Roll

No.:UOOOOI
Test Date: 24-11-2024;
Aakash
MedicaliT-JEE\ Foundations
E
Bookiet Code

Rajasthan

Aakash

ALL
IAT
INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES

Medical Entrance Exam 2025

National Eiigibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)

TEST No 2

(XIl Passed Students)

INSTRUCTIONS FORCANDIDATES
1. Read each question carefuly.
8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
It is
mandatory to use Blue/BIack Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
2.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
3 Mark should be dark and should completely fill the Circle. should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
4 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet marked correctly.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer 10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
or any other material
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators
There are twO sections in each subject i.e., Section-A Section-B.
&

hal. 11.
in the examination
You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that 10 questions out of 15 from Section-8.
the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
 Test No. 2

TOPICs OF THE TEST

Physics Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power

Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and

Molecular Structure

Bötany Biological Classification, Morphology of Flowering Plants

Zoology Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation

 Test-2 (Code-E) All Indla Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

MM: 720
TEST -2 Time:3 Hrs. 20 Min.

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 4. Consider the following statements and choose the
1. Statemnent A: If the net external force on a body is incorrect option.
zero, then its acceleration is non-zero. (1) For a body of fixed mass m, Fnet = 0 implies
a
Statemnent B: Acceleration will be non-zero only if =0.
(2) The Newton's second law of motion is a vector
there is a net external force on the body.
law.
(1) Statement A is true but statement B is false
(3) The acceleration of a particle depends on
(2) Statement A is false but statement B is true history of motion of particle.
(3) Both statements A and B are true (4) If a force is not parallel to the velocity of the
body, but makes some angle with it, it changes
(4) Both statements A and B are false
only the component of velocity along the force
2. Assertion (A): For agiven mass, greater the speed, and component of velocity normal to force
the greater is the opposing force needed to stop the remains unchanged.
body in a certain time. 5.
A
body is acted upon by three co-planar forces of
10 N each as shown. If its initial velocity is 5 m/s in
Reason (R): The greater the change in, the the direction shown in figure, the displacement in
momentum in a given time, the greater is the force first 5 s is (Assume surface to be smooth).
that needs to be applied. 10 N
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
120+120° 5 m/s
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true 10 N 10 N
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false m (2) 5 m
(1)4
3. When a body is falling freely from some height, work (3) 20 m (4) 25 m
done by gravity is 6. A body of mass m falls from a height h (where h is
(1) Negative
measured from ground level). The average force
experienced by it before it strikes the ground is
(2) Positive
(1) Zero (2) mg
(3) Zero mg
(3) (4) 2mg
(4) May be positive or negative 2
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 NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-E)
AllIndia Aakash Test Series for

vectors
=i+2j+ 3k and
7 Consider
the (4) E,
on B is (3) Ex
B=i+j+k. The projection of
(1) 2/2 (2) 3 1/P 1/P
(4) 2V3 11. Consider the following diagram where a
force of
(3) 2
a which 30 N
acts on a 2 kg block. The contact force
A particle of mass M is subjected to force
8 between 2 kg block and 3 kg block will be
varies with the distance as shown.
FIN) 30
N2 kal 3 Kg

Smooth
200
(1) 20 N (2) 30 N
50
(3) 18 N (4) 16 N
x(m)
15 20 12. A particle is subjected to a force of 10 N and the
displacement of the particle in the direction of force
The work done by the force during the entire process varies as x = 5t- 12, where x is in metre and t is in
will be
seconds. The value of instantaneous power at
(1) 1.725 kJ (2) 4 kJ t=2 s will be
(3) 3.625 kJ (4) 4.125 kJ (1) 20 W
9
A
ball is dropped from the tower of height 20 m. If
after 3rd rebound from [Link] its velocity is
.hiations
(2) 50 W
observed to be 20 m/s, then value of coefficient of (3) 10 W
restitution for the collision between ground and ball
is
13. A chain of mass 10 kg and length 2 m is hung
(1) (2) vertically. from the ceiling as shown in figure. The
3 3
tension in the chain at 0.5 m distance from ceiling is
(3) 1
(4) Zero
10. If Ex represents the kinetic energy of a body and P.
is its linear momentum, then the correct graph
1
Kedico 2m
between JE and

(1) 25 N
(2) 100N
(3) 150N
1/P 1/P
(4) 75 N
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 Test-2 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

14. Consider the following statements (3) An elevator moving with constant velocity is an
Statement-A: If a body is acted upon by a single example of inertial frame.
external force, it cannot be in equilibrium. (4) Newton's laws of motion are valid inertial
Statement-B: If a body is in equilibrium under the frame of reference.
action of only two external forces, the forces must 19. Consider a block of mass 6 kg placed on a
be equal and opposite. horizontal table. If the coefficient of static friction
Statement-C: If a body in equilibrium under the between the block and table is 0.4 and a horizontal
action of three forces, then they may not be force F is applied on the block as shown. The
Coplanar. minimum value of F to just move the block will be
Choose the correct option. 6kg

(1) Only statement A is correct

Fe
7777T
Fe

(2) All A, B and C are correct H=0.4

(3) Both A and C are correct (1) 12 N (2) 20 N
(4) Both A and B are correct (3) 24 N (4) 18 N
20. Choose the correct relation among the following for
15. Ifa force F =(2i +3j) N acts on a body for 10 s and
vectors A, B and C.
m.
displacement of the body is given by d=2k
Work done by this force on the body is
(1)
-B-B.
(1) 4 J (2)
(2) -(B+)=-B+-
6J
(3),
(3) 10 J (4) Zero -Á=A
16. For a simple pendulum of length m and mass of (4) Both (1) and (2)
bob 2 kg has maximum angular displacement of 21. A body is released from position P as shown in
figure. The speed of body at position Q will be
rad, then its maximum kinetic energy is [Assume surface to be smooth]
(1) 2J (2) 5 J X-JEE
(3) 10 J (4) 25 J
17. The Sl unit of power is 100 m
(1) joule
(3) watt
(2) newton
(4) erg
ical 20 m
18. Choose the incorrect statement concerning inertial (1) 1042 m/s
frame of reference.
(1) An inertial frame of reference is an accelerated (2) 2/10 m/s
frame. (3) 40 m/s
(2) An inertial frame of reference is an
(4) 20 m/s
unaccelerated frame.
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 Test-2 (Code-E)
All India Aakash Test Series
for NEET-2025

m 26. Consider the following statements.

