QUESTION BANK.

ONCOLOGY 2021
RJ
CLASS 1.
What are the phases of mitosis in sequential form? *
1/1
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase
Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase and Telophase
G1, Synthesis, G2 and Cytokinesis
Cytokinesis, Anaphase and Telophase
G2, DNA Synthesis, Duplication and Replication
Other:

Are there any factors involved in physical agents in carcinogenesis? *

1/1
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
sRNA Virus
Helicobacter pylori
Ionizing Radiation, Ultraviolet Rays
BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation
Other:

What is a Proto-oncogene? *
2/2
It is an abnormal gene that promotes cell proliferation.
It is a mutated gene that regulates cell proliferation in a negative way.
It is a normal gene without mutation that stimulates cell proliferation.
It is an abnormal gene that regulates Apoptosis
Other:

Factors that facilitate the continuation of the Cell Cycle *

2/2
Cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitory enzyme
Cyclin-Dependent Kinases (CDK)2-4 and Cyclins B, D, E
P53
RB
Other:

Factors that stop the continuation of the Cell Cycle *

0/1
Cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitory enzyme
Cyclin-Dependent Kinases (CDK)2-4 and Cyclins B, D, E
P53, RB
CDK 2-4
Cyclins B, D, E
Option 1 and 3 are correct
Correct answer
P53, RB
A malignant cell has the following characteristics *
1/1
Does not respond to extracellular signals Erroneous differentiation
Loss of contact inhibition of proliferation
The above 3 are correct
Controlled proliferation
Normal Apoptosis
Other:

A Suppressor Gene *
2/2
It is a normal gene that prevents a cell from continuing the cycle if it has damaged DNA.
It is a normal gene without mutation that stimulates cell proliferation.
It is a gene that stimulates cell proliferation.
It is a gene that inhibits apoptosis
Other:

Examples of Suppressor Genes *

2/2
K-ras, Bcl
c-kit, Her-2neu
sis, raf
APC, BRCA 1, BRCA 2, P53
src

Examples of Oncogenes *
0/2
K-ras, Bcl
c-kit, Her-2neu
sis, raf
The above three are true
Correct answer
The above three are true

How is an Epigenetic Factor Defined? *

They are factors that affect gene expression, there is no alteration of the genetic material, it is inherited by daughter cells.

What are the phases of Carcinogenesis? *

1/1
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase
Initiation, Promotion and Progression
Cytokinesis, Anaphase and Telophase
Metastasis, Apoptosis and Cell Cycle Regulation
Promotion and Progression
Other:
The process by which a chemical agent produces a mutation is? *
1/1
Nucleotide damage and DNA breakage in one or both strands
Pyrimidine dimers in a single strand of DNA
Formation of covalent bonds between the carcinogen and macromolecules such as DNA
Blocking protein synthesis
Other:

What is an Oncogene? *
1/1
It is a normal gene without mutation that stimulates cell proliferation.
It is a mutated gene that regulates cell proliferation by inhibiting it.
It is a mutated gene that promotes cell proliferation.
It is a normal gene that regulates Apoptosis
Inhibits cell proliferation
Other:
Tobacco *
1/1
It causes 30% of cancer deaths
Contains more than 4,000 substances recognized as carcinogens
Contains Benzopyrenes, Nitrosamines
It is related to cancer of the lung, esophagus, bladder, pancreas, stomach, liver and kidney.
All of the above are true
None of the above are true
Other:

Oncogenic Viruses *
2/2
Hepatitis A Virus, Poliovirus, Covid -19
Human Papillomavirus (16, 18, 31, 33, 35), Hepatitis B Virus, Polyomavirus
H1N1 virus, Rotavirus
Varicella Zoster Virus, HPV Virus (6-11-40)
Other:

CLASS 2.
What is a paracrine action in cell signaling?
It is an action of the cell that sends a signal to stimulate itself.
It is the action of a growth factor that is synthesized by neighboring cells.
It is the action of a growth factor that is synthesized by cells that are located at a distance.
It is the action of activating the receptors within the nucleus of the cell.

