CET MOCK TEST PAPER – 4

1. Light year is
a) Light emitted by the sun in a year
b) Time taken by light to travel from sun to earth
c) The distance traveled by light in free space in one year
d) Time taken by earth to go once around the sun.
2. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration. If‘t’ is the time taken to cover
a distance ‘S’, then ‘S’ is proportional to
a) t b) t2 c) √t d) 1 / t
3. Four forces, each of magnitude 10N, act on four bodies A, B, C and D of masses 10kg, 20kg,
30kg and 40kg respectively. The acceleration is maximum for
a) A b) B c) C d) D
4. A body revolves in a circular path of radius 0.4 m, at a speed of 1200 rpm. The acceleration of
the body is about
a) 1600 m/s2 b) 4740 m/s2 c) 6318 m/s2 d) 5055 m/s2
5. A force of 4N is applied on a box at an angle of 600. The box speed is 3 m/s at certain instant.
Then the instantaneous power on the box is
a) 6 √ 3 W b) 12W c) 6W d) 12√3 W
6. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new linear momentum
will be
a) Thrice the initial value b) four times the initial value
c) Same as the initial value d) twice the initial value
7. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done
by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
a) – 1.25 J b) 1.25J c) 0.5J d) - 0.5J
8. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 4kg and 12kg. The velocity
of the 12kg mass is 4m/s. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
a) 288 J b) 192J c) 96J d) 144J
9. The lateral shift produced by a parallel sided glass slab
a) varies directly as its thickness
b) varies inversely as its thickness
c) is independent of thickness
d) varies directly as the square of its thickness
10. Lateral shift produced by a glass slab is X. When the slab is immersed in a liquid for the
same incident ray lateral shift produced will be
a) X b) greater than X c) less than X d) zero
11. The condition for dispersion without deviation is
a) A/A1 = - (n1-1) / ( n -1)
b) A1/A = - (n1-1) / ( n -1)
c) A/A1 = (n – 1) / ( n1 - 1)
d) A/A1 = (n1 – 1 / ( n -1 )
12. Focal length of a lens in air is 0.8m. What would be its focal length of it is immersed in water?
a)0.32m b)3.2m c)32m d) none of these
13. The concept of ether medium was given by
a) Newton b) Maxwell c) Huygens d) Maxplanck
14. Two light beams of intensities I1 and I2 overlap to produce an interference pattern. The
contrast between the fringes is best when
a) I1=I2 b) I1=I2 / 2 c) I1=I2/3 d) I1=I2/4
15. The wave front used in Fresnel’s diffraction is
a) spherical b) plane
c) Cylindrical d) either spherical or cylindrical
16. A diffraction pattern is observed on a screen using red light. If it is replaced by blue light,
then
a) there will be no change in the intensity pattern
b) diffraction bands become broader and farther apart
c) diffraction bands become narrower and closer
d) diffraction bands disappear.
17. A beam of unpolarised light is incident along the axis of a nicol prism then
a) ordinary ray has greater refractive index
b) extra-ordinary ray has greater refractive index
c) both ordinary ray and extra-ordinary ray has same refractive index
d) some times ordinary ,some times extra-ordinary ray have greater refractive index
18. A ray of light is incident on a glass plate at the polarizing angle gets deviated by 240 on
entering the glass. The polarizing angle is
a) 400 b) 570 c) 640 d) 680
19. An electron is accelerated through a p.d of 45.5 V, the velocity acquired by it is (in ms-1)
a) zero b) 106 c) 4x104 d) 4x106
20. The electric potential at a point inside a charged spherical conductor
a) is constant b) is zero
c) decreases with distance from the centre
d) increases with distance from the centre
21. 125 water drops of equal radius and equal capacitance C coalesce to form a single drop
of capacitance C’. The relation between C and C’ is
a) C’ = 5 C b) C’ = C/ 125
c) C’ = C d) C’ = 125 C
22. Two capacitors of capacitances C1 = 2µF and C.2 = 3µF are connected in series across 10 V.
The potential difference across the plates of the capacitor will be
a) 3 V b) 6V c) 4 V d) 2 V
23. Two identical forces are acting on a body. The magnitude of each force is equal to the
magnitude of their resultant. The angle between the two forces is
a) 600 b) 1200 c) 900 d) 00
24. An application of Bernouli’s equation for fluid is found in
a) Dynamic lift of an aero plane b) Viscosity meter c) capillary rise d) hydraulic press
25. Absolute zero (0oK) is that temperature at which
a) Matter ceases to exist
b) Ice melts and water freezes
c) Volume and pressure of a gas becomes zero
d) none of the above
26. Mode of transfer of heat in which heat is carried by moving particle is
a) Radiation b) wave motion c) convection d) conduction
27. A carnot heat engine working between the temperature limits 400 K and 800 K has a work
input of 1000 J per cycle. The heat energy supplied by the source to the engine per cycle is
a) 1500J b) 1000J c) 2460J d) 2000J
28. The ozone layer present in
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) thermosphere d) mesosphere
29. The frequency of wave represented by the equation Y = 1.5 sin (314 t – 12.56 x) is
a) 150Hz b) 50 Hz c) 30 Hz d) 10 Hz
30. Sound waves in air cannot be polarized because they are
a) transverse b) longitudinal c) progressive d) stationary
31. The ratio of the overtones in an open pipe is
a) 1:2:3:4:… b) 1:3:5:7:9;.. c) 2:4:6;….. d) 1:5:9:13:…..
32. The lowest two frequencies of a 0.5 m long organ pipe closed at one are approximately (
speed of sound = 340 m/s)
a) 170 Hz and 510 Hz b) 170 Hz and 340 Hz
c) 55 Hz and 110 Hz d) 150 Hz and 300 Hz
33. A conductor carries a current of 50 µA. If the area of cross section of the conductor is 50
mm2, then the current density in Am-2 is
a) 0.5 b) 1 c)10-3 d)10-6
34. The work done in driving a charge of 5C between two points in a circuit is 15J. The
potential difference across the two points is
a) 20V b) 10V c) 3V d) 1/3 V
35. In a balanced network the resistance in the arms Q and S are interchanged. As a result,
a) the galvanometer shows zero deflection
b) the galvanometer and the cell must be interchanged for balance
c) The network is still balanced
d) the network is not balanced
36. In a typical wheat stone’s network, resistance P, Q, R and S are 16 Ω, 12 Ω, 8V and 3V.
Then the resistance to be connected in series with S to balance the network is
a) 4 Ω b) 5 Ω c) 3 Ω d) 1 Ω
37. Magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid of 1000turns/m carrying a current of 2A at its centre
is (in T)
a) 20 µ0 b) 2000 µ0 c) Zero d) 200 µ0
38. Magnetic dip at the place where BH = √3 BV is
a) 900 b) 300 c) 600 d) 450
39. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is
a) Infinite b) very high c) small d) zero
40. A milliammeter of range 10 mA has a coil of resistance 1 Ω. To use it as a voltmeter of range
10 V, the resistance that must be connected in series with it is
a) 9 Ω b) 99 Ω c) 999 Ω d) 1000 Ω
41. A transformer is used to light 140 Watt 24 Volt lamps from 240 Volt AC mains, the current
in the main cable is 0.7 amps. The efficiency of the transformer is
a) 63.8 % b) 84 % c) 83.3 % d) 48%
42. A circuit has a self inductance of 1 Henry and carries a current of 2A. To prevent sparking
when the circuit is switched off, a capacitor which can withstand 400 V is used. The least
capacitance of the capacitor connected across the switch must be equal to
a) 50 µF b) 25 µF c) 100 µF d) 12.5 µF
43. The magnetic flux through a coil changes from 1000 Wb to 100 Wb in 1 min. The induced
emf is
a) 150 V b) 50V c) 15 V d) 5V
44. Sunlight produces
a) Line spectrum b) continuous spectrum c) Band spectrum d) line absorption spectrum
45. Maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted by a photo emitter is 1.8 x 10 6 m /s . Taking
e / m = 1.8 x 10 11 for electrons, the stopping potential of the emitter is
a) 9 V b) 11.8 V c) 1.8 V d) 10 V
46. Maximum velocity of photoelectric is 3.5 x 10 6 m/s. If the specific charge of an electron is
1.75 x 10 11 C/Kg. Stopping potential of the electron is
a) 7 V b) 3.5 V c) 10.5 V d) 35 V
47. The radius of the first Bohrs orbit of hydrogen is 0.05nm the radius of the 10th orbit is
a) 0.5nm b) 5nm c) 50nm d) 0.1nm
48. Energy of electron in first orbit in H2 atom is -13.6ev, its energy in fourth orbit is
a) -1.51ev b)-0.85ev c) 4ev d) 2.17ev
49. The sky appears black from the surface of the moon because
a) sun is blocked by earth b) sky absorbs sun light
c) moon has no atmosphere d) moon absorbs all sun light
50. The concept of stimulated emission was proposed by
a) Max Planck b) Neil’s Bohr
c) T.H.Maiman d) Albert Einstein
238
51. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons present in 92 U are respectively
a) 92, 92,238 b) 92, 92,146
c) 92,146,146 d) 146, 146, 92
52. Radius of an atom with A = 64 is
a) 4.4fermi b) 8.8fermi c) 2.2fermi d) 2.1fermi
53. In a reaction
2 2
1H +1H → 2 He 4 + X; X=?
a) Alpha b) beta c) photon(gamma) d) neutron
54. The SI unit of radioactivity is
a) Curie b) Becquerel c) Rutherford d) Neil’s Bohr
55. The ratio of average life to half life of a radioactive sample is
a) 1 b) 1.44 c) 0.693 d) 1/e
56. The half life of a radioactive sample is 2 years. The time taken for the complete decay of the
sample is
a) 10 years b) 20 years c) infinity d) 40 years
57. The conductivity of p-n junction increases when it is
a) forward biased b) reversed biased
c) either forward or reversed biased d) none of these
58. In a transistor, the conventional current flows from base to emitter. The transistor is
a) p-n-p transistor b) n-p-n transistor
c) field effect transistor d) uni junction transistor
59. The output of a rectifier consist of
a) pure dc b) pure ac
c) both dc and ac components d) neither dc or ac
60. Planck’s constant has the same dimensions as
a) Energy b) force
c) Linear momentum d) angular momentum
 CET MOCK TEST – 4 (SOLUTIONS)

1 c
The light year is the distance traveled by light in free space in one year

2. b

S = ut + ½ at2. u = 0, Therefore S = ½ at2. For uniform acceleration ‘a’ is constant.

Therefore, S α t2

3. a

Since, F = ma , we have a = F/m

For mass A, a = F / m = 10/10 = 1 m/s2

For mass B, a = F / m = 10/20 = ½ m/s2

For mass C, a = F / m = 10/30 = 1/3 m/s2

For mass D, a = F / m = 10/40 = 1/ 4 m/s2

4. c

a = ω2r a = (2 πf )2r =(2 π x 1200/6) 2 x 0.04 = 6318 m/s2

5. c

F = 4 N , θ = 600 v = 3 m/s

Instantaneous power P = Fv cos θ = 4x 3 x cos 600 = 12 x ½ = 6W

6. d

P = √2mE when KE E is measured 4 times then momentum P doubles.

P α √E

7. a

Work done against gravity = change in KE

= ½ m ( v2- u2) = ½ x 0.1 (0 - 52 ) = ½ x0.1 (0 – 25 ) = - 1.25 J

8. a

Wkt , m1u1+ m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

 0 + 0 = 4 xV1 + 12 x 4. Therefore V1 = - 12 m/s

KE of 1 st mass is = ½ m1v12

= ½ x 4 x144 = 288J

9. a

Wkt Sl = t secr. Sin (i-r). Therefore S l α t

10. c

R.I α lateral shift. Glass to water. R I decreases.

Therefore lateral shift produced is less than X.

11. a

Because the correct expression is A/A1 = - (n1-1) / ( n -1)

12. b Wkt fw = 4 fa = 4x 0.8 = 3.2 m

13. c

14. a

The fringe contrast is given by I min / I max = (a1 – a2 )2 / (a1+ a2 )2

Fringe contrast is best when I min = 0 or a1 =a 2 this implies I1 = I2

15. d

16. c

Linear width of central maximum β = 2D λ / d this implies β α λ. Since λ B < λ R, width

of central maximum decreases and other secondary maximum become narrower and closer.

17. c

Along the optic axis both o-ray and E- ray travel with same velocity. RI of crystal, n = c/ v

When V is same for both the rays , n (RI) of the crystal is also same for both the rays.

