11.

BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

1. First hormone prepared by genetic engineering is:

a) Insulin b) Oxytocin c) Adrenaline d) Somatotropin

2. Retroviruses in animals including humans are able to change normal cells into

a) Germ cell b) Cancerous cells c) Cosmid d) Vector

3. The restriction enzyme responsible for the cleavage of following sequence is

'
5 −G−T −C−G− A−C−3'

a) Alu I b) Bam HI c) HindII d) Eco RI

'
3 −C− A−G−C−T −G−5'

pBR322 was the first artificial cloning vector developed in …A… by …B… and …C… from
E . coli plasmid. Here A, B and C can be
4.

a) A-1976, B-Boliver, C-Rodriquez b) A-1975, B-Tiselius, C-Rodriquez

c) A-1977, B-Boliver, C-Rodriquez d) A-1978, B-HO Smith, C-KW Wileox

5. Transfer of any gene into a completely different organism can be done through

a) Genetic b) Tissue culture c) Transformation d) None of these

engineering
6. An environmental agent that triggers transcription from an operon is a:

a) Depressor b) Inducer c) Regulator d) Controlling element

7. Recombinant DNA have integrated fragment of

a) Antibiotic resistant gene b) Diseases resistant gene

c) Allergy resistant gene d) All of these

In plants, the tumour inducing plasmid (Ti) of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a

cloning vector. This statement is
8.

a) True b) False

c) Sometimes (a) and sometimes (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)

If recombinant DNA carrying antibiotic resistance (e . g . , ampicillin) is transferred into

E . coli cell, the host cell is transformed into ampicillin-resistant cells. The ampicillin
9.

resistant gene in this case is called a

a) Vectors b) Plasmid c) Selectable marker d) Cloning sites

10. Boviene spongiform encephalopathy disease is equal to:

a) Kala Azar b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease d) None of the above

11. Known sequence of DNA that is used to find complementary DNA strand is:
 a) Vector b) Plasmid c) DNA probe d) Recombinant DNA

12. Proteins are removed by treatment with

a) Ribonuclease b) Chitinase c) Cellulase d) Protease

13. Which of the following key factors, makes plasmid, the vector in genetic engineering?

a) It is resistant to antibiotics b) It is resistant to restriction enzymes

c) Its ability to carry a foreign gene d) Its ability to cause infection in the host

14. I. Ori also controls the copy numbers of the linked DNA
II. If a foreign DNA ligates at the Bam HI site of tetracycline resistance gene in the
vector pBR322, the recombinant plasmid loses the tetracycline resistance due to
insertion of foreign DNA
Choose regarding the above statements
a) I is true, II is false b) II is true, I is false c) Both are true d) Both are false

15. When scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some foreign
genes in it, the phenomenon is called:
a) Tissue culture b) Biotechnology c) Genetic d) Immunisation
engineering
16. Many copies of a DNA molecule in a test tube are produced by:

a) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) b) Molecular chain reaction (MCR)

c) Ephemeral chain reaction (ECR) d) All of them

17. Producing a ‘giant mouse’ in the laboratory was possible through:

a) Gene mutation b) Gene duplication c) Gene synthesis d) Gene manipulation

18. Downstream process includes

I. Separation of the product from the reactor
II. Purification of the product
III. Formation of the product with suitable preservatives
IV. Quality control testing and clinical trials in case of drugs
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II and III b) I, II and IV c) II, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV

19. More advancement in genetic engineering is due to

a) Restriction endonuclease b) Reverse transcription

c) Protease d) Zymase

20. Plasmid are suitable vectors for gene cloning because

a) These are small circular DNA molecules, which can integrate with host chromosomal
DNA
b) These are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site

c) These can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

d) These often carry antibiotic resistance genes

21. Polymerase chain reaction is useful in

a) DNA synthesis b) DNA amplification

c) Protein synthesis d) Amino acid synthesis

22. Study the following diagram and identify A , B and C

a) A-Taq polymerase, B-Denaturation at 94℃ , C-Primer

b) A-Denaturation at 94℃ , B-Taq polymerase, C-Primer

c) A-Primer, B-Denaturation at 94℃ , C-Taq polymerase

d) A-Taqpolymerase, B-Extension, C-Transformation

23. A bioreactor is

a) Hybridoma b) Culture containing radioactive isotopes

c) Culture for synthesis of new chemicals d) Fermentation tank

24. Which of the following techniques can be used to detect genetic disorders in human?

a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) b) Gel electrophoresis

c) Spectroscopy d) All of the above

25. Special sequence in the DNA recognized by restriction endonuclease is called

a) Restriction nucleotide sequence b) Palindromic nucleotide sequence

c) Recognition nucleotide sequence d) All of the above

26. Primers are

a) Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides of about 10-18 nucleotides that are

complementary to the region of template DNA
b) Chemically synthesized oligonucleotides of about 10-18 nucleotides that are not
complementary to the region of template DNA
c) The double-stranded DNA that need to the amplified

d) Specific sequences present on recombinant DNA

27. This method of finding a gene is used when researchers very little about the gene they
are trying to find. This process results in a complete gene library : a collection of copies
of DNA fragments that represent the entire genome of an organism. Identify the method
a) Cloning b) Shotgun cloning c) Gene synthesis d) Cloning

28. Consider the following statement about PCR

I. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a technique of synthesizing multiple copies of the
 desired gene in vitro
II. This technique was developed by Kary Mullis in 1985
III. A single PCR amplification cycle involves three basic steps; denaturation, annealing
and extension
Which of the statement given above are correct?
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

29. A somatic plant cell has potential to develop into a full plant. This is called:

a) Totipotency b) Gene cloning c) Tissue culture d) Regeneration

30. Oriis a DNA sequence that is responsible for initiating replication. This statement is

a) True b) False

c) Sometimes (a) and sometimes (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)

31. Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extrachromosomal DNA. This statement
is
a) True b) False

c) Sometimes (a) and sometimes (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)

32. Genetic engineering is possible because:

a) The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood

b) We can see DNA by electron microscope

c) We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNA ase I

d) Restriction endonucleases purified form bacteria can be used in vitro

33. A single PCR amplification cycle involves

a) Denaturation b) Annealing c) Extension d) All of these

34. DNA fingerprinting is related to:

a) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

b) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices

c) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

d) Techniques used in identification of fingerprints of different persons

35. The basic of DNA fingerprinting is:

a) The double helix b) Errors in base sequence

c) Polymorphism in sequence d) DNA replication

36. In genetic engineering, the terms vector is applied for:

a) Plasmid b) Sources of DNA c) Cell which receives d) Virus

37. Which of the following are used to gene cloning?

 a) Nucleoids b) Chromosomes c) Mesosomes d) Plasmid

38. The process that preserves the distribution of DNA fragments in the gel while creating
replica on the filter is one of the following
a) Directed sequencing of BAC counting b) Random shotgun sequencing

c) Electrophoresis d) Southern blotting

39. Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E . coli were
isolated. One was methylase and other was restriction endonuclease. What is the
significance of methylase?
a) Protection of host DNA from the action of restriction endonuclease by adding methyl
group to one or two bases usually with in the sequence recognized by restriction
enzyme
b) Able to ligate the two cohesive ends of DNA molecule

c) Able to remove the methyl group and hence, prevent the action of restriction
endonuclease on host DNA
d) Able to cut the DNA of bacteriophage at specific sites

40. Single-stranded DNA molecules that can bind to and be used to detect other DNA
molecules are called
a) Primer b) STRs c) RFLPs d) Probes

