. N2O3 is -
(1) An acidic oxide, and the anyhydride of HNO2
(2) An acidic oxide, and the anhydride of HNO3
(3) An neutral oxide, and the anydride of HNO3
(4) A basic oxide, and the anhydride of HNO2

100. Dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) has -

(1) Two unpaired electrons and is paramagnetic
(2) Two unpaired electrons and is diamagnetic
(3) One unpaired electron and is paramagnetic
(4) No unpaired electron and is diamagnetic
101. Choose the incorrect statement -
(1) Solid PCl5 exists as tetrahedral [PCl4]+ and octahadral [PCl6]– ions
(2) Solid PBr5 exists as [PBr4]+ Br–
(3) Solid N2O5 exists as NO2+NO3–
(4) Oxides of phosphorus P2O3 and P2O5 exist as monomers

102. Which of the follwing oxides of nitrogen is neutral ?

(1) N2O5 (2) N2O3 (3) N2O4 (4) N2O

103. P4O10 has short and long P-O bonds. The number of short P-O bonds in this compound
is -
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

104. The redish brown gas formed when nitric oxide is oxidized by air is –
(1) N2O5 (2) N2O4 (3) NO2 (4) N2O3

105. Nitrous oxide is -

(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral

106. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10 –

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6

107. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is neutral ?

(1) N2O5 (2) N2O3 (3) NO2 (4) NO

108. Sodium nitrate give product on decomposition –

 (1) N2O (2) O2 (3) NO2 (4) Na2O

109. Which one of the following nitrogen oxides is the anhydride of nitrous acid ?
(1) N2O (2) N2O3 (3) N2O4 (4) NO

110. Of the following which is paramagnetic and has three electron bond in its structure –
(1) N2O (2) NO (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
111. The oxide appears blue in solid states is :
(1) N2O3 (2) NO2 (3) N2O4 (4) N2O5

112. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of oxy acids of group 15 elements is -
(1) HNO3 > H3SbO4 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4
(2) H3PO4 > H3AsO4 > H3SbO4 > HNO3
(3) HNO3> H3PO4 > H3AsO4 > H3SbO4
(4) HNO3 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4 > H3SbO

113. Which of the following is a anhydride of nitric acid?

(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) N2O5 (4) N2O3

114. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the anhydride of HNO2 –

(1) NO (2) N2O3 (3) N2O4 (4) N2O5

115. A gas is obtained on heating ammonium nitrate. The gas :

(1) causes laughter
(2) brings tears to the eyes
(3) is acidic in nautre
(4) basic in nature

116. When P4O10 is dissolved in water, the acid formed finally is :

(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO4
(3) H3PO3 (4) H4P2O7

117. NO2 can be prepared by heating :

(1) NH4NO3 (2) NaNO3
(3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) KNO3

118. Which of the following will combine with Fe(II) ion to form a brown complex compound
?
(1) N2O (2) NO (3) N2O3 (4) NO2

119. N2O (laughing gas) finds use in the following except :

(1) as a propellant for whipped ice-cream
(2) as an anaesthetic
(3) for the preparation of N3H
(4) as fuel for rockets
120. Select incorrect statement about N2O4 :
(1) It self ionises as NO+, NO3–
(2) N2O4 is paramagnetic
(3) Substance containing NO+ is said to be acid and that containing NO3– is said to be
base.
(4) NO2 dimerises to N2O4 with disappearance in paramagnetism.

121. The wrong statement about N2O is :

(1) It is nitrous oxide.
(2) It is least reactive oxide of nitrogen.
(3) It is not a linear molecule.
(4) It is known as laughing gas.

122. Which does not have six membered aring?

(1) P4O6 (2) P4O10 (3) B2H6 (4) Borax

123. Which of the following statements is not true about P4O6 and P4O10?
(1) Both these oxides have a closed cage like structure.
(2) Each oxide requires 6 water molecules for complete hydrolysis to form their
respective oxoacids.
(3) Both these oxides contain 12 equivalent P–O bonds.
(4) P4O6 and P4O10 both contains p–d bonds.

124. How many P–O–P linkage are present in P4O10?

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

125. An inorganic salt (A) is decomposed on heating to give two products (B) and (C).
Compound (C) is a liquid at room temperature and is neutral to litmus while compounds
(A) is a colourless neutral gas. Compounds (A), (B) and (C) are :
(1) NH4NO3, N2O, H2O
(2) NH4NO2, NO, H2O
(3) CaO, H2O, CaCl2
(4) Ba(NO3)2, H2O, NO2
126. Two oxides of nitrogen, NO and NO2 are allowed to react together at 243° K and form a
coloured compound of nitrogen (X). When compound (X) reacts with water to yield
another compound of nitrogen (Y). The shape of the anion of (Y) molecule is :
(1) Triangular planar
(2) Triangular pyramidal
(3) Tetrahedron
(4) Square planar

127. Basicity of orthophosphoric acid is –

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

128. Metaphosphoric acid has the formula –

 (1) H3PO4 (2) HPO3
(3) H3PO3 (4) H3PO2

129. P–O–P bond is present in -

(1) H4P2O7
(2) H3P3O9
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

130. Which of the following is a tetrabasic acid ?

(1) Orthophosphoric acid
(2) Hypophosphorous acid
(3) Metaphosphoric acid
(4) Pyrophosphoric acid

131. The number of P–O–P bonds in cyclic meta phosphoric acid is –

(1) Zero (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four

132. The maximum number of P–H bonds are contained in the following molecules –
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3
(3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O7

133. 1 mol each of H3PO2, H2PO3 and H2PO4 will neutralise x mole of NaOH, y mole of
Ca(OH)2 and z mole of Al(OH)3 (assuming all as strong electrolytes) respectively. x, y,
z ar in the ratio of :
(1) 3 : 1 : 5 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
134. Which is a set of acid salts and can react with base?
(1) NaH2PO2, Na2HPO3, NaH2PO4
(2) Na2HPO3, NaH2PO3, Na2HPO4
(3) NaH2PO4, NaH2PO3, Na2HPO4
(4) All of these

135. Which one of the following is not an acid salt ?

(1) NaH2PO2 (2) NaH2PO3
(3) NaH2PO4 (4) Na2HPO4

136. Which is correct?

(1) Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ O2 + NaCl
dil. NaOH

(2) P4O6 ⎯⎯⎯→ H3PO4

2 H O

(3) P4O10 ⎯⎯⎯→ H3PO3

2 H O

 
(4) Na2B4O7.10H2O ⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯ →
 NaBO3 + B2O3

137. P–P bond is present in :

(1) P4O10 (2) P4O6
(3) H4P2O6 (4) H4P2O7

138. Which of the following metals does not dissolve in conc. HNO3 ?
(1) Pb (2) Cu (3) Au (4) Hg

139. Nitric acid oxidises P into :

(1) PH3 (2) P2O5 (3) HPO3 (4)H3PO4

140. 4HNO3 + P2O10 ⎯→ 4HPO3 + X

in the above reaction the product X is :
(1) NO2 (2) N2O3 (3) N2O4 (4) N2O5

141. Of the following acids, the one which has the capability to form complex compound and
also possesses oxidising and reducing properties is :
(1) HNO3 (2) HNO2
(3) HCOOH (4) HCN
142. In which of the following option product gas X and Y (other than water vapour) are
same?
(1) Mg2C3 + H2O ⎯→ X;
Al4C3 + H2O ⎯→ Y

(2) NH4NO3 ⎯⎯ → X;

(NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯ →Y
 
(3) NH4Cl ⎯⎯ → X; Urea ⎯⎯ →Y
(4) Zn + dil.HNO3 ⎯→ X;
Ag + dil. HNO3 ⎯→ Y

143. NH3 + O2 ⎯⎯ → A + H2O;

PT

A + O2 ⎯→ B;
B + O2 ⎯→ C
A, B and C are :
(1) N2O, NO2 and HNO3
(2) NO, NO2 and HNO3
(3) NO2, NO and HNO3
(4) N2O, NO and HNO3

144. Which of the following can give NO gas?

 
(1) Pb(NO3)2 ⎯⎯ →

(2) HNO3 ⎯⎯ →
(3) Cu ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
dil. HNO
3

(4) Zn ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
conc. HNO
3

145. Au and Pt are dissolved by aquaregia because :

(a) HCl is strong reducing agent.
(b) HNO3 is strong oxidising agent.
(c) HCl can help in complex formation.
(d) HCl is strong oxidant.
+
(e) NO 2 ion is formed which oxidises the metls.
Correct option are :
(1) a & e (2) b & c (3) d & a (4) d & e

146. In the ostwald's process, nitric acid is prepared by the catalytic oxidation of :
(1) N2 (2) NH3 (3) N2O5 (4) NO2
147. The true statement for the acids of phosphorus. H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is:
(1) H3PO3 on heating does not disproportionate.
(2) All of them are reducing in nature.
(3) All of them are tribasic acids.
(4) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three.

148. Cold solution of barium nitrite on mixing with sulphuric acid produces :
(1) BaSO4 + HNO2 (2) BaSO4 + HNO3
(3) BaSO4 + NO2 (4) BaSO4 + N2 + O2

149. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) P4O10 + H2O ⎯→ reactants involved
in formation of H3PO4.
(2) CaC2 + H2O ⎯→ C2H2 + Ca(OH)2;
Ca3P2 + H2O ⎯→ PH3 + Ca(OH)2
reactions involves in Holmes signal
(3) PH3 + KI ⎯→ PH4I ⎯⎯⎯ → KI +
KOH

H2O + PH3 ; purification of PH3

(4) PH3 + HI ⎯→ PH4I; shows Lewis
acidic nature of PH3.

150. Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because -

(1) Its colour is red
(2) It is highly polymerised
(3) It is tetratomic
(4) It is hard
151. White phosphorus reacts with caustic soda. The products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This
reaction is an example of?
(1) Oxidation
(2) Reduction
(3) Oxidation & Reduction
(4) Neutralisation

152. Each of the following is true of white and red phosphorus except that the –
(1) Are both soluble in CS2
(2) Can be oxidized by heating in air
(3) Consist of the same kind of atoms
(4) Can be converted into one another
153. The P–P–P bond angle in white phosphorus is –
(1) 120º (2) 109º28’
(3) 90º (4) 60º

154. Red phosphorus can be prepared from white phosphorus by :

(1) adding red colour to white phosphorus.
(2) heating white phosphorus to red heat.
(3) heating white phosphorus with few crystals of iodine.
(4) dissolving white phosphorus in NaOH.

155. Red and white phosphorus will differ but not in :

(1) smell
(2) solubility in CHCl3
(3) exhibiting phosphoresence
(4) reaction with conc. HNO3

156. The high reactivity and low volatility of white phosphorous is due to :
(1) tetrahedrally arranged P4 units
(2) bond angle of 60° increases steric (strain) factor.
(3) weak van der Waals forces of attraction.
(4) both (2) and (3)

OXYGEN FAMILY

157. On heating KClO3 we get -

(1) KClO2 + O2 (2) KCl + O2
(3) KCl + O3 (4) KCl + O2 + O3

158. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) O2 is weaker oxidant than O3
(2) O2 has small bond length than O3
(3) Both O2 and O3 are paramagnetic
 (4) O3 is angular in shape

159. O3 cannot oxidise -

(1) KI (2) FeSO4
(3) KMnO4 (4) K2MnO4
160. Oxygen is not evolved when :
(a) Potassium chlorate is heated with MnO2 catalyst.
(b) Sodium peroxide reacts with water.
(c) Ammonium nitrate is heated.
(d) Zinc oxide is treated with NaOH.
(1) b, c (2) a,b,c (3) c, d (4) All

161. Consider the following compounds :

(i) Sulphur dioxide
(ii) Hydrogen peroxide
(iii) Ozone
Among these compounds, those which can act as bleaching agents would include:
(1) 1 and 3 (2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 2 (4) 1, 2 and 3

162. Estimation of ozone can be made quantitatively by :

(1) decomposition into O2 and absorption of O2 into pyrogallol
(2) volumetric method using KI and titration of the liberated iodine using hypo solution.
(3) oxidative ozonolysis method
(4) all methods given above

163. H2S cannot be dried by passing over conc. H2SO4 because -

(1) The acid oxidises it
(2) The acid combines with H2S to form a salt
(3) Both form complex
(4) It dissolves in the acid

164. Which one can be used to test for H2S gas ?

(1) A smell of rotten egg
(2) A violet colouration with sodium nitroprusside
(3) Turnning lead acetate paper black
(4) All of these
165. Compounds A and B are treated with dilute HCl seperately. The gases liberated are Y
and Z respectively Y turns acidified dichromate paper green while Z turns lead acetate
paper black. So A and B compunds are respectively-
(1) Na2SO3, Na2S
(2) NaCl, Na2CO3
 (3) Na2S, and Na2SO3
(4) Na2SO3, K2SO4

166. Cyclic trimer structure of SO3 contains-

(1) 6 S=O bonds and three S–O–S bonds
(2) 3 S=O bonds and six S–O–S bonds
(3) 6 S=O bonds and six S–O–S bonds
(4) None of these

167. When SO2 gas is passed into an acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, the oxidation no. of
chromium change from-
(1) + 3 to + 6 (2) + 6 to + 3
(3) + 12 to + 3 (4) + 6 to – 3

168. Which compound acts as an oxidising as well as reducing agent ?

(1) SO2 (2) Mn2O7
(3) Al2O3 (4) CrO3

169. Which is not the correct statement ?

(1) The S8 ring is not planar
(2) Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur
(3) SF4 exists, but OF4 does not exist
(4) SO3 and SO32– both have trigonal planar geometry

170. SO2 and CO2 both turns lime water milky. Which of the following reagent can be used
to distinguish these two gases?
(I) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 (II) KMnO4/H+
(III) I2 solution
(1) I, II, III correct
(2) I, II only correct
(3) II, III only correct
(4) III only correct
171. SO2 gas is used as a bleaching action is :
(1) Temporary and due to its oxidizing nature.
(2) Temporary and due to its reducing action.
(3) Permanent and due to its oxidizing action.
(4) Permanent and due to its reducing action.