What is the tyrosine kinase receptor? *

It is a receptor located within the nucleus of the cell.
It is a small G protein
It is located in the plasma membrane and has three domains (extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular)
It is an effector protein that stimulates proliferation
It does not act on cell proliferation
What is the G protein receptor (GPCR)? *
It is a receptor located within the nucleus of the cell.
It crosses the cell membrane up to seven times when activated.
It is located in the plasma membrane and has three domains (extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular)
It is an effector protein that stimulates proliferation
It does not act on cell proliferation
Comments

G protein-like receptors (GPCRs)

800 types of GPCRs

They cross the membrane up to seven times

Binding to growth factors induces a conformational change in its tertiary structure.

Once active, they initiate the phosphorylation of intracytoplasmic proteins.

The tyrosine kinase receptor? *

It is activated when its extracellular domain is occupied by a growth factor.
It is activated when two monomers are occupied in their extracellular domains by growth factors.
It is an effector protein that stimulates proliferation
It does not act on cell proliferation
Are epidermal growth receptors present and over-expressed in some breast cancer patients? *
HER-2Neu
HER-1
HER-3
HER-4

The MAP-KINASE pathway is activated *

By phosphorylation of tyrosine residues
By activation of a single tyrosine kinase receptor
By activation of G protein receptors (GPCR)
By activation of the ERK protein
Correct answer
By phosphorylation of tyrosine residues

The final effector protein of the MAP-KINASE Pathway that stimulates cell proliferation at the Nucleus
level. *
RAS
SOS
GRB2
MEK
ERK
What drugs act on the epidermal growth factor receptor HER-2NEU *
Bevacizumab and Imatimib
Tratuzumab and Pertuzumab
Sunitimib and Imatimib
Imatimib and Cetuximab
Plaquitaxcel and Carboplatin

Which drug acts on the epidermal growth receptor HER-1?

Bevacizumab
Tratuzumab
Sunitimib
Imatimib
Cetuximab
Carboplatin
Comments
Chimeric monoclonal IgG1 antibody targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). It binds to EGFR, blocks the
binding of endogenous ligands to EGFR, which causes inhibition of receptor function. Therapeutic indications
Cetuximab
Metastatic colorectal cancer with epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) expression and wild-type RAS gene: in
combination with irinotecan-based chemotherapy. First line in combination with FOLFOX. As monotherapy in those in
whom treatment has failed. with oxaliplatin and irinotecan and who do not tolerate irinotecan. Head and neck squamous
cell cancer: in combination with radiotherapy for locally advanced, or in combination with platinum-based chemotherapy,
for disease. recurrent and/or metastatic.

Which drug acts on the epidermal growth receptors HER-1 and HER-2?
Lapatinib
Tratuzumab
Sunitimib
Imatimib
Cetuximab
Carboplatin
Correct answer
Lapatinib
Comments
Lapatinib is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits tyrosine kinase of the EGFR (ErbB1) and HER2 (ErbB2) receptors. It is
used for the treatment of patients with breast cancer, whose tumors overexpress HER2 (ErbB2), in combination with
capecitadine or trastuzumab.

Mechanism of action: Lapatinib inhibits the action of tyrosine kinase associated with the oncogenes EGFR and HER2/neu
that are overexpressed in certain types of breast cancer. Like sorafenib, lapatinib inhibits the signaling pathway by binding
to the ATP site of the protein kinase domain of EGFR/HER2, preventing autophosphorylation and subsequent activation of
the signaling pathway.

An additive effect has been demonstrated in an in vitro study when lapatinib and 5-FU (the active metabolite of
capecitabine) were used in combination in several tumor cell lines tested. Likewise, the growth inhibitory effects produced
by lapatinib in cell lines have been studied in a medium containing trastuzumab. Lapatinib retained significant activity
against these breast cancer cell lines selected for long-term growth in trastuzumab-containing medium. These in vitro
findings suggest that there is no cross-resistance between these two agents.

