Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

Rifty Valley university Harar campus

TVET pharmacy Department

L-4 COC

Multiple Choice Questions

Direction: There are four alternatives for each question. Select the best answer from the
given alternatives and write your answer on the space provided.

1. Which of the following agents interferes with most of the cytochrome p450
enzymes and thus leads to many drug-drug interactions?
A. Famotidine
B. Omeprazole
C. Cimetidine
D. Sucralfate
2. Receptors are macromolecules that
A. Are designed to attract drugs
B. Are resistant to antagonists
C. Exist as targets for physiological neurotransmitters and hormones
3. Which one of the following statement is true about capsules?
A. The soft gelatin capsule constitutes of two parts, body and cap
B. Hard gelatin capsules can contain liquid and semisolids
C. Hard gelatin capsules do not contain plasticizer
D. Hard gelatin capsules are available in round, oval and tube like shapes
4. Which one of the following is an inorganic suspending agent?
A. Hectorite B. Starch C. Acacia D. Pectin
5. How many 0.5gm of tablet do you dispense if you have an order of 250mg
metformin bid for 1 month?
A. 15 tablets
B. 20 tablets
C. 30 tablets
D. 60 tablets
6. One of the following drugs has anti platelet action?
A. Streptokinase
B. Alteplase
C. Aspirin
D. Reteplase
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

7. Which is a part of quality assurance that ensures products are consistently

produced and controlled?
A. Good clinical practice
B. Good laboratory practice
C. Good manufacturing practice
D. Good dispensing practice
8. Which one is correctly matched?
A. Warffarin---blood coagulant
B. Vitamin K--- blood coagulant
C. Aspirin--- blood coagulant
D. Vitamin K--- blood anti- coagulant
9. Which one of the following is not the role of drug and therapeutic committee?
A. Procurement of drugs
B. Review adverse drug reaction
C. Develop formulary drugs
D. Participate quality assurance activities
[Link] one of the following diuretic increases diuresis via osmosis?
A. Manitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Spiranolactone
[Link] one of the following is true statement about loop diuretics?
A. They are the least efficacious
B. They inhibit the coupled Na+/K+/2Cl -co-transporter in the distal tubule
C. They eliminate more Na+ than water
D. They induce the synthesis of prostaglandins in kidney
12.A drug of choice in the treatment of severe hypertension.
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spiranolactone
D. Manitol
[Link] one of the following drug is used to overcome the hypokalemic effect of
diuretic drugs?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spiranolactone
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Manitol
[Link] one of the following is true statement about calcium channel blockers?
A. Can be given to asthma and angina patients
B. Cause male sexual function impairment
C. Preferred in youngsters
D. They compromise hypo-dynamics
[Link] interferes with absorption of one of the following ACEI drugs?
A. Lisinopril
B. Captopril
C. Ramipril
D. Enalapril
[Link] one of the following statement is false about ACEI drugs?
A. They are the first line drug in management of hypertension
B. They are safe in asthmatic and diabetic patients
C. They do not cause postural hypotension and electrolyte imbalance
D. They cause of secondary hyperaldoseronism and K+-loss
[Link] of the following drugs is safe during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Enalapril
C. Furosemide
D. Losartan
[Link] of the following drugs used for management of hypertensive emergency?
A. Propranolol
B. Sodium nitropruside
C. Nifedipine
D. Furosemide
[Link] one of the following statement is true?
A. Preload increases with vasodilatation
B. After load decreases with vasoconstriction
C. Contractility decreases with infracted tissue
D. Contractility decreases with sympathetic stimulation
[Link] of the following is not a result of compensatory mechanism associated with
heart failure?
A. Activation of renin-angiotensin system
B. Myocardial hypertrophy
C. Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Decrease in heart rate

