Q.

1) With reference to the adaptation of floral species in various climatic regions, consider
the following statements:

1. The leaves of tropical evergreen forests are broader to ensure higher ductile strength during
heavy rainfall.
2. The trees of tropical deciduous forest shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.
3. The leaves of temperate evergreen forest are pale green with a thick waxy coating to reduce
transpiration.
4. The respiration occurs through roots instead of leaves in temperate grasslands due to a lack
of trees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

Leaves of deciduous forest are broader and not tropical rainforest. If leaves are broader in
evergreen forest, then the leaves will break during heavy rain. So statement 1 is not correct.
The trees of tropical deciduous forest shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.
Because this reduces transpiration. So statement 2 is correct.
The leaves of forest in desert areas are pale green with a thick waxy coating to avoid transpiration.
In temperate areas, sunlight will be less. So, trees produce more chlorophyll and hence, dark
green colour. So statement 3 is not correct.
The respiration occurs through leaves in tropical grasslands. So statement 4 is not correct.

Additional information:-

Adaptation in desert Deserts are too dry and hot to imagine life in them. Despite
these arid conditions, few plants have adapted to thrive here.
Succulents are such plants that can store water in their
modified stems and leaves
The spines on cacti also help prevent excess water loss
Some plants have long, deep roots which can absorb water
from the ground
Other plants grow short to save energy
Another form of adaptation is dormancy, few seeds remain
dormant until they get the water needed for growth
 Adaptation in tropical Tropical forests are usually packed with big and tall trees.
rainforest These tall trees often provide stiff competition for small
shrubs and herbs. Tall trees block the sunlight from reaching
the ground. They are also known to absorb the nutrients
from the soil.
In such conditions, ground-level plants start flowering during
the spring season. This is because, during autumn, other
trees shed their leaves, which means more sunlight reaches
the forest floor.
Other species of ground-level plants are adapted to carry out
photosynthesis in low light.

Adaptation in aquatic Plants which live in water ecosystem like lakes, rivers, ponds,
plants bogs, etc. face many problems. The most common are low
oxygen content, low light intensity, lack of soil, and nutrients.
Some of these issues are resolved by floating in water
streams. Aquatic plants develop in a way such that their
roots are in the water, but the upper half partially emerges
from the surface of the water for efficient photosynthesis.
Food, nutrients, and air are absorbed through modified stems
and roots.

Adaptation in polar regions Polar regions include one of the coldest regions on earth. And
the vegetation found here is quite sparse. Sedges, dwarf
shrubs, grasses, and certain mosses and lichens are some
plant species found in these terrains. The special features of
these plants include short stature (not more than 12 inches),
hairy parts, darker colour.

Q.2) Consider the following passage about the pollutant X:

India is the largest emitter of X. Clusters of thermal power stations at Singrauli, Neyveli, Talcher
are considered to be the biggest emission hotspots in India. Once released into the air, X can
create secondary pollutants such as aerosols, particulate matter, and acid rain.

Which one of the following is the pollutant X discussed in the above passage?

(a) Nitrous Oxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate

Option elimination strategy

Mainly oxides of nitrogen and sulphur dioxide are emitted from the thermal power plant. So
options (c) and (d) can be eliminated.
EXPLANATION:

As per the green peace report, India is the largest emitter of sulphur dioxide. Power plants emit
sulphur dioxide more than nitrous oxide. Also, sulphur dioxide plays a vital role in the formation
of acid rain. So option (b) is correct.

Additional information:-
Sulphur dioxide SO2 emissions are a significant contributor to air pollution. High
and air pollution concentrations of SO2 in the air generally lead to the formation of
other Sulfur Oxides (SOx).
SOx can react with other compounds in the atmosphere to form
small particles. These particles contribute to Particulate Matter (PM)
pollution.
Small particles may penetrate deeply into the lungs and in sufficient
quantity can contribute to health problems.
Air Pollution is a huge public health concern, with 91% of the
world‘s population living in areas where outdoor air pollution
exceeds guideline limits by the World Health Organization
(WHO) and as a result, 4.2 million people die prematurely every year.
The greatest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of
fossil fuels in power plants and other industrial facilities.
Other sources include industrial processes such as extracting metal
from ore, natural sources such as volcanoes, and locomotives, ships,
and other vehicles, and heavy equipment that burn fuel with high
sulphur content.
The situation in India: As per the report, in India, there has been an
increase in SO2 emissions at already existing hotspots and new sites
generating emissions are emerging across the country.

The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change had,

for the first time, introduced SO2 emission limits for coal-fired power
plants in December 2015.
However, a Supreme Court order changed the deadline for
installation of FGD technology in power plants from 2017 to
December 2019 in Delhi-NCR and till 2022 for other parts of the
country.
Environment experts have called for strict action on coal power
plants as it is not clear whether power plants will meet even the
extended deadlines to comply with pollution limits, both in Delhi and
around the country.
Q.3) Which of the following are essential components of Circular Economy?

1. It follows the ‗Take-Make-Waste‘ model.

2. It takes up the concept of restoration in place of End of life product.
3. It shifts from the use of fossil fuels to renewable energy.
4. It aims to eliminate waste through superior design.
5. It aims to decouple growth from the consumption of finite resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 4, and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

The basic principle of a Circular economy is not to waste any resources. So statement 1 says take-
make –waste cannot be a component of the circular economy. So, options (a) and (c) can be
eliminated.

EXPLANATION

A linear economy traditionally follows the ―take-make-Waste‖ model in which raw materials are
taken from nature, then transformed into products that are used until they are finally discarded as
waste. Thus ‗Take-Make-Waste‘ model is not a concept of circular economy which aims at
eliminating wastes. So, statement 1 is not correct.

It replaces the end-of-life concept with restoration, thus the waste products are restored to use
again. It also eliminates the use of toxic chemicals, which impair reuse and return to the biosphere
and aims for the elimination of waste through the superior design of materials, products, systems,
and business models. So statements 2 and 4 are correct.

A circular economy avoids the use of non-renewable resources and preserves or enhances
renewable ones, for instance by returning valuable nutrients to the soil to support regeneration, or
using renewable energy as opposed to relying on fossil fuels. Thus it aims to shift from the use of
fossil fuels to renewable energy. So statement 3 is correct.
The coupling of growth with consumption in the linear model leads to the drain of finite resources
of the earth. In contrast to the ‗take-make-waste linear model, a circular economy is regenerative
by design and aims to gradually decouple growth from the consumption of finite resources. So,
statement 5 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

CIRCULAR ECONOMY

 A circular economy follows the 3R approach: reduce, reuse and recycle. Resource use is
minimized (reduce). Reuse of products and parts is maximized (reuse). Raw materials are
reused (recycled) to a high standard.
 It is based on three principles

1. Design out waste and pollution

2. Keep products and materials in use
3. Regenerate natural systems
The difference between a linear and a circular economy

Linear Circular

Step plan Take-make-Waste Reduce-reuse-recycle

Focus Eco-Efficiency Eco-Effectivity

System boundaries Short term, from purchase Long term, multiple life cycles
to sales

Reuse Downcycling Upcycling, cascading, and high-

grade recycling

Q.4) Which of the following are considered the contributions of Ambedkar to India during
the National Movement?

1. Launch of Mahad Satyagraha in 1927 for the emancipation of Dalits.

2. Contributed to the reduction of the working hours of Indian Labours from 12 to 8.
3. Presented ideas to the British Government which laid the basis for the formation of the
Reserve Bank.
4. First to demand a separate constituent assembly for India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Mahad Satyagraha or Chavdar Tale Satyagraha was a satyagraha led by B. R. Ambedkar on 20

March 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Raigad
district), Maharashtra, India.

So, Statement 1 is correct

As a member of labour in the viceroy‘s council from 1942 to 1946, Dr Ambedkar was instrumental
in bringing about several labour reforms. He changed the working hours from 12 hours to 8 hours in
the 7th session of the Indian Labour Conference in New Delhi in November 1942.

So, Statement 2 is correct

The Reserve Bank of India was conceptualized in accordance with the guidelines presented by Dr
Ambedkar to the Hilton Young Commission (also known as the Royal Commission on Indian
Currency and Finance) based on his book, The Problem of the Rupee – Its Origin and Its Solution
So, Statement 3 is correct

M.N. Roy was the first to demand a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934. Roy, a pioneer of the
Communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democracy. It became an official demand
of the Indian National Congress in 1935

So, Statement 4 is not correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

B. R. Ambedkar Contributions
 Babasaheb Ambedkar, who had experienced the worst form of
casteist discrimination during his childhood, fought against upper
caste tyranny throughout his life.
 He organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation, while
several other leaders of the depressed classes founded the All India
Depressed Classes Association.
 Ambedkar condemned the hierarchical and insular caste system as
a whole and advocated the annihilation of the institution of caste
for the real progress of the nation.
 The struggle of the depressed classes led to the provision of special
representation for these classes in the Government of India Act,
1935.

Q.5) Consider the following statements about Genetically Modified (GM) food products In
India:

1. Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 empowers the central government to formulate
regulations concerning genetically modified articles of food.
2. GM free certificate is mandatory for importing 24 listed food items into India.
3. Processed food products are not brought under the regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, empowers the central government to formulate regulations
concerning genetically modified articles of food. Section 6 of the Act gives the authority to the
Central Government to form the essential rules on the standard procedures, implement safeguards
and place the necessary restrictions for the handling of hazardous substances, and outright
prohibit the others.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

From January 1, 2021, importers of 24 major food crops will have to mandatorily declare that the
products are not genetically modified and that they also have a non-GM origin.

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has come out with this order to ensure
that only non-GM food crops come into the country.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Under Section 3 of the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006, ―food‖ means any substance,
whether processed, partially processed or unprocessed, which is intended for human consumption
and includes genetically modified or engineered food or food containing such ingredients

So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.6) Consider the following pairs:

(Regional Music) (State)

1. Rasiya Geet - Uttar Pradesh
2. Lotia - Chhattisgarh
3. Chhakri - Himachal Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Rasiya Geet, Uttar Pradesh

The rich tradition of singing Rasiya Geet flourished in Braj which is the sacred land of Lord
Krishna‘s charming leelas, from time immemorial. This is not confined to any particular festival but

is closely woven into the very fabric of daily life and the day-to-day chores of its people. ‗Rasiya‘ word
is derived from the word rasa (emotion) because rasiya means that which is filled with rasa or
emotion. It reflects the personality of the singer as well as the nature of the song.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Lotia, Rajasthan

‗Lotia‘ is sung in the Chaitra month during the festival - ‗Lotia‘. Women bring lotas (a vessel to fill
water) and Kalash (a vessel considered to be auspicious to fill water during worship) filled with water
from ponds and wells. They decorate them with flowers and come home.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Chhakri, Kashmir

Chhakri is a group song that is the most popular form of Kashmir folk music.
It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi, and tumbaknari (an
earthen pot with a high neck).

So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Regional Music

Characteristics
Classical. Vs  Musical instruments are often different from those found in
Folk classical music. Although instruments like the tabla may
sometimes be found it is more likely that cruder drums such
as daf, dholak, or nal are used.
 The sitar and sarod which are so common in the classical genre
are absent in folk music. One often finds instruments such as
the ektar, dotar, rabab, and santur. Quite often they are not
called by these names but may be named according to their local
dialect. Some instruments are used only in particular folk styles
in particular regions. These instruments are innumerable.
 The instruments of classical music are crafted by artisans whose
only job is the fabrication of musical instruments. In contrast,
folk instruments are commonly crafted by the musicians
themselves.
 It is very common to find folk instruments that have been
fabricated of commonly available materials. Skin, bamboo,
coconut shells, and pots are but a few commonly available
materials used to make musical instruments.

Types Pankhida, Rajasthan

Pandavani, Chhattisgarh
Shakunakhar - Mangalgeet, Kumaon
Mando, Goa
Alha, Uttar Pradesh
Hori, Uttar Pradesh
Sohar, Uttar Pradesh
Laman, Himachal Pradesh
Kajri, Uttar Pradesh
Tappa, Punjab
Barhamasa, Kumaon
Powada, Maharashtra
Teej Songs, Rajasthan
Burrakatha, Andhra Pradesh
Bhakha, Jammu and Kashmir
Bhuta song, Kerala
Daskathia, Odisha
Bihu songs, Assam
Sana Lamok, Manipur
Songs of Lai Haraoba Festival, Manipur
Saikuti Zai (songs of Saikuti), Mizoram
Chai hia (songs of the Chai Dance), Mizoram
Basanti/ Basant Geet, Garhwal
Ghasiyari Geet, Garhwal
Villu Pattu, ―Bow Song‖, Tamil Nadu
Ammanaivari, Tamil Nadu
Sukar ke Biah, Bhojpuri Song
Q.07) Parliament of India empowered to repeal which of the following?

1. Acts passed by the State Legislatures which got the concurrence of the President.
2. Acts passed by the State Legislatures in matters of Concurrent list.
3. Acts passed by the Indian Parliament amending certain provisions of the Indian Constitution.
4. Executive order passed by the President‘s office and notified in the Gazette of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION
Article 254(2) in The Constitution states that In case of conflict between central and state laws on
subjects mentioned in the concurrent list the central law prevails over the state law. But if state
law has been reserved for the concurrence of the President and received his assent then state law
prevails in that state. But still, Parliament is empowered to repeal such law. So, statement 1 is
correct.

Acts passed by the State Legislatures in matters of Concurrent list cannot be repealed by
parliament. Parliament can ascertain its prominence by making new laws on the same subject, in
which the state has made law recently and not by repealing. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Parliament is empowered to amend the majority of the constitution. So previous acts which are
passed by parliament amending certain provisions of the Indian constitution can be repealed by
Parliament. For example, the 46th amendment was passed to repeal many provisions made by the
44th amendment. So, statement 3 is correct.

Executive orders passed by the President‘s office and notified in the Gazette of India, need no
concurrence of parliament as they are just executive orders. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Q.8) The “Net Zero Producers Forum”, recently seen in the news, is closely associated with
which of the following objective?

(a) To control the crude oil production for controlling the price rise
(b) To boost the vaccine production for controlling the pandemic
(c) To increase the food grains and pulses for preventing malnutrition and hunger
(d) To control climate change by the implementation of the Paris Agreement

EXPLANATION:-

Saudi Arabia will join the United States, Canada, Norway, and Qatar informing the ‗Net Zero
Producers Forum‘ for oil and gas producers to discuss how they can support the implementation
of the Paris Agreement on climate change.
So option (d) is correct.
Q.09) Consider the following statements about the Cabinet Mission of 1946:

1. The Mission did not hold talks with the representatives of the Indian National Congress and
the All India Muslim League.
2. It proposed to set up an Executive Council with the support of the main Indian parties.
3. It proposed the grouping of Muslim-majority provinces.
4. The Congress Working Committee officially did not accept either of the plans of the Cabinet
Mission.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on March 24, 1946. It had prolonged discussions with Indian
leaders of all parties and groups on the issues of (i) interim government; and (ii) principles and
procedures for framing a new constitution giving freedom to India. As the Congress and the League
could not come to any agreement on the fundamental issue of the unity or partition of India, the
mission put forward its plan for the solution of the constitutional problem in May 1946.

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

One of the objectives of the cabinet mission is to establish an Executive Council with the support of
the major Indian parties

So, Statement 2 is correct

It proposed for the Grouping of existing provincial assemblies into three sections: Section-A:
Madras, Bombay, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bihar and Orissa (Hindu-majority
provinces) Section-B: Punjab, North-West Frontier Province and Sindh (Muslim-majority
provinces) Section-C: Bengal and Assam (Muslim-majority provinces).

So, Statement 3 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Cabinet Mission
Plan Cabinet Mission was a high-powered mission sent in February 1946 to
India by the Atlee Government (British Prime Minister.) The mission had
three British cabinet members – Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, &
and A.V. Alexander. The Cabinet Mission aimed to discuss the transfer
of power from British to Indian leadership
Main points  Rejection of the demand for a full-fledged Pakistan.
 Three-tier executive and legislature at provincial, section, and union
levels.
 A constituent assembly was to be elected by provincial assemblies
by proportional representation (voting in three groups—General,
Muslims, Sikhs). This constituent assembly would be a 389-member
body with provincial assemblies sending 292, chief commissioner‘s
provinces sending 4, and princely states sending 93 members. (This
was a good, democratic method not based on weightage.)
 In the constituent assembly, members from groups A, B, and C
were to sit separately to decide the constitution for provinces and if
possible, for the groups also. Then, the whole constituent assembly
(all three sections A, B, and C combined) would sit together to
formulate the union constitution.

Q.10) Consider the following statements about the physical structure of the Southern part of
India:

1. The Peninsular plateau is roughly triangular in shape and it is confined to the South of the
Tropic of Cancer.
2. The Deccan Plateau, the largest unit of the peninsular plateau, is predominantly made of
Basaltic rocks.
3. The Vindhyan Range, the northern boundary of the peninsular plateau, acts as a watershed
between the Ganga river system and the river systems of the Southern part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

Plateaus like malwa, Bundelkhand, and Hazaribagh are lying above the tropic of cancer. So
statement 1 is not correct.

Deccan plateau is the largest plateau of the peninsular plateau. The volcanic basalt beds of
the Deccan were laid down in the massive Deccan Traps eruption, which occurred towards
the end of the Cretaceous period between 67 and 66 million years ago. But they are not
found throughout the plateau. So statement 2 is not correct.
Vindyan range is a part of the peninsular plateau and they are not the boundary. The
peninsular plateau extends till Aravalli and Delhi in the North. So statement 3 is not
correct.

Additional information:-

Characteristics of the Roughly triangular in shape with its base coinciding with the
peninsular plateau southern edge of the great plain of North India. The apex of
the triangular plateau is at Kanniyakumari.
It covers a total area of about 16 lakh sq km (India as a whole
is 32 lakh sq km).
The average height of the plateau is 600-900 m above sea
level (varies from region to region).
Most of the peninsular rivers flow west to east indicating their
general slope.
Narmada-Tapti is the exception that flows from east to west
in a rift (rift is caused by a divergent boundary (Go back to
Interaction of plates).
The Peninsular Plateau is one of the oldest landforms of
earth.
It is a highly stable block composed mostly of the Archaean
gneisses and schists {Rock System}.
It has been a stable shield that has gone through few
structural changes since its formation.
For a few hundred million years, the Peninsular block has
been a land area and has never been submerged beneath the
sea except in a few places.
Peninsular Plateau is an aggregation of several smaller
plateaus, hill ranges interspersed with river basins and
valleys.
Q.11) „Global Gender Gap Report‟ sometimes seen in the news recently, benchmarks the
evolution of gender-based gaps among

1. Economic Participation and Opportunity

2. Educational Attainment
3. Health and Survival
4. Political Empowerment
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The
Global Gender Gap Index examines the gap between men and women across four fundamental
categories (subindexes): Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health
and Survival, and Political Empowerment. It consists of 14 indicators.

So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Global Gender Gap Report 2021

India‟s Rank India has slipped 28 places to rank 140th among 156 countries in the
World Economic Forum‘s Global Gender Gap Report 2021, becoming the
third-worst performer in South Asia.

According to the report, India has closed 62.5 percent of its gender gap till
date. The country had ranked 112th among 153 countries in the Global
Gender Gap Index 2020.

Global Ranks For the 12th time, Iceland is the most gender-equal country in the world.
The top 10 most gender-equal countries include Finland, Norway, New
Zealand, Rwanda, Sweden, Ireland, and Switzerland.
Q.12) With reference to the religious history of India, the terms „Tanhankara, Medhankara,
and Sarankara‟ are related to

(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism

EXPLANATION:

Tanhankara Buddha is the first of the twenty-seven Buddhas who preceded the historical Gotama
Buddha and the earliest known Buddha. He was also the first Buddha of the Sāramandakalpa. In
Buddhavamsa, the Pali Canon, he is briefly mentioned as:
Countless eons ago, Tanhankara Buddha Medhankara, Saranankara Buddha.

So, option (a) is correct.

Q.13) Which of the following is/are feature/features of the Lucknow Pact of 1916?

1. Self-government in India
2. Separation of the executive from the judiciary
3. Separate electorates for all communities
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Reforms suggested in the Lucknow Pact

 Self-government in India.
 Abolition of the Indian Council.
 Separation of the executive from the judiciary.
 Salaries of the Secretary of State for Indian Affairs to be paid from British coffers and not
the Indian funds.
 1/3rd representation to be given to Muslims in the Central Government.
 The number of Muslims in the provincial legislatures to be laid down for each province.
 Separate electorates for all communities until a joint electorate is demanded by all.
So, option (d) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Lucknow Pact 1916

Significant
features
The pact  The Lucknow Pact is an agreement between the Indian National
Congress (INC) and the All India Muslim League reached at a joint
session of both the parties held at Lucknow in 1916
 While the League agreed to present joint constitutional demands
with the Congress to the government, the Congress accepted the
Muslim League‘s position on separate electorates which would
continue till any one community demanded joint electorates.
 The Muslims were also granted a fixed proportion of seats in the
legislatures at all-India and provincial levels. .
Joint Demands The joint demands were—

● The representative assemblies at the central as well as provincial-level

should be further expanded with an elected majority and more powers
given to them.

● The term of the legislative council should be five years.

● The salaries of the Secretary of State for India should be paid by the
British treasury and not drawn from Indian funds.

● Half the members of the viceroy‘s and provincial governors‘ executive

councils should be Indian
Q.14) Consider the following statements about the “Network for Greening the Financial
System”:

1. It is a facility under United Nations Environment Programme.

2. It is a network of Central banks working on climate and green finance issues.
3. Reserve Bank of India is a member of this network.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:
UN and the world bank held the Paris one planet summit. In that Network for Greening, the
Financial System was launched. So statement 1 is not correct.

It is a group of central banks and supervisors willing to share best practices and contribute
to the development of environment and climate risk management in the financial sector. So
statement 2 is correct.
Recently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined the Central Banks and
Supervisors Network for Greening the Financial System (NGFS) as a member. So
statement 3 is correct.