172. Gas the can not be collected over water is:

(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) PH3

173. SO2 behaves as a reducing agent when :

(1) passed over hot CuO
(2) mixed with most H2S
 (3) passed through acidified KMnO4 solution
(4) passed through FeSO4 solution

174. Which of the following statement is true for sulphur dioxide?

(1) It reacts with dry chlorine in absence of moisture to form sulphuryl chloride.
(2) It in acidic medium reduce halogens to corresponding halides.
(3) burning magnesium and potassium continue to burn in its atmosphere.
(4) All above are correct.

175. When an article is bleached by SO2 it loses its colour. The colour can be restored by :
(1) exposure to air
(2) heating
(3) dilution
(4) none of these

176. Which of the following oxacids of sulphur contains a sulphur-sulphur single bond ?
(1) H2S2O6 (2) H2S2O7
(3) H2S2O8 (4) H2S2O3
177. The structure of oleum is -
O O O
(1) HO–S–OH (2) HO–S–O–S–OH
O O O
O O O O
(3) HO–S–S–O–OH (4) HO–S–O–O–S–OH
O O O O

178. Sulphuric acid is a dibasic acid in nature, hence it forms -

(1) Acidic salt
(2) Acidic and basic salt
(3) Acidic and normal salt
(4) double salt

179. Sulphuric acid reacts with PCl5 to give -

(1) Thionyl chloride
(2) Sulphur monochloride
(3) Sulphuryl chloride (SO2Cl2)
(4) Sulphur tetrachloride

180. Hydrolysis of one mole of Pyrosulphuric acid produces –

(1) Two mole of sulphuric acid
(2) Two mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid
(3) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid
 (4) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxo sulphuric acid and one mole of
hydrogen peroxide

181. HCOOH reacts with conc. H2SO4 to produce –

(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) NO (4) NO2

182. In thiosulphuric acid :

(1) Each sulphur atom is in identical oxidation state.
(2) There is a S=S linkage present.
(3) One S atom is in +2 and other sulphur atom is in +4 oxidation state.
(4) There is only one replaceable hydrogen atom.
183. S–O–S bond is present in :
(1) In cyclic trimer of SO2
(2) H2S2O8
(3) H2S2O7
(4) (1) and (3) both

184. Which of the following does not have any S–S linkage ?
(1) Na2S2O4 (2) H2S2O5
(3) Na2S4O6 (4) None

185. What is true about H2SnO6 (polythionic acid) ?

(1) Total S–S bond = n
(2) No. of S with '0' state = n – 1
(3) No. of S with +5 state = n – 2
(4) No. of d-p bond = 4

186. Which does not contain X–X bond?

(X = Non metal)
(1) H2S2O5 (2) H2S2O6
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H4P2O6

187. In the reaction,


H2SO4 + P2O5 ⎯⎯ → (X) + SO3
the product (X) is :
(1) PH3 (2) H3PO4
(3) HPO3 (4) N4P2O7

188. Nitrating mixture is obtained by mixing conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. Role of H2SO4 in
nitration is :
(1) To force HNO3 be behave as a acid.
(2) To supress the dissociation of HNO3.
(3) To produce NO2+ ions.
(4) To remove the colour NO2 produced during nitration.
189. H2SO4 has very corrosive action on skin because :
(1) It reacts with proteins.
(2) It acts as an oxidising agent.
(3) It acts as a dehydrating agent.
(4) It acts as a dehydrating agent and absorption of water is highly exothermic.
190. Out of H2S2O3, H2S4O6, H2SO5 and H2S2O8 peroxy acids are :
(1) H2S2O3, H2S4O6
(2) H2S4O6, H2SO5
(3) H2SO5, H2S2O8
(4) H2S2O3 and H2S2O8

191. Which shows maximum catenation property ?

(1) Te (2) Se (3) S (4) O

192. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy –

(1) Se–Se (2) Te–Te
(3) S–S (4) O–O

193. Incorrectly matched characteristic is :

(1) S8 : Covalent lattice
(2) P4 : Tetrahedron
(3) S42– : Zig–Zag
(4) SiO2 : Covalent lattice

194. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect?

(1) Rhombic sulphur is stable at room temperature.
(2) Monoclinic sulphur is stable at room temperature.
(3) Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur has the molecular formula S 8.
(4) Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur are soluble in CS2.

Halogen Family

195. When chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of sodium halide in the presence
of chloroform, a violet colouration is obtained. This confirms that sodium halide is -
(1) Chloride (2) Fluoride
(3) Bromide (4) Iodide
196. Astatine is the element below iodine in the group VII A of the periodic table. Which of
the following statements is not true for astatine -
(1) It is less electronegative than iodine
(2) It will exhibit only –1 oxidation state
 (3) Intermolecular forces between the astatine molecules will be larger than between
iodine molecules
(4) It is composed of diatomic molecules

197. If Cl2 gas is passed into aqueous solution of KI containing some CCl4 and the mixture
is shaken, then -
(1) Upper layer becomes violet
(2) Lower layer becomes violet
(3) Homogeneous violet layer is formed
(4) None of these

198. Iodine is placed between two liquids C6H6 and water then -
(1) It dissolves more in C6H6
(2) It dissolves more in water
(3) It dissolves equally in both
(4) Does not dissolve in both

199. Iodine can form the ions -

(1) I– (2) I+ (3) I3+ (4) All

200. The F–F bond is weak because -

(1) The repulsion between the nonbonding pairs of electrons of two fluorine atoms is
large
(2) The ionization energy of the fluorine atom is very low
(3) The length of the F-F bond much larger than the bond lengths in other halogen
molecules
(4) The F-F bond distance is small and hence the internuclear repulsion between the two
F atoms is very low
201. A greenish yellow gas reacts with an alkali metal hydroxide to form a halate which can
be used in fire-works and safety matches. The gas and halides respectively are -
(1) Br2, KBrO3 (2) Cl2, KClO3
(3) I2, NalO3 (4) Cl2, NaClO

202. Chlorine act as a bleaching agent only in the presence of -

(1) Dry air (2) Moisture
(3) Sunlight (4) Pure oxygen

203. The reaction of sodium thiosulphate with I2 gives?

(1) Sodium dithionate
(2) Sodium sulphite
(3) Sodium sulphate
 (4) Sodium tetrathionate

204. Colour of iodine solution is discharged by shaking it with an aqueous solution of–
(1) H2SO4
(2) Sodium sulphide
(3) Sodium thiosulphate
(4) Sodium sulphate

205. Which of the following halogens has the highest bond energy ?
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 (3) Br2 (4) I2

206. Chlorine gas is dried over –

(1) CaO (2) NaOH
(3) KOH (4) Conc. H2SO4

207 The bleaching action of chlorine is due to–

(1) Reduction (2) Hydrogenation
(3) Chlorination (4) Oxidation

208. On oxidation with iodine sulphite ion is transformed to –

(1) S4O62– (2) S2O62–
(3) SO42– (4) SO32–
209. The solubility of I2 increases in water in presence of –
(1) KI (2) H2SO4
(3) KMnO4 (4) H2S

210. In the reaction 2Br– + X2 → Br2 + 2X–, X2 is –

(1) Cl2 (2) Br2 (3) I2 (4) N2

211. When I2 is passed through KCl, KF, KBr solutions –

(1) Cl2 and Br2 are evolved
(2) Cl2 is evolved
(3) Cl2, Br2, F2 are evolved
(4) None of these

212. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to property indicated –

(1) E.N. : F > Cl > Br
(2) E.A. : Cl > Br < F
(3) Oxidising power : F2 > Cl2 > Br2
(4) Bond energy : F2 > Cl2 > Br2

213. Which one of the following order is correct for the bond energies of halogen molecules
?
(1) I2 > Cl2 > Br2 (2) Br2 > Cl2 > I2
(3) I2> Br2 > Cl2 (4) Cl2 > Br2 > I2
214. Which element undergoes dispropor-tionation in water ?
(1) Cl2 (2) F2 (3) K (4) Cs

215. Iodine is not formed when potassium iodide reacts with :

(1) ZnSO4 (2) CuSO4
(3) Cl2 (4) Br2

216. The deep colour produced when iodine is dissolved in a solution of potassium iodide is
caused by the presence of :
(1) I2 (2) I– (3) I3– (4) I2–

217. True statement about I– will be :

(1) Weak base
(2) Strong nucleophile
(3) Strong reducing agent
(4) All
218. Which of the following is correct about the reaction ?

3NaClO ⎯⎯→ NaClO3 + 2NaCl
(1) It is disproportionation
(2) Oxidation number of Cl decreases as well as increases in this reaction
(3) This reaction is used for the manufacture of halates
(4) All of the above

219. The reaction :

3ClO– (aq.) → ClO3– (aq.) + 2Cl– (aq.)
Is an example of -
(1) Oxidation reaction
(2) Reduction reaction
(3) Disproportionation reaction
(4) Decomposition reaction

220. Which reaction is correct?

(1) Na2S2O3 + I2 ⎯→ NaIO3 + Na2SO4
(2) Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ NaCl + NaClO3
dil. NaOH

(3) P4 ⎯⎯⎯→ NaCl + NaClO3

NaOH

(4) None

221. Which can reduce I2 ?

(1) Hypo (2) F2 (3) Cl2 (4) All

222. Of the following statements :

(a) Cl2 gas is dried using conc. H2SO4.
(b) Fluorine have highest oxidising power.
(c) Oxidising power of halogens follow the order I2 > Br2 > Cl2.
 (d) HI is the strongest acid among HI, HBr, HCl.
(1) a, b and d are correct.
(2) a, c are correct.
(3) b, c are correct.
(4) c, d are correct.

223. Chlorine gas is dried over :

(1) CaO (2) NaOH
(3) H2SO4 (4) HBr

224. Iodine is liberated from KI solution when treated with :

(1) ZnSO4 (2) CuSO4
(3) NiSO4 (4) FeSO4
225. The high oxidising agent of fluorine is due to :
(1) high electron affinity
(2) high heat of dissociation and low heat of hydration.
(3) low heat of dissociation and high heat of hydration.
(4) high heat of dissociation and high heat of hydration.

226. Order of boiling point is -

(1) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(2) HF > HBr > HI > HCl
(3) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
(4) HCl > Hl > HBr > HF

227. Which one of the following is the most stable to heat ?

(1) HI (2) HBr (3) HCl (4) HF

228. Which of the following is a weak acid ?

(1) HCl (2) HBr (3) HF (4) HI

229. Mark the strongest reducing agent –

(1) H2F2 (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI

230. Which has the highest molar heat of vapourisation?

(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) Hl

231. HI cannot be prepared by the action of conc. H2SO4 on KI because –

(1) HI is stronger than H2SO4
(2) HI is more volatile than H2SO4
(3) H2SO4 is an oxidising agent
(4) H2SO4 forms complex

232. Which amongst the following reactions cannot be used for the preparation of the halogen
acid?
(1) 2KBr + H2SO4(Conc.) ⎯→
 K2SO4 + 2HBr
(2) 2NaCl + H2SO4(Conc.) ⎯→
NaHSO4 + HCl
(3) NaHSO4 + NaCl ⎯→ Na2SO4 + HCl
(4) CaF2 + H2SO4(conc.) ⎯→
CaSO4 + 2HF
233. Which of the following is a false statement ?
(1) Halogens are strong oxidising agent
(2) Halogen show only – 1 oxidation state
(3) HF molecules form intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(4) Fluorine is highly reactive

234. Which one of the following reacts with glass?

(1) H2SO4 (2) HF
(3) HNO3 (4) K2Cr2O7

235. HI can be prepared by all the following methods except –

(1) Pl3 + H2O (2) KI + H2SO4
(3) H2 + I2 (4) I2 + H2S

236. Which is correct?

(1) NaCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → yellow green gas
conc. H SO
2 4

(2) NaBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → red brown vapour

conc. H SO
2 4

(3) NaF + Cl2 ⎯→ NaCl + F2

(4) All

237. Consider the oxy acids HClOn series, here value of n is 1 to 4. Then incorrect statement
regarding these oxy acids is :
(1) Acidic character of oxy acids increases with increasing value of n.
(2) Oxidising power of oxy acids increases with decreasing value of n.
(3) Thermal stability of oxy acids decreases with increasing value of n.
(4) 'Cl–O' bond order decreases with decreasing value of n.

238. (1) NaCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → X(g)

conc. H SO
2 4

(2) NaBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Y(g)

conc. H SO
2 4

+
(3) NaCl ⎯⎯⎯
H
MnO
→ Z(g)
2

Coloured gas will be :

(1) Y (2) Y & Z
(3) X, Y, Z (4) Z
239. HBr and HI can reduce H2SO4, HCl can reduce KMnO4 and HF can reduce :
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) KMnO4
 (3) H2SO4 (4) None

240. Which amongst the following reactions cannot be used for the respective preparation?
(1) 2KBr + H2SO4 (conc.) ⎯→
K2SO4 + 2HBr
(2) NaCl + H2SO4 (conc.) ⎯→
NaHSO4 + HCl
(3) NaHSO4 + NaCl ⎯→ Na2SO4 + HCl
(4) CaF2 + H2SO4 ⎯→ CaSO4 + 2HF

241. In the preparation of HBr to HI, NaX (X = Br, I) is treated with H3PO4 and not by
concentrated H2SO4 since.
(1) H2SO4 makes the reaction reversible.
(2) H2SO4 oxidises HX to X2 (Br2, I2)
(3) Na2SO4 is water soluble and Na3PO4 is water insoluble.
(4) Na3PO4 is water insoluble and Na2SO4 is water soluble.