41. Which of the following enzyme is used in genetic engineering?

a) Translocase b) Topoisomerase

c) DNAse d) Restriction endonuclease

42. The below diagram refer to PCR. Identify the steps A , B and C and select the correct
option

a) A-Denaturation of 94-96℃ , B-Annealing of 40-60℃ , C-Extension through

taqpolymerase at 72℃ , D-Amplified
b) A-Annealing of 94-96℃ , B-Denaturation of 40-60℃ , C-Extension through
taqpolymerase at 72℃ , D-Amplified
c) A-Extension through taqpolymerase at 40-60℃ , B-Amplified, C-Denaturation of 40-60
℃ , D-Annealing of 94-96℃
d) A-Annealing, B-Extension through taqpolymerase at 40-60℃ , C-Denaturation of 94-96
℃ , D-Annealing of 40-60℃
43. The controlled use of biological agents, such as microorganism, plants or animal cell, for
 beneficial use is called
a) Biochemistry b) Molecular biology c) Biotechnology d) Microbiology

44. Humulin is a:

a) Pig insulin b) Human insulin c) Viral insulin d) Human clone

45. Find the incorrect statement:

a) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat disease at molecular

level by replacing defective genes with normal genes
b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility

c) Bt toxin is a biodegradable insecticide obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis

d) Trichoderma sp. is a biocontrol agent for fungal diseases of plants

46. Plasmids are extrachromosomal circular DNA molecules:

a) Which have their own point of replication and can replicate independently

b) Which have their own point of replication but cannot replicate independently

c) Which do not have their own point of replication and cannot replicate independent of
bacterial of bacterial chromosomal DNA
d) None of the above

47. The genome map was produced under human genome project in:

a) 1992 b) 1994 c) 1996 d) 2000

48. Term hybridoma implies:

a) DNA-RNA hybrid b) Recombination of DNA molecules

c) Somatic hybridisation d) Genetic fusion

49. Which of the following is a difficulty in getting prokaryotic cells to express eukaryotic
genes?
a) The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter
regions must be added to the vector
b) The genetic code differs between the two because prokaryotes substitute the base
uracil for thymine
c) Prokaryotic cells cannot transcribe introns because their genes do not have them

d) The ribosomes of prokaryotes are not large enough to handle long eukaryotic genes

50. In transgenics, the expression of transgene in the target tissue is known by:

a) Enhancer b) Transgene c) Promoter d) Reporter

51. Identify A , B ,C and D in the given diagram of E . coli cloning vector pBR322
 a) A-Eco RI, B-Bam HI, C-Ori, D-
am p , B- Ori, C-Bam HI, D-Eco RI
R b) A- R
am p
c) A-Ori, B-Bam HI, C-Eco RI, D- d) A-Bam HI, B-Eco RI, C-
am p , D-Ori
R R
am p
52. Consider the following statements
I. In microinjection method foreign DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal
cell or plant cell by using micro needles or micro pipettes
II. Microinjection method is used in oocytes, eggs and embryo
III. Electroporation is the formation of temporary pores in the plasma membrane of host
cell by using lysozyme or calcium chloride
IV. In chemical mediated gene transfer method certain chemicals such as C O2 help
foreign DNA to enter the host cell
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II b) I, II and III c) II, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV

53. The construction of the first recombinant DNA was done by using the native plasmid of:

a) E . coli b) Salmonellatyphimurium

c) B .thurin g iensis d) Yeast

54. Gene amplification using primers can be done by

a) Microinjection b) ELISA

c) Polymerase chain reaction d) Gene gun

55. Polyethylene glycol method is used for

a) Biodiesel production b) Seedless fruit production

c) Energy production from sewage d) Gene transfer without a vector

56. The enzymes, commonly used in genetic engineering are

a) Restriction endonuclease and polymerase b) Endonuclease and ligase

c) Restriction endonuclease and ligase d) Ligase and polymerase

57. Which one of the following techniques had helped to solve many mysteries involving
murders, robberies and rapes?
a) Gene splicing b) Computer technology

c) DNA fingerprinting d) Gene cloning

58. Consider the following statements

I. Recombinant DNA technology popularly known as genetic engineering is a stream of
 biotechnology which deals with the manipulation of genetic material by man ¿ vitro
II. pBR322 is the first artificial cloning vector developed in 1977 by Boliver and
Rodriquez from E . coli plasmid
III. Restriction enzymes belongs to a class of enzymes called nucleases
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

59. What is C-DNA?

a) Circular DNA

b) Cloned DNA

c) DNA produced from reverse transcription of RNA

d) Cytoplasmic DNA

60. PCR was developed by …A… in …B… and for this he received Nobel Prize for chemistry
in …C… .Here A, B and C can be recognized as
A B C
a) KaryMulllis 1990 1997 b) Flemming 1985 1993

c) Kary Mullis 1985 1993 d) Flemming 1990 1997

61. Cutting of a piece of DNA from a plasmid was done with the help of …A… enzymes,
popularly known as …B… .Here A and B can be
a) A-Tu ligases; B-Molecular glu b) A-Restriction enzyme; B-Molecular
scissors
c) A-Joining enzyme; B-Molecular glu d) A-DNA polymerases; B-Synthesising
enzymes
62. In a genetic engineering experiment, restriction enzymes can be used for

a) Bacterial DNA only b) Viral DNA only

c) Any DNA fragment d) Eukaryotic DNA only

63. The components of a bioreactor are

I. an agitator system
II. an oxygen delivery system
III. foam control system
IV. temperature control system
V. pH control system
VI. sampling ports to with draw cultures periodically
Choose the correct option
a) I, II, III, IV and V b) II, IV, V and VI c) I, II, III, IV and VI d) All of these

64. The minimum length of cistron in base pairs which synthesizes a polypeptide of 50 amino
acids is:
a) 50 bp b) 100 bp c) 150 bp d) 200 bp

65. I. DNA being a hydrophilic molecule cannot pass through cell membranes
II. The bacteria should be made competent to accept the DNA molecule
The correct option regarding the above statements is
a) I is true, but II is false b) II is true, but I is false
 c) I and II are true d) I and III are false

66. In cloning plasmid pBR322

p stands for …A…
B stands for …B…
R stands for …C…
Choose the correct option
a) A-plasmid, B-Boliver, C-Rodriquez b) A-plasmid, B-bacteria, C-Rodriquez

c) A-prophage, B-bacteriophage, C- d) A-prophage, B-Boliver, C-Rodriquez

Rodriquez
67. Blood stains are found at the site of murder. If DNA profiling technique is to be used for
identifying the criminal, which of the following is ideal for use?
a) Serum b) Erythrocytes c) Leucocytes d) Platelets

68. The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:

a) Bacillus thurin g einsis b) A g robacterium rhizo g enes

c) A g robacterium tumifaciens d) Escherichia coli

69. Who got the Nobel prize in medicine for their discovery of ‘G-proteins’ and the role of
these proteins in the cells:
a) Robert and Philip Sharp b) Gilman and Rodbell

c) Fischer and Krebs d) Ervin Nahar and Bert Sakmann

70. Which of the following is required to perform polymerase chain reaction?

I. DNA template
II. Primer
III. Taq polymerase and vent polymerase
Choose the correct option
a) I, II and III b) I and II c) II and III d) II and III

71. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is:

a) Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

b) Phenotypic differences between individuals

c) Availability of cloned DNA

d) Knowledge of human karyotype

72. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell
through a vector. Consider the following four agents (I-IV) in this regard and select the
correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors
I. Bacterium
II. Plasmid
III. Plasmodium
IV. Bacteriophage
a) I, II and IV b) I only c) I and III d) II and IV

