Project Management Multiple Choice Questions (set 1)

1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management

is defined as “the application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to
project activities to meet the project requirements”.

a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories

Answer: d skills, tools

2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project

deliverable have been accomplished by his project team. What is the next step
for his project to proceed in order to verify the project scope by his project
client?

a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.

b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the
project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project
deliverables.

Answer: d Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables

3. What is the first step in project planning?

a. Establish the objectives and scope.

b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
Answer: a Establish the objectives and scope

4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some

uncontrolled process variations. Which of the following would be the
appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?

a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path

Answer: c Control chart

5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what
happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.

b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without
loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in
order to decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk
analysis

Answer: d Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed
against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.

a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer: e initiation
8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing
priorities, and distributing work and tasks require different sets of skills?

a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent

b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of
the initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the
knowledge and skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of
the project and are concerned only with the strategy

Answer: b Because resources on the project management team may view it as

temporary

10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following
functions EXCEPT:

a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.

b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract
project managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like
project scheduling and project cost analysis

Answer: c assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring
contract project managers.

11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective
than individuals?

a. When speed is important

b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project
tea
Answer: d When innovation is required

12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge,

skills, and abilities needed to manage a task and then matching the team
members with the right skills to do that work?

a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation

Answer: d Delegation

13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are
expected to accomplish and, just as importantly, what is not part of the
project team’s responsibilities?

a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document

15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity
and project risk.

a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general

Answer: b a positive

17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited

that he is assigned to be in charge of the most important project this year.
After being chartered for the project, he analyzes the information in the
project charter and the stakeholder register to:

a. decide how to draft a scope statement.

b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c. prepare
for the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.

Answer: b start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager
focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project
and developing clarity around the project charter and scope.

a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer: b start-up

20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of
knowledge is known as which of the following?

a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate

Answer: c Conceptual estimate

21. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

a. Analyze the risks.

b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.

Answer: c Identify potential project risks

23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the
execution phase:

a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk
analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events
have been avoided.

Answer: a risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common

understanding of the project purpose is true?

a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement

regarding a project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success,
determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying
decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding
depend on the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common
understanding usually involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project,
participants are often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.

Answer: b Developing a common understanding involves defining project

success, determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and
identifying decision-makers.

25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what
work will be accomplished by the end of the project?
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure

Answer: a Scope of work (SOW)

26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who
works in a matrix environment in order to achieve project goals?

a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill

Answer: b Influencing

27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have
intensive technical background for the project that you are managing.
However, recently they have disagreed on the next step to take for the project.
They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make this decision.
Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the
project?

a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company

Answer: c The project team

28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential
risks for her new construction project M based on levels of probability and
impact on the project, she identified a potential risk, regarding a schedule
conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a short time
period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M,
Kathy wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she
should document this type of risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where
should Kathy document this risk?

a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan

Answer: d WBS

29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to
specialists and requires a cost-benefit analysis?

a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management

Answer: d Six Sigma

30. Which one of the following is the last step of project closings?

a. The client has accepted the product.

b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.

Answer: b Archives are complete.

35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant

internal and external stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project
teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all of them are covered in the
stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to look
at?

a. Project team activities

b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents

Answer: c Project charter

36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the

truthfulness of an individual that can be checked against observable facts?

a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence

Answer: a Objective credibility

37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of
which project management process group is expected to be lowest?

a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning

Answer: d Closing

41. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement
should address all of the following issues EXCEPT:

a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.

Answer: d code of conduct for the team members working on the project

42. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money
spent on prevention and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis

Ans- c. cost of quality

43. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for
measurement of the expected cash flow against requirements over time and is
often displayed as an S curve?

a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline

Answer: b Cost performance baseline

44. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge.
When more information is known, the project team can develop a:

a. work breakdown structure

b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate

Answer: c rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

46. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the
vertical axis represents the frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your
organization’s quality plan to it by flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to
identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

Answer: e Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work

processes.

47. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due
to a family emergency. Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so
the project meeting took very long without producing outcomes. What is the
possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in this
scenario?

a. No project team ground rules were set up.

b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take
over more responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.

50. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision
should be made regarding whether the project should continue. During this
phase, ____________ must be considered and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success.

a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk
Answer: e initiation, risk

51. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets
project specifications within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

a. Assessing risk management

b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the
project

Answer: e Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level
of the project

52. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen
during the life of the project that will negatively affect the ________________
of project goals.

a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack

Answer: b achievement

53. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in
the project is included?

a. Create a contingency plan.

b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.

Answer: c Create a WBS

54. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager
focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project
and developing clarity around the project charter and scope.

a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer: b start-up

55. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project

manager will often do which of the following?

a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the
milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.

Answer: c Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the
project work.

56. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what
happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.

b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without
loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in
order to decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk
analysis

Answer: d Risks are identified with each major group of activities

57. What is the first step in project planning?

a. Establish the objectives and scope.

b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Answer: a Establish the objectives and scope.

58. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed
against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.

a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer: e initiation

60. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a
project relates to which of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?

a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose

b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose

Answer: d Developing role clarification on projects

61. Which of the following is true about management meetings?

a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-
term priorities are for the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans,
and making adjustments to plans in response to new information.

Answer: e They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of

existing plans, and making adjustments to plans in response to new information.

62. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____
as the default approach to resolve conflict.

a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding

Answer: d forcing

63. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and
analysis by an outside group.

a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit

Answer: e quality audit

64. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in

the project evaluation process?

a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria

that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are
different from the project manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities
match the complexity profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and
ensures that the chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for
executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent
organization.

Answer: a It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection

criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later
phases.

65. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?

a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is
shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts
than on relationships of trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich
environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.

Answer: b They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.

66. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following,

EXCEPT:

a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.

Answer: b key milestones.

69. Which of the following is true about a project manager?

a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make

improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.

Answer: d Project managers are goal oriented.

70. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project
SkyNorth, which is regarded as an important project in her organization.
During the project planning meeting, Shauna is capable of allocating key
resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which organizational
structure is best for Shauna’s company?

a. Balanced matrix organization

b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization

Answer: d Projectized organization

71. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change

into project planning and execution processes is called the:

a. project logic diagram.

b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude

Answer: b change management process

73. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a
project that must be met for the project to finish on time?

a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule
Answer: e Milestone schedule

74. Which of the following statements about risk is true?

a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the
project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project
objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk

Answer: d There are no risk-free projects.

75. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?

a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture

Answer: b To reflect new information

76. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along
the critical path to meet the project completion date.

a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited

Answer: d compressed

78. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of
the person’s motives and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying

Answer: b Attribution of benevolence

80. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to
complete the project.

a. work break down structure

b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change

Answer: c project logic diagram

Project Management MCQ With Answer

1-A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed
towards achieving the goals of a project.
(A) Project
(B) Process
(C) Project management
(D) Project cycle
2-Resources refers to
(A) Manpower
(B) Machinery
(C) Materials
(D) All of the above
3-Developing a technology is an example of
(A) Process
(B) Project
(C) Scope
(D) All of the above
4-The project life cycle consists of
(A) Understanding the scope of the project
(B) Objectives of the project
(C) Formulation and planning various activities
(D) All of the above
5-Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.

(A) Budgeting and cost control

(B) Allocating resources
(C) Tracking project expenditur
Project Management MCQs(set 2)

Q. The PERT in project management means program evaluation and _____

technique.
(A) resource
(B) reconciliation
(C) reconsideration
(D) review

answer (D)

Q. “Risk” is usually _______ as the project progresses.

(A) increased
(B) reduced
(C) remained same
(D) become negligible

answer (B)

Q. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during
which phase of a project management?
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure

The answer (A)

Q. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.

(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
answer (B)

Q. A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more

detail become available is termed as
(A) project analysis
(B) project enhancing
(C) progressive deliberation
(D) progressive elaboration

answer (D)

Q. A program is usually a group of

(A) plans
(B) people and work
(C) related projects
(D) unrelated projects

answer (C)

Q. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only

answer (C)

Q. Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11

answer (A)

1)Milestones established by the customer must be adhered to by:

 1. Project manager

2. Functional managers

3. The customer

4. Both a and b

Answer:D
(2)The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the
responsibility of the:

1. Functional manager

2. Project manager

3. Director of project management

4. Customer

Answer: B
(3)In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?

1. Conceptual

2. Planning

3. Implementation

4. Design

Answer: B
(4)To crash a schedule you should:

1. Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.

2. Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind
schedule.

3. Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.

4. Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.
Answer:D
(5)The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:

1. The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:

2. Provides links to the clients functional management groups

3. Allowing the project to move to the next phase

4. A way to provide updated information to the accounting department

Answer:A
(6)Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?

1. Cutting costs and reducing time

2. Decreasing the time required for decision making

3. Eliminating idle time

4. Developing better trouble shooting procedures.

Answer: D
(7)The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as:

1. Implementation time

2. Life cycle

3. Operations cycle

4. Production cycle

Answer: B
(8)The successful project managers spend most of their time:

1. Planning with their personnel

2. Planning with the top management

3. Communication with the project team

 4. Studying project results.

Answer: C
(9)Resource leveling attempts to :

1. Reduce resource requirements by smoothing out period-to period resource

assignments.

2. Ensure that the budget abnormalities are overcome.

3. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other
endeavors.

4. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars
can be appropriated.

Answer: A
(10)A prerequisite of effective time management is:
1. Knowing the dictated project completion date

2. Having the most advanced software package for project planning, scheduling
and control

3. Having a good project WBS which identifies the major project deliverables
and tasks, and the person responsible for each of them

4. Having a well staffed scheduling department

Answer: A
(1) Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?

1. Preliminary

2. Definitive

3. Order of magnitude

4. Conceptual

Answer:B
(2)Which of the following type of contracts is most preferable to the contractor
doing the project work?
1. Cost plus fixed fee

2. Fixed price

3. Fixed price plus incentive free

4. B and C

Answer: A
(5)Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project

2. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle

3. The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by

which the investment cost of the project can be measured and managed

4. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing

the costs on an on-going basis

Answer:C
(6)Which of the following is a direct project cost?
1. Lighting and heating for the corporate office

2. Workers Compensation insurance

3. Piping for an irrigation project

4. A and B

Answer: C
(7)Cost controls can be best described by which of the following?

1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
 2. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle

3. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle

4. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing

the costs on an on-going basis.

Answer: D
(10)Life Cycle Costing is a term that is:
1. used when making decisions between alternatives

2. employed principally by the government

3. typically used in the construction industry

4. not used within the government

5. A and B

Answer: E
(1) Measured quality of a manufactured product is :

1. Always constant

2. Continually decreasing

3. Subject to a certain amount of variation

4. Continually increasing

Answer:C
(2)The process control charts are used:

1. to graph what typically focuses on the prevention of a problem

2. to detect the problem

3. to reject the problem

4. to determine the acceptability of the same

(3)When a record is made of an actual measured quality characteristic, such as a
dimension expressed with thousands of an inch, the quality is said to be expressed
by:
1. traits

2. variables

3. attributes

4. properties

Answer: B
(4)Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality
inspection?

1. Acceptance sampling

2. 100% inspection

3. Variable sampling

4. a and c

Answer:C
(5)The primary components of the quality management function are :

1. quality planning

2. quality control and assurance

3. quantitative measurement

4. quantitative assessment of the project

5. a and b

Answer:E
(6)Setting the number of defects before the lot is rejected, is a direct
responsibility of :

1. a functional worker
 2. the project manager

3. management

4. the accounting department

Answer: C
(7)Which of the following has the greatest effect on product's reliability and
maintenance characteristic?

1. conceptualization

2. product design

3. fabrication

4. a and b

Answer: D
(8)On a project the project manager should strive for a "Quality Level" that :

1. is the highest level possible

2. is as close to the project objectives as possible

3. represents the least cost to the project.

4. Exceeds the specified requirements of the project.

Answer: B
(9)Quality control in the final analysis is :

1. using the technical procedures of monitoring project results to decide if the

outputs meet the requirements

2. a production system

3. an inspection system

4. fitness for purpose

5.
Answer: A
(10)Quality costs include :
1. the total of all costs incurred to assure the production and delivery of
acceptable products and services.

