BSc Physio III RE-Exam - 2015
MCQ’s
1. The following drugs are classified as cell wall synthesis inhibitors: (1)
1. Penicillin V
2. Ceftriaxone
3. Ciprofloxacin
4. Tetracycline
5. Chloramphenicol
#A = 1,2 B = 1,3 C = 2,3 D = 4,5 E = 1,4
2. Penicillin G is: (1)
1. A narrow spectrum penicillin
2. An inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis
3. Excreted by glomerular filtration
4. Inactivated by β-lactamases
5. Not used in children
A = 1,2,3 #B = 1,3,4 C = 3,4,5 D = 1,2,5 E = 2,3,5
3. The following drugs are recommended first-line drugs for tuberculosis: (1)
1. isoniazid
2. rifampicin
3. kanamycin
4. ethambutol
5 pyrazinamide
A = 1, 2, 5 B = 2, 4,5 C = 3, 4, 5 #D = 1, 4, 5 E =1, 3, 5
4. The following statements are true about the drugs that are used for the treatment of
tuberculosis: (1)
1. Isoniazid is used in combination as a first line drug
2. Pyrazinamide increases plasma uric acid levels
3. Rifampicin is used in multiple-drug resistant tuberculosis
4. Ofloxacin is recommended for all newly diagnosed cases
5. Ethambutol is contraindicated in children
#A = 1,2,5 B = 3,4,5 C = 1,3,5 D = 2,3,5 E = 2,3,4
5. The following antifungal drugs may be used to treat the cutaneous mycoses infections: (1)
1. Clotrimazole
2. Econazole
3. Fluconazole
4. Itraconazole
5. Miconazole
A = 1, 2, 3 B = 3, 4,5 C = 2, 3, 4 D = 1, 3, 5 #E =1, 2, 5
6. This drug inhibits metabolism of mebendazole. (1)
1. Metronidazole
2. Praziquantel
3. Niclosamide
4. Cimetidine
5. Thiabendazole
A=1 B=2 C=3 #D = 4 E=5
7. Artemether-Lumefantrine causes free radical damage to heme and protein when treating: (1)
1. Trypanosomiasis
2. Leishmaniasis
3. Amebiasis
4. Malaria
5. Toxoplamosis
A=1 B=2 C=3 #D = 4 E=5
8. The following drugs are viral protease inhibitors: (1)
1. Abacavir
2. Zidovudine
3. Lopinavir
4. Efavirenz
5. Ritonavir
A = 1,3 B = 2,3 C = 4,5 #D = 3,5 E = 1,5
9. The following drugs can be used to treat Morphine overdose. (1)
1. Naloxone
2. Naltrexane
3. Citric acid
4. N-Acetylcysteine
5. Charcoal
A = 1,3,5 B = 2,4,5 C = 3,5 #D = 1,2,5 E = 1,2
10. Naloxone will be effective in reversing the toxic effects of the following drugs: (1)
1. Aspirin
2. Pethidine
3. Indomethacin
4. Fentanyl
5. Morphine
A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3,4 C = 1,3 D = 4,5 #E = 2,4,5
