Physics

Question 1 (Multichoice)

Two masses m1 and m2 are d distance apart, where m1 > m2. The centre of mass
of the system will

1. a. Lie at a distanced2fromm1
2. b. Be closer tom2
3. c. Be closer tom1
4. d. Lie at distancedfromm2
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Question 2 (Multichoice)

The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular ring of mass M and

radius R about an axis perpendicular to plane of the ring and passing through its
centre is

1. a.MR2
2. b.MR22
3. c. 2MR2
4. d.34MR2
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Question 3 (Multichoice)

A particle is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Its angular momentum about
centre of the circle is constant due to

1. a. Constant non-zero torque

2. b. Constant force
3. c. Constant linear momentum
4. d. Zero torque
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Question 4 (Multichoice)

An artificial satellite is revolving around earth in an elliptical orbital. Its

1. a. Kinetic energy is constant

 2. b. Potential energy is constant
3. c. Total energy is constant
4. d. All of these
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Question 5 (Multichoice)

Time period of a simple pendulum is given by T=2πlg in a lab, where l is length

and g is acceleration due to gravity. If this pendulum is taken in a satellite
revolving around earth, its time period

1. a. Will become half

2. b. Will become twice
3. c. Will remain unchanged
4. d. Will become infinite
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Question 6 (Multichoice)

The escape speed (ve) of an object of mass m from the surface of earth of
mass M and radius R is such that

1. [Link]∝m
2. [Link]∝m
3. [Link]∝M
4. [Link]∝M
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Question 7 (Multichoice)

Time period of revolution of a satellite around a planet is 4 hours. If the radius of

orbit of the satellite is increased to 4 times of its previous value, the new time
period of revolution will be

1. a. 8 hours
2. b. 16 hours
3. c. 32 hours
4. d. 64 hours
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Question 8 (Multichoice)
A body is floating in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system shown in
figure falls with acceleration a (a < g). The buoyant force on the body will

1. a. Decrease
2. b. Increase
3. c. Remain unchanged
4. d. May increase or decrease
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Question 9 (Multichoice)

Work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from 2 cm to 4 cm is nearly

(surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N m–1)

1. a. 0.3π mJ
2. b. 0.6π mJ
3. c. 1.2π mJ
4. d. 12π mJ
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Question 10 (Multichoice)

The Young’s modulus of a wire of length L and area of cross-section A is ‘Y’. If

the length of wire is stretched to 2L and area is reduced to A2, then its Young’s
modulus will

1. a. BeY2
2. b. Be 2Y
3. c. RemainY
4. d. Be 4Y
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Question 11 (Multichoice)

The Bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected to a uniform

pressure P from all sides, the fractional decrease in its area will be
 1. [Link]
2. b.P2B
3. c.P3B
4. d.23PB
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Question 12 (Multichoice)

Four wires P, Q, R and S are made of same material and same length with
different radii. The graphs in the figure shows the elongation-load variation. The
thinnest wire is

1. a.P
2. b.Q
3. c.R
4. d.S
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Question 13 (Multichoice)

Two identical particles are moving with speed v and 3v in perpendicular

directions. The speed of their centre of mass is

1. a. 2v
2. b.v
3. c.3v2
4. d.23v
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Question 14 (Multichoice)

A thin uniform rod of mass m and length l is swinging freely about a horizontal
axis passing through its one end. When it is at bottom-most position as shown in
figure its angular velocity is ω. If centre of mass of the rod can rise to a
maximum height l4 from this position, then ω is
 1. a.3gl
2. b.32gl
3. c.23gl
4. d.123gl
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Question 15 (Multichoice)

A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane. An insect is at rest at the centre of the disc
initially. The insect then moves along a radius to reach the rim of the disc. During
the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc

1. a. Continuously decreases
2. b. Continuously increases
3. c. First increases and then decreases
4. d. Remains unchanged
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Question 16 (Multichoice)

Moment of inertia of uniform rod about an axis passing through mid-point and
perpendicular to rod is 2400 kg m2. The moment of inertia about an axis passing
through one of its ends and perpendicular to the rod is

1. a. 600 kg m2
2. b. 1200 kg m2
3. c. 4800 kg m2
4. d. 9600 kg m2
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Question 17 (Multichoice)
A disc is rotating about its axis as shown in the figure below. Its angular speed is
ω. If M is the mass of disc and R is its radius, then kinetic energy of rotation of
the disc is

1. a.MR2ω22
2. b.MR2ω24
3. c.32MR2ω2
4. d.MR2ω2
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Question 18 (Multichoice)

Statement-I: Under the action of a constant couple, angular acceleration of a rod

is constant.
Statement-II: Under the action of a couple, acceleration of centre of mass of a rod
is zero.
Select the correct option.

1. a. Both statements I and II are correct

2. b. Both statements I and II are incorrect
3. c. Only statement I is correct
4. d. Only statement II is correct
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Question 19 (Multichoice)

A rigid body is rotating about a fixed axis with angular velocity ω. Its moment of
inertia is I and kinetic energy is K. Its angular momentum about the same axis is

1. a.2KI
2. b.2Kω
3. c. 2Kω
4. d. Both (1) and (2)
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Question 20 (Multichoice)
If g is the gravitational field intensity on the surface of earth, then value of
gravitational field intensity at a height R2 (R is the radius of earth) above the
earth’s surface is

1. a.g2
2. b.29g
3. c.49g
4. d.47g
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Question 21 (Multichoice)

A satellite is revolving around earth at height R above the earth’s surface. If M is

the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth and m is the mass of the satellite, then
its total energy is

1. a.−GMm2R
2. b.−GMm4R
3. c.−GMmR
4. d.−3GMm4R
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Question 22 (Multichoice)

A smooth tunnel is dug along the diameter of earth and a particle is released
from the surface in the tunnel. If M is the mass of earth and R is its radius, then
velocity of the particle at the centre is

1. [Link]
2. b.GM2R
3. c.GM3R
4. d.2GM3R
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Question 23 (Multichoice)

The gravitational force between two masses M1 and M2 is F when placed

distance d apart. If both the masses are doubled and the distance between them
is reduced to half, the force between them

1. a. Becomes 4F
2. b. Becomes 8F
 3. c. Remains same
4. d. Becomes 16F
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Question 24 (Multichoice)

The gravitational field of earth is

a. Zero at centre
b. Zero at infinite distance from centre of earth
c. Maximum at surface
The correct statement(s) is/are

1. a. a only
2. b. a and b only
3. c. a and c only
4. d. All a, b and c
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Question 25 (Multichoice)

The area of cross-section of the wider tube shown in the figure is 400 cm2. If a
mass of 20 kg is placed on the massless piston, then the difference in height h of
the level of water in the two tubes will be

1. a. 20 cm
2. b. 50 cm
3. c. 25 cm
4. d. 10 cm
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Question 26 (Multichoice)

A cylindrical tube of spray pump has radius 5 cm, one end of which has 20 fine
holes of radius 1 mm. If the speed of liquid in the tube is 0.5 cm s–1, then speed of
water jet through the holes will be
 1. a. 33.3 cm s–1
2. b. 37.5 cm s–1
3. c. 42.5 cm s–1
4. d. 62.5 cm s–1
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Question 27 (Multichoice)

Equal volumes of water and a liquid of relative density 2 are mixed together, then
the mixture has the density of

1. a.23g cm−3
2. b.32g cm−3
3. c.43g cm−3
4. d.34g cm−3
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Question 28 (Multichoice)

A cubical block of mass 100 kg and density 600 kg m–3 floats in water. The
volume of block outside water is

1. a.16m3
2. b.14m3
3. c.115m3
4. d.124m3
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Question 29 (Multichoice)

Which of the following quantities does not have the unit of force per unit area?