2. Only costs classified as prevention, detection and corrective action.

3. Only the cost of scrap, rework due to defects, customer returns and warranty
costs.

4. The expense of upper management

Answer: A
(1)From HR perspective, the project manager's responsibility in the planning
role includes:

1. Hiring the team

2. Developing work schedules

3. Forecasting

4. Feedback sessions

5. Both b and c

Answer:E
(2)Expert power is the power that comes from the amount of knowledge a person
has obtained in a specific area. This type of power is:
1. Critical to a project manager because the PM has to have as much or more
knowledge than any of the team members to make sure the project is completed
successfully

2. Used by the PM to influence upper management and the critical stakeholders

3. Important if the project manager wants to maintain the respect of the project
team
 4. Used sparingly if at all by the PM because the PM cannot stay current on all
areas of expertise and also manage the project

Answer: D
4)To successfully manage a project, the PM must play both a manager and
leadership role. In the manager role the PM will do all but which of the following:
1. Develop procedures

2. Align people

3. Produce results for stakeholder

4. Focus on the organization and its structure

5. Both b and d

Answer:B
(5)To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on:

1. Referent power

2. Formal authority

3. Informal power structure

4. Broad span of control

5. Both a and c

Answer:E
(6)Which form of power is the LEAST effective from the project manager's
viewpoint in terms of influencing functional managers?

1. Formal power

2. Expert power

3. Penalty power

4. Referent power
Answer: C
(7)The Project manager should be able to fulfill the role of:

1. an integrator

2. a functional manager

3. a line manager

4. a sponsor

Answer: A
(8)The most successful project manager usually:

1. works their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project
managers, supplementing that experience with formal education.

2. Comes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing very large
projects.

3. Is considered the technical expert of their field.

4. Has considerable experience as a functional manager before moving into the

project management arena.

Answer: A
(9) Which of the following is an important action that must be taken by top
management when implementing project management in an organization?

1. Completely selling the project management concept to the entire

organization.

2. Choice of the type of project manager.

3. Choice of the type of project organization to be utilized.

4. All of the above.

5.

Answer: D
(10)The project manager has the most authority in the __________________ type
of organization.
1. Project expediter

2. Matrix

3. Projectized organization

4. Functional

Answer: C
(1)Which of the following can cause a communication barrier?

1. Differing perceptions as to project goals and objectives

2. Insufficient action on the part of the project manager

3. Competition for facilities, equipment, material, manpower and other

resources

4. Personality conflicts between managers and/ or other personnel

5. Resistance to change

6. All of the above

Answer:F
(2)Most of the project manager's external communication links consist of:

1. Written documents

2. Oral communication

3. Tactile contact

4. Informal contact

Answer: A (3)The critical element in a project's communication system is the:

1. Progress report

2. Project directive
 3. Project manager

4. Customer

Answer: C
(4)Communication management:

1. Is important only in projects involving telephone, television, radio, or

newspaper production facilities and operations

2. Is not a big problem for people with normal speech, sight and hearing

3. Involves the originator, the message, the medium and the receiver

4. Preparing an agenda

Answer:C
(5) Truly effective communication:

1. Depends on using multiple channels

2. Depends on selecting the right method for each message and avoiding
duplication, since everyone is overloaded with information

3. Cannot depend solely on non-verbal signals which might be misunderstood

4. Can only be achieved by communication professional

5. a, b and c

Answer:E
(6)Methods of transmitting include:

1. Oral and written

2. Non-verbal/ visual

3. Tactile, involuntary and intuitive

4. All of the above

Answer: D
 (7)A project management information system consists of:

1. A project management software package operating on appropriate computer

facilities

2. Hardware, software, documents, and procedures

3. Automated and manual methods for gathering, recording, filtering, and

dissemination of pertinent information for members of a project team

4. All of the above

Answer: D
(8) The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the
vehicle or method used to convey the message?

1. Communicator

2. Message

3. Medium

4. Recipient

Answer: C
(9) The contemporary view of conflict is that:

1. Conflict is bad

2. Conflict is caused by trouble makers

3. Conflict should be avoided

4. Conflict is often beneficial

Answer: D
(10)Approximately what percentage of the project manager's time is spent in
some form of communication, such as: conferences, meetings, writing memos,
reading and preparing reports, and talking with project team members, upper
management, and all other stalk holders?
 1. 10-20%

2. 50-70%

3. 75-90%

4. 21-45%

Answer: C
(1)PMI states that there are two risk types : business and insurable. Which of
the following are considered insurable risks?

1. Employee replacement costs

2. Opportunity costs

3. Sunken costs

4. Damage caused by a bonded contractor

5. A and D

Answer:F
(2) The Three attributes of project risk are _________, ___________ and
___________.