Additional information:-

Network For Launched at the Paris One Planet Summit on December 12, 2017.
Greening Financial It is a group of central banks and supervisors willing to share best
 Q.15) Which of the following is not a function of the Prime Minister‟s Office in India?

(a) It helps the Prime Minister in his/her responsibilities as chairman of NITI Aayog
(b) It takes the responsibility of Prime Minister‘s contact with the press and general public
(c) It deals with the responsibility of the Prime Minister as the chairman of the Union
Cabinet
(d) It helps Prime Minister to maintain a harmonious relationship with the President

EXPLANATION
The function of the Prime Minister‘s Office in India:
 Assisting the Prime Minister in respect of his overall responsibilities as head of the
government
 Maintaining liaison with central ministries/departments and the state governments.
 Acts as the ‗think-tank‘ of the Prime Minister.
 Acts as the residual legatee of the Central Government, that is, it deals with all such
subjects which are not allotted to any ministry/department.
 To help the PM in the discharge of his responsibilities as the Chairman of NITI Aayog.
 To deal with the Public relations side of the PMO
It is not concerned with the responsibilities of the Prime Minister as the chairman of the Union
Cabinet.
 So, option (c) is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
PMO
 The Prime Minister‘s Office consists of the immediate staff of the Prime Minister of India, as
well as multiple levels of support staff reporting to the Prime Minister. The PMO is headed by
the Principal Secretary.
 The PMO is headed politically, by the Prime Minister and administratively, by the Principal
Secretary. Additionally, it consists of one or two additional secretaries, three to five joint
secretaries, and a number of directors/deputy secretaries and under-secretaries.

Why Needed
 The complexity and scope of government have increased tremendously. Thus it requires a
strong and technically efficient staff agency to handle the same.
 Since all Ministers are entitled to have an office set-up of their own to enable them to perform
their functions. PMO is the office of the Prime Minister. 
Most importantly, the PMO has two irreducible functions. Firstly, PMO is the channel to convey
messages to and from the Prime Minister. Secondly, the Prime Minister depends on PMO, i.e.
Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, if he wants a second opinion on any matter.

36
Q.16) With reference to the Election process, consider the following statements:

1. A person can be registered as a voter in any two constituencies of 2 different states in India.
2. There is no provision for a separate electorate or joint electorates in any elections held in
India.
3. Both pre-poll and exit polls are allowed for all elections in India.
4. Anyone eligible to vote in the elections can become a candidate to contest the General
Election in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

EXPLANATION
Section 17 in The Representation of the People Act, 1950 states that no person shall be entitled to
be registered in the electoral roll for more than one constituency. So statement 1 is not correct.
Article 325 of the Indian constitution states that there shall be one general electoral roll for every
territorial constituency for election to either House of Parliament or the House or either House of
the Legislature of a State, No person shall be ineligible for inclusion in any such roll or claim to be
included in any special electoral roll for any such constituency on grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex or any of them. This explains the concept of a joint electorate. So statement 2 is not
correct.
Pre polls and exit polls which are conducted to analyze the results of the election process such as
who will be winning the election and the number of seats each party would get is permitted for all
elections in India, But they are subjected to guidelines framed by the Election commission of India
under section126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. So statement 3 is correct.
In India, everyone with a minimum age of 18 is allowed to vote in general elections, but in order to
contest in elections of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies, one should have a minimum
age of 25. While in order to contest in elections of Rajya Sabha and state legislative councils one
should have a minimum age of 30. So anyone, who is eligible to vote in the elections cannot
become a candidate. So statement 4 is not correct.

Q.17) Consider the following statements about the National Strategy for Financial Education
2020-2025

1. It has been prepared by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with all other Financial
Sector Regulators
2. It is a third National Strategy for Financial Education document since 2010
3. It has recommended a ‗5 C‘ approach for the dissemination of financial education in the
country

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION

National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025 has been put together by the National
Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) in consultation with the four financial sector
regulators (Reserve Bank of India, Securities, and Exchange Board of India, Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority of India and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority). Thus all financial regulators such as the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of corporate
affairs are not involved here. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It is the second National Strategy for Financial Education, the first one being released in
2013. So, statement 2 is not correct.
National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025, adopts a ‗5 C‘ approach – Content,
Capacity, Community, Communication and Collaboration - for dissemination of financial
education in the country. So, statement 3 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025

 National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025 has been put together by the
National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) in consultation with the four financial
sector regulators.
 NCFE is a Section 8 (Not for Profit) Company under the Companies Act, 2013 promoted by
RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA.
 The multi-stakeholder-led approach is aimed at creating a financially aware and
empowered India.
 It has recommended a „5 C‟ approach for dissemination of financial education in the
country:
 Content: Financial Literacy content for various sections of the population.
 Capacity: Develop the capacity and „Code of Conduct for financial education
providers.
 Community: Evolve community-led approaches for disseminating financial
literacy in a sustainable manner.
 Communication: Use technology, media, and innovative ways of communication
for the dissemination of financial education messages.
 Collaboration: Streamline efforts of other stakeholders for financial literacy.

Strategic Objectives:

1. Inculcate financial literacy concepts

2. Encourage active savings behaviour.
3. Encourage participation in financial markets to meet financial goals and objectives.
4. Develop credit discipline and encourage availing credit from formal financial
institutions
5. Improve usage of digital financial services safely and securely.
6. Manage risk at various life stages through relevant and suitable insurance cover.

38
Q.18) Consider the following statements about the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro
and Small Enterprises

1. Both fund and non-fund based credit facilities up to Rs 200 lakh per eligible borrower are
covered under the scheme
2. Regional Rural Banks are not eligible under this scheme.
3. All Scheduled Commercial Banks are eligible lending institutions under the Scheme

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION

Fund and non-fund-based (Letters of Credit, Bank Guarantee, etc.) credit facilities up to Rs200
lakh per eligible borrower are covered under the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and
Small Enterprises, provided they are extended on the project viability without collateral security
or third party guarantee. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Banks / Financial Institutions, which are eligible under the scheme, are

1. Scheduled commercial banks (Public Sector Banks/Private Sector Banks/Foreign Banks)

and
2. Select Regional Rural Banks (which have been classified under the 'Sustainable Viable'
category by NABARD).

So, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

 Launched by the Government of India to make available collateral-free credit to the micro
and small enterprise sector.
 The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, GoI and Small Industries
Development Bank of India (SIDBI) established a Trust named Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) to implement the Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme
for Micro and Small Enterprises.

Eligibility
 New and existing Micro and Small Enterprises engaged in manufacturing or service activity
excluding Educational Institutions, Agriculture, Self Help Groups (SHGs), Training
Institutions, etc.

40
Q.19) Which of the following is/are the favourable condition(s) for the formation of Deltas?

1. The sea adjoining the deltas should be shallow in nature.

2. There should not be any larger lakes in the course of the river.
3. There should not be any strong current at right angles to the mouth of the river.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Sediments brought by river settles down easily in shallow seas. Thus the process of building up of
delta is easy in shallow seas compared to deep seas. So statement 1 is correct.
If there is a larger lake along the course of the river, the river slows down and sedimentation
occurs at the river. Thus there won‘t be enough sediment for delta formation. So statement 2 is
correct.
Current at the right angle to the flow of the river erodes the sediments brought by the river thus it
stops the process of delta formation. So statement 3 is correct.

Additional information:-

Formation of delta A river moves more slowly as it nears its mouth or end.
This causes sediment, solid material carried
downstream by currents, to fall to the river bottom.
The slowing velocity of the river and the build-up of
sediment allows the river to break from its single
channel as it nears its mouth. The river forms a Deltaic
lobe.

Factors affecting delta Numerous factors influence the character of a delta, the
formation most important of which are:

 Climatic conditions
 Geologic setting
 Sediment sources in the drainage basin
 Tectonic stability
 River slope and flooding characteristics
 Intensities of depositional and erosional
processes
 Tidal range and offshore energy conditions.
Q.20) Consider the following statements

1. There is no evidence of temple architecture during the Mauryan Period

2. The style of temple architecture was similar both in the north as well as in the south till
about the 6th century A.D
3. The Brihadesvara temple of Thanjavur is a contemporary of the Rajarani temple of
Bhubaneswar
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

Evidence of the earliest known structural temples has been recovered through excavations. A
circular brick and timber shrine of the Mauryan period of 3rd century B.C. was excavated at Bairat
district of Jaipur, Rajasthan.

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Till about the 6th century A.D., the style of temple architecture was similar both in the north as well
as in the south. It is only after this date that each began to evolve in its own different direction. For
the present let it be understood clearly that the two areas where temple architecture developed most
markedly were the Deccan and Orissa and in both these areas, the northern and southern style
temples can be found side by side.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Brihadesvara temple which was erected about 1000 A.D. is a contemporary of the Rajarani
temple of Bhubaneswar. The temple is a magnificent and dignified edifice consisting of a pyramidal
spire, made up of ever-diminishing tiers, regularly tapering towards the top surmounted by a
domica1 pinnacle. In many respects, this shrine resembles the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram.
The domica1 pinnacle, however, is different in conception and execution from the amlaka of the
Orissan Shrine.

So, Statement 3 is correct

Q.21) Consider the following statements regarding the GAVI or Global Alliance for Vaccines
and Immunization.

1. Recently India has been nominated by the Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation
(GAVI) as a member of the GAVI Board.
2. The GAVI Board is responsible for the strategic direction and policymaking, oversees the
operations of the Vaccine Alliance, and monitors program implementation.
3. Once the vaccine is prepared by any medical firm, the trial, and approval for the vaccine are
mandatory from the GAVI.
4. It helps to vaccinate almost half the world‘s children against deadly and debilitating
infectious diseases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only
 OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
While Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunization is a public-private global health partnership
to increase access to immunization in poor countries, It cannot have the technical power to
approve new vaccines. The power of Approving new vaccines rests with respective countries drug
regulatory bodies, Thus one single body cannot have the power to approve vaccines from all over
the world. So statement (3) could be eliminated.

EXPLANATION
In Jan 2021 Dr Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India
has been nominated by the Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation (GAVI) as a member of
the GAVI Board. He will be representing the South East Area Regional Office (SEARO)/Western
Pacific Regional Office (WPRO) constituency on the GAVI Board. So, statement 1 is correct.

With membership drawn from a range of partner organizations, as well as experts from the private
sector, the Board provides a forum for balanced strategic decision making, innovation, and partner
collaboration. The GAVI Board is responsible for the strategic direction and policymaking, oversees
the operations of the Vaccine Alliance, and monitors programme implementation. So, statement 2
is correct.
GAVI is only a public-private global health partnership with the goal of increasing access to
immunization in poor countries. Thus when the vaccine is prepared by any medical firm, the trial,
and approval for the vaccine are not mandatory from the GAVI. So, statement 3 is not correct.
GAVI now vaccinates almost half of the world‘s children against deadly and debilitating infectious
diseases. GAVI has the power to negotiate vaccines at prices that are affordable for the poorest
countries and to remove the commercial risks that previously kept manufacturers from serving
them. So, statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
GAVI
HISTORY  In 2000, the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation and a group of
founding partners Founded GAVI to encourage manufacturers to
lower vaccine prices for the poorest countries in return for long-
term, high-volume and predictable demand from those countries.

 In order to achieve the goal of vaccinating almost half the world‘s

children, GAVI brings together developing country and donor
governments, the World Health Organization, UNICEF, the World
Bank, the vaccine industries, research and technical agencies,
civil society, and other private philanthropists

 GAVI has observer status at the World Health Assembly.

INDIA AND GAVI  In 2014, India became the first implementing country donating to
Gavi; committing USD 4 million over 4 years from 2013-2016.
 In 2018, India doubled its contribution to Gavi committing USD 8

46
 million for the 4-year period from 2018-2022. PM Modi has
emerged as a leading champion for immunization in India and
globally, enabling India to accelerate its efforts in driving towards
universal immunization.
 At the Global Vaccines Summit on 4th June 2020, PM Modi
pledged USD 15 million for Gavi 2021-2025 programme.
 India received between 190 and 250 million fully subsidized
doses of Covid-19 vaccine and funds up to USD 30 million for
urgent technical assistance and cold chain equipment from GAVI
recently.

Q.22) Consider the following statements about Mangroves:

1. All coastal areas are suitable for mangrove cultivation.

2. Mangroves require highly saline water for their growth.
3. Soft substrates like mudflats enable the mangroves to grow and perpetuate.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:
Mangroves are defined as assemblages of salt-tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in the
intertidal regions of the tropical and subtropical coastlines. They grow luxuriantly in the places
where freshwater mixes with seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits
of mud. They won't grow in all coastal areas. So statement 1 is not correct.

Soft substrates like mudflats enable the mangroves to grow and perpetuate. So statement 3 is
correct.

Additional information:-
Importance of They protect coastal areas from Tsunamis storm surges and soil
mangroves erosions; due to their complex root systems which dissipate sea wave
energy
Sediment deposition is a visible feature that arrests coastal erosion
and seawater pollution
Many fish species and other fauna breeds here
They are an important source of livelihood for communities found in
and around mangrove forests:
Collection of Honey
Tanning
Wax

47
 Fishing
They are carbon sinks
Major mangroves in Sundarban Groves
India Mahanadi Mangroves
Krishna Godavari Mangroves
Mangroves of Gujarat
Ratnagiri Mangroves
Goa Mangroves
Cauvery Deltaic Mangroves
Krishan-Godavari Mangroves
Andaman Nicobar Mangroves
Q.23) Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission:

1. It has the authority to enforce the payment of compensation recommended by it.

50
 2. The act provides for an exclusive investigation agency to enquire into human right violation.
3. It has unrestricted powers to investigate the violations of armed forces.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Every organ of the government has only limited power to interfere in the functioning of armed
forces. Because doing so only can upkeep their discipline and autonomy. So National Human
Rights Commission cannot logically have unrestricted powers to investigate into the violations of
armed forces. So statement 3 should be incorrect. Thus options (a) and (b) can be eliminated.

EXPLANATION
The commission may recommend to the concerned government or authority to make payment of
compensation or damages to the victim. But it has no authority to enforce such compensation. So
statement 1 is not correct.
Protection of Human rights act 1993, only provided for the establishment of the Human Rights
Commission and not any exclusive investigation agency to enquire into human right violation. The
commission has its own staff for investigation and it is empowered to utilize the services of any
investigation agency of central or state government. So statement 2 is not correct.
The commission has a limited role, powers, and jurisdiction with respect to violation of human
rights by members of armed forces. The commission may seek a report from the central
government in this regard and can make only recommendations. So statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
National Human Rights Commission
ESTABLISHMENT  National Human Rights Commission was established under
the Protection of Human rights act 1993 as a statutory body.
COMPOSITION  The commission consists of the chairman and four members.
 A chairman should be the retired chief justice of India.
 Members should be retired or serving judges of the supreme
court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court, and
two persons having knowledge or practical experience with
respect to human rights.
 The commission also has four ex –officio members
IMPORTANT  To enquire into any violation of human rights either suo Moto
FUNCTIONS or on a petition presented to it in the order of the court.
 To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for
the protection of human rights.
 To visit jails and detention places to study the living

51
Q.24) In India, the Salinity and alkalinity of the soil are increasing day by day. In this
context, what are the adverse effects of this phenomenon?

1. It causes floods due to reduced infiltration leading to crop damages in the adjoining areas
2. It creates difficulties in building construction and road construction.
3. It is not suitable for all types of crop cultivation including crops such as cotton, rapeseed,
and barley.
4. Soil fertility is reduced due to salinity and alkalinity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

The infiltration rate generally increases with increasing salinity and decreases with either
decreasing salinity. Alkaline soils are soils (mostly clay soils) with a high pH (> 9) and a poor soil
structure and a low infiltration capacity. Increasing salinity and alkalinity causes floods due to
reduced infiltration leading to crop damages in the adjoining areas

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Salt also corrodes and destroys the properties of bitumen, concrete, and brick structures. Damage
to infrastructure including houses, roads, and playing fields, has been particularly high in a
number of cities and towns. Salinity damage has also occurred to country roads and farm tracks
and buildings.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Barley is one of the most salinity-tolerant crops. Thus it cannot be said that salinity affects all
crops adversely.

So, Statement 3 is not correct

Salinity can decrease plant growth and water quality resulting in lower crop yields and degraded
stock water supplies. Excess salt affects overall soil health, reducing productivity. It kills plants,
leaving bare soil that is prone to erosion. Alkalinity impairs plant growth by restricting water supply
to the roots, thus obstructing root development. It results in phosphorus and zinc deficiencies, and
possibly iron deficiency and boron toxicity. Plants have less ability to extract essential nutrients
from the soil when damaged by alkalinity.

So, Statement 4 is correct

58
Q.25) Which one of the following is the major agenda of the Supply Chain Resilience
Initiative (SCRI), recently seen in the news?

(a) It aims to improve the supply chain management in the developing countries
(b) It aims to reduce the dependency on a single nation.
(c) It is an initiative of the World Trade Organization to establish the barrier-free trade
(d) It is an initiative of the World Book to improve the Ease of Doing Business Index

EXPLANATION

Supply Chain Resilience Initiativefirst proposed by Japan with India and Australia as partners, is
an approach that helps a country to ensure that it has diversified its supply risk across a clutch of
supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few nations. So, option (b) is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Supply Chain Resilience Initiative

Establishment  The Trade Ministers of India, Japan, and Australia formally launched
the Supply Chain Resilience initiative in a Trilateral Ministerial Meeting
held virtually on 27.04.2021.
Reasons for  COVID-19 pandemic was having an unprecedented impact in terms of
establishment lives lost, livelihoods, and economies affected, and that the pandemic
had revealed supply chain vulnerabilities globally and in the region.
 So, it has been realized that dependence over a single nation is not good
for both the global economy and national economies.
 Assembly lines are heavily dependent on supplies from one country.
(particularly China)

 USA-China Trade Tensions

Objectives  To attract foreign direct investment to turn the Indo-Pacific into an
―economic powerhouse‖.
 To build a mutually complementary relationship among partner
countries.
 To work out a plan to build on the existential supply chain network.

Methods to  Supporting the enhanced utilization of digital technology

achieve  Supporting trade and investment diversification.
Objectives  Sharing of best practices on supply chain resilience
 Holding investment promotion events and buyer-seller matching
events to provide opportunities for stakeholders to explore the
possibility of diversification of their supply chains.

59
Q.26) The Ganga river basin in India accounts for 26 percent of the geographical area of the
country. It includes which of the following states of India?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Rajasthan
3. Jharkhand
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Chhattisgarh

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) All of the states given above

(b) All of the state given above except Rajasthan
(c) All of the state given above except Madhya Pradesh
(d) All of the state given above except Chhattisgarh

EXPLANATION:

About 79% area of the Ganga basin is in India. The basin covers 11 states viz., Uttarakhand, U.P.,
M.P., Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, West Bengal, and
Delhi. So option (a) is correct.

69
Additional information:-

map

Tributaries A large number of tributaries like Alaknanda, Ramganga,

of Ganga Kali, Yamuna, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi, and Sone, draining 11 states
of the country join River Ganga at different confluence points during its
journey.

Q.27) Consider the following statements

1. The variation in the ocean water temperature in the Northern and Southern hemisphere is
mainly because of the unequal distribution of land and ocean water.
2. Sea fogs are very common in the high latitudes but are generally absent in the tropics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

EXPLANATION

There exists an unequal distribution of land and ocean water on earth. The oceans in the northern
hemisphere (dominated by landmass which absorbs heat faster), receive more heat due to their
contact with a larger extent of land than their counterparts in the southern hemisphere(dominated
by oceans that absorb heat slower), and thus the temperature of ocean water is comparatively higher
in the northern hemisphere than the southern hemisphere. So, statement 1 is correct.
When warm air passes over a cold ocean surface having the temperature below the dew point of the
air, air over the sea surface is cooled from below and sea fog occurs. By observing the surface
temperature of oceans we could find the temperature of oceans at higher latitudes are less (colder)
than tropics which makes a favourable condition for the formation of sea fogs at higher latitudes.

70
Ocean temperature at tropics remains higher than the winds that flow from land towards oceans,
thus sea fogs are absent over tropics. So statement 2 is correct.
Q.28) The Cunningham circular, during the national movement, was related with which of
the following movement?

(a) Swadeshi Movement

(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

EXPLANATION:

J.R. Cunningham, the then powerful director of public information of Assam, issued a circular in
1930 imposing a blanket ban on any anti-British and pro-swadeshi activity by students. He also
ordered them to sign an undertaking to the effect that they would have to quit their schools and
colleges if they participated in anti-government demonstrations or movements.

Refusing to oblige, thousands of students throughout Assam left their institutions of learning.

So, option (c) is correct.

Q.29) „Chlordecone‟, „Hexabromobiphenyl‟ and „Pentachlorobenzene‟, sometimes seen in the
news recently, are

(a) Persistent Organic Pollutants

(b) Bio-medical wastes
(c) Weedicides
(d) Plant growth promoters

EXPLANATION:-

Union Cabinet has approved the Ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm
Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
These are:
Chlordecone.
Hexabromobiphenyl.
Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Heptabromodiphenylether.
Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether.
75
Pentachlorobenzene.
Hexabromocyclododecane.
Hexachlorobutadiene.
Q.30) The Meanders in the course of the river are caused by which of the following factors?

1. Propensity of Water
2. Unconsolidated nature of alluvial deposits
3. Coriolis force of the earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION

 A meander is one of a series of regular sinuous curves, bends, loops, turns, or windings in
the channel of a river, stream, or other watercourses.

80
It is formed due to following reasons

1. The propensity of water flowing over very gentle gradients to work laterally on the banks
leads to corrosion and deposition on lateral sides of rivers leading to the formation of
meanders.