1. a. Young’s modulus
2. b. Bulk modulus
3. c. Breaking stress
4. d. Longitudinal strain
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Question 30 (Multichoice)
The strain-stress graph for wires A and B are as shown in the figure.
If YA and YB are the Young’s moduli of the materials, then

1. a. 2YA=YB
2. [Link]=YB
3. [Link]= 3YB
4. d. 3YA=YB
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Question 31 (Multichoice)

A wire can bear a maximum force F. Another wire of same material but twice the
radius can bear the maximum force of

1. a.F
2. b. 2F
3. c. 4F
4. d. 8F
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Question 32 (Multichoice)

A planet P has density ρ and radius r and another planet Q has density 2ρ and
radius r2. The ratio of gravitational field intensities on their surfaces is

1. a. 1 : 1
2. b. 1 : 2
3. c. 1 : 4
4. d. 1 : 8
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Question 33 (Multichoice)

Gravitational potential of a uniform spherical shell of mass M and radius R on the

surface is V. The potential at a distance R2 from the centre of shell is
 1. a.V2
2. b.V4
3. c.V
4. d. 2V
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Question 34 (Multichoice)

Two masses m and 2m are held at distance d apart. When they are released, they
move toward each other and collide. The distance moved by mass m just before
collision is

1. a.d3
2. b.d2
3. c.34d
4. d.23d
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Question 35 (Multichoice)

A uniform square sheet of side L is placed in xy plane with its centre at origin.
Now a square section of size L4 is removed from the sheet as shown. The point
which is more likely to be COM of remaining sheet is

1. a.A
2. b.B
3. c.C
4. d.D
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Question 36 (Multichoice)
A body of mass m is projected vertically upward with speed GMR from the
surface of earth. If M is the mass of earth and R is its radius, then maximum
height attained by the body above earth’s surface is

1. a. 2R
2. b.R
3. c.R2
4. d.R4
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Question 37 (Multichoice)

Moment of inertia of a uniform disc of mass M and radius R about an axis

passing through its rim and perpendicular to the plane of the disc as shown
is MK2, where K is

1. a.32R
2. b.52R
3. c.3R2
4. d.5R2
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Question 38 (Multichoice)

Four point masses each of value m, are fixed at the corners of a square ABCD of
side l. The moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through A and
perpendicular to plane of the square is

1. a. 2ml2
2. b. 3ml2
3. c. 4ml2
 4. d. 5ml2
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Question 39 (Multichoice)

A particle of mass m is moving in x-y plane with constant velocity v as shown. Its
angular momentum about the origin

1. a. Remains constant
2. b. Must increases
3. c. Must decreases
4. d. May increase or decrease
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Question 40 (Multichoice)

A uniform rod of mass M and length L is balanced using two supports (A and B)
as shown. The normal reaction at B is

1. a.Mg3
2. b.Mg2
3. c.2Mg3
4. d.Mg4
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Question 41 (Multichoice)

If M is the mass of earth and R is its radius, then match column I with column II.
 Column I Column II
A. Gravitational field at distance r from center, where r < R (P) GMR21−rR
B. Gravitation field at distance r from centre, where r > R (Q) GMR21−2rR
C. Gravitational field at height r above earth surface, where r << R (R) GMR3r
D. Gravitational field at depth r from surface of the earth (S) GMr2

1. a. A(S), B(R), C(Q), D(P)

2. b. A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P)
3. c. A(R), B(S), C(P), D(Q)
4. d. A(S), B(R), C(P), D(Q)
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Question 42 (Multichoice)

The correct expression for viscous drag acting on a metal sphere of diameter d,
falling through a fluid of viscosity η with a velocity v will be

1. a. 6πηdv
2. b. 3πηdv
3. c.3πηdv2
4. d. 4πηdv
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Question 43 (Multichoice)

Which of the following is/are Kepler’s laws?

1. a. Law of orbit
2. b. Law of areas
3. c. Law of continuity
4. d. Both (1) and (2)
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Question 44 (Multichoice)

Two particles each of mass m are distance d apart. The minimum work which
should be done to increase the distance between them to 2d will be

1. a.Gm2d
2. b.Gm22d
3. c.3Gm22d
 4. d.2Gm2d
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Question 45 (Multichoice)

A uniform rod of length L has mass M. If the area of cross-section is A and

Young’s modulus of rod is Y, then elongation in rod due to its own weight will be

1. [Link]
2. b.MgL3AY
3. c.MgL2AY
4. d.2MgLAY
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Question 46 (Multichoice)

The correct dimensional formula for compressibility will be

1. a. [MLT–2]
2. b. [M–1L1T2]
3. c. [ML–1T–2]
4. d. [ML2T2]
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Question 47 (Multichoice)

A drum is placed on the floor and it is filled with a liquid of almost no viscosity
up to a height 4 m. A small opening is made at height 2 m from the base. The
liquid jet strikes the floor at a distance x from the wall of the drum, then x is
equal to

1. a. 4 m
2. b. 6 m
 3. c. 8 m
4. d.40 m
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Question 48 (Multichoice)

A long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises to a height of 10 cm in it.
If the entire arrangement is put in a lift which is accelerating upward with an
acceleration 2 m s–2, then height of liquid column in the capillary

1. a. Will be less than 10 cm

2. b. Will be greater than 10 cm
3. c. Will become 20 cm
4. d. Will become zero
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Question 49 (Multichoice)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): If no external force acts on a system of particles, the centre of
mass will move with constant velocity or remain at rest.
Reason (R): Acceleration of centre of mass of system depends on external forces
only.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

1. a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. c. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. d. Both (A) and (R) are false
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Question 50 (Multichoice)

Choose the incorrect statement about gravitational force.

1. a. It forms action-reaction pair

2. b. It is a central force
3. c. It does not depend upon the nature of medium between the masses
4. d. It is a non-conservative force
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Chemistry
Question 51 (Multichoice)

In which of the following reactions KP and KC will be equal?