22. A sharp stone of mass kg is dropped from 10 Statement : Coefficient
A
of

friction between any

a
high building. If after entering the ground to depth two bodies in contact depends on the nature
of 2 m the stone comes to rest, then the average
of

material of the surfaces in contact.

resistance force offered by ground to the stone is Statement B: Kinetic friction is a
self-adjusting
(1) 20 N (2) 30 N force.
(3) 50 N (4) 60 N Based upon above information, pick the correct
23. Potential energy associated with a force given as option.
U= (-5x) J (where x is in meter). The magnitude (1)Statement A is true but B is false
of force at x = 1 m will be (2) StatementA is false but B is true
(3) Both the statements are true
(1) 1 N (2) 7 N
(4) Both the statements are false
(3) 4 N (4) 3 N
27. Consider a head on perfectly elastic colision of two
24. Ifthe magnitude of two vectors are 7 units and 5 identical bodies of mass 2 kg as shown in figure. If
units and their scalar product is zero, then the angle initially A is moving with 10 m/s and B is at rest, then
between the two vectors is after the collision speed of A and B will be
(1) Zero A B
(2) 90° 2 kg >10 m/s 2
kg
(3) 45°
(4) 60°
(1) VA= 2 m/s, Ve8 m/s
25. Column-A contains various units and column-B VA=5 m/s, Ve5 m/s
(2)
contain different values in other units. Match (3) V= 10 m/s, Va = Zero
column-A and column-B and choose 'the correct (4) VA = Zero, Va = 10 m/s
options that follows. 28. A block of mass 10 kg is placed inside an elevator
Column-A Column-B which is accelerating downwards with 2 mis², then
the apparent weight of block inside the elevator is
a. 1
joule (p) 1.6 x 10-19 joule A1) 100 N (2) 20 N
b. 1 eV (q) 3.6 x(10 joule (3) 10 N (4) 80 N
29. Choose the correct statement with regards to
C. 1
kWh () 10 ergs Medical) Newton's third law of motion.
d. 1 HP (s) 746 watt (1) To every action, there may not be an equal and
opposite reaction.
(1) a (p), b (r), c (q), d (s) (2) Action and reaction forces have a cause-effect
(2) a (s), b (p), c- (9), d- (r) relationship.
(3) a (), b- (q), C (s), d (p) (3) Action-reaction forces have time lag between
them.
(4) a (), b (p), C (g), d (s) (4) Action and reaction act on different bodies.

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Test-2 (Codo-E) AII
ndlo Aakash Tost 8orlos for NEET 2020 133

30. Which among tho following options roprOsont 33. A forco F Is nppllod on a block of nass m which is
impulse? inltially nt rost on a rough horlzontal urfnco,
(1) Mass × accoleralion accolorotilon of tho tblock with rospoct to the appliod
forco Is as shown irn grapth, thon tho valuo of m is
(2) Force x time
(3) Rate of change of lincar momentum (mv's')

(4) Rate of change in potential cnergy

31. Consider a car and a bus of mass M

and M)
Acceleration

respectively. If they are moving with same velocity,

then the ratio of their stopping dislanco under tho
influence of same retarding forco will be
M

(1) (2) 1
1
23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

M, Applied force F(N)

M; M, (1) m= 2 kg
(3) (4) (2) m = 3 kg
M 2M,
(3) m=5 kg
32. A block of mass M is resting on a smooth horizontal
surface. It is connected to a rigid wall by a massless
(4) m=1 kg
spring of stiffness K. The spring is in its natural 34. Ifa block moving in gravity-free space region breaks
length. into two parts, thon
(1) The total linear momentum of system must
remain conserved.
(2) The total kinetic energy of system must be
K M
conserved.
(3) The total linear momentum of system must
change.
a constant horizontal force starts acting on the
If
(4) The linear momentum of individual parts must
block towards right, then the extension in spring remain conserved.
when block is in equilibrium position will be
35. A bend in a level road has a radius of 5 m. The
(1)
F maximum speed with which a car can turn along the
K bend without skidding is (Assume the coefficient of
2F friction to be 0.5)
(2) (1) 2 m/s
K
(3) Zero (2) 5 m/s

F (3) 10m/s
(4) (4) 8 m/s
2K

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 Test-2 (Code-E)
All Indla Aakash Test Sorles for NEET-2025

Energy

SECTION-B Energy

as (2)
36. A force (F) acting on a body varies with time () (1)
shown in the graph.
If the body is initially at rest, then the velocity Height Height
acquired by the body at the end of four seconds
will
Energy
Energy

be
(3) (4)
F(N)
E
20 Height Height
40. Consider the following statements.
> (s)
Statement A : Power of machine gun is determined
by both, the number of bullet fired per second and
-20 kinetic energy of bullets.

(1) 5 m/s (2) 6 m/s Statement B: Power of any machine is defined as

work done by it per unit time.
(3) Zero (4) 2 mls
37. Particle of mass m moves with constant speed v on Based upon above information pick the correct
a circular path of radius r as shown. option.
(1) Statement (A) is true but (B) is false
(2) Statement (A) is false but (B) is true
B
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Both statements are false
A 41. Assertion (A) : The scalar product of two vectors
The magnitude of change in linear momentum of the can be interpreted as the product of magnitude of
particle during its motion from A to B is the one vector and component of the other vector
(1) V2mv (2) Zero along the first vector.
mv (4) V3my Reason (R): Scalar product obeys the commutative
(3)
and distributive laws.
38. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly inelastic In the light of the above statements, choose the
collision is
(1) 1 (2) 0
'3edica correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) 0.5 (4) -1 explanation of A
39: A particle is dropped from the top of a tower of (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
certain height. IfE denotes the kinetic energy, U
denotes the potential energy, then the curve which explanation of A
shows most appropriate variation of U and E with (3) A is true butR is false
height will be (4) A is false but R is true

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 Test-2 (Code-E) AlIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

42. TwO given masses 2 kg and 4 kg collide elastically 46. A body of mass 4 kg is moving under the influence
(as shown figure). The loss in kinetic energy of a force, due to which the variation of displacement
during this collision is

