1. Which scientist first mooted the concept of Multifactorial Causation of disease?

a. Aristotle
b. Pettenkofer
c. Louis Pasteur
d. McMohan and Pugh
2. HDI does not include which of the following?
a. Life expectancy at birth
b. Life expectancy at 1 year
c. Adult literacy rate
d. GNI per capita
3. Ottawa Charter of Health Promotion incorporates all of the following key sector areas
except
a. Build healthy public policy
b. Develop personal skills
c. Create supportive environment for all
d. Build social security system
4. Health Index of India is based on indicators in the following domains except
a. Health outcomes
b. Key inputs and processes
c. Resources and logistics
d. Governance and information
5. Burden of disease pattern of developed, developing high mortality, and developing
low mortality countries differ substantially. This phenomenon is called
a. Demographic transition
b. Epidemiological transition
c. Demographic shift
d. Paradoxical transition
6. Term “Social Medicine” first introduced by
a. Jules Verne
b. Jules Guerin
c. Alfred Grotjahn
d. Alfred Hitchcock
7. Direct Standardization is used to compare mortality data of two countries. This is
done because of difference in
a. Causes of death
b. Numerators
c. Denominators
d. Age Distribution
8. The relationship between incidence and prevalence can be expressed as
a. The product of incidence and mean duration of disease
b. The dividend of incidence and mean duration of disease
c. The sum of incidence and mean duration of disease
d. The difference of incidence of mean duration of disease
9. All are true for Standardized Mortality ratio (SMR) except
a. Is a form of direct standardization
b. Is calculated as Observed deaths/Expected deaths X 100
c. Permits adjustment for age
d. Can be used for disease as event of occurrence
10. Which of the following is ‘Event-type’ disability indicator?
a. Notification rate
 b. Bed disability days
c. Limitation of activity
d. Limitation of mobility
11. Quarantine is separation of healthy individual
a. For longest incubation period of disease
b. For median incubation period of disease
c. For twice the incubation period of disease
d. For period of generation time
12. In a well-designed clinical trial of treatment of ovarian cancer, remission rate at one
year is similar for a new drug and usual care, The P-value is 0.4. This means that
a. Both treatments are effective
b. The statistical power of this study is 60%
c. The best estimate of treatment effect is 0,4
d. It is not possible to decide on whether one treatment is better than the
other using this information alone.
13. A study was made of a clinician's ability to diagnose streptococcal throat infections in
149 patients coming to the emergency department in a certain hospital. The doctor's
clinical impressions were compared to results of throat cultures or group A
streptococcus. 37 patients had positive throat cultures and 27 of these were diagnosed
by doctor as having strep throat. 112 patients had negative cultures, and the doctors
diagnosed 35 of these as having strep throat. The specificity of the doctors' clinical
judgment was:
a. 27/37
b. 77/112
c. 27/62
d. 10/87
e. 104/149
14. When designing a study to determine whether there is a direct association between a
particular exposure and an outcome, one should anticipate that potential alternative
explanations may exist. Which of the following is a way to deal with confounding?
a. Post-hoc blocking
b. Screening
c. Randomization
d. Validation
15. What is external validity

a. This is the generalizing of the study to the population

b. It is the extent to which you can believe your results

c. It is the third variable that relates to the exposure and the outcome

d. None of the above

16. Sputum is sterilised by all except

a. Autoclaving

b. Boiling
 c. Cresol

d. Chlorhexidine

17. Continuous scrutiny of factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of
disease and other condition of ill health is the definition of

