Name: _______________________________ Date: ______________________________

Term Test #3 Review

*Reminder: All materials used in FSG sessions (handouts, questions etc.) are created by the BIOA01 FSG
moderators and not by the course instructors. Please ensure that you contact the FSG moderators about any
questions related to these materials. Please also note that while the questions used in the FSG sessions are
very useful to promote your understanding of course concepts, they may NOT be in the same format that will
be used for the tests in BIOA01.

*Note: the following term test review was created by a BIOA01 FSG Facilitator and all answers were agreed
upon by your peers. As a reminder: I will NOT be providing any answers to this review worksheet.

***Please fill out the BIOA01 FSG Survey by December 15th! 🙂

Good luck 🍀!
1.) In Griffith’s experiment, which of the following are true?
a. Virulent bacteria → mouse lives
b. Nonvirulent bacteria → mouse lives
c. Killed virulent bacteria → mouse dies
d. Killed virulent & live nonvirulent bacteria → mouse lives
e. Killed virulent & live virulent bacteria → mouse is confused

2.) In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. G0 phase
b. G1 phase
c. M phase
d. S phase
e. G2 phase

3.) Which of the following is a component used in PCR?

a. Three primers
b. Four deoxyribonucleoside diphosphates (A, T, G, or C)
c. RNA polymerase
d. Replicated DNA
e. Taq DNA polymerase

4.) What is the typical order of the flow of genetic information in the central dogma?
a. DNA → RNA → Prion
b. RNA → DNA → Protein
c. DNA → Protein → RNA
d. DNA → RNA → Protein
e. DNA → RNA → Virus

5.) Which amino acid forms bridges within and between proteins to make disulfide bonds?
a. Proline
b. Phenylalanine
 c. Cysteine
d. Glycine
e. Serine

6.) Which one of the following occurs in protein sorting?

a. No signal sequence → to chloroplast
b. Amino-terminal signal sequence → remains in cytosol
c. No signal sequence → to nucleus
d. Internal signal sequence → to mitochondria
e. Amino-terminal signal sequence → to chloroplast

7.) What is the term for “different forms of a gene”?

a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Allele
d. Gene
e. Hereditary

8.) All mitochondrial DNA comes from:

a. The mother
b. The father
c. Both
d. Meiosis
e. None of the above

9.) Which of the following transpose by means of an RNA intermediate?

a. DNA transposons
b. RNA transposons
c. Retrotransposons
d. Introns
e. DNA replication

10.) Which of the following are true about viruses?

a. Microscopic infectious agents
b. Contain DNA or RNA as genetic material
c. Genome is surrounded by protein coat called capsid
d. Replicate solely when the nucleic acid has been delivered to a host cell
e. All of the above are true

11.) Scrapie was found in the brain of which animal?

a. Humans
b. Cows
c. Chickens
d. Sheep
 e. Goat

12.) Avery Macleod and Mccarty’s experiment found that ___ stores and transfers genetic
information.
a. Protein
b. Amino acids
c. DNA
d. RNA
e. DNase

13.) Which of the following lays down an RNA primer?

a. RNA polymerase
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA primer
d. RNA primase
e. DNA primase

14.) In gel electrophoresis, what do we use when we want to compare something of known size
to something of unknown size?
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. DNA ladder
d. DNA polymerase
e. Fluorescence

15.) Which of the following is true about RNA?

a. Contains deoxyribose sugar
b. Contains Thymine
c. Is double stranded
d. Contains adenine
e. Does not have enzymatic properties

16.) Where can you find hydrophilic amino acids in a protein?

a. In the interior of the protein
b. Do not exist inside a protein
c. On the exterior of a protein
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

17.) What is true about chromatin remodeling?

a. Methylation leads to gene activation
b. Acetylation leads to gene silencing
c. Methylation causes DNA to become more compact
d. Acetylation causes DNA to become more compact
 e. Two of the above are correct

18.) Which of the following is not one of the reasons for why cell division occurs?
a. Growth
b. Cell replacement
c. Death
d. Healing
e. Reproduction

19.) “Cells that are not actively dividing permanently” - which phase of the cell cycle is this?
a. G0 phase
b. G1 phase
c. G2 phase
d. S phase
e. M phase