18. b

When light is incident at polarizing angle , the reflected and refracted rays remain
perpendicular to each other. Therefore θ p + r = 900 the deviation d = θ p - r this
0
implies θ p = 57
19. d

Hint: qV = W

= E

= ½ mv2

v2 = (2qV) / m

= 16 x 1012

v = 4 x 106 m /s

20. a

Since E = 0 , E = dv/ dx , 0 = dv / dx , Therefore v = constant

21. a

C’ / C = n 1/3 = 125 1/3 = 5 . Therefore C’ = 5C

22. b

V=Q/C V1 = Q1 / C1 ……….(1)

Q1 =Q2 = Q since series. Q = Cs V ---------(2)

Cs = C1C2 / C1 + C2 -----------------(3)

23. b

Wkt, R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ Cos θ, But P=Q=R , therefore R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos θ

This implies Cos θ = - ½ therefore θ = 1200

24. a

25. c

26. c

27. d

Efficiency, n = 1 – T2/T1 = 1- Q2/Q1

(T1-T2 ) / T1 = (Q1- Q2)/ Q1 = W/ Q1

This implies that , Q1 = [T1 / (T1-T2 ) ] W = (800 x 1000) / 400 = 2000J

28. b

29. b

Wkt, y = a sin (wt – kx)

W = 314 rad/s ie 2 πf =314 f = 50 Hz

30. b

31. a

F1: f2 : f3 :…..= 1:2:3.:4:……

32. a

Fundamental frequency f = v / 4l = 340 / (4x 0.5) = 170 Hz

The first overtone f1 = 3f = 510 Hz

33. b

Hint: J = I / A = 50x 10-6 / 50x 10-6 = 1 A /m2

34. c

Hint: Potential diff, V = W / Q = 15/ 5 = 3V

35. d

Hint: For balanced P/Q =R/S , when interchanged P/S is not equal to R/ Q . Therefore
network is not balanced.

36. c

Hint: For balancing wheat stones network, P/Q = R/S i.e 16/ 12 = 9 / 3+x

24 = 12 + 4x this implies 12 = 4x , x= 3 Ω

37. b

Hint: Field inside the solenoid, B = µ0nI = µ0 x1000x2 = 2000 µ0

38. b

Hint: Tan θ = BV /BH = 1/ √3 Therefore, θ = 300

39. d
40. c

Hint: Wkt, R = (V/ Ig) – G = (10 / 10x103) – 1 = 1000 – 1 = 999 Ω

41. c

Hint: Out power = 140 Watt

Input power = 240x 0.7 = 168 Watt

Efficiency = (out put power / input power) x 100

= (140 /168) x 100 = 83.3 %

42. b

Hint: ½ CV2 = ½ LI2 therefore, C = L I2 / V2 = 1 x 22 / 4002 = 25 µF

43. c

Hint: E = - d φ / dt = (1000 - 100)/ 60 = 15 V

44. d

45. a

Hint: Stop pot ( Vs) in Volt = KE (eV)

= ½ m V2 J

= ½ (m V2 )/ e eV = ½ V2 / (e/m) = ½ x[( 1.8 x 106)2]/ 1.8 x

1011 = 9 eV

Vs = 9V

46. d

Hint: ½ m V2 = e V0 , ½ V2 = (e / m )V0

½ ( 3.5 x 106)2 = 1.75 x 1011 V0 This implies, V0 = 35 Volts

47. b

Hint: rn = r1 n2

r 10 = 0.05 x10 2 = 0.05 x 100 = 5 nm

48. b

Hint: En = - E1 / n2 = - 13.6 / 42 = - 0. 85 eV

49. c

50. d

51. b

Hint: A = 238 , Z = 92 , N = A – Z = 238 – 92 = 146

52. a

Hint: R = R0 A1/3 = 1.1 x 10-15 (64) 1/3 = 4.4 fermi

53. c

54. b

55. b

Hint: Tav = 1/ λ and half life , T = 0.693 / λ , Tav / T = 1/ 0.693 = 1.44

56. c

Hint: The complete life time of a radioactive sample is infinity

57. a

58. b

59. c

60. d
MODEL CETT PAPER
1. The IUPAC name off the
Th th monomer off natural
t l rubber
bb iis:
a) Butadiene
b) Isoprene
c)) 2-methyl-1,
th l 3-butadiene
b t di
d) 3-methyl-1, 2-butadiene

2. Which
Whi h off the
th following
f ll i has
h maximum
i second
d ionisation
i i ti energy??
a) N b) C c) O d) Bc

3. The solubility
Th l bili product
d off a Sparingly
S i l soluble
l bl salt
l iis 4S
S3 , Then
Th the
h salt
l iis :
a) Silver Chloride
b) Barium Sulphate
c)) Aluminium
Al i i Sulphate
S l h
d) Silver Chromate
4
4. Which one will have lowest pH,
pH when one mole of each of the compound is
hydrolysed?
a) CH3COCL
b) C6H5OCH3
c) C2 H5OC2H5
d) CH3COCH3

5. In a compound C, H and N atoms are present in the ratio 9:1:3.5 by

weight. If the molecular weight of the compound is 108, then the
molecular formula of the compound is:
a) C2H6N2
b) C3H4N
c) C6H8N2
d) C9H12N2
6
6. The rate
Th t off th
the diff
diffusion
i off h
hydrogen
d gas iis √
√7 ti
times th
thatt off nitrogen
it gas,
then:
a) TH2 = 2TN2
b) TN2 = 2TH2
c) TN2 = √7TH2
d) TH2 = √7TN2

7. Equal masses of Methane and Oxygen are mixed in an empty container at

25◦ C. The fraction of total pressure exerted by o2 is :
a) 1/3 × 273/298
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 2/3
8. The enthalpy of vaporisation of water is 40.7 KJ mol-1 . The entropy of
vapourisation of water is:
a) -40.7 KJ mol-1 K-1
b) 407 J mol-1 K-1
c) 109 J mol-1 K-1
d) 722 J mol-1

9. Silver oxide can be thermally decomposed because:

a)) ∆G0 < 0
b) ∆G0 = 0
c) ∆G0 > 0
d) ∆G0 cannott b be predicted
di t d

10. The magnetic moment of a transition metal is found to be 3.87 BM . Then

the number of unpaired electrons present in the metal is :
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
 CH3
11. In the compound the number of optical isomers are:
Cl
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

12. For a reaction the energy of activation was found exactly equal to +2.303
RT Joules
J l thenth the
th value
l off K/A isi :
a) 1/100
b) 0.002
c)) 0.1
d) 10

13. X
Xenon gets adsorbed
d b d on activated
i d charcoal.
h l Th
Then which
hi h off the
h ffollowing
ll i iis
True?
a) ∆H<0, ∆S<0
b) ∆H<0,
∆H<0 ∆S>0
c) ∆H<0, ∆S=0
d) ∆H = ∆S
14. Acetal dehyde is made to react with dilute NaOH solution. The product
obtained shows:
a) Geometric Isomerism
b) Optical Isomerism
c) Structural Isomerism
d) Chain Isomerism

15. Which of the following is used to absorb excess of oxygen during Ramsay
and Rayleigh
Rayleigh’ss method?
a) Neutral Pyrogallol
b) Acidic Pyrogallol
c) Alcoholic Pyrogallol
d) Alkaline Pyrogallol

16. The number of moles oxygen liberated by electrolysis of 90g of water is :

a) 9 moles
b) 4.5 moles
c) 2.5 moles
d) 5 moles
17. Solution S1 contains 3g Urea/litre and Solution S2 contains 9g of
Glucose/litre. At 298 K, the Osmotic pressure of:
a. S1>S2
b. S1<S2
c
c. Both the solution is same
d. Both the solution is atmo

18 How many б bonds are present in CH2 = CH – C = CH2

18.
a) 10
CH3
b) 12
c) 2
d) 14

19 The set of quantum members for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom
19.
are
a) n=2, l=1, m=0
b) n n=2,
2, l=-1,
l 1, m=0
m 0
c) n=3, l=1, m=1
d) n=3, l=0, m=0
20. The first law of thermodynamics for an isothermal process is
mathematically represented as :
a) ∆U = q
b) q = -W
c) q = 0
d) ∆U = q + W

21. Alanine in acid medium appears as

a) Anion
b) Neutral
c) Cation
d) Zwither ion

22. Which is the odd one out ?

a) Triolein
b) Keratin
c) Insulin
d) haemoglobin
23. The coordination number, oxidation state and the EAN of iron in the
complex Fe(Co)5 respectively are:
a) 5, 5, 36
b) 5, 3, 36
c) 5, 2, 28
d) 5, 0, 36

24. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron of 5th

orbit
bi is:
i
a) 5h/2Π
b) 10h/ Π
c)) 25h/
h/ Π
d) 5 Π/2h

25. The pH of a solution is 6. if some HCl is added to this solution to make the
pH equal to 3, the concentration of H+ ions:
a) decreases by 1000
b) Increases
I by
b 1000
c) Increases by 100
d) Decreases by 100
26. Gold number of Gelatin (I), Gum Arabic (II) and egg albumin (III) are
0 005 0.20
0.005, 0 20 and 0.18
0 18 respectively.
respectively Arrange these in decreasing order of
protectine power
a) I > II > III
b) I > III > II
c) II > III > I
d) III > II > I

27.
7 The heats of neutralisation of four acids A,, B,, C and D,, when neutralised
against a common base are 13.& Kcal, 9.4KCal, 11.2 Kcal and 12.4 Kcal
respectively. The weakest among these acids is:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
28.In the reaction C & D respectively are:
H2SO4
A B

H2O
D PBr3
C
C2H5Br

a) C2H5OH, KOH
b) KOH, C2H5OH
c) CH3OH, NaOH
d) NaOH, CH3OH

29.Wurtz reaction of a mixture of 2 – Chloropropane and 1 –

Chloropropane, the product does not contain:
a) 2 – methyl
meth l pentane
b) Hexane
c) 2, 3 – Dimethyl butane
d) P t
Pentane
30. In a reaction,, X + Zn
3 + Zn Br2. X is :
a) 1, 4 – Dibromo butane
b) 1, 3 – Dibromo butane
c)) 1,, 1 – Dibromo butane
d) 4, 4 – Dibromo butane

31. Freundlich adsorption

3 p isotherm g
gives a straight
g line on p
plotting
g against:
g
a) x/m and 1/p
b) Log x/m and P
c) x/m
/ and
a dP
d) Log x/m and log p

32. Oil of winter green contains the functional groups :

a) Ester and phenol
b) Ether and alcohol
c) Ester and alcohol
d) Acid and phenol
33. For the Cell reaction, A + B(aq)
2+ C+D(aq)
2+ the equilibrium constant is

100.Then E0 cell at 25◦C is :

a) 0.059
b) 0.0295
c) 0.118
d) 0.590

34. The conjugate

34 j g acid of OH- is :
a) H2O
b) O2-
c)) H3O+
d) O2+

35. A certain salt gives brick red colour for the flame test. On adding dil HCL,
a brisk
b i k effervescence
ff lib
liberating
ti a colourless
l l gas which
hi h tturns li
lime water
t
milky is obtained. The salt is:
a) CaBr2
b) CaSO4
c) CaCO3
d) CaCl2
36. A gas ‘ X ‘ is passed through water to form a saturated solution. The aqueous
solution
l ti on treatment
t t t with
ith A
AgNO3
NO solution
l ti gives
i a Whit
White precipitate.
i it t Th
The saturated
t t d
aqueous solution also dissolves magnesium ribbon with the evolution of a colorless
gas Y. Identify X and Y respectively:
a) X = CO2 , Y = Cl2
b) X = Cl2 , Y = CO2
c) X = Cl2 , Y = H2
d) X = H2 , Y = Cl2

37. Which of the following tests will hold good for both acetaldehyde and acetone?
a) Tollens
b) Fehlings
c) Schiffs
d) Iodoform

38. Which order reaction obey’s the expression t½ = 1/Ka2 ?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
39. Which of the following type of carbonyl group will produce Oxime on reaction
with hydroxylamine ?
a) R – C – NH – CH3
O

b) R – C – OH
O

c) R – C – O CH3
O

d) R – O – CH3

40. 6.022 x 1022 molecules of CO2 at STP will occupy a volume of :

a) 6.02 litre
l
b) 2.24 litre
c) 1.12 litre
d) 22.4
22 litre
lit
41. Which of the following species has highest bond order ?
a) O2
b) O2-
c) O2+
d) O22 -

42. The elements A and B have the following electronic configurations

A: 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S23P4 B: 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S23P2
A and B are likely to form a compound of formula
a) AB
b) A2B
c) AB2
d) AB3

43. Which of the following is not the property of crystalline solids?

a) Definite geometry
b) Sharp melting points
c) Isotropy
d) Anisotropy
A i
44. TlCl has NaCl structure, the coordination number of Tl+ in TlCl is
a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3

45. Which of the following metal has no action with dil H2SO4?
a) Magnesium
b) Iron
c) Zinc
d) Copper

46. 10g of calcium carbonate completely reacts with:

a) 36.5g
36 5g of HCl
b) 3.65g of HCl
c) 0.365g of HCl
d) 7.3
7 3 g of HCl
47. Half life period of reaction is 50 min. How much time will it take for the
reaction to be
b reduced
d d to 1/8 off the
h initiall concentration ?
a) 25 min
b) 150 min
c)) 50 min
5
d) 1.25 min

48. A new Carbon – Carbon bond formation is possible in :

a)) Cannizaro’s
C i ’ reaction
ti
b) Fricdel crafts reaction
c) Clemmensens reaction
d) Diazotisation reaction

49. Which of the following does not refer to the principle forms of
Carbohydrate present in our food :
a) Cellulose
b) Starch
c) Sucrose
d) Fructose
50.
0 Insulin
I li regulates
l t ththe glucose
l llevell iin bl
blood
d and
d iis responsible
ibl ffor di
diabetes
b t
50. Insulin regulates the glucose level in blood and is responsible for diabetes. This
compound is a/an :
a) Enzyme
b) Hormone
c) Antibiotic
d) Co-Enzyme

51. In which of the following case does the reaction go farthest to completion ?
a) K = 10 20
b) K = 10 -20
c) K = 10
d) K = 1