[Link] of choice for treatment of CHF, especially in case of atria fibrillation
A. ACEIs
B. Diuretics
C. Cardiac glycosides
D. Beta blockers
[Link] of the following drugs used for the treatment of acute ischemic heart
diseases?
A. Organic nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Potassium channel blockers
[Link] IA ant arrhythmic drug
A. Phenytoin
B. Quinine
C. Propafenone
D. Lidocaine
[Link] to multiple organ dysfunctions as a result of pathogenic organism in the
blood.
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
[Link] drug used in the management of shock.
A. Adrenaline
B. Digoxin
C. Dobutamine
D. Dopamine
[Link] agents for increasing HDL.
A. Resins
B. Niacin
C. Statins
D. Fibrates
[Link] agent.
A. Streptokinase
B. Aspirin
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Clopidogrel
D. Ezetimibe
[Link] one is incorrect about solution pharmaceutical dosage forms?
A. Need shaking prior to measure dose
B. Convenient for extreme age groups
C. Fast onset of action than tablet
D. Suitable for microbial growth
[Link] one is incorrect?
A. Diffusible substance need thickening agent
B. Indifusble substance need thickening agent
C. Precipitate forming liquids need thickening agent
D. Poor wettable substance need wetting agent
[Link] cannot be given by one of the following route of drug
administration?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Subcutaneous
[Link] one of the following could significantly impair the ability to drive an
automobile?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Amoxicillin
C. Omeprazole
D. Ranitidine
[Link] one is wrong about antiseptic and disinfectant?
A. Antiseptic and disinfectants are chemical barriers used to prevent infections
B. Antiseptic is antimicrobial agent
C. Disinfectant: chemicals that are applied to the skin or other living tissue to
inhibit or kill microorganisms, reducing the bacterial count
D. Disinfectant: chemicals that destroy or inactivate microorganisms on inanimate
objects, such as instruments or surfaces
[Link] which of the following patients should standard precautions be applied?
A. Patients regardless of whether or not they are infected
B. Patients with HIV/ADIS
C. Patients with HIV/ADIS or hepatitis B
D. Patients who are hospitalized
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

[Link] of the following is correctly matched color coding of waste segregation?

A. Infectious---red
B. Non-infectious---black
C. Highly infectious---green
D. Radioactive---yellow
[Link] we say expiration date for commercial drugs, we can say---------for
extemporaneous.
A. Stability
B. Shelf-life
C. Beyond use date
D. Expiration date
[Link] inventory analysis which is based on value of consumption item per year.
A. ABC analysis
B. VEN analysis
C. Therapeutic category analysis
D. Cost effectiveness analysis
[Link] which one of the following conditions would aspirin be contraindicated?
A. Headache
B. Fever
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Unstable angina
38.W/ro Martha has taking phenobrbitone for here epileptic case while she is
receiving oral contraceptive, from this scenario one can say.
A. She would be pregnant due to phenobrbitone lead for ineffective of pills
B. She would be free from pregnancy as phenobrbitone has no effect on the pills
C. It is paradox to judge on the pregnancy state of Martha
D. It is up to here for being pregnant or not
[Link] one of the following shows the right drug management cycle?
A. Drug selection---drug procurement---drug use---drug distribution
B. Drug storage---drug procurement---drug distribution---drug use
C. Drug selection--- drug procurement--- drug distribution--- drug use
D. Drug use--- drug selection--- drug procurement--- drug distribution
[Link] neuritis (manifesting as paresthesias of the hands and feet) which is the
most common adverse effect of isoniazide might be due to deficiency of which
vitamin?
A. Ascorbic acid
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Niacin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Folic acid
41.A pregnant mother is hospitalized and catheterized with a folly catheter. She
developed urinary tract infection caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa and was
treated with Gentamycin. Which of the following adverse reaction was a risk to
the fetus when the woman was on Gentamycin?
A. Skeletal deformity
B. Hearing loss
C. Teratogenesis
D. Blindness
E. Mental retardation
[Link] younger than 8 years of age should not receive tetracycline because these
agents:
A. Cause rupture of tendons
B. Do not cross into CSF
C. Are not bactericidal
D. Deposited in tissues undergoing calcification
E. Can cause a plastic anemia