242. Select correct statement :

(1) Cl2O and ClO2 are used as bleaching agents and as germicides.
(2) I2O5 is used in the quantitative estimation of CO.
(3) Bond angle XOX varies in the order
FOF < ClOCl < BrOBr
(4) All are correct

243. Which among the following is paramagnetic ?

(1) Cl2O (2) ClO2
(3) Cl2O7 (4) Cl2O6

244. The correct order of acidic strength –

(1) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10
(2) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(3) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(4) K2O > CaO > MgO
245. The set with correct order of acidity is -
(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(3) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO

246. Which of the following is the strongest acid ?

(1) ClO3(OH) (2) ClO2(OH)
(3) SO(OH)2 (4) SO2(OH)2
247. The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine atom in ClO2– is –
(1) sp3 (2) sp2
(3) sp (4) None

248. The following acids have been arranged in the order of decreasing acid strength. Identify
the correct order –
ClOH(I) BrOH(II) IOH(III)
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > II >I (4) I > III > II

249. Which one is the anhydride of HClO4 –

(1) Cl2O (2) ClO2
(3) Cl2O6 (4) Cl2O7

250. The correct order of increasing hydration energy of the following conjugate bases of
oxoacids of chlorine is –
(1) ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4–
(2) ClO4– < ClO3– < ClO2– < ClO–
(3) ClO4– < ClO3– < ClO– < ClO2–
(4) ClO3– < ClO4– < ClO2– < ClO–

251. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) all halogens form oxyacids
(2) only chlorine and bromine form oxyacids.
(3) all halogens except fluorine form oxyacids
(4) only iodine forms oxyacid
252. The iodine atom is ICl2– involves -
(1) sp3d hydridization
(2) sp3d2 hybridization
(3) sp2 hybridization
(4) sp3 hydridization

253. Which of the following statement is correct for CsBr3 ?

(1) It is a covalent compound
(2) It contains Cs+3 and Br– ions
(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3– ions
(4) It contains Cs+, Br– and lattice Br2 molecule

254. Which bond is most polar ?

(1) Cl – F (2) Br – F
(3) I – F (4) F – F
255. The interhalogen which does not exist is :
(1) IF5 (2) ClF3 (3) BrCl (4) ICl4

256. The correct order of pseudohalide, polyhalide and interhalogen are :

(1) BrI2–, OCN–, IF5
(2) IF5, BrI2–, OCN–
(3) OCN–, IF5, BrI2–
(4) OCN–, BrI2–, IF5

INERT GAS

257. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to form an adduct. The shapes of cation and anion in the adduct
are respectively :
(1) Square planar, trigonal bipyramidal
(2) T-shaped, octahedral
(3) Square pyramidal, octahedral
(4) Square planar, octahedral

258. XeF6 dissolves in anhydrous HF to give a good conducting solution which contains:
(1) H+ and XeF7– ion
(2) HF2– and XeF5+ ion
(3) HXeF6+ and F– ions
(4) None of these
259. Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds are not feasible?
(1) 3XeF4 + 6H2O ⎯→
2Xe + XeO3 + 12 HF + 1.5 O2
(2) 2XeF2 + 2H2O ⎯→ 2Xe + 4HF + O2
(3) XeF6 + RbF ⎯→ Rb[XeF7]
(4) XeO3 + 6HF ⎯→ XeF6 + 3H2O

260. XeF2 reacts with PF5 to give :

(1) XeF6 (2) [XeF]+ [PF6]–
(3) XeF4 (4) [PF4]+ [XeF3]–

261. What is/are common hydrolysis product of XeF2 and XeF4 :

(1) HF (2) O2 (3) Xe (4) All

262. O2 is formed in hydrolysis of :

(1) F2 (2) XeF4 (3) XeF2 (4) All

263. Incorrect statement regarding following reactions is :

 + Excess H2O
'X' + HF
XeF6
+ 2H2O
'Y' + HF
(1) 'X' is explosive.
(2) 'Y' is an oxyacid of xenon.
(3) Both are example of non-redox reaction.
(4) XeF6 can undergo partial hydrolysis.

264. 'X' + 6H2O ⎯→ 'Y' + 6HF

X + H2O ⎯→ 'Z' + 2HF
If 'X' is xenon hexafluoride than incorrect statement is :
(1) compound 'Y' is XeO3 which is explosive solid.
(2) Both compound 'Y' and 'Z' have same number of lone pair(s) at central atom.
(3) 'Z' is a partially hydrolysed product of compound 'X'.
(4) 'X' act as fluoride donor when it reacts with alkali metal fluoride.
265. Which of the following xenon compound has the same number of lone pair as in I3– ?
(1) XeO4 (2) XeF4 (3) XeF2 (4) XeO2

266. MF + XeF4 ⎯→ 'A' (M+ = Alkali metal cation)

The state of hybridization of the central atom in 'A' and shape of the species are :
(1) sp3d, TBP
(2) sp3d3, distorted octahedral
(3) sp3d3, pentagonal planar
(4) No compound formed at all

267. In the clatherates of xenon with water, the nature of bonding between xenon and water
molecule is :
(1) Covalent
(2) Hydogen bonding
(3) Co-ordinate
(4) dipole induced dipole interaction

268. Which of the following is not true about helium?

(1) It has the lowest boiling point.
(2) It has the highest first ionization energy.
(3) It can diffuse through rubber and plastic material.
(4) It can form clatherate compounds.
 EXERCISE # II
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 1 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 4
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 1 1 1 2 3
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 1 3 4 1 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 4 4 1
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 3 4 1 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 4
[Link]. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 1 4
[Link]. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 4 4 3 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2
[Link]. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 4 3 3 4 4
[Link]. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 2 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 3
[Link]. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 4 2 1 4 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 1
[Link]. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 1 2 4 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 4 1
[Link]. 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
Ans. 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 4 4 1 1 3 4 4 3 4
[Link]. 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
Ans. 1 1 3 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 1
[Link]. 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
Ans. 2 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 2
[Link]. 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268
Ans. 4 4 2 4 3 3 4 4
 METALLURGY (exercise-2)
Ores, Mineral
10. Which of the following mineral does not
1. A mineral is called an ore if – contain Al –
(1) A metal can be economically obtained (1) Cryolite (2) Mica
from it
(3) Feldspar (4) Fluorspar
(2) A metal can be extracted from it
(3) A metal can not be obtained from it
(4) It contains a precious metal 11. Important ore of aluminium is –
(1) Malachite (2) Cinnabar
2. Chloride ore among the following is - (3) Bauxite (4) Magnetite
(1) Malachite (2) Magnesite
(3) Magnetite (4) Rock salt 12. The carbonate ore of iron and sulphide ore
of copper are respectively -
3. Corundum is –
(1) Limonite and malachite
(1) SiC (2) Al2O3
(3) Al2O3.2H2O (4) KAlSi3O8 (2) Siderite and chalcopyrite
(3) Haematite and chalcocite
4. Consider – (4) Magnetite and azurite
(1) Zinc blande = Zn2O
(2) Pyrolusite = MnO2 13. Malachite is -
(3) Cryolite = Na3AIF6
(1) Al2O3.H2O (2) Cu(OH)CuCO3
(4) Cinnabar = PbS
(3) Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 (4) FeCO3
Which is/are not correctly matched -
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only
(3) 4 only (4) 1 and 4 14. Which is not iron ore ?
(1) Haematite (2) Siderite
5. Bauxite has the formula – (3) Dolomite (4) Limonite
(1) Al2O3.H2O (2) Al2O3.2H2O
(3) Al2O3.3H2O (4) KAlSi3O8 15. Among the following statements, the
incorrect one is -
6. The most common ore of copper is –
(1) Calamine and siderite are carbonates
(1) Cu2S (2) CuFeS2
(3) [Link](OH)2 (4) Cu5FeS4 (2) Argentite and cuprite are oxides
(3) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides
7. Galena is an ore of: (4) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
(1) Pb (2) Hg (3) Sn (4) Zn
16. Pyrolusite is a /an
8. Choose the set of carbonate ore –
(1) Oxide ore (2) Sulphide ore
(a) Galena (b) Siderite
(3) Carbide ore (4) Not an ore
(c) Copper pyrites (d) Malachite
Answer is- 17. Which of the following is not a mineral of
(1) a,c (2) b,d (3) b,c (4) a,d iron ?
9. Carnalite is a mineral of - (1) Magnetite (2) Siderite
(1) Ca (2) Na (3) Mg (4) Zn (3) Smithsonite (4) Limonite
18. Which of the following is a carbonate ore? 25. Mac-Aurthur forrest process is used for
(1) Pyrolusite (2) Malachite the extraction of –
(3) Diaspore (4) Casseterite (1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Fe (4) Ag

Concentration of Ores 26. In froth floatation, the oil used is –

(1) Olive oil (2) Pine oil
19. The rocky and silicious matter associated (3) Coconut oil (4) Mustard oil
with an ore is called –
(1) Slag (2) Mineral 27. Which of the following is concentrated by
(3) Gangue (4) Flux electromagnetic method –
(1) Haematite (2) Cinnabar
20. Froth floatation process is used for the (3) Argentite (4) Galena
concentration of –
(1) Oxide ores (2) Sulphide ores 28. Baeyer's process is used for the
(3) Chloride ores (4) None of these purification of Bauxite containing ..........
as impurity –
21. Leaching is a process of – (1) Silica (2) Rutile (3) Fe2O3 (4) None
(1) Reduction (2) Concentration
(3) Refining (4) Oxidation 29. An ore of tin containing FeCrO4 is
concentrated by –
22. Concentration of copper pyrites is done by (1) Magnetic separation
- (2) Froth floatation
(1) Gravity separation (3) Electrostatic
(2) Froath floatation process (4) Gravity separation
(3) Electromagnetic separation
(4) Roasting 30. Identify the process to which the
following reaction belongs –
23. Which of the following metal is obtained Al2O3.2H2O + Na2CO3 →
by leaching process using a solution of 2NaAlO2 + 2H2O + CO2
50 − 60 º C
NaCN and then precipitating the metal by 2NaAlO2 + 2H2O + CO2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
addition of zinc dust – Al2O3. 2H2O + Na2CO3
(1) Copper (2) Silver (1) Hall's process (2) Baeyer's process
(3) Nickel (4) Iron (3) Serpeck's process (4) None of these
24. Identify M in the equation : 31. Mac Arthur process is used for –
4M + 8CN + 2H2O + O2 →
– (1) Ag (2) Fe (3) Cl (4) Cu
4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–
(1) Copper (2) Iron 32. For which ore of the metal froth floatation
method is used for concentration -
(3) Silver (4) Zinc
 (1) Horn silver (2) Bauxite (4) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2
(3) Cinnabar (4) Haematite
39. Which of the following statement is
33. In forth floatation process for the correct regarding the slag obtained during
purification of ores the particles of ore
the extraction of a metal like copper or
float because -
iron –
(1) Their surface is not easily wetted by
water (1) The slag is lighter and has higher
(2) They are light melting point than the metal
(3) They are insoluble (2) The slag is lighter and has lower
(4) They bear electrostatic charge melting point than the metal
(3) The slag is heavier and has higher
34. Which of the following reaction is a part melting point than the metal
of Hall's process? (4) The slag is heavier and has lower
(1) Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O melting point than the metal
(2) Fe2O3 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O3
(3) AlN + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + NH3 40. The aim of addition of flux along with the
(4) Al2O3.2H2O + 2Na2CO3 → 2NaAlO2 ore during smelting is –
+ CO2 + 2H2O
(1) To reduce the melting point of metal

Calcination, Roasting
(2) For increasing boiling point of metal
35. Heating of pyrites in air for oxidation of (3) To make ore porous
sulphur is called – (4) To remove the impurities
(1) Roasting (2) Calcination
(3) Smelting (4) Slagging 41. Which of the following is used for the
extraction of cadmium from cadmium
36. Which one of the following is not a basic sulphide–
flux – (1) Roasting (2) Reduction
(1) CaCO3 (2) CaO
(3) Oxidation (4) Electrolysis
(3) SiO2 (4) MgO

37. Heating of carbonates to remove carbon is 42. Roasting is carried out in –

called as – (1) A blast furnace
(1) Roasting (2) Calcination (2) A reverberatory furnace
(3) Smelting (4) Fluxing (3) A muffle furnace
38. Which one of the following reactions is an (4) An electric furnace
example for calcination process – 43. A reaction showing slag formation is –
(1) 2Ag + 2HCl + (O) → 2AgCl + H2O (1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
(2) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO (2) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
(3) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 (3) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
 (4) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (3) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
(4) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2
44. A flux is often added to remove impurities
from an ore in a blast furnace. In the 51. Heating pyrite ores to remove sulphur is
reaction, known as -
CaO + SiO2 ⎯→ CaSiO3 the slag and the (1) Liquation (2) Smelting
flux are – (3) Calcination (4) Roasting
(1) CaSiO3 and SiO2 (2) CaSiO3 and CaO
(3) CaO and SiO2 (4) SiO2 and CaSiO3 52. In the removal of silica during smelting,
the flux used is –
45. When a sulphide ore is roasted, the (1) ferric oxide
product obtained is usually – (2) calcium oxide
(1) A metal (2) A sulphite (3) cupric oxide
(3) An oxide (4) A nitride (4) phosphorus pentoxide

