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2025 WASSCE Integrated Science Mock Exam

The document is a mock examination paper for WASSCE 2025 in Integrated Science, consisting of 60 multiple-choice questions. Candidates are instructed to answer all questions by selecting the correct option from four choices and shading their answers on an answer sheet. The paper covers various topics in science, including biology, chemistry, and physics.

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raphaelbonjul
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
7K views12 pages

2025 WASSCE Integrated Science Mock Exam

The document is a mock examination paper for WASSCE 2025 in Integrated Science, consisting of 60 multiple-choice questions. Candidates are instructed to answer all questions by selecting the correct option from four choices and shading their answers on an answer sheet. The paper covers various topics in science, including biology, chemistry, and physics.

Uploaded by

raphaelbonjul
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

SIR ALBERT EXAMS CANDIDATE'S NAME

WASSCE 2025 MOCK


INTEGRATED SCIENCE INDEX NUMBER SIGNATURE
1 hour

WHATSAPP US ON 0206593453

PAPER 1
OBJECTIVEL TEST
60 MARKS

Answer all questions.


Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D.
Find the correct option for each question and shade in pencil on
your answer sheet.
Think carefully before you shade your answer spaces; erase completely
any answer you wish to change.
Do all rough work on this paper
Now answer the following questions:

1. An example of naturally occurring weak acid is

A. ammonia
B. citric acid
C. hydrochloric acid
D. nitric acid

2. The presence of methane and carbon (IV) oxide in the air is the main
cause of

A. global warming
B. high and low tides
C. movement of air masses
D. thunder storm

3. Which of the following statements about wind are correct?


I. It is an air mass
II. It moves from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure
III. It moves from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure
A. I, II and III
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I and II only

4. The weather on earth is determined by changes in temperature,


pressure and winds that take place in the

A. thermosphere
B. Stratosphere
C. mesosphere
D. troposphere

5. The following substance are air pollutants except

A. fertilizer
B. sulphur(IV) oxide
C. dust
D. exhaust fumes

6. Biogas is produced from

A. anaerobic fermentation of organic waste.


B. aerobic fermentation of organic waste.
C. aerobic fermentation of inorganic waste
D. anaerobic fermentation of inorganic waste.

7. Which of the following organisms has neither a nucleus nor


membrane bond organelles?

A. bacteria
B. mucor
C. paramecium
D. spirogyra

8. Which of the following organelles is the site for protein synthesis?

A. Golgi body
B. Mitochondrion
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleus
9. The term used to describe all chemical reactions occurring
inside an organism is

A. Condensation
B. Metabolism
C. Oxidation
D. Polymerization

10. The blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood to the heart is

A. oarta
B. pulmonary artery
C. pulmonary vein
D. vena cava

11. A farmer planted 2400 cuttings of cassava of which 85%


survived grasscutter invasion.
Determine the number of cassava plants that was destroyed.

A. 135
B. 150
C. 360
D. 204

12. Setts are planting materials used for the cultivation of

A. Ginger
B. Pineapple
C. Radish
D. Yam

13. An example of fungal disease of stored grains is

A. damping off
B. soft rot
C. maize smut
D. mould

14. The major cause of pest harvest loss of stored millet in Ghana is

A. bird attack
B. insect attack
C. high humidity
D. mechanical injury

15. Excess amino acids in the body undergo the process of

A. digestion
B. detoxification
C. delamination
D. osmosis

16. During digestion, rennin in the stomach

A. provides acidic medium


B. emulsifies fat
C. coagulates milk protein
D. digests carbohydrates

17. Members of the same species living in the same place at the
same time make up the

A. tropic level
B. ecosystem
C. community
D. population

18. The potential difference across the terminals of a resistor is 24 V.


Determine the current which will flow through the resistor
with resistance 15 Ω.

A. 40.0 A
B. 1.6 A
C. 10. 0 A
D. 0.6 A

19. An electrical component that is used to vary electric current is the

A. ammeter
B. rheostat
C. voltmeter
D. amplifier

20. Which of the following statements about small scale industry is correct?
It…….
A. operates with minimum input of materials.
B. is always in rural areas
C. is always capital intensive
D. makes use of advanced technology

21. The largest excretory organ of the human body is the

A. liver
B. Pancreas
C. lungs
D. skin

22. The pigment in the skin responsible for skin colouration is

A. xanthophyll
B. melanin
C. velamin
D. carotene

23. In mammals, the organ which deaminates excess amino acid to form
urea is the

A. kidneys
B. pancreas
C. liver
D. spleen

24. An agricultural system in which crops and animals are produced


on the same piece of land at the same time is termed

A. mixed farming
B. pastoral farming
C. mixed cropping
D. continuous cropping

25. A disadvantage of practicing mixed cropping is the

A. competition for soil nutrients among crops


B. destruction of virgin forests
C. establishment of weeds among crops
D. high rate of disease spread

26. Fehling's solution is used in the laboratory to test for the


presence of

A. fats
B. starch
C. fatty acids
D. reducing sugars

27. Proteins are usually made up of

A. sulphur, carbon and nitrogen.


B. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
C. carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen.
D. oxygen, carbon and sulphur

28. Which of the following diseases is caused by vitamin deficiency?

A. hypertension
B. night blindness
C. tuberculosis
D. dysentery

29. The principle of flotation states that

A. a floating body displaces its own weight of fluid in which it floats.


B. a body immersed in a fluid does not displace the fluid
C. the upthrust on a floating body exceeds the body's weight
D. a floating body experiences an upward force equal to its weight.