1. a. 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)

2. b. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
3. c. H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)
4. d. 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)
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Question 52 (Multichoice)

Number of H+ ions present in 1 mL aqueous HNO3 solution with pH = 2.7 is

[Given, 10–2.7 = 2 × 10–3]

1. a. 1.204 × 1021
2. b. 1.204 × 1018
3. c. 2.4 × 1019
4. d. 6.02 × 1020
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Question 53 (Multichoice)

If Kw of pure water at T°C is 10–13 then its pH will be

1. a. 7
2. b. 8
3. c. 7.5
4. d. 6.5
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Question 54 (Multichoice)

Consider the following graphs between concentration of reactant (R) and product
(P) v/s time
Which of the above graphs is/are correctly represented?

1. a. (ii) only
2. b. (i) & (ii) only
3. c. (i), (ii) & (iii)
4. d. (i) & (iii) only
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Question 55 (Multichoice)

If equilibrium constant KC for reaction,

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) is 9, then what will be equilibrium constant for following
reaction at same temperature?
SO3g⇌SO2g+12O2(g)

1. a. 3
2. b.13
3. c. 27
4. d.13
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Question 56 (Multichoice)

If equal volumes of two acids, with pH 2 and 3 respectively are mixed, then pH of
resultant solution will nearly be

1. a. 5
2. b. 1
3. c. 2.5
 4. d. 2.26
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Question 57 (Multichoice)

Which of the following will form a buffer solution?

1. a. 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL 0.1 M NaOH

2. b. 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL 0.1 M NaOH
3. c. 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH + 150 mL 0.1 M NaOH
4. d. 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH + 200 mL 0.1 M NaOH
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Question 58 (Multichoice)

Find out pH of a solution that is formed after mixing 100 mL, 0.2 M CH3COOH with
100 mL, 0.05 M NaOH KaCH3COOH=1.8×10−5

1. a. 4.28
2. b. 5.23
3. c. 4.76
4. d. 2.53
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Question 59 (Multichoice)

In which of the following solutions, solubility of BaSO4 will be maximum?

1. a. 0.1 M BaCl2
2. b. 0.1 M Na2SO4
3. c. 0.1 M NaCl
4. d. 0.01 M H2SO4
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Question 60 (Multichoice)

Work done for reversible expansion of 2 mol ideal gas from 100 mL to 1 L at
constant 27°C temperature will be,

1. a. –2.76 cal
2. b. –2.76 kcal
 3. c. +2.76 kcal
4. d. +2.76 cal
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Question 61 (Multichoice)

Given below are two statements.

Statement I: Reversible adiabatic processes are isoentropic in nature.
Statement II: Work done on the system during isothermal reversible process is
stored as the internal energy of system.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

1. a. Statement I is true and statement II is false

2. b. Both statement I and statement II are true
3. c. Statement I is false and statement II is true
4. d. Both statement I and statement II are false
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Question 62 (Multichoice)

Match the processes in column I with quantitative value in column II for ideal
gas:

Column I Column II
a. Isothermal (i) q = ΔH
b. Isobaric (ii) q = ΔU
c. Adiabatic (iii) w = ΔU
d. Isochoric (iv) q = –w

Choose the correct answer.

1. a. a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

2. b. a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
3. c. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
4. d. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
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Question 63 (Multichoice)

If enthalpy of combustion for glucose is –2802 kJ/mol then amount of heat

released on combustion of 6 g glucose will be
 1. a. 2802 kJ
2. b. 93.4 kJ
3. c. 934 kJ
4. d. 280.2 kJ
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Question 64 (Multichoice)

Equilibrium constant for a reaction with standard Gibbs free energy of –9.2 kcal
at 127°C will be

1. a. 1010
2. b. 105
3. c. 50
4. d. 500
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Question 65 (Multichoice)

If 2 A current is passed through 1 L brine solution for 965 second then which of
the following is incorrect?

1. a. Total mole of gas evolved is 0.02

2. b. pH solution after electrolysis is 12.3
3. c. Total volume of gases evolved at STP = 0.224 L
4. d. Reduction of water will take place at cathode
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Question 66 (Multichoice)

Number of Faradays required to reduce 0.1 mol nitrobenzene to aniline will be,

1. a. 0.3 F
2. b. 0.9 F
3. c. 0.6 F
4. d. 0.1 F
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Question 67 (Multichoice)

Which among the following is true for adiabatic free expansion of an ideal gas?
 1. a. w < 0
2. b. q > 0
3. c. ΔStotal> 0
4. d. ΔU < 0
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Question 68 (Multichoice)

Choose the correct statement(s) among the following

a. If Qsp > Ksp then precipitation will take place.
b. Ice melts faster at high pressure.
c. For a sparingly soluble salt solubility is less than 0.01 M.

1. a. (a) & (b) only

2. b. (b) & (c) only
3. c. (a) & (c) only
4. d. (a), (b) & (c)
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Question 69 (Multichoice)

During reversible adiabatic expansion,

1. a. Entropy of system increases

2. b. Enthalpy of system increases
3. c. Temperature decreases
4. d. Internal energy remains constant
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Question 70 (Multichoice)

Which among the following is not a redox reaction?

1. a. PCl5(g)→ PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g)

2. b. CaCO3(s)→ CaO(s)+ CO2(g)
3. c. 2H2(g)+ O2(g)→ 2H2O(g)
4. d. 2HI(g)→ H2(g)+ I2(g)
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Question 71 (Multichoice)
Which among the following metals will not give ‘H2’ gas on reaction with dilute
H2SO4?

1. a. Na
2. b. Ca
3. c. Pt
4. d. Al
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Question 72 (Multichoice)

If heat at constant volume for combustion of CH4 at 127°C is –20 kJ then heat at
constant pressure will be,

1. a. –14 kJ
2. b. –20 kJ
3. c. –28 kJ
4. d. –12 kJ
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Question 73 (Multichoice)

Moles of acidic KMnO4 required to oxidise 0.1 mol of FeC2O4 are,

1. a. 0.1
2. b. 0.06
3. c. 0.5
4. d. 0.6
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Question 74 (Multichoice)

Consider the following processes

For A → C + D; ΔH will be

1. a. –50 kJ
2. b. +50 kJ
3. c. –350 kJ
 4. d. +350 kJ
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Question 75 (Multichoice)

Solubility of Ba(OH)2 in a solution with pH = 12 will be, {Ksp Ba(OH)2 = 10–12}

1. a. 10–6
2. b. 10–8
3. c. 10–10
4. d. 10–9
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Question 76 (Multichoice)

aBr2 + bNaOH → cNaBr + dNaBrO3 + eH2O.

Match the following according to above reaction.

Column I Column II
(i) a (P) 1
(ii) b (Q) 3
(iii) c (R) 6
(iv) d (S) 5

Correct answer is

1. a. (i) → (Q), (ii) → (R), (iii) → (S), (iv) → (P)

2. b. (i) → (Q), (ii) → (R), (iii) → (P), (iv) → (S)
3. c. (i) → (R), (ii) → (Q), (iii) → (S), (iv) → (P)
4. d. (i) → (R), (ii) → (Q), (iii) → (P), (iv) → (S)
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Question 77 (Multichoice)

From the statements given below, correct statement(s) for reversible process
is/are
(a) The process could, at any moment, be reversed by an infinitesimal change.
(b) It proceeds very fast.
(c) System and surroundings are always in near equilibrium with each other.