73. Transfer of any gene into a completely different organism can be done through
 a) Genetic b) Tissue culture c) Transformation d) None of these
engineering
74. Thermostable enzymes ' taq ' and ' vent ' isolated from thermophilic bacteria are

a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligases

c) Restriction endonucleases d) RNA polymerases

75. Due to chloramphenicol resistance gene, one is able to select a transformed cell in the
presence of chloramphenicol. The chloramphenicol resistance gene in this case is called
a) Origin of replication b) Selectable marker

c) Cloning sites d) Insertional inactivation

76. GAATTC is the recognition site for the restriction endonuclease

a) Eco RI b) Hind II c) Eco RII d) Bam HI

77. Plasmid is

a) An autonomously replicating circular extrachromosomal DNA

b) An autonomously replicating circular extrachromosomal RNA

c) An circular protein molecules

d) An autonomously replicating chromosomal DNA

78. The polymerase chain reaction is a technique that is used for

a) In vivo replication of DNA

b) In vivo synthesis of mRNA

c) In vitro synthesis of mRNA

d) In vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase

79. Yeast has become important in genetic engineering because it:

a) Has plasmids that can be genetically engineered

b) Allows the study of eukaryotic gene regulation and expression

c) Grows readily and rapidly in the laboratory

d) All of the above

80. The genome of Caenorhabditis el g ans consists of:

a) 3 billion base pairs and 30,000 genes b) 12 million base pairs and 6,000 genes

c) 4.7 million base pairs and 4,000 genes d) 97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes

81. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are:

a) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella b) Escherichia and A g robacterium

c) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter d) Rhizobium and Diplococcus

82. Gel electrophoresis is used for:

a) Isolation of DNA molecule

b) Cutting of DNA into fragments

c) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size

d) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

83. Then linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with:

a) DNA ligase b) Exonucleases c) Endonucleases d) DNA polymerase

84. Restriction endonucleases are:

a) Present in mammalian cell for degradation of DNA when the cell dies

b) Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defence mechanism

c) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis

d) Both (B) and (C)

85. Which one of the following is related with genetic engineering?

a) Plasmids b) Mitochondria c) Mutations d) Ribosomes

86. Enzyme that is used in PCR technology is

a) Ligase b) Polymerase

c) Helicase d) Reverse transcriptase

87. Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing:

a) Detects only mutant and normal alleles

b) Can be done only on eggs or sperms

c) Involves hybridization to ribosomal RNA

d) Utilizes restriction enzymes and a polymorphic site

88. An enzyme catalyzing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is

a) Endonuclease b) Exonuclease c) DNA ligase d) Hind II

89. Inducible/lacoperon system operates in:

a) Catabolic pathway b) Anabolic pathway

c) Intermediate metabolism d) All the above

90. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) needs

a) DNA template b) Primers c) Taq polymerase d) All of these

91. Consider the following statements

I. A soil inhabiting plant bacterium, Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several dicot
 plants is able to transfer a piece of DNA known as T-DNA
II. The T-DNA causes tumours
III. Tumour formation induced by Ti-plasmid
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

92. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

a) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

b) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase

c) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

d) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

93. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

a) Single-stranded RNA b) Double-stranded DNA

c) Single-stranded DNA d) Double-stranded RNA

94. Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from:

a) Algae b) Fungi c) Protozoans d) Prokaryotes

95. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens – Tumour b) Thermusaquaticus – Bt gene

c) pBR322 – Enzyme d) Ligase – Molecular scissors

96. The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a reaction in which amplification of specific
DNA sequences is carried out ¿ vitro. This statement is
a) True b) False

c) Sometimes (a) and sometimes (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)

97. The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about:

a) 35 million b) 3.1 billion c) 3.5 million d) 35 thousand

98. Totipotency in cell is:

a) Flower in a culture medium

b) Development of fruit from a flower in a culture medium

c) Development of an organism from cell in culture medium

d) Development of all tissues of all kinds from a cell in a culture medium

99. Restriction enzymes was discovered by

a) Alexander Flemming b) Waksman

c) Berg d) Smith, Nathan and Arber

100. Identify the plasmid:

a) Alu I b) Hind III c) Eco RI d) pBR 322

101. Consider the following statements

I. Bioreactors are vessels of large volumes in which raw materials are biologically
converted into specific products
II. One of the most commonly used bioreactors is of stirring type
III. Shake flasks are used for growing and mixing the desired materials on a small scale
in the laboratory
IV. A large scale production of desired biotechnological product is done by using
‘bioreactors’
a) I and II b) I and III c) I, II and III d) I, II, III and IV

102. The term ‘Biotechnology’ was given by

a) Craig Venter b) Robert Edward c) Karl Erkey d) Temin and

Baltimore
103. A collection of organisms, usually viruses, bacteria or yeast, which have been
transformed by the addition of extra genes from another species:
a) Gene replication b) Gene cloning c) Gene pool d) Gene library

104. Exonucleases cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end of the polynucleotide chain
are:
a) Specific for 5’ end of RNA strand

b) Specific for 3’ end of RNA strand

c) Specific for both 5’ and 3’ ends of nucleotide strands

d) Non-specific for 5’ and 3’ ends of nucleotide strand

105. The genetic recombinants obtained by insertion of plasmid into 1 phage genome is
called:
a) Cosmid b) Phasmid c) Phagmid d) Foreign DNA

106. Which of the following statements is true?

a) In the historic cloning experiment of Dr. Wilmut, the transplanted nucleus was taken
from an udder cell
b) Mammalian characters appeared first in dinosaurs

c) Heart of mammals is incapable of being in vitro

d) Pyramid of biomass is upright in pond ecosystem

107. Which of the following statement is not true?

I. DNA being a hydrophilic molecule cannot pass through cell membranes
II. Agrobacterium tumefaciens delivers a piece of DNA known as ‘Z-DNA’ in the Ti-plasmid
which transforms normal plant cells into tumour cells to produce chemical against
pathogens
III. Retrovirus, adenovirus, papillomavirus are also now used as cloning vectors in
animal because of their ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cell.
IV. In genetic engineering, DNA from different sources are cut with the same restriction
enzymes so that both DNA fragments have same kind of sticky ends
 Choose the correct option
a) Only I b) Only II c) Only III d) Only IV

108. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a) RNA polymerase -RNA primer b) Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering

c) Central Dogma-codon d) Okazaki fragments-splicing

109. Bam HI, Eco RI, Sma H are the types of:

a) Restriction endooxidases b) Restriction endonucleases

c) Restriction exonucleases d) Restriction polymerases

110. PCR technique was invented by

a) Boyer b) Kary Mullis c) Cohen d) Sanger

111. Somaclonal variation can be obtained by:

a) Hybridization b) Tissue culture

c) Application of colchicine d) Irradiation with gamma rays

112. Ability to absorb foreign DNA is:

a) Sexduction b) Competence c) Hfr d) Transduction

113. Which of the following is specifically used in genetic engineering?

a) Ligase b) Gyrase

c) DNA polymerase d) Restriction endonuclease

114. The tumour inducing capacity of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is located in large

extrachromosomal plasmids called
a) Ri-plasmid b) Lambda phage c) pBR322 d) Ti-plasmid

115. Who discovered recombinant DNA (r DNA) technology?

a) HarGobind Khorana b) James D Watson

c) Stanley Cohen and Herber Boyer d) Walter Sutton and Avery

116. Which of the following is used in recombinant DNA technique?

a) Cell wall of virus b) Gene which produces capsid of virus

c) Virus d) Capsid of virus

117. There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix infront of the
replication fork. These proteins are:
a) DNA gyrase b) DNA polymerase I c) DNA ligase d) DNA topoisomerase

118. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in:

a) Spectrophotometry b) Tissue culture

 c) Gel electrophoresis d) PCR

119. For selectable marker.

I. It helps to select the host cells which contain the vector and eliminate the non
transformants
II. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics like ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline
or kanamycin, are useful selectable markers for E . coli
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) None of these

120. The first clone animal of the world is:

a) Molly sheep b) Polly sheep c) Dolly sheep d) Molly goat

121. Common bacterium used in genetic engineering is:

a) E . coli b) Diplococcus c) Rhizobium d) Spirillium

122. Who discovered that restriction enzymes have the capability of cutting DNA strands in a
particular fashion, which left what has became known as ‘sticky ends’ on the strands?
a) Ramdeo Mishra b) Stanley Cohen c) Herbert Boyer d) James D Watson