a. Monitoring

b. Surveillance

c. Disease control

d. Elimination

18. Which is the last storage point of vaccine

a. Village
b. Subcentre
c. CHC
d. PHC
19. The time taken for 50% of patients to develop the disease following exposure to the
disease is known as
a. Incubation period
b. Median incubation period
c. Generation time
d. Secondary attack rate
20. Which of the following is morbidity indicator?
a. Notification rate
b. Doctor population ratio
c. Bed turnover Ratio
d. Proportional mortality rate
21. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of lung cancer among smokers are due
to cigarette smoking. It is a measure of
a. Incidence rate
b. Relative risk
c. Attributable risk
d. Population attributable risk
22. Hawthorne effect is seen in
a. Case-control study
b. Cohort study
c. Retrospective Cohort study
d. Cross- sectional study
23. The systematic distortion of retrospective studies that can be eliminated by a
prospective design is
a. confounding
b. Effect modification
c. Recall bias
d. Measurement bias
24. A test which produce similar results when repeated but values obtained are not close
to actual/true value
a. Precise but inaccurate
b. Precise but accurate
c. Imprecise & accurate
d. Imprecise & inaccurate
25. Most difficult criterion to establish causal association in aetiology of a disease is
a. Temporality
b. Strength of association
c. Specificity of association
d. Biological plausibility
26. True about measles elimination strategy are all except :
a. Catch up: Targetting all children 9 months- 14 years of age, irrespective of
history of measles disease or vaccination status.
b. Keep up: Routine services aimed at vaccinating more than 97% of each
successive birth cohort.
c. Follow up
d. : Subsequent nationwide vaccination campaigns conducted every 2- 4 years.
e. Eradication of measles requires vaccination coverage > 96%.
27. According to WHO, a confirmed case of swine flu (H1NI) was defined as a person
with acute febrile respiratory illness with laboratory conferment WHO laboratories by
all of the following tests except:
a. Real time PCR
b. ELISA
c. Viral culture
d. 4 fold rise in virus specific neutralizing antibodies
28. All are targeted in SDG 2030 in relation to TB except:
a. 90% reduction in deaths due to TB
b. 80% reduction of incidence in TB
c. 0% TB affected families due to catastrophic expenses
d. 0% HIV-TB coinfection rate
29. All the following are examples of direct zoonoses except:
a. Rabies
b. Brucellosis
c. Trichnosis
d. Plague
30. Drug of choice for scabies in pregnancy:
a. Ivermectin
b. Permethrin
c. Benzyl benzoate
d. Crotaminton
31. Anthropozoonoses is :
a. Trypnosoma cruzi
b. Trichinosis
c. Schistosoma japonicum
 d. Human TB in cattle
32. Best disinfectant for cholera stools is:
a. Coal-tar
b. Formalin
c. Bleaching powder
d. Cresol
33. According to WHO Guidelines, Latent TB investigation is not done in:
a. Silicosis
b. Dialysis
c. Diabetes
d. Organ transplantation
34. Uses of chandler’s index include all except:
a. Assessment of endemicity
b. Monitoring individual treatment
c. Monitoring mass treatment
d. Comparison of worm load in different populations
35. All are true about DEC except:
a. It does not cause rapid disappearance of Mf from circulation
b. Effective in killing Mf
c. Effect of drug on the adult worm is uncertain
d. It probably has no effect on the infective larval stage
36. Global strategy for dengue prevention and control 2012-2020 include:
a. To reduce dengue mortality by at least 30 percent by 2020
b. To reduce dengue morbidity by at least 40 percent by 2020
c. To reduce dengue mortality by at least 50 percent by 2020
d. To reduce dengue morbidity by at least 60 percent by 2020
37. False about Nipah virus infection is:
a. Incubation period from 10 to 14 days
b. Main tests are RT-PCR and ELISA
c. No vaccine specific to NIPAH is available
d. Transmission occurs via direct contact with infected bats
38. Maximum explosiveness of Plague (Severity of spread) is determined by:
a. Total flea index
b. Borrow index
c. Cheopsis index
d. Specific percentage of fleas
39. Amplifier host in Japanese Encephalitis is:
a. Horse
b. Dog
c. Monkey
d. Pig
40. The WHO’s “5 Cs” are principles that apply to all models of Hepatitis include :
a. Consent,Confidentiality, Consistency, Competency, Correct test results
b. Consent,Confidentiality, Collaboration,Clarity, Correct test results
 c. Consent,Confidentiality, Counselling, Credibilty, Connection
d. Consent, Confidentiality, Correct test results, Counselling, Connection
41. The WHO definition of heavy infection of roundworm is:
a. ≥ 50,000 eggs per gram of faeces
b. ≥ 50,000 eggs per miligram of faeces
c. ≥20,000 eggs per gram of faeces
d. ≥20,000 eggs per miligram of faeces
42. One of the core indicators for monitoring progress of leprosy include:
a. Number and rate of new cases detected per 10,000 population per year
b. Number and rate of new cases detected per 1,00,000 population per year
c. Rate of new cases with grade-2 disabilities per 10,000 population per year
d. Rate of new cases with grade-3 disabilities per 1,00,000 poplulation per year
43. TB preventive therapy is given to all except:
a. All asymptomatic contacts (under 6 years of age) of a smear positive case,
after ruling out active disease and irrespective of their BCG status.
b. Chemoprophylaxis is recommended for all HIV infected children who either
had a known exposure to infectious TB case or are TST positive but have no
active TB disease.
c. All TST positive children not on immunosuppressive therapy.
d. A child born to mother, who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy, should
receive prophylaxis for 6 months, provided congenital TB has been ruled out.
44. Method of case detection in a STD control programme:
a. Screening
b. Contact tracing
c. Cluster testing
d. All of the above
45. Indian state reporting maximum number of AIDS cases till now:
a. Kerala
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Assam
d. Punjab
46. Method of case detection in control of sexually transmitted diseases in which names
of the persons moving in same socio-sexual environment:
a. Contact tracing
b. Selective screening
c. Cluster testing
d. High risk screening
47. Most common cause of carriers in viral hepatitis:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
48. Chemoprophylaxis is not required in:
a. Conjunctivitis
 b. Meningitis
c. Measles
d. Plague
49. Most common time of transmission of Rubella is:
a. I trimester
b. II trimester
c. III trimester
d. During deliver
50. All about lepromin test is true except:
a. Is widely used to aid classification of the disease
b. It can yield true positive or true negative
c. Useful test for evaluation of CMI status
d. Has a great value in estimating prognosis of the disease