46. Which of the following ores is 53. Calcination is the process in which –
concentrated by leaching – (1) Heating the ore in presence of air
(1) Pyrite (2) Galena (2) Heating the ore in presence of sulphur
(3) Cuprite (4) Argentite (3) Heating the ore in absence of air
(4) Heating the ore in presence of chlorine
47. In the froth floatation process the particles
of the ore come on the froth because – Reduction
(1) They become water repellent
(2) They have light 54. Which one of the following metals is
(3) They are lower molecular weight extracted by carbon reduction process –
(4) Both 1 & 2 are correct (1) Sodium (2) Iron
(3) Aluminium (4) Magnesium
48. Leaching process is used to concentrate-
(1) Bauxite (2) Galena 55. False statement is –
(3) Cinnabar (4) None of these (1) Mond's process is used for refining of
nickel
49. In the Hall-Heroult process for extraction (2) Gold is extracted by cyanide process
of Al, the ore is fused with - (3) Calcination of an ore requires excess
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2CO3 of air
(3) NaF (4) Na3AlF6 (4) None
50. Which one of the following reactions is an 56. In the metallurgy of iron, when lime stone
example for calcination process ? is added to the blast furnace, the calcium
(1) 2Ag + 2HCl + (O) → 2AgCl + H2O ion ends up in –
(1) Slag (2) Gangue
(3) Metallic Ca (4) CaCO3
(2) 2 Zn + O2 → 2ZnO2
 64. Extraction of silver from Ag2S by the use
57. A reaction showing slag formation is – of sodium cyanide is an example of:
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 (1) roasting (2) hydrometallurgy
(2) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 (3) electrometallurgy (4) smelting
(3) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
(4) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 65. Aluminothermic process is used in the
extraction of
58. In metallurigical processess, the flux used (1) Mn (2) Cr
for removing basic impurities is – (3) Co (4) All of these
(1) Silica
(2) Sodium chloride 66. Which reaction take place in Bessemer
(3) Limestone converter ?
(4) Sodium carbonate (1) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
59. In the extraction of copper from its (3) CuO + C → Cu + CO
sulphide ore the metal is formed by (4) CuCO3 → CuO + CO2
reduction of Cu2O with:
(1) FeS (2) CO (3) Cu2S (4) SO2
67. Reducing metal required in Goldschmidt
Alumino Thermic process is
60. The commonest method for the extraction
(1) Chromium powder
of metals from oxide ores involves –
(2) Zinc powder
(1) Reduction with carbon
(3) Aluminium powder
(2) Reduction with aluminium
(4) Silver powder
(3) Reduction with hydrogen
(4) Electrolytic method
68. Which of the following mixture is used in
the electrolysis of aluminium ?
61. Copper matte consist of :
(1) Al2O3 + BaF2 (2) Na3AlF6 + Al2O3
(1) Copper oxide and ferrous sulphide
(3) NaAlO2 + Al2O3 (4) Al2O3 + NaOH
(2) Copper sulphide and ferrous oxide
(3) Copper sulphide and ferrous sulphide
(4) Copper oxide and ferrous oxide 69. Calcium is obtained by -
(1) Roasting of lime stone
62. The process in which metal oxide is (2) Electrolysis of calcium chloride in H2O
reduced to metal by Al is called: (3) Electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium
(1) Smelting (2) Aluminothermy chloride
(3) hydrothermy (4) no specific name (4) Reduction of calcium oxide with
63. In the extraction of lead by self reduction carbon
process the reducing agent is - 70. After partial roasting the sulphide of
(1) PbS (2) O2 (3) C (4) Al copper is reduced by -
(1) Cyanide process
 (2) Electrolysis (1) silica (2) sodium chloride
(3) Reduction with carbon (3) limestone (4)sodium carbonate
(4) Self reduction
77. Aluminium oxide is not reduced by
71. In the manufacture of iron from haematite, chemical reactions since -
(1) Aluminium oxide is highly stable
limestone is added to act as -
(2) Aluminium oxide is reactive
(1) An oxidizing agent
(3) Reducing agents contaminate
(2) A reducing agent
(4) The process pollutes the environment
(3) Flux
(4) Slage 78. In the extraction of iron from an ore, the
slag obtained from blast furnace in the
72. The cryolite is used in the electrolytic mixture of -
extraction of aluminium - (1) CaO + FeO
(1) To oxidise bauxite (2) FeSiO3 + CaO
(2) To get more aluminium (3) CaSiO3 + Aluminium silicate
(3) To protect anode (4) CaCO3 + Al2O3
(4) To reduce the m.p. of Alumina
79. Which of the following sulphides when
heated strongly in air gives the
73. The metal which cannot be produced on
corresponding metal ?
reduction of its oxide by aluminium is –
(1) Cu2S (2) CuS
(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Cr (4) Fe
(3) HgS (4) FeS

74. Magnesium can be obtained by - 80. In the electrolytic method of obtaining

(1) Reducing MgO with coke aluminium from purified bauxite, cryolite
(2) Reducing magnesium salt solution with is added to the charge in order to –
Fe (1) Minimise the heat loss due to radiation
(3) Electrolysis of fused magnesium salt (2) Protect aluminium produced from
(4) Electrolysis of aqueous Mg(NO3)2 oxygen
solution (3) dissolve bauxite and render it
conductor of electricity
(4) Lower the melting point of bauxite
75. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis
of
81. Sodium is extracted from
(1) Bauxite
(1) Aqueous sodium chloride
(2) Alumina
(2) molten sodium chloride
(3) Alumina mixed with molten cryolite (3) NaOH
(4) NaNO3
(4) Molten cryolite 82. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is
76. In metallurgical processes, the flux used achieved by
for removing acidic impurities is - (1) Electrolytic reduction
 (2) Roasting followed by reduction with
carbon 88. Carbon cannot be used in the reduction of
(3) Roasting followed by reduction with Al2O3 because :
another metal (1) it is an expensive.
(4) Roasting followed by self-reduction (2) the enthalpy of formation of CO2 is
more than that of Al2O3.
83. Which of the following method used for
(3) pure carbon is not easily available.
obtaining aluminium metal –
(4) the enthalpy of formation of Al2O3 is
(1) Electrolysing fused Al2O3 and cryolite
too high.
(2) By heating Al2O3 with carbon
(3) By heating Al2O3 in muffle furnace
89. Which of the following reaction is not
(4) By a process called Pyrometallurgy
involved in themite process?

84. Extraction of metal from the ore (1) 3Mn2O4 + 8Al → 9Mn + 4Al2O3
cassiterite involves – (2) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(1) carbon reduction of an oxide ore (3) 2Fe + Al2O3 → 2Al + Fe2O3
(2) self-reduction of a sulphide ore (4) B2O3 + 2Al → 2B + Al2O3
(3) removal of copper impurity
(4) removal of iron impurity 90. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
85. Oxidation states of the metal in the
below in the lists.
minerals haematite and magnetite,
List-I (Metals) List-II
respectively, are –
(Process/methods
(1) II, III in haematite and III in magnetite
involved in
(2) II, III in haematite and II in magnetite
extraction process)
(3) II in haematite and II, III in magnetite
(4) III in haematite and II, III in magnetite (a) Au (1) Self reduction
(b) Al (2) Liquation
86. In the extraction of copper, metal is (c) Pb (3) Electrolysis
formed in the Bessemer converter due to (d) Sn (4) Bayer's process
reaction : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 (1) 3 1 2 4
(2) Cu2S → 2Cu + S (2) 3 4 1 2
(3) Fe + Cu2O → 2Cu + FeO (3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 2Cu2O → 4Cu + O2 (4) 3 2 4 1
87. Which of the following process involves 91.
air
Pbs ⎯⎯ → X, X + PbS → Pb + SO2. 'X'

smelting?
(1) 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2 may be :
(2) Al2O3.2H2O → Al2O3 + 2H2O (1) PbO (2) PbO2
(3) Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe + 2CO2 (3) PbO and PbSO4 (4) PbO2 and PbO
(4) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr + Heat
92. Reducing agent of haematite in blast-
furnace is : 98. CO on passing over heated nickel gives -
(1) Coke in furnace (1) NiCO3 (2) Ni(CO)4
(2) Coke in upper part and CO in lower (3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO + H2
part of furnace.
(3) CO in most part of the furnace. 99. Purification of silicon element used in
(4) CO in the furnace. semi-conductors is done by –
(1) Zone refining
93. Main source of lead is PbS. It is converted (2) Heating
to Pb by : (3) Froth floatation
air
A : PbS ⎯⎯ C
→ PbO+SO2 ⎯⎯ → Pb+ CO2 (4) Heating in vacuum
 
insufficient air
B : PbS ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 
→ PbO + PbS 100. Mond's process is used for refinining –

⎯⎯
→ Pb + SO2 (1) Ni (2) Co
Self reduction process is : (3) NH3 (4) H2SO4
(1) A (B) B (3) Both (4) None
101. Which process represents the equation –
94. Matte : Ti + 2I2 → TiI4 → Ti + 2I2
(1) Cu2S + FeS (2) Cu2O + FeS (1) Cupellation (2) Van - Arkel
(3) Cu2O + Cu2S (4) FeS + SiO2 (3) Poling (4) Zone refining

95. Which one of the following metals cannot 102. In the smelting of Cu2S, the flux is –
be extracted by using Al as a reducing (1) CaSiO3 (2) FeO
agent? (3) FeSiO3 (4) SiO2
(1) Na from Na2O (2) Cr from Cr2O3
(3) Mn from MnO2 (4) V from V2O5 103. Cupellation process is involved in the
metallurgy of –
96. Which reaction shows formation of (1) Copper (2) Silver
bilstered copper? (3) Gold (4) Lead
(1) 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2 
(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2  104. In electro-refining the impure metal is
made as-
(3) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
(1) Cathode (2) Anode
(4) Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO 
(3) Electrolyte (4) 1 & 3
Purification of Metal
105. The process of Zone refining is based
upon
97. Refining of silver is done by–
(1) Fractional crystallization
(1) Liquation (2) Poling
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Cupellation (4) Van arkel method
(3) Magnetic properties of impurities
 (4) Impurities are less fusible than metals (3) Iron (4) Aluminium

106. Van Arkel method of purification of 110. In the electrolytic refining of pure copper
metals involves converting the metal to a
from impure copper the anode is made up
(1) Volatile stable compound
of -
(2) Volatile unstable compound
(1) Graphite (2) Platinum
(3) Non volatile stable compound
(4) Non volatile unstable compound (3) Pure Cu (4) Impure Cu

107. Zone refining is a method to obtain - 111. Which process of purification is

(1) Very high temperature represented by the following scheme ?
(2) Ultra pure Al
Ti(impure) + 2I2 ⎯⎯⎯→ TiI4
250 º C

(3) Ultra pure metals

TiI4 ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ Ti (pure) + I2
1400 º C
(4) Ultra pure oxides
(1) Cupellation
108. In which of the following maximum (2) Poling
percentage of carbon - (3) Zone refining
(1) Electrolysis copper (4) Van-Arkel process
(2) Cast iron
(3) Steel
112. Tin and lead can be refined by:
(4) Stainless steel
(1) Distillation (2) Liquation
109. Cupellation process is used in the (3) Levigation (4) Leaching
metallurgy of -
(1) Copper (2) Gold
 METALLARGY (exercise-2)
EXERCISE – 2

1. An ore after levigation is found to have (1) Cu (2) Au (3) Ag (4) All
acidic impurities. Which of the following 8. Match the method of concentration of the
can be used as flux during smelting ore in column I with the ore in column II
operation?
and select the correct alternate
(1) H2SO4 (2) CaCO3
(I) (II)
(3) SiO2 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(i) Magnetic separation (A) Ag2S
2. Froth floatation process is based on: (ii) Froth Floatation (B) FeCr2O4
(1) Wetting properties of ore particles (ii) Gravity separation (C) Al2(SiO3)3
(2) Specific gravity of ore particles i ii iii
(3) Magnetic properties of ore particles (1) A B C
(2) B A C
(4) Electrical properties of ore particles
(3) C A B
(4) B C A
3. Gold is extracted by hydro-metallurgical
process, based on its property
(1) of being electropositive 9. Ag2S + NaCN ⎯→ A, A + Zn ⎯→ B
(2) of being less reactive B is a metal . Hence A and B :
(3) to form complex which are water (1) Na2 [Zn(CN)4], Zn
soluble (2) Na [Ag(CN)2], Ag
(4) to form salts which are water soluble
(3) Na[Ag(CN)4], Ag
(4) Na3 [Ag(CN)4], Ag
4. Cassiterite is concentrated by:
(1) Levigation
(2) Electromagnetic separation 10. Which one of the following ores is best
(3) Floatation method concentrated by froth-flotation method?
(4) Liquefaction (1) Galena (2) Cassiterite
(3) Magnetite (4) Malachite
5. Which one of the following ores is not
concentrated by froth floatation process? 11. Extraction of silver from its ore involving
(1) Copper pyrites (2) Argentite
NaCN, air and an active metal is known
(3) Pyrolusite (4) zinc blende
as:
(1) Mond’s method
6. "Hydro metallurgy" method is used for the
extraction of the following metals - (2) Amalgamation method
(1) Zn and Ag (2) Ag and Cu (3) Mc Arthur-Forrest method
(3) Zn and Hg (4) Hg and Cu (4) Van Arkel

7. Which of the following is obtained by 12. The flux used in the extraction of iron is:
hydrometallurgy -
 (1) Limestone (2) Silica 17. Which of the following sulphides when
(3) Flint (4) Feldspar heated strongly in air gives the
13. After partial roasting the sulphide of correspoding metal?
(1) Cu2S (2) CuS (3) FeS (4) HgS
copper is reduced by:
18. x, y and z in the following processes are
(1) Cyanide process
respectively
(2) Electrolysis (A) P2O5 + .........x ..............→ Ca3(PO4)2
(3) Reduction with carbon (B) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → ....... y .....+ SO2
(4) Self reduction (C) Fe2O3 + 3CO → .......z......+ 3CO2 

14. The process of converting hydrated (1) 3Ca, CuSO4, Fe

alumina into anhydrous alumina is called: (2) 3Ca(OH)2, 6Cu, FeO
(1) Roasting (2) Smelting (3) 3CaO, 6Cu, 2Fe
(3) Dressing (4) Calcination (4) 3CaO2, CuS, FeO

19. Of the following reduction process -

15. In which of following reaction
A : Fe2O3 + C ⎯→ Fe
"Philosopher's wool" is formed -
B : ZnO + C ⎯→ Zn

(1) Zn + S ⎯⎯→ ZnS
C : SnO2 + C ⎯→ Sn

(2) Zn + Cl2 ⎯⎯→ ZnCl2 D : PbO + C ⎯→ Pb

(3) FeS + O2 ⎯⎯→ FeO + SO2 Correct processes are -

(4) Zn + H2O (steam) ⎯⎯→ ZnO + H2 (1) A, B, C and D (2) A, B, D
(3) A, B, C (4) B, D