123. A restriction fragment containing a specific gene of interest can be identified by gel
electrophoresis followed by transferring the DNA to a membrane as a solid support
matrix using a procedure called
a) An allozyme b) A southern blot

c) Identification of a gene d) A restriction fragment length

polymorphism
124. About gene gun method
I. This method is also known as biolistic technique
II. In this method cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or
tungsten coated with DNA in plants
III. Important crop plants like maize, rice and wheat have now been transformed by this
method
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

125. Identify the correct match for the given diagram

a) Electrophoresis – Migration of undigested and digested set of DNA fragments

b) Bioreactor – Raw materials are biologically converted into specific products

c) Microinjection – Technique of introducing foreign genes into a host cell

d) Gene cloning – Technique of obtaining identical copies of a particular DNA segment

126. In DNA fingerprinting which of the following is true?

 a) VNTR is used as probes

b) Specific metabolic genes are used as probes

c) House keeping or luxury genes are use as probes

d) All of the above

127. The message from nuclear DNA for the synthesis of specific cytoplasmic protein is
carried by:
a) mRNA b) t-RNA c) s-RNA d) r-RNA

128. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is:

a) Northern blotting b) Southern blotting c) Eastern blotting d) Western blotting

129. The flowchart given below represent the process of recombinant technology. Identify A
and D

a) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction exonuclease, C-RNA ligase, D-

Transformation
b) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction endonuclease, C-DNA ligase, D-
Transformation
c) A-Restriction exonuclease, B-Restriction endonuclease, C-DNA polymerase , D-
Transduction
d) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction endonuclease, C-DNA polymerase, D-
Transformation
130. RNA is removed by the treatment with

a) Ribonuclease b) Protease c) Chitinase d) Cellulase

131. Which one of the following scientists developed the process of DNA fingerprinting?

a) Kary B. Mullis b) T.H. Morgan c) H.O. Smith d) Alec Jeffreys

132. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Eco RI restriction
endonuclease enzyme?
I. Eco . RI restriction endonuclease enzyme is isolated from Escherichia coli RY13
II. Its recognition sequence is 5’–GAATTC – 3’
3’–CTTAAG – 5’

5’ – G – A – A –T – T – C – 3’
↓
 III. Its site of cleavage is
3’ – C – T – T – A – A – G – 5’

a) I and II
↑

b) I and III

c) I, II and III

d) None of the above

133. Process of formation of RNA from DNA is called

a) Transduction b) Transcription c) Transformation d) Translation

134. Which of the following would not be used in preparing recombinant DNA?

a) Plasmids b) Phages

c) Restriction enzymes d) DNA polymerase III

135. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work
in plants?
a) A g robacterium tumefaciens b) Clostridium septicum

c) Xanthomonas citri d) Bacillus coa g ulens

136. Which of the following components are used in gel electrophoresis?

I. Ethidium bromide
II. Restriction endonuclease
III. Agarose
IV. UV radiation
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and III c) I, II and IV d) I, II, III and IV

137. What is the first step in Southern Blotting technique?

a) Isolation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime

b) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe

c) Production of group of genetically identical cells

d) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme

138. The most thoroughly studied of the known bacteria-plant interaction is the:

a) Plant growth simulation by phosphate-solubilising bacteria

b) Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns

c) Gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium

d) Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria

139. Microorganisms can be grown in the bioreactor by

 a) Support growth system b) Agitated growth system

c) Suspended growth system d) Both (a) and (b)

140. In Northern blotting RNAs are separated by gel electrophoresis and the RNA bands are
transferred onto a membrane of:
a) Diazobenzyloxymethyl b) Diazobenzene

c) Diazobromine d) None of the above

141. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

a) Trichodermaharzianum b) Meloidogyneincognitia

c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Penicilliumexpansum

142. Which one among the following is just a cloning plasmid not an expression plasmid?

a) pBAD-18-Cam b) pBCSK c) pUC 18 d) pET

143. There …A… are the DNA molecules that can carry a foreign …B… segment into the host
cell.
Here A and B refers to
A B
a) Vector RNA b) Vector DNA

c) Gene RNA d) Gene DNA

144. Probes, used in DNA fingerprinting are initially

a) Single-stranded RNA b) Mini satellite

c) 19 base long oligonucleotides d) All of the above

145. Application of PCR are

I. detection of pathogens
II. diagnosis of specific mutation
III. DNA fingerprinting
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

146. A clone of sheep Dolly has been made by:

a) Gene transfer b) Somatic cell cloning

c) Nucleus transfer d) Germinal cell cloning

147. T 1-plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from

a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Agrobacterium rhizogenes

c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Psedomonassyringae

148. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is

a) Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments

 b) Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments

c) Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases

d) None of the above

149. Transgenic animals are produced by injecting foreign gene into the:

a) Egg b) Nucleus of unfertilized egg

c) Nucleus of fertilized egg d) Nucleus of sperm

150. Clonal cell lines can be obtained by:

a) Autoradiography b) Tissue culture c) Centrifugation d) Cell fractionation

151. Electroporation procedure involves:

a) Fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric
stimulation
b) Opening of stomatal pores during night by artificial light

c) Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs

d) Purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system

152. Which of the following is associated with genetic engineering?

a) Plastids b) Plasmids c) Mutations d) Hybrid vigour

153. Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for

a) Disarming pathogen vectors b) Transformation of plants cells

c) Construction recombinant DNA by joining d) DNA fingerprinting

with vectors
154. Which of the following statements are correct for the enzyme taq polymerases?
I. Taq polymerase is thermally unstable
II. It requires primers for carrying out the process of polymerization
III. Taq polymerase is isolated from thermophilic bacterium, Thermus aquaticus
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

155. EFB stands for

a) European Federation of Biotechnology b) Eurasian Federation of Biotechnology

c) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology d) Ethiopian Federation of Biotechnology

156. The commonly used DNA fingerprinting technique in forensic studies is simply a method
involving
a) Southern blotting b) Northern blotting c) Eastern blotting d) Western blotting

157. Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thruigiensis are effective against

a) Nematodes b) Bollworms c) Mosquitoes d) Flies

158. In the naming of restriction enzymes the first letter is derived from …A… name and next
 two letters from the …B… and fourth letter from …C… of …D… where the enzymes are
extracted
A to D in the statement can be
A B C D
a) Genus species strain bacteria b) Species genus strain bacteria

c) Genus species variety eukaryote d) Species genus variety eukaryote

159. Which of the following techniques is most commonly used to separate DNA molecules by
size?
a) Chromatography b) PCR c) RFLP d) Gel electrophoresis

160. Which one of the following scientists got the Nobel Prize for his invention polymerase
chain reaction (PCR)?
a) F. Sanger b) Paul Berg c) Alec Jeffreys d) Kary B. Mullis