2. Unconsolidated nature of alluvial deposits making up the banks with many irregularities
which can be used by water exerting pressure laterally. This deposit provides raw materials
for corrosion and deposition, leading to the formation of meanders. Example- Rivers of
northern India.

3. Coriolis force acting on the fluid water deflecting it like it deflects the wind. Coriolis Effect
adds rotation to the water's flow which influences corrosion, leading to the formation of
meanders.

So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

MEANDER

DEFINITION  A meander is defined as a pronounced curve or loop in the course of a

river channel.

CHARACTERISTICS  They are actually not a landform but only a type of channel pattern
formed as a result of deposition.
 The outer bend of the loop in a meander is characterized by
intensive erosion and vertical cliffs and is called the cliff-slope side.
 The cliff-slope side has a concave slope.
 The inner side of the loop is characterized by deposition, a gentle
convex slope, and is called the slip-off side.
 The slip-off side has a convex slope.
 As meanders grow into deep loops, the same may get cut-off due to
erosion at the inflexion point and are left as oxbow lakes

81
Q.31) Which of the following is realized through “disqualification for holding an office of
profit”?

1. Reinforces the concept of separation of power.

2. Secure the independence of elected representatives.
3. Refrain elected representatives from receiving favours from executives.

85
 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION
Office of profit was made as a factor for disqualification because:
Legislators should not feel obligated to the Executive in any way, which could influence
them while discharging legislative functions - Reinforces the concept of separation of power
MP or MLA should be free to carry out her duties without any kind of governmental
pressure, there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected
member-Secure the independence of elected representatives.
Office of profit makes legislators sometimes to act in favour of executives while expecting some
favours from executives. This hampers the efficiency of elected representatives and favours
corruption. So Disqualification Refrain elected representatives from receiving favours from
executives.
So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
What Constitutes An „Office Of Profit‟
The law does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit but the definition has
evolved over the years.
Several factors are considered in this determination including factors such as:
a. whether the government is the appointing authority,
b. whether the government has the power to terminate the appointment,
c. whether the government determines the remuneration,
d. what is the source of remuneration, and
e. the power that comes with the position.
Q.32) Which of the following dams are matched correctly to the respective rivers?

1. Pong Dam - Beas

2. Hirakud Dam - Godavari
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam - Mahanadi
4. Bhakra Nangal Dam - Ravi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only

90
 (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

Pong dam is also known as Beas dam is located in the Beas river. So pair 1 is correctly
matched
Hirakud dam is present in Mahanadi. So pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Nagarjunasagar dam is present in the Krishna river. So pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Built over the Sutlej river, the BhakraNangal Dam is the second-highest dam in Asia, rising to a
height of about 207 m. So pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Q.33) The Prime meridian passes through which of the following Water bodies?

1. Norwegian Sea

2. North Sea

3. Black Sea

4. Mediterranean Sea

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

4
 Option elimination strategy
Prime meridian passes through England. Black sea is away from England. Thus option (c) can be
eliminated.
EXPLANATION:

The IRM prime meridian passes through many seas and oceans: the Arctic Ocean, the Greenland
Sea, the Norwegian Sea, the North Sea, the English Channel, the Mediterranean Sea, the Atlantic
Ocean and the Southern Ocean. So option (d) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Map
Q.34) Consider the following statements about the ―Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment‖:

1. It is an ambitious double-spacecraft mission to deflect an asteroid in Space.

2. It is a joint mission of the Indian Space Research Organisation and European Space
Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

 Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment is an ambitious double-spacecraft mission to

deflect an asteroid in Space.
 The target is the smaller of two bodies in the ―double Didymos asteroids‖. Didymos is a
near-Earth asteroid system. So, statement 1 is correct.

 It is a joint mission of NASA (not ISRO) and the European Space Agency.
 It contains two spacecraft namely
1. An asteroid impactor – the NASA Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) Mission led by

6
 the John Hopkins‘ Applied Physics Laboratory in the United States
2. A follow-up asteroid rendezvous spacecraft – Hera, by European Space Agency.
So, statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Asteroids  Asteroids are rocky fragments left over from the formation of the solar
system about 4.6 billion years ago.
 Most asteroids orbit the sun in a belt between Mars and Jupiter
 Scientists believe stray asteroids or fragments from earlier collisions
have slammed into Earth in the past, playing a major role in the
evolution of our planet.
 The collision of Asteroids into Earth can damage properties and cause
huge loss to human lives.

Purpose of the  Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment is a planetary defence-driven

Mission test of technologies for preventing an impact of Earth by a hazardous
asteroid

Process  In October 2022, the NASA-led part of AIDA would arrive: the Double
Asteroid Redirection Test, or DART, the probe will approach the binary
system – then crash straight into the asteroid moon.
 Hera will arrive about three years later, to characterize Didymoon in
great detail. In particular, it will perform detailed measurements of the
physical properties of the body, as well as its orbit, to characterize the
consequences of DART‘s kinetic impact.

 Overall results from the two missions should provide a baseline for
planning any future planetary defence strategies, offering insight into
the kind of force needed to shift the orbit of any incoming asteroid,
and better understand how the technique could be applied if a real
threat were to occur.
Q.35) ―The figure of a standing Bodhisattva, wearing a rich turban, a string of amulets across
his body with his right hand is shown in the gesture of protection and strapped sandals on
his feet‖ is an example of

(a) Gandhara art

(b) Amaravati art
(c) Mathura art
(d) Sanchi art
EXPLANATION:

 The figure of a standing Bodhisattva,wearing a rich turban, a string of amulets across his
body with his right hand is shown in the gesture of protection and ‗strapped sandals on his
feet is an example ofGandhara art.
 It belongs to the 3rd century A.D.
So, option (a) is correct.

10
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

SANCHI

 Sanchi is a Buddhist complex famous for its Great SanchiStupa located in Madhya Pradesh.
 The Great Stupa at Sanchi is one of the oldest stone structures in India and an important
monument of Indian Architecture.
 It was originally commissioned by the emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE
 Sanchi encompasses most of the evolutions of ancient Indian architecture and
ancient Buddhist architecture in India, from the early stages of Buddhism and its first
artistic expression to the decline of the religion in the subcontinent

Q.36) Which of the following activities will result in the growth data in the Index of
Industrial Production in India?

1. Augmenting the Foreign Direct Investment in the Coal Mining sector.

2. Installing Ultra Mega Power Projects to increase thermal power production.
3. Increasing the Domestic production of Generic drugs.
4. Exploring new Natural Gas fields within the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11
EXPLANATION:

IIP is a composite indicator measuring changes in the volume of production of a basket of

industrial products over a period of time, with respect to a chosen base period.

IIP Index Components

 Primary Goods -consisting of mining, electricity, fuels and fertilisers.

 Capital Goods (e.g. machinery items)
 Intermediate Goods (e.g. yarns, chemicals, semi-finished steel items, etc)
 Infrastructure Goods (e.g. paints, cement, cables, bricks and tiles, rail materials, etc)
 Consumer Durables (e.g. garments, telephones, passenger vehicles, etc)
 Consumer Non-durables (e.g. food items, medicines, toiletries, etc)

Thus, FDI in coal mining, Increasing thermal power production, Increasing the Domestic
production of Generic drugs, exploring new Natural Gas fields within the country are all the
activities that will result in the growth of data in the Index of Industrial production. So,
option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Index of Industrial Production

Releasing
 It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical
organisation
Organization (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.
 It is compiled and published on a monthly basis by the CSO with a
time lag of six weeks from the reference month.

Methodology IIP is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry
groups classified under

 Broad sectors, namely, Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity.

 Use-based sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and
Intermediate Goods, consumer goods.
 The eight core industries such as Coal, Crude oil, Natural Gas,
Petroleum refinery products, Fertilizer, Cement, Steel, and Electricity
generation, represents about 40% of the weight of items that are
included in the IIP.
 The base Year for IIP is 2011-2012.

Significance
 IIP is the only measure on the physical volume of production.
 The all-India IIP provides a single representative figure to measure the
general level of industrial activity in the economy.
 It is used by government agencies including the Ministry of Finance,
the Reserve Bank of India etc, for policy purposes.
 It forms a crucial input for the compilation of Gross Value Added (GVA)
of the manufacturing sector in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) on a
quarterly basis.
12
 IIP remains extremely relevant for the calculation of the quarterly and
advance GDP estimates.
 It is also used extensively by financial intermediaries, policy analysts
and private companies for various analytical purposes.
Q.37) Consider the following statements about the ―National Start-up Advisory Council‖:

1. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) had constituted
the National Start-up Advisory Council.
2. It aims to advice the Government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for
nurturing innovation and start-ups in the country.
3. It is the nodal agency for the Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme which aims to offer
financial assistance to start-ups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry had constituted the National Start-up Advisory Council. So, statement 1 is correct.
National Start-up Advisory Council aims to advise the Government on measures needed to build a
strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and start-ups in the country. It also aims to drive
sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities. So, statement 2
is correct.
DPIIT has created Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme with an outlay of INR 945 Crore to provide
financial assistance to start-ups for Proof of Concept, prototype development, product trials,
market-entry, and commercialization. An Experts Advisory Committee has been constituted by
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, which will be responsible for the overall
execution and monitoring of the Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme. Thus National advisory council
is not the nodal agency for the start-up India seed fund scheme. So, statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

National Start-up Composition of the Council

Advisory Council  Chairman- Minister for Commerce & Industry.
 Convener of the Council-Joint Secretary, Department for Promotion
of Industry and Internal Trade.
 Ex-officio Members: Nominees of the concerned
Ministries/Departments/Organisations not below the rank of Joint
Secretary.
 Non-official members, to be nominated by the Central Government,
from various categories like founders of successful startups, veterans
who have grown and scaled companies in India, persons capable of
representing the interests of investors into startups, etc. The term of
the non-official members will be for a period of two years.
Functions

15
 The council shall suggest measures to:

i. Foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students in

particular;
ii. Promote innovation in all sectors of the economy across the country,
including semi-urban and rural areas;
iii. Support creative and innovative ideas through incubation and
research and development to transform them into valuable products,
processes or solutions to improve productivity and efficiency;
iv. Create an environment of absorption of innovation in industry;
v. Facilitate public organizations to assimilate innovation with a view to
improving public service delivery;
vi. Promote creation, protection and commercialization of intellectual
property rights;
vii. Make it easier to start, operate, grow and exit businesses by reducing
regulatory compliances and costs;
viii. Promote ease of access to capital for startups;
ix. Incentivize domestic capital for investments into startups;
x. Mobilize global capital for investments in Indian startups;
xi. Keep control of startups with original promoters.
xii. Provide access to global markets for Indian startups.

Start-up India  DPIIT has created Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme with an outlay
Seed Fund of INR 945 Crore to provide financial assistance to start-ups for Proof
Scheme of Concept, prototype development, product trials, market-entry, and
commercialization.
 It will support an estimated 3,600 entrepreneurs through 300
incubators in the next 4 years.

The Experts Advisory Committee will evaluate and select incubators
for the allotment of Seed Funds, monitor progress, and take all
necessary measures for efficient utilization of funds towards the
fulfilment of objectives of the Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme.
Objectives
 The Indian startup ecosystem suffers from capital inadequacy in the
seed and ‗Proof of Concept‘ development stage.
 The capital required at this stage often presents a make or break
situation for startups with good business ideas.
 Many innovative business ideas fail to take off due to the absence of
this critical capital required at an early stage for proof of concept,
prototype development, product trials, market entry and
commercialization.
 Seed Fund offered to such promising cases can have a multiplier
effect in validation of business ideas of many startups, leading to
employment generation.

16
  Second.the route through Nathu La Pass (Sikkim) is motorable and suitable
for senior citizens unable to undertake arduous trekking.

Q.38) Consider the following statements:

1. Volcanoes exist only in and around the tropical areas of the Earth.
2. Earth Quakes occur only along the plate boundaries of the Earth.
3. The Coral reefs develop only on the eastern side of the Continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

So statement 1 is not correct.

The term intraplate earthquake refers to a variety of earthquake that occurs within
the interior of a tectonic plate; this stands in contrast to an interplate earthquake,
which occurs at the boundary of a tectonic plate. So statement 2 is not correct.
Lakshadweep is a coral island which is in western side. So statement 3 is not
correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Volcanic earth A special class of tectonic earthquake is sometimes recognised as

quake volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of
active volcanoes.
Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the
injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called
volcano earthquakes.
These earthquakes can cause land to subside and can produce

18
 large ground cracks. These earthquakes can occur as rock is
moving to fill in spaces where magma is no longer present.
Volcano-tectonic earthquakes don't indicate that the volcano will
be erupting but can occur at any time.

Tectonic earth The most common ones are the tectonic earthquakes.
quake Although the Earth looks like a pretty solid place from the
surface, it‘s actually extremely active just below the surface.
The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid
crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid
inner core.
Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as
they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer
below.
This non-stop movement causes stress on Earth‘s crust. When
the stresses get too large, it leads to cracks called faults.
When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the
faults. Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along
convergent, divergent and transform boundaries cause
earthquakes.
The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an
earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre. The energy
waves travelling in different directions reach the surface.
The point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is
called epicentre. It is the first one to experience the waves. It is a
point directly above the focus.
Q.39) Which one of the following statements is not correct about the All-India Trade Union
Congress (AITUC)?

(a) It was founded in 1925 at Madras

20
 (b) It is the oldest trade union federation in India
(c) It is associated with the Communist Party of India since India‘s independence
(d) It was formed under the Indian National Congress
EXPLANATION:

Facts about All-India Trade Union Congress

 It was founded in 1920 at Bombay (not in 1920 at Madras).

 It was formed under the Indian National Congress to represent India at the International
Labour Organisation of the League of Nations.
 It was founded by Lala Lajpat Rai, Joseph Baptista, N.M Joshi and Diwan Chaman Lall.
 Lajpat Rai was elected as its first president.
 It is the oldest trade union federation in India.
 It is politically linked with the Communist Party of India since independence to the present
time.

So, option (a) is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Factors that  1918-1924 periods marked the birth of the trade union movement in India.
influenced  The deteriorated living conditions caused by the First World War and the
the growth of exposure to the outside world resulted in class consciousness amongst the
the trade workers. This in turn provided fertile ground for the development of the
union movement.
movement  The development of Home Rule, the emergence of Gandhian leadership and
the socio-political conditions led to the nationalist leadership taking
interest in the worker‘s plight, which also influenced the growth of the
trade union movement.
Important  In 1890, M.N Lokhande established the Bombay Mill Hands Association.
trade unions  This was the first organised labour union in India.
 Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association formed by Anasuyaben Sarabhai in
1917.
 Madras Labour Union formed by B.P Wadia in 1918.

21
Q.40) Consider the following statements about the ―Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights‖ (TRIPS):

1. It is the most comprehensive multilateral agreement on Intellectual Property.

2. It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World
Trade Organization.
3. It is one of the foundational agreements since The General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) signed in 1948.
4. Only manufactured goods, not services, are covered under the TRIPS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:

The TRIPS Agreement, which came into effect on 1 January 1995, is to date the most
comprehensive multilateral agreement on intellectual property. The three main features of the
Agreement are Standards, Enforcement, Dispute settlement. So, statement 1 is correct.
The TRIPS Agreement is a minimum standards agreement between all the members of WTO. It
allows Members to provide more extensive protection of intellectual property if they so wish.
Members are left free to determine the appropriate method of implementing the provisions of the
Agreement within their own legal system and practice. So, statement 2 is correct.
TRIPS was only negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs
and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990. It came into force only in 1995. So, it is not one of the
foundational agreements since The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) signed in
1948.So, statement 3 is not correct.
TRIPS agreement covers both goods and services. For example Copyright protection, Trademark
protection under TRIPS not only recognises goods but also services in sectors like Banks, insurance
firms, telecommunications companies, tour operators, hotel chains and transport companies. So,
statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Overview The TRIPS Agreement, which came into effect on 1 January 1995, is to date

26
 the most comprehensive multilateral agreement on intellectual property.
Areas covered The areas of intellectual property that it covers are:
 copyright and related rights (i.e. the rights of performers, producers of
sound recordings and broadcasting organizations);
 trademarks including service marks;
 geographical indications including appellations of origin;
 industrial designs; patents including the protection of new varieties of
plants;
 the layout-designs of integrated circuits; and
 undisclosed information including trade secrets and test data
Main Features Standards
 In respect of each of the main areas of intellectual property covered by
the TRIPS Agreement, the Agreement sets out the minimum standards
of protection to be provided by each Member
Enforcement
 It deals with domestic procedures and remedies for the enforcement of
intellectual property rights.
 The Agreement lays down certain general principles applicable to all
IPR enforcement procedures.
 In addition, it contains provisions on civil and administrative
procedures and remedies, provisional measures, special requirements
related to border measures and criminal procedures, which specify, in
a certain amount of detail, the procedures and remedies that must be
available so that right holders can effectively enforce their rights.

Dispute settlement
 The Agreement makes disputes between WTO Members about the
respect of the TRIPS obligations subject to the WTO's dispute
settlement procedures.
Q.41) As per the Constitution, who is empowered to specify the socially and educationally
backward classes concerning a State or Union Territory?

(a) President of India

(b) Governor of that State
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Legislative Assembly of that State

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Specifying the socially and educationally backward classes comes under an executive decision.
Executive decisions are taken under the name of the President in central government and under
the name of the governor in state government. So, options (c) and (d) could be eliminated.

EXPLANATION:

Article 342A states that ―The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and
where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify
the socially and educationally backward classes‖.102nd Constitution Amendment act has
29
abrogated the power of states to specify "Socially and Educationally Backward Classes", and
transferred this power to President. The Supreme court in Dr Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil vs Chief
Minister case upheld this transfer of power.So, option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

102nd  It provided constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward

Constitution Classes.
Amendment  The amendment inserted Articles 338B and 342A into the Indian
act Constitution

 It deals with the structure, duties and powers of the National Commission
Article 338B for Backward Classes

NCBC Structure

 The Commission consists of five members including a Chairperson, Vice-

Chairperson and three other Members appointed by the President by
warrant under his hand and seal.

 The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-

Chairperson and other Members are determined by President.

Duties of the commission

 Investigating and monitoring matters related to the safeguards provided

for the socially and educationally backward classes.
 Inquiring into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and
safeguards of the socially & educationally backward classes.
 Participating and advising on the socio-economic development of the
socially and educationally backward classes and appraising the progress
of their development.
 Presenting to the President annually or whenever required reports about
the working of those safeguards.
 Making recommendations of measures that should be taken by the central
or state governments for the effective implementation of the safeguards
and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-economic
development of the socially and educationally backward classes.
 Discharging any other functions with regards to the protection, welfare
and development and advancement of the socially and educationally
backward classes as decided by the Parliament.
 It has all the powers of a civil court while trying a suit.

30
Q.42) Consider the following statements about the ―On Tap Targeted Long-Term Repo
Operations‖:

1. Under this, banks can invest only in the specific sectors notified by the Reserve Bank
of India.
2. It provides banks with access to cheaper capital from the Reserve Bank of India.
3. All banks eligible under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility can participate in this
Scheme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

Under On Tap Targeted Long-Term, Repo Operations liquidity availed by banks under the scheme
has to be deployed inspecific sectors notified by the Reserve Bank of India. Such sectors include
corporate bonds, commercial paper and non-convertible debentures issued by entities in sectors
like agriculture; agri-infrastructure; secured retail; MSMEs; and drugs, pharmaceuticals and
healthcare. So, statement 1 is correct.
Usually, banks borrow long term loans at higher interest rates, but money under On Tap
Targeted Long-Term Repo Operations are given for long tenures at lower interest rates. Thus it
provides banks with access to cheaper capital from RBI. So, statement 2 is correct.
All banks eligible under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility can participate and avail loans under
On Tap Targeted Long-Term Repo Operations of RBI. So, statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

On Tap Targeted  Long-Term Repo Operations is a tool that allows banks to borrow
Long-Term Repo one to three years of funds from the Central Bank at the Repo rate.
Operations  It is called ‗Targeted‘ LTRO if the Central Bank wants banks opting
for funds under this option to be specifically invested in some
sectors.

Comparison
 While the RBI‘s current windows of liquidity adjustment facility
(LAF) and marginal standing facility (MSF) offer banks money for
their immediate needs ranging from 1-28 days, the LTRO supplies
them with liquidity for their 1- to 3-year needs

Objectives
 As banks get long-term funds at lower rates, their cost of funds
falls.
 In turn, they reduce interest rates for borrowers.
 LTRO helped RBI ensure that banks reduce their marginal cost of
funds-based lending rate, without reducing policy rates.
34
 LTRO also showed the market that RBI will not only rely on
revising repo rates and conducting open market operations for its
monetary policy but also use new tools to achieve its intended
objectives.
Q.43) Which one of the following caves has an excellent example showing the development of
Architecture from earlier shapes in timber translated into stone?

(a) Lomas Rishi cave

(b) Ankai Fort cave
(c) Ellora Caves
(d) Badami Caves
EXPLANATION:

 The Mauryan period was initially dominated by timber. Ashoka was the first Mauryan to
think in stone.
 The stone masonry and carvings were imported to India during Ashoka from Persia
 Lomas Rishi cave in the Barabar Hills of Bihar was excavated during Ashoka for the
Ajivika sect.
 It is an excellent example showing true imitations in stone of early wooden
constructions.
 The entrance of the cave imitates a hut entrance on the stone. The back of the roof is
made of bent timber and the carved frieze of elephants is an imitation of previous
woodwork.
Thus, the Lomas Rishi cave has the earliest example showing the development from earlier
shapes in timber translated into stone. So, option (a) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Ankai Fort cave

 Ankai Fort is a historic site found in the Satmala Range hills
in Maharashtra.

39
  The Gautam Budh caves on the fort at the base of the fort
depict that Ankai was constructed around 1000 years ago.
 The fort was built by Yadava of Devgiri.