52. Which of the following pairs constitute a buffer ?

a) NaOH and NaCl
b) HNO3 and NHaNO3
c) HCl and KCl
d) HNO2 and NaNO2
53. The
Th following
f ll i ffour colourless
l l salt
lt
53. The following four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test tubes and
a strip
p of copper
pp is p
placed in each. Which solution finallyy turns blue ?
a) ZnCl2
b) AgCl
c) CdCl2
d) PbCl2

54. Which of the following contains two unpaired electrons ?

a) SC3+
b) Cu+
c) Ni2+
d) Ti3+

55. The number ions per mole of the complex CoCl34NH3 in aqueous solution will
be :
a) 3
b) 7
c) 3
d) 4
56. Which of the following is +I effect inducing group ?
a) - NO2
b) -COOH
c) (CH3)2CH-
d) C6H5-

57. Principal, magnetic and azimuthal quantum numbers are respectively

related to:
a) size, orientation, shape
b) Size, shape, orientation
c) Shape, size, orientation
d) None of these

58. The electronic configuration of an element is 1S22S22P6 3S23P3. What is

the atomic number of the element which is just below this element in the
periodic table?
a) 31
b) 33
c) 34
d) 49
59. Which of the following process does not involve a catalyst?
a) Ostwalds process
b) Contact process
c) Thermite process
d) Haber’s process

60. Which of the following vitamins is synthesised by Sun rays?

a) A
b) K
c) E
d) D
 Keys:

1 : (c) 13:(b) 25: (b) 37: (d) 49: (a)

2 : (c) 14:(b) 26: (b) 38: (c) 50: (b)
3: (d) 15: (d) 27: (b) 39: (a) 51: (a)
4: (a) 16:(c) 28: (a) 40: (b) 52: (b)
5: (c) 17:(c) 29: (d) 41: (c) 53: (b)
6: (b) 18: (b) 30: (a) 42: (b) 54: (c)
7:(b) 19: (c) 31: (c) 43: (c) 55: (c)
8:(c) 20: (b) 32: (a) 44: (a) 56: (c)
9:(c) 21: (c) 33: (a) 45: (d) 57: (a)
10: (d) 22: (a) 34: (b) 46: (d) 58: (b)
11:(b) 23: (d) 35: (c) 47: (b) 59: (c)
12:(c) 24: (a) 36: (c) 48: (b) 60: (d)
 Working Sheet

7. b.
Explanation:
nO2 = x / 32 nCH4 = x /16
nO2 + nCH4 = 3x / 32

PO2 = nO2 / nO2 + nCH4 x total P

= x / 32 x 32 / 32 / 3x
= 1 / 3 of the total P

8. c.
Explanation:
T∆S= ∆H
∆S = ∆H/T
= 40.7 x 103 / 373
= 109 J mol -1 K-1
10 d
10. d.
Explanation:
Magnetic moment = √ n x ( n + 2 ) = √ 4 ( 4 + 2 )
= √ 32
= 3.87

12. c.
Explanation:
K = A e –E a / RT
log K / A = - E a / 2.303 RT
= - 2.303 RT / 2.303 RT
=-1
Therefore K / A = antilog ( - 1 )
= 10 -11 = 1 / 10
= 0.01
16. c.
Explanation:
90 g of water is 5 moles
2 H2O 2H2 + O2
2 moles of H2O liberates 1 moles of O2
Th f
Therefore 5 moles
l =1x5/2
No. of moles of O2 = 2.5 moles
17. c.
Explanation:
Π = CRT
C1 = 3 / 60 = 0.05
C2 = 9 / 180 = 0.05
C1 = C2
Therefore Π1 = Π 2
19. c.
Explanation:
Cl – 17
1 S2 2 S2 2 P6 3S2 3P5 ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑
21. c.
Explanation:
Alanine
CH3 – CH – COO -

NH3+

25. b.
Explanation:
pH = 6 [ H+ ] = 10 -6
pH = 3 [ H+ ] = 10 -3
Changing in [ H+ ] = 10 -3 / 10 -6
= 10 3 M
Therefore [ H+ ] increases 1000 times
27. b.
b
Explanation:
Weakest acids has lowest ∆ HN because it absorbs more of heat of
ionisation.
ionisation
33. a.
Explanation:
nFE◦
- 2.303 RT log Kp = -nFE
E◦ = ( 2.303 RT / nF ) x 2
= ( 0.059 / 2 ) x 2
= 0.059

46. d.
Explanation: 2 x 36.5 g
Caco3 + 2 HCl CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
100 g

100 g CaCO3 2 x 36.5

10g 2 x 36.5 x 10 / 100
= 7.3 g
47. b .
Explanation:
a–½a ¼a
51 a
51. a.
Explanation:
Larger the K value farther the reaction go to completion

53. b.
Explanation:
g is below Cu in electrochemical series.
Since Ag
 CET – MOCK TEST – IV

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

Duration: 70 min. Max Marks:60

Z −2
1. If = 1 then locus of z is _____
Z − (1 + i )

1) St line 2) Circle 3) Parabola 4) Ellipse

2. If then x = _______

1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) -1

3. If tan2x tan3x=1 then x =

nπ π π nπ π nπ π
1) + 2) nπ − 3) + 4) −
2 10 10 5 10 5 10

4. If < < then __________

1) 2)

3) 4)

5. If sin 4x cos 4x = ½ then x= ______

1) 2)

3) 4)

6. only when ______

1) 2) 3) 4)

7. If cos θ + cos2 θ + cos3 θ =0 then θ = ______.

1) 2) 3) 4)

1of 7
 1
8. The simplified form of 1 + is _________
1
1+
1− i

1) 1+i 2) 2+i 3) 2 - i 4) 1-2i

π
9. If xr = cis then ........ is -------.
3r

1) 1 2) – 1 3) i 4) – i

10. The general solution of sin _________

1) x = nπ 4 2) x = nπ 3 3) x = nπ 2 4)
1
11. If then x + y + z + =---
1+ x + y + z
1) 3 10 2) 10 3 3) − 10 3 4) − 3 10
π
12. If sin −1 x + 2 cos −1 x = then x = -------
3
1) 1 2 2) 2 3 3) 1 4) 3 2

13. If x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + 2 fy = 0 and touch each

other then ------
1) g1 f1 = g2 f2 2) g2 f2 – g2 f1 3) g1 f1 + g2 f2 = 0 4) g2 f2 + g1 f1

14. If A(2, 0), B(0, 2), C(0, 0) & D(a, 2a) are concyclic then a = -------

a) 5/6 b) 6/5 c) 2 d) -2.

15. If x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y + 3=0 and x2+y2+3x-6y+k=0 are orthogonal then k =----.

1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) -12

16. The Radical center of x2+y2+x-y+1=0, x2+y2+x=0 & x2+y2+2y-1=0 is __.

1) (1, 1) 2) (1, -1) 3) (-1, 1) d) (-1, -1)

17. A circle with radius = 4 units rolls over the exterior boundary of
x2+y2-2x-2y+1=0. The locus of its center is _______.
1) x2+y2-2x-2y-21=0 2) x2+y2-2x-2y-23=0

2of 7
 3) x2+y2-2x+2y+21=0 4) x2+y2-2x-2y+23=0
18. x2+y2+2x+2y+1=0 & x2+y2+x+y+1=0
1) are district 2) touch each other internally
3) touch each other externally 4) cut orthogonally

19. Equation of a circle which passes through origin and has center on
x+y-1=0 given that its length of tangent from (1, 2) is 1 is ______.
1) x2+y2+2x=0 2) x2+y2-2y=0
3) x2+y2+2x-2y=0 4) x2+y2+2x+2y-1=0

20. Vertex of 2y2-3x+4y-1=0 is ____.

1) (1, 1) 2) (1, -1) 3) (-1, 1) 4) (-1, -1)

21. Equation of a parabola with V(2, 1) and S(3, 1) is ______.

1) y2 + 4x + 2y - 9=0 2) y2 - 4x + 2y + 9 = 0
3) y2 - 4x - 2y + 9=0 4) y2 - 4x - 2y - 9 = 0

22. Focii of
(x − 1)2 + ( y − 1)2 = 1 are ----.
25 9

1) (5, 1), (3, 1) 2) (5, 1), (-3, 1) 3) (1, 5), (1, -3) 4) (-1, -5), (1, 3)

x2 y 2
23. If 2x+3y+k=0 is tangent to + = 1 then k= ----.
9 4
1) 12 2 2) 6 2 3) 10 2 4) 2
x2 y2
24. If e1 and e2 are eccentricities of x +y = 8 and −
2
= 1 then
2
4 8
e2 − e2 = _____.
1 2
1) -1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2

x2 y 2
25. The angle between asymptotes of − =1
16 9
⎛ 7 ⎞ ⎛ 24 ⎞
1) tan − 1⎜ ⎟ 2) tan − 1⎜ ⎟ 3) π 4 4) π 3
⎝ 24 ⎠ ⎝ 7 ⎠

26. The total number of divisors of 222 is ____.

1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8

3of 7
27. If 7 a .b , a, b ∈ z then _____.
1) 7/a 2) 7/b, 3) 7/a or 7/b 4) 7/a and 7/b

28. A value of x satisfying 72.182 .363 ≡ x(mod 8) is ------.

1) 0 2) 1 3) 3 4) 7
⎡ 273 141 ⎤
⎡1 0⎤ ⎢ ⎥
If = ⎢ & B =⎢ then A. B =
⎥ 5132 ⎥
29.
⎣1 0⎦ ⎢− 31.1 ⎥
⎣ 9 ⎦
1) 0 2) 0 3) 1 4) 132/11

1 a b+c
30. The value of 1 b c + a is -----.
1 c a+b
1) 0 2) 1 3) ∑a 4) abc

31. If aij =
i× j
3
[ ]
then aij 2 ×2

1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) − 4) −
8 9 9 8
⎡1 2 1 ⎤
32. If A = ⎢2 1 1 ⎥ then A. (adj A) = -----.
⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣1 1 2⎥⎦
1) I 2) 2I 3) 4I 4)-4I
33. If a, b, c are elements of abelian group with e as identity element then
O(aba-1) = -----
1) 0 2) o (b) 3) O (a-1) 4) O (e)

34. In (Z7, +7), (3-1+4+5-1) = -----

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

4of 7
 7ab
35. In the group (ℜ0 , ∗) where a ∗ b = , a solution of 3*x*2-1 = 1 is ----.
3
1) 1 2) 1/3 3) 2/3 4) 4/3
36. If in a vectorial triangle ABC a=2, b=3, c=4, then acute angle between
r r
a and b =-----.
⎛1⎞ ⎛1⎞ ⎛1⎞
1) cos −1⎜ ⎟ 2) cos−1⎜ ⎟ 3) cos −1⎜ ⎟ 4) cos −1 (1)
⎝ 4⎠ ⎝ 3⎠ ⎝ 2⎠

(ar × b )× cr =-----.
r r r r
37. If a = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ; b = iˆ − ˆj; c = kˆ then

1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2 2
38. The area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are 3iˆ − ˆj − kˆ &
iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ is ----- sq. units.
1) 6 2)6 6 3) 66 4)6 66

39. If 2x2+3xy+7y2=0 then y2 is ------.

1 3y − 2 y − 21
1) 2) 3) 4) 0
(2 x − 3 y )2 (2 x − 3 y )3 (x − 3 y )3

40. If (
x = 2 cos −1 4t 3 − 3t ) and y=3sin (3t − 4t )then y at t=1 is …..
-1 3
1

1 −1 3 −3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2

41. If y= cosx cos2x cos3x then y1 at x = π 3 is ------

3 3 − 3 − 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 4 8
42. Maximum area of a right angled triangle of given hypotenuse = a is-----.
a2 a2 a2
1) a2 sq units 2) sq units 3) sq units 4) sq units
2 3 4

⎛ x 3 − 3x ⎞
43. The point on to y = ⎜⎜ + 2 x − 2 ⎟⎟ at which tangent is parallel to
⎝ 3 2 ⎠
x axis is----

5of 7
 ⎛ 7⎞ ⎛ 7⎞ ⎛ 7⎞
1) ⎜1,− ⎟ 2) ⎜1, ⎟ 3) ⎜ − 1, ⎟ 4) (− 1,−6)
⎝ 6⎠ ⎝ 6⎠ ⎝ 6⎠

44. At any point on the curve x 3 y 2 = 10 the product of lengths of sub tangents
varies directly as…… at that point
1
1) x 2) x2 3) x3 4)
x3

∫ sin x(1 + cos x ) dx =…… +c

9
45.

(1 + cos x )
10 10

3) ⎛⎜ − 1 +
cos x ⎞
1) (1 + cos x ) − 4) 9(cos x − 1)8
10
2) ⎟
10 ⎝ 10 ⎠
⎛ 1 − sin x ⎞
∫ e ⎜⎝ 1 − cos x ⎟⎠dx =……. + c
x
46.