Hormone receptor-positive breast cancer cells (with ER [estrogen receptor] and/or PGR [progesterone receptor]) that co-
express HER2 tend to be resistant to established endocrine therapies. Hormone receptor-positive breast cancer cells that
initially lack EGFR or HER2 eventually acquire these receptor proteins until the tumor becomes resistant to endocrine
therapy.

What drugs can be used in the treatment of c-KIt-positive (CD 117) gastrointestinal stromal tumors
(GIST)? * Lapatinib and Carboplatin
Tratuzumab and Pertuzumab
Sunitimib and Imatimib
Imatimib and Cetuximab
Cetuximab and Lapatinib
Comments
Sunitinib is a small, orally administered molecule that inhibits multiple receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) that are involved in
tumor growth, neoangiogenesis, and progression to cancer metastasis.

Mechanism of action: Sunitinib inhibits multiple receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) that are involved in cell growth.
tumor, neoangiogenesis and progression to cancer metastasis. Sunitinib is an inhibitor of platelet-derived growth factor
receptors (PDGFRa and PDGFRb), vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR1, VEGFR2, and VEGFR3), stem
cell factor receptor (KIT), Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), colony-stimulating factor receptor (CSF-1R), and glial cell
line-derived neurotrophic factor receptor (RET). In cellular and biochemical assays the major metabolite shows similar
potency to sunitinib.

Imatinib is a protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor, belonging to the tyrphostin group, which potently inhibits Bcr-Abl tyrosine
kinase in vitro, at the cellular level, and in vivo. The compound selectively inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in
cell lines. Imatinib is indicated for the treatment of patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+)
chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) (bcr-abl) for whom bone marrow transplantation is not considered first-line therapy.

Mechanism of action: Imatinib inhibits the tyrosine kinase produced by the chromosomal abnormality created by the
Philadelphia chromosome, an abnormality that causes chronic myeloid leukemia. It also acts in patients with acute
lymphoblastic leukemia. In vivo the compound shows antitumor activity in animal models using Bcr-Abl positive tumor
cells. Imatinib is also a receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), stem cell factor (SGF),
c-Kit, and inhibits cellular processes mediated by both growth factors. In vitro, imatinib inhibits proliferation and induces
apoptosis in gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) cells expressing an activating kit mutation.

Which drug acts on the intracytoplasmic tyrosine kinase receptor BCR-AVL *

Tratuzumab
Cetuximab
Carboplatin
Imatimib
Sunitimib
Comments
Imatinib is a protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor, belonging to the tyrphostin group, which potently inhibits Bcr-Abl tyrosine
kinase in vitro, at the cellular level, and in vivo. The compound selectively inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in
cell lines. Imatinib is indicated for the treatment of patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+)
chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) (bcr-abl) for whom bone marrow transplantation is not considered first-line therapy.

Mechanism of action: Imatinib inhibits the tyrosine kinase produced by the chromosomal abnormality created by the
Philadelphia chromosome, an abnormality that causes chronic myeloid leukemia. It also acts in patients with acute
lymphoblastic leukemia. In vivo the compound shows antitumor activity in animal models using Bcr-Abl positive tumor
cells. Imatinib is also a receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), stem cell factor (SGF),
c-Kit, and inhibits cellular processes mediated by both growth factors. In vitro, imatinib inhibits proliferation and induces
apoptosis in gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) cells expressing an activating kit mutation.

What is the genetic mutation in the BCR-AVL oncogene? *

Nonsense mutation on chromosome 9
Translocation 11-22
Translocation 9-22
Deletion of gene 11
Gene amplification 9
Comments
This abnormality affects chromosomes 9 and 22. Ninety percent of patients with chronic myeloid leukemia (the first
malignant disease in which it was possible to demonstrate an acquired genetic abnormality) have this abnormality, while
the rest of the patients suffer from cryptic translocations that are invisible to G-band preparations or other translocations
that affect one or more other chromosomes in the same way as occurs with chromosomes 9 and 22. Cases of the
Philadelphia chromosome are also found in patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (25 to 30 percent in adults and 2 to
10 percent in children), and occasionally in cases of acute myelocytic leukemia (AML).