[Link] reason why we need dosage form design is.
A. To mask bitter, salty or offensive taste, odor of drug substance
B. To provide time controlled drug action
C. To protect drug substances from oxygen and moisture
D. All
[Link] one of the following is not true about solutions?
A. They are homogenous mixtures
B. They are also called molecular dispersion
C. Their solute component can easily be seen under microscope
D. All are correct
[Link] of the following is not true?
A. Elixirs are less sweet and less viscous than syrup
B. Elixirs less difficult to prepare than syrups
C. Elixirs require more preservative than syrups
D. Elixirs are more clear and more stable than syrups
E. All are correct
46. One of the following is different from the other.
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Gargles
B. Spirits
C. Syrups
D. Elixirs
[Link] start of production operation, one has to check the following, except?
A. All materials required for that operation are near the work place
B. All materials required for that operation are ordered to be purchased??
C. All materials required for that operation are properly labeled
D. All equipment required for that operation is in right condition
[Link] a properly labeled material, the label may not contain:
A. Name of the material
B. Batch number of the material
C. In-process test result
D. Expiry date of the material
[Link] non-medicinal agents that are used stabilize, dilute, suspend, preserve, color,
flavor medicinal agents into efficacious and appealing dosage forms.
A. Excipient
B. Active ingredient
C. Gargles
D. Spirits
[Link] the substance in dosage form which has activity desired for medicinal purpose?
A. Excipient
B. Active ingredient
C. Gargles
D. Spirits
[Link] aqueous solutions used to prevent or treat throat infections?
A. Excipient
B. Active ingredient
C. Gargles
D. Spirits
[Link] alcoholic or aqueous solutions of volatile substance?
A. Excipient
B. Active ingredient
C. Gargles
D. Spirits
[Link] an oily or aqueous solution or suspensions which are administered rectally.
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Collodions
B. Enema
C. Spirits
D. Gargles
[Link] fluid preparations for external use for local effect, they consist of pyroxilin
dissolved in a solvent mixture of organic solvents (alcohol or ether with or
without added medicinal agents.
A. C ollodions
B. Enema
C. Spirits
D. Gargles
[Link] one is not true about flocculated suspensions?
A. Suspended particles will form loosely bond
B. Will settle faster
C. Will form hard cake
D. Easily re-disperse on shaking
[Link] one is false about master batch/work sheet?
A. It is specific to a batch but not specific to a product??
B. It is clearly written
C. It contains all required information
D. It contains unambiguous directions
57.A science that deals with dosage form design is?
A. Pharmacology
B. Pharmacognosy
C. Pharmaceutics
D. Organic chemistry
[Link] excipient that added to a pharmaceutical formulation to mask bad odor.
A. Active ingredient
B. Coloring agent
C. Preservative
D. Flavoring agent
[Link] one of the following methods is used to detect the presence of pyrogenic
substances in a given pharmaceutical product?
A. Clarity test
B. Stability test
C. Leaker test
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Rabbit test
[Link] of the following is a sterile product?
A. Ophthalmic preparations
B. Oral preparations
C. Rectal preparations
D. Dermal preparations
[Link] one of the following anticancer drugs is plant origin?
A. Methotrexate
B. Dactinomycin
C. Vincristine
D. Procarbazine
[Link] one of the following is the correct method of disposal for anticancer drugs?
A. Sewer to stagnant water
B. Encapsulation
C. Low temperature incineration
D. Burial
[Link] of the following is not part of precautions of sterile products?
A. Cleansing the equipments
B. Assuring the sterility of raw materials
C. Avoiding the contamination possibilities
D. Preparing in an ordinary rooms
[Link] of the following is wrong about parenteral products?
A. Suitable for drugs irritating the GIT
B. Suitable for drugs not stable in the GIT
C. It is easy to reverse after administration
D. Suitable for orally less absorbable drugs
[Link] of the following compounding procedure requires aseptic condition?
A. Preparation of IV admixtures
B. Preparation of oral solutions
C. Reconstitution of powdered drugs for oral administration
D. Preparations of dermatological products
[Link] of the following can be taken as a disadvantage of parenteral products.
A. It is suitable for rapid action
B. Suitable for unconscious patients
C. Dose is accurate
D. Need of trained personnel for administration
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