1. a. (a), (b) & (c)

2. b. (a) & (b) only
 3. c. (a) & (c) only
4. d. (a) only
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Question 78 (Multichoice)

Intensive property among the following is

1. a. Volume
2. b. Number of mole
3. c. Pressure
4. d. Surface area
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Question 79 (Multichoice)

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Oxidation state of terminal Br in Br3O8 is +7.
Statement II: Average oxidation number of Br in Br3O8 is +163
.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.

1. a. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

2. b. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. c. Both statement I and statement II are correct
4. d. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
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Question 80 (Multichoice)

Number of compounds among the following in which halogen is in negative

oxidation state is CsI3, NaBr, KClO4, Ca(OCl)2, O2F2

1. a. 2
2. b. 4
3. c. 5
4. d. 3
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Question 81 (Multichoice)
Disproportionation reaction among the following is,

1. a.KClO3→ΔKCl+32 O2
2. b. 2H2+ O2→ 2H2O
3. c. Cl2+ 2NaOH → NaOCl + NaCl + H2O
4. d. NaOH + HNO3→ NaNO3+ H2O
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Question 82 (Multichoice)

Standard reduction potential of three metals in order of

EA2+/A>EB2+/B>EC2+/C

Identify the correct statement among the following.

1. a. A is soluble in BSO4
2. b. C is soluble in A(NO3)2
3. c. C2+(aq) is strongest oxidising agent
4. d. B(s) + CSO4→ BSO4+ C(s) will have positive value of EMF
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Question 83 (Multichoice)

Which among the following will have maximum limiting molar conductivity?

1. a. Na+(aq)
2. b. K+(aq)
3. c. Mg2+(aq)
4. d. H+(aq)
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Question 84 (Multichoice)

Standard cell potential for a cell represented as

Cu(s)|Cu2+(0.01M)||Cu2+(0.001M)|Cu(s) will be

1. a. 0.029 V
2. b. – 0.029 V
3. c. 0.059 V
4. d. 0
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Question 85 (Multichoice)

Total volume of gas evolved at STP on electrolysis of 2 M CuSO4(aq) using Pt

electrodes by passing 1 F charge will be

1. a. 16.8 L
2. b. 5.6 L
3. c. 33.6 L
4. d. 44.8 L
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Question 86 (Multichoice)

For a cell involving two electrons, Ecell°=1.18 V at 298 K, the equilibrium

constant for cell reaction is

1. a. 1010
2. b. 1020
3. c. 1030
4. d. 1040
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Question 87 (Multichoice)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Electrode potential increases with increase in size of metal rod.
Reason (R): Electrode potential is intensive property.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:

1. a. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

2. b. A is true but R is false
3. c. A is false but R is true
4. d. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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Question 88 (Multichoice)

Most reactive metal in aqueous medium is

 1. a. Li
2. b. Na
3. c. Pb
4. d. Zn
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Question 89 (Multichoice)

The solubility of Hg2Cl2 in water is S mol L–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility
product Ksp will be

1. a. S2
2. b. 16S4
3. c. 27S4
4. d. 4S3
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Question 90 (Multichoice)

If 18 kg of aluminium is deposited on passing certain amount of electricity

through AlCl3 solution, then mass of silver deposited from AgNO3 by passing
equal amount of electricity will be (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u)

1. a. 108 kg
2. b. 216 kg
3. c. 54 kg
4. d. 162 kg
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Question 91 (Multichoice)

PCl5 is sealed in a container, and at equilibrium 40% of volume is occupied by

PCl5 at 5 atm equilibrium pressure then Kp of reaction will be

1. a. 2.25 atm
2. b. 4 atm
3. c. 1.125 atm
4. d. 4.5 atm
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Question 92 (Multichoice)
Oxidation state of Cr in K2CrO4 is

1. a. +5
2. b. +6
3. c. +4
4. d. +7
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Question 93 (Multichoice)

Conjugate acid and base respectively of H2PO4− are

1. a.PO43−, H3PO4
2. b.H3PO4,PO43−
3. c.H3PO4,HPO42−
4. d.HPO42−,H3PO4
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Question 94 (Multichoice)

Given below are two statements

Statement I: KC increases with increase in temperature for endothermic reaction.
Statement II: KC decreases with increase in temperature for exothermic reaction.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below

1. a. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

2. b. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. c. Both statement I and statement II are correct
4. d. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
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Question 95 (Multichoice)

For reaction
AB2(s) A(g) + 2B(g)
If Kp = 108, then total pressure at equilibrium state will be

1. a. 6 atm
2. b. 3 atm
3. c. 27 atm
 4. d. 9 atm
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Question 96 (Multichoice)

For a reaction ΔH = 20 kJ mol–1 and ΔS = 40 J mol–1 K–1 then equilibrium

temperature for reaction will be

1. a. 500°C
2. b. 1000°C
3. c. 227°C
4. d. 727°C
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Question 97 (Multichoice)

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Magnitude of work done in adiabatic expansion is more than work
done in isothermal expansion.
Statement II: If temperature of a crystalline solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K,
entropy increases.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below

1. a. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

2. b. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. c. Both statement I and statement II are correct
4. d. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
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Question 98 (Multichoice)

Which among the following acids will give maximum heat on complete
neutralisation with aqueous NaOH?

1. a. 1 mol HCl
2. b. 1 mol H2SO4
3. c. 1 mol CH3COOH
4. d. 1 mol HF
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Question 99 (Multichoice)

Given below are the two statements

Statement I: Species that loses electron is called reducing agent during a redox
reaction.
Statement II: Species that gains electron is called oxidising agent during a redox
reaction.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below

1. a. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

2. b. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. c. Both statement I and statement II are correct
4. d. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
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Question 100 (Multichoice)

Which among the following species cannot get disproportionated?

1. a. Cl2
2. b. MnO2
3. c. HOCl
4. d. H2S
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Botany
Question 101 (Multichoice)

Casparian strips are present in the endodermis of

1. a. Dicot stem
2. b. Dicot root
3. c. Monocot stem
4. d. Dicot leaf
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Question 102 (Multichoice)

The epidermis in a dorsiventral leaf

 1. a. Is not covered by cuticle
2. b. Covers both adaxial and abaxial surfaces
3. c. Is also known as epiblema
4. d. Lack living cells
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Question 103 (Multichoice)

Select the correct statement.

1. a. Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma in grasses.