1) e x cot x 2 2) e x tan x 2 3) - e x cot x 2 4) − e x tan x 2

π 2 π 2
47. 2 ∫ log tan θ dθ + ∫ log cot θ dθ =……
0 0

1)2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 0
dy
48. The general solution of = 1 + x 2 + y 2 + x 2 y 2 is……
dx
−1 −1
1) tan y = x − x 2 + c 2) tan y − c = x − x 2
2 3

3) x − tan −1 y = x 3 3 + c 4) 3x + tan −1 y = x 3 + c
49. If α and β are the roots of ax 2 + bx + c = 0 and bx 2 + cx + a = 0 then…..
1) b3=c 2) b3=c2 3) b3=c3 4) b3=2c3
50. The ratio of 12th term and 10th terms in (1 + x )25 is k.xα where
k and α are …..
24 24 11 11
1) ,1 2) ,2 3) ,1 4) ,3
11 11 24 24

−1 ⎛1+ x ⎞
51. The domain of y = sin log⎜ ⎟ is----
⎝1− x ⎠
⎡ 1 1⎤ ⎡1 + e 1 − e ⎤ ⎡1 − e 1 ⎤ ⎡1 − e e − 1 ⎤
1) ⎢− ,− ⎥ 3) ⎢ ,
⎣1 + e e ⎥⎦
2) ⎢ , 4) ⎢ , ⎥
⎣ e e⎦ ⎣ e e ⎥⎦ ⎣1 + e 1 + e ⎦

6of 7
52. The negation of pΛq → (~ p∨ ~ q ) is …..

1) ( pΛq ) → ~ pΛq 2) ( pΛq )Λ( pΛq )

3) ~ ( p ∨ q ) → ( pΛq ) 4) ~ ( pΛq ) → ( p ∨ q )
53. A straight line passes through the inter section of
2 x + 3 y − 5 = 0 and x + y − 2 = 0 . If its y intercept is-3 then it’s equation is…..
1) x − 2 y − 3 = 0 2) x + 2 y − 3 = 0 3) 2 x + y − 3 = 0 4) 2 x − y + 3 = 0

54. If 2 x 2 + xy + y 2 − 2 x − 4 y + k = 0 represent a pair of straight line then k=----

1) 1 2)2 3)3 4)4

55. If in a triangle ABC, a=2,B=30,c=450 then b=------

3 −1 3 −1 3 +1
1) 3 − 1 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
c a 3b
56. If in a triangle ABC a cos 2 + c cos 2 = then a, b, c are in -----
2 2 2
1)AP 2)GP 3)HP 4)A-G-Progression

57. lt n
n →∞
( n 2
)
+ 1 − n = -----
1
1) 0 2) 1 3) 4) ∞
2

⎡ log(3 + x ) − log(3 − x )⎤
58. lt ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦ =-----
x →0 x
1 1 2
1) 1 2) 3) 4)
2 3 3
⎡1 − x, x < 1
59. Define f : R → R as f ( x ) = ⎢1, x = 1 then f is----- at x=1
⎢
⎣1 + x, x > 1
1) Continuous 2) discontinuous of 1st kind
3) discontinuous 2nd kind 4) discontinuous of 3rd kind

If f ( x ) =
2 + cos x − 1
60. is continuous at x =π then f (π ) =-----
(π − x )2
−1 1
1) 2) 0 3) 4)1
4 4
****

7of 7
 Mock CET-IV

Keys
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3)
7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (4)
13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (4)
19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (1)
25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (1)
37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (2)
49. (3) 50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (4)
55. (3) 56. (1) 57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (3)

Solutions

1. given ⇒
(x − 2) + iy =1
(x − 1) + i( y − 1)

⇒ ( x − 2) + y 2 = ( x − 1) + ( y − 1) ⇒ x − y + 1 = 0
2 2 2

⎡ ( x − 1) + x + ( x + 1) − x( x − 1)( x + 1)⎤
2 given ⇒ tan −1 ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 1 − ( x − 1)x − i( x + 1)( x − 1) ⎦

( )
⇒ 3x − x x 2 − 1 = 0 ∴x = 0, 2 − x 2 = 0
∴ x = 0, ± 2

3. given ⇒ 1 − tan 2 x tan 3 x = 0

tan 2 x + tan 3 x
⇒ = ∞ ∴ tan 5 x = ∞
1 − tan 2 x tan 3 x
nπ
∴5 x = nπ + π 2 ∴ n = + π 10
5

4. given ⇒ 2 e −iπ 4
< 2eiθ < 2e −iπ 4

⇒ e −i π 4
< e iθ < e+iπ 4
⇒ −π 4 <θ < + π 4 ∴θ ∈ (− π 4, π 4 )

1 of 8
5. given ⇒ 2 sin 4 x cos 4 x = 1 ⇒ sin 8 x = 1

π nπ n π
∴ 8 x = nπ + (− 1) ∴x = + (− 1)
n
2 8 16

6. condition of existence of inverse trigonometric functions.

7. given ⇒ 2 cos 2θ cosθ + cos 2θ = 0

∴cos 2θ (2 cos θ + 1) = 0 ∴cos 2θ = 0, cos θ = − 1 2

π
∴ 2θ = 2nπ ± π 2 ∴θ = nπ ± ∴θ = 2nπ ± 2 π 3
4

1 1 1− i − i +1− i 1 − 2i 1
8. given = 1 + = + = = =2− = 2+i
⎛1 − i + 1⎞ 1 − i −i −i i
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1− i ⎠

π π
9. x1.x2 .x3 ........ = cis .cis 2 . .......
3 3

⎛1 1 ⎞ ⎡ ⎛ 1 3 ⎞⎤
= cis π ⎜ + 2 + ....... ⎟ = cis ⎢π ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥ [by S ∞ of a g . p. with r < 1]
⎝3 3 ⎠ ⎣ ⎝ 1 − 1 3 ⎠⎦
⎛π 3⎞
= cis⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ = cis π 2 = i
⎝ 2 3⎠

10. given ⇒ cos12θ − cosθ = 20θ − cos 2θ

∴cos 20θ = cos12θ ⇒ − 2 sin 16θ sin 4θ = 0

nπ nπ
∴sin 16θ = 0 or sin 4θ = 0 ∴16θ = nπ , 4θ = nπ ∴θ = , θ=
16 4

11. given ⇒ cos− 1 x = cos − 1 y = cos − 1 z = π

⇒ x = y = z = cos π = −1
1 1 1
∴ x + y + z = −1 − 1 − 1 = −3 & = =−
x+ y + z −3 3
1 3 1 − 10
∴x + y + z + =− − =
x+ y+z 1 3 3

2 of 8
12. ( )
given ⇒ sin −1 x + cos −1 x + cos −1 x =
π
3
π π π π 3
⇒ + cos −1 x = ∴ cos −1 x = − ∴cos =
2 3 6 6 2
use C1 (− g ,− f ), C 2 (− g1 ,− f1 ) and origion are collinear.
13.
∴slope of C1C 2 = slope OC1 and simplify

14. Equation of circle passing through A(2, 0), B(0, 2) & (0, 0) is
x2+y2-2x-2y=0 Since O(a, 2a) lies on this, a2+4a2-2a-4a=0

⇒ 5a2-6a=0 ∴ π (5a-6)= 0 ∴ a=0, 6/5

15. condition ⇒ 2(1) (3/2) + 2(2) (-3) = 3+k ⇒ 3 -12 = 3+k ∴ k=-12

16. R1 :S1-S2 =0 i.e. –y + 1 =0 ∴ y = 1

R2 :S2-S3 =0 i.e. x–2y + 1 =0 ∴ x-2+1=0, x = 1

17. Center & radius of given circle are C(1, 1) & r=1. Required locus is a circle
with C(1, 1) & r = 1 + 4 =5.

∴ Its equation is (x-1)2 + (y-1)2 = 52 ⇒ x2+y2-2x-2y-23= 0.

1 1
18. given g1 = 1 = f1 = c1 : g 2 = = : c2 = 1
2 2

⎛1⎞
+ 2 (1)⎜ ⎟ = 2
(1)
2 g1 g 2 + 2 f1 f 2 = 2(1)
2 ⎝2⎠
also, c1 + c2 =1 + 1 = 2 ∴ the condition is satisfied ∴ they cut orthogonally

19. given ⇒ c = 0 & − g − f − 1 = 0 ∴ g + f = −1

l = s ⇒ 1 = 1 + 4 + 2 g + 4 f + c........(1)
∴2 g + 4 f = −4 ⇒ g + 2 f = −2...........(2)
(1) & (2) ⇒ − f = 1 ∴ f = −1: g = −1 − f = −1 + 1 = 0
∴ R.E. is x 2 + y 2 − 2 y = 0

20. given 2y2-3x+6y-1 = 0 Æ(1)

⇒ 4y+4=0 ∴ y=-1 (by diff. wrt y treating x as constant)

∴ (1) ⇒ 2-3x-4-1 = 0 ∴ 3x = -3 ∴ x = -1
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21. given h = 2, k = 1 : h + a = 3 ⇒ a = 3 − 2 = 1

QVS // OX ∴axis // to x − axis

∴R.E. is ( y − k ) = 4a( x − h )
2

⇒ ( y − 1) = 4( x − 2) ⇒ y 2 − 4 x − 2 y + 9 = 0.
2

22. given , a 2 = 25, b 2 = 9, h = 1 = k

ae = a 2 − b 2 = 16 = 4
focii are (h ± ae, k ) = (1 ± 4, 1) ∴ (5,1) & (− 3,1)

− 2x k
23. l : y= + ∴m = − 2 3 : C = K 3: a 2 = 9, b 2 = 4
3 3

k2 ⎛ 4⎞
condition is C = a m + b ⇒
2
= 9⎜ ⎟ + 4 = 8
2 2 2
9 ⎝9⎠
∴ k = 72 ∴k = ±6 2

24. e1 = 2 Since it is a rectangular hyperbola.

a 2 + b 2 12
e12 = 2 e22 = 2
= = 3 ∴e12 − e22 = 2 − 3 = −1
a 4
⎛b⎞ ⎛ 3⎞
25. θ = 2 tan −1⎜ ⎟ = 2 tan −1⎜ ⎟
⎝a⎠ ⎝ 4⎠

⎛ 2(3 4 ) ⎞ ⎛32⎞ ⎛ 24 ⎞
= tan −1 ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ = tan −1 ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ ∴ θ = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1 − 9 16 ⎠ ⎝ 7 16 ⎠ ⎝ 7 ⎠

26. 222 = 2.111 = 21 . 31. 371

∴ α1 = α 2 = α 3 = 1 ∴ N = (1 + α1 ). (1 + α 2 ). (1 + α 3 ) = 2. 2. 2 = 8

27. by a theorem p / ab ⇒ p/a or p/b, p is prime.

28. 8/72 ∴8/72 . 182 . 363 ∴ required remainder =0.
29. use | A . B| = |A| . |B| =0 (Q |A|= 0)
30. use C21 → C2+C3 and then C2 & C1are proportional. ∴ value of determinant =0.

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31. a11 = 2 3 a12 = 3 3 = 1

⎡2 3 1 ⎤ 8 −1
a21 = 3 3 = 1 a21 = 4 3 ∴A = ⎢ ⎥ ∴ A = −1 =
⎣ 1 4 3⎦ 9 9

1 2 1
32. A adj A = A I ; A = 2 1 1
1 1 2

= 1 − 2(3) + 1(1) = − 4 ∴ A adj A = − 4 I

33. ( ) ( )
In an abelian group, o ab −1c = o aa −1b = o(eb ) = o(b )

34. (3−1
)
+ 4 + 5−1 = (4 + 4 + 2 ) = (10) = 3−1 = 4
−1 −1

35. given 3 * x * 2−1 = 1 ⇒ 3 * x = 1 * 2

⎛ 3x ⎞ ⎛ 1.2 ⎞
⇒ 7⎜ ⎟ = 7 ⎜ ⎟ ⇒ 3 x = 2 ∴ x = 2 3
⎝ 3⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
r r r r r r r rr
36. a + b + c = o ⇒ a + b = − c ⇒ a 2 + b 2 + 2a.b = c 2
16 − 13 3 1
⇒ 4 + 9 + 2(2.3)cosθ =16 ∴ cosθ = = =
12 12 4
(
r r r
) { (
r r r
) } {( )
r r r r r r
}
r
37. ⇒ a×b ×c = c × a × b = c . b a − (c . a )b = b

(
r r r
)
r
∴ a ×b ×c =b = 2

iˆ ˆj kˆ
r r r r
38. a × b = 3 − 1 − 1 = − iˆ − 7 ˆj + 4kˆ A = a × b 1 + 49 + 16 = 66
1 1 2

39. given any homogenous equation of 2nd degree y2=0

40. put t = cosθ ∴ x = 2 cos −1 (cos 3θ ) = 2(3θ ) = 6θ
∴ x = 6 cos −1 t put t = sin θ ∴ y = 3 sin −1 (sin 3θ ) = 9θ
x y
= 9 sin −1 t ∴ + = cos −1 t + sin −1 t = π 2
6 9
1 1 dy dy − 9 3
∴ + =0 ∴ = =−
6 9 dx dx 6 2

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41. ln y = ln cos x + ln cos 2 x + ln tan 3 x, ln x = log ex
1 1
. y = − tan x − 2 tan 2 x − 3 tan 3 x
y
at x = π 3 , y = cos π 3 cos 2 π 3. cos 3π 3
1⎛ 1⎞ 1
= ⎜ − ⎟ (− 1) = ∴ y1 = −
2⎝ 2⎠ 4
1
4
[ 3−2 3−0 = ] 4
3

42. A right angled triangle of given hypotenuse has maximum area when it is
isosceles.
∴ x = y ∴ x2 + y 2 = a2 ⇒ 2x2 = a2