51. The elimination criteria for malaria, as according to national framework for malaria
elimination is;
a. 1 case per 1000 population
b. 1 case per 10000 population
c. 1 case per 100000 population
d. Zero indigenous case
52. According to CDC recommendations, HIV screening of pregnant women is
a. Opt- in testing
b. Opt- out testing
c. Compulsory
d. Symptomatic
53. Which of the following RTI/STI color coded kits is wrongly matched
a. Kit 1- Grey
b. Kit 2- green
c. Kit 3- white
d. Kit 4- red
54. A pregnant woman in third trimester having fever was diagnosed as a case of
falciparum malaria. Under the national health programme, which drug is
recommended?
a. ACT only
b. ACT accompanied by single dose of Primaquine on day 2
c. Only quinine
d. Chloroquine
55. Learned behavior which is socially acquired is
 a. Customs
b. Acculturation
c. Standard of living
d. Culture
56. All of the following social sciences deal directly with human behavior except
a. Political science
b. Anthropology
c. Social psychology
d. Sociology
57. The WHO recommendation for Pre exposure prophylaxis in Rabies
a. One site intramuscular vaccine administration on days 0 and 7
b. One site intramuscular vaccine administration on days 0 and 3
c. One site intradermal vaccine administration on days 0 and 7
d. One site intradermal vaccine administration on days 0 and 3
58. Target diseases for VISION 2020 in India does not include
a. Refractive errors and low vision
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Trachoma
d. Xerophthalmia
59. Supplementary dose for prophylaxis of anemia in children 6 months to 5 years is
a. 20mg elemental iron and 100 microgram folic acid
b. 20mg elemental iron and 50 microgram folic acid
c. 45mg elemental iron and 200 microgram folic acid
d. 100mg elemental iron and 100 microgram folic acid
60. The best Indicator for monitoring the impact of iodine deficiency disorders control
programme is
a. Prevalence of goiter among school children
b. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women
c. Neonatal hypothyroidism
d. Iodine level in soil
61. All are true about swajaldhara programme except
a. Community led, participatory programme
b. Provide drinking water in rural areas
c. State government maintain and manage all water supply
d. Encouraging water harvesting practices
62. Under the registration of births and deaths act
a. Births should be registered within 21 days and deaths within 30 days
b. Births should be registered within 30 days and deaths within 21 days
c. Both births and deaths should be registered within 21 days
d. Both births and deaths should be registered within 30 days
63. True regarding maternity benefit act are all except
a. To avail the benefit the woman must be working as an employee in the
establishment for at least 80 days in the past 12 months
b. The paid maternity leave is 90% of the full wages
c. The duration of paid leave is 26 weeks
 d. Makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment employing 50 or
more employees
64. True about evin technology system in India, are all except
a. Implemented by the UNDP
b. Stands for Effective Vaccine Intelligence Network
c. The temperature of the cold chain is monitored by smart phone application
d. Supports monitoring of vaccine logistics to prevent stock out
65. True regarding strategies for elimination of lymphatic filariasis are all except
a. Annual MDA with DEC 6mg/kg body weight and albendazole
b. Annual MDA done for minimum of 5 years or more
c. Transmission Assessment Survey done after 2 years of MDA
d. Global target for elimination is by 2020
66. True regarding kala azar elimination are all except
a. Elimination criteria is 1 case per 10000 population
b. Treatment with single dose of 10 mg/kg body weight of LAMB
c. Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis is confirmed by presence of LD bodies in
bone marrow aspirate
d. Indoor residual spraying with DDT/ pyrethroid is recommended
67. The End TB strategy 2035 aims to reduce the number of TB deaths by ;
a. 90% compared to 2015
b. 95% compared to 2015
c. 80% compared to 2015
d. 85% compared to 2015
68. Elimination criteria for tuberculosis is
a. 1 case per 1,00,000 population
b. 1 case per 1000 population
