05.15. Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems .

1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.

A. GPWS warnings.

B. dedicated status and warnings.

C. take-off and landing warnings.

2. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by.

A. CAA.

B. ICAO.

C. JAA.

3. EADI sky and ground display is provided by.

A. raster scan.

B. stroke pulse.

C. synthetic TV signals.

4. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is.

A. in view.

B. green.

C. out of view.

5. MFD is the abbreviation for.

A. Multi function display.

B. Mandatory flight display.

C. Master flight display.

6. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is.

A. 12.36 microsecond.

B. 6.18 microsecond.
C. 24.72 microsecond.

7. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of.

A. 21 active and 3 spare.

B. 28 active and 7 spare.

C. 23 active and 5 spare.

8. An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to.

A. +88.45 and -88.45 degrees.

B. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.

C. +60 and -60 degrees.

9. The command bars on an ADI relate to.

A. roll indications.

B. path being followed.

C. path required.

10. ECAM has at its heart.

A. a multi function symbol generator.

B. a central maintenance computer.

C. ACARS.

11. The recording medium in an FDR is.

A. copper foil coated with ferrite.

B. a high density floppy disc

C. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.

12. An FMS databank memory is updated.

A. every 365 days.

B. every 28 days.

C. every 32 days.
13. What does the CADC feed?.

A. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.

B. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.

C. standby altimeter / machmeter.

14. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system through
the.

A. Data Acquisition Unit.

B. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.

C. Control and Display Unit.

15. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3 dimensional
fix is.

A. 2.

B. 3.

C. 4.

16. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using a.

A. different channel frequency.

B. pseudo random code.

C. whisper shout method.

17. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these may
cause.

A. range errors.

B. clock errors.

C. ephemeris errors.

18. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated on
the display by.

A. dashes.

B. a flashing cursor.
C. boxes.

19. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments.

A. provided there is adequate damping.

B. provided there is adequate isolation.

C. by direct connection to the instruments.

20. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are.

A. pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.

B. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.

C. pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.

21. EICAS provides the following:.

A. Engine parameters and engine warnings only.

B. Engine parameters and system warnings only.

C. Engine parameters only.

22. A central maintenance computer provides.

A. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.

B. ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel.

C. display of system warnings and cautions.

23. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from.

A. barometric height.

B. radio altimeter.

C. vertical speed.

24. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?.

A. The recording unit.

B. There are no outputs.

C. Flight instruments.
25. FMS failure and warnings are.

A. EFIS warnings only.

B. displayed on EICAS.

C. engine warnings only.

26. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by.

A. calibration.

B. position feedback.

C. amplifier gain.

27. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation
System?.

A. Aircraft present position.

B. Heading and attitude.

C. Aircraft present position and heading.

28. IRS accelerometers are mounted.

A. 90° to each other.

B. 45° to each other.

C. 60° to each other.

29. An FMS navigation database is updated.

A. once a month.

B. every 28 days.

C. at the operators request.

A. will reduce operational heights and speeds.

B. will limit the flight profile.

C. has no effect on aircraft operation.

31. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in.
A. spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.

B. ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.

C. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.

32. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by.

A. spoilers and ailerons.

B. ailerons.

C. spoilers.

33. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are.

A. hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated.

B. both electrically controlled and electrically actuated.

C. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.

34. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.

A. dedicated status warnings.

B. take-off and landing warnings.

C. GPWS warnings.

35. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?.

A. Comparison with No.1 symbol generator.

B. Parity function.

C. Standby.

36. FMS operational program is updated every.

A. 90 days.

B. 28 days.

C. 7 days.

37. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording.

A. when power is applied to the aircraft.

B. on take-off.

C. on engine start-up.

38. The FMS databases consist of.

A. one navigation and one performance database.

B. one performance and two navigation databases.

C. two performance and one navigation database.

39. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either.

A. VOR and DME only.

B. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.

C. DME and GPS only.

40. The accepted error from INS/IRS is.

A. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.

B. 2 miles per hour + 3 miles.

C. 1 mile/hour+3 miles.

41. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence.

A. the current present position must be entered.

B. either the last or current position must be entered.

C. the shutdown present position must be entered.

42. What warnings can an FMS provide?.

A. Discrete warnings.

B. Spurious faults.

C. Ground faults only.

43. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.

A. performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE interrogation.

B. performs in-flight BITE interrogation only.

C. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.

44. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be controlled by.

A. position feedback.

B. rate or velocity feedback.

C. amplifier gain.

45. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation.

A. on the ground only.

B. in the air only.

C. either in the air or on the ground.

46. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated.

A. in an emergency.

B. with EICAS.

C. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.

47. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in the.

A. FMS.

B. EICAS.

C. Symbol Generators.

48. What is the approximate earth rate?.

A. 10°/hour.

B. 5°/hour.

C. 15°/hour.

49. An IRS has.

A. two or three accelerometers depending on the system.

B. three accelerometers.

C. two accelerometers.
50. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide.

A. rate of movement about an axis.

B. displacement about an axis.

C. both rate and displacement about an axis.

51. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?.

A. TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.

B. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.

C. TAS, MACH and Altitude.

52. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will.

A. both be active.

B. both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.

C. one in active mode, one in damping mode.

53. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?.

A. ELAC and SEC.

B. SEC.

C. ELAC.

54. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is.

A. on engine start-up.

B. on commencing the takeoff roll.

C. once established in the en-route climb.

55. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to.

A. download aircraft status reports.

B. make telephone calls.

C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.

56. B-RNAV system must be capable of.

A. holding six waypoints.

B. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.

C. reversing the waypoints for.

57. The basic principle of radar is based upon.

A. the amount of power in the signal returned.

B. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.

C. ultrasonic wave propagation.

58. What systems does the ADC feed?.

A. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.

B. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.

C. Standby altimeter/machmeter.

59. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?.

A. EFIS.

B. EICAS.

C. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.

60. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?.

A. EHSI.

B. EADI.

C. IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel.

61. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?.

A. 4.

B. 5.

C. 6.
62. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is.

A. from power on.

B. from engine start.

C. from beginning of take off roll.

63. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by.

A. two successive integrations.

B. a simple integration.

C. a differentiation followed by an integration.

64. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must.

A. insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.

B. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.

C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.

65. An IRS has.

A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.

B. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.

C. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.

66. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from.

A. Doppler System.

B. satellites.

C. central Air Data Computer.

67. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to.

A. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.

B. to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.

C. to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan.
68. The FMS is updated.

A. automatically by update data from the ACARS.

B. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc.

C. by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.

69. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by.

A. stabilizer only.

B. elevators only.

C. stabilizer and elevator.

70. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller:.

A. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.

B. control surface feedback is fed to the side stick.

C. there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure.

71. A basic IRS platform has.

A. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.

B. 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.

C. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.

72. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved?.

A. Flight plan.

B. Present position.

C. Cruise height.

73. The FMS Operational Database is.

A. updated once a month.

B. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off.

C. needs no update information.

74. Control surface feedback is fed back to.

A. the Flight Control Computer only.

B. the side stick controller only.

C. the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.

75. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is.

A. integrated once to give distance.

B. integrated twice to give velocity.

C. integrated twice to give distance.

76. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides. O

A. standby power only whilst in flight.

B. standby power when airborne and on the ground.

C. standby power only on the ground.

77. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will.

A. automatically move back to the neutral position.

B. remain rigid in the failure position.

C. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.

78. IRS alignment.

A. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during alignment.

B. takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.

C. takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment.

79. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The correct
action is.

A. immediately switch off and select the standby system.

B. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in the right
alpha/numeric display.

C. refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.

80. A FMS has a total of how many Databases.

A. 2.

B. 4.

C. 1.

81. Fly by wire High Speed protection is.

A. to prevent tuck under.

B. to increase the pitch angle as speed increases.

C. to prevent high speed stall.

82. An IRS Laser gyro provides.

A. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.

B. detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.

C. detection of the earths rotation to establish true north.

83. The left and right cockpit displays.

A. are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.

B. are supplied from the same Symbol Generator.

C. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators have failed.

84. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will.

A. cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.

B. not have any operational effect on the system.

C. cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation.

85. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?.

A. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.

B. VOR, ILS and DME.

C. Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS.

86. A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system test that ensures the system
meets design requirements and is operational.

A. but will not move the controls.

B. as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops.

C. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.

87. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of information. This is most
likely to be.

A. the input sensor bus and display controller.

B. the symbol generator and display.

C. the display controller and symbol generator.

88. A centralised monitoring computer system is used.

A. to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on control unit.

B. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit.

C. testing systems on the ground only.

89. In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated by.

A. raster scan.

B. synoptic scan.

C. stroke pulse.

90. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is by.

A. raster scan.

B. trapezoidal input.

C. stroke pulse.

91. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used.

A. to synchronise the signals on the control bus.

B. to provide a clock pulse for CRT.

C. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.

92. As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?. O

A. From the start of the aircraft take off run.

B. After take off when airborne.

C. On first engine start.

93. The operational database of the FMS may have to be modified in flight.

A. It cannot be modified in flight.

B. by the pilot.

C. automatically by the DADC.

94. CADC outputs are.

A. altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no.

B. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.

C. altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT.

95. If one EICAS CRT fails.

A. the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data.

B. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.

C. the standby CRT will automatically take over.

96. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by.

A. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a
parallel-parallel format.

B. manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller.

C. integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display individual.

97. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and monitoring
ground station is.

A. TCAS II.

B. ACARS.

C. TAWS.

98. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested.

A. on the ground only.

B. in the air only.

C. in the air and on the ground.

99. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be.

A. displayed on each individual display.

B. only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1.

C. can not be interchanged.

100. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during.

A. forward motion.

B. gear retraction.

C. take-off.

101. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and engine on
which system?.

A. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).

B. Flight management system.

C. EADI.

102. The Flight data recorder starts recording.

A. after take off.

B. on aircraft roll out from stand.

C. after the first engine has started.

103. Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus if.