2. b. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed in leaves.
3. c. The abaxial surface generally bear less stomata as compare to adaxial surface
in dorsiventral leaves.
4. d. The size of vascular bundles are independent of the size of veins in dicot leaf.
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Question 104 (Multichoice)

Match the following columns and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of the monocots
b. Sclereids (ii) Water transporting elements of xylem
c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Fruit walls of nuts
d. Tracheids (iv) Store food in form of starch or fat and other substances like tannins

1. a. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

2. b. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
3. c. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. d. a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
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Question 105 (Multichoice)

Read the following features (a-d) w.r.t. phloem fibres.

a. Chlorenchymatous in nature
b. Generally absent in the secondary phloem.
c. Elongated, unbranched and have pointed, needle like apices.
d. At maturity, these fibres lose their protoplasm and become dead.
The incorrect ones are
 1. a. a and b
2. b. a and c
3. c. c and d
4. d. b and d
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Question 106 (Multichoice)

A few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the guard cells become specialised in
their shape and size and are known as

1. a. Bundle sheath cells

2. b. Subsidiary cells
3. c. Trichomes
4. d. Bulliform cells
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Question 107 (Multichoice)

In dicot root, initiation of vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes
place in which cells?

1. a. Endodermis
2. b. Pericycle
3. c. Cortex
4. d. Epidermis
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Question 108 (Multichoice)

Read the following statements.

Statement A: Hypodermis consists of 3 to 5 layers of collenchymatous cells in
dicot stem.
Statement B: All tissues except epidermis constitute the ground tissue.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option.

1. a. Both statements are incorrect

2. b. Both statements are correct
3. c. Only statement A is correct
4. d. Only statement B is correct
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Question 109 (Multichoice)

Which of the following have endodermis that are rich in starch grains?

1. a. Dicot root
2. b. Monocot stem
3. c. Dicot stem
4. d. Monocot root
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Question 110 (Multichoice)

Outermost part of stele is

1. a. Vascular bundles
2. b. Pith
3. c. Pericycle
4. d. Endodermis
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Question 111 (Multichoice)

Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. guard cells of stomata.

1. a. In grasses, they are dumb-bell shaped.

2. b. They possess chloroplasts.
3. c. Regulate the opening and closing of stomata.
4. d. Outer walls are thick and inner walls are thin in monocots.
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Question 112 (Multichoice)

Read the given statements w.r.t. meristematic tissues.

A. The cells which are structurally and functionally specialised and lose the
ability to divide, are called meristems.
B. The meristems which occur at the tips of root and shoots contributes to the
formation of the primary plant body.
C. Lateral meristems are always secondary meristem.
D. There are specific regions of apical meristem that are responsible for
production of dermal tissues, ground tissues and vascular tissues.
In light of above statements choose the correct option.
 1. a. Only A and B
2. b. Only A, B and C
3. c. Only D
4. d. Only B and D
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Question 113 (Multichoice)

In the dicot roots the lateral roots originates from

1. a. Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle

2. b. Innermost region of the stele
3. c. Parenchymatous cells present next to endodermis
4. d. Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring
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Question 114 (Multichoice)

The permanent tissue that forms the major component within the various organs
of plants

1. a. Is thin-walled and performs the function of photosynthesis, storage and

secretion
2. b. Lacks intercellular space and provides mechanical support to the growing parts
of the plant
3. c. Is usually dead without protoplast and has thick and lignified cell walls
4. d. Have thickened cells at corners which is due to presence of cellulose,
hemicellulose and pectin
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Question 115 (Multichoice)

Radial conduction of water takes place by the

1. a. Phloem parenchyma
2. b. Xylem fibres
3. c. Ray parenchyma
4. d. Vessels
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Question 116 (Multichoice)

Monocot root is anatomically similar to the dicot root in

1. a. Presence of well developed and large central pith

2. b. Having diarch to hexarch vascular bundles
3. c. Possessing radial vascular bundles with exarch protoxylem
4. d. Absence of cambium in the vascular bundle throughout the life
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Question 117 (Multichoice)

Select the correct option for monocotyledonous stem.

1. a. Water-containing cavities are found in pith

2. b. Vascular bundle is surrounded by a sheath made up of sclerenchymatous
tissue
3. c. Well developed medullary rays are present
4. d. Peripheral vascular bundles are generally larger than centrally located ones.
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Question 118 (Multichoice)

Natural system of classification was given by

1. a. Linnaeus
2. b. Bentham and Hooker
3. c. Aristotle
4. d. Engler and Prantl
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Question 119 (Multichoice)

Gametes are flagellated and similar in size in

1. [Link]
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. [Link]
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Question 120 (Multichoice)

Select the incorrect match.

1. [Link]– Oogamous reproduction with motile male gametes

2. [Link]– Filamentous algae
3. [Link]– Brown algae and rich source of iodine
4. [Link]– Body is simple branched and filamentous
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Question 121 (Multichoice)

Which of the following photosynthetic organism are rich in proteins and are used
as food supplements even by space travellers?

1. [Link]
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. [Link]
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Question 122 (Multichoice)

Which of the following characters is specific to red algae?

1. a. Cell wall is made up of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
2. b. Complex post-fertilisation development is seen
3. c. Presence of fucoxanthin and holdfast
4. d. Pear-shaped gametes with two laterally attached flagella
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Question 123 (Multichoice)

Read the following statements for bryophytes and identify them as true
(T) or false (F).
I. Gametophyte is the haploid stage of the plant that generates gametes by the
process of mitosis.
II. Gametophyte of bryophyte consist of multicellular sex organs.
III. Gemmae are non-green, unicellular, asexual buds.
IV. They are non-vascular and are the first embryophytes.
Select the correct option.

1. a. I-(T), II-(F), III-(T), IV-(F)

2. b. I-(F), II-(T), III-(F), IV-(T)
 3. c. I-(T), II-(T), III-(F), IV-(T)
4. d. I-(F), II-(T), III-(T), IV-(F)
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Question 124 (Multichoice)

Gymnosperms are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions

because of

1. a. Large surface area of leaves

2. b. Thin cuticle on leaf surface
3. c. Sunken stomata
4. d. Fan shaped leaves
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Question 125 (Multichoice)

Read the following statements (A-E).

A. Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by fragmentation and budding in the
secondary protonema.
B. In liverworts, mosses and gymnosperm gametophytes are free-living.
C. The leaves in pteridophyte are microphylls as in ferns or macrophylls as
in Selaginella.
D. The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.
E. Marchantia is a monoecious liverwort.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

1. a. One
2. b. Three
3. c. Two
4. d. Four
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Question 126 (Multichoice)

In Selaginella, seed formation does not take place because

1. a. Integumented microsporangium is absent

2. b. Development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within the female
gametophytes
3. c. Megaspores are not retained permanently within the megasporangium
4. d. Heterosporous condition is absent
Extracted By - @DEVOG22 | Join - @Aakashbrokerchat22

Question 127 (Multichoice)

Peat is obtained from

1. [Link]
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. [Link]
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Question 128 (Multichoice)

Mark the correct match

1. a. Psilopsida –Psilotum
2. b. Sphenopsida –Selaginella
3. c. Pteropsida –Equisetum
4. d. Lycopsida –Dryopteris
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Question 129 (Multichoice)

Which of the following is a common characteristic between pteridophytes and

bryophytes?