16. Match the following

20. Consider the following steps :
List I List II
Cu2S ⎯roast
⎯⎯ ⎯→ A ⎯roast
in air
⎯ ⎯without
⎯ ⎯⎯ air
→ B
(A) Calcination a. 2Cu2S + 3O2 → Which is not the correct statement -
2Cu2O + 2SO2 (1) it is self -reduction
(B) Roasting b. Fe2O3.nH2O → (2) A is only Cu2O and B is a mixture of
Fe2O3 + nH2O Cu and SO3
(C) Flux c. Cr2O3 + 2Al → (3) A is a mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S and
B is a mixture of Cu and SO2
Al2O3 + 2Cr
(4) all are incorrect statements
(D) Thermite d. SiO2 + FeO →
FeSiO3 21. Main source of lead is PbS. It is converted
A B C D to Pb by -
(1) a b c d (A) : PbS ⎯⎯→
air
PbO+SO2 ⎯⎯→ C
Pb+CO2
 
(2) b a d c 
(B) : PbS ⎯⎯→
air
PbO+PbS ⎯⎯→ Pb+SO2
(3) d a b c 

(4) c a b d Self reduction process is -

(1) A (2) B (3) both (4) none
22. In which of the following isolations no 27. Of the following reduction processes, the
reducing agent is required - correct process(es) is/are :
(1) iron from haematite 
(1) B2O3 + Al ⎯⎯ → B
(2) aluminium from bauxite 
(3) mercury from cinnabar (2) Cr2O3 + 2Al ⎯⎯ → Cr

(4) zinc from zinc blende (3) TiCl4 + Mg ⎯⎯ → Ti
23. In the electrolytic method of obtaining (4) All the above
aluminium from purified bauxite, cryolite 28. Select the correct statement.
is added to the charge in order to : (1) Dolomite contains both magnesium
(1) Minimise the heat loss due to radiation. and calcium.
(2) Protect aluminium produced from oxygen. (2) Extraction of lead from galena
(3) dissolve bauxite and render it conductor involves roasting in limited supply of air
of electricity.
at moderate temperature.
(4) Increases the melting point of bauxite.
(3) Extraction of zinc from zinc blende
24. The metal that cannot be obtained by
involves roasting followed by reduction
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its
with carbon.
salts is :
(4) All the above
(1) Cu (2) Cr (3) Ag (4) Ca

25. Which series of reactions correctly 29. Which of the following is/are correctly
represents chemical relations related to matched ?
iron and its compound? (1) Copper – Bessemer converter
Cl , heat
(1) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ FeCl3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
heat, air (2) Iron – Blast furnance
Zn (3) Chromium – Aluminothermic process
FeCl2 ⎯⎯→ Fe
O , heat CO, 600C
(4) All the above
(2) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ Fe3O4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
CO, 700C
FeO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Fe 30. The following equation represents a
dil. H 2SO 4 H 2SO 4 , O 2
→ FeSO4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(3) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → method of purification of nickel by,
Heat
Fe2(SO4)2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ Fe Ni + 2CO
320 K
Ni(CO)4
420 K
Ni + 4CO
Impure Pure
O , heat dil. H SO
(4) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ FeO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4
→
(1) Cupellation
Heat
FeSO4 ⎯⎯⎯
→ Fe (2) Mond’s process
(3) Van Arkel method
26. In which of the following extraction no
(4) Zone refining
reducing agent in required?
(1) Iron from haematite
31. Poling process is used:
(2) Tin from caseterite
(1) For the removal of Cu2O from Cu
(3) Magnesium from carnallite
(4) Zinc from zinc blende (2) For the removal of Al2O3 From Al
(3) For the removal of Fe2O3 from Fe
(4) In all the above
 (3) IV II I III
32. Purification of silicon element used in (4) III I II IV
semiconductors is done by:
(1) Zone refining 35. The method of zone refining of metals is
(2) Heating based on the principle of :
(3) Froth floatation (1) Greater mobility of the pure metal than
(4) Heating in vaccum
that of the impurity.
33. Nickel is purified by thermal decomposition
(2) Higher molting point of the impurity
of its:
(1) Hydride (2) Chloride that that of the pure metal.
(3) Azide (4) Carbonyl (3) Greater noble character of the solid
metal than that of the impurity.
34. Match list I with II and select the correct
(4) Greater solubility of the impurity in the
answer using the codes given below the
lists. molten state than in the solid.
List I List II
A. Van Arkel I. Purification of
36. Purification of Ge like semiconductor is
method titanium
done by :
B. Solvay process II. Manufacture of
Na2CO3 (1) Cyanide process
C. Cupellation III. Purification of (2) Van arkel process
copper
(3) Alumino thermite
D. Polling IV. Refining of silver
(4) Zone refining
A B C D
(1) I II IV III
(2) II I III IV
 METALLARGY (exercise-3)
1. Sulphide ores of metals are usually 6. In the extraction of copper from its
concentrated by froth floatation process. sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained
Which one of the following sulphide ores by the reduction of cuprous oxide with:
offers an exception and is concentrated by [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
chemical leaching? [AIPMT-2007] (1) Iron sulphide (FeS)
(1) Sphalerite (2) Argentite (2) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(3) Galena (4) Copper pyrites (3) Copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S)
(4) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
2. Which of the following elements is
present as the impurity to the maximum 7. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal
extent in the pig iron? as a constituent in it. [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
[AIPMT Pre.-2011] (1) Bell metal (2) Bronze
(3) Invar (4) Steel
(1) Manganese (2) Carbon
(3) Silicon (4) Phosphorus
8. Which one of the following is a mineral of
iron? [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
3. Which of the following pairs of metals is (1) Pyrolusite (2) Magnetite
purified by van Arkel method ? (3) Malachite (4) Cassiterite
[AIPMT Pre.-2011]
(1) Ga and In (2) Zr and Ti 9. Which method of purification is
(3) Ag and Au (4) Ni and Fe represented by the following equation :
[AlPMT-2012]
523 K
4. The following reactions take place in the Ti(s) + 2I2(g) ⎯⎯⎯→ TiI4(g)
1700 K
blast furnace in the preparation of impure ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Ti(s) + 2I2(g)
iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the (1) Van Arkel (2) Zone refining
formation of the slag:-
(3) Cupellation (4) Poling
[AIPMT Mains-2011]
(1) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g) 10. Which of the following is separated as
(2) Fe2O3(s)+3CO(g)→2Fe(l)+3CO2(g) slag during extraction of Fe in blast
furnace? [AIIMS-2014]
(3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(1) SiO2 (2) Al2O3 (3) CaO (4) MgO
(4) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s)

11. In the extraction of copper from its

5. Aluminium is extracted from alumina sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained
(Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten by the reduction of cuprous oxide with :
mixture of : [AIPMT Pre.-2012] [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2 (1) copper (I) sulphide
(2) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6 (2) sulphur dioxide
(3) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4 (3) iron (II) sulphide
(4) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4 (4) carbon monoxide
12. In extraction of metal by bessemerisation,
Cu2S is converted into : [AIIMS-2015]
 (1) Cu2O (2) CuO 15. Which of the following statement is
(3) Cu (4) CuFeO2 correct about blast furnace?
[AIIMS- 2017]
13. Match items of Column-I with the items
of Column-II and assign the correct code: (1) CaCO3 is used to produce O2
[NEET-I-2016] (2) Fe2O3 convert into Fe3O4
Column-I Column-II
(a) Cyanide (i) Ultrapure Ge (3) Wrought iron can directly be obtained
process from blast furnace.
(b) Froth floatation (ii) Dressing of ZnS
(4) Wrought iron is 100% pure.
process
(c) Electrolytic (iii) Extraction of Al
reduction 16. In the fusion of chromite ore with sodium
(d) Zone refining (iv) Extraction of
Au carbonate in excess of air which of the
(v) Purification of following is not formed. [AIIMS-2017]
Ni
(1) Fe2O3 (2) Na2CrO4
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) CO2 (4) Na2Cr2O7
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 17. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of
(4) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) the following metals can be used to reduce
alumina? [NEET-2018]
14. Extraction of gold and silver involves
leaching with CN– ion. Silver is later (1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Mg (4) Cu
recovered by : [NEET(UG)-2017]
(1) distillation 18. Which one is malachite from the
(2) zone refining
following ? [NEET-2019]
(3) displacement with Zn
(4) liquation (1) CuFeS2 (2) Cu(OH)2
(3) Fe3O4 (4) [Link](OH)2
 EXERCISE–I
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 2 3 2
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 4
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 4 2 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 1
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 4
[Link]. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 2 1 1 4 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1
[Link]. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112
Ans. 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 2

EXERCISE–II
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 3 1 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
2 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 4 2 1 1 4 1 4 4

EXERCISE–III
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. 2 2 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 3 4
 d -BLOCK (exercise-1)

1. Which of the following set of metals can form alloy -

(1) Cu – Au (2) Li – Na
(3) Fe – Hg (4) All

2. Which of the following sets of elements exhibits decreasing order of atomic radii?
(a) Sc, Y, La (b) Ti, V, Cr
(c) Ni, Cu, Zn (d) K, Ca, Sc
Correct answer is -
(1) Only b (2) b and c
(3) b and d (4) All

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of transition metal?

(1) High enthalpy of atomisation
(2) Formation of interstitial compounds
(3) Diamagnetism
(4) Variable oxidation state

4. Transition metals ions form interstitial compounds because -

(1) Interstices are available in their crystal lattice
(2) They have empty d-orbitals
(3) They have high value of ionic potential
(4) They show variable oxidation states

5. Transition elements act as catalyst because-

(1) Their melting points are higher
(2) Their I.P. values are higher
(3) They have high density
(4) They can show variable oxidation states

6. Which has the lowest metling point ?

(1) Cs (2) Na (3) Hg (4) Sn

7. The metallic bond strength in first transition series increases from -

(1) Sc to Fe (2) Sc to Cr
(3) Cr to Zn (4) Sc to Cu
8. The reason for the formation of complex compounds by transition metal is -
(1) Availability of empty d-orbitals
(2) Completely filled d-orbitals
(3) Paramagnetism
(4) Bigger size

9. Percentage of gold in 18 carats gold is -

(1) 18 (2) 75 (3) 83.6 (4) 100
10. Galvanised iron -
(1) Is an alloy of iron with galium
(2) Is iron used in a galvanometer
(3) Is iron coated with zinc
(4) Is an alloy of iron and zinc

11. Which of the following statement is not correct -

(1) Fe, Ni, Co form interstetial compound
(2) CuSO4 + Ca(OH)2 is called Bordeaux mixture
(3) Verdigris is basic copper acetate [Cu(COOCH3)[Link](OH)2]
(4) 24 carat gold is an alloy of Au and Cu

12. Which of the following shows maximum +8 oxidation state -

(1) Re (2) Os
(3) W (4) Ir

13. The pair in which both the elements generally shows only one oxidation state is-
(1) Sc and Zn (2) Zn and Cu
(3) Cu and Ag (4) Zn and Au

14. Transition elements show variable oxidation states because they lose electrons from the
following orbitals -
(1) ns and np (2) (n – 1) d and ns
(3) (n – 1) d (4) ns

15. Which of the following compounds is most likely to contain non-metal atoms in the
interstices of a metals lattice ?
(1) Fe3O4 (2) TiN (3) MnO2 (4) CoF2

16. Which of the following transition metal has the highest melting point -
(1) Cr (2) Mo (3) W (4) Hg
17. The highest oxidation state achieved by atransition metal is given by -
(1) ns electrons
(2) (n – 1) d electrons
(3) (n + 1) d electrons
(4) ns + (n – 1) d unpaired electrons

18. The highest oxidation state is exhibited by the transition metals with configuration -
(1) (n – 1) d3ns2 (2) (n – 1) d5ns1
(3) (n – 1) d5ns2 (4) (n – 1) d8ns2

19. Which oxide of manganese is acidic in nature -

(1) MnO (2) Mn2O7
(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2

20. Which of the following oxide of chromium is amphoteric in nature -

(1) CrO (2) Cr2O3 (3) CrO3 (4) CrO5

21. By which of the following ion, a transitional metal can brought in to its highest oxidation
state-
(1) F– (2) Cl– (3) Br– (4) I–
22. Which oxide of manganese is amphoteric ?
(1) MnO (2) MnO2 (3) Mn2O7 (4) Mn2O3

23. The correct formula of permanganic acid is-

(1) HMnO4 (2) HMnO5(3) H2MnO4 (4) H2MnO3

Magnetic Property, Colour

24. The magnetic moment for Ti2+, V3+, and Ni2+ is -

(1) 4.90 (2) 3.87 (3) 2.83 (4) 1.73

25.  = 15 is true for the pair -

(1) Co+2, Cr+3 (2) Fe+2, Cr+3
(3) Fe+3, Cr+2 (4) Mn+2, Fe+2

26. Which of the following has maximum magnetic moment -

(1) V3+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Fe3+ (4) Co3+

27. The ion pair of the following in which both the ions have same unpaired electron -
(1) Cr3+, Co2+ (2) Sc3+, Cr3+
+ 3+
(3) Cu , Fe (4) Mn2+, Cu+
+2 2+
28. Ti and Ni contain -
(1) Equal number of paired electrons
(2) Equal number of unpaired electrons
(3) Different number of 2p electrons
(4) Different number of 3p electrons

29. In a transition series, as the atomic number increases, paramagnetism -

(1) Increases gradually
(2) Decreases gradually
(3) First increases to a maximum and then decreases
(4) First decreases to a minimum and then increases

30. Which of the following compounds is (are) coloured due to charge transfer spectra and
not due to d-d transition ?
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) KMnO4
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these

31. Which of the following compounds has colour but no unpaired electrons ?
(1) KMnO4 (2) K2MnO4
(3) MnSO4 (4) MnCl2

32. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in BM) among is -
(1) [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [CoCl4]2– > [MnCl4]2–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2–
(4) [MnCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4– > [CoCl4]2–
KMnO4, K2Cr2O7