20.) In pea plants, green is dominant (AA) and yellow is recessive (aa). Say that we cross a
heterozygous pea plant (Aa) with a homozygous recessive plant (aa). What would be the
resulting genotypes of the F1 generation?
a. Aa, aa, AA, AA
b. AA, Aa, Aa, aa
c. Aa, aa, aa, Aa
d. AA, aa, AA, aa
e. None of the above

21.) Crossing over between two genes results in which of the following:
a. Two recombinant and two nonrecombinant chromosomes
b. Two nonrecombinant and one recombinant chromosomes
c. Four nonrecombinant chromosomes
d. Four recombinant chromosomes
e. All of the above

22.) Which of the following replicate and transpose via DNA replication and repair?
a. Retrotransposons
b. DNA transposons
c. DNA replication
d. RNA transposons
e. Introns

23.) Which of the following terms states specifically which types of cells will be affected by a
particular virus?
a. Host range
b. Host tropism
c. Tropism
 d. Macrophage
e. Neuron

24.) Which of the following are true?

a. Prions follow the Central Dogma
b. PrPC is the diseased form of the prion protein
c. PrPSC is the cellular form of the prion protein
d. PrPSC has a mix of beta sheets and alpha helices
e. Two of the above are true

25.) DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid.

26.) Which of the following connects Okazaki fragments together after the RNA bases are
replaced with DNA bases?
a. DNA polymerase
b. Helicase
c. Topoisomerase 2
d. DNA ligase
e. Single-stranded binding proteins

27.) In PCR, what is annealed to the template DNA in order to amplify a specific region?
a. RNA primer
b. DNA primase
c. RNA primase
d. DNA primer
e. DNA polymerase

28.) Which of the following can be found in DNA?

a. Monophosphate on 5’ end
b. Ribose sugar
c. A, U, C, G
d. Smaller than RNA
e. Single stranded

29.) What are the components of an amino acid?

a. Amino group
b. Carboxyl group
c. Phosphate group
d. A and B
e. All of the above

30.) How are genes regulated in eukaryotes?

a. Epigenetic control
b. Transcriptional control
 c. Translational control
d. Two of the above
e. All of the above

31.) In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes attach to the mitotic spindle?

a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
e. Cytokinesis

32.) In flowers, we see incomplete dominance where there are red flowers (CRCR), white flowers
(CWCW) and pink flowers (CRCW). Say that we cross a red flower (CRCR) and a pink flower
(CRCW). What would be the resulting phenotypes for the F1 generation?
a. Half red, half pink
b. Half red, half white
c. Half pink, half white
d. All red
e. All pink

33.) In nondisjunction in fruit flies:

a. XXY is a female
b. XO is a male
c. XXY is a female white-eyed fly
d. XXX and OY genotypes were never lethal
e. XO is a red-eyed male fly

34.) Mutations can only be passed onto offspring if:

a. It takes place in reproductive cells
b. It takes place in non-reproductive cells
c. It takes place in somatic cells
d. It takes place in germ-line cells
e. Two of the above

35.) Which of the following is correct regarding the Rous Sarcoma Virus (RSV) in chickens?
a. Normal avian cells carry a v-Src gene
b. v-Src is an enzyme that phosphorylates its targets
c. c-Src is a mutant version of v-Src
d. c-Src becomes truncated (shortened)
e. None of the above are correct

36.) The acquisition of prion diseases through medical intervention is called:

a. Iatrogenic prion diseases (iCJD)
b. Sporadic CJD (sCJD)
 c. Variant CJD (vCJD)
d. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs)
e. Spongiform Encephalopathies

37.) Which of the following is found in DNA?

a. Nucleoside monophosphate
b. Nucleoside
c. Nucleoside diphosphate
d. Nucleoside triphosphate
e. Nucleus

38.) The discontinuous strand:

a. Is called the lagging strand because it’s slow
b. Is synthesized 3’ to 5’
c. Consists of Okazaki fragments
d. Is also called the leading strand
e. Involves DNA primers

39.) What are the 3 steps of PCR?

a. Denaturation, annealing, extension
b. Annealing, denaturation, extension
c. Extension, annealing, denaturation
d. Denaturation, extension, annealing
e. Denaturation, addition, extension

40.) Given the RNA sequence provided, what is the sequence of the nontemplate strand of
DNA?