1. What might happen, who it happens to, and how much will it cost

2. Notification, frequency of relevant events, probability of occurrence

3. Risk cost, quality, control

4. Quality, risk planning, total number of risk events

5. Risk event, probability occurrence, the amount at stake

Answer: E
(3)A risk is defined as what might happened to the ____________ of the project
1. assessment

2. detriment
 3. schedule

4. cost

5. scope

Answer: B
(4)When is the project's amount at stake the lowest
1. conceptual

2. design

3. close-out

4. implementation

Answer:A
(5)A new project was initiated that involves new technology and subsequently has
never been done before. What type of contract would to owner want to issue to
reduce or eliminate as much risk as possible.
1. Firm fixed price

2. Cost plus fix fee

3. Cost plus incentive fee

4. Lump sum

5. A and D

Answer:E
(6)What is the most accurate method of obtaining project information that can
reduce the amount of risk?
1. Observations on the current project

2. Determining the risk by using brainstorming techniques

3. The use of historical data from previous projects that were similar in nature

4. Sensitivity analysis
 5. Delphi technique.

Answer: C
(7)Which of the following fit the category of external risks?

1. Project delays, budget under-runs, movement of city utilities

2. Regulatory, currency changes, taxation

3. Natural disasters, regulatory, design

4. Inflation, design, social impact

5. Political unrest, budget overruns, size and complexity of the project

Answer: B
(8)Decision trees are best used for :
1. Determining the interaction of the amount at stake and the expected value

2. Association of the probabilities with the risk events

3. An illustration of how to see the interactions between decisions and the

associated events

4. A flow chart which determines the standard deviation of the risk event

Answer: C
(9)The total amount of risk that is calculated for a project is found by

1. Multiplying the sum of each the risk times the amount at stake

2. Calculating the cumulative sum of the probability for each risk and
multiplying this value times the consequence of occurrence of the risk events

3. Cannot be calculated since all risks are not know

4. The amount of project reserves available

Answer: B
(10)A situation in which one of two or more risk events will follow an act, but the
precise nature of these events may not be known and the probabilities of their
occurring cannot be objectively assigned, is the definition of
1. certainty

2. uncertainty

3. risk

4. risk adversity

5. None of the above.

Answer: B
(1)The fixed price contract is advantageous to the buyer because it:

1. requires extremely well defined specifications

2. requires formal procedures for scope changes

3. contractor assumes financial and technical risk

4. has a known cost

Answer:C
(2)The contract administration function includes:

1. funding management

2. managing relationships and interfaces

3. performance control

4. all of the above

Answer: D
(3)The major type(s) of standard warranty(ies) that are used in the business
environment is(are):

1. express
 2. implied

3. negotiated

4. a and b

Answer: D
(4)A Unit Price (UP) contract provides:

1. a reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid

proportionately as the contract progresses

2. a reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon

percentage of the estimated cost as profit

3. the supplier with a fixed price for delivered performance plus a

predetermined fee for superior performance

4. a fixed price where the supplier agrees to furnish goods and services at unit
rates and the final price is dependent on the quantities needed to carry out the
work.

Answer:D
(5)Which phase of the Acquisition Process Cycle does source qualifications
reside?

1. Pre-Award

2. Award

3. Post Award

4. Origination

Answer:B
(6)From a contract management perspective, the project manager must consider
the:
1. acquisition process

2. contract administration
 3. ecological environment

4. offer, acceptance, and consideration

5. a and b

Answer: E
(7) A performance bond should always provide what part of the contract value?

1. 10 percent

2. 25 percent

3. 50 percent

4. 100 percent

5. Normally a performance bond, depending upon the state, only stipulates that
the contractor will guarantee the work for a certain period of time.

Answer: D (8)Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?

1. Cost plus percentage fee

2. Cost plus incentive fee

3. Cost plus fixed fee

4. Fixed price plus incentive fee

5. Firm fixed price

Answer: E
(9)What are the types of express guarantees?