33. The equilibrium Cr2O72– 2CrO42– is shifted to right in -

(1) An acidic medium
(2) A basic medium
 (3) A neutral medium
(4) It does not exist

34. K2Cr2O7 is preferred to Na2Cr2O7 for use in volumetric analysis as a primary standard
becasuse -
(1) Na2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic while K2Cr2O7 is not
(2) K2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic while Na2Cr2O7 is not
(3) K2Cr2O7 is pure while Na2Cr2O7 is impure
(4) None of these

35. An inorganic salt is lemon yellow in colour. It becomes orange in colour like methyl
orange when it is acidic and again becomes yellow when it is alkaline. The inorganic salt
will be -
(1) Copper nitrate
(2) Ferric chloride
(3) Potassium chromate
(4) Potassium ferri cyanide

36. The oxoanion which contains all equivalent M – O bond is -

(I) CrO42– (II) MnO4– (III) Cr2O72–
(1) III only (2) I, II, III
(3) I, II (4) I only

37. CrO42– (yellow) changes to Cr2O72–(orange) in pH = x and vice-versa in pH = y. Hence, x

and y are -
(1) 6, 8 (2) 6, 5 (3) 8, 6 (4) 7, 7

38. (NH4)2Cr2O7 (Ammonium dichromate) is used in fire works. The green coloured powder
blown in air is :
(1) Cr2O3 (2) CrO2
(3) Cr2O4 (4) CrO3
X
39. Cr2O72– 2CrO42–, X and Y are respectively :
Y
–
(1) X = OH and Y = H+
(2) X = H+ and Y = OH–
(3) X = OH– and Y = H2O2
(4) X = H2O2 and Y = OH–

40. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is :

(1) IO3– (2) I2 (3) IO– (4) IO4–

41. Disproportion can be shown by :

(1) MnO42– in acidic medium
(2) Cu+ in aqueous medium
(3) Cl2 in alkaline medium
(4) All of these

42. KMnO4 is a strong oxidizing agent in acid medium. To provide acid medium H2SO4 is
used instead of HCl. This is because :
(1) H2SO4 is a stronger acid than HCl.
(2) HCl is oxidized by KMnO4 to Cl2
 (3) H2SO4 is a dibasic acid.
(4) Rate is faster in the presence of H2SO4.
43. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI
and acidified potassium dichromate solution is :
(1) +4 (2) +6 (3) +2 (4) +3

f-Block

44. Cerium can show the oxidation state of +4 because :

(1) it resemble alkali metals
(2) it has very low value of I.E.
(3) of its tendency to attain noble gas configuration of xenon
(4) of its tendency to attain 4f7 configuration

45. In aqueous solution Eu+2 acts as :

(1) an oxidising agent
(2) reducing agent
(3) can act as redox agent
(4) none of these

46. The maximum oxidation state shown by actinides is :

(1) +6 (2) +7 (3) +5 (4) +4

47. The outer electronic configuration of gadolinium ([Link]. 64) is :

(1) 4f75d16s2 (2) 4f85d06s2
8 1 1
(3) 4f 5d 6s (4) 4f75d06s2

48. The most characteristic oxidation state of lanthanides is :

(1) +2 (2) +3 (3) +4 (4) None

49. Select the element in the following which does not show +4 oxidation state :
(1) Ti (2) Zr (3) La (4) Pt

50. With increase in atomic number the ionic radii of actinides :

(1) contract slightly
(2) increase gradually
(3) show no change
(4) Change irregularly

EXERCISE–I
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 3 1 4 3 2 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 3 4 3 2 2
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 1
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 3 1
 d-BLOCK (exercise-2)

1. Pick out the incorrect statement for the transition metals -

(1) Cu+ (d10) is a transition metal ion
(2) Transition metal ions are coloured
(3) 5d transition series placed in 5th period
(4) Cr+6 is more oxidising than Cr+3

2. The stability of particular oxidation state of a metal in aqueous solution is determined

by-
(1) Enthalpy of sublimation of the metal
(2) Ionization energy
(3) Enthalpy of hydration of the metal ion
(4) All of these

3. Which of the following ions in solution undergoes disproportionation -

(1) Fe+2 (2) Cr+3 (3) Cu+ (4) Zn+2

4. Amongest TiF62–, CoF63–, Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42– (At. No. Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni =
28), the colourless species are -
(1) TiF62– & Cu2Cl2 (2) Cu2Cl2 & NiCl42–
(3) TiF62– & CoF63– (4) CoF63– & NiCl42–

5. Titanium shows magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. in its compounds. What is the oxidation
number of Ti in the compound?
(1) + 1 (2) + 4 (3) + 3 (4) + 2

6. For the same transition metal ion, the colour of its compound will depend upon the -
(1) Temperature of the reaction
(2) Pressure of the reaction
(3) Nature of ligands or Lewis bases attached to the metal ion
(4) Concentration of the ligands

7. Among the following compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured is -

(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) (NH4)2[TiCl6]
(3) VOSO4 (4) K3[Cu(CN)4]

8. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is formed, the product and its
colour is –
(1) K2MnO4, green (2) KMnO4, purple
(3) Mn2O3, brown (4) Mn3O4 , black
9. During estimation of oxalic acid Vs KMnO4, self indicator is -
(1) KMnO4 (2) oxalic acid
 (3) K2SO4 (4) MnSO4

10. When KMnO4 solution is added to hot oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow
in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time. This is because -
(1) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst
(2) CO2 is formed
(3) Reaction is exothermic
(4) MnO4– catalysis the reaction

11. MnO2 dissolves in concentrated HCl to form-

(1) Mn4+ ion and Cl2
(2) Mn2+ ion and Cl2
(3) [MnCl4]2– and Cl2
(4) only [MnCl4]2–

12. The species that does not undergoes disproportionation in an alkaline medium is-
(1) Cl2 (2) MnO42–
(2) NO2 (4) ClO4–

13. Pick out the incorrect statement -

(1) MnO2 dissolves in conc. HCl, but does not form Mn4+ ion
(2) Decomposition of acidic KMnO4 is not catalysed by sunlight
2–
(3) MnO4 is strongly oxidising and stable only in very strong alkali. In dilute
alkali, water or acidic solution it disproportionates
(4) KMnO4 act as oxidising agent in alkaline medium

14. KMnO4 on treatment with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound (X) which decomposes
explosively on heating forming (Y). The (X) and (Y) are respectively :
(1) Mn2O7, MnO2 (2) Mn2O, Mn2O3
(3) MnSO4, Mn2O3 (4) Mn2O3, MnO2

15. Cl2 gas is obtained by various reactions but not by :


(1) KMnO4 + conc. HCl ⎯⎯ →

(2) KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4 ⎯⎯ →

(3) MnO2 + conc. HCl ⎯⎯ →

(4) KCl + F2 ⎯⎯ →
16. Which of the following reactions is used to estimate copper volumetrically?
(1) 2Cu2+ + 4F– ⎯→ Cu2F2 + F2
(2) Cu2+ + 4NH3 ⎯→ [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(3) 2Cu2+ + 2CNS– + SO2 + 2H2O ⎯→ Cu2(CNS)2 + H2SO4 + 2H+
(4) 2Cu2+ + 4I– ⎯→ Cu2I2 + I2

17. Which among the following order of oxidising character is correct?

(1) CrO3 > MoO3 (2) K2Cr2O7 > KMnO4
(3) Fe(CO)5 > Mn(CO)5 (4) V2O3 > V2O5
 EXERCISE–II
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
Ans. 3 4 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 1
 COORDINATION COMPOUND
EXERCISE 1

1. The solution of the complex [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in water –

(1) Will give the tests of Cu2+ ions
(2) Will give the tests of NH3
(3) Will give the tests of SO42– ions
(4) Will not give the tests of any of the above species

2. Coordination number and oxidation number of Cr in K3[Cr(C2O4)3] are, respectively –

(1) 4 and +2 (2) 6 and +3
(3) 3 and +3 (4) 3 and 0

3. The donor atoms in EDTA are –

(1) Two N and Two O
(2) Two N and four O
(3) Four N and Two O
(4) Three N and three O

4. Which of the following ligands is not a chelating agent ?

(1) EDTA (2) en
(3) Oxalate (4) Pyridine

5. All ligands are –

(1) Lewis acid (2) Lewis base
(3) Neutral (4) None of these

6. Bidentate ligand is –
(1) CN– (2)Ethylene diamine
(3) EDTA (4) SCN–

7. In SCN ligand if N is attached to central atom, the name of ligand is –

(1) Thiocyanato-N (2) Cyanato-N
(3) Thiocyanato-S (4) Cyanato-S

8. Glycinato ligand is –
••
NH2
(1) CH2
COO–
(2) Bidentate ligand
(3) Two donor sites N and O–
(4) All of these

9. The neutral ligand is –

(1) Chloro (2) Hydroxo
(3) Ammine (4) Oxalato
10. The co-ordination number of cobalt in [Co(en)2Br2] Cl is –
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

11. Which one of the following is not a condition for complex formation ?
(1) Small size
(2) Higher nuclear charge
(3) Availability of vacant d-orbitals
(4) Variable oxidation states

Werner Theory, EAN Rule

12. Which of the following complex will give white precipitate with barium chloride solution
?
(1) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4
(2) [Cr(NH3)SO4]Cl
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Br3
(4) None of these

13. Which isomer of CrCl3.6H2O is dark green in colour and forms one mole of AgCl with
excess of AgNO3 solution ?
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O
(4) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O

14. Give the correct increasing order of electrical conductivity of aqueous solutions of
following complex entities –
I. [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 II. [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
III. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl IV. K2[PtCl6]
(1) III < IV < II < I
(2) IV < II < III < I
(3) II < I < IV < III
(4) I < II < IV < III

15. The fraction of chlorine pricipitated by AgNO3 solution from [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is–
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4

16. The complex [Cr(H2O)4Br2]Cl in its aqueous solution gives test for –
(1) Cl– ion
(2) Br– ion
(3) Both Cl– and Br– ions
(4) Neither Cl– nor Br– ions

17. Which of the following has the highest molar conductivity in solution –
(1) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
(2) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(3) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(4) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl
18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists –
List I List II
([Link]) (Formula)
(A) 229 (i) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(B) 97 (ii) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl
(C) 404 (iii)[Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(D) 523 (iv) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) iii i i iii
(2) i iv iii ii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iii ii i iv
19. The EAN of iron in K4[Fe(CN)6] is -
(1) 35 (2) 34 (3) 36 (4) 38
20. The EAN of Cr in Cr(CO)6 is -
(1) 36 (2) 38 (3) 28 (4) 54
IUPAC
21. The IUPAC name of Fe(CO)5 is –
(1) Pentacarbonyl ferrate (0)
(2) Pentacarbonyl Ferrate (III)
(3) Pentacarbonyl Iron (0)
(4) Pentacarbonyl Iron (II)
22. K3[Fe(CN)6] is –
(a) Potassium hexacynoferrous (III)
(b) Potassium hexacynoferrate (III)
(c) Potassium ferricyanide
(d) Hexa cyno ferrate (III) potassium
Correct answer is –
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c) (4) Only (b) and (d)
23. Give the IUPAC name of the complex compound [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Br](NO3)2 –
(1) BromoaquatetraamineCobalt (III)
nitrate
(2) BromoaquatetraaminoCobalt (III)
nitrate
(3)BromoaquatetraammineCobaltate (III)
nitrate
(4) TetraammineaquabromoCobalt (III)
nitrate
24. The formula of the complex tris (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) sulphate is –
(1) [Co(en)2SO4] (2) [Co(en)3SO4]
(3) [Co(en)3]SO4 (4) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3
25. The IUPAC name [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] is–
(1) Hexaammine cobalt (III)
hexacyanochromate (III)
(2) Hexacyanochromium cobalt
hexaamminechromium (VI)
(3) Hexaammine cobalt (III)
hexacyanochromium (VI)
(4) Hexacyanochromium (III)
hexaammine cobalt (III)

26. The IUPAC name for [Co(NCS)(NH3)5]Cl2 is

(1) Pentaammine (thiocyanato-N) cobalt
(III) chloride
(2) Pentaammine (thiocyanato-S) cobalt
(III) chloride
(3) Pentaamine (isothiocyanato-N,S)
cobalt (III) chloride
(4) Pentaammine(mercapto-N)cobalt (III)
chloride

27. Correct formula of diammine silver (I) chloride is –

(1) [Ag(NH3)Cl] (2) [Ag(NH2)Cl]
(3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (4) [Ag(NH2)2]Cl]

VBT
28. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among to the following
compounds :
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(3) TiCl4 (4) [CoCl6]3–
29. The magnetic property and the shape of [Cr(NH3)6]3+ complex ions are :
(1) Paramagnetic, Octahedral
(2) Diamagnetic, Square planar
(3) Paramagnetic, Tetrahedral
(4) None of the above
30. The wrong statement is :
(1) Halide ligands forms high spin complex
(2) Strong ligands form low spin complex
(3) [FeF6]3– is inner obital complex
(4) [NiCl4]–2 is outer orbital complex
31. Which of the following complexes is an inner orbital complex?
(1) [CoF6]3+ (2) [FeF6]3–
3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)6] (4) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
32. In which of the following molecules, central atom used orbitals of different quantum
number in the hybridisation :
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) IF7
(3) Ni(CO)4 (4) XeO4
33. Hexafluoroferrate (III) ion is an outer orbital complex. The number of unpaired electrons
are:
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) Unpredictable
34. The shape of the complex [Ag(NH3)2]+ is :
(1) Octahedral (2) Square planar
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Linear
35. The complex ions [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]4– –
(1) Are both octahedral and paramagnetic
(2) Are both octahedral and diamagnetic
(3) Have same structure but different magnetic character
(4) Have different structures but same magnetic character
36. Hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion is found to be high spin complex, the probable hybrid state
of cobalt in it is –
(1) d2sp3 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d (4) sp3d2
37. The species having tetrahedral shape is –
(1) [PdCl4]2– (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(3) [Pd(CN)4]2 (4) [NiCl4]2–
38. Match List I with List II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists –
List-1 List-2
Complex ions Magnetic Moment
in Bohr Magnetons
–4
a. [Fe(CN)6] 1. 1.73
b. [Fe(CN)6]3+ 2. 5.93
3+
c. [Cr(H2O)6] 3. 0.00
d. [Ni(H2O)6]2+ 4. 2.83
–3
e. [FeF6] 5. 3.88
Code:
a b c d e
(1) 1 2 3 4 5
(2) 3 1 5 4 2
(3) 2 3 4 5 1
(4) 4 5 1 2 3
39. In which of following pairs of species the number of unpaired electrons are same –
(1) [CoF6]3–, [FeF6]3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Ni(CN)4]2–
(4) [CoF6]3–, [Fe(H2O)6]2+