 The Jain caves located at the foothills of the fort, spanning

two levels. On the lower level, there are two caves, neither of
which has idols. On the upper level, there are five caves that
feature Mahavir idols.

 The Brahmani (Hindu) Caves are near the entrance gate to

the upper plateau of Ankai fort. They are in ruins, but the
idols of Jai and Vijay carved out of rock and the Shivinga can
still be seen.

Ellora caves  Ellora caves are located near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.

 It received patronage from the Rashtrakutas, Kalachuris,
Chalukyas and the Yadavas.
 The caves belong to the 6th to 10th century AD
 There are 34 caves. Out of them, 12 are Buddhist Caves, 17
Hindu Caves and 5 Jaina Caves. The oldest caves are Hindu
Caves.
 The caves of the three faiths were made in overlapping
periods, and as everywhere in ancient India, this
demonstrates the generous attitude of rulers towards the
worship of all divinities.

 The famous temple at Ellora is Kailashnath Temple.

 It is a vast multi-storey structure, carved inside and outside,
made out of the heart of a rock. This temple is a remarkable
example of Dravidian architecture with Pallava influence.

Badami Caves
 Badami Cave is famous for its Cave Temples of Hinduism and
Jainism that date back to the 6th and 7th centuries.
 Located at Badami in Bagalkot district of Karnataka, Cave
Temples represent the fine architectural style of ancient
times.
 In totality, there are four cave temples in Badami.
 The structure of these temples is a perfect fusion of North
Indian Nagara style and South Indian Dravidian style of
architecture.
Q.44) ―Shailesh Nayak Committee‖, sometimes seen in the news recently, is related to the

(a) issues concerning the Coastal Regulation Zone

(b) ecological management of Western Ghats
(c) amendment of Environment (Protection) Act of 1986
(d) biodiversity, water and natural resources management
EXPLANATION:

The committees related to the ecological management of Western ghats are the Madhav Gadgil
committee and Kasturirangan committee. So, option (b) is not correct.
The Shailesh Nayak Committee was constituted in 2014. This committee was constituted with the
mandate of examining the issues of the coastal states and union territories with respect to the
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2011. So, option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Shailesh Nayak  Many coastal states and UTs expressed their disapproval of the
Committee Coastal regulation rules 2011,stating that the revised norms
would adversely affect their tourism.

 In order to examine the issues of the affected states and UTs, and
also to examine inconsistencies and errors in the said notification,
the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change
constituted a 6-member committee chaired by the then Secretary
of the Earth Sciences Ministry, Dr. Shailesh Nayak.
Major recommendations

 Reducing the ‗No Development Zone‘ (NDZ) as specified in the

CRZ.
 For rural areas with a population density of over 2,161
persons/sq km, this NDZ should be 50m from the High Tide Line
(HTL).
 For other areas, the NDZ should be 200m from the HTL.
 Allowing housing infrastructure, slum development activities,

42
 ports, tourism, harbour and fisheries-related activities in the
CRZs.
 Tourism development activities should be permitted in the NDZs.
 Devolving powers to the state and UT governments as well as the
local governments for development and construction activities,
except those that needed environmental clearance.
 Ecologically sensitive areas (ESAs) in CRZ I should be identified
and delineated.
 The central government‘s role in coastal areas ought to be
restricted to regulating environmentallysensitive areas and
environmental clearances.
Madhav Gadgil  It defined the boundaries of the Western Ghats for the purposes of
committee ecological management. It proposed that this entire area be
designated as an ecologically sensitive area (ESA).
 Within this area, smaller regions were to be identified
as ecologically sensitive zones I, II or III based on their existing
condition and nature of the threat.
 The system of governance of the environment should be a bottom
to top approach.
 It also recommended the constitution of a Western Ghats Ecology
Authority.
 The report was criticized for being more environment-friendly and
not in tune with the ground realities.

Kasturirangan The Kasturirangan Commission sought to balance the development and

committee environment protection in contrast to the system proposed by the Gadgil
report.
Major recommendations :

 Instead of the total area of Western Ghats, only 37% of the total
area to be brought under ESA.
 A complete ban on mining, quarrying and sand mining in ESA.
 No thermal power projects to be allowed and hydropower projects
are allowed only after detailed study.
 Red industries i.e. which are highly polluting to be strictly
banned.
 offering to mother earth.
 The item ends with a nritta sequence with salutations to
God, the Guru and the audience.
 The concluding item of the repertoire, which may consist of
more than one Pallavi and items based onabhinaya, is
called moksha.
 Pakhawaj syllables are recited and the dance moves from
slow to quick sequences to reach a climax, when the dancer
pays the final obeisance.

Q.45) During the British rule in India, why Charles Wood‘s despatch was hailed as the Magana
Carta of Indian Education?

(a) For the first time, there was no entry-level exam

(b) Education Departments were established in every province for the first time
(c) Because it completely promoted education at all levels in mother tongue alone
(d) The Indians for the first time were allowed to be admitted to the schools
EXPLANATION:

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the
―Magna Carta of English Education in India‖, this document was the first comprehensive plan for
the spread of education in India. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for
education of the masses, thus repudiating the ‗downward filtration theory‘, at least on paper.The
Wood's Despatch, for the first time, recommended the creation of a Department of Public
Instruction in each of the five provinces of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, the Punjab and the North
Western provinces.

So, option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Woods Despatch
Features  It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in
villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and
an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities
in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

 It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher

studies and vernaculars at school level.

 It laid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers‘

training.

 It laid down that the education imparted in government

institutions should be secular.

45
  It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private
enterprise.

Q.46) In the Indian Parliament system, why do we need the system of parliament
committees?

1. It provides a forum for building consensus across political parties.

2. It allows the parliament members to freely question and discuss issues and arrive at a
consensus.
3. It also drafts laws and policies on its own and sends to the parliament for approval.
4. It obtains technical expertise to understand the complex matters that are deliberated
by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Parliamentary committees are only recommendatory bodies.It assists the parliament to scrutinise
laws and policies passed by the parliament. Parliamentary committees have no power to draft laws
and policies on their own. So, statement 3 is not correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.
EXPLANATION:

Role ofParliamentary committees in the Indian Parliament system:

 It allows members of the committee for a more meaningful exchange of views, even though
they belong to various political parties. Because, in open Houses where party positions take
precedence, they cannot freely express their views. But in committees, members freely
question each other irrespective of their parties to reach a consensus. This allows them to
make better decisions on policies and leads to consensus across political parties.
 Changes in technology and the expansion of the economy bring new policy challenges that
require the assistance of experts in dealing with such situations. Example –Information
technology rules. Committees allow the use of input and suggestions of various expertise
on the subject matter, of law, thereby helping to formulate better policies and laws.
 The Public Accounts Committee scrutinise the government accounts and the report of the
CAG. Thus reduce the chance of misspending and also validate the government‘s spending
statistics.
 The Estimates Committee examines the budget estimates. It suggests alternative policies to
bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
 Committees do a detailed discussion and analysis on a law proposed by parliament, thus
enabling that every law is for benefit of citizens.It does not draft laws or policies and sends
them to the parliament for approval.
 They monitor the functioning of the executive branch and provide the legislature with
various policy input, playing an important role in Indian democracy.
So, option (b) is correct.

46
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Parliamentary committees

NEED  Since Parliament meets only limited time, there is not enough time
to discuss every Bill in detail on the floor of the House.

 Debate in the house is mostly political and does not go into the
technical details of a legislative proposal.

 Thus Parliamentary committees are constituted to overcome these

difficulties.

COMPOSITION  Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the

Speaker/Chairman.

 Works under the direction of the Speaker/Chairman.

 Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/Chairman.

 Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha.

TYPES STANDING COMMITTEES

 Financial Committees
(1) Public Accounts Committee
(2) Estimates Committee
(3) Committee on Public Undertakings
 Departmental Standing Committees
 Committees to Inquire
(1) Committee on Petition
(2) Committee of Privilege
(3) Ethics Committee
 Committees to Scrutinise and Control
(1) Committee on Government Assurances
(2) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(3) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
(4) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs
(5) Committee on Empowerment of Women
(6) Joint Committee on Offices of Profit
 Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House
(1) Business Advisory Committee
(2) Committee on Private Members‘ Bills and Resolutions
(3) Rules Committee
(4) Committee on Absence of Members from Sittings of the House
 House-Keeping Committees or Service Committees
(1) General Purposes Committee
(2) House Committee
(3) Library Committee
(4) Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances of Members

47
 AD HOC COMMITTEES
 Inquiry Committees
 Advisory Committees

Q.47) Consider the following statements about the Promulgation of Ordinances in India:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Lieutenant Governor of a Union Territory,

with a legislative assembly, cannot promulgate an ordinance when the House is not in
session.
2. When an Ordinance has failed to get approval from Parliament/State legislature within
the stipulated time, then it will lapse and it cannot be re-promulgated at any cost.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:

Articld 239B of the Constitution deals with the power of administrator to promulgate
ordinances during recess of legislature

The lt. governor of a Union Territory, with a legislative assembly, is empowered to promulgate
ordinances during recess of the assembly. i. e.,when the house is not in session. An ordinance
has the same force as an act of the assembly, Every such ordinance must be approved by
the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at
any time. But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or
suspended. Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior
permission of the President.

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling or they shall cease
to operate. They will also cease to operate in case resolutions disapproving the Ordinance are
passed by both the Houses. An ordinance can be re-promulgated only thrice. Just as the President
of India is constitutionally mandated to issue Ordinances under Article 123, the Governor of a
state can issue Ordinances under Article 213, when the state legislative assembly (or either of the
two Houses in states with bicameral legislatures) is not in session.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Administration of Union Territories

Legislative

48
powers
 The Union Territories of Puducherry (in 1963), Delhi (in 1992)
and Jammu and Kashmir (in 2019) are provided with a
legislative assembly4 and a council of ministers headed by a
chief minister.

 The remaining six union territories do not have such popular

political institutions. But, the establishment of such
institutions in the union territories does not diminish the
supreme control of the president and Parliament over them. The
Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists
(including the State List) for the union territories.

 This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry, Delhi

and Jammu and Kashmir, which have their own local
legislatures. This means that, the legislative power of
Parliament for the union territories on subjects of the State
List remain unaffected even after establishing a local
legislature for them.

 But, the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make

laws on any subject of the State List and the Concurrent
List. Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws
on any subject of the State List (except public order, police
and land) and the Concurrent List. Likewise, the legislative
assembly of Jammu and Kashmir canmake laws on any
subject of the State List (except public order and police) and
the Concurrent List.
Q.48) India‘s Debt-to-GDP ratio, in the COVID pandemic times, has increased from 74% to
90%. Which of the following measures can reduce the Debt-to-GDP ratio in the economy?

1. Restricting the borrowing program of the Union Government.

2. Increasing the tax and Non-tax revenues of the Union Government.
3. Appropriating the disinvestment of Public Sector Enterprises.
4. Augmenting the Foreign Direct Investment into the economy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
57
 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

The debt to GDP ratio defines the ratio between the debts of a country to its overall GDP. It
denotes the debt and repaying capacity of the government. It does not take into account of FDI
in it. So Statement 4 is not correct. Thus option (b) and (c) can be eliminated.

EXPLANATION:

Restricting the borrowing program of the Union government can reduce the debt of the
government, even though GDP remains constant. A decrease in debt can reduce the Debt to GDP
ratio. So, statement 1 is correct.
The debt to GDP ratio can be decreased either by reducing debt or increasing revenues. An
increase in revenue decreases the need for borrowing, which leads to lower debt. Thus increase
in tax and non-tax revenue reduces the debt to GDP ratio. So, statement 2 is correct.
The debt-to-GDP ratio indicates how likely the country can pay off its debt. Investors often look
at the debt-to-GDP metric to assess the government‘s ability of finance its debt. FDI is not
included while calculating the Debt to GDP ratio. Thus Augmenting FDI has no effect on the Debt
to GDP ratio.So, statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Public Debt
 Public debt is the total amount borrowed by the government of a
country
 In the Indian context, public debt includes the total liabilities of the
Union government that have to be paid from the Consolidated Fund
of India. It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Sources of Public Debt

 Dated government securities or G-secs

 Treasury Bills or T-bills
 External Assistance
 Short term borrowings
It is further classified into internal & external debt.
Recent news
 International Monetary Fund reported that India‘s debt to GDP ratio
increased from 74% to 90% during the COVID-19 pandemic.

58
Q.49) Recently, the Government of India launched the Production Linked Incentive (PLI)
scheme to encourage domestic manufacturing. Which of the following sectors are covered
under this scheme?

1. Specified active pharmaceutical ingredients

2. Solar photo-voltaic modules
3. Automobiles and auto components
4. Food Processing Industry
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:

There are 13 sectors included in the PLI scheme,

Already existing 3 sectors named
1. Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components
2. Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries &Active Pharmaceutical
Ingredients
3. Manufacturing of Medical Devices
10 new key sectors have been approved by the Union Cabinet recently in November 2020. These
10 key sectors are:
4. Automobiles and Auto Components
5. Pharmaceuticals Drugs
6. Specialty Steel
7. Telecom & Networking Products
8. Electronic/Technology Products
9. White Goods (ACs and LEDs)
10. Food Products(Food processing)
11. Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles
12. High-efficiency solar PV modules
13. Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery
So. Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Production Linked The first three PLI Schemes were approved earlier in March 2020 and
Incentive (PLI) these were followed by another 10 New PLI Schemes in November 2020
scheme Objectives
1. PLI Schemes are a cornerstone of the Government‘s push for
achieving an Atmanirbhar Bharat.
2. The objective is to make domestic manufacturing globally
competitive and to create global Champions in manufacturing.
3. The strategy behind the scheme is to offer companies incentives

59
 on incremental sales from products manufactured in India, over
the base year.
4. They have been specifically designed to boost domestic
manufacturing in sunrise and strategic sectors, curb cheaper
imports and reduce import bills, improve the cost
competitiveness of domestically manufactured goods, and enhance
domestic capacity and exports.

60
Q.50) If a geographer starts his/her travel in the direction of East to West in the Middle East
region then arrange the course of his/her journey in the above-said itinerary.

1. West Bank
2. Dead Sea
3. Golan Heights
4. Gaza Strip
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

61
 (a) 2–3–1–4
(b) 3–2–4–1
(c) 3–2–1–4
(d) 2–3–4–1
EXPLANATION:

When a geographer starts his/her travel in the direction of East to West in the middle east region,
then he could see Golan heights –Deadsea-West bank-Gaza strip, respectively.
So, option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Israel- Palestine  The conflict was between Jews and Arabs over a piece of land between
conflict- the Jordan river and the Mediterranean sea.
Historical  Jews claimed Palestine to be their natural home while the Arabs too
Background did not leave the land and claimed it.
 In 1947, the UN voted for Palestine to be split into separate Jewish
and Arab states, with Jerusalem becoming an international city.
 That plan was accepted by Jewish leaders but rejected by the Arab
side and never implemented

Present scenario  Israel still occupies the West Bank

 Israel claims the whole of Jerusalem as its capital, while the
Palestinians claim East Jerusalem as the capital of a future
Palestinian state.
Places West Bank
 The West Bank is sandwiched between Israel and Jordan. One of its

62
 major cities is Ramallah, the de facto administrative capital of
Palestine. Israel took control of it in the 1967 war and has over the
years established settlements there.
Gaza
 The Gaza Strip located between Israel and Egypt.
 Israel occupied the strip after 1967 but relinquished control of Gaza
City and day-to-day administration in most of the territory during the
Oslo peace process.
 In 2005, Israel unilaterally removed Jewish settlements from the
territory, though it continues to control international access to it.
Golan Heights
 The Golan Heights is a strategic plateau that Israel captured from
Syria in the 1967 war.
 Israel effectively annexed the territory in 1981. Recently, the USA
has officially recognized Jerusalem and Golan Heights as a part of
Israel
Q.51) Consider the following passage:

―It is popularly known as the ‗valley of flower‘. Geographically it is located along the
borders of Nagaland and Manipur. The valley is home to the Angami people. The valley is
home to several endangered species of animals. It is famous for multicoloured carpets of
flowering plants including the endemic ‗Lilium chitrangada‘ Lily that is commonly known
by the name of the valley.

Which one of the following Valley is referred to in the passage given above?

(a) Barak Valley

(b) Araku Valley
(c) Dzukou Valley
(d) Spiti Valley

EXPLANATION:

Dzukou Valley

 The Dzukou Valley, popularly known as the ‗valley of flower‘, is located at the border of
65
 Nagaland and Manipur.
 The valley harbours many species of flowering plants including the endemic Dzukou Lily-
Lilium chitrangada.
 It is home to the Angami people.
 The Dzukou Valley is home to rare and vulnerable birds such as Blyth‘s Tragopan -
Nagaland‘s state bird, the Rufous-necked Hornbill and the Dark-rumped Swift.
 Western Hoolock Gibbons are also found.
 The two-week-long forest fire in Dzukou valley has been doused on Jan 2021.
So, option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Barak Valley
 The Barak Valley is located in the southern region of the Indian state
of Assam. The main city of the valley is Silchar.
 The region is named after the Barak river.
 Barail is the only wildlife sanctuary of the Barak valley region
 Recently there is again a new surge for the old demand of the creation of
separate statehood for Assam‘s Barak Valley.
Araku Valley
 Araku Valley is a hill station in Visakhapatnam district in the Indian state
of Andhra Pradesh,
 This place is often referred to as the Ooty of Andhra.
 It is a valley in the Eastern Ghats inhabited by different tribes.
 Araku Valley Arabica coffee got GI tag.

 This variety is produced by the tribals, who follow an organic approach in

which they emphasise management practices involving substantial use of
organic manures, green manuring and organic pest management
practices.

Spiti Valley
 Spiti Valley is a cold desert mountain valley located high in the Himalayas
 It lies in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Q.52) Which of the following are mandated for the Tribal Autonomous Council under the
Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

1. The majority of the members of this council are nominated by the Governor of the
respective State.
2. These Councils have not been given any judicial powers to settle certain types of civil
and criminal cases.
3. They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water,
shifting cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage and
divorce.
4. These councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain
specified taxes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Majority nomination and no judicial powers go against the idea of being autonomous. Thus
statement 1 and 2 can be eliminated.

69
EXPLANATION:

Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four
are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult
franchise. The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is
dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the
governor.Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village
councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from
them. The jurisdiction of high court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. They can
make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation,
village administration, inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and so
on. But all such laws require the assent of the governor.

So, Statement 3 is correct.

The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to
impose certain specified taxes.

So, Statement 4 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

Provisions
The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions
for the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states
of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

The various features of administration contained in the Sixth

Schedule are as follows:

1. The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura

and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts. But,
they do not fall outside the executive authority of the state
concerned.

2. The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the

autonomous districts. Thus, he can increase or decrease their
areas or change their names or define their boundaries and so on.

3. If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor

70
 can divide the district into several autonomous regions.

Q.53) Which one of the following highlighted the racial attitudes of the British and deepened
the need for an all-India organisation of educated Indians in India?

(a) The Arms Act of 1878

(b) The Vernacular Press Act of 1878
(c) The Ilbert Bill controversy
(d) The Second Anglo-Afghan War

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Ilbert Bill Controversy took place immediately before the formation of congress in 1885 when
compared to others. So option (c) could be the best

EXPLANATION:

Ripon‘s Government had sought to abolish ―judicial disqualification based on race distinctions‖ and
to give the Indian members of the covenanted civil service the same powers and rights as those
enjoyed by their European colleagues. Ripon had to modify the bill, thus almost defeating the
original purpose, because of the stiff opposition from the European community.

So, option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Lytton‘s reactionary policies

Arms Act, 1878 The Indian Arms Act, 1878 was an act regulating the manufacture,
sale, possession, and carry of firearms. The act included the
mandatory licensing to carry a weapon, but contained exclusions for
some groups and person
Vernacular Press In British India, the Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted to curtail
Act (1878) the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism
toward British policies—notably, the opposition that had grown with the
outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80)
The Second The Second Anglo-Afghan War was a military conflict fought between
Anglo-Afghan the British Raj and the Emirate of Afghanistan from 1878 to 188
War
Q.54) Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006:

1. It grants legal recognition to the rights of traditional forest-dwelling communities.

2. National Parks, Sanctuaries, Reserve Forest and Protected Forests are not included in
the recognition of Rights.

3. This Act defines ‗Critical wildlife habitats‘ as areas of National Parks and Wildlife
Sanctuaries that are kept aloof for wildlife conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest-dwelling tribal communities
and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were
dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs.
Thus the act grants legal recognition to the rights of traditional forest-dwelling communities. So,
statement 1 is correct.

The act while recognising the rights mentions that community forest resource‖ means customary
common forest land within the traditional or customary boundaries of the village or seasonal use of
landscape in the case of pastoral communities, including reserved forests, protected forests and
protected areas such as Sanctuaries and National Parks to which the community had traditional
access.So, statement 2 is not correct.
The act defines critical wildlife habitatas such areas of National Parks and Sanctuaries where it has
been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective
criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation
as may be determined and notified by the Central Government.So, statement 3 is correct.

80
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

The Forest Rights Act, 2006

Objective  To undo the historical injustice that occurred to the forest-dwelling

communities
 To ensure land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest-dwelling
Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers
 To strengthen the conservation regime of the forests by including the
responsibilities and authority on Forest Rights holders for sustainable
use, conservation of biodiversity and maintenance of ecological balance

Provisions Rights under the Act:

1. Title rights
2. Use rights
3. Relief and development rights
4. Forest management rights
Other provisions

 Eligibility to get rights under the Act is confined to those who ―primarily
reside in forests‖ and who depend on forests and forest land for a
livelihood.
 Further, either the claimant must be a member of the Scheduled Tribes
scheduled in that area or must have been residing in the forest for 75
years.
 The Act provides that the gram sabhawill initially pass a resolution
recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
Q.55) The Major advantages of the Parliamentary form of Government in India will include
which of the following provisions?