The genetic defect of the Philadelphia chromosome consists of a phenomenon known as translocation, that is, a
chromosomal break occurs in two specific regions of chromosome 9 and 22 (translocation 9-22), exchanging their
positions. Specifically, the breakpoint occurs in the ABL (Abelson) gene on chromosome 9 (region q34) and in the BCR
(Breakpoint Cluster Region) gene on chromosome 22 (region q11), giving rise to an altered chromosome 9 and an also
altered chromosome 22 (Philadelphia chromosome), but characterized by the fusion of these two genes (BCR-ABL),
which will encode a chimeric protein. The ABL gene takes its name from "Abelson", the name of a leukemia-causing virus
that is the precursor of a protein similar to the one produced by this gene.2

The result of this translocation is the production of a protein of weight p230, p210 or p190 (p is a measure of weight for
cellular proteins in atomic mass units). The ABL gene in its normal situation expresses a tyrosine kinase protein, when the
fusion with the BCR gene occurs, said tyrosine kinase activity is still maintained. Although the BCR gene encodes a
serine/threonine protein kinase enzyme, the activity that is really important for the development of the disease is the
altered tyrosine kinase function, since it has been shown to play an important role in the genesis of the leukemic process.

The protein resulting from the BCR-ABL fusion interacts with the Interleukin 3beta(c) receptor subunit. BCR-ABL
transcription remains continuously active, without the need to be activated by other messenger proteins. This continuous
transcription leads to an uncontrolled alteration of proteins and enzymes that govern the regularity of the cell division cycle
and consequently inhibits DNA repair, causing genome instability and being a potential triggering factor for the "chain
crisis" of chronic myeloid leukemia, with a high mortality rate.

Partial Response After Treatment with Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy is? *

Complete disappearance of the tumor from a clinical point of view (physical examination and imaging studies)
Tumor size reduction by 30%
Tumor size reduction by 40%
Tumor size reduction by 10%
Tumor size reduction by 60%
The increase in volume the size of the tumor
Correct answer
Tumor size reduction by 60%

What is the complete clinical response after neoadjuvant chemotherapy? *

Complete disappearance of the tumor from a clinical point of view (physical examination and imaging studies)
Tumor size reduction by 30%
Tumor size reduction by 40%
Tumor size reduction by 10%
Tumor size reduction by 60%
The increase in volume the size of the tumor

Is stable disease after neoadjuvant chemotherapy? *

Complete disappearance of the tumor from a clinical point of view (physical examination and imaging studies)
Tumor size reduction by 30%
Tumor size reduction by 90%
Tumor size reduction by 70%
Tumor size reduction by 60%
The increase in volume the size of the tumor
Correct answer
Tumor size reduction by 30%

In Disease-Free Survival at a Distance*

Patients who are alive without local disease but with distant disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients who are alive with distant disease after oncological treatment are included.
Included are patients who are alive without disease and patients alive with local disease and without distant disease.
Patients with persistence of disease at local and distant levels after oncological treatment are included.

In Disease-Free Survival
Patients who are alive without disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients who are alive with distant disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients who are alive with local recurrence and alive without disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients with persistence of disease at local and distant levels after oncological treatment are included.

In Global Survival *
Patients who are alive without disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients who are alive with and without disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients who are alive with local recurrence and alive without disease after oncological treatment are included.
Patients with persistence of disease at local and distant levels after oncological treatment are included.

Is it a prognostic factor? *
A feature present in patienteitherin the tumor that can impact survival
A feature present in patienteitherin the tumor which may impact the response to treatment
A feature present in patienteitherin the tumor that cannot impact the response to treatment
A feature present in patienteitherin the tumor that cannot impact survival

CLASS 3.