(2 ka
10 m/s
kg) Rest
(x) of particle with time () is given by x
=.
2
The

work done by the force time interval t 2s to

A B t= 4s will be
(1) 64% (2) 36% (1) 24 J (2) 48 J
(3) 12% (4) Zero (3) 12 J (4) 36 J
43. A ball of mass 5 kg is projected at angle 30° with
47. An astronaut accidently gets separated out of a
the vertical as shown 'in figure. The angle at
which ball will go with respect to vertical small spaceship accelerating in interstellar space at
after a constant rate of 110 m/s². The acceleration of
collision will be astronaut at the instant after she is outside the
spaceship is
5 kg 5 kg (1) a= 10 m/s2

(2) a = 110 m/s2

a
5 m/s (3) =Zero
30°
(4) 5
als?
3
48. A particle attached to a string of length R undergoes
(1) tan (2) tan-1(2)
vertical circular motion. If u is the velocity imparted
in the horizontal direction at lowest point A, then the

(3) tan (4) tan-1 1

F% for the particle to leave the circle is
condiion

44. When a horse starts suddenly, the rider falls AR-007

-JEE
backwards due to
(1) Inertia of rest (2) Inertia of motion
(3) Inertia of direction (4) None of these
45. When normal reaction is halved between two bodies (1) 0<us2gR
in contact, the coefficient of friction between them
(1) ls halved (2) V2gR<u<5gR
(2) ls doubled (3) u 5gR
(3) Is quadrupled
(4) Remains same
(4) uz/7gR

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 NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-E)
All IndiaAakash Test Serles for

2m,m,g
49. TWo bodies of mass m and ma are tied to the ends (3) (4

of a massless string. The string passes

over a pulley m, – m,
which is frictionless. 50. For a motor car moving 0ver a concave bridge as
shown in figure, choose the correct statement.

m,
(1) Motor car moving over bridge is lighter than the
same car resting on the same bridae.
Assuming the string to be inextensible and m2
> m1, (2) Motor car moving over bridge is heavier than the
the tension in the string will be
same car resting on the same bridge.
m, + m, 2m,m,9 (3) Weight will be same in both the cases.
(1) (2)
2m,m,g m+m (4) Data insufficient

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 54. Given below are the two statements
51. The correct shape and hybridisation for IF7 are Statement I: C2O7is an acidic oxide.
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal and sp° Statement lI: ClzO7 on reaction with water forms
HCIO3.
(2) Pentagonal bipyramidal and sp°
(3) Distorted octahedral and sp° In light of above statements, choose the correct
answer.
(4) Pentagonal bipyramidal and sp°d
(1) Statement is correct but statement II is
52. Correct order of electronegativity of the given
incorrect
elements is
(2) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct
(1) C> B> Si> AI (2) B>C> Si>AI (3) Both statement and statement Ilare incorrect
I

(3) C> Si> B> AI (4) B> Si>C>AI

(4) Statement | is incorrect but statement || is
53. Correct decreasing order of negative electron gain Correct
enthalpy of the given elements is
55. Octet rule is applicable to which pair of compounds?
(1) S> O> Na > Li
(1) NO2 and CH4
(2) O >S> Li> Na (2) N2 and CO2
>
(3) S>O> Li Na (3) PFs and SF6
(4) S>Li >0> Na (4) NO and H2SO4

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 Test-2 (Code-E) AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

56. Match list-l with list-II 60 Correct order of atomic radii of the given elements
List-I List-l| is
Atomic number IUPAC official name (1) Al >
S>P
Si> (2) Al > Si> P>S
AJ

a. 107 (i) Rutherfordium (3) Si > Al > P>S (4) S> P> Si>

b. 103 61 Given below are the two statements

(i) Bohrium
c.
Statement I: Bond length is defined as the
105 (ii) | Lawrencium equilibrium distance between the nuclei of two
d.104 (iv)|Dubnium bonded atoms ina molecule.
The correct match is Statement ll: The covalent radius represents the
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) overall size of the atom which includes its valence
shell in a nonbonded situation.
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(ii), d(i)
In light of above statements, choose the correct
57. C-0 bond order in CO ion is
answer.
(1) 1.66 (2) 1.50 (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(3) 2 (4) 1.33 incorrect
58. Given beloW are the two statements (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement I is
Statement I: Ethyl alcohol dissolves in water. correct
Statement Il: Ethyl alcohol forms intermolecular (3) Both statement Iand statement ll are correct
hydrogen bond with water. (4) Both statementl, and statement Il are incorrect
In light of above statement, choose the correct
62. The compound which contains both ionic and
option.
covalent bonds is
(1) Statement is correct but statement | is
(1) NaBr (2) NazSO4
incorrect
(2) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct (3) CCI4 (4) SO3

(3) Both statement and statement Il are incorrect

I
63. The pair of species which does not exist is
(4) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is (1) ož and O2 (2) Hej and
H

Correct
(3) Hez and Bez (4) C
and B2
59. Consider the following statements

e
a Selenium and sulphur belong to chalcogen 64. Total number of lone pairs in XeF2 is
group. (1) 6 (2) 4
b. Antimony and tellurium are metalloids.
(3) 10 (4) 9
C Rubidium and indium are s-block elements.
65 180° bond angle is absent in
The correct statements are
(1) a and b only (1) 3 (2) CO2
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c (3) SF6 (4) SO2

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 Test-2 (Code-E)
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73. In which of the following pairs, the two species are

66. The correct order of decreasing bond length of
isO-structural?
C-C, C-H, C-O and O-His
(1) C-C>C-0>C-H> 0-H (1) so and PO (2) XeF4 and SF4
(2) C-O> C-C>C-H> 0-H (3) NOJ and S0 (4) BF3 and NF3
(3) C-O>C-C> 0-H> C-H
74. The correct order of dipole moments of the
(4) C-C>C-0> 0-H> C-H molecules H20, NH3, H2S and BF3 is
67. Which among the following is a paramagnetic (1) H20 > NH3> BF3 > H2S
species?
(2) H20 > NH3> H2S > BF3
(1) O2 (2) Nz
(3) NH3 > H20> H2S > BF3
(3) Cz (4) Hz
(4) NH3> H20> BF3 > H2S
68. Intramolecular H-bonding is observed in
75. Consider the following statements
CH, .COOH
(1) (2) Statement I : The elements after uranium are called
Transuranium elements.
OCH, H
CHO NO, Statement Il: Samarium and neptunium are
(3) (4) Transuranium elements.
CH, In light of above statements, choose the correct
OH
answer.
69. The pair which contains representative elements is
(2) Bi and Nd
(1) Statement is, correct but statement || is
(1) Zn and Cd
incorrect
(3) Ba and Pb (4) Ti and Cu (2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement I| is
70. Ethyne consists of correct
(1) 2 sigma and 3 pi bonds (3) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct
(2) 3 sigma and 1 pi bond (4) Both státement and statement Il are incorrect
I