CFT
40. For the t 62g eg2 system, the value of magnetic moment () is –
(1) 2.83 B.M. (2) 1.73 B.M.
(3) 3.87 B.M. (4) 4.92 B.M.
41. If 0 < P, the correct electronic configuration for d4 system will be –
(1) t 42g eg0 (2) t 32g e1g (3) t 02g t g4 (4) t 22g eg2
42. In an octahedral crystal field, the t 2g orbitals are –
(1) Raised in energy by 0.4 0
(2) Lowered in energy by 0.4 0
(3) Raised in energy by 0.6 0
(4) Lowered in energy by 0.6 0
43. Which order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands?
(1) Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–
(2) CN– < C2O42– < Cl– > NO2– < F–
(3) C2O42– < F– < Cl– > NO2– < CN–
(4) F– < Cl– < NO2– < CN– < C2O42–
44. Among the complex ions given below which is/are outer-orbitals complex –
(I) [Co(CN)6]4– (II) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(III) [FeF6]3– (IV) [CoF6]3–
(1) II, III, IV (2) II, III only
(3) I, IV only (4) II only
45. In the complex ion ML6n+, Mn+ has five d-electrons and L is weak field ligand. According
to crystal field theory, the magnetic properties of the complex ion correspond to how
many unpaired electrons-
(1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3
46. The magnetic moments in the ions [Fe(CN)6]3– and [FeF6]3– in Bohr magneton are -
(1) 5.92 and 5.92 (2) 1.73 and 5.92
(3) 1.73 and 1.73 (4) 2.83 and 4.90
47. The complex [Mn(CN)6]4– is -
(1) High spin complex
(2) Diamagnetic ion
(3) Having magnetic moment 1.73 BM
(4) Outer orbital complex
Isomerism

48. Cis[Pt(en)2Cl2]Br2.2H2O and

trans[Pd(en)2Br2]Cl2.2H2O are :
(1) Ionisation isomer
(2) Geometrical isomer
(3) Hydrate isomer
(4) None of these
49. Which of the following complex does no show geometrical isomerism?
(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(2) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
(3) [Cr(en)3]3+
(4) [Pt(gly)2]
50. Which of the following octaheral complex have maximum stereoisomers?
(1) [M(CN)6]± (2) [M(en)(CN)4]±
(3) [M(en)2(CN)2]± (4) [M(en)3]±
51. Which of the following complex produce ppt with AgNO3 and exist in two geometrical
isomeric form?
(1) PtCl2.4NH3 (2) PtCl2.3NH3
(3) PtCl4.4NH3 (4) PtCl4.2NH3
52. A Planar complex (Mabcd) gives :
(1) Two Optical isomer
(2) Two geometrical isomer
(3) Three optical isomer
(4) Three geometrical isomers
53. Which of the following complex compounds does not exhibits geometrical isomerism?
(1) [PtCl2(NH3)2]
(2) [PdCl2BrI]
(3) [Pt(NH3) (py) (Cl) (Br)]
(4) [Pt(NH3)3(Br)]
54. The complex ions [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+ and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]2+ are called –
(1) Ionization isomers
(2) Linkage isomers
(3) Coordination isomers
(4) Hydrate isomers

55. [(C6H5)2Pd(SCN)2] and [(C6H5)2Pd(NCS)2] are –

(1) Linkage isomers
(2) Co-ordination isomers
(3) Ionisation isomers
(4) Geometrical isomers
56. The complex salt having the molecular composition [Co(NO2)(SCN)(en)2] Br exhibits–
(1) Cis-Trans isomerism only
(2) Linkage only
(3) Ionisation only
(4) All the above
57. [Co(NH3)5Br] SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4] Br are isomers –
(1) Linkage (2) Geometrical
(3) Ionization (4) Optical
58. Which of the following set of isomerism is wrong-
(1) Cis-[Co(gly)2Cl2]– – optical isomerism
(2) [Zn(NH3)3Cl]+ – Geometrical isomerism
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 – Hydrate isomerism
(4) [Co(en)2(NCS)2]Cl–Linkage isomerism
59. Which of the following common shapes (I – IV) can never exist as geometric isomers,
regardless of the identity of the ligands -
(I) Linear (II) Square planar
(III) Tetrahedral (IV) Octahedral
(1) I only (2) I and II
(3) I and III (4) II and IV
60. Which of the following is pair of ionization isomers –
(1) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and
[Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
(2) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O and
[Cr(H2O)4.Cl2]Cl. 2H2O
(3) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and
[Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
(4) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and
trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
61. Geometrical isomerism in coordination compounds is exhibited by –
(1) Square planar and tetrahedral complexes
(2) Square planar and octahedral complexes
(3) Tetrahedral and octahedral complexes
(4) Square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral complexes
62. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not show geometrical isomerism
(A and B are monodentate ligands)–
(1) [MA5B] (2) [MA2B4]
(3) [MA3B3] (4) [MA4B2]
63. Cis-trans-isomerism is found in square planar complexes of the molecular formula (a and
b are monodentate ligands) –
(1) Ma4 (2) Ma3b (3) Ma2b2 (4) Mab3
64. Out of the following which will not show geometrical isomerism –
(1) [Pt(NH3)2(H2O)2]+2
(2) [Cr(NH3)5Cl] Cl2
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2] Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
65. Theoritically the No. of geometrical isomers expected for octahedral complex [Mabcdef]
is –
(1) Zero (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 9
66. The optically active species among the following is -
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Co(CN)6]3–
(3) [Co(gly)3] (4) [Ru(NH3)6]3+

Organometalic Compounds

67. Zeigler natta catalyst is -

(1) Pt/PtO
(2) Al(C2H5)3 + TiCl4
(3) K(PtCl3(2 – C2H4)]
(4) Pt/Rh
68. CH3–Mg–Br is an organometallic compound due to -
(1)  - bond between C and Mg
(2) Mg - Br covalent bond
(3)  - bond between C and Br
(4)  - bond between C and Mg

69. Which of the following is an organometallic compound -

 (1) Ti(OCOCH3)4 (2) Ti(OC6H5)4
(3) Ti(OC2H5)3C2H5 (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
70. Which of the following is an organometallic compound -
(1) Lithium methoxide
(2) Lithium acetate
(3) Methyl lithium
(4) Lithium carbonate
71. Which of the followeing statement is true?
(1) FeCO3 and Fe3C are organometallic compunds
(2) In ferrocene ligand is cyclopentadienyl
(3) Pb (C2H5)4 is -bonded OMC
(4) In zeise salt central metal is sp3 hybridised

72. OMC form during purification of a metal is-

(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) Pb(C2H5)4
(3) Li – C4H9 (4) Na2[Ni(CN)4]

Application of Coordination Chemistry

73. Nessler's reagent is -

(1) K2HgI4 (2) K2HgI4 + KOH
(3) K2HgI2 + KOH (4) K2HgI4 + Hg

74. The brown ring test for nitrites and nitrates is due to the formation of a complex ion with
formula -
(1) [Fe(H2O)5NO+]2+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) [Fe(H2O)(NO)5]2–
(4) [Fe(NO)(CN)5]2+

75. Pick up the incorrect statement -

(1) Cisplatin is a complex of platinum
(2) Vitamin B12 is a complex of cobalt
(3) Chlorophyll is a complex of Mangenese
(4) Haemoglobin is a complex of iron

76. K4[Fe(CN)6] reacts with FeCl3 to form -

(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) K4[Fe(CN)3Cl3]
(3) K3[Fe(CN)5Cl] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)6]

77. A reagent used for identifying nickel ion is -

(1) Potassium ferrocyanide
(2) Phenolphthalein
(3) Dimethyl glyoxime
(4) EDTA

78. A person suffering from lead poisoning should be fed with -

(1) Hypo (2) Cis-platin
(3) [Ca(EDTA)]2– (4) DMG
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 1
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 2 4 1
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 1 4 3 2 3 1
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78
Ans. 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 4 3 3
 COORDINATION COMPOUNDS EX 2

1. Triphenyl phosphine is – 9. If EAN of a central metal ion X+2 in a

(1) Neutral and monodentate ligand complex is 34. and atomic number of X is
(2) Neutral and tridentate ligand 28. The number of monodentet ligands
(3) Uninegative and unidentate ligand present in complex are -
(4) Trinegative and tridentate ligand (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2

2. The co-ordination number and oxidation 10. In the metal carbonyls of general formula
number of X in the compound M(CO)x (Which follows EAN rule) if M
[X(SO4)(NH3)5] will be – is Ni, Fe and Cr the value of x will be
(1) 10 and +3 (2) 1 and +6 respectively -
(3) 6 and +4 (4) 6 and +2 (1) 6,5,6 (2) 4,5,6 (3) 4,4,5 (4) 4,6,6

3. To form a coordinate bond, one needs a 11. Which of the following complexes has the
ligand. Which of the following species least molar conductivity in the solution –
cannot be a ligand – (1) CoCl3.3NH3 (2) CoCl3.4NH3
•• (3) CoCl3.5NH3 (4) CoCl3.6NH3
(i) NH4+ (ii) NO+ (iii) C5 H 5 N
(1) i only (2) i & ii only 12. The complex CoCl3.5NH3 is aqueous
(3) i & iii only (4) i, ii & iii only solution ionizes to give a total number of
ions equal to –
4. The oxidation and coordination number of (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– is respectively -
(1) + 1, 3 (2) + 2, 4 (3) + 3, 6 (4) + 2, 5 13. The complex that violates the EAN rule –
(1) Potassium ferrocyanide
5. Which of the follwing is a -acid ligand – (2) Potassium ferricyanide
(1) NH3 (2) CO (3) F– (3) Tetra carbonyl Nickel
(4) H2N–CH2–CH2–NH2 (4) Hexammine Cobalt (III) chloride

6. When potassium hexachloroplatinate (II) 14. Chemical Name of "Turn bull's blue" is -
is (1) Ferrous ferricyanide
dissolved in water. The solution – (2) Potassium ferrocyanide
(1) Contains 6 ions per molecule (3) Potassium cyanide
(2) Reacts with AgNO3 to give 6 moles of (4) Potassium ferricyanide
AgCl
(3) Does not contain any Cl– ion 15. Which of the following is cationic
(4) Contains K+, Pt4+ and Cl– ions complex -
(1) Tetracarbonyl nickel (0)
7. A complex of platinum , ammonia and (2) Hexachloroplatinante (III) ion
chlorine produces four ions per molecule (3) Hexaaquairon (III) ion
in the solution . The structure consistent (4) Tetraiodomercurate (II) ion
with the observation is–
(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 (2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] 16. The formula of dichloro bis (Urea) copper
(3) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (II) is -
(1) [Cu{O = C(NH2)2}2]Cl2
8. FeCl3.4H2O is actually - (2) [CuCl2{O = C(NH2)2}]
(1) [Fe(H2O)4]Cl3 (3) [Cu {O = C(NH2)2}Cl]Cl
(2) [Fe(H2O)3Cl]Cl2.H2O (4) [CuCl2{O = C(NH2)2}2]
(3) [Fe(H2O)4Cl2]Cl 17. Which of the following complexes is not
(4) [Fe(H2O)3Cl2]Cl.H2O a chelate -
 (1) bis (dimethylglyoximato) nickel (II) and [Ni(CN)4]2– is paramagnetic
(2)Potassium ethylenediamenetetrathiocyanato (2) [Ni(Cl)4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic
and Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic
chromate(III)
(3) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic
(3) Tetrammine dichlorocobalt(III) nitrate and [NiCl4]2– is paramagnetic
(4) Trans-diglycinatoplatinum (II) (4) [Ni(CO4)] is diamagnetic and [Ni(Cl)4]2–
and [Ni(CN)4]2– are paramagnetic
18. The correct IUPAC name of the complex
Fe(C5H5)2 is – 24. In the complex [Ni(H2O)2(NH3)4]+2 the
magnetic moment () of Ni is -
(1) Cyclopentadienyl iron (II)
(1) Zero (2) 2.83 BM
(2) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (II) (3) 1.73 BM (4) 3.87 BM
(3) Dicyclopentadiency ferrate (II)
(4) Ferrocene 25. What are the geometric shape and the
oxidation number of the copper atom,
respectively, for the complex ion,
19. Which of the following statement is
[Cu(NH3)4(OH2)2]2+ ?
incorrect about [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 – (1) Tetrahedral; + 2 (2) Square planar;–2
(1) It gives brown ring test for nitrates (3) Linear; + 3 (4) Octahedral; + 2
(2) Oxidation state of Fe is + 1
(3) It exhibits geometrical isomerism 26. For which of the dn Configuration, both low
and high spin complexes are possible-
(4) Charge on NO is +1
(1) d9 (2) d3 (3) d5 (4) d2