For a 40-year-old woman, who is healthy. What screening studies are recommended? *
CT scan of the chest, abdomen and pelvis
Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis
Cervical biopsy
Bilateral Mammography
Complete hematology, tumor markers CEA, AC 15 and CA 125

A protective factor? *
Increases the risk of a certain type of cancer
It does not increase the risk of a certain type of cancer
Using Relative Risk it has a value of 1
Using Relative Risk it has a value of 2
Using Relative Risk it has a value of 0.7

Does excessive alcohol consumption correspond to ? *

An alcohol consumption of 1 8-ounce glass of beer in 2 hours in men
A consumption of 12 ounces of beer in men in a 2-hour period
A consumption of 7 ounces of tequila in men per day
A consumption of 8 ounces of beer in 2 hours in women

Is excessive alcohol consumption associated with the risk (RR) of esophageal squamous cell cancer
in ? *
RR 1
RR 0.9
RR 3
RR 5
RR 1.8

Does excessive alcohol and tobacco consumption increase the relative risk of oral cavity cancer in
men? *
RR 1
RR 5
RR 12
RR 4
RR 23

The number of new cases of a disease present per 100,000 inhabitants per year is defined as? *
Prevalence
Mortality
Recurrence
Incidence
Birth rate
The number of existing cases of a disease present per 100,000 inhabitants for a
5-year period is defined as? *
Prevalence
Mortality
Recurrence
Incidence
Birth rate

Regarding the incidence of cancer worldwide. What are the top three causes of cancer? *
Prostate, Colon-Rectal and Kidney
Prostate, Breast and Colon-rectum
Prostate, Breast and Lung
Thyroid, Prostate and Lung
Thyroid, Prostate and Breast

Regarding the incidence of cancer worldwide and in the male sex. What are the top three causes of
cancer in order of incidence? * Breast, Prostate and Lung
Prostate, colorectal and lung
Lung, Prostate and Colorectal
Prostate, Lung and Colorectal
Thyroid, Prostate and Breast

What is the incidence rate of cancer in all ages, both sexes and all types of cancer for Venezuela in
2020? *
12 x 100,000 inhabitants
354 x 100,000 inhabitants
95 x 100,000 inhabitants
181 x 100,000 inhabitants
189 x 100,000 inhabitants
What is the mortality rate for cancer in all ages, both sexes and all types of cancer for Venezuela in
2020? *
12 x 100,000 inhabitants
354 x 100,000 inhabitants
95 x 100,000 inhabitants
181 x 100,000 inhabitants
189 x 100,000 inhabitants

What is the incidence rate of cancer for all ages, both sexes, and all types of cancer for the United
States in 2020? * 12 x 100,000 inhabitants
354 x 100,000 inhabitants
362 x 100,000 inhabitants
378 x 100,000 inhabitants
189 x 100,000 inhabitants

What are the 3 main causes of cancer in Venezuelan women? *

Cervix, Breast and Thyroid
Cervix, Breast and Lung
Breast, Cervix and Gastric
Breast, Cervix and Colon-Rectal

Is morbid obesity considered a BMI of? *

10
25
30
7
11

Is the attributable risk of colon cancer in patients with obesity? *

Risk of 10
Risk of 30
30% risk
Risk of 2
15% risk

Which are the 3 countries with the highest incidence of cancer worldwide? *
Poland, England and Austria
United States, Canada and Russia
China, Japan and the United States
Uruguay, United States and Canada
Australia, New Zealand and Ireland

What is the absolute risk for a woman to develop cancer in Venezuela? *

30%
20%
10%
17%
40%
32%

Which neoplasm has a high incidence and mortality rate in all countries? Mortality has not been
reduced in recent decades either? *
Mother
Cervical uterine
Prostate
Gastric
Colon and Rectum
Lung

What are the top 4 causes of cancer death worldwide for all ages and both sexes? *
Breast, Prostate, Colon-Rectum and Gastric
Lung, Breast, Colon-Rectum and Liver
Lung, Breast, Gastric and Liver
Lung, Breast, Prostate and Liver
Lung, Breast, Colon-Rectum and Thyroid

For colon and rectal cancer screening, which statement is correct? *

It should be started at age 45 with a colonoscopy and if the study is normal, repeat it the following year. It should be
started at age 45 with a colonoscopy and if the study is normal, repeat it in 10 years.
The fecal occult blood test should be performed once a year and fecal immunohistochemistry is also a screening test and
should be started at age 45.
The above two are true

CLASS 4.