(3) 3 sigma and 2 pi bonds [Link] the following set of elements

(4) 1 sigma and 2 pibonds (a) Li, Na, K

71. Number of bonding and antibonding electrons (b) Ca, Sr, Ba

present in O, respectively are Medical (c) N, P, As
(1) 9 and 8 (2) 10 and 7 Which sets represent Dobereiner's triad?
(3) 12 and 5 (4) 11 and 6 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
72. Correct order of ionisation enthalpy of the given (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
alkali metals is 77. Eka-silicon and Eka-aluminium respectively are
(1) Cs > Rb> K> Na (2) Na >K> Rb> Cs (1) As and Ge (2) Ca and Ge
(3) Na >K> Cs> Rb (4) Rb > Cs > Na > K (3) Ge and Ga (4) Ga and Ge
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 Test-2 (Code-E),
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78. Consider the following
statements about PCIs
molecule 83. According to molecular orbital theory, both g-bond
(a) The central atom is and -bond are present in
sp°d hybridised.
(b) Axial bonds are stronger (1) B2 (2) H2
than equatorial bonds.
(c) Net dipole moment is zero. (3) N2 (4) C2
The correct statements are 84. Consider the following statements.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
Statement-l: Sigma (o) molecular orbitals are
symmetrical around the bond-axis while pi ()
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only molecular orbitals are not symmetrical.
79. Correct bond order of
the given species is Statement-ll: o1s orbital and o*1s orbital do not
(1) Oz > Oz > O§ (2) Ož > Oz > Oz Contain any node.
In light of above statements, choose the correct
(3) O} >O, > Oz (4) > O§ >
O, 0z option.
80. Correct order of ionic radii of the given ions is (1) Statement | is correct but statement I| is
(1) Na*> Lit> Mg2 > Be2+ incorrect
(2) Li > Na*> Mg?+ > Be2+ (2) Statement I
is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Na* > Mg?* > Be2* > Li Correct

(4) Mg2* > Nat > Lit > B2+ (3) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct
(4) Both statement Iand statement Il are incorect
81. Match list I with list II

85. During change of N2 to N, the electron is added to

List-l List-ll which of the following orbitals?
a. NO (i) Acidic (1) o*
b.AlzO3 (iü))
Basic (2) o
C.
Na2O (i) Neutral
| (3)
(4) T*
d. SO2 |(iv) Amphoteric
SECTION-B
The correct match is Total number of
86. -bond electrons in the following
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(), d(iv) molecule is
(3) a(i), b(iv),c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
82. Correct order of bond angles in the following
molecules is
(1) BCI3 > COz > H20 > NH3 (1) 5
(2) CO2 > BCl3 > NH3 > H20 (2) 10
(3) CO2 > NH3 > BCl3 > H20 (3) 8
(4) BCI3 > NH3 > H20> CO2 (4) 4

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87. Consider the following statements.

92. Given below are the two statements
a. In OFz the oxidation state of oxygen is +1 Statement I: Electronegativity is a qualitative
measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical
b. Maximum covalency of boron in its compounds
compound to attract shared electrons to itself.
s4 Statement ll: Sulphur is the most electronegative
C. Pr -P. bond is present in N2 molecule element of the third period in periodic table.
The correct statements are light of above statements, choose the correct
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only answer.
(3) a andc only (4) a, b and c (1) Both statement and statement I| are correct
I

88. Intermolecular hydrogen bond is absent in (2) Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect
(1) H20 (2) NH3 (3) Statement is correct but statement I| is
(4) HF
incorrect
(3) H2S
(4) Statement T
is incorrect but statement I| is
89. The pair of elements which show diagonal
Correct
relationship with each other are
93. Consider the following statements about SF6
a. Liand Mg b. Be and Al molecule
C. P
Band (a) Maximum number of atoms lie in a plane are 4
The correct option is (b) It has regular octahedral geometry
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only (c) 90° and 180° bond angles are present in the
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c molecule
90. pr-dr bond is absent in The correct statements are
(1) CIO; (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(2) XeO3
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
(3) co (4) PO? 94. Which among the following elements is expected to
91. Match List-I with List-|| form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas
configuration?
I
List List Il
(1) Mg (2) O
Vanadium Halogen (3) Na (4) F
95. If
the observed dipole moment of A-Bmolecule is
b lodine (ii) Lanthanoid 0.8 D and A-B bond length is 100 pm then
percentage ionic character in A-B molecule will be
C

Cerium (ii) Actinoid

(1) 25.75% (2) 16.65%
d Thorium (iv) Transition metal (3) 42.25% (4) 31.85%
The correct match is 96. Highest occupied molecular orbital of O; ion is
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b{i), c(ii), d(i) (1) r* (2) o*
(3) a(i), bi), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b{i), c(i), d(iv) (3) o (4)
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 Test-2 (Code-E
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a7 Which among the following is an
endothermic In light of above statements, choose the correct
process?
answer.
(1) Ne-Ne (2) Br Br (1) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct
(3) RbRb (4) Te Te (2) Both statement Iand statement II are incorrect
98. Match List Iwith List II
(3) Statement I is correct but statement || is

List I incorrect
List ||
(Species) (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(Lone pair(s) on
correct
central atom)
100. Consider the following statements about Fajans rule
a XeFs () 2
(a) The smaller is the size of cation and the larger
b. [|Cla] (i) 1 the size of the anion, the greater the covalent
character of an ionic bond.
C. CCl4 (ii)
(b) The greater the charge on the cation, the
d. [Is] (iv) 0 greater the covalent character of the ionic bond.
(c) For the cations of the same size and charge, the
The correct match is -
one, with electronic configuration (n 1)1°ns
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(i), c(i), d(iv) is less polarising than the one with noble gas
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) configuration, ns²np
99. Given beloW are the two statements The correct statements are
Statement I : O3 molecule is a resonance hybrid of (1) (a) and (c) only
three canonical structures. (2) (b) and (c) only
Statement Il: Resonance stabilizes the molecule (3) (a). (b) and (c)
as the energy of the resonance hybrid is less than
the energy of any single canonical structure. (4) (a) and (b) only