11. Propofol: (1)
1. Decrease the blood pressure
2. Decrease intracranial pressure
3. Increase blood pressure
4. Increase intracranial pressure
5. Can cause post op headaches
A = 1,3,5 B = 2,4,5 C = 3,5 #D = 1,2,5 E = 1,2
12. The following is a general anaesthetic used via the inhalation route. (1)
1. Midazolam
2. Thiopental
3. Halothane
4. Propofol
5. Alfentanil
A=1 B=2 #C = 3 D=4 E=5
13. The following is correct for Ketamine: (1)
1. It is a dissociate anaesthetic
2. It is the only anaesthetic which can be given via IM route as anaesthetic.
3. It causes respiratory suppression
4. Induces hallucinations
5. Increase blood pressure
A = 1,2 B = 2,4,5 C = 3,4 #D = 1,2,4,5 E = All of the of above
14. Drugs used in the treatment of bleeding include (1)
1. Aminocaproic acid
2. Tranexamic acid
3. Protamine sulfate
4. Vitamin K (phytonadione)
5. Aprotinin
A = 1,2,3 B = 1,2,3,4 C = 1,2,4 D = 1,2,3,5 #E = all of the above
15. In which of the following conditions are β-adrenergic blockers use therapeutically: (1)
1. Myocardial infarction
2. Supraventricular tachycardia
3. Hypertension
4. Nasal decongestion
5. Migraine prophylaxis
A = 1,2,3 B = 1,2,3,4 C = 1,2,4 #D = 1,2,3,5 E = all of the above
16. Which of the following side effects are associated with nitroglycerin? (1)
1. Hypertension
2. Throbbing headache
3. Bradycardia
4. Sexual dysfunction
5. Hypotension
A = 1,2 B = 2,3 C = 4,5 #D = 2,5 E = 3,5
17. Aspirin: (1)
1. Is a thrombolytic agent
2. Is an anticoagulant
3. Antagonises the formation of Vitamin K
4. Is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
5. Is an antibiotic
A=1 B=2 C=3 #D = 4 E=5
18. The first line treatment of hyperlipidaemia is (1)
1. Fibrates
2. Niacin
3. Statins (HMG COA reductase inhibitors)
4. Bile acid sequestrates
5. Omega 3 fatty acids
A=1 B=2 #C = 3 D=4 E=5
19. The following is/are advantages of the sublingual route of administering a drug. (1)
1. the drug is rapidly absorbed
2. it is a convenient route of administering a drug
3. a high incidence of infection is evident with this route
4. this route avoids the drug to be exposed to the harsh GI environment
5. the drug is exposed to first-pass metabolism
A=1,2,5 B= 2,3,4 C= 3,4,5 #D=1,2,4 E= 2,4,5
20. Regarding the diffusion of a drug, (1)
1. the concentration gradient across a membrane separating two compartments is the driving
force for the passive absorption of a drug
2. during passive diffusion the drug moves from a region of low concentration to a region of
high concentration
3. most drugs gain access to the body by means of passive diffusion
4. waters-soluble drugs enter the cell by moving across the membrane as soluble drugs are
soluble in the cell membrane
5. lipid soluble drugs enter the cell through aqueous channels
#A=1,3 B=2,3 C=3,4 D=4,5 E=1,4
21. The following are adverse effects of estrogen treatment: (1)
1. Vomiting
2. Edema
3. Headache
4. Hypotension
5. Breast tenderness
A = 1,2,4 #B = 1,2,3,5 C = 2,3,4,5 D = 1,2,3,4 E = 1,2,3,4,5
22. The following are adverse effects of androgens: (1)
1. Female – growth of facial hair
2. Female – decrease in muscle development
3. Female – deepening of voice
4. Male - impotence
5. Male – increases spermatogenesis
#A = 1,3,4 B = 1,4,5 C = 1,3 D = 2,3,5 E = 1,2
23. The following are true regarding glucocorticoids: (1)
1. Stimulate protein catabolism
2. Raise glucose levels in the plasma
3. Combat stress
4. Increase inflammatory response
5. Resist infection
A=1 B = 1,2 C = 1,2,3 D = 1,2,3,4 #E = 1,2,3,5
24. The following are true regarding the combination pill as a contraceptive: (1)
1. Estrogen is a component of the combination pill
2. Progestin is a component of the combination pill
3. Estrogen stimulates the ovulation
4. Progestin has no effect on the endometrium
5. The combination pill is the most common type of oral contraception
#A = 1,2,5 B = 2,3,4 C = 3,4,5 D = 1,2,4 E = 2,4,5
25. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of short-acting β2 agonist (1)
1. Rapid onset of action, 15-30 minutes
2. Duration of action is 4-6 hours
3. Used as rescue agents
4. Has anti-inflammatory effects
