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Regional Unified Quarterly Assessment

First Quarter
SCIENCE 11 – Earth & Life Science

Name Date
Section Division
School

Direction: Encircle your best answer.

1. Which force is most accountable for the formation of a star?

a. Interstellar c. Magnetic
b. Gravity d. Nuclear

2. The seasons of the Earth result from __________.

a. The changing speed of the Earth in its orbit

b. The tilt of the Earth's rotation axis
c. The distance of the Earth from the Sun in winter due to its elliptical orbit
d. The rotation of the Earth

3. What characteristic makes Earth unique among the planets in the solar
system?

a. It is generally covered in water.

b. It supports life.
c. The atmosphere holds gases.
d. All of the above contribute to Earth’s uniqueness.

4. Which of the following is a factual report?

a. Four of the planets have rings.

b. Mercury has an inferior average density than Uranus.
c. The majority of the solar system’s mass is contained in the Sun.
d. Saturn is the most massive planet in the solar system.

5. The continental drift hypothesis was not acknowledged by the scientific

community for the reason that:

a. There was not adequate geologic evidence found across continents

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 b. Alfred Wegener could not make available a credible mechanism enlightening
how continents drifted
c. Fossil records aided to disprove the hypothesis
d. Glacial evidence was found along hot equatorial regions

6. Which layer is responsible for the Earth’s magnetic field?

a. Inner Core b. Outer Core c. Crust d. Mantle

7. What are the main compositional layers of the Earth?

a. Core, mantle, and crust c. Inner core and outer core

b. Crust, mantle, and core d. Lithosphere, crust, and mantle

8. How does the inner core differ from the outer core?

a. The inner core is solid while the outer core is liquid.

b. The inner core is liquid while the outer core is solid.
c. The inner core is liquid while the outer core is gas.
d. The inner core is gas while the outer core is liquid.

9. A scientist is investigating a mineral that reacts with hydrochloric acid and

produces carbon dioxide gas bubbles. Which mineral is described above?

a. Calcite b. Mica c. Quartz d. Diamond

10. Weathering plays an important role in the formation of rocks. It transforms

rocks into sediments, soils, or dissolved minerals playing a crucial part in the
rock cycle. Which of the following best describe the physical and chemical
weathering of rocks?

a. Physical Weathering breaks rocks into smaller pieces; chemical weathering

changes their molecular structure.
b. Physical Weathering causes rocks to crumble; chemical weathering changes
their molecular structure.
c. Both have the same process.
d. All of the above

11. Wind is an important natural force in weathering and erosion. It transports

sediments and falls back to the ground. As a result of wind deposition, it forms

a. Glacial valley b. River Delta c. Volcano d. Sand Dunes

12. Rock fall occurs when solid material or soil detaches from a steep slope falls
freely for some distance, and then bounces and rolls before coming to a full
stop. Which of the following can produce this process?

a. Rain and plant growth

b. Freezing and thawing of ice
c. Any sudden shaking of the ground caused by seismic waves through Earth’s
rock
d. All of the above
 Earth’s heat comes from two main sources: physical processes early in its
formation, and radioactive decay. At the base of the crust, it’s approximately 1000°C. At
the base of the mantle, temperatures are around 3000°C. Earth’s center is more than
6000°C.

Source: USGS

13. How is the Earth's internal heat redistributed?

a. Heat came from the thermal energy contained within the objects that accreted to
form Earth.
b. Heat came from collisions. When objects hit Earth, the energy from their motion
went into deforming Earth, and some were transformed into heat.
c. As Earth became larger; its gravitational force became stronger. This increased
Earth’s ability to draw objects to it.
d. Convection Helps to Move Heat within Earth. When the mantle convicts, heat is
transferred through the mantle by physically moving hot rocks. Mantle
convection is the outcome of heat transfers from the core to the base of the
lower mantle.

Magma is a tremendously hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under the
Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core,
mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can
push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. Differences in
temperature, pressure, and structural formations in the mantle and crust cause magma
to form in different ways.

14. Which of the following is true about magma’s viscosity?

a. Magma’s viscosity is affected by silica content.

b. Increased dissolved gases typically lower magma’s viscosity.
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE about volcanic igneous rocks?

a. Formed when lava cools on the surface.

b. Formed when magma cools and solidifies below the earth's surface.
c. Volcanic rocks are also known as 'intrusive’ igneous rocks.
d. Volcanic rocks have coarse-grained crystals.

Changes in pressure and temperature significantly affect the mineral composition

and texture of rocks. These changes are central to understanding metamorphism and
the formation of various igneous and sedimentary rocks.

16. How do pressure and temperature changes affect metamorphic rock

formation?

a. Minerals in parent rocks recrystallize into new minerals stable under these
conditions.
b. Through weathering, erosion, compaction and cementation.
c. Through cooling and solidification.
d. None of the above.