1. Limited Form of Government

2. Multi-Party system of Politics
3. Political homogeneity in the Government
4. Flexible cooperation between Legislative and Executive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:

The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre
and in the states. Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system at the Centre and
Articles 163 and 164 in the states. It is a limited form of government as it provides various checks
and balances over various arms of the government.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

A multi-party system is where many parties compete for power and government will often pass
between coalitions formed by different combinations of parties (e.g. Italy, Israel). This is distinct
from other party systems, particularly the two party system, where power and government passes
between only two parties.In the vast majority of multi-party systems, numerous major and minor
political parties will hold a serious chance of holding office. This level of competition means that it
is unlikely that one party will control the country‘s legislature, which forces the creation of a
coalition.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence

85
they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the ministers are
bound by consensus.

So, Statement 3 is correct

The greatest advantage of the parliamentary system is that it ensures harmonious

relationship and cooperation between the legislative and executive organs of the government.
The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work. As a result,
there is less scope for disputes and conflicts between the two organs.

So, Statement 4 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Difference between:

Parliamentary Form Presidential Form

1.Dual executive. 1.Single executive.
2.Majority party rule 2.President and legislators elected separately for a fixed term.
3.Collectiveresponsibility. 3.Non-responsibility
4.Political homogeneity 4.Political homogeneity may notexist.
5.Double membership. 5.Single membership
6.Leadership of 6.Domination of president.
primeminister. 7.No dissolution of Lower House.
7.Dissolution of 8.Separation of powers.
LowerHouse.
8.Fusion of powers
Q.56) Consider the following statements about the ―Integrated Disease Surveillance
Programme‖ (IDSP):

1. It is a disease surveillance scheme under the Union Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare in India assisted by the World Bank.
2. It aims to strengthen disease surveillance for infectious diseases to detect and respond
to outbreaks quickly.
3. Under IDSP, the data is collected on epidemic-prone diseases on weekly basis and gives
information on the disease trends and seasonality of diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) was launched by the Union Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare in India and assisted by World Bank in November 2004 for a period up to
March 2010. The project was extended for 2 years till 2012. The Programme continued during the
12th Plan (2012-17) under the National health mission with an outlay of Rs. 640 Crore from the
domestic budget only. So, statement 1 is correct.
It aims to strengthen/maintain decentralized laboratory based IT enabled disease surveillance
system for epidemic prone diseases to monitor disease trends and to detect and respond to
outbreaks in early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Team. So, statement 2 is correct.
Under IDSP data is collected on epidemic-prone diseases on weekly basis (Monday–Sunday). The
information is collected on three specified reporting formats, namely ―S‖ (suspected cases), ―P‖
(presumptive cases) and ―L‖ (laboratory-confirmed cases) filled by Health Workers, Clinicians and
Laboratory staff respectively. The weekly data gives information on the disease trends and
seasonality of diseases. So, statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

89
 Integrated A Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) at Delhi, State Surveillance Units (SSU) at all
Disease State/UT headquarters and District Surveillance Units (DSU) at all Districts in
Surveillance the country have been established.
Programme
Programme Components:

 Integration and decentralization of surveillance activities through the

establishment of surveillance units at the Centre, State and District level.
 Human Resource Development – Training of State Surveillance Officers,
District Surveillance Officers, Rapid Response Team and other Medical and
Paramedical staff on principles of disease surveillance.
 Use of Information Communication Technology for collection, collation,
compilation, analysis and dissemination of data.
 Strengthening of public health laboratories.
 Intersectoral Co-ordination for zoonotic diseases

Recent news
 Recently, the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme has been
activated as a response to the Covid-19 pandemic.

90
Q.57) Consider the following pairs:

(Festival) (State)
1. Saga Dawa - Arunachal Pradesh
2. Moatsu - Nagaland
3. Cheiraoba - Manipur
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

99
 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Saga Dawa is a very famous Buddhist festival celebrated by the Monpas in the Tawang district
of Arunachal Pradesh. The festival is celebrated in the fourth month of the lunar calendar which
coincides with the month of May. During Saga Dawa in Arunachal Pradesh, Monpas do not eat
non-vegetarian food. The festival is the most significant and sacred for the followers of Mahayana
Buddhism

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Moatsü is a festival celebrated by the Ao people of Nagaland, India. it is celebrated in the first week
of May every year. Various rituals are performed during this period. The Aos observe Moatsü Mong
after the sowing is done

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Sajibu Nongma Pānba, also called Meetei Cheiraoba or Sajibu Cheiraoba, is the lunar new year
festival of the people who follow the religion of Sanamahism in the Indian state of Manipur.

So, Statement 3 is correct

Q.58) Consider the following statements about the ―Legal Entity Identifier‖:

1. It is a 12-digit number introduced by the Reserve Bank of India.

2. It is used to uniquely identify parties to financial transactions worldwide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) is a 20-character, alpha-numeric code based on the ISO 17442
standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

It connects to key reference information that enables clear and unique identification of legal
entities participating in financial transactions.In India it is mandatory for corporate borrowers

103
having aggregate fund-based and non-fund based exposure of ₹ 5 crore and above from any bank
to obtain Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) registration. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to
roll out the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) system from April 1,2021for transactions of Rs 50 crore
and above undertaken by entities (non-individuals) through the central bank-run Centralised
Payment Systems.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

ISO 17442
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 17442 standard
defines a set of attributes or legal entity reference data that are the most
essential elements of identification. The Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) code
itself is neutral, with no embedded intelligence or country codes that could
create unnecessary complexity for users.

 The ISO 17442 standard specifies the minimum reference data,

which must be supplied for each LEI. This data is usually referred as
Level 1 Data - Who is who:

The official name of the legal entity as recorded in the official

registers.
The registered address of that legal entity.
The country of formation.
The codes for the representation of names of countries and their
subdivisions.
The date of the first LEI assignment; the date of last update of the
LEI information; and the date of expiry, if applicable.
Q.59) Consider the following statements about the Chota Nagpur plateau:

1. Its largest division is the Ranchi Plateau.

2. It is the part of the Deccan Plateau
3. The Damodar River flows through this plateau.
4. It is encompassed by the Tropical evergreen forests in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:

The Ranchi Plateau is the largest part of the Chota Nagpur Plateau. So statement 1 is
correct.
It is not the part of Deccan Plateau. Deccan plateau is south of vidyas. But chotanagpur
plateau is north of it. So statement 2 is not correct.
The Damodar River flows through Chota Nagpur Plateau. So statement 3 is correct.
It is encompassed by the Tropical evergreen forests in India. So statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Chotanagpur Chotanagpur plateau represents the north-eastern projection of the Indian

105
plateau Peninsula.
Mostly in Jharkhand, northern part of Chhatisgarh and Purulia district of
West Bengal.
The Son river flows in the north-west of the plateau and joins the Ganga.
The average elevation of the plateau is 700 m above sea level.
This plateau is composed mainly of Gondwana rocks.
The plateau is drained by numerous rivers and streams in different directions
and presents a radial drainage pattern. {Drainage Pattern}
Rivers like the Damodar, the Subarnrekaha, the North Koel, the South
Koel and the Barkar have developed extensive drainage basins.
The Damodar river flows through the middle of this region in a rift valley from
west to east. Here are found the Gondwana coal fields which provide bulk of
coal in India.
North of the Damodar river is the Hazaribagh plateau with an average
elevation of 600 m above mean sea level. This plateau has isolated hills. It
looks like a peneplain due to large scale erosion.
The Ranchi Plateau to the south of the Damodar Valley rises to about 600 m
above mean sea level. Most of the surface is rolling where the city of Ranchi
(661 m) is located.
At places it is interruped by monadnocks (an isolated hill or ridge of erosion-
resistant rock rising above a peneplain. Ex: Ayers Rock in Australia) and
conical hills.
The Rajmahal Hills forming the north eastern edge of the Chotanagpur
Plateau are mostly made of basalt and are covered by lava flows {Basaltic
Lava}.
They run in north-south direction and rise to average elevation of 400 m
(highest mount is 567 m). These hills have been dissected into separate
plateaus.
Q.60) Which of the following methods can be used to conserve soil in India?

1. Construction of Small Dams

2. Restriction on Shifting cultivation
3. Contour Ploughing
4. Formation of Windbreak and Shelterbelts
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

107
EXPLANATION:

Construction of Small Dams stabilize soil sedimentation. Thus it helps in soil conservation. So
statement 1 is correct.
Restriction on Shifting cultivation preserves soil nutrients and stops deforestation thus it helps in
soil conservation. So statement 2 is correct.
Contour Ploughing- Contour bunding or contour farming or Contour ploughing is
the farming practice of plowing and/or planting across a slope following its elevation contour
lines. These contour lines create a water break which reduces the formation of rills and gullies
during times of heavy precipitation, allowing more time for the water to settle into the soil.So
statement 3 is correct.
Formation of Wind break and Shelter belts reduces soil erosion thus helps in soil conservation.
So statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Strip Cropping Crops may be cultivated in alternate strips, parallel to one another.
Some strips may be allowed to lie fallow while in other different crops
may be sown.
Various crops are harvested at different intervals. This ensures that
at no time of the year the entire area is left bare or exposed.
The tall growing crops act as windbreaks and the strips which are
often parallel to the contours help in increasing water absorption by
the soil by slowing down runoff.

Use of Early Maturing Early maturing varieties of crops take less time to mature and thus
Varieties put lesser pressure on the soil. In this way, it can help in reducing
the soil erosion.

Mulching Protects the soil from erosion.

It helps to retain soil moisture.
Reduces compaction from the impact of heavy rains.
Conserves moisture, reducing the need for frequent watering.
Maintains a more even soil temperature.
Prevents weed growth.
Organic mulches also improve the condition of the soil. As these
mulches slowly decompose, they provide organic matter which helps
keep the soil loose.

Terrace farming In terracing, a number of terraces are cut along the hill slope.
These are made on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available
to grow crops. They can reduce surface run-off and soil erosion.

108
Q.61) Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Keeladi excavation,
often seen in the news?

(a) This settlement lies on the bank of the River Vaigai in Tamilnadu
(b) It belongs to the Neolithic age or new stone age
(c) The pots containing Tamil-Brahmi script were discovered here
(d) Antiquities like golden ornaments, copper objects and iron implements are discovered here
EXPLANATION:

The Neolithic or New Stone Age was a period in human development from around 10,000 BCE
until 3,000 BCE. Excavations in the tiny hamlet of Keeladi prove that an urban civilisation existed
in Tamil Nadu in the Sangam era on the banks of the river Vaigai. The Keeladi findings have led
academics to describe the site as part of the Vaigai Valley Civilisation. The findings have also
invited comparisons with the Indus Valley Civilisation. Tamil Nadu Archaeology Department
(TNAD) stated that the artefacts unearthed during Keeladi excavations could be safely dated to
a period between 6th century BCE and 1st century CE.

So, Option (a) is correct and option (b) is not correct.

The recent excavations and the dates arrived at scientifically clearly suggest that the people were
living in Tamil Nadu continuously and the Keeladi excavation [has] clearly ascertained that they
attained literacy or learnt the art of writing [Tamil-Brahmi] in as early as 6th century BCE during
[the] Early Historic Period.The Tamil Brahmi letters found on pottery is all names of individuals
such as, Thisan, Aadhan and Udhiran.
So, option (c) is correct.
In the fourth round (2018), 5,820 antiquities were found. These included brick structures,
terracotta ring wells, fallen roofing with tiles, golden ornaments, broken parts of copper objects,
iron implements, etc
So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Keeladi -Developments in Findings

phases
Round 1 The Keeladi tale began to unravel in March 2015. The first
round of excavation, undertaken by the Archaeological Survey of
India (ASI), unearthed antiquities that ―may provide crucial
evidence to understanding the missing links of the Iron Age
[12th century BCE to 6th century BCE] to the Early Historic
Period [6th century BCE to 4th century BCE] and subsequent
cultural developments.‖

Round 2
The second round (2016) threw up strong clues about the
existence of a Tamil civilisation that had trade links with other
regions in the country and abroad. This civilisation has been
described by Tamil poets belonging to the Sangam period. (Tamil

109
 Sangam, an assembly of poets, had its seat in Madurai between
4th century BCE and 2nd century BCE. The works of this period
are collectively called Sangam Literature).

Q.62) Mahatma Gandhi established the Natal Congress along with other Indians in Durban
mainly to

(a) fight against racial discrimination

(b) start a passive resistance movement
(c) solve legal problems of Indians
(d) demand self-government in South Africa

110
EXPLANATION:

Moderate Phase of Struggle in South Africa(1894-1906)

The Indians in South Africa consisted of three categories—one, the indentured Indian labour,
mainly from south India, who had migrated to South Africa after 1890 to work on sugar
plantations; two, the merchants—mostly Meman Muslims who had followed the labourers; and
three, the ex-indentured labourers who had settled down with their children in South Africa after
the expiry of their contracts. These Indians were mostly illiterate and had little or no knowledge of
English. They accepted racial discrimination as a part of their daily existence. To unite different
sections of Indians, he set up the Natal Indian Congress in 1894.

So,option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Racial Discrimination in South Africa

Forms These Indian immigrants had to suffer many disabilities. They were
denied the right to vote. They could reside only in prescribed locations
which were insanitary and congested. In some colonies, Asians and
Africans could not stay out of doors after 9 PM nor could they use
public footpaths

Gandhi's strategy During this phase, Gandhi relied on sending petitions and memorials
to the authorities in South Africa and in Britain hoping that once the
authorities were informed of the plight of Indians, they would take
sincere steps to redress their grievances as the Indians were, after all,
British subjects. To unite different sections of Indians, he set up the
Natal Indian Congress and started a paper Indian Opinion.
Q.63) World Trade Organisation has the jurisdiction to intervene in which of the following?

1. Environmental safeguards practised by industries worldwide.

2. Condition of labour in developing economies.
3. Trading service according to a bilateral agreement between two nations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

112
EXPLANATION:

The WTO has no specific agreement dealing with the environment. However, the WTO agreements
confirm governments' right to protect the environment, provided certain conditions are met, and a
number of them include provisions dealing with environmental concerns

So, Statement 1 is correct.

The WTO currently does not have jurisdiction over labour standards and the only place in which
they are mentioned in the entire set of WTO Agreements is in GATT Article XX e) "relating to the
products of prison labour"

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The WTO is the only international body dealing with the rules of trade between nations. WTO
agreements require governments to make their trade policies transparent by notifying the WTO
about laws in force and measures adopted

So, Statement 3 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

World Trade Organization

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the
rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by
the bulk of the world‘s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to help
producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business

The WTO began life on 1 January 1995, but its trading system is half a century older. Since
1948, the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had provided the rules for the system.
(The second WTO ministerial meeting, held in Geneva in May 1998, included a celebration of the
50th anniversary of the system.

113
Q.64) Consider the following pairs:

River linking Projects States Involved

1. Cauvery to Gundaru - Tamilnadu and Kerala

2. Ken to Betwa - Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
3. Par Tapi to Narmada Link - Maharashtra and Gujarat
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:-

Cauvery to Gundaru is a intra state project of tamil nadu. So pair 1 is not correctly matched.
A memorandum of agreement was signed between Union Minister of Jal Shakti and the chief
ministers of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh to implement the Ken-Betwa Link Project
(KBLP). So pair 2 is correctly matched.
Par tapi narmada is a inter-state river linking project of Gujarat and maharashtra. So pair 3 is
not correctly matched.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:-

Par Tapi Narmada Link Par Tapi Narmada Link proposes to transfer water from the
water surplus regions of Western Ghats to the water deficit
regions of Saurashtra and Kutch. The link project includes seven
reservoirs proposed in north Maharashtra and south Gujarat.
The water from the seven proposed reservoirs would be taken
through a 395 km long canal including the 33km length of the
feeder canals to take over a part of the command of the on-going

116
 SardarSarovar Project, while irrigating small enroute areas. This
would save SardarSarovar water which will be used to extend
irrigation in Saurashtra and Kutch region. The link mainly
envisages construction of seven dams, three diversion weirs, two
tunnels (5.0 km & 0.5 km of length), 395 km long canal (205 km
in Par-Tapi portion including the length of feeder canals and 190
km in Tapi-Narmada portion), 6 power houses and a number of
cross-drainage works.
Cauvery to Gundaru The project forms part of the peninsular rivers‘ development
component of the National Perspective Plan envisaging diversion
of surplus flows of the Mahanadi basin and the Godavari basin
to the water-short Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery, Vaigai and Gundar
basins in the South.
The inauguration of the project marks the realisation of a
century-old dream of the people of Pudukottai. ―The demand has
been aired since the days of the British rule. Even if the flood
waters of Cauvery is diverted once in three to four years, the
district will stand to benefit much,‖ observed G.S.Dhanapathy,
71, State general secretary, Farmers Forum of India, who had
been serving as treasurer of a committee formed in Pudukottai to
lobby for the cause for nearly 40 years now.

Ken – betwa project The Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first project under the
National Perspective Plan for interlinking of rivers. Under
this project, water from the Ken river will be transferred to
the Betwa river. Both these rivers are tributaries of river
Yamuna
Q.65) Consider the following statements about the ―Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulation) Amendment Act‖ of 2021:

1. According to this Act, a mine can be reserved for a particular end-use.

2. It eliminates the restrictions on the transfer of mineral concessions for the non-
auctioned mines.
3. It empowers the State Government to conduct the auction in cases where the Central
Governments face difficulty in conducting the auction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

The act is aimed at relaxation, thus statement 1 must be otherwise

EXPLANATION:

The most significant amendment under the new legal regime of the Act, 1957 being the elimination of
differential treatment between the captive and merchant mines, as the amendment now enables –
auction of mines in future without restriction of captive use of minerals as well as sale by the existing
captive mines including captive coal mines of up to fifty per cent of the minerals produced after
meeting the requirement of the linked end use plants. In other words, no mine will be reserved for
particular end-use. This yielding concession will ensure optimal mining of mineral resources.

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

To draw fresh investment and new technology in the mining sector, the new Amendment Act, 2021
eliminates the restrictions on transfer of mineral concessions for the non-auctioned mines. A new
disciplinarian system has also been inserted in the Act, 1957, which though has an efficacious
agenda, could still be branded by some as meddling with State affairs.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Act, 1957 empowers the States to manage and oversee the auction of mineral concessions except
the coal, lignite, and atomic minerals. The new amendment now empowers the Central Government
to notify the area and conduct auction in cases where the State Governments face difficulty or fail in
notifying the areas and conducting auction. This measure is to ensure auction of as many mineral
blocks on regular basis for continuous supply of minerals in the country.

So, Statement 3 is not correct.

118
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act‖ of 2021:

Objective  The act amends the Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulation) Act, 1957. The Act regulates the mining sector in India.
The Amendment Act, 2021 appears to be an earnest attempt by the
Government in the right direction to facilitate the existing shackled
and underexploited mining scenario. Moreso when the mineral
sector contributes less than 2% of the India‘s gross domestic
product, leaving it to import minerals whoppingly worth INR 2.5
trillion per annum. As per available statistics, barely 10% of
obvious geological potential stands explored by India of which
merely 5% has been for mining purposes.
Q.66) Which one of the following protected areas in India has the highest tiger density
among the other tiger reserves?

(a) Corbett Tiger Reserve of Uttarakhand

(b) Nagarhole Tiger Reserve of Karnataka
(c) Bandipur Tiger Reserve of Karnataka
(d) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh
EXPLANATION:

Uttarakhand's Jim Corbett National Park has reported the highest tiger density among India's
50 tiger's reserves with 14 tigers per 100 square kilometres, followed by Kaziranga National Park
in Assam, Nagarhole and Orang Tigers reserves

So, option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

4th cycle of all India Tiger Estimation-2018

Highlights  India now has an estimated 2967 tigers as per the latest census.

 Corbett Tiger Reserve has the highest tiger numbers with 252 inside
the reserve and 266 using the reserve.

 With this number, India is home to nearly 75% of the global tiger
population.

 Highest number of tigers was found in Madhya Pradesh (526),

after that Karnataka has 524 and Uttarakhand is
accommodating 442 tigers.

121
 India has already fulfilled its resolve of doubling tiger numbers,
made at St. Petersburg in 2010, much before the target year of
2022.
 PRESTORMINGTM 2021

MOCK TEST – 3 EXPLANATION

Q.67) “Rekhapida”, “Pidhadeul”, “Khakra” terms most appropriately describes which of the
following?