RNA transcript: 5’ UAGCCUAUU 3’

a. 5’ TTATGGCAT 3’
b. 3’ ATCGGATAA 5’
c. 3’ TTATCCGAT 5’
d. 5’ UAGCCUAUU 3’
e. 5’ ATCGGATAA 3’

41.) Protein folding occurs in which order?

a. Primary, Secondary, Thymine, Quaternary
b. Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary
c. Primary, Tertiary, Quaternary
d. Secondary, Primary, Quaternary
e. Quaternary, Tertiary, Secondary, Primary

42.) Which of the following is correct regarding the methylation of DNA?

 a. Add methyl groups to cytosines of the CpG island
b. The CpG island is found on an enhancer sequence
c. Methylation makes DNA less compact
d. Methylation is a genetic modification of the DNA
e. Methylation is never responsive to any changes in the environment

43.) In which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes align next to each other, forming
the bivalent?
a. Prophase 1
b. Prometaphase 1
c. Prophase 2
d. Metaphase 2
e. Anaphase 2

44.) Let’s say that blue eyes are recessive (bb) and brown eyes are dominant (BB). If the
parents are both heterozygous for this trait (Bb), then what is the probability that their next child
will have blue eyes?
a. ⅕
b. ½
c. ¾
d. ¼
e. 0%

45.) A male with an X-linked recessive trait will have:

a. Heterozygous (carrier) daughters and affected sons
b. Heterozygous (carrier) daughters and unaffected sons
c. Homozygous affected daughters and affected sons
d. Homozygous affected daughters and unaffected sons
e. Unaffected daughters and Heterozygous (carrier) sons

46.) Changes in a single nucleotide is what kind of mutation?

a. Insertion
b. Deletion
c. Nonsense
d. Point
e. Missense

47.) What is the term for genes that encode proteins whose normal activities inhibit cell division?
a. Oncogene
b. Proto-oncogene
c. Tumor
d. Tumor Suppressor
e. p53
48.) Someone could get Familial CJD (fCJD) through:
a. Spontaneous conversion (sporadic)
b. Acquired conversion (acquired)
c. Germline mutation (sporadic)
d. Somatic mutation (sporadic)
e. Two of the above

49.) Which of the following are components of a nucleotide?

a. Sugar + phosphate + DNA
b. Sugar + base + nucleus
c. Nucleoside triphosphate
d. Sugar + phosphate + base
e. Sugar + base + adenine

50.) What is the role of the single-stranded binding protein?

a. Unwinds the DNA duplex
b. Extends an RNA primer
c. Relieves the stress of unwinding
d. Connects Okazaki fragments together
e. Stabilizes single strands of DNA

51.) Which of the following is true about gel electrophoresis?

a. Larger fragments of DNA travel further
b. Smaller fragments of DNA stay near the top
c. DNA travels from anode to cathode
d. Smaller molecules move slower than larger ones
e. Smaller molecules move faster than larger ones

52.) Which of the following is false regarding the initiation of transcription?

a. DNA polymerase is recruited by transcriptional activators and transcription factors
b. Transcriptional activators bind to enhancer sequences
c. Transcription factors bind to promoter sequences
d. Enhancers contain a sequence known as the TATA box
e. Enhancers can be located in, near or some distance from a gene

53.) What are the components needed for translation?

a. Messenger RNA
b. Ribosome
c. Transfer RNA’s
d. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases
e. All of the above

54.) What is incorrect about epigenetic effects?

a. Change is not made in the DNA sequence itself
 b. Change occurs directly in the genetic material
c. Epigenetic effects are individual specific
d. Changes can be inherited
e. Changes are responsive to changes in environment

55.) Which stage of meiosis is often called the equational division?

a. Prophase 1
b. Metaphase 1
c. Prophase 2
d. Meiosis 2
e. Metaphase 2

56.) Let’s say that in pea plants, yellow is dominant (AA) and green is recessive (aa). If we cross
a heterozygous pea plant (Aa) with a homozygous dominant pea plant (AA), then what
phenotypes would we expect to see?
a. All yellow
b. All green
c. ½ yellow, ½ green
d. 3 yellow, 1 green
e. 3 green, 1 yellow