30. A body is more stable when its centre of gravity is

A. close to the ground


B. outside the body
C. at its top
D. at the centre

31. Which of the following forces is mainly reduced when a


lubricant is applied to the moving parts of an engine?

A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. frictional force
D. centripetal force
32. An example of a wind instrument is

A. xylophone
B. guitar
C. flute
D. violin

33. During thunderstorm, lightning is seen before the sound is heard


although both occur at the same time. This is because……

A. sounds needs a material medium for propagation.


B. light waves are mechanical.
C. light travels faster than sound.
D. sound waves are longitudinal whereas light waves are transverse.

34. The management practice which makes the transport of farm animals
easy is

A. identification
B. castration
C. dehorning
D. quarantine

35. The most effective way of controlling lice on fowls is by

A. spraying
B. dipping
C. dusting
D. drenching

36. The equivalent of 161 K in degree celcius is

A. -112 °C
B. 161 °C
C. 112 °C
D. -161 °C

37. A child has a fever, runny nose, red sore eyes and a rash inside
the mouth. Which of the following diseases is the child likely to
be suffering from?

A. measles
B. malaria
C. whooping cough
D. poliomyelitis

38. It is compulsory to wear goggles when handling substances that

A. are poisonous
B. emit sparks
C. are highly flammable
D. are corrosive

39. The angle of reflection of a ray is 40°. Determine the angle


between the surface of the mirror and the ray.

A. 50°
B. 40°
C. 80°
D. 100°

40. The shape of the lens of the human eye is varied by the action of the

A. ciliary muscle
B. iris
C. suspensory ligament
D. pupil

41. Energy output in a device is equal to work done

A. by the load
B. on the load
C. on the effort
D. by the effort

42. The energy output of a system is 40 J and the efficiency is 60%.


Determine the energy input of the system

A. 50.0 J
B. 24.0 J
C. 75.4 J
D. 66.7 J

43. Which of the following blood groups in humans does not


contain antigen?
A. A
B. AB
C. B
D. O

44. DNA testing is used to determine…….

A. the father of the child


B. when the child will be born
C. the sex of the child
D. whether twins will be born

45. It is more advantageous to use solar energy than fossil fuel


energy because

A. fossil fuel energy is renewable


B. solar energy causes pollution
C. fossil fuel produces carbon (IV) oxide
D. solar energy is renewable

46. An example of inorganic fertilizer is…..

A. compost
B. farmyard manure
C. urea
D. green manure

47. Crop residue left on farms to conserve soil moisture are


referred to as

A. waste materials
B. stable mulch
C. hay
D. silage

48. A characteristics feature of metamorphic and sedimentary rocks is


that they are

A. crystalline in structure
B. metallic in appearance
C. non-crystalline structure
D. glassy in appearance
49. The normal period for a human pregnancy is

A. 52 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 28 weeks
D. 40 weeks

50. Which of the following structures in plants prevents water loss?

A. Phloem
B. Cuticle
C. Mesophyll
D. Xylem

51. One function of water in the germination of seeds is that it……

A. causes the seed to produce auxins


B. kills the germs in the seed
C. activates the enzymes to breakdown stored food
D. terminates the period of dormancy

52. The gas used in the welding torch belongs to the family of

A. alkynes
B. alkanoates
C. alkanes
D. alkenes

53. The radioactive radiation with the least penetration power is

A. X-ray
B. beta particle
C. gamma rays
D. alpha particle

54. Group of organs which form part of the central nervous


system are the

A. brain, the eyes and the ears


B. brain, the ears and the spinal cord
C. eyes and the spinal cord
D. brain and the spinal cord
55. Which of the following non-metals conduct electricity?

A. graphite
B. Diamond
C. vanadium
D. silicone
56. An instrument that could be used to measure the relative density of
an acid is

A. hydrometer
B. anemometer
C. barometer
D. hygrometer

57. In the periodic table, all the elements within the same group
have the same

A. atomic number
B. number of electrons available for bonding
C. number of neutrons in the nuclei
D. number of isotopes

58. What happens when a magnet is cut into two pieces?

A. The magnetism is destroyed


B. The magnetism is reduced
C. Each piece becomes a separate magnet with its
own north and south poles
D. The pieces become electrically charged

59. Which of the following conditions affect the rate of dissolving?

A. stirring and the quantity of the solvent.


B. water, stirring and filtering
C. filtering and sieving
D. stirring, heating, the size of the solute particles

60. Which of the following is a plant parasite

A. nematode
B. caterpillar
C. capsid
D. dodder
END OF PAPER 1

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