[Link] X is manufactured on January 1, 2014 and it will expire on June 2016.

Assuming that the drug will be handled according to the manufacturer’s storage
instructions, how long will be the shelf-life of drug X in months?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 17
D. 15
68.A liquid medicine is supplied in a concentration of 20mg/ 5ml. A patient requires
40mg orally three times daily for 5 days, then 20mg three times daily for 5 days,
then 20mg twice daily for 5 days and then 20mg once daily for 5 days. Which of
the following is the volume of a liquid medicine that you will need to dispense?
A. 600ml
B. 300ml
C. 200ml
D. 60ml
[Link] one of the following is the appropriate classification of wastes like
cytotoxic drugs and radio active compounds?
A. General waste
B. Hazardous waste
C. Medical waste
D. None
[Link] most potent diuretics available are.
A. CA inhibitors
B. Thiazides
C. Loop diuretics
D. Potassium sparing diuretics
[Link] of the following is potassium sparing diuretic?
A. Furosemide
B. Spiranolactone
C. Acetazolamide
D. Manitol
[Link] of the following H-2 receptor antagonists suffers little first pass metabolism.
A. Cimetidine
B. Famotidine
C. Nizatidine
D. Ranitidine
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

[Link] of the following is an adverse effect of Cimetidine except?

A. Impotency
B. Galactorrhea
C. Gynecomastia
D. GERD
[Link] increases one of the following except?
A. Acid secretion
B. Bicarbonate secretion
C. Mucus secretion
D. Mucosal blood flow
[Link] very good reason why Al(OH)3 and Mg(OH)2 are given in combination for
the treatment of peptic ulcer disease is:
A. To increase their antacid effect
B. To neutralize their adverse effects
C. To avoid drug resistance
D. To improve test of Al(OH)3
76.A non-digest able sugar which is indicated for hepatic encephalopathy.
A. Glycerin
B. Lactulose
C. Sorbitol
D. Manitol
[Link] of the following is true about antacids?
A. They reduce acid secretion
B. They inhibit H+/K+ ATPase exchange
C. They neutralize already secreted acid
D. They decrease the PH of the stomach
E. They are used to treat peptic ulcer caused by [Link]
[Link] antipyretic is a drug that relieves
A. Fever
B. Inflammation
C. Pain
D. Sleeplessness
[Link] immune deficiency syndrome (ADIS) is
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Fungal infection
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Mutagenic disease
[Link] that affect mind are
A. Stimulants
B. Depressants
C. Hallucinogens
D. All of the above
[Link] are
A. Analgesics
B. Depressants
C. Stimulants
D. Hallucinogens
[Link] that block the action of other substances are called
A. Agonists
B. Antagonists
C. Additives
D. Analgesics
[Link] of the following is indicated for peptic ulcer except?
A. Aspirin
B. Cimetidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Magnesium hydroxide
84. The best drug of choice for typhoid
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
[Link] mechanism of action of one of the following drug is different from the other
A. Streptomycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Ceftriaxone
[Link] of the following antibacterial agents have narrow spectrum of activity?
A. Penicillins
B. Amino glycosides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Tetracyclines
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

E. Chloramphenicol
[Link] of the following agent is not indicated for tuberculosis
A. Isoniazide
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
E. None
88. One is not true about Metronidazole?
A. It kills cysts but does not kill trophozoites
B. It is nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
C. It has shorter duration of action than tinidazole
D. It is effective for both intestinal and extra-intestinal amebiasis
89.A drug of choice for tapeworm infection
A. Piperazine citrate
B. Niclosamide
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
[Link] one of the following is not antifungal agent?
A. Nystatin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Zinc propionate
[Link] activity of beta-lactamase enzymes can be overcome by administering
---------------
A. Clavulanic acid
B. Sulbactam
C. B-lactamase enzyme inhibitors
D. All
[Link] of the following is not true about amoxicillin and ampicillin?
A. Both ampicillin and amoxicillin are bactericidal
B. Both ampicillin and amoxicillin are acid stable
C. Both ampicillin and amoxicillin are mainly excreted via kidney
D. None of the above
[Link] of the following is not true about cephalosporins.
A. The four generations of cephalosporins are different from each other in
antimicrobial spectrum, potency and pharmacokinetics
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. First generation cephalosporins have more activity against gram negative

than gram positive bacteria
C. First generation cephalosporins do not cross the BBB and cannot be used to treat
meningitis
D. When we go from first to fourth generation cephalosporins generally activity
against gram negative bacterial increases
E. All second generation cephalosporins are less active against gram positive
bacteria than the first generation drugs
[Link] of the following is true about Clavulanic acid in Augmentin?
A. Clavulanic acid is a B-lactamase inhibitor
B. Clavulanic acid destroy bacteria which produce penicillin
C. Clavulanic acid and amoxicillin have similar pharmacokinetics
D. None
[Link] of the following drug is given with imipenem to prevent enzymatic
hydrolysis of imipenem
A. Salbactam
B. Tazobactam
C. Clavulanic acid
D. Cilastatin
[Link] of the following is B-lactamase resistant penicillin?
A. Procaine penicillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Penicillin V
[Link] first antibacterial drugs were?
A. Sulfa drugs
B. Tetracyclines
C. Penicillins
D. Cephalosporins
[Link] antibacterial drug interferes with the formation of cell wall in bacteria?
A. Sulfa drugs
B. Penicillins
C. Tetracyclines
D. PABA
[Link] bind to bacterial ribosome and inhibit bacterial
A. Energy conversion
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Cell membrane formation