(a) Painting
(b) Dances forms
(c) Puppetry
(d) Temple Architecture
EXPLANATION:
The main architectural features of Odisha are temples- classified in three orders, i.e., rekhapida,
pidhadeul and khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga-modern Puri
District including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of
Odisha constitute a distinct sub-style within the Nagara order. So, Option (d) is correct.
Q.68) With reference to modern Indian history, Bankim Chandra Chatterji’s novel
“Anandamath” is noted for its depiction of the

(a) Sanyasi Revolt

(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Paika Rebellion
(d) Narkelberia Uprising

EXPLANATION:

Bankim Chandra Chatterji’s novel ‘Anandamath’ is noted for its depiction of the Sanyasi
Revolt. It took place around 1770. There were many sects of Sanyasis who travelled to
various religious places and shrines in Bengal. The British considered the Sanyasis as
looters and imposed restrictions on the Sanyasis barring them from visiting holy places. It
was the practice of the Sanyasis to collect alms from the zamindars during their religious
travels. This was stopped when the zamindars found it too difficult to provide alms since
after paying the British their due, after the introduction of the Permanent settlement
system. All this made the Sanyasis to rise in rebellion against the British and raided
English factories and government treasuries. Prolonged action of Warren hastings subdued
the sanyasis. So, option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Indigo 1. The Indigo Rebellion took place in Bengal in 1859-60 and was a revolt by
Revolt the farmers against British planters who had forced them to grow indigo
under terms that were greatly unfavourable to the farmers.
2. Indigo was being cultivated in Bengal since the end of the 18th century. It
was practised mainly in two forms, the Nij-abad and the Ryoti. In the Nij
or ‘own’ system, the planter produced indigo on lands that he directly
 controlled. In the Ryoti cultivation, the ryots cultivated indigo on their
own lands as part of a contract with the planters.
3. However, one term of this agreement was that the Ryot would cultivate
Indigo on at least 25% of the land. The loan made the people indebted
and resulted in a rebellion in 1859-60 in Eastern Parts of Bengal
4. Important leaders include Digambar biswas and Bishnu Biswas. The
Bengali Intelligentsia played a significant role by supporting peasants.
5. The revolt was made immensely popular by its portrayal in the play Nil
Darpan by Din Bandu Mitra

Paika 1. The Paiks of Odisha were the traditional landed militia -foot soldiers and
Rebellion enjoyed rent-free land tenures for their military service and policing
functions on a hereditary basis.
2. The East India company conquest of Orissa in 1803 and the
dethronement of the Raja of Khurda had greatly reduced the power and
prestige of the Paiks.
3. Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar had been military chief of the forces of the
Raja of Khurda. In 1814 Jagabandhu’s ancestral estate of Killa Rorang
was taken over by the company reducing him to penury, this sparked the
rebellion.
4. Paik rebels resorted to guerrilla tactics.
5. In 1825 Jagabandhu surrendered under negotiated terms, The rebellion
succeeded in getting larger remissions of arrears, reduction in
assessments, suspension of sale of Estates of defaulters at discretion, a
new settlement on fixed tenures and liberal governance

Narkelberia 1. It was led by Titu Mir in West Bengal from 1782-1831.

Uprising 2. They raised against landlords, mainly Hindhu who imposed a beard tax
on the Faraizis and British Indigo Planters.
3. The revolt later merged into the Wahabi movement.
Q.69) If one particular Tiger reserve has been declared as a National Park, then which of the
following will be the immediate consequences?

1. Livestock grazing is prohibited within that National Park.

2. That National Park can be downgraded as a Sanctuary in future based on the demand
from the local people.
3. Human activity is not permitted within the national park.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

National park status is given when there is a high need for protection. Also, here when one
statement has to be eliminated , this statement 3 which talks of reducing the protection could
be the better choice to get eliminated.

EXPLANATION:

Also, they cannot be downgraded to the status of a 'sanctuary'. Both the Central Government
and State governments can declare National Parks. No alteration of the boundaries of a
National Park shall be made except on a resolution passed by the Legislature of the State.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

In National Parks, human activity is not allowed. Also, the grazing of livestock and private
tenurial rights are not permitted. The species that are mentioned in the Schedule of the
Wildlife Act are also not allowed for hunting or capturing purposes. No person can remove,
exploit, or destroy any wildlife from a National Park. No person shall allow to damage or
destroy the habitat of any wild animal or deprive any wild animal of its habitat within a
National Park.

So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

National Parks

Value addition

Total numbers There are 104 existing national parks in India covering an area of
43,716 km2, which is 1.33% of the geographical area of the
country (National Wildlife Database,

Specific facts Madhya Pradesh and Andaman and Nicobar have the highest
number of National Parks (9 each).

• Largest National Park: Hemis National Park, Jammu &

Kashmir.

• Smallest National Park: South Button Island National

Park, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Q.70) Consider the following pairs:

Ports Location

1. Kandla Port - Gulf of Kachh

2. Marmagao port - Zuari Estuary
3. Kochi port - Vembanad Kayal
4. Paradwip port - Mahanadi Delta

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Deendayal Port Trust, located in town of Kandla, is a seaport and town in Kutch district of
Gujarat state in Western India, near the city of Gandhidham. Located on the Gulf of Kutch,
it is one of major ports on the west coast.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Mormugao Port Trust is a port on the western coast of India, in the coastal state of Goa.
Commissioned in 1885 on the site of a natural harbour, it is one of India's oldest ports.
Mormugao Port is situated on the west coast of India at the entrance of Zuari estuary in
Goa state.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Kochi Lake is the portion of the Vembanad Lake located in and around the Kochi mainland.
Among the several groups of small islands that the Kochi Lake forms home are, Vypin,
Mulavukad, Vallarpadam, Willingdon Island etc. Kochi Lake is home for the Kochi Port
which is build around the Willingdon Island, as well as the Vallarpadam island

So, Statement 3 is correct

Paradip Port is a natural, deep-water port on the East coast of India in Jagatsinghpur
district of Odisha. It is situated at confluence of the Mahanadi river and the Bay of Bengal.
It is situated 210 nautical miles south of Kolkata and 260 nautical miles north of
Visakhapatnam

So, Statement 4 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Q.71) Consider the following statement:

“It was enacted for providing a higher level of protection to the forests and to regulate
diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes”
The above-given statement is mainly found in which one of the following legislations in India?

(a) Indian Forest Act, 1927

(b) Forest Rights Act, 2006
(c) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
(d) Environmental Protection Act, 1986

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Options (b),(c) and (d) could be easily differentiated from the titles of these statutes. Indian
Forest Act, 1927 can be eliminated, as it is British legislation made when forests were exploited.
EXPLANATION:

The main objectives of The Forest Conservation Act 1980 are:

• Protecting the flora, fauna and other ecological components of

forests.

• Protecting the integrity, territory and individuality of the forests.

• Protecting the forests and preventing deforestation leading to land

erosion and degradation

• Preventing the loss of biodiversity.

• Preventing the conversion of forests into agricultural, grazing, commercial

or residential unit.

So, option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Forest Conservation

Statutes Value addition

42nd Constitutional Article 48A under DPSP and a Fundamental Duty under
Amendment Acr,1976 Article 51A were added to the Indian Constitution for the
conservation of forest.

Indian Forest Act,1927 The main objective of the Indian Forest Act (1927) was to
secure exclusive state control over forests to meet the
demand for timber. Most of these untitled lands had
traditionally belonged to the forest dwelling communities

Forest Rights Act,2006 The objective of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 is to recognize
the forest rights of the Scheduled tribes and traditional
forest dwellers. It also aims to protect the culture of the
schedule tribes living in these areas. The act also provides
the right to occupation to them

Environmental The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in the year

Protection Act,1986 1986. It was enacted with the main objective to provide the
protection and improvement of environment and for matters
connected therewith. The Act is one of the most
comprehensive legislations with a pretext to protection and
improvement of the environment.
Q.72) Consider the following statements:

1. An important feature of the Rajput Architecture Style was the hanging balcony.
2. Jaipur, built by Jai Singh, represents a synthesis of Rajput and Mughal architectural styles.
3. Rumi Darwaza and Chattar Manzil are prominent structures of the Rajput Architecture
Style.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Overhanging enclosed balcony (Jharokha) used in Architecture of Rajput style in Rajasthan.
Jharokhas jutting forward from the wall plane could be used both for adding to the architectural
beauty of the building itself or for a specific purpose. One of the most important functions it served
was to allow women to see the events outside without being seen themselves. Alternatively, these
windows could also be used to position archers and spies. So, statement 1 is correct.
The foundation of Jaipur, the fabled “pink city”, in 1727 A.D. represents the final phase of Rajput
architecture. Built by Jai Singh, the city is enclosed by a wall and has bastions and towers at
regular intervals. The City Palace is at the centre of the walled city and is a spectacular synthesis
of the Rajput and Mughal architectural styles. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Rumi Darwaza is an imposing gateway build by Nawab Asaf-Ud-Daula and Chattar Manzil
build by Nawab Ghazi Uddin Haider in 1784 are both in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India. Both are
an example of Awadhi architecture (not Rajput architecture). So, statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
Rajputs • The term Rajput covers various patrilineal clans historically
associated with warriorhood The Rajput Period is 647A.D-
1200 A.D

• From the death of Harsha to the 12th century, the destiny of

India was mostly in the hands of various Rajput dynasties

The major clans were:

1. The Palas of Bengal

2. The Chauhans of Delhi and Ajmer

3. The Rathors of Kanauj

4. The Guhilas or Sisodiyas of Mewar

5. The Chandellas of Bundelkhand

 6. The Paramaras of Malwa

7. The Senas of Bengal

8. The Solankis of Gujarat

Society 1. The Rajputs were great warriors and chivalrous by nature.

2. They believed in protecting the women and the weak.
3. The Rajputs were staunch followers of Hinduism. But they
also patronized Buddhism and Jainism.
4. Rajput Society was Feudal in its organizational setup.
5. Each kingdom was divided into a large number of Jagirs
held by the Jagirdars

Architecture 1) The Khajuraho temples are considered to build during Rajputs

rule. They are the most beautiful, as they are made of pink buff-
coloured and yellow fine-grained sandstone. The most awesome
feature of these temples is the balcony window. There are floral
designs carved on the doors, passages, pillars and ceilings.
2) The Rajputs had built magnific fortresses at Chittorgarh, Amber
(Jaipur), Jaisalmer, Jodhpur, Ranthambhor, Gwalior, and many
other places. It is noted that these forts are usually made on
small hills and some barriers were also made to prevent the
entry of any unwanted person. All the forts had magnificent
walls and various towers
3) In 1088 AD, the Dilwara Jain Temples were constructed in
white marble. A deity is placed in a cell, raised on a high
platform surrounded by a courtyard
4) During 950-70 AD, the Parswanatha Temple was built as one of
the largest Jain temples in Khajuraho.

Q.73) If an economy faces a higher fiscal deficit, then which of the following shall be true?

1. That economy will definitely face an inflationary condition.

2. If the borrowed resources are left unutilized by the government, there may be no
inflation due to a lack of demand.
3. A fiscal deficit accompanied by greater demand and the inability of firms to produce
higher quantities will lead to a rise in price.
4. A fiscal deficit accompanied by higher demand and greater supply need not be
inflationary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION

Higher fiscal deficit in economy will not definitely face inflatory condition. When
government increases its spending (increased expenditure) or when reduces its taxes
(reduced receipts) it leads to Fiscal deficit. During fiscal deficit, demand may
increase and if demand is met through increased output it may not lead to inflation.
So, statement 1 is not correct.

If the borrowed resources are left unutilized by government, there may be no

inflation due to lack of demand. Because inflation may arise from either cost push
inflation or demand pull inflation. If borrowed resources are left unutilized by
government, it may not lead to increased money supply in hand of people. Limited
money with people does not lead to higher demands. So, it may leads to non-
inflatory situation. So, statement 2 is correct.

One of the main criticisms of deficits is that they are inflationary. This is because
when government increases spending or cuts taxes, aggregate demand increases.
Firms may not be able to produce higher quantities that are being demanded at the
ongoing prices. Prices will, therefore, have to rise. So, statement 3 is correct.

However, if there are unutilised resources, output is held back by lack of demand. A
high fiscal deficit is accompanied by higher demand and greater output and,
therefore, need not be inflationary. So, statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Deficit and types When a government spends more than it collects by way of
revenue, it incurs a budget deficit

Types

1. Revenue Deficit: The revenue deficit refers to the

excess of government’s revenue expenditure over
revenue receipts Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure
– Revenue receipts
2. Fiscal Deficit: Fiscal deficit is the difference between
the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts
excluding borrowing Gross fiscal deficit = Total
expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating
capital receipts)
3. Primary deficit: It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the
 interest payments Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal
deficit – Net interest liabilities Net interest liabilities
consist of interest payments minus interest receipts by
the government on net domestic lending.

Inflation Inflation is an economic indicator that indicates the rate of

rising prices of goods and services in the economy. Ultimately
it shows the decrease in the buying power of the rupee. It is
measured as a percentage.

Types

1. Demand-pull Inflation: It occurs when the demand

for goods or services is higher when compared to
the production capacity. The difference between
demand and supply (shortage) result in price
appreciation.
2. Cost-push Inflation: It occurs when the cost of
production increases. Increase in prices of the
inputs (labour, raw materials, etc.) increases the
price of the product.
Q.74) Consider the following statements:

1. Solar flares are produced on the Sun’s surface due to magnetic anomalies.
2. The solar wind does not affect the shape of Earth’s magnetosphere.
3. The Sun’s corona can be easily seen during a total solar eclipse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

A solar flare is an intense burst of radiation coming from the release of magnetic energy
associated with sunspots. Flares are our solar system's largest explosive events. They are
seen as bright areas on the sun and they can last from minutes to hours.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

As the wind travels off the sun, it carries charged particles and magnetic clouds.. The force
of the wind stretches out the earth's magnetic field so that it is pushed inward on the sun-
side and stretched out on the night side.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Corona is a luminous envelope of plasma that surrounds the Sun and other celestial
bodies. It is extended to millions of kilometres into space and is commonly seen during a
total solar eclipse. The intense temperature of the Sun's corona is due to the presence of
highly ionized ions which give it a spectral feature

So, Statement 3 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

SUN STRUCTURE
 As a party to the CBD, India strives to meet and honour
its international obligations and commitments under
the convention. India has a firm belief in the
conservation of biodiversity as a national priority and
recognizes its crucial linkages with the livelihoods and
well-being of millions of people.

Q.75) Consider the following statements about “Seaweeds”:

1. Seaweeds remove more Carbon from the water than Mangroves and Salt Marshes.
2. Seaweed farms can help to combat local impacts of ocean acidification.
3. Seaweeds purify the water but do not remove Nitrogen and Phosphorus from it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

If seaweeds increase nutrient supply, then it results in higher Biological Oxygen Demand
which inturn is not favourable for a healthy ecosystem. Such thing cannot be promoted.
However if experts and organizations support its arming then it must be healthy. Thus
statement 2 can be eliminated.

EXPLANATION:

Seaweeds are incredibly efficient at sucking up carbon dioxide and using it to

grow. Eelgrass, mangroves, and salt marshes are already known for their ability to store
carbon. But seaweeds pull more of the greenhouse gas from the water than all three
combined based on biomass. That means seaweed farms can help to combat local
impacts of ocean acidification.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Seaweeds also gobble up nitrogen and phosphorus. In large quantities, these nutrients
cause algal blooms that deplete the ocean of oxygen when they decompose. Excess
nitrogen and phosphorus from storm water runoff and point-sources are behind the dead
zones . Seaweed farms can help lower nutrient levels in nearby waters.

So, Statements 3 is not correct.

Seaweed farms can help to combat local impacts of ocean acidification. So statement 2
is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Seaweeds- • Seaweed" is the common name for countless species

characteristics of marine plants and algae that grow in the ocean as
well as in rivers, lakes, and other water bodies.

• Some seaweeds are microscopic, such as the

phytoplankton that live suspended in the water
column and provide the base for most marine food
chains. Some are enormous, like the giant kelp that
grow in abundant “forests” and tower like underwater
redwoods from their roots at the bottom of the sea.
 Most are medium-sized, come in colors of red, green,
brown, and black, and randomly wash up on beaches
and shorelines just about everywhere.

• The vernacular “seaweed” is a bona-fide misnomer,

because a weed is a plant that spreads so profusely it
can harm the habitat where it takes hold. (Consider
kudzu, the infamous “mile-a-minute vine” that chokes
waterways throughout the U.S. Southeast). Not only
are the fixed and free-floating “weeds” of the sea
utterly essential to innumerable marine creatures,
both as food and as habitat, they also provide many
benefits to land-dwellers, notably those of the human
variety.

Recognising Seaweed farming as an emerging sector, Budget

2021,proposed to establish a multipurpose seaweed
park in Tamil Nadu

Q.76) Which of the following bird species are endemic to the Western Ghats?

1. Square-tailed Bulbul
2. Red Spurfowl
3. Dark-fronted Babbler
4. Flame-throated Bulbul
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:

Square-tailed Bulbul

Hypsipetes ganeesa

Global Red List - Least Concern

Wildlife Protection Act - Schedule-IV

Migratory Status - Resident

Habitat Specialization - Woodland

Endemicity - South Asia, Western Ghats & SL

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Red Spurfowl
Galloperdix spadicea
Global Red List - Least Concern
Wildlife Protection Act - Schedule-IV
Migratory Status - Resident
Habitat Specialization - Woodland
Endemicity - South Asia, India, Mainland India
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Dark-fronted Babbler

Rhopocichla atriceps

Global Red List - Least Concern

Wildlife Protection Act - Schedule-IV

Migratory Status - Resident

Habitat Specialization - Woodland, Tropical Forest

Endemicity - South Asia, Western Ghats & SL

So, Statement 3 is correct

Flame-throated Bulbul

Pycnonotus gularis

Global Red List - Least Concern

Wildlife Protection Act - Schedule-IV

Migratory Status - Resident

Habitat Specialization - Woodland, Tropical Forest

Endemicity - South Asia, India, Mainland India, Western Ghats & SL, Western Ghats

So, Statement 4 is correct

Q.77) Which of the following statements is correct about the “MITRA Scheme”?

(a) It is an internship initiative by the National Cooperative Development Corporation for young
professionals
(b) It aims at creating world-class infrastructure in the Textile sector to create global
champions in exports
(c) It aims at Strengthening Teaching-Learning in selective States under the existing Samagra
Shiksha scheme
(d) Its objective is to create awareness about Intellectual Property Rights in Higher Education
Institutions

EXPLANATION:

The Government has proposed a scheme of Mega Investment Textiles Parks (MITRA) to
enable the textile industry to become globally competitive, attract large investments,
boost employment generation and exports. Presenting the Union Budget 2021-22 in the
parliament today, Union Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister said that this will create
world class infrastructure with plug and play facilities to enable create global champions
in exports. MITRA will be launched in addition to the Production Linked Incentive
Scheme(PLI).

So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Value addition

Production • The scheme provides incentives to companies for

Linked Incentive enhancing their domestic manufacturing apart from
Scheme(PLI) focusing on reducing import bills and improving the cost
competitiveness of local goods. PLI scheme offers
incentives on incremental sales for products
manufactured in India.

• The first three PLI schemes were approved in March last

year followed by 10 new schemes which were notified in
November of which six were approved later. The scheme
for respective sectors has to be implemented by the
concerned ministries and departments. According to a
Cabinet statement in November last year, savings, if any,
from one PLI scheme of an approved sector can be utilised
 to fund the scheme for another approved sector.

Q.78) Food Corporation of India takes up foodgrain stocking to meet which of the following
need(s)?

1. To meet the monthly distributional requirement under Targeted Public Distribution

System.
2. For meeting the shortfall in production or natural calamities.
3. To issue food grains to Mid Day meals Scheme.
4. To supply food grains to military and paramilitary forces.
5. To meet the requirements of government-run welfare institutions such as beggar
homes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

EXPLANATION

Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government
through the Food Corporation of India (FCI). The purchased foodgrains are stored in
granaries.

Buffer stock is created by the government (Targeted PDS and mid-day meal scheme). This is
done to distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of the society
(government run beggar homes also included) at a price lower than the market price also
known as Issue Price.

This also helps resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or
during the periods of calamity. To supply food grains to military and paramilitary forces. So
option (d) is correct.

Additional information:-

The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation's Act 1964 , in order
to fulfill following objectives of the Food Policy:

• Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers.

• Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system.

• Maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to

 ensure National Food Security

• Maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to

ensure National Food Security

Q.79) Consider the following statements about the “Compulsory Licensing”:

1. Generic medicines produced under Compulsory Licensing cannot be exported under

any condition.
2. The compulsory license is granted by the countries themselves and there exists no
specific Authority.
3. WTO Disputes Settlement body decides what constitutes National Emergency to issue
Compulsory Licensing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION

TRIPS Agreement says products made under compulsory licensing must be “predominantly
for the supply of the domestic market”. However, on 30 August 2003 WTO members agreed
on legal changes to make it easier for countries to import cheaper generics made under
compulsory licensing if they are unable to manufacture the medicines themselves. This
aims to ensure that beneficiary countries can import the generics without undermining
patent systems, particularly in rich countries. They include measures to prevent the
medicines from being diverted to the wrong markets. So, statement 1 is not correct

Compulsory licences are granted by the authorities of member countries themselves. There
exists no specific authority at the national level or at the WTO level for granting the
compulsory licence. So, statement 2 is correct.

Each Member has the right to determine what constitutes national emergency or other
circumstances of extreme urgency. It is being understood that public health crises,
including those relating to HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria and other epidemics, can
represent a national emergency or other circumstances of extreme urgency. Thus each
member countries decide about a National emergency and there is no WTO dispute
settlement body to decide such. So, statement 3 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Compulsory 1. Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else

licensing to produce the patented product or process without the consent of
the patent owner. In current public discussion, this is usually
associated with pharmaceuticals, but it could also apply to
patents in any field.

2. The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that
might be used to justify compulsory licensing.

3. It does mention national emergencies, other circumstances of

extreme urgency and anti-competitive practices — but only as
grounds when some of the normal requirements for compulsory
licensing do not apply, such as the need to try for a voluntary
licence first.

4. In the main Doha Ministerial Declaration of 14 November 2001,

WTO member governments stressed that it is important to
implement and interpret the TRIPS Agreement in a way that
supports public health — by promoting both access to existing
medicines and the creation of new medicines.

5. They, therefore, adopted a separate declaration on TRIPS and

Public Health. They agreed that the TRIPS Agreement does not
and should not prevent members from taking measures to protect
public health. They underscored countries’ ability to use the
flexibilities that are built into the TRIPS Agreement, including
compulsory licensing and parallel importing.

Advantages 1. Compulsory licensing acts as a remedy to the abuse of IPR.

2. Compulsory licensing of IPRs would be an apt remedy and will

deter the companies if they abuse their dominant positions.

3. Compulsory licensing will make the products more accessible to

the public and it will be beneficial for public welfare.

Disadvantages 1. It may deter foreign direct investment in industrial sectors.

2. It deters industries to invest in Research and development
Q.80) In order to include any Schedule after the Twelfth Schedule into the Indian
Constitution, which type of majority is required by the Parliament?