∴x = a
1
2 = y ∴ ∆ = xy =
a 2
=
a2 ( ) 2

2 2 4
43. y1 = x 2 − 3x + 2 = 0 ⇒ ( x − 1)( x − 2) = 0 ∴x = 1, 2 ; at x = 1, y = − 7 6 .
10
44. St = y y1 Sn = y.y1 ∴Z = St .S n = y 2 = 3
∴ 2 α 1 x3
x

45. I = − ∫ (1 + cos x )
9
(− sin x )dx − ∫ (1 + cos x ) d (1 + cos x ) = −
9 (1 + cos x )
10

10
⎛ 1 − 2 sin x 2 cos x 2 ⎞
46. I = ∫ e x ⎜⎜ 2
⎟⎟dx
⎝ 2 sin x 2 ⎠

⎛1 ⎞ ⎛1 1 ⎞
= ∫ e x ⎜ cos ec x 2 − cot x 2 ⎟dx = − ∫ e x ⎜ cot x 2 − cos ec 2 x 2 ⎟dx
⎝2 ⎠ ⎝2 2 ⎠
= − e x cot x 2 + c
π 2 π 2
47. use ∫ log tan θ dθ = ∫ log cot θ dθ =0 (standard problem)
0 0

48. [( ) ( )]
given dy = 1 + x 2 .1 + y 2 1 + x 2 dx = 1 + y 2 1 + x 2 dx ( )( )
∴∫
dy
1+ y 2
( )
= ∫ 1 + x 2 dx ⇒ tan −1 y = x + x 3 3 + c

49. α + β = −b a : α β =c a &
α +β = −c b : α β =a b
b c c a
∴− =− & − = ⇒ b 2 = ac : a 2 = bc
a a a b
⇒ b = a c = bc.c 2 = bc3 ⇒ b3 = c 3
4 2 2

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50. Tr +1 = 25C r x r ∴ T12 = 25 C11 x11 : T10 = 25C9 .x 9
25!
x2
T12 25 11
C11 x (14 )! 11! 16.15.(14 )!9! 2 16.15.x 2 24 x 2
∴ = = = x = =
T10 25
C9 x 9 25! (14)!11.10.9! 11.10 11
(16)!9!
⎛ 1+ x ⎞
⎛1+ x ⎞ −1
log ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1− x ⎠
51. given ⇒ − 1≤ log⎜ ⎟ ≤ 1 ⇒ e ≤ e ≤ e1
⎝1− x ⎠
1+ x
⇒ e −1 ≤ ≤ e ⇒ (1 − x ) e ≤ 1 + x ≤ e(1 − x )
1− x
1 x 1
⇒ − ≤ 1 + x ≤ e − ex ⇒ − 1 ≤ x + x e
e e e
1 − e (1 + e ) 1− e
⇒ ≤ ⇒ ≤ x − − − − − (i )
e e 1+ e
e −1
1 + x ≤ e − ex ⇒ x + ex ≤ e − 1 ⇒ x(1 + e ) ≤ e − 1 ∴ x ≤ − − − (ii )
1+ e
(i ) & (ii ) ⇒ 1 − e ≤x≤
e −1 ⎡1 − e e − 1⎤
∴∈⎢ ,
1+ e 1+ e ⎣1 + e 1 + e ⎥⎦
52. use ~ ( p → q ) ≡ pΛ ~ q :
53. solving given equations, x= y = 1
required equation is y − y1 = m( x − x1 ) ⇒ y − 1 = m( x − 1) = mx − m
1− m
∴mx − y + (1 − m ) = 0 Its y − int ercept = = −3
m
∴ m = − 1 2 ∴equation is x + 2 y − 3 = 0

a h g 2 1 2 −1
54. h b f =0 ⇒ 1 2 1 − 2 = 0
g f c −1 − 2 k

⎛k ⎞ k
⇒ 2(k − 4 ) − 1 2 ⎜ − 2 ⎟ − 1(− 1 + 1) = 0 ⇒ 2k − 8 − + 1 = 0
⎝2 ⎠ 4
k 7k
⇒ 2k − = 7 ⇒ =7⇒k =4
4 4
55. given ⇒ A = 180 − (30 + 45) = 105

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 a b 2 b 2.1 2
by S .R. = ⇒ = ⇒b=
sin A sin B sin 105 sin 30 3 +1 2 2

=
2
∴b =
2 3 −1
=
3 −1 ( )
3 +1 3 −1 2
s (s − c ) s(s − c ) 3b
56. given ⇒ a +c =
ab bc 2
s
⇒ (s − c + s − a ) = 3b ⇒ 2s (a + b + c − a + c ) = 3b 2
b 2
⇒ 2 s = 3b ⇒ a + b + c = 3b ∴ 2 s = 3b ⇒ a + b + c = 3b
∴2 = a + c ∴ a, b, c are in A.P.

lt ⎢
(
⎡ n n2 + 1 − n2 ⎤ )
= lt
n
57. ⎥
x →∞
⎣ n + 1 + n ⎦ x→∞ ⎛⎜ n 2 + 1 ⎞⎟
2
n +1
⎜ n2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
1 1 1
= lt = lt =
x →∞ ⎛ ⎞ x →∞ ⎛ ⎞
⎜ n + 1 + 1⎟
2 1 2
⎜⎜ 1 + 2 + 1⎟⎟
⎜ n2 ⎟ ⎝ n ⎠
⎝ ⎠
⎡ 1 1 ⎤
⎢3+ x − 3− x ⎥ 1 1 2
58. By L.H. Rule, given = lt ⎢
x →0
⎥= + =
⎢ 1 ⎥ 3 3 3
⎣ ⎦
59. f (1) = 1 L.L. = lt (1 − x ) = 0 : R.L. = lt (1 + x ) = 2
x →1 x →1

L.L ≠ R.L. ∴ lt f ( x ) does not exist ∴ (3) is the answer .

x →1

⎡ 2 + cos x − 1⎤
60. since f is continuous at x = π , f (π ) = lt ⎢ ⎥
⎣ (π − x )
x →π 2
⎦
⎡ 1(− sin x ) ⎤
= lt ⎢ 2(π − x )(− 1)⎥ (by L.H . Rule )
x →π 2 2 + cos x
⎣ ⎦
⎡ sin ( x ) ⎛ 1 ⎞⎤ 1 ⎛ sin (π − x ) ⎞
⎟ (by L.H . Rule )
1
= lt ⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥ = . . lt ⎜
x →π ⎣ 4 2 + cos x ⎝ π − x ⎠ ⎦ 4 2 − 1 x →π ⎝ (π − x ) ⎠

= . (1) =
1 1
4 4

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY

CET MODEL TEST PAPER -4

SUBJECT:BIOLOGY
TOTAL NO. OF QUESTIONS=60 TIME=70 MINUTES
1. Match the following: Column I contains different taxonomic categories and Column II contains
taxonomic units of Coconut.
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A. Kingdom p. Cocos
B. Division q. nucifera
C. Order r. Plantae
D. Class s. Embryophyta siphonogama
E. Family t. Palmae
F. Genus u. Monocotyledonae
G. Species v. Principes
1. A=r, B=s, C=v, D=u, E=t, F=p, G=q
2. A=r, B=v, C‐s, D=t, E=u, F=p, G=q
3. A=r, B= t, C=v, D=u, E= s, F=p, G=q
4. A=r, B=u, C=v, D=s, E=t, F=p, G=q

2. Which one of the following events is not observed in mitosis?

1. Condensation of chromatin.
2. Movement of centrioles to opposite poles.
3. Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at centromere.
4. Exchange of genetic material between the homologous chromosomes.

3. Kingdom Protista includes,

1. All prokaryotic unicellular organisms except bacteria.
2. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms.
3. All eukaryotic, multicellular autotrophic organisms.
4. All eukaryotic multicellular heterotrophic organisms.

4. Which one of the following statements about Viroids is true?

1. The Viroids are made up of ss RNA enclosed in a protein coat.
2. The Viroids are made up of ds RNA enclosed in a protein coat.
3. The Viroids are made up of ss RNA without a protein coat.
4. The Viroids are made up of ds RNA without a protein coat.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY

5. The fruiting bodies of ……………..are edible.

1. Mucar
2. Rhizopus
3. Penicillium notatum
4. Volvariella volvacea

6. A prothallus is,
1. A free‐living sporophyte formed by the germination of spores in pteridophytes.
2. A free‐living gametophyte formed by the germination of spores in pteridophytes.
3. A free‐living sporophyte formed by the germination of spores in bryophytes.
4. A free‐living gametophyte formed by the germination of spores in bryophytes.

7. In monoadelphous condition,
1. The stamens are attached to the corolla tube.
2. The filaments of stamens are fused but the anther lobes are free.
3. The stamens are completely united throughout the filament and anther lobe.
4. The filaments of stamens are free while the anther lobes are fused.
8. The diagram represents the L.S of Maize seed [monocot seed]. Identify the labeling
A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H in the diagram.

1. A=Seed coat, B=Aleurone Layer, C=Endosperm, D=Scutellum, E=Coleoptile, F=Plumule, G=Radicle,

F=Coleorhiza.
2. A=Seed coat, B= Endosperm, C= Aleurone Layer, D= Coleoptile, E= Scutellum, F=Plumule,
G=Radicle, F=Coleorhiza
3. . A=Seed coat, B=Aleurone Layer, C=Endosperm, D=Scutellum, E= Coleorhiza, F= Radicle, G=
Plumule, F= Coleoptile
4. A=Seed coat, B= Scutellum, C= Radicle, D= Endosperm, E= Coleorhiza, F= Aleurone Layer, G=
Plumule, F= Coleoptile

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY

9. An example for chromoprotein is

1. Haemoglobin
2. Insulin
3. Casein
4. Histone

10. Gene frequency in a population remains stable in the presence of

1. Gene flow
2. Genetic drift
3. Mutation
4. Random mating

11. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A.Limbless amphibian p. Echidna
B.Flightess bird q. Ostrich
C.Egg laying mammal r. Chameleon
D. Arboreal reptile s. Ichthiyophis
t. Palaemon
1. A=s, B=q, C=p, D=r
2. A=t, B=q, C=p, D=s
3. A=s, B=t, C=q, D=r
4. A=s, B=q, C=p, D=t

12. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. In Sycon, a non cellular, jelly like substance called mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and
mesoderm.
2. Unio contains choanocytes.
3. In star fish, canal system is present.
4. Spongilla is a fresh water sponge.

13. Read the following statements A and B:

Statement A‐ In some Cnidarians, metagenesis is observed.
Statement B‐ In Physalia, the polyp produces medusa by asexual reproduction and Medusa in turn
produces polyp by sexual reproduction.
1. Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A.
2. Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A.
3. The statement A is correct but B is wrong.
4. The statement A is wrong but B is correct.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY

14. The following diagram represents the leg of cockroach. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D,
and E.

1. A=Coxa, B=Femur, C=Trochanter, D=Tibia,E=Tarsus

2. A= Femur, B= Coxa, C= Tarsus, D=Tibia,E= Trochanter
3. A= Tarsus, B= Trochanter, C= Femur, D=Tibia,E= Coxa
4. A= Tarsus, B= Trochanter, C= Femur, D= Coxa,E= Tibia

15. An example of indigenous draught breed of cattle is

1. Sindhi
2. Sahiwal
3. Amrithamahal
4. Murrah.

16. In a DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

1. Glycosidic Bonds
2. Phosphodiester bonds
3. Peptide bonds
4. Hydrogen bonds

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
17. During semiconservative method of DNA replication, the synthesis of DNA is discontinuous in
one strand. This is because,
1. DNA polymerase III can polymerize in 5’‐3’ direction only.
2. DNA molecule being synthesized is very long.
3. Discontinuous synthesis helps in removing mismatched nucleotides.
4. RNA primer is synthesized in only one strand.

18. In Lac operon, the operator combines with

1. Regulator protein to switch off structural gene transcription.
2. Regulator protein to switch on structural gene transcription.
3. Inducer protein to switch off structural gene transcription.
4. Regulator gene protein to switch off structural gene transcription.

19. Which one of the following sequences is not correct in relation to the experiment conducted
by Griffith on Streptococcus pneumoniae to prove DNA as the genetic material?
1. Live S‐strain‐Injected to mice‐Mice die
2. Live R‐strain‐Injected to mice‐Mice live
3. S‐strain [heat killed]‐Injected to mice‐Mice die.
4. S‐strain [heat killed] +R strain alive‐Injected to mice‐Mice die.

20. The “probe” used in DNA fingerprinting is a

1. Radioactive labelled protein
2. Radioactive Labelled Restriction endonuclease
3. Radioactive labelled ss DNA
4. Radioactive labelled ds DNA

21. Of the three genes used for the creation of golden rice, two genes obtained from Daffodil
plants code for
1. Phytoene synthase and Lycopene Cyclase
2. Phyotene synthase and Carotene Desaturase
3. Carotene desaturase and B‐carotene
4. B‐carotene and Phytoene synthase

22. Production of haploids through plant tissue culture has enormous importance in crop
improvement. This is because,
1. They can grow in extreme environmental conditions.
2. They are useful in cell cycle studies
3. They can be used as homozygous lines and can be diplodized.
4. They are useful in the production of embryos.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
23. The unique property of pluripotent stem celsl is that
1. They can develop in to a whole individual.
2. They help in the production of monoclonal antibodies.
3. They can develop into any tissue in the body.
4. They can be used to treat infectious diseases.
24. The term” restriction” in restriction endonuclease refers to
1. Breaking phosphodiester bond in DNA by enzyme.
2. Preventing multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria.
3. Cutting DNA at specific positions only.
4. Cutting the DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds.
25. Read the following statements:
I. Sieve cells and albuminous cells originate from single mother cell.
II. Treachery elements have perforated end walls with wider lumen.
III. Sieve tube elements are found in plants like Cycas and Pinus.
IV. Callose is deposited around sieve pores on sieve plates.
Of these, the correct statements are,
1. I and III
2. II and IV
3. I, II, III
4. I, II, IV
26. Observe the following diagrams of different types of vascular bundles and read the related
statements.