C. DNA replication in the cell nucleus
D. Protein synthesis
100. Where are antimicrobials derived from?
A. Microorganisms
B. Macrorganisms
C. Microsoft
D. Fleming
101. One disadvantage of sulfa drug is
A. Damage to the kidneys
B. Damage to the brain
C. That they cause euphoria
D. Damage to the liver
102. Cotrimoxazole is a combination of drugs namely
A. Sulphadoxine and trimethoprime
B. Sulphadoxine and pyrimethamine
C. Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprime
D. None of the above
103. One of the following is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor except?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Bacitracin
D. Clindamycin
104. One of the following is a second generation cephalosporin
A. Cephalothin
B. Cefaclor
C. C efazolin
D. Ceftriaxone
105. Which of the following is not true about chloroquine?
A. It is ant malarial agent
B. It has ant amoebic and anti-inflammatory action
C. It is contraindicated in pregnancy
D. It causes ototoxicity
106. The ability of antimicrobial to harm a pathogen without harming the host is
called.
A. Super infection
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Cross-resistance
C. Selective toxicity
D. Resistance
107. A patient taking one of the following drugs is advised to take two to three
litters of water every day.
A. Tetracyclines
B. Sulphonamides
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Quinolones
108. One of the following is not indicated for tuberculosis
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Gentamycin
109. Which drug should not be given with sulphaonamides?
A. Trimethoprime
B. Methenamine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Dapsone
110. Which drug has antimicrobial activity?
A. Clavulanic acid
B. Aztreonam
C. Sulbactam
D. Tazobactam
111. Renal impaired patients should not be treated with any of the following
Tetracyclines except?
A. Minocycline
B. Doxycycline
C. chlortetracycline
D. tetracycline
112. The most common antibiotics responsible for super infection
A. Amino glycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Quinolones
D. Penicillins
113. One of the following amino glycosides is not indicated for systemic purpose
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Streptomycin
B. Gentamycin
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
114. One of the following amino glycosides can substitute streptomycin in the
treatment of TB
A. Gentamycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
115. Un expected, un predicted, strange or unique response to drugs
A. Anaphylactic response
B. Side effects
C. Idiosyncratic response
D. Allergic reactions
116. Which drug nomenclature system remains the same all over the world?
A. Generic
B. Brand
C. Proprietary
D. All of the above
117. The transfer of a drug from the site of administration to the circulation system
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
118. Plasma protein binding of drugs mainly affect their
A. Absorption
B. Metabolism
C. Distribution
D. Excretion
119. A condition of drug-drug interaction in which the effect of two drugs given
together is greater than the sum of each drug alone.
A. Additive
B. Synergism
C. Antagonism
D. Agonist
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

120. Drugs that block the action of other substances are called
A. Agonists
B. Antagonists
C. Additives
D. Analgesics
121. For which disease conditions are opioids not given?
A. Cough
B. Diarrhea
C. Constipation
D. Sever pain
122. One of the following is not focus of pharmaceutics
A. Compounding formulations
B. Elucidating structure of drugs
C. Packaging methods
D. Dosage form design
123. One reason why we need dosage form design is
A. To mask bitter, salty or offensive taste, odor of drugs
B. To provide time controlled drug action
C. To protect drug substances from oxygen and moisture
D. All are correct
124. Which one of the following is not true about solutions?
A. They are homogenous mixtures
B. They are also called molecular dispersions
C. Their solute component can easily be seen under microscope
D. All are correct
125. Which one of the following is not true?
A. Elixirs are less sweet and less viscous than syrups
B. Elixirs are less difficult to prepare than syrups
C. Elixirs require more preservative than syrups
D. Elixirs are more clear and stable than syrup
E. All are correct
126. The amount of drug substance taken at one time
A. Dose
B. Dosage
C. Dosage form
D. Medicine
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

127. The substance(s) in a dosage form which has the activity desired for medicinal
purpose is called
A. Active ingredient
B. Excipient
C. Adjuncts
D. Additive
128. One of the following is different from the other
A. Gargles
B. Spirits
C. Syrups
D. Elixirs
129. Pharmaceutics is a science and art of dosage form design. A. true
B. False
130. The “VEN” system indicates a means of structuring drugs by
A. Alphabetical order
B. Level of health care
C. Level of importance
D. Pharmaco-theraputic order
131. One of the following may affect supply system
A. Rules, regulations and structure of the system
B. Nature of procurement policy
C. The relationship between internal local procurement regulations
D. Market information
132. One of the following is not possible cause of stock outs
A. Increase in average monthly consumption
B. Decrease in average monthly consumption
C. Delay in delivery of purchased drugs
D. All
133. Are agents which are meant to increase the viscosity of the vehicle in a
suspension there by slowing down sedimentation?
A. Thickening agents
B. Viscosity enhancing agents
C. Suspending agents
D. All
134. Drug substances are prepared in a suspension form
A. When the drug substance is insoluble in suitable solvents
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. When the drug substance has disagreeable taste in its soluble form
C. When the preparation is unstable in its soluble form
D. When prolonged action of the drug is desired
E. All
135. Suspensions cannot be given by one of the following route of administration
A. Intramuscular
B. Intra-articular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
136. In an emulsion, the dispersed liquid is known as
A. Continuous phase
B. External phase
C. Internal phase
D. Dispersion medium
137. One of the following is different from the others
A. Suspension
B. Ointment
C. Solution
D. Emulsion
138. The ability of pharmaceutical product to retain its chemical, physical,
microbiological and biopharmaceutical properties within specified limits
throughout its shelf-life is termed as its
A. Potency
B. Identity
C. Stability
D. Strength
139. Which one of the following is true about chewable tablets?
A. They are intended to give sustained release
B. They cannot be taken unless with water
C. They do not require any disintegrant
D. They do not require sweeteners and flavoring agent
140. One of the following tablets must be sterile?
A. Chewable tablets
B. Hypodermic tablets
C. Effervescent tablets
D. Oral tablets
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