[BOTANY
SECTION-A (3) Some of the bacteria are heterotrophic and vast
101. In a leguminous plant, swollen leaf base is called majority are autotrophic
(1) Stipule (2) Pulvinus (4) Respiratory enzymes are found associated with
(3) Midrib (4) Lamina plasma membrane
102. Identify statement W.r.t. 103. Select the mismatched pair.
the incorrect
characteristics of the members of Monera. (1) Coccus Spherical
(1) They do not have nuclear membrane, nucleolus (2) Bacillus Rod shaped
and chromatin associated with histone proteins (3) Vibrium Irregular shape
(2) Rib0somes are made up of two subunits 50S
(4) Spirillum Spiral
and 30S
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104. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. 109. Read the given statements (a-d).
Mycoplasma? a. Methanogens are present in the gut of several
(1) They completely lack cell wall ruminant animals.
(2) They are pathogenic in animals and plants b Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise
nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the
(3) They cannot survive without oxygen
released energy for their ATP production.
(4) They are insensitive to penicillin C. Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted
105. Select the odd one out for mango fruit. water bodies.
(1) One seeded d. Thermoacidophiles are found in extreme salty
(2) Develops from monocarpellary ovary areas and cannot survive in water having low
pH.
(3) Has fleshy, juicy mesocarp
In the light of above statements, select the correct
(4) Epicarp is fibrous edible part
option.
106. Select the odd one out w.r.t. bacterial diseases. are correct except d
(1) All
(1) Cholera (2) Typhoid (2) Only a and b are correct
(3) Tetanus (4) Sleeping sickness (3) Only a and d are correct
107. Identify the incorrect statement W.r.t. (4) Only b and c are correct
Archaebacteria. 110. Bacterial viruses
(1) They differ from other bacteria in having a a. Infect the sole members of kingdom Monera
different cell wall structure b. Usually have double stranded DNA
(2) Cell wall contains branched chain lipids C. Are also called bacteriophage
(3) They have introns in their genetic sequence d. Generally lack protein coat
(4) They can also survive in most harsh habitats
Choose the correct option.
108. Match column-l with column-ll and select the (1) Onlya is correct
correct option. (2) Only a and c are correct
Column-l Column-l! (3) Only b is correct

a. Rhizopus (O) Mushroom (4) Only d is incorrect

111. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t.
|b. |Ustilago (ü) Rust fungus
slime moulds?
C. Puccinia (iiüi) Smut fungus (1) During unfavourable conditions, the
(iv)Bread mould plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting
d. |Agaricus
bodies
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d() (2) The spores possess true walls and are
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(i), d(i) extremely resistant
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) The spores are dispersed by air currents
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) Slime moulds are the only parasitic protists

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112. Read the following statements
true (T) or false (F) and and state them as 117. Which of the following characteristics of euglenoids
select
the correct option.
Diatoms float passively in water currents. is similar to plants?
b. Reserve food material is (1) Presence of protein rich layer called pellicle
stored in the form of oil
and glycogen in fungi. (2) Presence of photosynthetic pigments
C. Cyanobacteria are characterised by
presence of flagellum throughout the (3) Presence of contractile vacuole
the life cycle.
d. Kingdom fungi is classified only on (4) Formation of non-motile gametes during sexual
the basis of reproduction
fruiting bodies into various classes.
e. Deuteromycetes are commonly 118. The causative agents of Cr-Jacob disease in
known as
imperfect fungi. humans are
b
(1) Viruses
(1) T F F T
(2) Viroids
(2) F F T
(3) Prions
(3) T F T F F
(4) F T F T (4) Bacteria
113. Cell wall of fungi is composed of 119. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Chitin and polysaccharides correct option.
(2) Peptidoglycan
Statement-A: In a symbiotic association between
(3) Cellulose only algae and fungi, algae prepare food for fungi and
(4) Murein fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients
114. Select the incorrectly matched pair. and water for its partner.
(1) Amoeboid protozoan - Amoeba Statement-B: Lichens are very good pollution
(2) Flagellated protozoan - Trypanosoma indicators.
(3) Ciliated protozoan - Entamoeba (1) Only statementA is correct
(4) Sporozoan - Plasmodium
(2) Only statement B is correct
115. Specialised cells called heterocysts are present in
(1) Slime moulds (2) Blue green algae (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(3) Protists (4) Golden algae
edical (4) Both the statements A
and Bare incorrect
116. Mycorrhiza is correctly described as 120. Select the mismatched pair.
(1) Parasitic association between root and fungi (1) Viroids Potato spindle tuber disease
(2) Symbiotic association between algae and fungi
(2) Prions Mad cow disease in cattle
(3) Symbiotic association between roots of higher
(3) Alternaria Late blight of potato
plants and fungi
(4) Parasitic association between algae and fungi (4) Claviceps Ergot disease

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 Test-2 (Code-E)
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124. Match column-l with column-ll and select the