57.) ____________ is segregation of one set of alleles of a gene pair is independent of the
segregation of another set of alleles of a different gene pair.
a. Independent assortment
b. Law of segregation
c. Reciprocal crosses
d. Two of the above
e. Epistasis

58.) If there is a nucleotide substitution that results in a premature stop codon in an mRNA
sequence, what kind of mutation has occurred?
a. Nonsense
b. Missense
c. Silent
d. Point
e. Insertion

59.) What is p53?

a. Oncogene
b. Proto-oncogene
c. Tumor
d. Tumor Suppressor
e. Viral gene
60.) Which of the following nitrogenous bases are not found in DNA?
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Uracil
e. Thymine

61.) Which of the following are true regarding eukaryotes?

a. Their DNA replication is conservative
b. It is possible to have 2 leading and 2 lagging strands
c. They have replication that is only in one direction
d. They have one origin of replication
e. The only consist of Okazaki fragments in DNA replication

62.) What is true about DNA editing involving CRISPR?

a. It can make a double stranded cut anywhere on DNA
b. Guide RNA and cas9 was discovered in humans
c. Only has ability to edit some genes in genome
d. Can manipulate guide RNA for enzyme to target a desired DNA sequence
e. The cell likes it when double strand cuts are made to DNA

63.) Which of the following is true about the primary transcript in prokaryotes?
a. It is not polycistronic mRNA
b. A ribosome can start synthesizing protein before transcription is done
c. Transcription occurs in the nucleus
d. Translation can only occur after transcription is complete
e. Translation happens before transcription

64.) Which of the following is false regarding the ribosome during translation?
a. It is made up of a large and small subunit
b. Moves down the mRNA from 3’ to 5’
c. The A site accepts the aminoacyl tRNA
d. The P site is where peptide bond formation occurs
e. The E site is where the tRNA exits the ribosome

65.) Match the following enzyme with its correct function:

a. Histone demethylases → remove methyl groups
b. Histone acetyltransferases → remove acetyl groups
c. Histone deacetyltransferases → add acetyl groups
d. Histone methyltransferases → add methyl groups
e. Two of the above are incorrect

66.) In which phase of meiosis do sister chromatids separate?

a. Telophase 1
 b. Telophase 2
c. Anaphase 2
d. Anaphase 1
e. Cytokinesis

67.) If we have outcomes that can occur simultaneously and the occurrence of one does not
impact the likelihood of the other, then we are following:
a. The addition rule
b. The multiplication rule
c. The subtraction rule
d. Heredity
e. Independent assortment

68.) What is the term for when two genes interacting affect the same trait?
a. Independent assortment
b. Law of segregation
c. Reciprocal crosses
d. Two of the above
e. Epistasis

69.) An insertion or deletion that is not an exact multiple of three nucleotides changes the
reading frame of translation. What kind of mutation is this called?
a. Point
b. Missense
c. Silent
d. Frameshift
e. Nonsense

70.) DNA is synthesized:

a. 3’ to 5’
b. 5’ to 3’
c. 3’ to 3’
d. Top to bottom
e. Left to right

71.) What is the major issue that the discontinuous strand has after multiple rounds of DNA
replication?
a. DNA ligase connects the Okazaki fragments together
b. Telomerase extends the ends of the chromosome
c. Chromosome ends get shorter after each round of replication
d. Telomerase is always active in every cell all of the time
e. Telomeres are repeat sequences located at the ends of chromosomes

72.) Where can you find the leading strand in the image below?
 a. Top left only
b. Top right, bottom left
c. Bottom left only
d. Bottom right, top left
e. Their all leading strands

73.) What kind of processing does eukaryotic mRNA need to do prior to translation?
a. 5’ cap only
b. Both polyadenylation on the 5’ end and 3’ cap
c. Both polyadenylation on the 5’ end and 5’ cap
d. 3’ cap only
e. Both polyadenylation on the 3’ end and 5’ cap

74.) What is correct about the initiation of translation?

a. UAA is the stop codon
b. AUG is the stop codon
c. UAA is the start codon
d. 3 nucleotide reads along the DNA are called codons
e. Two of the above are correct