c. 1 case per 10,00,000 population
d. Zero cases
69. True regarding NTEP are all except
a. The national reference laboratories monitor the work of intermediate reference
laboratories
b. Random blinded rechecking of slides is recommended
c. One DMC at every 1.5 lakh population
d. Every DMC manned by a trained laboratory technician
70. Category 3 as mentioned in the classification of states for malaria elimination belongs
to;
a. Prevention of re-establishment phase
b. Elimination phase
c. Pre elimination phase
d. Intensified control phase
71. Chemoprophylaxis in malaria warranted for high P. Falciparum endemic areas is done
by
a. Chloroquine
b. Artemisinin combination therapy
c. Mefloquine
d. Pyrimethamine- sulfadoxine
72. Targeted interventions for HIV is done for all except
a. Commercial sex workers
b. Migrant laborers
c. Street children
d. Industrial workers
73. According to WHO, the definition of blindness is
a. Visual acuity <6/60 in the better eye with available correction
b. Visual acuity <3/60 in the better eye with available correction
c. Visual acuity <6/60 in the better eye with best correction
d. Visual acuity <3/60 in the better eye with best correction
74. The SDG 2030 is a set of
a. 17 aspiration goals with 169 targets
b. 15 aspiration goals with 150 targets
c. 11 aspiration goals with 169 targets
d. 15 aspiration goals with 189 targets
75. SDG 2030 aim to reduce global MMR by 2030 to
a. <100/100000 live births
b. <70/100000 live births
c. <100/1000 live births
d. <70/1000 live births
76. In which year, National Mental Health Program was launched?
a) 1980
b) 1982
c) 1983
d) 1985
77. World Mental Health Day is celebrated on
a) April 10
b) June 20
c) August 15
d) October 10
78. All are autosomal dominant traits except-
a) Achondroplasia
b) Marfan’s syndrome
c) Neurofibromatosis
d) Phenylketonuria
79. Percentage of deliveries attended by skilled health personnel-
a) 42.6 %
b) 59.8%
c) 73.6%
d) 81.4%
80. Three cleans include all except-
a) Clean delivery surface
b) Clean hands
c) Clean cord care
d) Clean towel
81. Most common cause of Infant Mortality Rate in India-
a) Low Birth Weight
b) Prematurity
 c) Both a and b
d) None
82. Infant Mortality Rate of India is-
a) 24 per 1000 live births
b) 34 per 1000 live births
c) 44 per 1000 live births
d) 54 per 1000 live births
83. Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is-
a) Preterm birth
b) Hemolytic disease of newborn
c) Birth injury and difficult labour
d) Congenital anomalies
84. IMA guidelines on period of viability-
a) Born > 28 weeks POG
b) > 1000 grams at the time of birth
c) Born 24-28 weeks POG
d) Both a and b
85. Underweight includes-
a) Acute malnutrition
b) Chronic malnutrition
c) Both a and b
d) None
86. Energy content of breast milk
a) 65 Kcal/100 ml
b) 75 Kcal/100 ml
c) 85 Kcal/100 ml
d) 95 Kcal/100 ml
87. Fat content of milk-
a) Buffalo>Goat>Cow>Human
b) Goat>Buffalo>Human>Cow
c) Human>Goat>Cow>Buffalo
d) Cow>Human>Goat>Buffalo
88. Gomez classification of malnutrition is based on-
a) Height for age
b) Weight for age
c) Weight for height
d) Both a and b
89. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
a) Single most sensitive measure of growth is weight.
b) Body weight is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to height
c) Weight reflects only present health status
d) Height indicates events in past also
90. Minimum expected weight gain of child per month is-
a) 300 grams
b) 400 grams
c) 500 grams
d) 600 grams
91. Growth chart provides information on-
a) Birth date and birth weight
b) Immunization procedures
 c) History of sibling health
d) All of the above
92. School health exam recommended under NRHM-
a) Once every 5 months
b) Once every 6 months
c) Once every 12 months
d) Once every 18 months
93. Flattening of a child’s plot indicates-
a) Malnutrition
b) Underweight
c) Stunting
d) Wasting
94. Regarding interpretation of plot of weight on GOI recommended growth chart, which
statement is correct-
a) Between 70% and 60% lines: 1st degree or Mild malnutrition
b) Between 70% and 60% lines: 2nd degree or Moderate malnutrition
c) Between 60% and 50% lines: 2nd degree or Moderate malnutrition
d) None of the above
95. Most common neonatal disorder screened is-