1. a. Dominant sporophytic phase in the life cycle

2. b. Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.
3. c. Presence of heterospory
4. d. Spores germinate to give rise to free-living, photosynthetic gametophyte
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Question 130 (Multichoice)

Read the statements carefully and mark the correct option.

A. Pteridophytes are the first tracheophytes.
B. In pteridophytes, gametophyte bear male and female sex organs called
antheridia and archegonia respectively
C. In some pteridophytes like Salvinia, the sporangia produce spores by mitosis
that give rise to prothallus.
 1. a. Only A is correct
2. b. Only C is correct
3. c. A and B are correct
4. d. A and C are correct
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Question 131 (Multichoice)

Gymnosperms are called naked seeded plants due to the absence of

1. a. Tracheids
2. b. Archegonia
3. c. Integumented megasporangia
4. d. Ovary wall
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Question 132 (Multichoice)

Prothallus in Dryopteris is
a. Mostly photosynthetic
b. Multicellular
c. Large, conspicuous and dependent on sporophyte
d. Haploid
e. Thalloid gametophyte
Select the correct option

1. a. Only a, b and c
2. b. Only b, c, d and e
3. c. Only a, b, d and e
4. d. Only c, d and e
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Question 133 (Multichoice)

Which of the following is an unicellular algae?

1. [Link]
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. [Link]
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Question 134 (Multichoice)

Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t given figure?

1. a. A is dwarf and B is long shoot

2. b. Given organism is heterosporous
3. c. C represents the fruit
4. d. Given organism shows the presence of fan-shaped leaves
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Question 135 (Multichoice)

How many feature(s) is/are common between bryophytes and pteridophytes?

a. True leaves
b. Diploid sporophyte
c. Jacketed sex organs
d. Motile male gametes
e. Are embryophytes
Select the correct option.

1. a. Three
2. b. Four
3. c. Two
4. d. One
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Question 136 (Multichoice)

Which of the following is not responsible for the formation of secondary tissues?

1. a. Interfascicular cambium
2. b. Intercalary meristem
3. c. Cork cambium
4. d. Intrafascicular cambium
Extracted By - @DEVOG22 | Join - @Aakashbrokerchat22

Question 137 (Multichoice)

The outermost layer in transverse section of dicot root is

1. a. Cortex
2. b. Endodermis
3. c. Pericycle
4. d. Epiblema
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Question 138 (Multichoice)

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) statements and choose
the correct option.
Assertion (A): Bulliform cells are present in upper epidermis of grass leaves.
Reason (R): Bulliform cells make the leaves curl inward to minimise water loss
during water stress.

1. a. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2. b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. c. Both (A) and (R) are false
4. d. (A) is true but (R) is false
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Question 139 (Multichoice)

Select the incorrect statement from the following.

1. a. Trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration

2. b. Cuticle prevents loss of water
3. c. Cuticle is absent in roots
4. d. Epidermis is made up of elongated, loosely arranged cells with large vacuole
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Question 140 (Multichoice)

Read the following statements and identify them as true (T) or false (F).
A. Epidermis is usually single layered.
B. Cortical layers below hypodermis of dicot stem consist of rounded thin walled
parenchymatous cells with conspicuous intercellular spaces.
C. Root hairs are unicellular elongation of the epidermal cells.
Select the correct option.

1. a. A(T), B(F), C(T)

2. b. A(F), B(T), C(T)
3. c. A(T), B(T), C(T)
4. d. A(T), B(F), C(F)
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Question 141 (Multichoice)

The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of

1. a. Monocot stem
2. b. Dicot stem
3. c. Monocot root
4. d. Dicot root
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Question 142 (Multichoice)

Which of the following is not true regarding companion cells?

1. a. Helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes

2. b. Possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks a nucleus
3. c. Closely associated with sieve tube element
4. d. These are specialised parenchymatous cells
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Question 143 (Multichoice)

Which of the following statement is true?

1. a. Presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.

2. b. Interfascicular and cork cambium are redifferentiated cells.
3. c. A mature sieve tube element possesses conspicuous nucleus.
4. d. Each stoma is composed of two types of cellsi.e., guard cell and subsidiary
cells.
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Question 144 (Multichoice)

Karyotaxonomy is based on all except

1. a. Chromosome number
2. b. Chromosome structure
3. c. Aromatic compounds
4. d. Chromosome behaviour
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Question 145 (Multichoice)

Pollen grains in gymnosperms represents

1. a. Reduced endosperm
2. b. Microsporangium
3. c. Reduced male gametophyte
4. d. Male cone
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Question 146 (Multichoice)

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Cycas have small specialised roots called coralloid roots and are
associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria.
Statement B: In Cycas, stems are branched and the leaves are pinnately
compound which persist for a few years.

1. a. Both statement A and statement B are correct

2. b. Only statement A is incorrect
3. c. Both statement A and statement B are incorrect
4. d. Only statement B is incorrect
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Question 147 (Multichoice)

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) statements and choose
the correct option.
Assertion (A): Agar is used to grow microbes and in preparation of ice-creams
and jellies.
Reason (R): Commercial source of agar is Gelidium and Gracilaria.

1. a. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2. b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
 3. c. Both (A) and (R) are false
4. d. (A) is true but (R) is false
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Question 148 (Multichoice)

Which of the following algal pairs reproduce sexually by non-motile gametes?

1. [Link]
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. [Link] Kelps
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Question 149 (Multichoice)

Winged pollen grains are present in

1. a. Mustard
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. d. Wheat
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Question 150 (Multichoice)

Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Cycas (i) Male or female cones are borne on same tree
b. Dictyota (ii) Is a giant red wood tree
c. Sequoia (iii) Presence of laminarin and fucoxanthin
d. Pinus (iv) Male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees

1. a. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

2. b. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
3. c. a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
4. d. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
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Zoology
Question 151 (Multichoice)

In humans, a U-shaped bone present at the base of the buccal cavity is called

1. a. Hyoid
2. b. Sphenoid
3. c. Lacrimal
4. d. Maxilla
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Question 152 (Multichoice)

In Periplaneta americana, the function served by Malpighian tubules in addition

to excretion is

1. a. Balancing
2. b. Respiration
3. c. Defense
4. d. Osmoregulation
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Question 153 (Multichoice)

Parasympathetic neural system is a component of

1. a. Autonomic neural system

2. b. Somatic neural system
3. c. Peripheral and somatic neural system
4. d. Central neural system
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Question 154 (Multichoice)

In the common form of chemical synapse, the neurotransmitters released in

synaptic cleft bind to the specific receptors present on the

1. a. Pre-synaptic membrane
2. b. Axonal membrane
3. c. Post-synaptic membrane
 4. d. Synaptic vesicle
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Question 155 (Multichoice)

All of the following acts as a vasoconstrictor, except

1. a. ADH
2. b. ANF
3. c. Vasopressin
4. d. Angiotensin II
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Question 156 (Multichoice)

In human brain, the layer of cranial meninges which is in direct contact with the
brain tissue is

1. a. Grey matter
2. b. Arachnoid
3. c. Pia mater
4. d. Dura mater
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Question 157 (Multichoice)

Flagellar movements help in all of the following activities, except

1. a. Maintenance of water current in the canal system ofSycon

2. b. Swimming of human spermatozoa
3. c. Locomotion ofEuglena
4. d. Movement of food through cytopharynx inParamoecium
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Question 158 (Multichoice)

Consider the statements A and B given below.