75.) Which of the following is correct regarding epigenetic effects of the stress response?
a. Glucocorticoid receptor → key factor to cope with stressful situations
b. Acetylation of genes that code for receptor in normal development
c. Methylation of genes that code for receptor in early-life adversity
d. Development of anxiety traits in early-life adversity condition
e. Two of the above are correct

76.) Which of the following occurs in Metaphase 2?

a. Sister chromatids separate
b. Chromosomes align in the center of the cell
c. The nuclear envelope breaks down and chromosomes condense
d. Spindles attach to kinetochores on chromosomes
e. Daughter cells are ready to move into prophase 2

77.) What are some examples of codominance?

 a. Pea plants
b. Flowers
c. Blood type
d. Incomplete dominance
e. More than one of the above

78.) What are the risks of genetic testing?

a. Limited answers
b. Physiological impact
c. Emotional impact
d. Privacy concerns
e. All of the above

79.) What are polymorphisms?

a. A nucleotide substitution that creates a stop codon
b. Common genetic differences that exist between individuals
c. A nucleotide substitution that does not change the amino acid
d. A nucleotide substitution that changes the amino acid
e. Genotype-by-environment interactions

80.) Which of the following bases pair together?

a. A and G
b. C and T
c. T and G
d. T and A
e. C and A

81.) What is the role of helicase?

a. Unwinds the DNA duplex
b. Extends an RNA primer
c. Relieves the stress of unwinding
d. Connects Okazaki fragments together
e. Stabilizes single strands of DNA

82.) Which of the following is true about telomerase?

a. It is a template strand of DNA
b. It contains an RNA template
c. It is the same thing as a telomere
d. It is part of the leading strand
e. It is always active in every cell

83.) Which of the following are true regarding RNA splicing?

a. Introns are protein coding regions
b. Exons are noncoding regions
 c. A lariat is formed within the exon
d. A and B
e. None of the above are true

84.) What is false about translation in prokaryotes?

a. Polycistronic mRNA can encode more than one different protein
b. AUG is near a Shine-Dalgarno sequence
c. The small ribosomal subunit locates the Shine-Dalgarno sequence
d. Can have multiple ribosomes interacting with same mRNA
e. All of the above are true

85.) Cells of the germ layers are:

a. Totipotent
b. Multipotent
c. Pluripotent
d. Tripotent
e. None of the above

86.) Which of the following occurs in Metaphase 2?

a. Sister chromatids separate
b. Chromosomes align in the center of the cell
c. The nuclear envelope breaks down and chromosomes condense
d. Spindles attach to kinetochores on chromosomes
e. Daughter cells are ready to move into prophase 2

87.) The combination of alleles in an individual is called:

a. Gene
b. Allele
c. Genotype
d. Phenotype
e. None of the above

88.) When looking at the topic of X-linkage, what is a “crisscross”?

a. X from Mom to daughter → then from that daughter to a son
b. X from Dad to daughter → then from that daughter to a son
c. X from Dad to son → then from that son to a son
d. X from Dad to daughter → then from that daughter to a daughter
e. X from Mom to son → then from that son to a daughter

89.) Which of the following is true about identical twins?

a. Also known as dizygotic twins
b. Are monozygotic twins that arise from a single fertilized egg
c. They have genotypes that are related, but similar to siblings
d. Also called fraternal twins
 e. Two of the above are true

90.) Say that there are 36% of nucleotides that are cytosine in the DNA inside cells of a certain
organism. What are the percentages of the other nucleotides?
a. 14% thymine, 14% adenine, 36% guanine
b. 14% adenine, 14% guanine, 36% thymine
c. 36% guanine, 14% adenine, 14% uracil
d. 36% guanine, 14% cytosine, 14% uracil
e. Clearly the rest of nucleotides are all guanine

91.) In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, what will we see after 1 round of DNA replication?
a. All heavy (N15) DNA
b. All light (N14) DNA
c. All hybrid (1 strand N15, 1 strand N14) DNA
d. A hybrid (1 strand N15, 1 strand N14) and light (N14) DNA
e. A hybrid (1 strand N15, 1 strand N14) and heavy (N15) DNA

92.) Why does DNA travel towards the anode in gel electrophoresis?
a. It actually travels towards the cathode
b. It travels due to the electric current
c. The sugar-phosphate backbone is negatively charged
d. It travels due to the forces of gravity
e. It naturally flows towards the anode