Understanding the formation of different types of igneous rocks involves

examining how they form from magma and lava and comparing their textures, mineral
compositions, and formation environments.

17. Which of the following types of igneous rock is formed from volcanic ash and
fragments?

a. Granite b. Basalt c. Tuff d. Gabbro

18. What type of geological structure forms from compression stress?

a. Rift valley c. Graben

b. Folded mountains d. Horst

19. What key evidence did Alfred Wegener use to support his theory of
continental drift?

a. Fossil similarities across continents

b. Similar rock formations on different continents
c. Magnetic anomalies in oceanic crust
d. All of the above

20. Which geological process is directly linked to the evidence of seafloor

spreading, supporting the theory of continental drift?

a. Subduction c. Mid- Ocean ridge formation

b. Oceanic trench formation d. Fold Mountain formation
21. What type of stress is primarily responsible for the formation of folds in
rocks?

a. Tensional stress c. Shear stress

b. Compressional stress d. Confining stress

22. At which plate boundary does seafloor spreading occur?

a. Divergent boundary c. Transform boundary

b. Convergent boundary d. Hotspot boundary

23. Which geological structure forms from the accumulation of marine sediments
in ocean basins over millions of years?

a. Rift valleys c. Abyssal plains

b. Seamounts d. Folded Mountain ranges

24. How does the principle of cross-cutting relationships apply to the relative
ages of stratified rocks?

a. It helps determine the relative ages of different layers.

b. It explains how fossils are preserved within sedimentary layers.
c. It describes the formation of igneous intrusions within existing rock layers.
d. It outlines the process of weathering and erosion on rock surfaces.

25. What does the method of cross-cutting relationships primarily help

determine about the age of stratified rocks?

a. Their magnetic polarity changes over time.

b. Their sequence of formation relative to faults and intrusions.
c. Their age is based on the presence of index fossils.
d. Their age is based on the principle of original horizontality.

26. How did the development of radiometric dating techniques contribute to

refining the subdivisions of geologic time?

a. It provided numerical ages for rock layers and events.

b. It identified the presence of index fossils in sedimentary rocks.
c. It determined the ages of rock layers based on their magnetic properties.
d. It correlated the ages of rocks with the occurrence of volcanic ash layers.

27. Which characteristic makes a fossil most suitable as a marker or guide

fossil?

a. Large size and widespread distribution.

b. Small size and simple morphology.
c. Unique morphology and widespread occurrence.
d. Fossilization in volcanic ash layers.
28. How does the concept of biozones aid in understanding Earth's history within
the geologic time scale?

a. By providing numerical ages for specific fossil assemblages.

b. By correlating rock layers based on distinctive fossil groups.
c. By identifying the ages of igneous intrusions within sedimentary rocks.
d. By measuring the thickness of sedimentary deposits.

29. How do mass extinctions influence the interpretation of Earth's history on

the geologic time scale?

a. They indicate periods of intense volcanic activity.

b. They correlate with significant climate changes.
c. They mark the boundaries between major geological time units.
d. They represent periods of global glaciation.

30. What role do unconformities play in interpreting Earth's history through the
geologic time scale?

a. They represent periods of rapid sediment deposition.

b. They indicate gaps in the geological record due to erosion or non-deposition.
c. They correlate with periods of volcanic eruptions.
d. They provide evidence of past glaciations.

31. Why is it important to identify areas prone to hazards caused by earthquakes,

volcanic eruptions and landslides?

a. Hazard maps play an important role in identifying the location of the areas
prone to hazards.
b. Hazard maps give the magnitude of the prone area.
c. Hazard maps are vital for the countermeasures to be undertaken during
volcanic crises.
d. All of the above

32. Why is identifying areas prone to earthquakes important?

a. In some areas, small earthquakes are common and indicate that the faults are
releasing their energy as the earth moves sequentially along the fault.
b. Develop early warning systems and monitoring networks to provide advance
notice of potential earthquakes, allowing people to take necessary precautions.
So, it is important to identify areas prone to earthquakes to minimize damage,
save lives, and improve overall preparedness.
c. Disaster areas affect the population living in the community by a dramatic
increase in expense, loss of energy, food, and services; and finally increase in the
risk of disease for citizens.
d. Earthquakes are more common in some parts of the world than others when those
plates scrape against each other and cause an earthquake, the results can be
deadly and devastating.
33. During an earthquake, what should you do if you are driving a car?

a. Continue driving the car c. Pull over to an open space.

b. Go out of the car and run. d. Stop the car under an overpass

34. What should you do after a volcanic eruption?

I. Go back home immediately.

II. Help in cleaning and checking the damage brought by volcanic eruption hazards.
III. Listen to the radio or television for more information from authorities
IV. Refill the emergency supply kit

a. I and II c. II and III

b. I, II and III d. II, III and IV

35. Categorize the following causes of landslides as natural and man-made.

I. tropical cyclone
II. earthquake
III. quarrying
IV. removal of vegetation
V. construction of roads and railways

a. I and II: man-made; III-V: natural

b. I and II: natural; III-V: man-made
c. I and III: natural; II, IV and V: man-made
d. I-V: man-made