Statement A: All locomotions are movements but all movements are not
locomotions.
Statement B: Macrophages in blood and monocytes in tissue exhibit amoeboid
movements.
Select the correct option.

1. a. Both statements A and B are correct

2. b. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. c. Only statement A is correct
4. d. Only statement B is correct
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Question 159 (Multichoice)

Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. electrical synapses observed in humans.

1. a. Transmission of an impulse across it is similar to impulse conduction along a

single axon
2. b. Pre and post-synaptic membranes of neurons are in close proximity
3. c. Present abundantly
4. d. Neurotransmitters are not involved in the conduction of impulses across it
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Question 160 (Multichoice)

Each organised skeletal muscle in the human body is made of a number of

______ held together by a common collagenous connective tissue layer called
______.
Choose the correct option to fill the respective blanks.

1. a. Fascicles; Fascia
2. b. Fascicles; Sarcolemma
3. c. Fascia; Fascicles
4. d. Sarcolemma; Fascia
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Question 161 (Multichoice)

How many bones given in the box below is/are part of appendicular skeleton in a
normal human body?

Patella, Vertebrae, Clavicle, Scapula

Select the correct option.

 1. a. One
2. b. Two
3. c. Three
4. d. Four
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Question 162 (Multichoice)

During the process of tubular reabsorption in humans, all of the following

substances are reabsorbed actively, except

1. a. Glucose
2. b. Amino acids
3. c. Na+
4. d. Urea
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Question 163 (Multichoice)

The Na+ – K+ pump which maintains ionic gradients across the resting neuronal
membrane, transports

1. a. 2 Na+inwards for 3 K+out of the cell

2. b. 2 K+outwards for 3 Na+into the cell
3. c. 3 Na+outwards for 2 K+into the cell
4. d. 3 K+inwards for 2 Na+out of the cell
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Question 164 (Multichoice)

The anatomical unit of muscle is ‘X’ whereas ‘Y’ is its functional unit. Identify ‘X’
and ‘Y’ and select the correct option.

1. a. X- Sarcomere; Y- Muscle fibre

2. b. X- Muscle fibre; Y- Sarcomere
3. c. X- Myofibrils; Y- Muscle bundle
4. d. X- Sarcomere; Y- Myofibril
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Question 165 (Multichoice)

In humans, the large triangular flat bone of the pectoral girdle, that is situated in
the dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the seventh ribs is

1. a. Acromion
2. b. Scapula
3. c. Clavicle
4. d. Pubis
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Question 166 (Multichoice)

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. excretory system of humans.

1. a. The osmolarity gradient in the cortex and medullary interstitium of kidney is

mainly caused by NaCl and urea.
2. b. Osmolarity of about 1200 mOsmolL–1is present in the inner medullary
interstitium of kidney.
3. c. The proximity between Henle’s loop and vasa recta, contribute in increasing
the osmolarity at the lower end of Henle’s loop.
4. d. The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in the same direction.
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Question 167 (Multichoice)

During the resting state, the axonal membrane of a neuron is

1. a. Comparatively less permeable to K+than Na+

2. b. In a depolarised state
3. c. Nearly impermeable to Na+
4. d. Permeable to negatively charged proteins
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Question 168 (Multichoice)

The part of human brain that lies at the base of the thalamus contains
neurosecretory cells and also has control centres for

1. a. Cardiovascular reflexes
2. b. Respiration
3. c. Maintaining balance and posture of the body
4. d. Thermoregulation
Extracted By - @DEVOG22 | Join - @Aakashbrokerchat22

Question 169 (Multichoice)

In humans, the hormone that keeps a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism

is released from the

1. a. JG cells of kidney
2. b. Adrenal cortex
3. c. Neurohypophysis
4. d. Atria of the heart
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Question 170 (Multichoice)

Read the given statements.

a. Neurons can detect, receive, produce and transmit stimuli.
b. Green glands perform excretion in Amphioxus.
c. In human kidneys, the cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as
renal columns called columns of Bertini.
d. On an average, 15 – 20 gm of urea is excreted out through urine per day by a
healthy man.
How many of them is/are correct?

1. a. One
2. b. Two
3. c. Three
4. d. Four
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Question 171 (Multichoice)

In humans, the part of brain that is connected to spinal cord and has centres
which control gastric secretions is

1. a. Cerebellum
2. b. Medulla oblongata
3. c. Thalamus
4. d. Hypothalamus
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Question 172 (Multichoice)

Select the option that represents an incorrect difference between the red and
white muscle fibres.

Features Red muscle fibres White muscle fibres

(1) Content of myoglobin High Low
(2) Amount of mitochondria Plenty Few
(3) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum Low High
(4) Major energy source By anaerobic process By aerobic process

1. a. (1)
2. b. (2)
3. c. (3)
4. d. (4)
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Question 173 (Multichoice)

In humans, juxtaglomerular apparatus, a special sensitive region, is formed by

the cellular modifications of the part of renal tubule where _____ and the _____ at
the location of their contact.
Select the correct option to fill in the respective blanks.

1. a. Conditional reabsorption of Na+and water takes place; afferent arteriole

2. b. Maximum reabsorption of electrolytes takes place; afferent arteriole
3. c. Conditional reabsorption of water and Na+takes place; efferent arteriole
4. d. Maximum reabsorption of nutrients takes place; efferent arteriole
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Question 174 (Multichoice)

Assertion (A): Vertebrochondral ribs are called false ribs.

Reason (R): These ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the
seventh rib with the help of hyaline cartilage.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option w.r.t. humans.

1. a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. c. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. d. Both (A) and (R) are false
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Question 175 (Multichoice)

Consider an axonal membrane in which a segment gets depolarised. Now, with
respect to this segment, the direction of flow of current on the inner surface and
on the outer surface of axonal membrane is in which direction?

1. a. Same
2. b. Opposite
3. c. Perpendicular
4. d. Parallel
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Question 176 (Multichoice)

Match column I with column II w.r.t. types of neurons in humans and their
respective locations.

Column I Column II
a. Unipolar (i) Cerebral cortex
b. Bipolar (ii) Retina of eye
c. Multipolar (iii) Embryonic stage

Select the correct option.