20. What is the oxidation number of 27. Amongest the following ions which one
chromium in the dimeric hydroxo bridged has the highest paramagnetism -
species (1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
H 4+ (3) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
O
(H2O)4 Cr Cr(H2O)4
O 28. Which of the following compound is
H paramagnetic?
(1) + 6 (2) + 4 (3) + 3 (4) + 2 (1) Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion
(2) Tetraamminezinc (II) ion
21. Which of the following contains one (3) Hexaamine chromium (III) ion
unpaired electron in the 4p orbitals – (4) Diammine silver (I) ion
(1) [Cu(NH3)2]+ (2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
29. Match list-I with list-II and choose the
(3) [Cu(CN)4]3– (4) [Ni(CN4)]2– correct answer from the code given below.
List-I (complex) List-II (geometry)
22. Aqueous solution of Ni2+ contains (A) [Ni(CN)4]–2 (a) Octahedral
+4
[Ni(H2O)6]2+ and its magnetic moment is (B) [Pt(NH3)6] (b) Squareplanar
2.83 BM. When ammonia is added in it, (C) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (c) Tetrahedral
+2
comment on the magnetic moment of (D) [Zn(NH3)4] (d) Linear
solution – A B C D
(1) It will remain same (1) b a d c
(2) a b c d
(2) It increases from 2.83 BM (3) c d b a
(3) It decreases from 2.83 BM (4) b c d a
(4) It cannot be predicated theoretically
23. Among Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(Cl)4]2–
(1)Ni(CO)4 and [NiCl4]2– are diamagnetic
30. Which of the following compound is 38. Arrange the following in order of
square planar and does not have any decreasing number of unpaired electrons:
unpaired electron? I : [Fe(H2O)6]2+ II : [Fe(CN)6]3–
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 (b) XeF4 III : [Fe(CN)6] 4–
IV : [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(c) [Ni(CO)4] (d) [NiCl4]–2 (1) IV, I, II, III (2) I, II, III, IV
–2
(e) [Ni(CN)4] (f) CuSO4.5H2O (3) III, II, I, IV (4) II, III, I, IV
(1) a, e, f (2) a,b,c (3) b, e (4) b, c, f
39. Which is true for [Ni(en)2]2+, Z(Ni) = 28?
31. For the complex [Fe(CO)x] what is wrong (1) paramagnetism, dsp2, square planar,
? C.N. of Ni = 2
(1) It is - bonded organometallic (2) diamagnetism, dsp2, square planar,
compound. C.N. of Ni = 4
(2) In the complex value of x = 6. (3) diamagnetism, sp3, tetrahedral,
(3) In the complex CO is -acid ligand. C.N. of Ni = 4
(4) It is trigonal bipyramidal shape. (4) paramagnetism, sp3, tetrahedral,
C.N. of Ni = 4
32. Complex ion square planar geometry :
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [Cu(CN)4]2– 40. Which of the following statements about
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 (4) All Fe(CO)5 is correct?
(1) It is paramagnetic and high spin complex.
33. Which is low spin complex? (2) It is diamagnetic and high spin complex.
(1) [Fe(CN6]3– (2) [Co(NO2)6]3– (3) It is diamagnetic and low spin complex.
(3) [Mn(CN)6]3– (4) All (4) It is paramagnetic and low spin complex.

34. Which is correct geometry in the case of 41. For the t 62g eg2 system, the value of
[NiCl4]2– complex? magnetic moment (µ) is :
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral (1) 2.83 BM (2) 1.73 BM
(3) Square planar (4) Pyramidal (3) 3.87 BM (4) 4.92 BM
35. For K3[CoF6], incorrect statement is : 42. The stability constants of the complexes
(1) It is high spin complex. formed by a metal ion M2+ with NH3, CN–
(2) Its magnetic moment is 24 BM. , H2O are of the order of 1015, 1027, 1011
(3) Primary valency of Co is six. respectively. Then :
(4) Hybridisation state of CoF63– is sp3d2. (1) NH3 is the strongest ligand.
(2) CN– is the strongest ligand.
36. Which of the following complexes are low (3) These values cannot predict the
spin and diamagnetic? strength of the ligand.
(a) K4[Os(CN)6] (b) [Mo(CO)6] (4) All the ligands are equally strong.
4–
(c) [Mn(CN)6]
Select the correct answer using the codes 43. The value for cystal field stabilisation
given below : energy is zero for :
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b only (1) K2[MnF6] (2) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(3) a and c only (4) b and c only (3) K3[FeF6] (4) K4[Fe(CN)6]

37. How many unpaired electrons are 44. The complex exhibit lowest energy
present in the Brown Ring complex absorption bond is :
[Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4: (1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [Ni(CO)4]
2–
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 5 (3) [Ni(CN)4] (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
45. Which stability order is incorrect?
(1) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– > [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 51. Match List-I (Complex ions) with List-II
(2) [Fe(EDTA)]2– > [Fe(en)3]3+ (Number of Unpaired electrons) and select
(3) [Ni(en)2]2+ > [Ni(dmg)2] the correct answer using the codes given
(4) [Fe(CN)6]3– > [Fe(CN)6]4– below the lists :
List-I List-II
46. Which is inner d-complex?
(Complex ions) (Number of
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [RhF6]3–
3– unpaired electrons)
(3) [IrF6] (4) All
A. [CrF6]4– (i) One
4–
47. Which order is correct? B. [MnF6] (ii) Two
(1) [NiCl6]4– > [NiCl4]2– C. [Cr(CN)6]4– (iii) Three
4–
– splitting energy 0 D. [Mn(CN)6] (iv) Four
(2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 > [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (v) Five
– crystal field stabilisation energy Code :
(3) [Co(CN)6]4– > [Co(CN)6]3– A B C D
– reducing behaviour (1) iv i ii v
(4) All of these (2) ii v iii i
(3) iv v ii i
48. Consider the following statements. (4) ii i iii v
S1: [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is a inner orbital complex
with crystal field stabilization energy
52. Consider the following complex
equal to –1.2 0.
S2: The complex formed by joining the formation reactions and comment on their
CN– ligands to Fe3+ ion has theoretical formation constant value
Kf
value of 'spin only' magnetic moment (i) Fe2+(aq) + 6NH3 [Fe(NH3)6]2+
equal to 1.73 BM. K'
S3: Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] → (ii) Fe2+(aq) + 3en f
[Fe(en)3]2+
Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (1) Kf > K'f (2) Kf < K'f
In reactant and product the oxidation (3) Kf = K'f (4) cannot be compared
states of iron are same and arrange in the
order of true/false. 53. Which one of the following high-spin
(1) F T F (2) T T F (3) T T T (4) F F F complexes has the largest CFSE (Crystal
field stabilization energy)?
49. Which of the following compound is not (1) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
coloured? (3) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(1) Na2[CuCl4] (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(3) Na2[CdCl4] (4) Na2CrO4
54. What will be the theoretical value of ‘spin
50. Match List-I (Complex ions) with List-II only’ magnetic moment when Fe(SCN)3
(CFSE) and select the correct answer reacts with a solution containing F– ions to
using the codes given below the lists : yield a complex?
List-I List-II (1) 2.83 BM (2) 3.87 BM
(P) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ 1. 0.6 0 (3) 5.92 BM (4) 1.73 BM
(Q) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ 2. 0.4 0
(R) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 3. 0 55. Select most stable complex.
(S) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
4. 1.2 0 (1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2)[Co(NH3)2(en)2]+3
+3
P Q R S (3) [Co(en)3] (4) [Co(NH3)4(en)]+3
(1) 3 1 2 4
(2) 1 2 3 4 56. Theoritically the No. of geometrical
(3) 4 3 2 1 isomers expected for octahedral complex
(4) None of these [Mabcdef] is –
 en
(1) Zero (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 9 A B
57. The complexes given below are – (3) en M en (4) M
A en
A B
A en
en M en M 62. Fac and Mer isomerism is associated with
A which of the following general formula?
en
A (1) [M(AA)2] (2) [M(AA)3]
(1) Geometrical isomers (3) [MABCD] (4) [MA3B3]
(2) Position isomers
(3) Optical isomers 63. Which of the following will have two
(4) Identical stereoisomeric forms?
58. Three arrangements are shown for the (I) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3]
complex, [Co(en)(NH3)2Br2]+. Which one (II) K3 [Fe(C2O4)3]
is the wrong statement – (III) [CoCl2(en)2]+
Br Br
Br
Br
(IV) [CoBrCl(Ox)2]3–
H3N Br
Co en en Co
(1) I only (2) I and II
Co en
H3N H3N NH3
(3) III and IV (4) All of these
NH3 Br NH3
(I) (II) (III) 64. The complex with a maximum number of
(I) (II) (III)
(1) I and II are geometrical isomers stereoisomers is -
(2) II and III are optical isomers (1) [PtCl3(C2H4)]– (2) [CuBr2Cl2]2–
(3) I and III are optical isomers (3) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (4)[Cr(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(4) II and III are geometrical isomers
65. Which of the following statement is
59. How many geometrical isomers are
correct?
possible for the square-planar complex
[Pt(NO2)(py) (NH3) (NH2OH)] NO2 – (1) In [PtCl2(NH3)4]2+ complex ion, the
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 3 cis-form is optically active, while trans-
form is optically inactive
60. Which one of the following pairs of (2) In [Fe(C2O4)3]3–, geometrical isomerism
isomers and types of isomerism are does not exist, while optical isomerism
correctly matched– exists
(a) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 and (3) In [Mabcd]n± tetrahedral complexes,
[Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2.... Linkage optical isomerism cannot be observed
(b) [Cu(NH3)4][(PtCl4)] and [Pt(NH3)4]
(4) In [Mabcd]n± square planar complexes,
[CuCl4]......Co-ordination
optical isomerism can be observed
(c) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2)]Br2 and
[Pt(NH3)4Br2)]Cl2......Ionization
Select the correct answer using the codes 66. Select the correct code about complex
given below – [Cr(NO2)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4]
(1) b and c (2) a, b and c (I) IUPAC name of compound is
(3) a and c (4) a and b pentaamminenitrito-N-Chromium (III)
tetrachlorozincate (II)
61. The phenomenon of optical activity will (II) It shows geometrical isomerism
be shown by – (III) It shows linkage isomerism
A A
B B A (IV) It shows coordination isomerism
(1) M (2) M en (1) III, IV (2) I, III and IV
B
B B
B
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
A

67. Which of the following is not a -bonded

organometallic compound ?
 (1) (C2H5)2Zn (2) Sn(C2H5)4 (3) The complex is stable as it has five
(3) [(CH3)3Al]2 (4) Fe(n5 – C5H5)2 membered chelate rings as well as intra
molecular hydrogen bonding.
68. Ferrocene is - (4) (1) and (2) both
(1) Fe(n5 – C5H5)2 74. CuCl2 + K4[Fe(CN)6] → Chocolate brown
(2) Cr(n6 – C6H6)2 ppt(X). Select the correct statement for
(3) K[PtCl3(n2 – C2H4)] (X):
(4) (C2H5)4Pb (1) Its IUPAC name is copper (I)
hexacyanoferrate (II).
69. Which is/are organometallic ocmpound - (2) It reacts with excess potassium
(I) Grignard reagent cyanide forming an another soluble
(II) Sodium methoxide complex which has tetrahedral geometry.
(III) trimethyl boron (3) It has ‘spin only’ magnetic moment
(IV) Al2(CH3)6
equal to 36 BM.
(1) Only I (2) I & II (4) 2 and 3 both
(3) I, II, IV (4) I, III, IV
70. The oxidation state of iron in 75. Select the correct statement :
Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] is : (1) Potassium ferrocyanide and potassium
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) zero ferricyanide can be differentiated by
measuring the solid state magnetic
71. Incorrect statement about DMG : moment.
(1) It is tetradentate ligand (2) The complex [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and
(2) chelating ligand [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br can be differentiated by
(3) dioxime of diacetyl adding aqueous solution of barium
(4) in gravimetric determination of Ni is chloride.
used (3) The complex [Co(NH3)5Cl]Br and
[Co(NH3)5Br]Cl can be differentiated by
72. It is an experiment fact that : adding aqueous solution of silver nitrate.
DMG + Ni(II) salt + NH4OH → Red ppt. (4) All of these
Which of the following is wrong about
this red ppt.? 76. Highest C–O bond length will be in :
(1) It is a non-ionic complex. (1) [Mn(CO)6]+ (2) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) It involves intra molecular H-bonding. –
(3) [V(CO)6] (4) same in all
(3) Ni(II) is sp3 hybridised.
(4) It is a diamagnetic complex.
77. The strongest CO bond is present in :
(1) [Cr(CO)6]+
73. Which one of the following statement is
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
false for nickel-dimethylglyoximate
complex? (3) [V(CO)6]–
(1) The stability of complex is only due to (4) all have equal strength
the presence of intra-molecular hydrogen
bonding. 78. The image on an exposed and developed
(2) The complex is stable, only because photography film is due to -
dimethyl glyoxime ligand is a stronger (1) AgBr (2) [Ag(S2O3)2]3+
ligand. (3) Ag (4) Ag2O
79. The solubility of AgBr in hypo solution is
due to the formation of -
(1) Ag2SO3 (2) Ag2S2O3 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) None
–
(3) [Ag(S2O3)] (4) [Ag(S2O3)2]3–
83. Extraction of metals of other processes is
through the complex formation –
80. Na2S2O3.5H2O is used in photography to-
I : Cyanide process
(1) Reduce AgBr to metallic Ag II : Mond's process
(2) Remove reduced Ag III : Photographic fixing process
(3) Remove undecomposed AgBr as a Complexes formed in these methods are–
soluble complex (I) (II) (III)
(4) Converts metallic Ag to silver salt
(1) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl Ni(CO)4 [Ag(CN)2]

81. A blue colouration is not obtained when - (2) [Cd(CN)4]2– Ni(CO)4 [Ag(S2O3)2]3–
(1) NH4OH is added to CuSO4 [Ag(CN)2]– Ni(CO)4 [Ag(S2O3)2]3–
(3)
(2) CuSO4 solution reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) FeCl3 reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Anhydrous white CuSO4 is dissolved (4) [Ag(CN)2]– [Ag(S2O3)2]3– Ni(CO)4
in water

82. How many H-bonds are present in the

complex entity formed by Ni2+ and dmg
ligands –
[Link]. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 3
[Link]. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 1 2 3
[Link]. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 2
[Link]. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 4 3 1 3 4 3
[Link]. 81 82 83
Ans. 2 1 3