(a) Simple majority alone is enough

(b) It requires a special majority of both Houses of the Parliament
(c) It is necessary for obtaining the state ratification after the Special majority of the Parliament
(d) It depends upon the matter included in the schedule of the proposed amendment

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Amendment procedure is chosen based on the importance of the matter. Thus it cannot be
decided without the context. Thus option (d) can be chosen

EXPLANATION:

Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority
of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple
majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions
of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the
members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative
process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the
Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Therefore, the Constitution can be
amended in three ways: (a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament, (b)
Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and (c) Amendment by special
majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures. In the
context of inclusion of any schedule after the 12th schedule into the constitution it
depends upon the matter included into the schedule of the proposed amendment.

So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Types of Procedure
amendments

By Simple Majority A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended

by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside
the scope of Article 368.

Special Majority of By The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to

Parliament be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, that is, a
majority of the total membership of each House and a
majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present
and voting. The expression ‘total membership’ means the total
number of members comprising the House irrespective of fact
whether there are vacancies or absentees. ‘The provisions which
can be amended by this way includes: (i) Fundamental Rights;
(ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and (iii) All other
provisions which are not covered by the first and third
categories.

By Special Majority Election of the President and its manner. 2. Extent of the executive
of Parliament and power of the Union and the states. 3. Supreme Court and high
Consent of States courts. 4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union
and the states. 5. Goods and Services Tax Council 6. Any of the
lists in the Seventh Schedule. 7. Representation of states in
Parliament. 8. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
Q.81) “Kirtivarman, the son of Pulakesi I and the elder brother of Mangalesha, seated inside
the palace with his wife and feudatories watching a dance”. The above scene is depicted in
the paintings of

(a) Badami caves

(b) Ajanta caves
(c) Ellora caves
(d) Barabar caves

EXPLANATION

Badami in the State of Karnataka. Badami was the capital of the early Chalukyan dynasty
which ruled the region from 543 to 598 CE. With the decline of the Vakataka rule, the
Chalukyas established their power in the Deccan. The Chalukya king, Mangalesha,
patronised the excavation of the Badami caves. He was the younger son of the Chalukya
king. The cave is popularly known as the Vishnu Cave. Paintings in this cave depict palace
scenes. One shows Kirtivarman, the son of Pulakesi I and the elder brother of Mangalesha,
seated inside the palace with his wife and feudatories watching a dance scene. These
paintings represent an extension of the tradition of mural painting from Ajanta to Badami
in South India. So, option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Ajanta caves • It is located in the Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State.

Ajanta has twenty-nine caves. It has four chaitya caves datable to
the earlier phase, i.e., the second and the first century BCE and
the later phase, i.e., the fifth century CE.
• Ajanta is the only surviving example of a painting of the first
century BCE and the fifth century CE.
• There are a total of 29 caves (all Buddhist) of which 25 were used
as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or
prayer halls.
• The figures in these caves were done using fresco painting.
• The outlines of the paintings were done in red colour. One of the
striking features is the absence of blue colour in the paintings.
• The caves were designated a UNESCO World Heritage
site in 1983.

Ellora caves • Ellora caves are located near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.

• It received patronage from the Rashtrakutas, Kalachuris,

Chalukyas and the Yadavas.

• The caves belong to the 6th to 10th century AD

• There are 34 caves. Out of them, 12 are Buddhist Caves, 17

Hindu Caves and 5 Jaina Caves. The oldest caves are Hindu
Caves.

• The caves of the three faiths were made in overlapping periods,

and as everywhere in ancient India, this demonstrates the
generous attitude of rulers towards the worship of all divinities.

• The famous temple at Ellora is Kailashnath Temple.

• It is a vast multi-storey structure, carved inside and outside,
made out of the heart of a rock. This temple is a remarkable
example of Dravidian architecture with Pallava influence.

Barabar caves • The oldest examples of Mauryan rock-cut architecture in

India are the Barabar caves, located in the Barabar hills, in
Jehanabad District of Bihar.

There are four caves in Barabar

 1. Lomas Rishi cave

2. Sudama cave

3. Karan Chaupar

4. Visva Zopri

Lomas Rishi cave

• Lomas Rishi cave in the Barabar Hills of Bihar was excavated

during Ashoka for the Ajivika sect.
• It is an excellent example showing true imitations in stone of
early wooden constructions.
• The entrance of the cave imitates a hut entrance on the stone.
The back of the roof is made of bent timber and the carved frieze
of elephants is an imitation of previous woodwork.
• The Lomas Rishi cave has the earliest example showing the
development from earlier shapes in timber translated into stone.
Q.82) Which one of the following statement is not correct about the Rare Earth Metals?

(a) Rare earth minerals are crucial to the manufacture of magnets used in industries
(b) India has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth elements
(c) China controls nearly 90% of global rare earth production
(d) Recently, Government of India created Department for Rare Earths under the Ministry
of Petroleum and Natural Gas to attract private investment in rare earth exploration

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

When china controls 90℅ of global reserves, it is less likely for India to be the largest exporter.
EXPLANATION:

Rare earth minerals, with names like neodymium, praseodymium and dysprosium,
are crucial to the manufacture of magnets used in industries of the future, such as wind
turbines and electric cars. And they are already being used in consumer goods such as
smartphones, computer screens and telescopic lenses.

So, option (a) is correct.

India's reserves of rare earths, nearly 6.9 million tonnes are the fifth largest in the world,
nearly twice as much as Australia. The largest feasible deposits for LREEs in India are to be
found in beach sands (monazite) but it imports most of its rare earth needs in finished form
from its geopolitical rival, China.

So, Option (b) is correct and option (d) is not correct.

China accounts for over 95 percent of the world's production of rare earths. Therefore,
having control of these elements puts China at a powerful position. It is estimated
the world has 99 million tonnes of rare earth reserve deposits.

So, option (c ) is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Rare Earth Minerals

Characteristics-

• Rare earth elements are a group of seventeen chemical

elements that occur together in the periodic table . The
group consists of yttrium and the 15 lanthanide elements
(lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium,
promethium, samarium, europium, gadolinium, terbium,
dysprosium, holmium, erbium, thulium, ytterbium, and
lutetium). Scandium is found in most rare earth element
deposits and is sometimes classified as a rare earth
element. The International Union of Pure and Applied
Chemistry includes scandium in their rare earth element
 definition.

• The rare earth elements are all metals, and the group is
often referred to as the "rare earth metals." These metals
have many similar properties, and that often causes them
to be found together in geologic deposits. They are also
referred to as "rare earth oxides" because many of them
are typically sold as oxide compounds
Q.83) Consider the following statements about the Nitrogen dioxide pollution:

1. It is formed when fossil fuels are burned at high temperatures.

2. It is not formed when biomass is burned.
3. Long-term exposure to Nitrogen dioxide pollution increases the risk of pulmonary
disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Nitrogen oxides or NOx are a family of poisonous, highly reactive gases that form
when fuel is burned at high temperatures. NOx gases are generally brown in colour and are
emitted by vehicles as well as industrial sources such as power plants, industrial boilers,
cement kilns, and turbines.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

An important biomass burning related source of nitrogen oxide emission is that of crop
residue burning. The high nitrogen and water contents of many crop residues mean that
the burning of such material can produce Nitrogen dioxide.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Long-term exposure to nitrogen dioxide (NO2) pollution can affect lung function and increas
the risk of pulmonary disease, a recent study concluded. Healthy individuals — mostly from
low-income, urban communities — suffered a decline in lung function due to air pollution,
the study claimed.

So, Statement 3 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Nitrogen Oxides Characteristics

Sources • Nitrogen dioxide is not usually released directly into the

air. Nitrogen dioxide forms when nitrogen oxide (NO) and
other nitrogen oxides (NOx) react with other chemicals in
the air to form nitrogen dioxide.

• The main source of nitrogen dioxide resulting from human

activities is the combustion of fossil fuels (coal, gas and
oil) especially fuel used in cars. It is also produced from
making nitric acid, welding and using explosives, refining
of petrol and metals, commercial manufacturing, and food
manufacturing.

• Natural sources of other nitrogen oxides include volcanoes

and bacteria.

Effects Effects on health

 The main health effect of nitrogen dioxide is on the

respiratory system. Inhalation of nitrogen dioxide by
children increases their risk of respiratory infection and
may lead to poorer lung function in later life. There is also
an association between nitrogen dioxide concentrations in
the air and increases in mortality and hospital admissions
for respiratory disease. Nitrogen dioxide can decrease the
lungs’ defences against bacteria making them more
susceptible to infections. It can also aggravate asthma.

Groups most sensitive to nitrogen dioxide

 • young children

• asthmatics of all ages (but especially children)

• adults with heart and respiratory disorders.

 Nitrogen dioxide is toxic to plants in short-term

concentrations of 120 µg/m3. It reduces plant growth.
When sulphur dioxide and ozone are also present, the
effects on vegetation are worse. Along with sulphur
dioxide, nitrogen dioxide can cause acid rain.

Effects on buildings

 Nitrogen dioxide forms acids in the presence of moisture

and these can be corrosive to building materials at high
concentrations.

Effects on visibility

 Nitrogen dioxide can form secondary particles called

nitrates that cause haze and reduce visibility. Nitrogen
dioxide is the gas that makes summer smog look brownish
in colour.
Q.84) “Mission VATSALYA”, recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the
following?

(a) It is one of the major umbrella schemes of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) It will look into child protection services and child welfare services
(c) It is to bring people, who is living with HIV and has left treatment, back to Anti Retro Viral
Treatment
(d) It will accelerate the developments under the Aspirational Districts Programme

EXPLANATION:

• For effective implementation of various schemes and programmes of the Ministry

of Women and Child Development, all major schemes of the Ministry have been
classified under 3 umbrella schemes viz. Mission Poshan 2.0, Mission
Vatsalya and Mission Shakti.

• Children are the future of our country. Well-being of children is essential

 for the country’s development as they contribute to the future human resource of
the country. To strengthen nutritional content, delivery, outreach, and outcomes,
Government is merging the Supplementary Nutrition Programme and Poshan
Abhiyan to launch Mission POSHAN 2.0. The Ministry of Women and Child
Development has taken many initiatives to ensure safety and well-being of
children. Mission VATSALYA will ensure the same going ahead

So, option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Schemes Ministry of Women and Child Development

Mission Shakti:

 Schemes: Mission Shakti will cover schemes under

two categories:

o SAMBAL: This category will include

schemes such as One Stop Centre, Mahila
Police Volunteer, Women’s Helpline,
Swadhar, Ujjawala among others.

o SAMARTHYA: This category will include

schemes such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao,
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
among others.

Mission Vatsalya :.

 Mission Vatsalya will include the Scheme for Child

Protection Services, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

Mission Poshan 2.0: The government will be merging the Poshan

Abhiyan and supplementary nutrition programme to launch
Mission Poshan 2.0.
Q.85) Consider the following statements about “IN-SPACe”:

1. It is an independent nodal agency to drive the building up of satellites and launch

vehicles through Indian industries.
2. It is an authorisation centre that provides private players with to use of Indian space
infrastructure.
3. In the future, it will decide the missions to be undertaken by ISRO.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

IN-SPACe was created to ensure greater private participation in India’s space
activities. Logically, a newly created body cannot have more power than the parent
organisation. Thus INSPACe cannot decide the future mission of ISRO. So, statement
3 is not correct. Thus, options (c) and (d) can be eliminated.
EXPLANATION
IN-SPACe (Indian National Space, Promotion and Authorisation Centre) is established as
a single-window nodal agency, with its own cadre, which will permit and oversee the activities
of Non-Government-Private-Entities. It is the independent nodal agency to drive the building
of satellites, rockets through Indian industry. So, statement 1 is correct.
The government will allow private companies to utilise infrastructures of the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO), which are otherwise not available elsewhere in India under the
Indian National Space, Promotion and Authorisation Centre (INSPACe). There will be
reasonable charges for utilisation of government infrastructure which will be varying
depending on the requirement. So, statement 2 is correct.
Through INSPACe private companies will be provided with a level playing field in satellites,
launches and space-based services. Thus future projects for planetary exploration, outer
space travel will be open for the private sector. In the future, INSPACe will not decide the
missions to be undertaken by ISRO, as it is only a body created to increase private sector
participation in Space activities. So, statement 3 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
IN-SPACe IN-SPACe is to be established as a single-window nodal agency, with
its own cadre, which will permit and oversee the following activities of
Non-Government-Private-Entities.

a. Space activities including building launch vehicles and satellites

and providing space-based services as per the definition of space
activities.

b. Sharing of space infrastructure and premises under the control of

ISRO with due considerations to ongoing activities.

c. Establishment of temporary facilities within premises under ISRO

control based on safety norms and feasibility assessment

d. Establishment of new space infrastructure and facilities, by

NGPEs, in pursuance of space activities based on safety norms and
other statutory guidelines and necessary clearances.
e. Initiation of launch campaign and launch, based on readiness of
launch vehicle and spacecraft systems, ground and user segment.

f. Building, operation and control of spacecraft for registration as

Indian Satellite by NGPEs and all the associated infrastructure for
the same.

g. Usage of spacecraft data and rolling out of space-based services

and all the associated infrastructure for the same.
Q.86) Consider the following statements about reservation in the Local Bodies:

1. The reservation given to Other Backward Classes (OBC) in local bodies is only statutory
and not constitutional.
2. If the SC/ST quota consumes the entire 50% ceiling, then there would not be any
question of separate reservation for OBCs in that local body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION

In response to petitions challenging Section 12(2)(c) of the Maharashtra Zilla Parishads and
Panchayat Samitis Act 1961, which mandated that the state provide 27 per cent
reservation to OBCs in local bodies, the Supreme court in March 2021, made the following
observations

1. The reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBC) is only statutory, unlike the
constitutional reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST),
which is linked to the proportion of the population
2. The extent of reservation given to the OBC in local bodies should not be such that it
takes total reservation for SCs, STs and OBCs to over 50 per cent ceiling.
3. If constitutional reservation provided for SCs and STs consume the entire 50 per
cent of seats in the concerned local bodies, the question of providing further
reservation to OBCs in such local bodies would not arise at all

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct. So, option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
Reservation 1. SC and ST –Applicable to all levels. (both members and
in Panchayats chairperson)
2. Women-1/3rd reservation. .(both members and chairperson)
3. OBC-State may or may not provide Reservation at both
levels.

Reservation 1. SC and ST- Applicable only to Members(State may or may

in not provide to Chairperson)
2. Women-1/3rd reservation Applicable only to Members(State
Municipalities may or may not provide to Chairperson)
3. OBC-State may or may not provide Reservation at both
levels.
Q.87) Which of the following factors will lead to higher retail inflation in the Indian
Economy?

1. Sharp rise in prices of Crude oil.

2. Rising prices of manufactured goods.
3. Low base effect for the corresponding month in last year.
4. Higher base effect for the corresponding month in last year
 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

A higher base effect will reduce the inflation rate and does not increase the inflation rate.
So, statement 4 is not correct. Thus, option (c) and (d) can be eliminated.

EXPLANATION

In India retail inflation is measured using the Consumer Price Index. It measures price
changes from the perspective of a retail buyer. Consumer Price Index includes a measure of
changes in the price level of both goods and services bought by households. CPI measures
the prices of various commodities like Food, Crude oil and also manufactured goods. Thus
increase in prices of food products, oil, and manufactured goods will lead to higher retail
Inflation. So, statement 1 and 2 are correct.

To calculate any index, the data of the current period is compared with the base period. For
CPI calculation base year is 2016.For example,

CASE 1

If the price of One kg of rice in March 2016 is Rs 100, and if the price of the same in March
2021 is Rs 200 and if the Base year is 2016. Thus, in March 2021, the price of rice is
inflated by 100%.

CASE 2

If the price of One kg of rice in March 2016 is Rs 50, and if the price of the same in March
2021 is Rs 200 and if the Base year is 2016. Thus, in March 2021, the price of rice is
inflated by 200%.

Thus lower base effect (Rs 50) results in Higher inflation.

So, statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Consumer Price Index

Types 1. CPI for Industrial Workers

2. CPI for Agricultural Labourer
3. CPI for Rural Labourer (RL).
4. CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined).

Of these, the first three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry
of Labour and Employment. Fourth is compiled by the Central Statistical
Organisation (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.

CPI vs WPI • WPI tracks inflation at the producer level and CPI captures changes
in prices levels at the consumer level.
• WPI includes only goods, which CPI includes both goods and
services.

Q.88) With reference to the rulers of Ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. They had a highly centralized system of administration.

2. Their structural temples exist at Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal.
3. They developed the Vesara style of temple architecture.
The above statements refer to
(a) Cheras
(b) Chalukyas
(c) Cholas
(d) Pandyas
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Chera, Chola, Pandayas are rulers of ancient Tamilnadu and surrounding areas during
Sangam age. Tamilnadu is known for its Dravidian type of Architecture. So, logically Vesara
type of architecture cannot be linked to those rulers. So, the only option left is Chalukyas.

EXPLANATION

Facts about Chalukyan Empire:

1. The Chalukyas ruled parts of Southern and Central India between the 6th century and
the 12th century.
2. There were three distinct but related Chalukya dynasties.
Badami Chalukyas

The earliest Chalukyas with their capital at Badami (Vatapi) in Karnataka. They ruled
from the mid-6th century and declined after the death of their greatest king, Pulakesin II in
642 AD.

Eastern Chalukyas

Emerged after the death of Pulakesin II in Eastern Deccan with capital at Vengi. They
ruled till the 11th century.

Western Chalukyas

Descendants of the Badami Chalukyas emerged in the late 10th century and ruled
from Kalyani

3. They had a highly centralized system of administration

4. But for the convenience of administration, the empire was divided into Rastras,
Vaishyas, Nadus and Grama
5. They developed the Vesara style of temple architecture This is also called the Deccan
style or Karnataka Dravida or Chalukyan style. It is a combination of Dravida and
Nagara styles.
6. Their structural temples exist at Aihole-Lady Khan temple (Surya Temple), Durga
temple, Huchimalligudi temple etc. Badami and Pattadakal.
7. They built cave temples depicting both religious and secular themes.
8. The temples had beautiful mural paintings.

So, option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Rulers Cheras

The Cheras controlled the central and northern parts of Kerala

and the Kongu region of Tamil Nadu. Vanji was their capital.
The emblem of Cheras was “bow and arrow”

Cholas

The Cholas controlled the central and northern parts of Tamil

Nadu. Their capital was Uraiyur. Tiger was their emblem. The
Cholas also maintained an efficient navy.

Pandyas

The Pandyas ruled from Madurai. Korkai was their main port.
It was famous for the pearl fishery. Their emblem was
the “Fish”

The economy of 1. Agriculture was the chief occupation.

the Sangam Age 2. Spinning and weaving of cotton and silk clothes were also
practised. These were in great demand in the western world
especially for the cotton clothes woven at Uraiyur.
3. The port city of Puhar became an important place of foreign
trade.
4. Major exports of the Sangam age-cotton fabrics, spices like
pepper, ginger, cardamom, cinnamon and turmeric along
with ivory products, pearls and precious stones.
5. Major imports - horses, gold, and sweet wine

Society of the 1. Five-fold division of lands – Kurinji (hilly tracks), Mullai

Sangam age (pastoral), Marudam (agricultural), Neydal (coastal) and
Palai (desert).
2. Society classified into four castes namely arasar(Ruling
Class), anthanar, vanigar(carried on trade and commerce)
and vellalar(Agriculturists
3. Women had respect and there were women poets like
Avvaiyar, Nachchellaiyar, and Kakkaipadiniyar.
4. Women were allowed to choose their life partners. But the
life of widows was miserable.
5. Sati was prevalent in the higher strata of society.
Q.89) Consider the following statements about the “Permafrost”:

1. Permafrost is land that has been frozen at or below 0 degrees Celsius for two or more
consecutive years.
2. Currently, 27 per cent of Earth’s entire exposed land surface is comprised of
permafrost.
3. Permafrost soils contain large quantities of organic carbon near the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at

least two years straight. These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions
with high mountains and in Earth's higher latitudes—near the North and South
Poles. Permafrost covers large regions of the Earth

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Permafrost is made of a combination of soil, rocks and sand that are held together by ice.
The soil and ice in permafrost stay frozen all year long.It covers 25 percent of the Northern
Hemisphere and 17 percent of the Earth’s exposed land surface. It is mainly found in the
Arctic region, present beneath about 80 percent of Alaska, 50 percent of Canada and 60
percent of Russia, among others. It is also present in high mountains across the world,
such as the Alps, the Himalayas and the Andes.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Near the surface, permafrost soils also contain large quantities of organic carbon—a
material leftover from dead plants that couldn't decompose, or rot away, due to the cold.
Lower permafrost layers contain soils made mostly of minerals. A layer of soil on top
of permafrost does not stay frozen all year

So, Statement 3 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Value addition

How Does Climate As Earth’s climate warms, the permafrost is thawing. That means
Change Affect the ice inside the permafrost melts, leaving behind water and soil.
Permafrost?
Thawing permafrost can have dramatic impacts on our planet
and the things living on it. For example:

1. Many northern villages are built on permafrost.

When permafrost is frozen, it’s harder than
concrete. However, thawing permafrost can
destroy houses, roads and other infrastructure.

2. When permafrost is frozen, plant material in the

soil—called organic carbon—can’t decompose,
or rot away. As permafrost thaws, microbes
begin decomposing this material. This process
releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide
and methane to the atmosphere.

3. When permafrost thaws, so do ancient bacteria

and viruses in the ice and soil. These newly-
unfrozen microbes could make humans and
animals very sick. Scientists have discovered
microbes more than 400,000 years old in
thawed permafrost.
 (c) The trees are completely absent due to insufficient water
(d) The intense evaporation made desert soils more saline

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

Complete absence of trees due to insufficient water cannot be true as date palm trees are a
common feature of the desert region. So option ( c) can be chosen

EXPLANATION:

The predominant vegetation is xerophytic in desert regions. Popular examples

of xerophytes are cacti, pineapple and some Gymnosperm plants. Xerophytes such as cacti
are capable of withstanding extended periods of dry conditions as they have deep-spreading
roots and capacity to store water. Their waxy, thorny leaves prevent loss of moisture due to
transpiration.