161. Which is non-invasive technique of genetic counselling?

a) Amniocentesis b) Chorionic biopsy

c) Foetal blood sampling d) Ultrasonography

162. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of:
a) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

b) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

c) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

d) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

163. Which of the following steps are catalyzed by taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?

a) Denaturation of template DNA b) Annealing of primers to template DNA

c) Extension of primer end on the template d) All of the above

DNA
164. I. In the process of recombinant DNA technology after several treatment the purified
DNA is precipitated by adding chilled ethanol
II. The bacterial/plant, animal cell is broken down by enzymes to release DNA, along
with RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and lipids
Choose the correct option for above statements
a) I is true, but II is false b) I is false, but II is true

c) I and II are true d) I and II are false

165. Which of the statements are correct about bioreactors?

I. It provides all the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing
optimal growth conditions like temperature, pH , substrate, salt, vitamin and oxygen
II. It is suited for large-scale production of microorganisms under aseptic conditions for
a number of days
Correct option is
a) Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) None of the above
166. Taq polymerase enzyme used in PCR is isolated from

a) Thermusaquaticus b) Thermococcuslitoralis

c) Salmoneliatyphimurium d) None of the above

167. The first hormone artificially produced by culturing bacteria is:

a) Insulin b) Thyroxine c) Testosterone d) Adrenaline

168. A gene is made up of:

a) DNA b) RNA c) Either DNA or RNA d) Amino acids

169. The first restriction endonuclease type II …A…, was isolated by Smith, Wilcox and Kelley
from …B… bacterium. It was formed to cut DNA molecules at a particular point by
recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs, known as the …C… . Here A, B and C
can be
A B C
a) Eco RI Escherichia RY 13 Restriction sequence

b) Eco RII E.coli R 245 Recognition sequence

c) Hind II Haemophilus influenzaRecognition sequence

d) Bam HI Bacillus Restriction sequence

amyoliquefaciens
170. In gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments are visualized after staining the
DNA with …A… followed by exposure to …B…
Here A and B refers to
AB
a) B-galactosidaseInfrared radiation b) Ethidium bromide UV radiation

c) Ethidium nitrate γ -rays d) Ethidium chloride Radiowave

171. In DNA fingerprinting:

a) A positive identification can be made

b) Multiple restriction enzyme digests/generate unique fragments

c) The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer DNA

d) The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated

172. Cosmid is:

a) Extragenetic material in Mycoplasma b) Circular DNA in bacteria

c) Extra DNA in bacteria d) Fragment of DNA inserted in bacteria for

forming copies
173. Following enzymes/chemical/technique are used in the process of gel electrophoresis
I. sample DNA is cut into fragments
II. restriction endonucleases
III. agarose gel
IV. ethidium bromide
 V. UV-radiation
VI. elution
Mark the correct sequence of their use
a) I, II, III, VI, V and b) I, II, III, VI, V and c) IV, V, VI, I, II and d) I, II, IV, V, VI and
IV IV III III
174. Improvement of genotype of an organism by addition of some foreign genes is:

a) Genetic diversity b) Gene handling

c) Tissue culture d) Genetic engineering

175. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in polymerase chain
reaction?
a) DNA polymerase is responsible for DNA synthesis

b) It is isolated from Protozoa

c) It is serves as a selectable marker

d) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient plant cell

176. Most sensitive technique to detect malignant cell in non-hodgkin’s lymphoma is

a) Polymerase chain reaction b) Gene therapy

c) Stem cell therapy d) None of the above

177. Gene therapy involves:

a) Introducing of a normal genes in cell

b) Eliminating defective and useless genes

c) Treating of defective genes with radiations

d) Replacement of defective genes by normal ones

178. Human Genome project was the thought of:

a) Jean Dausset b) Watson c) Crick d) None of the above

179. Which conserved motifs are found in E . coli genes?

a) TATA box b) CAAT box c) Pribnow box d) All of these

180. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the
opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5’_________GAATTC___________3’
3’_________CTTAAG___________5’
a) Replication completed b) Deletion mutation

c) Start codon at the 5’ end d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs

181. The DNA used as a carrier for transferring a fragment of foreign DNA into a suitable
host is called
a) Cloning vector b) Vehicle DNA c) Gene carrier d) All of these
182. The nuclease enzyme, which beings its attack from free end of a polynucleotide, is?

a) Exonuclease b) Kinase c) Polymerase d) Endonuclease

183. Genetically engineered bacterium used in production of:

a) Thyroxine b) Human insulin c) Epinephrine d) Cortisol

184. In Southern blotting……… is separated by gel electrophoresis:

a) DNA b) m-RNA c) t-RNA d) Protein

185. Taq polymerase enzyme is found in:

a) Thermus aquatecus b) E . coli c) Pseudomonas d) A g robacterium

186. The process used for separation of protein in polyacrylamide gel is called:

a) Southern blotting b) Northern blotting c) Western blotting d) Eastern blotting

187. Which of the following methods(s) is used to introduce foreign DNA into host cells?

a) Gene gun method b) Gel electrophoresis c) Elution d) Extension

188. The figure shown three steps ( A , B ,C ) of Polymerase Chain Reaction PCR. Select the
option giving correct identification together with what represents?

a) B-denaturation at a temperature of about 98℃ separating the two DNA strands

b) A-denaturation at a temperature of about 50℃

c) C-extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

d) A-annealing with three sets of primers

189. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:

a) DNA tests for identity and relationships b) Forensic studies

c) Polymorphism d) All of the above

190. Restriction endonucleases are used as:

a) Molecular build up at nucleotides

b) Molecular degradation to DNA breakup

c) Molecular knives for cutting DNA at specific sites

d) Molecular cement to combine DNA sites

191. After completion of the biosynthetic stage in the bioreactors, the product undergoes.
 Separation and purification processes, collectively termed as
a) Transformation b) Transduction

c) Downstream processing d) Upstream processing

192. Which of the following should be choosen for best yield if one has to produce a
recombinant protein or enzyme on a large scale, using microbial plants/anima/human
cell?
a) Stirred-tank bioreactor b) Electrophoresis

c) Laboratory flask of largest capacity d) All of the above

193. Go through the figure and select the option for C and D. Here A and B are taken as
vector/plasmid DNA and foreign DNA respectively

Restriction enzyme Enzyme joining the

recognizing palindrome C sticky ends D
a) Eco RI DNA ligase b) DNA ligase Eco RI

c) Exonuclease DNA ligase d) DNA ligase Exonuclease

194. Which of the following is known as molecular scissors of DNA?

a) Ligase b) Polymerases

c) Restriction endonucleases d) Transcriptase

195. A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is

a) DNA replication b) Genetic c) Denaturation d) Renaturation

engineering
196. Harris and J.F. Watkins in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to
form hybrids:
a) Mouse and man b) Mouse and hamster

c) Mouse and click erythrocytes d) Mouse and Drosophila

197. Polymerase chain reaction employs

a) Primers and DNA ligase b) DNA ligase only

c) DNA polymerase d) Primer and DNA polymerase

198. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of

a) Competent cells b) Transformed cells c) Recombinant cells d) None of these

199. The collection of bacteria with gDNA is called:

a) DNA clones b) DNA library

c) Genomic DNA library d) cDNA library

200. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to a bioreactor?
I. It can process small volume of culture
 II. It provides optimum temperature, pH, salt, vitamins and oxygen
III. Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor is a stirred type reactor in which air is bubbled
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and II c) II and III d) I, II and III

201. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for:

a) Genetic transformation b) DNA sequencing

c) Genetic fingerprinting d) Study of enzymes

202. Restriction enzymes may be used for:

a) Making recombinant DNA b) Gene mapping

c) Diagnosis of genetic diseases d) All the above

203. Vent polymerase enzyme used in PCR is isolated from

a) Thermococcuslitoralis b) Thermusaquaticus

c) E.coli d) Salmonella typhimurium

204. Genetically bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of:

a) Human insulin b) Testosterone c) Thyroxine d) Melatonin

205. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:

a) DNA tests for identity and relationships b) Forensic studies

c) Polymorphism d) All of the above

206. Plasmids are autonomously replicating mini chromosomes found in:

a) Bacteriophage lambda b) Leishmania donovani

c) Escherichia coli d) Paramecium caudatum

207. Production of a human protein in bacteria in genetic engineering is possible because:

a) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions

b) The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell

c) The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria

d) The genetic code is universal

208. Reverse transcriptase:

a) Disintegrates host DNA b) Translates host DNA

c) Transcribes viral RNA to DNA d) Polymerises host DNA

209. An example of gene therapy is:

a) Production of injectable Hepatitis B vaccine

 b) Production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten

c) Production of test tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of fertilized

eggs
d) Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from Severe
Combined Immuno-Deficiency (SCID)
210. Synthetic DNA or sDNA is:

a) DNA synthesized in lab without any template

b) DNA synthesized in the cell without any template

c) DNA synthesized in the lab, without any nucleotide

d) DNA synthesized in the cell without any nucleotide

211. Stirred-tank bioreactors have advantages over shake flasks because they

a) Provide high temperature and pH

b) Provide better aeration and mixing properties

c) Do not allow the entry of C O

d) Are easy to operate

2

212. During ‘gene cloning’ which is called a gene taxi?

a) Vaccine b) Plasmid c) Bacteria d) Protozoa

213. TATAATG sequence near the RNA start point of prokaryotic promoter is:

a) Nicks b) DNA marker c) Pallindrome d) Pribnow box

214. I. Copy number is defined as the number of copies of plasmid present in a cell
II. It varies from 15-100 copies per cell
Choose regarding the above statements
a) I is true, II is false b) II is true, I is false c) Both are true d) Both are false

215. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide
chain?
a) Lipase b) Protease c) Exonuclease d) Endonuclease

216. What does Bt stand for the popular crop Bt cotton?

a) Best b) Best type c) Biotechnology d) Bacillus

thuringiensis
217. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein

b) Cosmid replicates like plasmids

c) Cosmid has antibiotic resistant marker gene

d) cos site has 12 bases helping to join complete genome to make it circular
218. An attenuated virus:

a) Is a virus that is non-pathogenic

b) In an elongated viral particle

c) Can transfer recombinant DNA to other viruses

d) Will not produce an immune response

219. Which of the following has popularized the PCR (polymerase chain reaction)?

a) Easy availability of DNA template b) Availability of synthetic primers

c) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides d) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA

polymerase
220. Choose the correct statement with reference to ‘Dolly’:

a) She was created by taking nucleus from unfertilized eggs and cytoplasm from
unfertilized eggs
b) She was created by taking nucleus from under udder cells and cytoplasm from
unfertilized eggs
c) She was created by taking cytoplasm from udder cell and nucleus from unfertilized
eggs
d) She was created by taking cytoplasm from udder cell and nucleus from fertilized eggs

221. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by

a) Stanley Cohen b) Herbert Boyer

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Temin and Baltimore

222. Study the given diagram and identify the enzymes A and B involves in steps I and II

Step I Step II
a) Eco RI DNA ligase b) Alu I DNA ligase

c) Hind II DNA polymerase d) Restriction endonuclease DNA

polymerase
223. Which one of the following is a correct statement

a) “Bt” in “Bt-cotton” indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced

through biotechnology
b) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired
genes
c) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds
 d) “FlavrSavr” variety of tomato has enhanced the production of ethylene which
improves its taste
224. The transgenic animals are those which have:

a) Foreign RNA in all its cell b) Foreign DNA in all its cells

c) Foreign DNA in some of its cells d) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

225. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall
degrading enzyme?
a) Plant cells- b) Algae-Methylase c) Fungi-Chitinase d) Bacteria-Lysozyme
Cellulase
226. Petroleum-lysing bacteria are being engineering for the removal of oil spills. What is the
most realistic danger of these bacteria to the environment?
a) Mutations leading to the production of a strain pathogenic to humans

b) Extinction of natural microbes due to the competitive advantage of the “petro-

bacterium”
c) Destruction of natural oil deposits

d) Poisoning of the food chain

227. c-DNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of:

a) Restriction enzymes b) Reverse transcriptase

c) DNA polymerase d) Adenosine deaminase

228. Mishandling of genetic engineering may cause:

a) Genetic erosion b) Green revolution c) Silver revolution d) White revolution

229. Gene for cloning may be chemically synthesized:

a) When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known

b) Through the use of restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis to separate restriction
fragments
c) By the Sanger method

d) By making complementary DNA from genes without introns

230. Source of taq polymerase used in PCR is a

a) Thermophilic fungus b) Mesophilic fungus

c) Thermophilic bacterium d) Halophilic bacterium

231. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:

a) Transgenic models for studying new treatment for certain cardiac diseases

b) Transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

c) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

d) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before sue in humans
232. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?

a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Agrobacterium fumefaciens

c) Pseudomonas putida d) None of the above

233. Plants in comparison to animals are more rapidly manipulated by genetic engineering.
Select out the most probable reason for this
a) Totipotency shown by plant cells

b) Single somatic cell can regenerate a whole plant body

c) Genetic engineering is supplemented with plant tissue culture techniques

d) All of the above

234. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a) Central dogma-Codon b) Okazaki fragments-Splicing

c) RNA polymerase-RNA primer d) Restriction enzymes-Genetic engineering

235. Recombinant DNA technology is related with:

a) Stanley Cohen and Harbert Boyer b) Bateson and Punnet

c) Huxley and Harvey d) Schleiden and Schwann

236. Western blotting technique was developed by:

a) Alwin b) Edwin c) Towbin d) Thomas

237. In recombinant DNA technique, the term vector refers to a

a) Donor DNA, it is identified and picked up through electrophoresis

b) Plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell

c) Collection of entire genome in form of plasmid

d) Enzyme, cuts the DNA at specific sites

238. Complete transduction is:

a) Transfer of whole genome with the help of virus

b) Picking up of one or more genes by a phage and transfer it to second host

c) Integration of gene brought by viral particle into genome of new host

d) Both B and C

239. The function of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is:

a) Translation b) Transduction c) DNA amplification d) None of these

240. The steps involved in the Southern blot test are as follows
I. X-ray film
II. Electrophoresis
 III. Digestion with restriction enzyme
IV. Ethidium bromide
V. Radioactive probe
Choose the option having correct sequential order of these events
a) III, II, IV, V and I b) III, IV, II, V and I c) III, II, V, IV and I d) II, IV, III, V and I

241. The given figure is the diagrammatic representation of the E . coli vector pBR322. Which
one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?

a) Ori-original restriction enzymes b) Rop-reduced osmotic pressure

c) Hind III, Eco RI-selectabel markers

am p , te t -antibiotic resistances genes
d) R R

242. The restriction enzyme(s) used in recombinant DNA technology that make staggered
cuts in DNA leaving sticky ends is/are
a) Eco RI b) Hind II c) Bam HI d) All of the above

243. RNA processing is:

a) An event that occurs after RNA b) The rejection of old, worn-out RNA
transcribed
c) An event that occurs before RNA is d) Both (A) and (C)
transcribed
244. Find out the wrong statements

a) Mobile genetic elements, transposons were visualized by Barbara McClintock

b) Udder cell and somatic cell is used to produce the cloned sheep by nuclear
transplantation method
c) In pedigree analysis, a person immediately affected by and action is called propositus

d) DNA ligases are used to cleave a DNA molecule

245. Widely used tool in genetic engineering of crop plants is:

a) Protoplast fusion b) Transposon

c) Microinjection d) Agrobacterium mediation

246. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:

a) DNA tests for identity and relationships b) Forensic studies

c) Polymorphism d) All of the above

247. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?
 a) Hamilton Othanel Smith b) Sir Godfrey Hounsfield

c) F. Jacob d) Andre Lwoff

248. The mobile genetic element is

a) Transposons b) Mutation c) Endonuclease d) Variation

249. The enzyme used for cutting DNA segment in genetic engineering is:

a) ATP-ase b) Ligase

c) DNA polymerase d) Restriction endonuclease

250. When the number of genes increases in response to some signal, the effect is called:

a) Gene dosage b) Gene pool c) Gene amplification d) Gene frequency

251. Identify the palindromic sequence in the following

a) GAATTC b) GGATCC c) CCTGGA d) CGATAC

252. Colony hybridization procedure for identification of plasmid clones is called:

CTTUUG CCTAGG GGACCT GCTAAG

a) Southern blotting b) Grunstein-Hogness assay

c) DNA probes d) Molecular assay

253. The different basic steps of genetic engineering are given below randomly
I. Identification of DNA with desirable genes
II. Gene transfer
III. Maintenance of DNA in host and gene cloning
IV. Introduction of DNA into host to from recombinant DNA
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps?
a) I, II, III and IV b) I, IV, III and II c) III, IV, II and I d) I, III, IV and II