141. Lozenges or troches are mainly taken

A. For local effects
B. For systemic effects
C. For both local and systemic effects
D. None
142. Suppository is a
A. Solid dosage form
B. Semi-solid dosage form
C. Liquid dosage form
D. A and B
143. Suppositories used for insertion into the vagina are known as
A. Bougies
B. Buginaria
C. Pessaries
D. Aurinaria
144. Which anti-TB drug has activity for bacteria other than mycobacterium?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. All
145. Which anti-TB drug is contraindicated in children bellow six years of age?
A. INH
B. Rifampin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
146. One of the following is not a systemic antifungal
A. Amphotercin B
B. Ketokonazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Miconazole
147. Chloroquine is indicated for one of the following except?
A. Malaria
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Extra intestinal amebiasis
D. None
148. One of the following is not true about chloroquine?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. It can effect cure of malaria caused by any plasmodium species

B. It is best administered by parenteral route
C. It is completely contraindicated to pregnant women
D. All
149. Which plasmodium forms are best treated primaquine?
A. P. vivax
B. [Link]
C. Gametocytes
D. A and B
150. One of the following is not true about quinine?
A. It is first line drug for falciparum malaria
B. It is effective against liver stage parasites
C. It causes Cinchonism and hypoglycemia
D. It is gametocidal against [Link] and [Link] but not falciparum
E. None
151. It is both antibacterial and antiprotozoal agent.
A. Metronidazole
B. Doxycycline
C. Fansider
D. All
152. An effective luminal amebicidal
A. Emetine
B. Chloroquine
C. Diloxanide furote
D. All
153. Is the drug of choice for kala-azar
A. Metronidazole
B. Sodium stibogluconate
C. Amphotercin B
D. Allopurinol
154. Which antihelmenthic drug is safe for pregnant women?
A. Niclosamide
B. Mebendazole
C. Albendazole
D. Ivermectin
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

155. The most dangerous species responsible for nearly all serious complications
and death of malaria is
A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. P. vivax
D. P. ovale
156. One of the following conditions makes TB treatment difficult?
A. Mycobacterium grow slowly
B. Mycobacterium reside inside macrophages
C. Many drugs fail to penetrate mycobacterial cell wall
D. Mycobacterium develop resistance rapidly
E. All
157. Which form of Histolytica is infective?
A. Trophozoites B. Cyst
158. Nifurtimox is best indicated for
A. Sleeping sickness B. Chagas’s disease
159. Penicillin not used to treat protozoa b/c protozoa lacks
A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleic acid synthesis
C. Peptidoglycan cell wall
D. Protein synthesis
160. Which of the following is the dose to treat of PCP?
A. Co-trimoxazole 980mg po bid for 21 days
B. Co-trimoxazole 120mg/kg po bid for 1month
C. Co-trimoxazole 480mg po bid for 21 days
D. Co-trimoxazole 480mg/960mg po qd for 01month
161. Combined effect of drug is
A. Additive
B. Potentiation
C. Antagonism
D. All
162. The dose of Metronidazole for the treatment of cyst amoeba is?
A. Metronidazole 500mg pot id for 10days
B. Metronidazole 500mg pot id for 5 days
C. Metronidazole 750mg pot id for 10days
D. Metronidazole 50mg pot id for 30 days
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