state them as
121. Read the following statements and correct option w.r.t. aestivation in corolla.
true(T) or false(F) and select the correct
option.
lobe Column-l Column-l|
a. Anthers are usually bilobed and each
contains two pollen sacs. a. Valvate Pea
which
b. Corolla is the second whorl of the flower (ü)Cassia
have b Twisted
IS generally brightly coloured and
fragrance. C. Imbricate (i) Calotropis
green leaf-like structure
C. Sepals are generally d. Vexillary |(iv)Cotton
that protect the flower in bud stage.
(1) a(üi), b(iv), c(i), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d{i)
a b C
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(ü), d() (4) a(i), b(iv), ci), d(ü)
(1) T F
125. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(2) F T T
and select the correct option.
(3) T T T In cymose inflorescence, the growth
Assertion (A):
(4) F TF of main axis is limited.
122. Read the given statements from (a-d) In cymose inflorescence, the main axis
Reason (R):
a. Perigynous flower has half inferior ovary. terminates into a flower.
b. Epigynous flower has inferior ovary. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. Hypogynous flower has superior ovary. explanation of (A)
d. In mustard and China rose, gynoecium is (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
situated in the centre and other parts of the correct explanation of (A)
flower are located on the rim or periphery of the (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
thalamus. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
In the light of above statements select the correct not the function of
126. Which of the following is usually
option. root?
(1))a, b and dare correct
(1) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(2) Only a and b are correct
(2) Absorption of water and minerals from soil
(3) Allare correct except d dical/ (3) Storage of reserve food materials
(4) Only c and d are correct
(4) Manufacturing of food and its transportation to
123. Select the odd one out w.r.t. radial symmetry. aerial parts of plant
(1) Mustard
127. Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession in all
(2) Datura of the following plants, except
(3) Chilli (1) Radish (2) Mustard
(4) Bean (3) Lupin (4) Dianthus
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128. The arrangement of ovules on placenta within the In the light of above statements, select the correct
Ovary is known as option.
(1) Placentation (2) Aestivation (1) Allare correct except d
(3) Infiorescence (4) Venation (2) Only b and c are correct
129. Apocarpous condition is seen in (3) Only a, b and d are correct
(1) Lotus and tomato (2) Lotus and mustard (4) Onlyc and d are correct
(3) Mustard and tomato (4) Lotus and rose 134. Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. stamens.
130. Select the incorrectly matched pair. (1) Epipetalous Brinjal
(1) Marginal placentation – Pea (2) Epiphyllous Lily
(2) Axile placentation - China rose
(3) Polyadelphous Citrus
(3) Basal placentation Argemone
(4) Monoadelphous Pea
(4) Parietal placentation Mustard
135. the given plants, how many of them are belonging
In
131. Root hairs develop from the to a family having the floral forrmula çKsCsAsGg
(1) Root cap
(2) Elongation zone Potato, Petunia, Belladonna, Mustard, Sugarcane,
(3) Maturation zone Wheat, Maize
(4) Region of meristematic activity (1) 4 (2) 5
132. Read the following statements and select the (3) 3 (4) 2
correct option. SECTION-B
Statement-A: A sterile stamen is called staminode.
136. Select the odd one out w.r.t. alternate phyllotaxy.
Statement-B: When stamen is attached to the
(1) Sunflower (2) China rose
petal, it is called epiphyllous.
(3) Guava (4) Mustard
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct 137. Match column-l with column-ll and select the
(3) Both the statementsAand B are correct
correct option.
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect Column-1 Column-l|

133. Read the given statements (a-d) a. Malvaceae O Br% PKp»pgus or

oCs,G2)
a Ovules develop into seeds after fertilization.
|[Link] (n)
[Link]
b. The hilum is a scar on the seed coat through
which the developing seeds were attached to
c. Cruciferae
the fruit. |(")%Posr2 or 3LodicuesyA3 or
1
C. Nucellus remains persistent in some seeds and
is called pericarp. [Link] (iv)
The plumule and radicle are enclosed in
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c{iü), d()
sheaths which are called as coleoptile and
coleorhiza respectively. (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d() (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(ü), d(i)

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 Test-2 (Code-E)
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statement
.
dinoflagelates.
w.r.t.
143. ldentify the incorrect
138. Symbols used in floral formula for polysepalous and (1) These organisms are mostly marine
and
gamosepalous condition respectively are heterotrophic
Kin) and Kn cell wall has stiff cellulosic plates on
(1) Kn and Kin) (2) (2) The the
outer surface
(3) Ch and Ctn) (4) C(n) and Cn
(3) Most of them have two flagella
139. Which one of the following statements
is incorrect
(4) Gonyaulax is responsible for red tides
w.r.t. basidiomycetes?
144. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
occurs in basidium
(1) Karyogamy and meiosis statements and select the correct option.
sex
(2) Sexual reproduction does not involve Assertion (A): Viruses can pass through bacteria
organs proof filters.
(3) Mycelium is branched and septate Reason (R): Viruses are exception to the cell theory
and are obligatory intracellular parasites.
(4) Secondary mycelium is short lived but dominant
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
phase of life cycle
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false
140. Three-domain system classification was
of
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
proposed by A that divides the kingdom explanation of (A)
Monera into B domains. (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks A
145. Leaves of all the following plants show reticulate
B.
and ations
venation, except
B (1) Peepal (2) Hibiscus
(1) Carl Woese Two (3) Luffa (4) Banana
(2) R.H. Whittaker One 146. Which of the following pairs of fungi are edible and
considered delicacies?
(3) Aristotle Two
(1) Morels and Alternaria
(4) Linnaeus Three (2) Albugo and Claviceps
141. Viruses could be crystallised, was shown by (3) Morels and Truffles
(1) T.O. Diener (2) M.W. Beijerinck (4) Yeast and Agaricus
(4) D.J. 147. ldentify the incorrect statement.
(3) W.M. Stanley vanowsky
[Link] of the following fungi is used extensively (1) Leaflets are attached at a common point, i.e., at
in
the tip of petiole in silk cotton
biochemical and genetic work? Me (2) In Salvia, there may be variation in length of
(1) Aspergillus filaments within a flower.
(2) Neurospora (3) Rachis represents the midrib of the leaf in
(3) Trichoderma palmately compound leaf
(4) Yeast (4) In some plants like Monstera and banyan tree,
roots arise from parts of plant other than radicle
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Test-2 (Code-E)
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4A8. Read the following characteristics (a-d):
a Racemose type 149. Which of the given regions/structures of root tip
of inflorescence is present
b. Flowers are bisexual, protects the tender apex of the root as it makes its
usually actinomorphic but way through the soil?
sometimes zygomorphic (1) Root cap
C
Siligua or silicula type of fruit are seen (2) Region of elongation
d. Sepals and petals are four in (3) Region of maturation
number with
imbricate and valvate aestivations, (4) Region of meristematic activity
respectively
These above characteristics are true 150. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
for members
of (1) Endospermic seed - Castor
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Non-endospermic seed -Gram
(2) Compositae (3) Mesocarp Fleshy and edible
(3) Poaceae in coconut

(4) Malvaceae (4) Endocarp Hard and stony in

mango

(ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 154. Partial pressure ofa gas
151. In the human respiratory tract, the primary site for (1) the pressure contributed by an individual gas
exchange of gases is lined by a
in mixture of gases
(2) Is the pressure contributed by all gases in a
(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium
mixture of gases
(2) Simple columnar epithelium (3) Cannot affect the rate of diffusion of gases
(3) Simple squamous epithelium (4) Present in atmosphere is equal to the
atmospheric pressure
(4) Compound epithelium
155. Select the incorrect match.
152. In a standard ECG, the P-wave represents the (1) Fibrinogens -
Help in coagulation of blood
(1) Electrical excitation of the atria (2) Globulins - Facilitate defense mechanism
(3) Albumins Maintain osmotic balance
(2) End of ventricular systole
(4) Serum -
Plasma with clotting factors
(3) Repolarisation of the lower chambers of the 156. All of the following are correct w.r.t. human RBCS,
heart except
(4) Initiation of depolarisation of the ventricles (1) Formed in the red bone marrow in the adults
153. The
(2) Devoid of nucleus
hepatic portal vein carries blood from
(3) Contain red-coloured, iron containing complex
(1) Liver to the kidney (2) Kidney to the iiver protein
(3) Liver to the intestine (4) Intestine to the liver (4) Biconvex in shape

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157. Read the following statements.