254. Which of the following steps are involved in the process of recombinant biotechnology?
Arrange in correct order
I. Extraction of the desired gene product
II. Amplification of the gene of interest
III. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment
IV. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
V. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host
Correct order is
a) I, II, III, IV and V b) III, II, IV, V and I c) II, IV, V, III and I d) I, IV, V, III and II

255. In bacteria, genes for antibiotic resistance are usually located in:

a) Chromosomal DNA b) Cytoplasm c) Mitochondria d) Plasmids

256. Natural genetic engineer is:

a) Bacillus subtillis b) Pseudomonas spp

c) Escherichia coli d) A g robacterium tumefaciens

257. A number of bacteria with recombinant DNA of same type form:

a) Clone library b) Gene library c) Gene pool d) Gene frequency

258. I. …A… is the ability of a cell to take up foreign DNA

II. The cell is treated with specific concentration of a divalent cation such as …B… to
increase pore size in cell wall
III. In ….C… method recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal
cell
The most appropriate option regarding A, B and C is
a) A-Competency, B-Calcium, C-gene gun method

b) A-Transformation, B-Sodium, C-microinjection method

c) A-Competency, B-Calcium, C-microinjection method

d) A-Transformation, B-Sodium, C-gene gun method

259. T 1plasmid is used for making transgenic plants. It is obtained from:

a) Azotobacter b) Agrobacterium

c) Rhizobium in leguminous root d) Yeast

260. Identify and match the labelled items A , B ,C , D , E , F and G in the diagram below from
the list I-VII given with components

I. DNA polymerase
II. plasmid
III. plasmid with ‘sticky ends’
IV. DNA ligase
V. restriction endonuclease
VI. recombinant DNA
VII. reverse transcriptase
The correct components are
A B C D E F G
a) VII I II V III IV VI b) VII VI V IV III II I

c) VII V III I II IV VI d) I II IV VI III V VII

261. A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed parentage is:

a) DNA fingerprinting b) Polymerase chain reaction

 c) Recombinant DNA technology d) Monoclonal antibody production

262. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is

a) Origin of replication b) Presence of a selectable marker

c) Presence of sites for restriction d) Its size

endonuclease
263. DNA gyrase, the enzyme that participates in the process of DNA replication is a type of

a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase

c) DNA topoisomerase d) Reverse transcriptase

264. Abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene through:

a) Gene therapy b) Medicines c) Cloning d) Radiation

265. The key tools required for the recombinant DNA technology are
I. restriction enzymes II. Polymerase enzymes
III. host organism ligases IV. Vectors
V. host organisms
Select the correct option
a) I, II and III b) I, III, IV and V c) I, II, III and V d) I, II, III, IV and V

266. A tumour inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plants in that of:

a) Escherichia coli b) Bacillus thurin g iensis

c) Staphylococcus aureus d) A g robacterium tumefaciens

267. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at
about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
a) 5’_________GATATG___________3’
3’_________CTACTA___________5’
b) 5’_________GAATTC___________3’
3’_________CTTAAG___________5’
c) 5’_________CACGTA___________3’
3’_________CTCAGT___________5’
d) 5’_________CGTTCG___________3’
3’_________ATGGTA___________5’
268. Which of the following infection (s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain
reaction?
a) HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses b) Hepatitis-B virus

c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) All of the above

269. Agarose is extracted from

a) Sea weeds b) Blue-green algae c) Ephedra d) Sargassam

270. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?

a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in b) It serves as a selectable marker

recipient cell
 c) It is isolated from a virus d) It remains active at high temperature

271. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
separated by:
a) Polymerase chain reaction b) Electrophoresis

c) Restriction mapping d) Centrifugation

272. The two main techniques that gave birth to modern biotechnology are
I. chemical engineering
II. genetic engineering
III. human genome engineering
IV. molecular biology
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and IV d) II and III

273. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

a) Purification of the product

b) Addition of preservatives to the product

c) Availability of oxygen throughout the process

d) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

274. First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic

engineering is:
a) Interferon b) Penicillin c) Human insulin d) Fertility factors

275. Which is incorrect statement?

a) Taq DNA polymerase is important for PCR

b) Taq DNA polymerase is not thermostable

c) In PCR two nucleotide primers are used

d) Taq DNA polymerase, isolated from bacterium Thermusaquaticus

276. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills

is a species of:
a) Trichoderma b) Xanthomonas c) Bacillus d) Pseudomonas

277. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for?

a) Coli b) Coelom c) Coenzyme d) Colon

278. Which of the following would have the highest oxygen transfer rate characteristics?

a) A sparged stirred tank bioreactor being stirred at 200 RPM

b) A non-sparged stirred tank bioreactor being stirred at 200 RPM

c) A shake flask being mixed at 200 RPM

d) All of the above would have equivalent oxygen transfer rate characteristics
279. Enzymes breaking nucleic acids into nucleotides are called:

a) Hydrolases b) Amylases c) Nucleic acidases d) Nucleases

280. Palaeontologists unearthed a human skull during excavation. A small fragment of the
scalp tissue was still attached to it. Only little DNA could be extracted from it. If the
genes of the ancient man need to be analysed, the best way of getting sufficient amount
of DNA from this extract is
a) By hybridizing the DNA with a DNA probe

b) By subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction

c) By subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis

d) By treating the DNA with restriction endonucleases

281. Transgenic organisms are produced by:

a) Deleting sex chromosomes b) Inducing gene mutations

c) Introducing foreign genes d) Arresting spindle fibre formation

282. Manipulation of gene and genetic material by man is a fast emerging branch of science
which started with the formation of recombinant DNA molecules. This branch of science
is named as
a) Recombinant DNA technology b) Genetic engineering

c) DNA manipulation biotechnology d) All of the above

283. Ligases catalyse the formation of bonds between

a) C = C b) P = O c) C – C d) H – H

284. The characteristics of a molecular probe are

I. very long molecule
II. double-stranded
III. DNA or RNA
IV. complementary to a part of desired gene
The correct pair is
a) I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) IV and I

285. VNTR analysis involves

a) Analyzing specific loci for two base repeating units usually less then 100 bp in size

b) Analyzing specific loci for 2-4 bp repeating units

c) PCR amplification of specific genes

d) Cutting DNA with restriction enzyme and analyzing the banding pattern of fragments

286. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery of

a) Restriction endonuclease b) DNA ligase

c) Transcriptase d) Primase

287. Study the given figure carefully and select the correct statements regarding this
 I. It represents typical agarose gel electrophoresis which showing differential migration
of DNA fragments
II. Lane 1 contains undigested DNA fragments
III. Lanes 2 to 4 contains digested DNA fragment
IV. Smallest DNA bands are present at ( A ) position and largest DNA bands are present
at ( B) position
a) I, II and III b) I, II and IV c) II and III d) III and IV

288. Matching sequence of DNA between two evidences, one of the criminal with the suspect
is known as:
a) DNA fingerprinting b) DNA amplification c) Gene mapping d) DNA resolution

289. Alec Jeffreys developed the DNA fingerprinting technique. The probe he used was

a) Ribozyme b) Sex chromosomes c) SNP d) VNTR

290. In addition to taq polymerase enzyme which other thermostable DNA polymerases have
been isolated to be used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?
a) Vent polymerase b) Pfu polymerase c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

291. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature. They are in order of

a) Denaturation, synthesis (polymerization), annealing

b) Annealing, synthesis (polymerization), denaturation

c) Synthesis (polymerization), annealing, denaturation

d) Denaturation, annealing, synthesis (polymerization)

292. One of the following is transgenic of organisms:

a) Holly sheep and Flavrsavr tomato b) Holly sheep and Cotton Bt

c) Dolly sheep and Cotton Ct d) Flavrsavr tomato and Cotton Bt

293. Name of the drug used in cancer treatment produced by using biotechnology is:

a) HGH b) TSH c) Insulin d) Interferon

294. What is the function of Restriction endonuclease?

a) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus

b) Synthesizes DNA

c) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly

d) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

295. I. Bacteriophages are …A… nfectecting …B… .

 II. …C… are hybrid vectors derived from plasmids which contain or site of λ phage
A, B and C in above statements refers to
A B C
a) Protozoa Bacteria Cosmid b) Plasmid Virus Cosmid

c) Bacteria Virus Cosmid d) Virus Bacteria Cosmid

296. In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from the
gel piece. This step is called
a) Elution b) Origin replication c) Competency d) Transformation

297. Nif genes is a group of proteins:

a) 15 genes b) 15 nucleotides c) 15 proteins d) 10 genes

298. Identify the following diagrams A and B and select the correct option

a) A-Simple stirred-tank bioreactor, B-Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor

b) A-Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor, B-Complex stirred-tank bioreactor

c) A-Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor, B-Simple stirred-tank bioreactor

d) A-Simple stirred-tank bioreactor, B-Complex stirred-tank bioreactor

299. Genetic engineering is helpful in:

a) Gene regulation b) Gene translation c) Gene therapy d) Alcohol production

300. Significance of heat shock method in bacterial transformation is facilitate

a) Binding of DNA to the cell wall b) Uptake of DNA through membrane

transport proteins
c) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
the bacterial cell wall
301. A technique used to make numerous copies of a specific segment of DNA quickly and
accurately:
a) Ligase chain reaction b) Transcription
 c) Polymerase chain reaction d) Translation

302. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are:

a) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.

b) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditiselegans

c) Escherichia coli and Agrobacteriumtumefaciens

d) Vibriocholerae and a tailed bacteriophage

303. Minisatellite or Variable Number Tendem Repeat (VNTR) are used in

a) Gene therapy b) Gene mapping c) DNA fingerprinting d) Restriction

enzymes
304. Having become an expert on gel electrophoresis, you are asked to examine a gel for a
colleague. Where would you find the smallest segment of DNA?
a) Near the positive electrode, farthest away from the wells

b) Near the negative electrode, close to the wells

c) Near the top, near the negative pole

d) Near the middle they tend to slow-down after the first few minutes

305. Improvement of genotype of an organism by addition of some foreign genes is:

a) Genetic diversity b) Gene handling c) Tissue culture d) Genetic

engineering
306. The structure involved in genetic engineering is

a) Codon b) Anticodon c) Vector d) Plasmid

307. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their

a) Charge only b) Size only c) Charge to size ratio d) All of these

308. In gel electrophoresis, the sample DNA is cut into fragments by

a) Restriction endonucleases b) Exonuclease

c) Endonuclease d) Anhydro L-galactose

309. Molecular scissors, which cut DNA at specific site:

a) Ligase b) Cellulase

c) Pectinase d) Polymerase

310. PCR stands for:

a) Polymerase Cyclic Reaction b) Polymerase Chain Reaction

c) Polyethyl Cytosine Reaction d) Polymerization Chain Reaction

311. In case of polymerase chain reaction, temperature, required for the steps
A. Denaturation
B. Annealing
 C. Extension
a) A-94℃ , B-40℃ , C-72℃ b) A-40℃ , B-72℃ , C-94℃

c) A-72℃ , B-94℃ , C-40℃ d) A-94℃ , B-72℃ , C-40℃

312. DNA can be introduced into any cell by:

a) Injection

b) Being complexed with calcium salts

c) Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun

d) Gel electrophoresis

313. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice:

a) Gives high yield and is rich in Vitamin A

b) Is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy

c) Gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma

d) Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones

314. Which of the following organelles is associated with genetic engineering?

a) Plastids b) Plasmids c) Chloroplast d) Mitochondria

315. Human genome contains about:

a) 10,000 nucleotides b) 10,000 genes c) 6 billion d) 6 billion genes

nucleotides
316. An artificial process of infecting cells with naked viral DNA is:

a) Translation b) Transduction c) Transfection d) Transgenic

317. Match the correct one:

a) RNA Polymerase-RNA primer b) Respiration-Lysosome

c) Restriction enzyme-genetic engineering d) Central dogma-DNA structure

318. For transformation, microparticles coated with DNA are to be bombarded with gene gun
are made up of:
a) Platinum or Zinc b) Silicon or Platinum c) Gold or Tungsten d) Silver or Platinum

319. You are attempting to introduce a gene that imparts larval moth resistance to bean
plants. Which of the following vectors are you most likely to use?
a) Phage DNA b) Bacterial plasmid c) Ti plasmid d) Yeast plasmid

320. Simple stirred-tank bioreactor is given below. Identify A,B,C,D and E

 A B C D E
a) Motor Foam Steri Steam for Acid/ b) Foam Steri Stea Acid/
brak le air sterilizati Base of brak le air m for Base of
er on pH sterili pH
er
control zeatio control
n
c) Acid/ Moto Foam Sterile air Steam d) Steril Steam Foam Motor Acid/
Base r brak for e air for brak Base of
of pH er sterilize sterili er pH
contro ation ze control
l ation
321. Protein engineering is used to study the proteins to compare the catalytic properties of:

a) Normal and mutated form of enzyme b) Normal form of enzyme

c) Mutated form of enzyme d) Normal and mutated form of proteins

322. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes
are called:
a) Polymorphic genes b) Operator genes c) Redundant genes d) Regulatory genes

323. The experimental manipulation of DNA of different species, producing recombination

DNA is known as
a) Gel electrophoresis b) Transformation

c) Genetic engineering d) Replication technology

324. Plasmid is used as carrier because:

a) It has both ends with replicating points

b) It has no free ends

c) It is circular DNA with a capacity of binding with equkaryotic DNA

d) All of the above

325. Which of the following statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by
agarose gel electrophoresis?
a) DNA can be seen in visible light

b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light

c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light

d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

326. Nitrogen fixing genes are called:

a) ‘ Nif ’ genes b) Plasmid genes c) ¿ g genes d) cos genes

327. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:

a) Enhancing shelf life b) Enhancing mineral content

c) Drought-resistance d) Insect-resistance

328. Variable number of tendem repeats (VTNRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in:

a) Monoclonal antibody production b) DNA fingerprinting

c) Recombinant DNA technology d) Stem cell culture

329. Protoplasts of two different species are fused in:

a) Clona propagation b) Organography

c) Micropropagation d) Somatic hybridization

330. Identify the correct match for the given diagram

Apparatusfunction
a) Gene gun - Vectorless direct gene transfer

b) Electrophoresis - Differential migration of DNA fragments

c) Bioreactor - Raw materials are biologically converted into specific products

d) Respirometer - Finding out rate of respiration

331. DNA fingerprinting technique was first developed by:

a) Jeffreys, Wilson and Thein b) Schleiden and Schwann

c) Edward and Steptoe d) Boysen and Jensen

332. Using recombinant technology, genes from a donor cell can be transplanted into a
bacterium for DNA replication and protein synthesis. The kinds of cells that can be used
as a donor in this technology are
a) Bacteria b) Either yeast or bacteria

c) Eukaryotic cells d) Any kind of cell

333. Transformation is defined as the procedure by which a piece of …A… is introduced into a
…B… host. Here A and B refers to
A B
a) RNA Virus b) DNA Bacteria

c) RNA Bacteria d) DNA Virus