163. Which model is used to issue drugs?

A. Model 20
B. Model 19
C. Model 22
D. No modulate at all
164. If 100ml contains total of 20 doses, what is the amount in each dose?
A. 1tsp C. 5 tsp
B. 2 tsp D. 10 tsp
165. Which one is non-opioid Antitussives?
A. Terfandil
B. Chloridine
C. Dextromethorphan
D. All
166. If the adult dose is 400mg bid for 5 days, what is the dose of 6 years of child?
A. 200mg bid for 5 days
B. 300mg bid for 5 days
C. 400mg bid for 5 days
D. 150mg bid for 5 days
167. Not fat soluble vitamins
A. Vitamin A, D, K
B. Vitamin D and E
C. Vitamin A and K
D. Vitamin B
168. Which one of the following is anti-asthmatic drug?
A. Sympathomemitics
B. Methyl xanthine
C. Corticosteroids
D. All
169. Which method is used in new health institution?
A. Morbidity method
B. Consumption method
C. Adjusted consumption method
D. Service level projection method
170. The major organ for excretion of drug is
A. Liver
B. Kidney
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Skin
D. Gut lumen
171. The main side effect of Aminoglycosides?
A. Nephrotoxic
B. Hepatotoxic
C. Osteoporosis
D. A and B
172. One of the following is true
A. Methyl dopa is alpha 2 agonist which inhibit Na+ release
B. Methyl dopa is alpha 2 antagonist which inhibit Na+ release
C. Reserpine is responsible for inhibiting Na+ release
D. All
173. The principle of pharmaceuticals and its active ingredient loss is due to
A. Deterioration on storage
B. Deterioration on manufacturing
C. Decomposition on storage
D. All
174. TTC is contraindicated for under 8 years and pregnancy b/c
A. Impact on bone growth
B. Impact on teeth
C. Calcium depletion
D. All
175. Which one of the following is true about Narcotics except?
A. They relieves pain
B. They causes addiction
C. They are prescribed by psychiatric prescription
D. All
176. Total urine content (total drug excretion) is determined by
A. Glomeruli filtration
B. Tubular secretion
C. Tubular re-absorption
D. All
177. Which one of the following is a systemic antacid?
A. NaHco3
B. Al(OH)3
C. Mg(OH)2
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Sodium citrate
178. Uricosoric drug
A. Probenecid
B. Allopurinol
C. Colchicines
D. Aspirin
179. Which drug is indicated for acute gout?
A. Probenecid
B. Colchicines
C. Sulfinpyrazone
D. Allopurinol
180. Which NSAID has no anti-inflammatory action?
A. Paracetamol
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Diclofenac
181. One of the following is true about Colchicine?
A. It inhibits synthesis of uric acid
B. It inhibits release of WBC
C. It promotes excretion of uric acid
D. It decreases uric acid level in the blood
182. One of the following is incorrect about aspirin?
A. Analgesic
B. Antipyretic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Anticoagulant
E. All are correct
183. One of the following is angiotensin receptor antagonist?
A. Losartan
B. Inamrinone
C. Enalapril
D. Captopril
184. One of the following is not symptom of CHF?
A. Tachycardia
B. Shortness of breath
C. Edema
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. None
185. Verapamil is indicated for one of the following?
A. Hypertension
B. Angina
C. Arrhythmia
D. All
186. ARBs indicated for one of the following except?
A. Hypertension
B. CHF
C. Detection or rennin dependant hypertension
D. None of the above
187. Colorants may be used for one of the following purpose except?
A. To mask un-pleasant appearance
B. To increase acceptability to patients
C. To aid identification of drugs
D. To give warning
188. Are concentrated aqueous preparations of sugar or sugar substituents?
A. Spirits
B. Syrups
C. Elixirs
D. All
189. Stock record card can tell us about
A. Expiry date
B. Price fluctuation
C. Rate of drug utilization
D. All
190. Most vaccines are administered primary for
A. Treatment purpose
B. Prophylactic purpose
C. Diagnosis purpose
D. All
191. It is sterile water for injection containing one or more antimicrobial agents
A. Purified water
B. Water for injection
C. Sterile water for injection
D. Bacteriostatic water for injection
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

192. Oral tablets which are placed under the tongue

A. Sublingual
B. Buccal
C. Dental cones
D. All
193. Stating that drugs should be prescribed by their generic name represents
A. Educational strategy
B. Regulatory strategy
C. Managerial strategy
D. All
194. One of the following is not impact of irrational drug use?
A. Increased morbidity and mortality
B. Wastage of limited resources
C. Increased risk of unwanted effects
D. Psychosocial impact
E. None
195. Dispensing problems may stem from the
A. Dispensing staff
B. Workplace
C. Supply system
D. All
196. Advise to patients should concentrate on
A. When to take the medicine
B. How to take the medicine
C. How to store and care to the medicine
D. All
197. Rational prescribing means
A. Appropriate indication
B. Appropriate drug
C. Appropriate patient
D. All
198. Which one of the following method of arranging drugs in storage facility is
used where the drugs are issued/managed by their expiry dates?
A. FIFO
B. FEFO
C. LIFO
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. FILO
199. Refrigerator storage refers to
A. 2◦C -8◦C
B. 8◦C-15◦C
C. 2◦F-8◦F
D. 15◦C-25◦C
200. Normal storage conditions for drugs have been specified as
A. Frozen conditions (bellow 0◦C)
B. Room temperature (15◦C to 25/30◦C)
C. Sore at a cool place (8◦C-15◦C)
D. Refrigerator temperature (2◦C-8◦C)
201. Which one of the following is true regarding proper storage?
A. Low value products are kept at security zones
B. Liquids are placed on the top of the shelf
C. Disinfect the stores regularly
D. Fire safety equipment is not needed
202. Unless special condition is stated drugs should be stored in
A. Refrigerator
B. Room temperature
C. Cool place
D. Cold chain
203. Which one of the following describes the management process that makes
sure stock is ordered, delivered and handled in the best possible way?
A. Stock on hand
B. Stock control
C. Stock take
D. Stock procurement
204. Which one of the following is correct about stock record card?
A. It should be kept at each lot of item/bin
B. It has batch number column
C. It has price column
D. It should be filled and updated by the store keeper
205. Which one of the following is correct about bin card?
A. It contains location code
B. It has batch number column
C. It has price column
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. It should be kept or hold by head of pharmacy