161. Match column Iwith column II.

Statement A: Spleen is called the graveyard of Columnl Column I|

RBCs.
[Link] attack Ö) Heart stops beating
Statement B: In a
standard ECG, the number of
a given time period arrest (ii) Not enough O2 is
QRS complexes that occur |[Link]
can be counted to determine the stroke volume reaching heart
directly. muscles that leads to
chest pain
Choose the correct option.
c.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct Heart failure (iii) Heart is not pumping
blood effectively
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
enough to meet the
(3) Only statement A is correct
body's demand
(4) Only statement B is correct
(iv)Heart muscles are
158. Purkinje fibres present in the human heart are the
suddenly damaged
modification of |by an inadequate
(1) Nervous tissue |blood supply
(2) Muscle tissue
Select the correct option.
(3) Dense connective tissue (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ü) (2) a(i), b(i), c(ii)
(4) Specialised connective tissue (3) a(ii), b(i), c{i), (4) a(i), b(i), c(ii)
159. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the human 162. The opening of the right and left ventricle into
heart. pulmonary artery and the aorta respectively are
(1) has the size of a clenched fist.
It
guarded by the
(2) It is a mesodermally derived structure. (1) Mitral valve (2) Semilunar valve
(3) Its right ventricle has the thickest wall. (3) Tricuspid valve (4) Bicuspid valve
(4) It is covered bya double layered pericardium. 163. In a standard ECG, return of ventricles to the normal
160. If repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual state from excited state is represented by
shows systolic and diastolic blood pressure equal to (1) T-wave (2) QRS complex
or higher than and respectively, it
(3) P-wave (4) Q-wave
indicates hypertension.
164. In a healthy adult human, an average life span of
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks. the most abundant formed element of blood is
(1) 110; 80 mm Hg (1) 100 days
(2) 100; 80 mn Hg (2) 120 days
(3) 120; 70 mm Hg (3) 36 days
(4) 140; 90 mm Hg (4) 48 days

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 Test-2 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

165. Read the following statements w.r.t. humans. 169. Assertion (A): Neural signals from pneumotaxic
Statement A: Upon release of adrenal medullary centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
hormones, cardiac output increases. Reason (R): Pneumotaxic centre present in the
Statement B: If the parasympathetic influence on medulla region of brain can moderate the functions
heart is removed, heart will beat slowly. of the respiratory rhythm centre.
Select the correct option. In the light of above statements, select the most
(1) Both statements A and B are correct appropriate option.
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(3) Only statement A is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) is not the correct
(4) Only statement B is correct explanation of (A)
166. Exchange of a gas at the diffusion membrane in (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
human respiratory system is mainly based on all, (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
except
170. Pulmonary ventilation is the process in which
(1) Concentration gradient of the gas
(1) Gases diffuse across alveolar membrane.
(2) Thickness of the membrane
(2) Atmospheric air is drawn in and COz rich
(3) Solubility of the gas alveolar air is released out.
(4) Total pressure of all the gases present in alveoli (3) Oz is utilised by the cells for catabolic reactions
167. In a healthy human, normal pumping pressure and and resultant release of CO2.
resting pressure is respectively (4) Gases diffuse between blood and tissues.
(1) 80 mm Hg; 120 mm Hg 171 Which of the following is an incorrect statement
(2) 120 mm Hg; 80 mm Hg w.r.t. cardiac cycle in a normal healthy adult
human?
(3) 100 mm Hg; 90 mm Hg
(1) During joint diastole, bicuspid valve remains
(4) 80 mm Hg; 100 mm Hg open.
168. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. blood vessels. During ventricular diastole, the ventricular
l(1)Tunica intima An inner lining of simple pressure rises causing the closure of semilunar
squamous epithelium valves.
A middle layer of skeletal
(3) Atrial diastole coincides with the ventricular
(2)Tunica media
systole.
muscle and elastic fibres
It consists of joint diastole, atrial systole and
(4)
(3) Tunica externa An external layer of ventricular systole.
fibrous connective tissue 172. In a healthy man, the volume of air that will remain
with collagen fibres in the lungs after a normal expiration is

(4)Tunica media Thinner veins as

in (1) IC + EC - TV (2) TLC -IC
compared to arteries (3) TLC - FRC (4) IC + FRC

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 Test-2 (Code-E)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