So, option (a) is correct.

Arid soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in structure and
saline in nature. The intense evaporation made desert soils more saline in nature. In some
areas, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline
water. Due to the dry climate, high temperature and accelerated evaporation, they lack
moisture and humus. These soils are poor and contain little humus and organic matter.

So, Options (b) and (d) are correct.

Trees native to the desert biome include drought-resistant mesquite trees, types of acacia
trees, and desert willow trees. These trees provide lush foliage and bright colors when they
flower. Some other types of desert plants that thrive in hot, arid environments are the
Joshua tree, ironwood tree, chaste tree, and date palm trees..The Khejadi tree is found
mainly in desert areas. It can grow without much water. Its bark is used for making
medicines. People cook and eat its fruits (beans).

So, Option (c) is not correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Desert region

Adaptation • Lower horizons of the soil are occupied by ‘kankar’ layers

because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The
‘Kankar’ layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts
Q.90) Consider the following statements about “Phytoremediation”:

1. It is an ex-situ method for removal of contaminants.

2. In Phytoremediation, the uptake of contaminants in plants occurs primarily through
the roots of the plant.
3. It can be used only against organic contaminants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

It is an in situ technology that can also be applied ex situ (e.g., hydroponics systems). Ex
situ” and “in situ” are two possible remediating options. Ex situ remediation involves
excavation of polluted soil followed by treatment, rendering it an expensive cleanup method.
In situ phytoremediation is the onsite contaminant removal through plant uptake in a cost-
effective and eco-friendly way. .In situ techniques are often preferable to ex situ techniques
due to their low cost and reduced impact on the ecosystem

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The uptake of contaminants in plants occurs primarily through the root system, in which
toxicity prevention-mechanisms are found. The root system provides an enormous surface
area that absorbs and accumulates the water and nutrients essential for growth; they can
also absorb other non-essential contaminants.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

Contaminants such as metals, pesticides, solvents, explosives, and crude oil and its
derivatives, have been mitigated in phytoremediation projects worldwide. Many plants such
as mustard plants, alpine pennycress, hemp, and pigweed have proven to be successful at
hyperaccumulating contaminants at toxic waste sites

So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Phytoremediation

Types Value addition

Phytoremediation is a bioremediation process that uses various

types of plants to remove, transfer, stabilize, and/or
destroy contaminants in the soil and groundwater. There are
several different types of phytoremediation mechanisms. These
are:

1. Rhizosphere biodegradation. In this process, the

plant releases natural substances through its roots, supplying
nutrients to microorganisms in the soil. The microorganisms
enhance biological degradation.

2. Phyto-stabilization. In this process, chemical compounds

produced by the plant immobilize contaminants, rather than
degrade them.

3. Phyto-accumulation (also called phyto-extraction). In this

process, plant roots sorb the contaminants along with
other nutrients and water. The contaminant mass is not
destroyed but ends up in the plant shoots and leaves. This
method is used primarily for wastes containing metals

Q.91) Consider the following statements about the “Mission for Integrated Development of
Horticulture” (MIDH):

1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for holistic growth of the horticulture sector.

2. It covers fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic
plants, coconut, cashew and cocoa.
 3. It is being implemented only in the Himalayan states and the North Eastern States
which are known for the cultivation of horticultural crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY

When it’s called as a national mission, it must be most probably for the whole nation. Thus
statement 3 can be eliminated.

EXPLANATION:

Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) is a Centrally Sponsored

Scheme for the holistic growth of the horticulture sector covering fruits, vegetables, root
& tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, cocoa and
bamboo.

So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Under MIDH, Government of India (GOI) contributes 60%, of total outlay for
developmental programmes in all the states except states in North East and Himalayas,
40% share is contributed by State Governments. In the case of North Eastern States and
Himalayan States, GOI contributes 90%

So, Statements 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture

Implementing Value addition

Agency

The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is

implementing MIDH with effect from 2014-15.
MIDH is implemented under Green Revolution -
Krishonnati Yojana.
Sub-Schemes
National Horticulture Mission
(NHM)

Horticulture Mission for North East

& Himalayan States (HMNEH)

National Bamboo Mission (NBM)

National Horticulture Board (NHB)

Coconut Development Board (CDB)

Central Institute for Horticulture

(CIH)
Q.92) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transfers its surplus to the Government of India every
year. In this context, how does the RBI generate surplus?

1. Buying and selling back the foreign currencies in Indian market.

2. Depositing Foreign Currency Assets with other central banks and the Bank for
International Settlement.
3. Management commission on handling the borrowings of state governments and the
central government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION

The RBI, established in 1935, operates according to the Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934.
The act mandates that profits made by the central bank from its operations be sent to the
Centre.

RBI earns profit by

1. Dealings in the foreign exchange market that the RBI engages, contributes to the
bank’s profits. The RBI, for instance, may buy dollars cheaply and sell them dear in
the future to pocket profits.
2. Returns earned on its foreign currency assets, which could be in the form of bonds
and treasury bills of other central banks or top-rated securities, and deposits with
other central banks.
3. Interest on its holdings of local rupee-denominated government bonds or
securities, and while lending to banks for very short tenures, such as overnight.
4. Management commission on handling the borrowings of state governments and the
central government

So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

RBI’s Surplus

Committee A technical committee of the RBI Board headed by Y H Malegam in

related 2013, which reviewed the adequacy of reserves and surplus distribution
policy, recommended a higher transfer to the government.

Significance 1. The transfer of the additional surplus from the RBI could enable the
 government to pursue efforts towards stimulating the economy while
maintaining budget discipline during the Corona pandemic.
2. The government would be able to meet the fiscal deficit target without
cutting expenditures.

Recent News The Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 26th August 2019
decided to transfer a sum of Rs1,76,051 crores to the Government
Q.93) Consider the following statements about the Virashaiva movement:

1. It was initiated by Basavanna, Allama Prabhu and Akkamahadevi.

2. It began in Maharashtra in the mid-twelfth century.
3. It opposed all forms of ritual and idol worship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION

1. The Virashaiva movement began in Karnataka (not in MAHARASTRA) in the mid-

twelfth century. It was initiated by Basavanna and his companions like Allama
Prabhu and Akkamahadevi.
2. They worship Shiva (not the Hindu god Shiva but the ishtalinga -formless God) in
his manifestation as a linga, and men usually wear a small linga in a silver case on
a loop strung over the left shoulder.
3. Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not
return to this world. Therefore they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation,
prescribed in the Dharmashastras. Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead.
4. The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain
groups by Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. They also
opposed all forms of ritual and idol worship.
5. The Lingayats also encouraged certain practices disapproved in the
 Dharmashastras, such as post-puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows.
6. Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is derived from vachanas composed in
Kannada by women and men who joined the movement.

So, statement 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is not correct. So, option (b) is correct.
Q.94) The North-East Monsoon remained largely subdued and remained below normal till
November last year. Which of the following could be the possible reasons for this
phenomenon?

1. The Southwest monsoon continued till the end of November.

2. The prevailing La Niña conditions in the Pacific Ocean.
3. The Inter-Tropical Convective Zone was located to the North of its normal position.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) had forecast below normal rainfall over Tamil
Nadu and normal rainfall over the southern peninsula for the current season.This year,
the Southwest monsoon withdrew completely from the country on October 28, 2020 with
a delay of a fortnight. On the same day, the IMD declared the onset of the Northeast
monsoon over peninsular India.However, rainfall thereafter remained largely subdued
and remained below normal till around November 10.IMD have linked it to the prevailing
La Niña conditions in the Pacific Ocean.

While La Niña conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Southwest monsoon, it
has a negative impact on rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon.

So, Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

The current position of the Inter Tropical Convective Zone (ITCZ) has also contributed to
the poor rainfall during the ongoing monsoon season. The ITCZ is a low-pressure belt,
whose northward and southward movements along the equator determine the
precipitation in the tropics. Currently, the ITCZ is located to the north of its normal
position.

So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Northeast monsoon-
importance
• India receives rainfall during two seasons. About 75 per
cent of the country’s annual rainfall is received from the
Southwest monsoon between June and September. The
Northeast monsoon, on the other hand, occurs during
October to December, and is a comparatively small-scale
monsoon, which is confined to the Southern peninsula.

• Also called the winter monsoon, the rainfall associated

with the Northeast monsoon is important for Tamil Nadu,
Puducherry, Karaikal, Yanam, coastal Andhra Pradesh,
Kerala, north interior Karnataka, Mahe and Lakshadweep

El Nino Vs La • While El Niño (Spanish for ‘little boy’), the expression

Nina heard more commonly in India, is the abnormal surface
warming observed along the eastern and central regions of
the Pacific Ocean (region between Peru and Papua New
Guinea), La Niña (Spanish for ‘little girl’) is an abnormal
cooling of these surface waters.

• Together, the El Niño and La Niña phenomena are termed

as El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO). These are large-
scale ocean phenomena which inflence the global weather
— winds, temperature and rainfall. They have the ability
to trigger extreme weather events like droughts, floods,
hot and cold conditions, globally.

• Each cycle can last anywhere between 9 to 12 months, at

times extendable to 18 months — and re-occur after every
three to five years.Meteorologists record the sea surface
temperatures for four different regions, known as Niño
regions, along this equatorial belt. Depending on the
temperatures, they forecast either as an El Niño, an ENSO
neutral phase, or a La Niña.
Q.95) Consider the following statements about “Black Carbon”:

1. It is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the

planet behind Carbon dioxide.
2. Unlike other greenhouse gas emissions, it is quickly washed out and can be eliminated
from the atmosphere if emissions stop.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Recent studies show that black carbon may be responsible for close to 20% of
the planet's warming, making it the second highest contributor to climate change after
carbon dioxide.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Unlike other greenhouse gas emissions, BC is quickly washed out and can be eliminated
from the atmosphere if emissions stop. Moreover, Unlike historical carbon emissions it is
also a localised source with greater local impact.So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

BC-impacts On Glaciers

• Deposits of BC act in two ways hastening the pace of

glacier melt: by decreasing surface reflectance of sunlight
and by raising air temperature, the researchers point out.
• “Specifically, in the Himalayas, reducing black carbon
emissions from cookstoves, diesel engines, and open
burning would have the greatest impact and could
significantly reduce radiative forcing and help to maintain
a greater portion of Himalayan glacier systems

• Industry [primarily brick kilns] and residential burning of

solid fuel together account for 45–66% of regional
anthropogenic [man-made] BC deposition, followed by on-
road diesel fuels (7–18%) and open burning (less than 3%
in all seasons)” in the region.
Q.96) Consider the following statements about “Ways and Means Advances” (WMA):

1. This facility to borrow from RBI applies to both Centre and State governments.
2. WMA can be obtained at the same interest rate as that of the repo rate.
3. The governments can draw amounts above their WMA limits for higher interest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION

Ways and Means Advances is a facility for both the Centre and states to borrow from the
RBI. These borrowings are meant purely to help them to tide over temporary
mismatches in cash flows of their receipts and expenditures. So, statement 1 is
correct.

The interest rate on WMA is the RBI’s repo rate, which is basically the rate at which it
lends short-term money to banks. So, statement 2 is correct.

The limits for WMA are decided by the government and RBI mutually and revised
periodically. The governments are, however, allowed to draw amounts in excess of
their WMA limits. The interest on such overdraft is 2 percentage points above the repo
rate. So, statement 3 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Types of Ways 1. There are two types of Ways and Means Advances —
and Means normal and special.
Advances 2. Special WMA or Special Drawing Facility is provided
against the collateral of the government securities held by
the state. After the state has exhausted the limit of SDF, it
gets normal WMA.

Recent news 1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in April

2020 announced a 60% increase in the Ways and Means
Advances (WMA) limit of state governments over and above
the level as on March 31, with a view to enabling them “to
undertake COVID-19 containment and mitigation efforts”
and “to better plan their market borrowings
Q.97) Consider the following statements about Socially and Educationally Backward Classes
(SEBC):

1. As per the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, only the President of India can
publish the list of SEBCs in each State in consultation with Governors of respective
States.
2. Only the Parliament can make inclusions/exclusions in the SEBC list and the States do
not have any such power.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

By the introduction of Articles 366 (26C) and 342A through the 102nd Constitution of
India, the President alone, to the exclusion of all other authorities, is empowered to
identify SEBCs and include them in a list to be published under Article 342A (1), which
shall be deemed to include SEBCs in relation to each state and union territory for the
purposes of the Constitution, ” the SC Court recently held

So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently ruled that after the insertion of Article 342A in the
Constitution, it is the Central government alone(Parliament) which is empowered to
identify Socially and Economically Backward Class (SEBC) and include them in a list to
be published under Article 342A (1), specifying SEBCs in relation to each State and
Union Territory (Dr. Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil v. Chief Minister).

The States can, through their existing mechanisms, or even statutory commissions, only
make suggestions to the President or the Commission under Article 338B, for inclusion,
exclusion or modification of castes or communities, in the list to be published under
Article 342A (1), the Court ruled.

Except identification of SEBCs. the States’ power to make reservations, in favour of

particular communities or castes, the quantum of reservations, the nature of benefits and
the kind of reservations, and all other matters falling within the ambit of Articles 15 and
16 will however remain undisturbed, the Court clarified

So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

IN NEWS

SC judgement- Value addition

highlights

• This crucial ruling came as part of the judgment of the top

court striking down the Maharashtra State Reservation for
Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) Act,
2018 which extended reservation to the Maratha
community in public education and employment.

• Article 342A was inserted into the Constitution by way of

102nd Constitutional Amendment Act. It reads as follows:

“(1) The President may with respect to any State or Union

territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the
Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the socially and
educationally backward classes which shall for the purposes of
this Constitution be deemed to be socially and educationally
backward classes in relation to that State or Union territory, as
the case may be.

(2) Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the Central

List of socially and educationally backward classes specified in a
notification issued under clause (1) any socially and educationally
backward class, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under
the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent
notification.”
• One of the main arguments on which the Maratha SEBC
Act was challenged was that after the Constitution (102nd
Amendment) Act which came into force with effect from
August 2018, the State legislature was denuded of its
power to declare a particular class to be socially and
educationally backward.

• The high Court earlier ruled that the restriction under

Article 342A is applicable only to the list prepared by the
Central government.

• "The existence of central list of backward classes is

distinct from the list of the State which is prepared by the
State for translating the enabling power conferred on it
and in any contingency, Article 342-A cannot be read to
control the enabling power conferred on the State under
Article 15 and 16,” the High Court had said.
Q.98) Which of the following features on The Code on Wages, 2019 is not correct?

(a) It provides the entitlement of minimum wages to all the workers in the country
(b) Wages are fixed based on the types of skill and geography and not employment wise
(c) It provides for the revision of minimum wages every 5 years
(d) It fails to provide a statutory basis for ‘floor wage’

EXPLANATION
The Code on Wages Bill, 2019 prohibits employers from paying wages less than the
minimum wages. Minimum wages will be notified by the central or state
governments. This will be based on time, or the number of pieces produced. The
minimum wages will be revised and reviewed by the central or state governments at an
interval of not more than five years. Thus it provides the entitlement of minimum
wages to all the workers in the country whether in organized or unorganised sector and
revision of minimum wages every 5 years. So, options (a) and (c) are correct.
As per the code on Wages Bill 2019, the minimum wages across the country would
be only linked to factors of skills and geographical regions, while the rest of the
factors such as skilled, unskilled, semi-skilled, high skilled, geographical regions have
been removed. So, option (b) is correct.

1. According to the Code, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into
account the living standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor
wages for different geographical areas.
 2. The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be
higher than the floor wage. In case the existing minimum wages fixed by the
central or state governments are higher than the floor wage, they cannot reduce
the minimum wages. Thus it provides the statutory basis for ‘floor wage’. So,
option (d) is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

The Code on 1. The Code replaces the following four laws:

Wages, 2019
(i) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936,
(ii) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948,
(iii) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and
(iv) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.

Provisions 1. Coverage: The Code will apply to all employees. The central
government will make wage-related decisions for
employments such as railways, mines, and oil fields, among
others. State governments will make decisions for all other
employments.

2. Overtime: The central or state government may fix the

number of hours that constitute a normal working day. In
case employees work in excess of a normal working day,
they will be entitled to overtime wage, which must be at
least twice the normal rate of wages.

3. Deductions: Under the Code, an employee’s wages may be

deducted on certain grounds including (i) fines, (ii) absence
from duty, (iii) accommodation given by the employer, or (iv)
recovery of advances given to the employee, among
others. These deductions should not exceed 50% of the
employee’s total wage.
Determination of bonus: All employees whose wages do
not exceed a specific monthly amount, notified by the
central or state government, will be entitled to an annual
bonus. The bonus will be at least: (i) 8.33% of his wages, or
(ii) Rs 100, whichever is higher. In addition, the employer
will distribute a part of the gross profits amongst the
employees. This will be distributed in proportion to the
annual wages of an employee. An employee can receive a
maximum bonus of 20% of his annual wages.
4. Gender discrimination: The Code prohibits gender
discrimination in matters related to wages and recruitment
of employees for the same work or work of similar
nature. Work of similar nature is defined as work for which
the skill, effort, experience, and responsibility required are
the same.

5. Advisory boards: The central and state governments will

constitute advisory boards

6. Offences: The Code specifies penalties for offences

committed by an employer, such as (i) paying less than the
due wages, or (ii) for contravening any provision of the
Code.
Q.99) Which one of the following recognised the inherent right of Indians to frame their
constitution for the first time?

(a) Gandhi–Irwin Pact

(b) Government of India act of 1935
(c) August Offer of 1940
(d) Cripps Mission

EXPLANATION

August Offer of 1940 recognised the inherent right of Indians to frame their constitution
for the first time. It had the following provisions

(a) Proposed dominion status as the objective for India.

(b) Expansion of viceroys executive council which would have a majority of Indians
(c) Setting up a constituent assembly after the war where mainly Indians should decide
the Constitution according to the social, economic and political conceptions, subject
to the fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority
rights, all India services.
(d) No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities

So, option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Gandhi– On January 1931 Gandhi and all other members of the Congress working
Irwin Pact committee were released unconditionally from jail. The Congress working
committee authorised Gandhi to initiate a discussion with the Viceroy as a
result of these discussions a pact was signed between the Viceroy and
Gandhi called as Gandhi Irwin pact which includes

(a) immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence

(b) remission of all fines not yet collected
(c) return of all lands not yet sold to 3rd parties
(d) lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned
(e) right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption
 (f) right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing
(g) withdrawal of emergency ordinances

Cripps The proposals of Crips missions(1942) are

Mission
(a) An Indian union with dominion status would be set up, it would be
free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to
participate in the United Nations and other international bodies
(b) After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened
to frame the new Constitution. Members of this assembly will be
partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional
representation and partly nominated by the princes.
(c) The British government would accept a new constitution subject to
two conditions, any province not willing to join the union could have
a separate constitution and form a separate union; a new
constitution-making body and the British government would
negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard
racial and religious minorities
(d) In the meantime, the defence of India would remain in British hands
and Governor General’s power would remain intact

Government Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935 were as follows:
of India act
(a) It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting
of 1935
of provinces and princely states as units. The Act divided the powers
between the Centre and units in terms of three lists—Federal List,
Provincial List and the Concurrent List. Residuary powers were given
to the Viceroy.
(b) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial
autonomy’ in its place.
(c) It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.
(d) It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. It further
extended the principle of communal representation by providing
separate electorates for depressed classes
(e) The act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.
(f) The Act also provided for the establishment of federal, provincial and
joint Public Service Commissions.
Q.100) Chotanagpur plateau is drained by which of the following river(s)?

1. Mahanadi
2. Indravati
3. Damodar
4. Gandak

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

The Chota Nagpur plateau expands over an area of approximately 65,000 square
kilometres and to its south lies the basin of the Mahanadi River. The Damodar River
flows on the Chota Nagpur plateau dividing it into two plateaus - the
Hazaribagh plateau and the Ranchi plateau.

So, option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Rivers

Value addition

Mahanadi The Mahanadi rises in a pool, 6 km from Pharsiya village near Nagri
Town in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh state at an elevation of 457
m. The total length of the river form origin to its outfall into Bay of
Bengal is 851 km of which 357 km lies in Chhattisgarh and 494 km
in Orissa. It is also known for the Hirakud Dam

Indravati The Indravati river is the principal subsidiary of the Godavari river
and the largest river in Bastar district. Its origin is in the Kalahandi
plateau of Orissa. After completing a distance of about 370km in
Bastar, and flowing from east to west, it joins the Godavari river.

Damodar Damodar River, river in northeastern India, rising with its many
tributaries, notably the Bokaro and Konar, in the Chota Nagpur
plateau of south-central Bihar state. It follows a generally eastward
 course for 368 miles (592 km) through West Bengal to join the
Hugli (Hooghly) River southwest of Kolkata (Calcutta).

Gandak The Gandaki River, also known as the Narayani and the Gandak, is
one of the major rivers in Nepal and a left bank tributary of the
Ganges in India. Its total catchment area amounts to 46,300 km²,
most of it in Nepal. In the Nepal Himalayas, it is notable for its deep
canyon
86TH Amendment act 2002, added a new article to the Fundamental rights of the Indian
constitution. It says the “the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all
children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law,
determine". Thus, it is the Constitutional obligation of the Government of India. So,
statement 2 is correct.

Issuing free Foodgrains under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana and providing
vaccine against Covid for the people aged between 18 and 45 may fulfil the Directive
principle of state policy –ARTICLE 47- Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and
the standard of living and to improve public health. As DPSP are not justiciable, it does
not place a Constitutional obligation on the state. So, states cannot be questioned in
non-fulfilment of this. So, statement 3 and 4 are not correct.