I. Diagram A represents conjoint, collateral vascular bundle.

II. Diagram B represents Conjoint, collateral, closed vascular bundle.
III. Diagram C represents conjoint, collateral, open vascular bundle.
IV. Diagram A represents the vascular bundle of Dicot root.
V. Diagram B represents the vascular bundle of monocot root.
Of these, the correct statements related to the respective diagrams are
1. I, II, IV, V
2. I, II, III, IV, V
3. II, III, V
4. II, III, IV
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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY

27. One common feature observed both in sieve tube elements and erythrocytes is
1. Absence of nucleus.
2. Presence of cell wall.
3. Presence of chlorophyll
4. Absence of cytoplasm

28. Read the following statements:

Statement A: Ascent of sap is a passive activity driven by transpiration pull.
Statement B: During day time, stomata open due to respiratory activity.
1. Both the statements A and B are correct.
2. Both the statements A and B are wrong.
3. Statement A is correct but B is wrong.
4. Statement A is wrong but B is correct.

29. Radial movement of water means,

1. Movement of water from mesophyll tissue into intercellular spaces.
2. Movement of water from intercellular spaces into the outside of the leaf.
3. Movement of water from xylem of root into the xylem of leaf.
4. Movement of water from root hair into xylem of the root.

30. When you compare the rate of absorption of water and rate of transpiration in the same
healthy and well growing plant at the same time, what should be the result?
1. The rate of absorption should be equal to rate of transpiration.
2. The rate of absorption should be slightly higher than rate of transpiration.
3. The rate of absorption should be less than rate of transpiration.
4. The two rates would be unrelated.

31. Which of the following plants would be exhibiting the lowest rate of transpiration in the same
place and at the same conditions?
1. A plant with hypostomatic leaves.
2. A plant with amphistomatic leaves.
3. A plant with epistomatic leaves.
4. A plant with astomatic leaves.

32. The initial acceptor of CO2 in C‐4 plants is

1. Phosphoenol pyruvate
2. RuBP
3. 3‐Phosphoglyceric acid
4. Oxaloacetic acid

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
33. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
1. NADH
2. O2
3. ADP
4. ATP and H20

34. Pyruvate is synthesized in

1. Intermembranal space in mitochondria
2. Matrix of mitochondria
3. Cytoplasm
4. F0‐F1 particles

35. Read the following statements A and B:

Statement A: In lactate fermentation, neither O2 is absorbed nor CO2 is synthesized.
Statement B: When milk is turned into curds, there is no foaming.
1. Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
2. Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for B.
3. The statement A is correct but B is wrong.
4. The statement A is wrong but B is correct.
36.Match the following:
Column I Column II
A. 2,4‐D p. Richmond ‐ Lang effect
B. ABA q. Bolting and flowering
C. Ethylene r. Stomatal closure
D. Gibberelic Acid s. Ripening of fruits
t. Weedicide in rice fields
1. A=t, B=r, C=s, D=q
2. A=t, B=q, C=s, D=p
3. A=s, B=p, C=t, D=r
4. A=p, B=q, C=r, D=t

37. In a growth curve of a plant, the maximum growth is observed during

1. Lag phase
2. Senescent phase
3. Decline phase
4. Exponential phase

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
38. Mother and father of a person with “O” blood group have “A” and “B” blood group
respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
1. Mother is homozygous “A” group and father heterozygous for “B”.
2. Mother is heteroozygous “A” group and father homozygous for “B”.
3. Both mother and father are heterozygous for “A” and “B” group respectively.
4. Both mother and father are homozygous for “A” and “B” group respectively.

39. In Mendel’s Dihybrid cross experiment, the ratio obtained in F2 generation is 9:3:3:1. Of
these, how many types of phenotypes and genotypes are observed?
1. Phenotyes‐4 and Genotypes‐16
2. Phenotyes‐4 and Genotypes‐8
3. Phenotyes‐4 and Genotypes‐9
4. Phenotyes‐9 and Genotypes‐4

40. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1. Down’s syndrome is caused due to the non‐disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis.
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome is an example for autosomal hyper‐aneuloidy.
3. The individuals with Turner’s syndrome will have 45 chromosomes in each of the diploid cells.
4. Cri du chat syndrome occurs due to the partial deletion of short arm of 5th chromosome.

41. The blood group of a person is determined by mixing his blood with serum. Serum means:
1. Plasma containing only platelets.
2. Plasma that is separated from clotted blood.
3. Plasma devoid of formed elements
4. Plasma containing only white blood cells.

42. Identify the one that is not a method of ex‐situ conservation.

1. Cryopreservation
2. Seed Bank
3. Zoo
4. National park

43. With reference to environmental pollution, consider the following statements A and B:
Statement A: Acid rains are caused by H2SO4 only.
Statement B: While SO2 is highly injurious to plants, NO2 is not injurious to plants.
1. Both the Statements A and B are correct.
2. Statement A is correct but B is wrong
3. Statement A is wrong but B is correct
4. Both the statements A and B are wrong.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
44. The name of Panduranga Hegde is associated with
1. Appiko movement.
2. Save Tunga movement.
3. Project Tiger.
4. Narmada Bachao andolan.
45. Kyoto protocol is aimed at
1. Reducing worldwide emissions of radioactive material.
2. Reducing worldwide emissions of particulate matter.
3. Reducing worldwide emissions of green house gases.
4. Reducing worldwide emissions of CFCs.

46. Which one of the following is a physiological, non‐specific body defense mechanism?
1. Skin.
2. Mucus membrane.
4. Hair.
4. Tears.

47. A muscle fiber possesses striations and intercalated discs. This muscle fiber is
1. Smooth muscle fiber.
2. Cardiac muscle fiber.
3. Skeletal muscle fiber.
4. Non‐striated muscle fiber.

48. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Enterokinase is secreted by liver.
2. Bile pigments are important for emulsification of fats.
3. Trypsinogen gets converted into trypsin by HCl.
4. HCl is secreted by the parietal cells of gastric glands.

49. Hepatitis B is a disease caused by

1. Bacterial Infection.
2. Virus.
3. Prions.
4. Fungal infection.

50. The fibers that connect bicuspid valve with the wall of heart is
1. Corpus callosum.
2. Crypts of Liberkuhn.
3. Chordae Tendinae.
4. Cholecystokinin.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
51. Read the following statements A and B:
Statement A‐ Coronary artery diseases can cause localized death of cardiac tissue
Statement B‐ Myocardial ischemia or insufficient supply of O2 leads to heart attacks.
1. Both statements are correct and B is the reason for A.
2. Both statements are correct and B is not the reason for A.
3. A is correct but B is wrong.
4. A is wrong but B is correct.

52. All of the following are associated with inspiration in a mammal except:
1. Increase in thoracic volume.
2. Flattening of dome shaped diaphragm.
3. Increase in intra‐pulmonary pressure.
4. Contraction of external intercostal muscles.

53. Bronchitis refers to,

1. The inflammation of bronchi.
2. Fully blown out alveoli.
3. Inflammation of nasal tract.
4. Infection of nasal tract.

54. Function of loop of Henle is

1. Conservation of water.
2. Formation of urine.
3. Filtration of blood.
4. Passage of urine out of the body.

55. The NET EFFECTIVE FILTRATION PRESSURE IS

1. Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure+ {Capsular hydrostatic pressure + Blood colloidal pressure}
2. Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure‐ {Capsular hydrostatic pressure ‐ Blood colloidal pressure}
3. Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure‐ {Capsular hydrostatic pressure + Blood colloidal pressure}
4. Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure+ {Capsular hydrostatic pressure ‐ Blood colloidal pressure}

56. Alcohol consumption increases volume of urine output because

1. More water is consumed.
2. Of increased glomerular filtration rate.
3. Of decreased anti‐diuretic hormone release.
4. Of decreased glomerular filtration rate.

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57. The disease chiefly associated with degeneration of dopamine secreting neurons of basal
ganglia is
1. Huntington’s chorea.
2. Parkinson’s disease.
3. Alzheimer’s disease.
4. Epilepsy.

58. In humans, Which one of the following possesses 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome?
1. Primary Oocyte.
2. Zygote.
3. Oogonia.
4. Secondary oocyte.

59. The hormone secreted by corpus luteum is

1. Progesterone.
2. Aldosterne.
3. Prolactin.
4. Vasopressin.

60. The diagram given here is the V.S of gastrula. Identify the labellings A, B, C and D.

1. A= Yolk plug, B= Archenteron, C= Dorsal Lip, D=Blastocoel

2. A= Blastocoel, B=Dorsal Lip, C=Yolk plug, D= Archenteron
3. A=Archenteron, B=Dorsal Lip, C=Yolk plug, D=Blastocoel
4. A=Archenteron, B= Yolk plug, C= Dorsal Lip, D=Blastocoel

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4

CET MODEL TEST PAPER ‐4

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
"ANSWER KEY"
Que. Answer Que. Answer Que. Answer Que. Answer
No. No. No. No.

1 1 16 2 31 4 46 4
2 4 17 1 32 1 47 2
3 2 18 1 33 4 48 4
4 3 19 3 34 3 49 2
5 4 20 3 35 1 50 3
6 2 21 1 36 1 51 1
7 2 22 3 37 4 52 3
8 1 23 3 38 3 53 1
9 1 24 2 39 3 54 1
10 4 25 2 40 2 55 3
11 1 26 4 41 2 56 3
12 4 27 1 42 4 57 2
13 1 28 2 43 4 58 4
14 1 29 4 44 1 59 1
15 3 30 2 45 3 60 3
 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY

CET MODEL TEST PAPER –4

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
EXPLANATION FOR ANSWERS
Question No. 1
Answer -1. A=r, B=s, C=v, D=u, E=t, F=p, G=q

Question No. 2
Answer-4. Exchange of genetic material between the homologous chromosomes.
Explanation: - Mitosis is a type of cell division [Also called multiplication division, it helps in
growth and repair] that results in the formation of two daughter cells that have the same no. of
chromosomes as that of the parent cell. This process does not involve linkage and crossing over.
The linkage and crossing over between homologous chromosomes [Also called genetic
recombination] is observed in Prophase‐1 of Meiosis [Also called Reduction division that results in
the formation of gametes]. Hence there is no exchange of genetic material between the
homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Question No. 3
Answer-2. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms.
Explanation: - The members of Kingdom Protista are popularly called "Taxanomic misfits" as
these members are not included in Kingdom Metaphyta and Metazoa, even though they possess
some characters of these two kingdoms. As Metaphyta and Metazoa include multicellular
eukaryotes, the unicellular eukaryotes [Eg., Protozoa{Eg.Amoeba}, Algae{Eg.,Diatoms} are grouped
under Protista.

Question No. 4
Answer-3. The viroids are made up of ss RNA without a protein coat.
Explanation: - Viroids are single stranded, circular, naked RNA molecules that cause diseases in
plants. Example: Potato spindle tuber disease caused by potato spindle tuber viroid.

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Question No. 5
Answer-4. Volvariella volvacea
Explanation: - Mushrooms belong to Division Basidiomycota of Kingdom Mycota[Fungi]. They produce
reproductive structures called Basidiocarps, that contain basidiospores. Hence Basidiocarp is also called
fruiting body. Examples for such mushrooms are Agaricus bisporus, Volvariella volvacea [Oyster
mushroom]. These mushrooms are edible in nature and hence cultivated in large scale now a days.
They are rich in nutrients.

Question No. 6
Answer- 2. A free‐living gametophyte formed by the germination of spores in pteridophytes.
Explanation: - In pteridophytes, the predominant phase in the life cycle is haploid sporophyte.
Sporophyte is a free living plant body and differentiated into root, stem and leaves. The leaves bear
sporangia which in turn contain spores [diploid]. The spores germinate and produce a free living
gametophyte and it is called prothallus. Prothallus bears haploid spores. These spores undergo germination
to produce the gametophyte called Prothallus. The prothallus bear sex organs i.e., Antheridia [produce male
gamete] and Archegonia [produce female gamete].

Question No. 7
Answer- 2. The filaments of stamens are fused but the anther lobes are free.
Explanation: - In angiosperms, the stamens are the units of male reproductive structures called
Androecium. The stamens contain a filament and an anther lobe. The anther lobe bears pollen grains. In
some plants [e.g., Hibiscus], the filaments of all stamens are fused while the anther lobes remain free. This is
called monoadelphous condition. If the filaments remain free and the anther lobes are fused, the condition
is called Syngeny[Eg. Helianthus‐ Sunflower]. If the stamens are united all along their length, i.e., both
anthers and filaments are fused [E.g., Cucurbita], this is called Synandry. If the stamens are attached to the
corolla tube, it is called epipetalous condition [E.g., Catharanthus roseus].