(1) Both statements A and Bare correct

w.r.t.
173. Select the correct statement humans.
mm Hg in blood (2) Both statements A and Bare incorrect
(1) The partial pressure of O2' is 45 correct
(3) Only statement A is
vessel carrying deoxygenated blood.
(4) Only statement B is Correct
(2) The partial pressure of 'O2' is 40 mm Hg in 179, Rh incompatibility can be observed in between the
alveoli (1) Rh +ve pregnant mother with Rh
-ve foetus
(3) The partial pressure of '02' is more in +ve foetus
(2) Rh -ve pregnant mother with Rh
deoxygenated blood than oxygenated blood -ve foetus
mm Hg in (3) Rh -ve pregnant mother with Rh
(4) The partial pressure of 'O2' is 95 Rh +ve foetus
(4) Rh +tve pregnant mother with
systemic arteries that carry oxygenated blood
180. Maximum volume of air one can breathe in aftera
174. The enzyme 'E' which catalyses the given reaction forceful expiration is
is present in
(1) Functional residual capacity
co, +H,0 E
HCO, +H* (2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Total lung capacity
(1) Platelets Lymphocytes
(2)
(4) Vital capacity
(3) Erythrocytes (4) Monocytes
181. HoW many of the structures given in the box below
175. What is the volume of air inspired or expired by a
help in transporting the atmospheric air to alveoli?
healthy adult man, during a normal respiration? Terminal bronchioles, External nostrils, Trachea,
(1) 1000 mL (2) 8000 mL
Primary bronchi, Nasal chamber
(3) 500 mL (4) 1500 mL
Select the correct option.
176. A chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the
respiratory rhythm centre is highly sensitive to
(1) Five atio (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Two
(1) Rise in H* and pO2 (2) Fall in H* and p02 182. In humans, the first heart sound is due to
(3) Rise in pCOz and H* (4) Fall in pCO2
and pO2 (1) Closure of valves which prevent back flow of
177. When percentage saturation of haemoglobin with blood into atria from ventricles
Oz on y-axis is plotted against the pO2 on X-axis in (2) Opening of valves that is formed of three
a graph, the curve obtained is /T-J} muscular flaps
(1) Parabola (2) Sigmoid (3) Closure of valves which prevent back flow of
blood into ventricles from aorta
(3) Hyperbola
178. Read the following statements.
(4) Linear
ical (4) Opening of mitral valve
183. A person met with an accident and needed
Statement A: Aquatic molluscs exhibit pulmonary immediate blood transfusion but his blood group
respiration. was unknown to his family members. In this case,
Statement B: Humans have the ability to increase which of the following blood groups can be used, so
the strength of inspiration and expiration with the that no mismatching occurs?
help of additional muscles in the abdomen. (1) AB -ve (2) O +ve
Select the correct option. (3) O-ve (4) AB +ve
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 Tost-2 (Code-E)
gAll India' Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

184. Read the following statements.

189. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the pacemaker of
a. In reptiles, the left atrium receives
deoxygenated blood from lungs. the human heart.
b. The cardiac output of an (1) It is present in the right lower corner of the right
adult healthy man is 5L
C. SympathetiC nerve
atrium.
fibres can increase
strength of ventricular contraction in [Link] (2) It can generate action potentials only with the
Select the correct option. stimulus of nerve impulse.
(1) a, b and c are correct (3) It can generate the maximum number of action
(2) a, b and care incorrect potentials, i.e., 70-75 min-1.
(3) band c are correct (4) It is known as atrio-ventricular node.
(4) Only b is correct 190. Match column | with column I| and select the
185. A healthy adult human breathes 'X' times/minute correct option w.r.t. formed elements and their
under normal condition. 'X is numerically equal to percentage (in total WBCs) in a healthy man.
(1) % of protein present in blood plasma Column I
Column ll
(2) Amount of haemoglobin present in every 100 (i)
mL of blood of a healthy adult human
a Monocytes 20-25
(3) % of monocytes in total leucocyte count b Neutrophils (ii) 6-8
(4) Number of heart beats per minute of a healthy C
Lymphocytes (iii) |2-3
man
SECTION-B
(iv) 60-65
186. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct (1) a(i), b(ii), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(i)
option w.r.t. thoracic chamber.
(3) a(ii), b(), c{iv) (4) a(iv), b(), c(ii)
Ventrally:Sternum:: Laterally : 191. Read the following statements.
(1) Ribs (2) Thoracic vertebrae
Statement A: The anatomical set up of lungs in
(3) Diaphragm (4) Cervical vertebrae thorax is such that any change in the volume of the
187. Two separate blood circulatory pathways are thoracic cavity will be reflected in the pulmonary
present in cavity.
(1) Birds, mammals
Statement B: In humans, the outer pleural
(2) Earthworms, flatworms membrane of lungs is in close contact with the lung
(3) Sponges, fishes surface.
(4) Amphibians, reptiles Select the correct option.
188. Select the correct set of respiratory volumes/ (1) Both statements A and B are correct
capacities which cannot be measured by a simple
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
spirometer.
(1) TV, ERV (2) VC, IRV (3) Only statement A is correct
(3) FRC, TLC (4) EC, IC (4) Only statement B is correct

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 Test-2 (Code-E)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

197. Which of the following statements is correct [Link]

192. During normal inspiration
(1) Contraction of internal inter-costal muscles lifts humans?
(1) A special neural centre in the medulla
oblongata
up the ribs and sternum
can moderate the cardiac functions through
(2) Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume
of thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis Somatic nervouS systerm.
(3) Increase in pulmonary volume increases the (2) A special coronary system of blood vessels is
intra-pulmonary pressure present exclusively for the circulation of blood to
(4) Increase in the thoracic volume causeS and from the cardiac musculature.
increase in the pulmonary volume (3) The pulmonary circulation provides nutrients.
193. In humans, all of the following constitute the O2 and other essential substances to all the
respiratory diffusion membrane, except
body tissues and takes CO2 and other harmful
(1) Cellular basement membrane
(2) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries substances away for elimination.
(3) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli (4) Silicosis is not an occupational respiratory
(4) Acellular basement membrane disorder.
194. How many of the following is/are involved in 198. Select the correct set of factors that favour the
coagulation of blood? formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
Calcium ions, Prothrombins, Platelet factors, (1) Low pO2, high H concentration, low pCO2
Fibrin (2) High pCO2, high temperature, low pH
Select the correct option. (3) High p02, low pCO2, high pH
(1) Four (2) Two (4) Low pO2, high þCO2, high temperature
(3) Three (4) One
195. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lymph.
199. Select the correct match w.r.t. respiratory
volumes/capacities in an adult human.
(1) It has the same mineral distribution as that in
plasma. (1) IC 1100-1200 mL
(2) It is a colourless fluid devoid of lymphocytes. (2) FRC 5400-5600 mL
(3) Fats are absorbed through it in the lacteals (3) RV 1500-1600 mL
present in the intestinal villi. (4) IRV 2500-3000 mL
(4) It is an important carrier for nutrients, hormones, 200. Every 500 mL of blood found in the pulmonary vein
etc.
can deliver around how many mL of oxygen to the
196. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. respiratory
tissues under normal physiological conditions?
structures of different organisms.
(1) Earthworm Moist cuticle
dica (1) 5 mL
(2) Insect Tracheal tubes (2) 10 mL
(3) Aquatic arthropod Skin (3) 20 mL
(4) Reptile Lungs (4) 25 mL

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