Palliative Surgery in Cancer Patients? *

It is a surgery where there is no macroscopic residual
It is a surgery that improves local disease-free survival
It is a surgery that improves disease-free survival at a distance.
The above three are true
It is a surgery that improves the patient's quality of life but does not impact survival.
It is a surgery that prevents complications
the above two are true

Curative Surgery in Cancer Patients? *

It is a surgery where there is no macroscopic residual
It is a surgery that improves local disease-free survival
It is a surgery that improves disease-free survival at a distance.
The above three are true
It is a surgery that improves the patient's quality of life but does not impact survival.
It is a surgery that prevents complications, the two above are true.

Which of the following surgeries is considered an indirect oncologic surgery? *

Bilateral subcutaneous risk-reducing mastectomy
Modified D2 radical subtotal gastrectomy (D2-alpha)
Sentinel node in a patient with early breast cancer and negative axilla
Bilateral Orchiectomy in Patients with Metastatic Prostate Cancer
Unilateral oophorectomy in patients with epithelial ovarian tumor

Which of the following surgeries is considered a curative oncologic surgery? *

Bilateral subcutaneous risk-reducing mastectomy
Modified D2 radical subtotal gastrectomy (D2-alpha)
Sentinel node in a patient with early breast cancer and negative axilla
Bilateral Orchiectomy in Patients with Metastatic Prostate Cancer
Unilateral oophorectomy in patients with epithelial ovarian tumor

Which of the following surgeries is considered a Staging Oncologic Surgery? *

Bilateral subcutaneous risk-reducing mastectomy
Modified D2 radical subtotal gastrectomy (D2-alpha)
Sentinel node in a patient with early breast cancer and negative axilla
Bilateral Orchiectomy in Patients with Metastatic Prostate Cancer
Unilateral oophorectomy in patients with epithelial ovarian tumor
Correct answer
Sentinel node in a patient with early breast cancer and negative axilla

What percentage of cure does surgery provide for the treatment of malignant neoplasms? *
Approximately 10 to 30%
Approximately 3%
Approximately 25%
Approximately 9%
Approximately 50 to 60%

What is the correct sequence in patients with malignant neoplasms? *

Staging, Diagnosis, Treatment and Follow-up
Surgery, staging, treatment and follow-up
Diagnosis, Staging, Treatment and Follow-up
Chemotherapy, Surgery, Diagnosis and Staging
Correct answer
Diagnosis, Staging, Treatment and Follow-up
A 50-year-old female patient with breast cancer who, after staging studies, is determined to have a
5.5 cm tumor in the left breast SSC and a palpable 1 cm lymph node in the left axilla that is mobile
and in extension studies there is no distant disease. What is its clinical staging? * cT2, cN1, cMo cT2,
cNo, cMo cT3, cN1, cMo pT3, pN1, cMo cT4b, cN1, cMo

A 70-year-old female patient with breast cancer who, after staging studies, is determined to have a
2.56 cm tumor in the left breast SSC and a palpable 1 cm lymph node in the left axilla that is mobile
and in extension studies there is no distant disease. What is its clinical staging? * cT2, cN1, cMo cT2,
cNo, cMo cT3, cN1, cMo pT3, pN1, cMo
cT4b, cN1, cMo

A 65-year-old patient has an Infiltrating Ductal Adenocarcinoma of the Right Breast with clinical
staging of cT4b, cN1, Mo and Estrogen Receptors expressed in 90%, Progesterone expressed in
80%, HEr-2neu not expressed and a KI 67 in 23%. Who does it correspond to in the staging?* (EC =
Clinical Stage) * Invasive breast cancer EC IIIc, Triple Negative Invasive breast cancer EC IIIb, Triple Negative
Insitu ductal breast cancer EC 0, Luminal B Breast cancer EC IIIb, Luminal A Breast cancer EC IIIb, Luminal B Correct
answer
Breast cancer EC IIIb, Luminal B

What is MAMAPRINT? *
Immunohistochemical marker
Genetic test that determines the prognosis of breast cancer where 21 genes are studied
Genetic test that determines the prognosis of breast cancer where 70 genes are studied and is also useful as predictive
information
Uses immunohistochemical techniques to determine whether the patient with breast cancer is high or low risk
It is determined by its results and a score of 0 to 100 and less than 11 is a good prognosis.