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
Question No. 8
Answer-- 1. A=Seed coat, B=Aleurone Layer, C=Endosperm, D=Scutellum, E=Coleoptile,
F=Plumule, G=Radicle, F=Coleorhiza

Question No. 9
Answer-1. Haemoglobin
Explanation: - Proteins are classified into Simple proteins and conjugated proteins. Simple proteins
consist of amino acids only. E.g., Albumin, Globulins, Histones, Actin and Myosin{muscle proteins}, Keratin,
etc., Conjugated proteins on hydrolysis yield not only amino acids, but also non‐proteinaceous substance
called prosthetic group. Some of the conjugated proteins are:‐Phosphoproteins{E.g., Casein of milk},
glycoprotein{Mucus of saliva}, Chromoprotein {Haemoglobin‐carries oxygen, Cytochrome‐Electron carrier,
Myoglobin‐oxygen binding muscle protein}.

Question No. 10
Answer-4. Random mating
Explanation: - According to Hardy‐Weinberg law of genetic equilibrium, the frequencies of genes in
a randomly mating Mendelian population remains constant from generation to generation unless there are
agencies to upset it. The evolutionary forces like gene flow, genetic drift, genetic recombination,
chromosomal aberrations, mutations etc., can alter the rate of gene frequency. In the absence of these
forces in a randomly mating population, the gene frequency remains constant.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
Question No. 11
Answer- 1. A=s, B=q, C=p, D=r

Question No. 12
Answer-4. Spongilla is a fresh water sponge.
Explanation: - Sponges belongs to the phylum Porifera. Some members are present in fresh water
[Eg.. Spongilla], whereas most of the members are present in marine habitats {Eg. Sycon, etc.,}.The members
are called sponges since they possess a number of minute microscopic pores on them. These members
possess cellular grade of organization and the cells in their body are not organized into tissues. The cells are
arranged in two layers: the inner layer called Choanoderm‐consisting of choanocytes and outer layer called
Pinacoderm‐consisting of pinacocytes. Between these two layers, a non‐cellular, jelly like substance called
mesogloea is present. The sponges possess a characteristic Canal system in them in which the movement of
water occurs inside the body, that helps in nutrition, respiration, reproduction and excretion.

Question No. 13
Answer-1. Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A.
Explanation: - Phylum Coelenterata [also called Cnidaria] includes animals with tissue grade of
organization {Eg. Aurelia‐jelly fish, Hydra, Physalia, Obelia, Corals, etc.}. The coelenterates exhibits a
phenomena called Metagenesis[alternation of generation] in their life history, where in Polyp[asexual stage]
produces Medusa[Sexual stage] asexually and Medusa produces Polyp through sexual reproduction. The
coeleoterates do possess cnidoblasts or stinging cells or nematocysts that help in catching and paralyzing the
prey. Some coelenterates possess morphologically distinct different body forms or individuals called Zooids.
This phenomenon is called polymorphism.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
Question No. 14
Answer-1. A=Coxa, B=Femur, C=Trochanter, D=Tibia,E=Tarsus
The leg of cockroach

Question No. 15
Answer-3. Amrithamahal
Explanation: -Indigenous breeds of cattle are those which are native [Desi varities] to
particular area that are fully acclimatized to their environment. The best indigenous milch breeds
[known for high milk production] are Sindhi, Sahiwal. Draught breeds are those in which the cows
are poor milkers but the bullocks are good draught animals and these provide support for transport
and various agricultural operations like ploughing etc.,Example for draught breed is Amrithamahal.
Dual purpose breeds are those where the cows are good milkers and bullocks are good draught
breeds. Example ‐Ongole. Exotic breeds are those that are imported from foreign countries.

Question No. 16
Answer-2. Phosphodiester bonds

Question No. 17
Answer-1. DNA polymerase III can polymerize in 5’‐3’ direction only.
Explanation: -DNA replication is the process of production of exact copies of DNA molecules.
This process is called semiconservative because, in the daughter DNA molecule, one of the strands

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is the parental strand and the other strand is the newly synthesized strand. During the process of
DNA replication, the synthesis of DNA occurs continuously on one strand and on the other strand,
the synthesis is discontinuous. Because the DNA polymerase III enzyme, that synthesizes a new
DNA strand can synthesize in only one direction, i.e, from 5’‐3’ direction on a 3’‐5’ template strand.
Also, the two strands are arranged antiparallely, the synthesis occurs continuously on one strand
[Leading strand] and discontinuously on another strand [Lagging strand]. On the lagging strand
where the short segments of DNA are produced [Okazaki fragments], the short segments are
joined later by DNA ligase enzyme.

Question No. 18
Answer-1. Regulator protein to switch off structural gene transcription.
Explanation: -In Lac operon, the mechanism of regulation of gene function depends on the
presence or absence of lactose in the medium. When the lactose is absent in the medium, the
regulator gene produces a protein called repressor or regulator protein that binds to the operator
region and hence the structural genes or cistrons of lac operon are blocked. Hence transcription of
structural genes does not occur. Hence lactose metabolizing enzymes are not produced. When the
lactose is available in the medium, the lactose molecules act as inducers and bind to the regulator
proteins. As a result, the regulator proteins cannot bind to the operator region. Hence the
transcription and later, translation of structural genes occur resulting in the production of lactose
metabolizing enzymes.

Question No.19
Answer-3. S‐strain [heat killed]‐Injected to mice‐Mice die.
Explanation: -To prove DNA as the genetic material, Griffith conducted an experiment on
bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium causes pneumonia in animals including man.
This experiment is called transformation experiment. There are two strains of Streptococcus.
Rough[R] strain of bacteria produces rough colonies on culture media. These are non virulent. The
other strain produces smooth colonies on culture media. They are called Smooth[S] strain and they
are virulent. Griffith conducted a series of experiments with Streptococcus on mice. A) He injected
type R strain into the mice. The mice did not die. B) He injected the type S strain into the mice. The
mice died of pneumonia. C) He injected heat killed type R strain to the mice. The mice did not die.
D) When he injected the mixture of heat killed smooth bacteria(S strain) and living R strain of
Streptococcus, the mice died as this process resulted in the transformation of Live R strain and
converted R strain into S strain.

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Question No.20
Answer- 3. Radioactive labelled ss DNA
Explanation: -In DNA fingerprinting, the single stranded DNA present on the nitrocellulose
membrane are made to hybridize with readily available single stranded, radioactively labelled DNA.
The probe is a fragment of DNA of variable length (usually 100‐1000 bases long )The probe DNA consists
of 32P (a radioactive isotope of phosphorus incorporated into the probe DNA). This radioactive probe with
specific nucleotide sequence, pairs with the complementary nucleotides of VNTRs present in the
single stranded DNA. This helps in the detection of VNTRs.

Question No.21
Answer- 1. Phytoene synthase and Lycopene Cyclase
Explanation: -Golden rice is a variety of Oryza sativa rice produced through genetic engineering to
biosynthesize beta‐carotene, a precursor of pro‐vitamin A in the edible parts of rice. Golden rice was
developed as a fortified food to be grown in areas where there is a shortage of dietary vitamin A. Golden
rice was created by transforming rice with three beta‐carotene biosynthesis genes: psy (phytoene
synthase) and lyc (lycopene cyclase) gene from daffodil (Narcissus pseudonarcissus) and crt I
(Carotene desaturase) from the soil bacterium Erwinia uredovora.

Question No.22
Answer- 3. They can be used as homozygous lines and can be diplodized
Explanation: -Anther, a male reproductive part, is diploid in chromosome numbers. As a result
of microsporogenesis, tetrads of microspores are formed from a single spore mother cell. They are
known as pollen grains after release from tetrads. The aim of pollen culture is to get haploid plants
by induction of embryogenesis. Haploid plants have single complete set of chromosomes that in
turn may be useful for the improvement of many crop plants. Moreover, chromosome set of these
haploids can be doubled by mutagenic chemicals (e.g. colchicine) or regeneration technique to
obtain fertile homozygous diploids.

Question No.23
Answer-3. They can develop into any tissue in the body.
Explanation: -Stem cells are biological cells found in all multicellular organisms, that can
divide (through mitosis) and differentiate into diverse specialized cell types and can self‐renew to
produce more stem cells. The different types of stem cells are: a) Totipotent stem cells‐these stem

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
cells can differentiate into embryonic and extraembryonic cell types. Such cells can construct a
complete, viable organism. b) Pluripotent stem cells‐These cells are descendants of totipotent stem
cells and can give rise to cells of the three germ layers: endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm,
resulting in the formation of any cell type or tissue. c) Multipotent Stem cells‐ These stem cells are
the descendents of pluripotent stem cells and can differentiate into a number of cells, but only
those of a closely related family of cells.

Question No.24
Answer-2. Preventing multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria.
Explanation: -A restriction enzyme (or restriction endonuclease) is an enzyme that cuts DNA at
specific recognition nucleotide sequences (with Type II restriction enzymes cutting double‐stranded DNA)
known as restriction sites. Such enzymes, found in bacteria and archaea, are thought to have evolved to
provide a defence mechanism against invading viruses. This phenomenon is called host restriction.

Question No.25
Answer-2. II and IV
Explanation: -Vascular Tissues like xylem (Water conduction) and Phloem (Food
conduction)found in pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms consist of different cell types.
The xylem is composed of Tracheids, Treachery Elements, Xylem fibers and Xylem parenchyma. The
tracheids are found in pteridophytes and gymnosperms. Treachery Elements, also called xylem vessel
elements are found in angiosperms. The tracheary elements are more advanced than tracheids and
possess perforated end walls with wider lumen. In phloem, the different cell types like Sieve cells,
Sieve tube elements, Companion cells, Phloem fibres and phloem parenchyma are present. Sieve
cells are present in pteridophytes and gymnosperms and are associated with specialized
parenchymatous cells called albuminous cells. The sieve tube elements are present in angiosperms
and are associated with companion cells. The sieve tube element and a companion cell are
originated from the same mother cell, where as sieve cells and albuminous cells are originated
from different mother cells. The sieve tube elements are enucleated and possess cytoplasmic
streaming. They have perforated end walls or cross walls and it is called sieve plate. The sieve plates
contain sieve pores. Surrounding the sieve pores, a plant polysaccharide called Callose is
deposited. It is composed of glucose residues.

Question No.26
Answer- 4. II, III, IV
Explanation: -A vascular bundle is consists of a strand like portion having xylem and phloem.
According to the arrangement of xylem and phloem, there are different types of vascular bundles
present. They are Radial vascular Bundle, Conjoint vascular Bundle and Concentric vascular bundle.

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In radial vascular bundle, the xylem and phloem form separate bundles and they lie in alternate
radii (Eg., Roots of seed plants‐Dicot and Monocot). In conjoint vascular bundle, the xylem and
phloem are present together in the same bundle on the same radius. The conjoint vascular bundles
are either collateral or bicollateral. In collateral vascular bundle, the xylem and phloem lie together
on the same radius. The xylem lie inwards and phloem outwards. The Conjoint, collateral vascular
bundles are present in Stems of seed plants. The conjoint, collateral vascular bundle may consists of
cambium (Open vascular bundle‐Dicot stem) or may not consists of cambium (closed vascular
bundle‐Monocot stem).

Question No.27
Answer- 1. Absence of nucleus.

Question No.28
Answer-3. Statement A is correct but B is wrong.
Explanation: -Transpiration occurring in the leaves is the major phenomena that results in the
upward conduction of sap in xylem that creates transpiration pull. According to Transpiration pull
theory, the cohesive and adhesive properties of water results in the formation of a continuous
unbroken column of water in the xylem vessel elements. This is pulled upwards due to transpiration
pull. On the other hand, the stomata opens during day time due to the photosynthetic utilization of
CO2 in the guard cells, that result in various activities and finally endosmosis occur in guard cells.
Opening of stomata results in transpiration.

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
Question No.29
Answer- 4. Movement of water from root hair into xylem of the root.
Explanation: -In plants, water moves from the soil into the root hair by osmosis as the water
potential of the cell sap in the root hair is less than that of the soil solution. Water taken up by the
root hair cells move through the cortex, endodermis [passage cells], pericycle and finally into the
xylem of the root. This is called radial movement of water and the water moves in three different
pathways and finally reaches the xylem of the root. They are apoplast, symplast and vacuolar
pathways. The xylem of the root is directly connected with the xylem of the stem. The upward
movement of water from root xylem to stem xylem and to leaf xylem occurs due to transpiration
pull.

Question No.30
Answer-2. The rate of absorption should be slightly higher than rate of transpiration.
Explanation: -In a healthy and well growing plant, there is a continuous process of absorption
of water in roots along with continuous transpiration from the leaves. However, since the plant
showing a good growth, which needs water, it can be assumed that the rate of absorption is slightly
higher than the rate of transpiration.

Question No.31
Answer-4. A plant with astomatic leaves
Explanation: -In plants, the transpiration occurs through stomata, lenticels and through
cuticle. In plants with hypostomatic condition, the transpiration occurs more from the lower
surface of the leaf. In plants with amphistomatic condition, the transpiration takes place equally
from both the upper and lower surface. In plants with astomatic condition [Where stomata are
absent], the transpiration can take place only through cuticle. Hence the rate of transpiration is
lowest.