93.) Which step is involved in the removal of an intron?

a. A loop-like structure called a lariat is formed
b. A site within the intron attacks the 3’ splice site
c. The exon attacks the intron
d. The intron degrades spontaneously
e. We don’t remove introns, we keep them

94.) Which of the following is true about tRNA’s?

a. All tRNA’s have a CCA sequence on their 3’ end
b. The “C” of the CCA sequence is the attachment site for an amino acid
c. Depending on sequence of anticodon loop, different amino acids can be attached
d. A tRNA without an amino acid is a charged tRNA
e. A tRNA is positively charged when an amino acid is added to its anticodon

95.) Which of the following are false regarding translational regulation?

a. miRNA’s cause inhibition of translation of mRNA
b. siRNA causes degradation of the mRNA
c. mRNA’s cause inhibition of translation of miRNA
d. A perfect match can be made between siRNA and target mRNA
e. mRNA bound to the miRNA/RISC cannot be translated
96.) Which of the following is false about the elements of iron response?
a. Ferritin mRNA has an IRE on its 5’ UTR
b. Transferrin receptor mRNA contains instability elements on its 3’ UTR
c. Under high iron conditions, iron is bound to IRE-BP
d. When iron levels are low, we don’t want to translate ferritin mRNA
e. All of the above are true

97.) ________________ states that the equal separation of alleles of a gene into different
gametes; half get one allele, the other half get the other allele.
a. Independent assortment
b. Law of segregation
c. Reciprocal crosses
d. Two of the above
e. None of the above

98.) Which of the following is false regarding Y-linked genes?

a. Only males exhibit the trait
b. Females do not inherit the trait
c. All sons of affected males are also affected
d. Females do transmit the trait
e. None of the above

99.) What is chromatin?

a. Histones
b. Compacted DNA
c. Histones + DNA
d. Histones + chromosomes
e. Another term for chromosome

100.) In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division take place?
a. G0 phase
b. G1 phase
c. M phase
d. S phase
e. G2 phase

101.) What is true about alternative splicing?

a. It occurs in prokaryotes
b. It allows different combinations of introns to be formed
c. It occurs in eukaryotes
d. It allows different combinations of exons to be formed
e. Two of the above are correct
102.) Where can you find the lagging strand in the image below?

a. Bottom right, top left

b. Top left only
c. Top right, bottom left
d. Bottom left only
e. Their all lagging strands

103.) In which step of translation does this occur: “A stop codon is encountered, a release factor
enters the A site”?
a. Release site
b. Exit site
c. Active site
d. Peptidyl site
e. Aminoacyl site

104.) The 5’ UTR:

a. Stands for the 5’ untranscribed region
b. Is found right before the poly(A) tail
c. Is translated by the ribosome
d. Is an untranslated region next to the 5’ cap
e. Is an untranslated region next to the 3’ cap

105.) Which of the following is true about Iron-Response Element Activity?

a. Under high iron conditions, iron is bound to the IRE-BP
b. Under high iron conditions, iron is bound to the transferrin receptor mRNA
c. Under low iron conditions, iron is bound to the ferritin mRNA
d. Under low iron conditions, iron is bound to the instability elements
e. Under low iron conditions, IRE-BP does not block the IRE on ferritin mRNA

106.) In red blood cells we see ______________.

a. Independent assortment
b. Law of segregation
c. Incomplete dominance
d. Codominance
e. Both c and d
107.) Under what conditions does the IRE-BP block instability elements of the transferrin
receptor mRNA for this to be translated?
a. Under high iron conditions
b. Under high and low iron conditions
c. Under low iron conditions
d. When iron is not bound to the IRE-BP
e. Two of the above are correct

108.) Genes that are linked have a recombination frequency between:

a. 0-100%
b. 0-50%
c. 0-25%
d. 0-75%
e. 50-100%

109.) I feel prepared for Term Test #3🙂!

a. Strongly agree
b. Agree
c. Neutral
d. Disagree
e. Strongly disagree

🧬End of Term Test #3 Review!🧬

(Please fill out the BIOA01 FSG Survey by December 15th!)

Thanks for a great semester everyone! Good luck 🍀 on exams!