What is the lifetime attributable risk of breast cancer for a woman who tests positive for BRCA1? * 60%
10 to 30% 5% 80% 9%

What is the lifetime attributable risk of ovarian cancer for a woman who has a
test where BRCA1 is mutated? *
9 times
40 to 50%
5%
80%
9%
98%

In which woman would a bilateral risk-reducing prophylactic mastectomy be indicated? *

Woman with a family history of breast cancer in her mother at age 70
Woman with BRCA1 and BRCA2 study without mutation and with a family history of a sister with breast cancer at age 50
Woman with a history of 4 first-degree relatives with breast cancer and BRCA1 mutation
Woman with a family history of breast cancer in her mother at age 60
Woman with BRCA1 and 2 non-mutated studies and family history of 2 sisters with mutated BRCA1 studies

Examples of oncologic surgery for primary control? *

Orchiopexy
Bilateral oophorectomy in patients with estrogen receptor-expressing and premenopausal breast cancer
Sentinel lymph node in breast cancer
Right hepatectomy for resectable hepatocellular cancer
Loop colostomy for unresectable rectal tumor

98
%
Correct answer
Right hepatectomy for resectable hepatocellular cancer

Examples of oncologic surgery for primary control? *

Orchiopexy
Bilateral oophorectomy in patients with estrogen receptor-expressing and premenopausal breast cancer
Sentinel lymph node in breast cancer
Low Anterior Rectal Resection for Rectal Cancer Treated with Preoperative Chemo-Radiotherapy Total gastrectomy
without lymph node dissection in a patient with proximal gastric cancer with liver metastases and bleeding leading to
medically intractable anemia.

Correct answer
Low Anterior Rectal Resection for Rectal Cancer Treated with Preoperative Chemo-Radiotherapy

Examples of oncologic surgery for staging and treatment of the primary tumor? * Modified Radical
Mastectomy Maden Type in a patient with breast cancer who received neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Bilateral oophorectomy in patients with estrogen receptor-expressing and premenopausal breast cancer
Sentinel lymph node in breast cancer
Low Anterior Rectal Resection for Rectal Cancer Treated with Preoperative Chemo-Radiotherapy
Ovary Protocol
Correct answer
Ovary Protocol
Surgery performed on a patient with ovarian cancer who received chemotherapy treatment for an
advancing tumor that was initially unresectable and who was able to operate completely after
chemotherapy and without macroscopic residual disease? * Primary Optimal Interval Cytoreductive
Laparotomy Primary Sub-Optimal Interval Cytoreductive Laparotomy Secondary Sub-Optimal Interval Cytoreductive
Laparotomy Exploratory Laparotomy and Biopsy Collection Correct answer
Primary Optimal Interval Cytoreductive Laparotomy

Examples of palliative oncologic surgery and to prevent complications? *

Orchiopexy
Bilateral oophorectomy in patients with estrogen receptor-expressing and premenopausal breast cancer
Sentinel lymph node in breast cancer
Low Anterior Rectal Resection for Rectal Cancer Treated with Preoperative Chemo-Radiotherapy Total gastrectomy
without lymph node dissection in a patient with proximal gastric cancer with liver metastases and bleeding leading to
medically intractable anemia.
Correct answer
Total gastrectomy without lymph node dissection in a patient with proximal gastric cancer with liver metastases and
bleeding leading to medically untreatable anemia.

The sentinel node? *

It is a procedure for the treatment of the armpit in patients with early breast cancer. It is a procedure for the staging of the
armpit in patients with early breast cancer. It uses the combined technique of Tc 99 and Patent Blue to determine the blue
and hot nodes that are the sentinel nodes.
The previous two are correct
The sentinel node is the last node that drains a tumor.