Question No.32
Answer-1. Phosphoenol pyruvate

Question No.33
Answer-4. ATP and H20
Explanation: -Oxidative phosphorylation the process of addition of inorganic phosphate to
ADP to produce ATP with the help of energy released during the oxidation of substrates [Food
materials]. Although the many forms of life on earth use a range of different nutrients, almost all

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 CET MODEL TEST PAPER‐4‐BIOLOGY
aerobic organisms carry out oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP, the molecule that supplies
energy to metabolism. During oxidative phosphorylation, electrons are transferred from electron
donors to electron acceptors such as oxygen, in red‐ox reactions. These red‐ox reactions release
energy, which is used to form ATP. In eukaryotes, these red‐ox reactions are carried out by a series
of protein complexes within mitochondria, whereas, in prokaryotes, these proteins are located in
the cells' inner membranes. One of the enzyme complexes present in the electron transport system
i.e., Cytochrome c oxidase, also known as complex IV, is the final protein complex in the electron
transport chain. It mediates the final reaction in the electron transport chain and transfers
electrons to oxygen, while pumping protons across the membrane.[40] The final electron acceptor
oxygen, which is also called the terminal electron acceptor, is reduced to water.

Question No.34
Answer-3. Cytoplasm
Explanation: -Glycolysis (from glycose, an older term for glucose + ‐Lysis degradation) is the
metabolic pathway that converts glucose, into pyruvate. It occurs, with variations, in nearly all organisms,
both aerobic and anaerobic. The wide occurrence of glycolysis indicates that it is one of the most ancient
known metabolic pathways. It occurs in the cytoplasm [cytosol] of the cell.

Question No.35
Answer-1. Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
Explanation: -Lactic acid fermentation is a single step reaction catalyzed by the enzyme
lactate dehydrogenase under anaerobic conditions. This process occurs in lactic acid bacteria like
Lactobacillus and also in muscle cells. During this process, neither O2 is absorbed nor is CO2
synthesized. Hence there is no foaming.

Question No.36
Answer-1. A=t, B=r, C=s, D=q

Question No.37
Answer-4. Exponential phase
Explanation: -Any population growing exponentially starts off slowly, goes through a rapid growth
phase, and then levels off once the carrying capacity of the area is reached. Plotting a graph of such a
population yields an S‐shaped curve. This curve can be divided into three phases: Lag phase, Log or
exponential phase , and steady phase. Lag phase: Population growth begins slowly from a few individuals.
Log phase: Exponential growth occurs, the conditions are ideal and maximum growth rate is reached. Steady
phase: During this phase, the growth has almost stopped and the size of the body remains fairly constant
over a long period of time.

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Question No.38
Answer- 3. Both mother and father are heterozygous for “A” and “B” group respectively.
Explanation: -ABO blood group in humans is an example for multiple allelism. The
genotype of the person with”O” blood group is IOIO or ii. Since the mother and father possess A and
B blood groups respectively, their genotypes should be heterozygous. IA and IB are dominant genes
responsible for A and B blood group respectively. Hence the genotype of mother with”A” blood
group is IAIO or IAi and the genotype of father is IBIO or IBi.

Question No.39
Answer-3. Phenotyes‐4 and Genotypes‐9
Explanation: - Dihybrid cross shows a phenotypic (appearance) ratio of 9:3:3:1. For example,
In a cross involving two parents having Yellow(Y) round(R) seed and Green(y) wrinkled(r) seed, in
the F1 Generation, all plants possess yellow, round seeds. In the F2 Generation produces plants
with a ration of : 9 Yellow, Round, 3 Yellow, Wrinkled, 3 Green, Round, 1 Green, Wrinkled. Hence
there are 4 different phenotypes produced in the F2 generation. Amongst these, totally 9 different
genotypes are produced. They are ROUND YELLOW -RRYY, Rryy, RRYy, RrYy. WRINKLED
YELLOW -rrYY, rrYy. ROUND, GREEN-RRyy, Rryy. WRINKLED, GREEN-rryy.

Question No.40
Answer- 2. Klinefelter’s syndrome is an example for autosomal hyper‐ aneuloidy.
Explanation: - Klinefelter's syndrome, (47A+ XXY) or XXY syndrome is a condition in which human
males have an extra X chromosome. Hence it can be called as a sex chromosomal disorder. Down syndrome
or Down's syndrome, (also known as trisomy 21), is a chromosomal condition caused by the presence of all
or part of an extra 21st chromosome (44A+XX or 44A+XY). Down’s syndrome is caused by a meiotic non‐
disjunction event. With non‐disjunction (non‐separation), a gamete (i.e., a sperm or egg cell) is produced
with an extra copy of chromosome 21; the gamete thus has 24 chromosomes. When combined with a
normal gamete from the other parent, the embryo now has 47 chromosomes, with three copies of
chromosome 21. Turner syndrome (45A+ XO), is seen in human females, of which monosomy X (absence of
an entire sex chromosome, ie., X chromosome) is most common. Cri du chat syndrome is a rare genetic
disorder due to a missing part of chromosome 5. Cri du chat syndrome refers to the characteristic cat‐like
cry of affected children.

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Question No.41
Answer-2.Plasma that is separated from clotted blood.
Explanation: - In blood, the serum is the component that is neither a blood cell (serum does not
contain white or red blood cells) nor a clotting factor; it is the blood plasma with the fibrinogens removed.
Serum includes all proteins not used in blood clotting (coagulation) and all the electrolytes, antibodies,
antigens, hormones, and any exogenous substances.

Question No.42
Answer- 4. National park
Explanation: - In‐situ conservation is on‐site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources
in natural populations of plant or animal species, such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of
tree species. It is the process of protecting an endangered plant or animal species in its natural habitat,
either by protecting or cleaning up the habitat itself, or by defending the species from predators. Examples
for in‐situ conservation methods are 1.Setting up of Biosphere reserves, 2. National Parks, 3. Wild life
sanctuaries. Ex‐situ conservation means literally, "off‐site conservation". It is the process of protecting an
endangered species of plant or animal outside of its natural habitat; for example, by removing part of the
population from a threatened habitat and placing it in a new location, which may be a wild area or within
the care of humans. Ex‐situ conservation methods include cryopreservation [cryopreservation is a process
where cells or whole tissues are preserved by cooling to low sub‐zero temperatures, such as (typically) 77 K
or −196 °C (the boiling point of liquid nitrogen)],Seed bank and Zoos.

Question No.43
Answer-4. Both the statements A and B are wrong.
Explanation: - Acid rain is a rain or any other form of precipitation that is unusually acidic. Acid rain
is caused by emissions of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides which react with the water
molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids. The main sources of NO2 and SO2 are forest fires, combustion
of coal and petroleum through cars, trucks, and power plants. The health effects of SO2 and NO2 are SO2 and
NO2 both can cause lung disease in humans. In plants, the acid rain can damage leaves and retard their
growth.

Question No.44
Answer-1. Appiko movement.
Explanation: - The Appiko movement was a revolutionary movement based on
environmental conservation in India. The Chipko movement (Hug the Trees Movement) in
Uttarakhand in the Himalayas inspired the villagers of the district of Karnataka province in southern
India to launch a similar movement to save their forests. In September 1983, led by Panduranga

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Hegde, men, women and children of Salkani "hugged the trees" in Kalase forest. (The local term for
"hugging" in Kannada is appiko.) Appiko movement gave birth to a new awareness all over southern
India. Project Tiger, launched in 1973‐74, is one of our most successful conservation ventures in the
recent times. The project aims at tiger conservation in specially constituted 'tiger reserves', which
are representative of various bio‐geographical regions falling within our country. It strives to
maintain a viable tiger population in the natural environment. Narmada Bachao Andolan is social
movement consisting of tribal people, adivasis, farmers, environmentalists and human rights
activists against the Sardar Sarovar Dam being built across the Narmada river, Gujarat, India.

Question No.45
Answer- 3. Reducing worldwide emissions of green house gases
Explanation: - Global warming is the rising average temperature of Earth's atmosphere and oceans
since the late 19th century and its projected continuation. The greenhouse effect is a natural process by
which thermal radiation from a planetary surface is absorbed by atmospheric greenhouse gases, and is re‐
radiated in all directions. Since part of this re‐radiation is back towards the surface and the lower
atmosphere, it results in an elevation of the average surface temperature above what it would be in the
absence of the gases. The Kyoto Protocol is a protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC), aimed at fighting global warming. The UNFCCC is an international
environmental treaty with the goal of achieving the "stabilization of greenhouse gas concentrations in the
atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.
The Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention
for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by
phasing out the production of numerous substances believed to be responsible for ozone depletion.

Question No.46
Answer-4. Tears.
Explanation: - The non specific body defenses does not act on only one or two specific
invaders but act on anything that is non self. It includes species resistance, mechanical and chemical
barriers, inflammation, phagocytosis, natural killer cells [NK cells], Interferons and complement.
The Mechanical and chemical barriers include surface barriers such as skin, mucus membrane,
keratin of the epidermis, sweat and sebum, etc. Tears, a secretion of lachrymal glands contain
lysozyme, an antibacterial enzyme that destroys bacteria by damaging bacterial cell wall.

Question No.47
Answer-2. Cardiac muscle fiber.
Explanation: -Cardiac muscle (heart muscle) is a type of involuntary striated muscle found in the
walls of the heart, specifically the myocardium. Cardiac muscle is one of three major types of muscle, the

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others being skeletal and smooth muscle. Cardiac muscle exhibits cross striations formed by alternating
segments of thick and thin protein filaments. Intercalated discs are complex adhering structures present in
cardiac muscles and intercalated discs are an identifying feature of cardiac muscle. (Note: Recollect the
observations made during Biology Practicals).

Question No.48
Answer- 4. HCl is secreted by the parietal cells of gastric glands.
Explanation: - Gastric glands are tubular glands present in the mucus membrane of stomach.
It is provided three types of cells namely Chief or Peptic cells which secret proenzymes, Oxyntic
cells or parietal cells which secrete HCl and Goblet cells or mucus cells which secret mucus.
Enterokinase is an enzyme produced by cells of the duodenum and involved in the process of
digestion in humans. It is secreted from intestinal glands (the crypts of Lieberkühn). It converts
inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin. Bile salts [Sodium and potassium glychocholates and
taurocholates] are essential for the emulsificationof fat. Bile pigments (Bilirubin and Biliverdin)are
the breakdown products of Heme of Haemoglobin.

Question No.49
Answer-2. Virus.
Explanation: - Hepatitis B is an infectious inflammatory illness of the liver caused by the hepatitis B
virus (HBV) that affects humans.

Question No.50
Answer-3.Chordae Tendinae.

Question No.51
Answer- 1. Both statements are correct and B is the reason for A.
Explanation: - Myocardial infarction (MI) commonly known as a heart attack, results from the
interruption of blood supply to a part of the heart, causing heart cells to die. This is most commonly due to
blockage of a coronary artery. Myocardial ischemia is an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and
demand.

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Question No.52
Answer-3. Increase in intra‐pulmonary pressure
Explanation: -Inspiration or inhaling is the process of taking in the atmospheric air. This
process involves contraction of muscles. The external intercostals muscles undergo contraction.
Simultaneously, the diaphragm muscles also contract and it becomes flattened sheet. This increases
the thoracic volume and decreases the pleural pressure [from 756mm Hg to 754 mmHg] and also
the intra pulmonary pressure [from760mmHg to 758mmHg].

Question No.53
Answer- 1. The inflammation of bronchi
Explanation: - Bronchitis is inflammation of the mucous membranes of the bronchi, the airways
that carry airflow from the trachea into the lungs. Emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) involving damage to the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs. Rhinitis is a medical term for irritation
and inflammation of the mucous membrane inside the nose.

Question No.54
Answer-1. Conservation of water.
Explanation: - In the kidney, the loop of Henle (or Henle's loop) is the portion of a nephron that
leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. The major function of the loop of
Henle is the recovery of water and sodium chloride from the urine. This helps in the production of urine that
is far more concentrated than blood, limiting the amount of water needed as intake for survival. Many
species that live in arid environments such as deserts have highly efficient loops of Henle.

Question No.55
Answer-3. Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure‐ {Capsular hydrostatic pressure + Blood colloidal
pressure}

Question No.56
Answer-3. Of decreased anti‐diuretic hormone release.
Explanation: - Alcohol reduces secretion of ADH/Vasopresin, so less water is reabsorbed into the
body from nephrons of kidney. This increases the volume of urine produced.

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Question No.57
Answer-2. Parkinson’s disease.
Explanation: - Parkinson's disease is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system.It results
in tremors and muscular stiffness. One of the reasons for this is the degeneration of substantia nigra present
in the mid brain that secretes dopamine. Alzheimer's disease that results in dementia [memory loss] is
mainly due to the loss of neurons in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus that are important in learning and
memory. Huntington's disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects muscle
coordination and leads to cognitive decline and psychiatric problems. It typically becomes noticeable in mid‐
adult life. HD is the most common genetic cause of abnormal involuntary writhing movements called chorea,
and indeed the disease used to be called Huntington's chorea.

Question No.58
Answer-4. Secondary oocyte.

Question No.59
Answer-1. Progesterone.

Question No.60
Answer-3. A=Archenteron, B=Dorsal Lip, C=Yolk plug, D=Blastocoel

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