1. Design/ mechanical

2. Field workmanship

3. Common Work

4. Length of service

5. a and b
Answer: E
(10)What is the last item a project manager must do to finalize project close-out?
1. Reassign the team

2. Contract completion

3. Archive the project records

4. Complete lessons learned

5. None of the above.

Answer: B
(1) A planning method, which provides details of the work to accomplish, but
also provide some preliminary description of the work to be done in later phases is
called :

1. Progressive detailing

2. Rolling wave

3. Strategic

4. Operational

Answer:B
(2)Another name of strategic planning is:

1. Short term

2. Operational

3. Tactical

4. Top down

Answer: D
(3) The type of planning that is equated with more specific data or detailed in
nature is called:
 1. Strategic

2. Operational

3. Short term

4. Tactical

Answer: D
(4) One of the initial project documents, issued by senior management, which
outlines the authority of the project manager, is called Project charter. As a seller,
what other document can be used in this place:

1. Work breakdown structure

2. Project scope

3. Contract

4. Internal memo

Answer:C
(5) During the planning development process, at times it is necessary to make
certain assumptions to enhance the project plan when the data is not available. In
regard to making those assumptions, which one of the following is most true for
project planning purposes?

1. The assumptions will be considered as true, real, or certain.

2. By making the assumption, it tends to reduce the project risk.

3. Project assumptions are based upon historical data used for the project.

4. Senior management predefines the budget constraints.

Answer:A
(6)A project planning methodology is any structured approach used to guide the
project team during development of the project plan. What is an example of this
methodology?

1. Standard forms or templates.

 2. Upper management involvement

3. Functional work authorizations

4. Stakeholders skills

Answer: A
(7)The engineer of the project in the planning phase and makes a significant
contribution to the technical scope. This is an example of what type of skill and
knowledge?

1. Inherent

2. Stakeholder

3. Technical evaluation

4. Convergent thinking

Answer: B
(8)In a program or project plan, there are always revisions to account for new or
missing data. Which one of the following provides the best reason for performing a
revision of the plan?

1. A supplier has changed the way their product is delivered to your supplier

2. Project tasks are crashed to meet their end dates

3. Human resources will remain constant through out the project

4. Historical data on a similar project suggests that risk events are not included
in the current plan.

Answer: B
(9) The project closing process is essential to overall project planning. What is
considered one of the most important steps in closing the project?

1. Insuring that plans are produced to implement the project by phases.

2. Issuing work orders so that financial data can be collected.

 3. Transition the lease of equipment to the owner

4. Satisfying the contractual obligations

Answer: D
(10)Each project phase is marked by completion of one or more:

1. Tasks.

2. Milestones

3. Deliverables

4. Life cycles

Answer: C
(1)The Scope Statement should contain which of the following?

1. Project schedule

2. Project budget constraints

3. Summary of project tasks , deliverables and resources required

4. Project objectives

Answer:D
(2)The Scope Management Plan is included in which of the following
documents.

1. Project Plan

2. The Work Breakdown Structure

3. The Scope Statement

4. Project Specifications

Answer: C
(3) Project Scope:

1. is of concern only at the start of the project

 2. is mainly a problem to be handled by the change control procedures during
the project execution phase.

3. Should be managed and controlled from the project concept through close-
out

4. is usually not a problem after the contract or other document authorizing the
project has been approved.

Answer: C
(4) The Project charter is created by:

1. The project manager

2. Upper management

3. The Vice President over a functional management group

4. The customer

Answer:B
(5)The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:

1. The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:

2. Provides links to the clients functional management groups

3. Allowing the project to move to the next phase

4. A way to provide updated information to the accounting department

Answer:A
(6) The Scope Baseline is:

1. the original description of the project's end results

2. a summary description of the project's original content and end product,

including basic budgetary and time constraint data

3. the original project budget and schedule

 4. a and c

Answer: B
(7)A Project control system:

1. Monitors and controls the project's schedule, costs, scope, budgets etc

2. Is a mechanism which reacts to the current project status in order to endure

accomplishment of project objectives

3. Is only needed on large mega projects

4. Is a system for controlling and executing project documentation in an

uniform and timely manner

Answer: A
(8)The PM distributed a document to the stakeholders, which described the
software to be developed, the functionality, the users it would serve and the
installation timeline. The document was an example of:
1. Product scope

2. Project scope

3. A combination of project and product scope

4. It was not complete enough to be either a product or a project scope

document

Answer: D
(9)Each item of the Work Breakdown Structure is assigned a unique identifier.
What is the name of this identifier?

1. Product ID number

2. Code of accounts

3. Quality inspection identifier

4. Project activity code

Answer: B
(10)When developing a project's scope statement, which of the following should
not be included?
1. Project justification.

2. Cost/benefit analysis

3. Project deliverables

4. Measurable objectives

Answer: A

Students are requested to go through the MCQ. Please ignore

repetition and ordering number(if wrong)