1. a. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

2. b. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
3. c. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
4. d. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
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Question 177 (Multichoice)

At the fusion point of ilium, ischium and pubis, is a cavity to which _______
articulates.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

1. a. Acetabulum
2. b. Pubic symphysis
3. c. Coxal bone
4. d. Femur
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Question 178 (Multichoice)

Read the given statements w.r.t. humans.
Statement A: Glomerulus is not a part of renal tubule.
Statement B: Loop of Henle lies mainly in the medullary region of kidneys.
Select the correct option.

1. a. Both statements A and B are correct

2. b. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. c. Only statement A is correct
4. d. Only statement B is correct
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Question 179 (Multichoice)

Brain stem forms the connections between brain and spinal cord. Brain stem
includes three major regions which are

1. a. Cerebrum, cerebellum and thalamus

2. b. Hypothalamus, mid brain and thalamus
3. c. Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata
4. d. Pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata
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Question 180 (Multichoice)

Consider the following statements w.r.t. an adult human.

a. Normally, kidneys produce urine that is hypotonic than the initial filtrate
formed.
b. Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I.
c. Angiotensin II activates the adrenal medulla to release aldosterone.
d. The total weight of both the kidneys is 120 – 170 g.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1. a. One
2. b. Two
3. c. Three
4. d. Four
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Question 181 (Multichoice)

In a nephron, podocytes are the intricately arranged specialised cells of

 1. a. Epithelium of afferent arteriole
2. b. Endothelium of efferent arteriole
3. c. Endothelium of glomerular blood vessel
4. d. Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule
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Question 182 (Multichoice)

In humans, sebaceous glands through sebum majorly eliminate

1. a. Lactic acid
2. b. Waxes
3. c. Bilirubin
4. d. Urea
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Question 183 (Multichoice)

The type of muscle fibres associated with biceps differ from smooth muscle
fibres in all of the following features, except

1. a. Location of nuclei
2. b. Shape
3. c. Presence of striations
4. d. Absence of branching
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Question 184 (Multichoice)

Assertion (A): Skeletal muscle fibres appear striped when observed under the
microscope.
Reason (R): Each myofibril in skeletal muscles has alternate actin and myosin
filaments.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

1. a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. c. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. d. Both (A) and (R) are false
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Question 185 (Multichoice)

The A ¯ portion of B ¯ consists mainly of four round swellings called corpora

quadrigemina. Identify (A) and (B) and select the correct option w.r.t. humans.

1. a. (A) – Dorsal, (B) – Midbrain

2. b. (A) – Ventral, (B) – Hindbrain
3. c. (A) – Dorsal, (B) – Hindbrain
4. d. (A) – Ventral, (B) – Midbrain
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Question 186 (Multichoice)

Choose the odd one w.r.t. the functions of association areas present in the
human brain.

1. a. Intersensory association
2. b. Memory
3. c. Communication
4. d. Maintaining balance and posture of the body
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Question 187 (Multichoice)

In humans, the cerebrum is divided into left and right cerebral hemispheres by

1. a. Corpus callosum
2. b. A tract of nerve fibres
3. c. A deep cleft
4. d. Cerebral aqueduct
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Question 188 (Multichoice)

In humans, during the release of urine

1. a. Urethral sphincters relax

2. b. Smooth muscles of urinary bladder relax
3. c. Urethral sphincters contract
4. d. Skeletal muscles of urinary bladder relax
Extracted By - @DEVOG22 | Join - @Aakashbrokerchat22
Question 189 (Multichoice)

For regulation of body fluid volume, during dehydration, vasoconstriction occurs

that leads to

1. a. Increase in blood pressure

2. b. Decrease in GFR
3. c. Decrease in blood pressure
4. d. Increase in production of diluted urine
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Question 190 (Multichoice)

Choose the correct set of contractile and regulatory proteins respectively that
participate in skeletal muscle contraction of humans.

1. a. Tropomyosin; Actin
2. b. Actin; Meromyosin
3. c. Myosin; Troponin
4. d. Tropomyosin; Troponin
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Question 191 (Multichoice)

The amount of CO2 normally removed by human lungs per minute is

1. a. 200 mL
2. b. 150 mL
3. c. 100 mL
4. d. 50 mL
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Question 192 (Multichoice)

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. adult humans.

1. a. Carpals in both forelimbs – 16

2. b. Tarsals in both hindlimbs – 14
3. c. Thoracic vertebrae – 12
4. d. Vertebrosternal ribs – 7
Extracted By - @DEVOG22 | Join - @Aakashbrokerchat22

Question 193 (Multichoice)

Under normal conditions, the neural system that relays impulses from CNS to
triceps is

1. a. Somatic neural system

2. b. Autonomic neural system
3. c. Sympathetic neural system
4. d. Visceral neural system
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Question 194 (Multichoice)

When a stimulus is applied, the electrical potential difference which develops

across the plasma membrane of a neuron is termed as

1. a. Repolarisation
2. b. Nerve impulse
3. c. Resting potential
4. d. Synapse
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Question 195 (Multichoice)

Listed below are some functions

a. Performs selective secretion of H+
b. Performs selective secretion of K+
c. Allows passage of small amounts of urea in medullary interstitium
Select the part of kidney that can be associated with all of the above mentioned
functions.

1. a. PCT
2. b. DCT
3. c. Collecting duct
4. d. Glomerulus
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Question 196 (Multichoice)

In humans, the type of joint present between the vertebra that articulates with the
occipital condyles and the vertebra next to it, is

1. a. Fibrous joint
2. b. Saddle joint
3. c. Gliding joint
4. d. Pivot joint
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Question 197 (Multichoice)

Match the columns w.r.t. disorders of muscular and skeletal system in humans.

Column I Column II
a. Myasthenia gravis (i) Rapid spasms in muscles due to low Ca+2 levels in body fluid
b. Muscular dystrophy (ii) Auto-immune disorder
c. Tetany (iii) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
d. Gout (iv) Genetic disorder

Select the correct option.

1. a. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

2. b. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
3. c. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
4. d. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
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Question 198 (Multichoice)

Which of the following holds true when the skeletal muscle is in a fully
contracted state?

1. a. H-zone disappears completely

2. b. Length of sarcomere remains the same
3. c. Length of A-band decreases
4. d. Length of I-band increases
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Question 199 (Multichoice)

Arrange the following organisms in the correct order w.r.t. the level of toxicity of
the chief nitrogenous wastes that they excrete.
A. Bony fishes
B. Aquatic amphibians
C. Terrestrial amphibians
D. Reptiles
Select the correct option.

1. a. A < B < C = D
2. b. C > D = A > B
3. c. A = B > C > D
4. d. D > B > C = A
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Question 200 (Multichoice)

Assertion (A): Protein synthesising granules, called the Nissl’s granules, are
absent in axons of neurons.
Reason (R): Nissl’s granules are composed of RER and ribosomes.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1. a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. c. (A) is true, (R) is false
4. d. Both (A) and (R) are false
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