a) Neonatal hypothyroidism
b) Sickle cell anaemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Congenital dislocation of hip
96. Most common health disorder among Indian geriatrics-
a) Cataract
b) Cardiovascular disorders
c) Neurological disorders
d) Gastrointestinal disorders
97. Birth defects in Indian newborns are seen in
a) 2.5%
b) 3.5%
c) 4.5%
d) 5.5%
98. Percentage of geriatric population among Indian population-
a) 7.1%
b) 8.1%
c) 9.1%
d) 10.1%
99. Most common indirect cause of Maternal mortality-
a) Anaemia
b) Increasing age
c) Higher parity
d) None of the above
100. Innocenti Declaration is for promotion of-
a) Institutional deliveries
b) Sterilization methods
c) Breast feeding
d) Immunization
101. What is/are the factors responsible for emerging of infections?
 a. International travel and commerce
b. Changes in human demographics and behaviours
c. Microbial adaptation and transformation
d. All of the above
102. High risk of cardiovascular (fatal and non-fatal event) as per WHO or ISH
chart is
a. <10 %
b. 10 to <20 %
c. 20 to <30 %
d. ≥30 %
103. Recent community project by ICMR on control of RF and RHD is
a. NPCDCS
b. Jai Vigyan Mission Mode
c. RBSK
d. Jai Bharat Mission
104. Haddon Matrix is used for
a. Mosquito
b. Injury
c. Hookworm
d. Sex ratio
105. WHO definition for blindness is visual acuity less than
a. 1/60
b. 3/60
c. 6/60
d. 6/18
106. Mild COPD according to GOLD criteria is
a. >80% of predicted FEV1
b.50-80 % of predicted FEV1
c.30-50 % of predicted FEV1
d. <30 % of predicted FEV1
107. What is global agenda to reduce premature mortality from NCDs by
a. 1/3 by 2030
b. 2/3 by 2030
c. 1/2 by 2030
d. 1/4 by 2030
108. All are methods of Breast cancer screening except
a. Clinical breast examination
b. Mammography
c. Waist circumference
d. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic testing
109. Prevention Paradox was given by
a. Muller
b. Geoffrey Rose
c. Joe McLaughlin
d. Dr. Periago
110. Confirmed clinical case has been reported from India for
a. Yellow fever
b. Marburg fever
c. Hanta fever
d. Crimean Congo fever
 111. Tracking of BP implies
a. BP increase with age
b. BP decrease with age
c. BP of hypotensive remain hypotensive
d. BP of hypotensive become hypertensive
112. Modifiable risk factor in coronary artery disease are all except
a. Personality
b. Obesity
c. Smoking
d. Hypertension
113. Best known large sample study programme for coronary heart disease is
a. Stanford study
b. North Kerelia study
c. Oxford study
d. Framingham study
114. Inability to perform any work without discomfort is
a. NYHA 1
b. NYHA 2
c. NYHA 3
d. NYHA 4
115. Which of the following is maximally associated with coronary heart disease
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons
116. Prevalence of CHD is reduced by all except
a. Increased complex carbohydrates
b. Saturated fats <10% of total energy intake
c. Reduce fat to 20-30% of total energy intake
d. Salt intake <5gms/day
117. Most common cause of blindness due to easily preventable cause in children
a. Diabetes
b. VitA deficiency
c. Cataract
d. Trachoma
118. If Blindness is surveyed using Population Surveys, the estimation of prevalence of
blindness will have
a. Overestimation
b. Underestimation
c. Remains same
d. None of the above
119. Which is cut-off level of Waist-Hip Ratio in women indicating abdominal fat
accumulation
a. 0.75
b. 0.85
c. 0.95
d. 1.05
120. Maximum relative risk attributed by obesity to which condition
a. Hypertension
b. CHD
 c. DM
d. Cancer
121. Height is not included in which index of obesity
a. BMI
b. Ponderal’s index
c. Corpulence index
d. Broca’s index
122. Disease not included in Vision 2020, India is
a. Cataract
b. Glaucoma
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Onchocerciasis
123. “Field carcinogenis” is seen in
a. Head and neck carcinoma
b. Colon cancer
c. Breast cancer
d. Brain tumour
124. Which of the following is not a goal of population based cancer registry
a. Cancer prevention
b. Determination of cancer rates and trends
c. Administrative information
d. Patterns of care and outcome
125. Highest increase in survival rate is seen after screening of
a. Carcinoma cervix
b. Carcinoma colon
c. Carcinoma breast
d. Carcinoma lungs
126. Space spraying is used as a method of bringing down rapid control of vector in?
a. Emergency
b. Epidemic
c. Seasonal control of flying insects
d. All
127. Which of the following is a chitin synthesis inhibitor?
a. Imidacloprid
b. Fenoxycarb
c. Novaluron
d. Cyfluthrin
128. The commonest type of equipment used in National Vector Borne Disease
Control Program?
a. Power operated sprayer
b. Hand aprayer
c. Knapsack sprayer
 d. Compression pneumatic sprayer
129. In case wet bulb and dry bulb thermometers show similar readings, then it
means?
[Link] velocity is low
[Link] is high
[Link] is completely saturated with moisture
d. Ambient temperature is high