5. Monotherapy for intermittent or exercise-induced bronchospasm
A=1 B=2 C=3 #D=4 E=5
26. Which of the following is/are possible drug combination(s) in the treatment of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (1)
1. Albuterol + Ipratropium
2. Salmeterol + Tiotropium
3. Aspirin + Salbutamol
4. Inhaled corticosteroid + Salmeterol
5. All of the above
A=1, 2, 3, 4 #B=1, 2, 4 C=5 D=1 E=1, 2, 3
27. Which of the following is not a characteristic of first generation H1 antihistamines (1)
1. Older
2. Inexpensive
3. Do not cross blood brain barrier
4. Interact with a variety of other receptors (low specificity)
5. All of the above
A=1 B=2 #C=3 D=4 E=5
28. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of allergic rhinitis is administered
intranasal at least 1 to 2 weeks prior to allergen exposure (1)
1. Cromolyn
2. Phenylephrine
3. Oxymetazoline
4. Loratidine
5. None of the above
#A=1 B=2 C=3 D=4 E=5
29. Benzodiazepines are not used for? (1)
1. Anxiety disorders
2. Muscular disorders
3. Amnesia
4. Myasthenia gravis
5. Sleep disorders
A=1 B=2 C=3 #D=4 E=5
30. The following are side effects most commonly associated with 2 nd generation of
antipsychoticsdrugs: (1)
1. Agranulocytosis
2. Tardive dyskinesia
3. Antipsychotic malignant syndrome
4. Metabolic disturbances
5. Erectile dysfunction
A= 1, 2, 3 #B=2,3,5 C=1,3,5 D=3,5 E=2,4
31. Parkinson’s disease (1)
1. It’s a disease characterized by a deficit in dopamine
2. Carbidopa prevents the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
3. Benztropine causes dry mouth
4. Selegine is associated with Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
5. Entacapone is an inhibitor of catechol-o-methyl transferase.
#A=1, 2,3, 5 B=3,4 C=2,3 D=1,3,4 E=2,4,5
32. Which of the following drugs causes sedation as a side effects: (1)
1. Chlorpromazine
2. Olanzapine
3. Quetiapine
4. Clozapine
5. Selegiline
A=1,2,3,5 B=1,2,4,5 #C=1,2,3,4 D=1,3,5 E=All of the above
33. Which of the following is the correct therapy for Parkinsons disease? (1)
1. Ropinirole, Carbidopa, Entacapone
2. Levodopa, entacapone, selegiline
3. Levodopa, carbidopa, entacapone
4. Carbidopa, selegiline,, Levodopa
5. Pramepexole, carbidopa, entacapone
A=1 B=2 #C=3 D=4 E=5
MATCH
Match each of the following antimicrobial drugs with its most appropriate pharmacological class
from the list below. Each class may be used once only. (5)
A. Cefuroxime
B. Amikacin
C. Trimethoprim
D. Erythromycin
E. Doxycycline
34. B-lactams A
35. Macrolides D
36. Antifolates C
37. Aminoglycosides B
38. Tetracycline E
Match the following drug with its group below. (5)
A. Indapamide
B. Metoprolol
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Flecainide
E. Verapamil
Sodium channel blocker D
Organic nitrate C
Sulfonamide diuretic A
Calcium channel blocker E
β-blocker B
Match the following with the statements below: (5)
A. polar drugs
B. IV
C. against concentration gradient
D. non-polar drugs
E. Albumin
1. Drugs moving across the cell membrane D
2. Drugs moving through channels A
3. Bacteria can be introduced at site of drug administration B
4. Active drug transport C
5. Render drug pharmacological inactive E
Match the following terms/words with the sentences below. (5)
A. Antidepressants
B. Schedule 5 medicines
C. The strength of the dosage form and the quantity of the medicine to be supplied
D. Pregnancy and breastfeeding
E. Therapeutic device
1. An instrument, appliance, material, apparatus, implants or diagnostic reagents used in
diagnoses, treatment, modification or prevention of disease or symptoms thereof. E
2. One of the things that must be stated on an order or prescription by an authorised person. C
3. An example of schedule 5 medicines. A
4. When these medicines are used for their analgesic properties, they should not be prescribed
for longer than six months unless the authorised prescriber has consulted another medical
practitioner before issuing a new prescription. B
5. One of the things that must be considered when writing a prescription. D
Match the following terms/words with the sentences below. (5)