A. the power is within flight data recorder limits.

B. it goes directly to it.

C. source isolation has been considered.

104. A central fault display system should be available through.

A. a bite test.

B. a central bite test box with clear LED indications.

C. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.

105. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording.

A. the last 25 hours.

B. the last 25 hours of aircraft flight.

C. the last 25 hours with engines running.

106. BITE for ground use only is switched off.

A. on take-off.

B. when brakes are released.

C. when undercarriage up.

107. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the Engine/Warning
display comes from the.

A. EFIS channel of DMC3.

B. ECAM channel of DMC1.

C. ECAM channel of DMC3.

108. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.

A. rhumb line.

B. course directed by ground station.

C. great circle route.

109. What warnings can an FMS provide?.

A. Ground faults only.

B. Discrete warnings.

C. Spurious faults.

110. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

A. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

B. the angle between True North and the actual track.

C. the angle between True North and the desired track.

Question Number. 111. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment System Performance Test the the
latitude entered must be within given limits of the.

A. latitude computed by IRU.

B. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last power
down.

C. the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.

112. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays.

A. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.

B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.

C. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.

113. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?.

A. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.

B. In flight.

C. On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground.

114. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?.

A. Continuously when system is in use.

B. After engine shut down

C. Only when BITE selected.

115. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.

A. provide attitude reference.

B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.

C. stop the gyros from toppling.

116. An IN system requires data from the.

A. Doppler system.

B. airdata computer.

C. satellites.
117. TK (cross track) is the.

A. actual track across the earths surface.

B. angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track.

C. perpendicular distance from the desired track.

118. The output of an INS can be fed to the.

A. attitude indicators.

B. altimeters.

C. vertical speed indicators.

119. The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are mounted.

A. 90° to each other.

B. parallel to each other.

C. 120° apart.

120. Gyro-compassing is the term used for.

A. self-alignment in the vertical.

B. use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform.

C. self-alignment in azimuth.

121. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to.

A. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.

B. perform in-flight BITE only.

C. perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE.

122. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation.

A. on the ground only.

B. in the air only

C. either ground or air.

123. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to.

A. an inoperative symbol generator or control panel.

B. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.

C. loss of power to the CRT.

124. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM.

A. via MCDU.

B. during power up.

C. during flight.

125. How does the symbol generator detect a program error?.

A. By looking at the even parity without error.

B. By looking at the odd parity without error.

C. By check sum bites for error detect.

126. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as.

A. CMCs replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.

B. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.

C. CMCs modifies and upgrades BITE systems.

127. An IRU interface test is carried out

A. in the air

B. only on the ground.

C. on the ground or in the air.

128. FMS system gives warning indications for.

A. take off and landings only.

B. any flight phase.

C. cruise.
129. FMS CDU warnings are.

A. fail and MSG.

B. OFST and Fail.

C. MSG, fail and OFST.

130. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to.

A. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.

B. give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status.

C. perform in-flight bite only.

131. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs.

A. validation of the information of the LRU.

B. a performance test of the system.

C. a test of the LRU.

132. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out when?.

A. Power-up self test.

B. For in-flight monitoring.

C. To check the performance of the LRU.

133. In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a maneouvre?.

A. RA.

B. TA.

C. either RA or TA.

134. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?.

A. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.

B. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.

C. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.

135. If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to.

A. Symbol Generator failure.

B. CRT failure.

C. Altimeter failure.

136. ACARS is an acronym for.

A. ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.

B. Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.

C. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.

137. When does the flight data recorder start recording ?.

A. Undercarriage up.

B. Parking brake released.

C. When the first engine starts.

138. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has.

A. a master warning light.

B. same colour throughout.

C. different colour for different temperatures.

139. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test system.

A. CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally tested.

B. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the screen.

C. displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE.

140. Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment sequence comes from.

A. FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices.

B. Magnetic compass installed on the airplane.

C. Earths Rotation.
141. What is primary mode of navigation on a modern aeroplane?.

A. Both GPS and IRS.

B. Only IRS.

C. Inch precise GPS.

142. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?.

A. Pilot input.

B. Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error.

C. Instrument feedback.

143. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System.

A. Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view.

B. Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd satellite.

C. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.

144. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS.

A. RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.

B. RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.

C. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.

145. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This indicates.

A. power is ON but DFDR is not recording data.

B. power is ON and DFDR is recording data.

C. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.

146. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following.

A. engine parameters and system warnings only.

B. engine parameters and engine warnings only.

C. engine warnings only.

147. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to operate?.

A. BEFORE take-off.

B. BEFORE engine start.

C. at any time the manufacturer decides.

148. ECAM system was adopted for.

A. Airbus A310.

B. both Boeing and Airbus aircraft.

C. Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft.

149. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data, could use:.

A. a floppy disk.

B. a plastic tape coated in ferrite.

C. a copper oxide string.

150. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start recording?.

A. When parking brake is released.

B. On commencement of flight.

C. When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.

151. As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?.

A. Once airborne after take off.

B. Before engine start.

C. Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.