130. Ratio of amount of water vapor actually present in air as percentage of maximum
possible moisture?
a. Absolute humidity
b. Dew point
c. Vapor pressure
d. Relative humidity
131. Sling psychrometer measures?
a. Air temperature
b. Precipitation
c. Atmospheric humidity
d. Wind velocity
132. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ……..percent confidence interval?
a.99%
b.95%
c.50%
d. None of the above
133. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ………..error occurs?
A. Type 1
B. Type A
C. Type 2
D. Type B
134. Twenty five children are chosen randomly from a school playground. Their heights are
measured when they first come into the school next morning and again just before they go
home that same evening. what statistical test could be used to test the hypothesis that their
morning heights are no different from their evening heights?
a. Unpaired t-test
 b. Paired t- test
c. Z test
d. Regression
135. If mean =40 and median =36,estimate the mode using appropriate formula?
a. 29
b. 27
c. 26
d. 28
136. The mean of a distribution is 14 and the standard deviation is 5. What is the value of
coefficient of variation?
a. 60.4%
b. 48.3%
c. 35.7%
d. 27.8%
137. If we ask the patient attending OPD to evaluate his pain on a scale 0(no pain) to 5(the
worst pain), then commonly applied scale is?
a. Dichotomous
b. Ratio scale
c. Continuous
d. Nominal
138. What type of graph is used when you want to visually examine the relationship between
two quantitative variables?
a. Bar graphs
b. Pie graphs
c. Line graphs
d. Scatter plots
139. Breteau index is defined as?
a. Number of aedes mosquito per man hour
b. Number of Aedes larva/container
c. Number of container with Aedes larva/ number of houses checked
d. Number of Aedes mosquitoes within 400 meters of an area
140. Bacteriological indicators of water contamination are all except ?
a. E. coli
 b. Streptococcus faecalis
c. Cl. Perfringens
d. Salmonella typhi
141. All are true about bleaching powder except?
a. Has 33% availaible chlorine
b. Is a stable compound
c. Has rapid and brief action
d. Is used for disinfection of wells
142. Which engineered water purification system is the most effective for elimination of
cryptosporidium parvum?
a. Flocculation
b. Disinfection
c. Boiling
d. Filtration
143. Oxidation pond is a method used for?
a. Solid waste disposal
b. Sewage treatment
c. Water purification
d. Sullage disposal
144. Dry weather flow is
a. The average humidity recorded on a peak summer day
b. Minimum rainfall measured during peak rainy season
c. The average amount of sewage that flows through the sewerage system in 24
hrs
d. Average maximum and minimum temperature in a given year
145. Soiling index is a measure of
a. Soil pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. Air pollution
146. Permutit water softner is suitable for removal of?
a. Hardness of water
b. Microorganisms from water
 c. Dissolved organic solvents
d. Dissolved inorganic solvents
147. Zero hardness of water can be achieved by?
a. Base exchange process
b. Sodium carbonate addition
c. Lime addition
d. Boiling
148. WHO recommends the following system of water distribution?
a. Intermittent and low pressure
b. Intermittent and high pressure
c. Continuous and low pressure
d. Continuous high pressure
149. Urban malaria is transmitted by?
a. Anopheles culicifacies
b. Anopheles stephensi
c. Anopheles fluviatilis
d. Anopheles minimus
150. All of the following have a common vector except
a. Dengue fever
b. Yellow fever
c. Kala azar
d. JE
151. Which year is known as year of big divide?
a. 1921
b. 1941
c. 1951
d. 1962
152. Demographic gap attains it maximum limit in?
a. Early stage I
b. Late stage II
c. Late stage III
d. Early stage IV
153. A child born to an Indian couple outside India. Birth registration must be done:
a. Within 21 days
b. Within 21 days of arrival to India
c. Within 60 days
d. Within 60 days arrival to India
154. Which of the area will not be called as an urban area?
a. Places with municipalites
b. Places with town area committee
c. A mimmum of 10,000 population
d. At least 75% of male working in non-agricultural pursuit
155. Which of the following step is not a part of SRS?
a. Base line survey