36. How did human activities contribute to the landslide?

a. Many human-caused landslides can be avoided or mitigated. They are commonly

a result of building roads and structures without adequate grading of slopes,
poorly planned alteration of drainage patterns, and disturbing old landslides.
b. Human activity, such as agriculture and construction, can increase the risk of
a landslide.
c. Irrigation, deforestation, excavation, and water leakage are some of the common
activities that can help destabilize, or weaken, a slope.
d. All of the above

37. Instead of clearcutting, which of the following methods can be used by logging
companies to harvest timber?

a. selective cutting c. slash-and-burn

b. hauling d. grappling

38. Why is planting trees on a slope a good idea to prevent landslides?

a. Trees help retain moisture in the soil, making it more prone to erosion.
b. Trees hold the soil in place.
c. Trees reduce air temperature but have no impact on soil stability.
d. Trees can create a visual barrier but do not affect soil stability.
39. How does an ipo-ipo cause injuries and death?

a. It lifts and hurls objects that may cause injuries and death upon impact.
b. It causes widespread flooding and water damage.
c. It triggers landslides due to heavy rain.
d. It generates high tides that flood coastal areas.

40. Your family is living in a flood-prone area. What should you do when there is a
strong typhoon?

a. Remain indoors without checking for updates.

b. Visit flood-prone areas to assess the situation.
c. Listen to the advisory coming from PAGASA and evacuate when necessary.
d. Wait until the water levels are high before acting.

41. Using hazard maps to identify areas prone to hazards brought about by tropical
cyclones, which factor contributes primarily to coastal due to cyclonic
activity?

a. High sediment build-up from river inflows.

b. Low energy conditions reducing storm impact.
c. Elevated Sea level
d. Lack of infrastructure contributes to less risk.

42. When assessing areas prone to riverbank erosion during monsoon seasons,
which feature is most likely to exacerbate flooding hazards in coastal regions?

a. Dense vegetation reduces flow and trapping sediments.

b. High soil permeability allows more water absorption.
c. Well-drained areas managing water efficiency.
d. Proximity to steep topography.

43. In the context of coping with hydrometeorological hazards like tropical

cyclones, which strategy is most effective for coastal communities to reduce
vulnerability and enhance resilience?

a. Constructing barriers that may provide temporary protection.

b. Implementing early warning systems and evacuation plans
c. Removing natural buffers that protect coastlines.
d. Developing high-risk areas without risk mitigation.

44. When dealing with food hazards caused by monsoons, which community-based
approach is most likely to enhance adaptive capacity and reduce risks in
coastal regions?

a. Promoting sustainable land-use practices and wetland restoration

b. Constructing barriers that focus on protecting infrastructure.
c. Expanding urban areas without considering environmental impacts.
d. Building in flood-prone zones without regulation.
45. Which human activity is most likely to worsen coastal erosion and increase the
risk of submersion in vulnerable coastal areas?

a. Relocating communities to less vulnerable areas.

b. Constructing extensive coastal armoring structures like seawalls and groins
c. Enhancing natural coastal buffers through vegetation.
d. Supporting natural beach dynamics with nourishments.

46. Which geospatial tool or technology is best suited for identifying areas in a
coastal community prone to erosion and submersion?

a. Basic aerial images that detailed elevation data

b. GPS coordinates for general location
c. Light Detection and Ranging (LiDAR) technology
d. Outdated satellite data that lacks current detail

47. Which environmental indicator is a reliable proxy for identifying areas in a

coastal community susceptible to saltwater intrusion?

a. General changes in plant and animal populations.

b. Decline in water quality parameters such as salinity and chloride levels
c. Changes in beach width from sediment changes.
d. Temperature changes which do not reflect saltwater presence.

48. Which coastal management strategy is most effective in coping with coastal
erosion and submersion while promoting natural ecosystem resilience?

a. Building permanent hard defenses that might disrupt ecosystems.

b. Implementation of beach nourishment and dune restoration projects
c. Relocation without addressing ongoing management issues.
d. Adding sand without a regulated plan.

49. Which regulatory approach is most effective in preventing the negative impacts
of land development on coastal processes and ecosystems?

a. Implementing strict zoning laws and land-use regulations

b. Promoting development without considering environmental impacts.
c. Allowing unchecked construction in sensitive areas.
d. Supporting industrial growth near coastlines without safeguards.

50. Which waste management practice is most effective in mitigating the impact of
waste disposal on coastal processes and marine life?

a. Implementing proper recycling programs to reduce waste generation

b. Discharging untreated waste into marine environment.
c. Open disposal of harmful substances.
d. Promoting irresponsible waste disposal practices.