A. Dicyclomine
B. Sucralfate
C. Cinnarazine
D. Castor oil
E. Gynecomastia
1. A gut irritant that is used in the treatment of constipation. D
2. An H1 receptor antagonist that is effective for motion sickness and irritants in the stomach.
C
3. An antimuscuranic drug that is used as adjunct therapy for the treatment of peptic ulcers
and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. A
4. A mucosal protective agent that forms a complex with aluminium hydroxide and binds to
positively charged proteins of normal and necrotic mucosa creating a physical barrier therefore
impairs the diffusion of HCl and prevents degradation of mucosa by pepsin and acid. B
5. An endocrine adverse effect caused by cimetidine. E
Match the following statements with the drugs below. (5)
Decrease fatigue and increases mental awareness. D
It is used to treat depression and obsessive compulsive disorder. C
It is used to treat intractable hiccups. E
Assists people to stop smoking. B
Treats insomnia. A
A. Zolpidem
B. Bupropion
C. Citalopram
D. Caffeine
E. Chlorpromazine
SHORT Q’s
1. Most of the antihelminthics drugs act by ______________ the______________________
formation, or by causing ____________________ of the parasite. (3)
Inhibiting, Microtubule, Muscle paralysis
2. The ____________________ is the mode of_____________ for leishamniasis disease caused by
the genus leishmania organism. (2)
female sand fly , transmission
3. For an HIV positive pregnant woman that has a history of psychiatric illness or active psychiatric
illness, __________________ is contra-indicated. (1)
Efavirenz
4. The initial short-course chemotherapy includes isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol and pyrazinamide
for ____________ and then _____________ and ______________for the next 4 months.(3)
2 months , isoniazid and rifampin
5. Give 2 strategies of addressing TB drug resistance (2)
Streptomycin, a multidrug therapy is employed to delay or prevent the emergence of
resistant strains.
Always a minimum of two drugs regimen.
6. What is the common cause of death with opioid overdose? (1)
Respiratory depression and collapse.
7. Which drug will bind the toxic metabolites produced in the liver after a Paracetamol overdose?(1)
n-Acetylcysteine
8. Name two anaestetic drugs that do NOT cause respiratory depression. (2)
Ketamine, Sevoflurane, Etomidate,
9. Why can warfarin not be used in pregnancy and give an alternative drug. (2)
Strictly C/I in pregnancy (1st, 3rd trim), – Teratogenic and can cause abortions and birth defects.
Rather use heparin.
10. Explain the difference between an embolus and a thrombus (2)
Thrombus – clot that adheres to a vessel wall
Embolus – clot that floats in the blood
11. Name the advantages of administering a drug orally. (3)
self-administered
limit systemic infection
toxicity can be overcome
12. Explain the function of thyrotropin. (2)
Stimulate growth of thyroid cells
13. Write the names of one gonadotropins. (2)
LH and FSH
14. Describe the major action of corticotropin. (2)
Stimulate growth of cells of the adrenal cortex
15. Describe the role of prolactin in males. (2)
Influence the production of testosterone
Give 2 symptoms of anxiety. (2)
Tachycardia
Sweating
Trembling
Palpitations
Give 5 Benzodiazepines that you know of. (5)
• Alprazolam
• Clonazepam
• Diazepam
• Lorazepam
• Oxazepam
• Midazolam
• Triazolam
• Chlordiazepoxide
• Estazolam
• Flurazepam
• Quazepam
• Temazepam