b. Continuous enumeration
c. Half yearly survey
d. Verification
156. Opinion of how many service provider of MTP is required in gestation of upto 20
weeks?
a. One
b. Two
c. None, on the will of patient
d. More than one
157. Pearl index of 10 per HWY for contraceptive C in a population. An average woman in
this population is expected to have how many accidental pregnancies in her reproductive
life span?
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3.5
d. 4.5
158. In CuT 380 A, 380 represents;
a. No of turns of copper wire
b. Surface area of CuT in sq-mm
c. Surface area of Cu in sq-mm
d. Effective life of Cu-T in quarters
159. Characteristic of an ideal candidate for copper T insertion include all except:
a. Has born at least one child
b. Is willing to check IUD tail
c. Has a history of ectopic pregnancy
d. Has normal menstrual period
160. All are true about Centchromane except:
a. It is non- steroidal contraceptive
b. It has been developed in India
c. It is useful for women with cervical hyperplasia
d. Failure rate of centchromane is 1.83-2.84 per HWY
161. A woman on combines OCPs forgot taking them on 2 successive. Next line of
management is:
a. Continue taking pill next day
b. Take 3 pill next day
c. Shift to barrier method of contraception
d. Take 2 pill each for rest of the cycle
162. True about post partum iud insertion
a. Should be done within 10 mins of birth.
b. Can be done only during vaginal delivery
c. Within 2 weeks of birth
d. After 6 weeks of birth
163. Community X has 30% below 15 years of age and 10% over 65 years of age.
 Dependency ratio of community is
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 66.6%
d. 3%
164. Mechanism of IUCD all except
a. Increase cervical mucus
b. Local foreign body reaction
c. Decrease diameter of fallopian tube
d. Make endometrium unfavourable for implantation
165. DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given every
a. three weeks
b. two months
c. three months
d. two years
166. If a women was taking OCPs, then which of the following investigation would be
related to the long term consumption of steroidal contraceptives?
1. Liver function test
2. Cervical pap smear
3. Wet smear of vaginal secretions for monolial
4. Endometrial biopsy
a. 2,3,4
b. 1,3,4
c. 1,2,4
d. 1,2,3
167. National population policy of India has set out following goals
a. To bring down TFR to replacement level by 2015
b. To reduce the IMR to 30 per 1000 live birth
c. To reduce MMR TO 100 per 100,000 live birth
d. 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages and pregnancies
168. Contraceptive option for a 28 year old women who is breast feeding a 6 week old baby,
wanting to avoid pregnancy for a longer interval are the following except
a. LNG-20
b. IUD-380A
c. Implanon
d. Combined OCPs
169. Average number of girls that would be born to a woman if she experiences the current
fertility pattern throughout her reproductive span assuming no mortality is known as
a. General fertility rate
b. Total fertility rate
c. Gross reproduction rate
d. Net reproduction rate
170. What is the denominator used in the calculation of crude literacy rate
a. Total mid-year population
b. Population age 7 years or more
c. School going population
d. Population age 18 years and above
171. Which of the following colour coded bins blood bags are disposed off ?
a. Red
b. Yellow
 c. Blue
d. White
172. Hospital waste product accounts(multiple choice)
a. Paper 40%
b. Plastic 10%
c. Infectious waste 30%
d. Rage 30%
e. Glass 4%
173. Safe disposal of mercury
a. Collect carefully and recycle
b. Controlled combustion
c. Treatment with chemicals
d. Deep burial
174. District with >1% ANC/PTCT prevalence at any time in any of the sites in the last 3
years, is which category under NACP IV?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
175. Biomedical waste management rule does not apply to except:
a. Radioactive wastes
b. Municipal solid wastes
c. e-waste
d. Metallic body implants
176. Right to life is under which article of our constitution?
a. 11
b. 21
c. 23
d. 25
177. AYUSH ministry was set up in 2014, for education and research in
a. Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy
b. Unani and Siddha