CLASS 5.

Can 50% of cancers be cured with the contribution of various therapeutic methods? * Radiotherapy in
100% of cases Surgery in 100% of cases
Chemotherapy in 50% of cases
Hormone therapy in 95% of cases
Radiotherapy in 27% of cases
Do new technologies in radiotherapy indicate an increase in survival? * 20% 50% 30 to 40% 60 to 80% 7%
90%
The absorbed dose in radiotherapy is: ? *
It is the amount of energy absorbed per unit of mass of the radiated material.
It refers to the impact that this type of radiation has on this tissue. They are the particles emitted by naturally unstable
atoms. They are non-ionizing radiations that produce DNA denaturation. The dose absorbed by all the organs of the body,
in addition to the relative level of radiation damage and the sensitivity of each organ to radiation. None of the above.
The effective dose in radiotherapy is: ? *
It is the amount of energy absorbed per unit of mass of the radiated material.
It refers to the impact that this type of radiation has on this tissue.
They are particles emitted by naturally unstable atoms.
They are non-ionizing radiations that produce DNA denaturation.
The dose absorbed by all organs in the body, plus the relative level of radiation damage and the sensitivity of each organ
to radiation
None of the above

The equivalent dose in radiotherapy is: ? *

It is the amount of energy absorbed per unit of mass of the radiated material.
It refers to the impact that this type of radiation has on this tissue.
They are particles emitted by naturally unstable atoms.
They are non-ionizing radiations that produce DNA denaturation.
The dose absorbed by all organs in the body, plus the relative level of radiation damage and the sensitivity of each organ
to radiation
None of the above

Does natural radioactivity produce? *

Neutrons and Protons
Infrared rays
Gamma rays, alpha particles and electrons
Microwave waves
None of the above
Correct answer
Gamma rays, alpha particles and electrons
Who(s) first discovered Natural Radioactivity? *

Becquerel
Marie Sklodowska and Pierre
Curie
Ernest Rutherford
Frédéric Joliot and Irene Curie
Beethoven
Who(s) first discovered Artificial Radioactivity? *

Becquerel
Marie Sklodowska and Pierre Curie
Ernest Rutherford
Frédéric Joliot and Irene Curie
Beethoven

What are the most commonly used types of artificial radiation in medicine? *
Nuclear fusion and fission
The emission or disintegration
The transmutation
The previous two are correct
No answer is certain

What is Radioactivity? *
It is the amount of energy absorbed per unit of mass of the radiated material.
It is an artificial phenomenon where charged particles with atomic mass are produced
It is a natural phenomenon only to produce charged particles
The previous two are correct
Radioactivity is defined as the spontaneous emission of particles or energy from the unstable atomic nucleus to achieve a
more stable nucleus.

What is Brachytherapy? *
2/2
It is the amount of energy absorbed per unit of mass of the radiated material.
Radiation applied externally with linear accelerator equipment
Radiation applied in the form of X-rays
Radiation applied directly to tissue from an external source may be endoluminal or interstitial.

What is Teletherapy? *
It is the amount of energy absorbed per unit of mass of the radiated material.
Radiation applied externally with linear accelerator equipment
Radiation applied in the form of X-rays
Radiation applied directly to tissue from an external source may be endoluminal or interstitial.

In which part of the cell cycle are cells most sensitive to radiotherapy? *

Phase S
G1 phase Mitosis
Phase G2
Phase G0
Palliative Radiotherapy? *
Consider healing the patient with maximum doses of radiation
Considers the palliation and improvement of the patient's quality of life and are minimal doses of radiation
Radiotherapy indicated before curative surgical treatment
Radiotherapy indicated after curative surgical treatment

Radical or Curative Radiotherapy. Can it be applied to which neoplasms? *

Cervical cancer clinical stage IIB combined with chemotherapy and brachytherapy
Rectal cancer histology adenocarcinoma
Nasopharyngeal cancer
Hodgkin's disease CD I and II
Esophageal Cancer Clinical Stage IV