c. Homeopathy
d. All
178. PERT is
a. The longest path of the network
b. An arrow diagram which represents the logical sequence in which events must
take place
c. Helps decision makers to allocate resources so that they are used in the most effective way
d. Systamatic observation and recording of activities of one or more individuals carried out at
random or predetermined intervals
179. "Critical path" in network anaysis is
a. Most expensive path in a network
b. Congested path in a network
c. Shortest path in a network
d. Longest path in a network
180. ABC and VED analysis in management applies to
a. Inventory management
 b. Personal management
c. Emergency services management
d. Human resource management
181. A 3 years graduate MBBS programme was suggested by
a. Sundat committee
b. Srivastava committee
c. Expert level committee on universal health coverage
d. Krishnan committee
182. False regarding anganwadi workers is
a. Training for 4 months
b. Under ICDS scheme
c. Gets rs 1500/- pm
d. Full-time worker
183. Rashtriya swasthya bima yojana. all are true except
a. Applicable for BPL only
b. Entitled for 3000/-rupees
c. Pay and Reimbursement follows
d. Is a type of employment scheme
184. Mega city is with population of
a. 1 L - 5L
b. 5L - 1 Million
c. >1 Million - 4.5 Million
d. >4.5 Million
185. PHC's are avilable for providing community based health care services. The quality assurance and
resources management is done by
a. WHO external monitoring committee
b. NGO's involvement
c. IPHS
d. NABH
186. AIIMS New Delhi was established by which health agency
a. MoHFW
b. SIDA
c. UNICEF
d. The Colombo Plan
187. Regarding functions of ASHA, all are true EXCEPT
a. Malaria slide preparation
b. Facilitate immunisation
c. Accompany pregnant females to hospital
d. Spread awareness anout contraception
188. In IDSP, lab report of a disease sent as "L form" is
a. Syndromic diagnosis
b. Confirmed
c. Presumptive
d. Active surveillance
189. Number of female health workers proposed at subcenter as per revised IPHS guidelines 2012 is
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. None
190. Principles of Primary Health Care includes all except
 a. Intersectoral cordination
b. Appropriate technology
c. Mainly co-ordinated by doctors
d. Community participation
191. Planning cycle includes
a. Analysis of situation
b. Evaluation
c. Resource assesment
d. All
192. In Health management, cost benefit analysis is an example of
a. Critical path method
b. Programme evaluation and review technique
c. Management by objectives
d. Total quality management
193. Universal health coverage of india was recently apporved by which health committee
a. Medical education health group
b. MPW in health and family planning
c. High level expert group
d. Health development and survey group
194. Which is correct about Kartar singh committee
a. No private practice
b. Multi-purpose worker scheme
c. ROME scheme
d. Equal pay for equal work
195. Selection criteria for ASHA are all except
a. Women
b. Resident of village
c. Education upto class five
d. Literate
196. WHO theme for the year 2019 is
a. Shape the future of life
b. Road safety means no traffic accidents
c. Every mother and child counts
d. Universal health coverage
197. Which of the following diseases are includes under IHR by WHO?
a. Yellow fever, Measles and Chicken pox
b. Yellow fever and cholera
c. Cholera, Rabies, Dengue
d. Malaria, Influenza and Dengue
198. According to IHR act, a pregnant women, with the following duration of pregnancy (in weeks), cannot
travel by air to other country
a. 20
b. 28
c. 32
d. 36

199. Match the following

LIST-I
A. SIDA
B. DANIDA
C. Ford Foundation
D. CARE
LIST-II
1. Mid-day meal programme
2. Family Planning Programme
3. National TB Control Programme
4. National Leprosy control Programme
5. National Blindness Control Programme
a. A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1
b. A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2
c. A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2
d. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
200. Yellow fever certificate is valid for
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 15 years
d. Life long