206. Identify the correct alternative regarding forms/documents used during stock
flow
A. Model 20 is used for receiving of supplies and drugs
B. Model 19 is used for requesting of supplies and drugs
C. Model 22 is used for issuing of supplies and drugs
D. Model 19 is used for issuing of supplies and drugs
207. One of the following is liquid pharmaceutical waste disposal methods
A. Landfill
B. Sewer
C. Incineration
D. Waste encapsulation
208. What are non-pathogenic, live organisms that are beneficially affect the host
by improving microbial balance?
A. Prebiotics
B. Probiotics
C. Soluble fibers
D. Insoluble fibers
209. Which of the following diuretic is indicated in case of sever hypertension
which is associated with renal failure, heart failure or liver cirrhosis?
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Potassium sparing diuretics
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
210. Which one of the following anti-hypertensive drug is contraindicated in
patients with bronchial asthma?
A. Propranolol
B. Clonidine
C. Enalapril
D. Nifedipine
211. The study of the harmful/toxic effects of drugs
A. Clinical pharmacology
B. Cardiovascular pharmacology
C. Toxicology
D. Autonomic pharmacology
212. Which one of the following is not a factor for incomplete drug absorption?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Drug hydrophilicity
B. Drug instability in gastric acid
C. Presence and type of food in the GI tract
D. Plasma protein binding
213. Identify the route of drug administration that have “first pass” hepatic effects
A. Sub-lingual
B. Oral
C. Intra venous
D. Inhalational
214. Identify the false statement concerning Pharmacodynamics
A. Therapeutic and biological properties of a compound
B. Absorption and distribution of a therapeutic compound
C. Mechanisms of action of a therapeutic compound
D. What the drug dose to the body
215. Condition or a state in which the drug should not prescribed or administered is
referred as
A. Precaution
B. Contraindication
C. Side effect
D. Drug interaction
216. For drug to drug interaction which is related with absorption, distribution,
biotransformation and excretion is --------------
A. Pharmacodynamics interaction
B. Pharmaceutical interaction
C. Physical and chemical interaction
D. Pharmacokinetic interaction
217. A type of drug interaction which occurs when the combined effects of the
two drugs are much greater than the sum of the effects of each agent give alone is-
---------------
A. Synergism
B. Additive
C. Potentiation
D. Antagonism
218. Identify the term which refers to the maximum attainable effect of a drug.
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Intrinsic activity
D. Therapeutic index
219. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two well-known
A. Postsynaptic receptors
B. Enzymes that rapidly inactivate NTs
C. Drugs of abuse
D. NTs
220. Drugs that antagonize the actions of acetylcholine are known as--------------
A. Cholinocepter antagonists
B. Adrenocepter antagonists
C. Cholinomimetics
D. Adrenomimetics
221. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because
A. It is very toxic
B. The dose required is very high
C. It is very rapidly hydrolyzed
D. It is very costly
222. Which one of the following anticholinesterase drug which has an additional
direct nicotinic agonist effect?
A. Edrophonium
B. Carbacol
C. Neostigmine
D. Lobeline
223. Identify the Cholinomimetics drug which is commonly used in the treatment
glaucoma
A. Pilocarpine
B. Lobeline
C. Acetylcholine
D. Nicotine
224. Choose the longest acting B2 bronchodilator
A. Ipratropium
B. Salmeterol
C. Ephedrine
D. Theophyline
225. Which of the following Cholinomimetics is used in the treatment of atropine
intoxication?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Neostigmine
B. Carbacol
C. Physiostigmine
D. Lobeline
226. Pharmacokinetics deals with
A. The action of the drug on the body
B. The movement and alteration of drugs by the body
C. What the body dose the drug
D. B and C
227. Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors
A. Pirenzepine
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Trimethaphan
228. Choose the drug that causes constipation
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Aluminum hydroxide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Magnesium oxide
229. Pernicious anemia is developed due to deficiency of
A. Erythropoietin
B. Vitamin B-12
C. Iron
D. Vitamin B-6
230. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout acts by preventing
the migration of granulocytes?
A. Allopurinol
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Colchicine
D. Indomethacin
231. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout has as its primary
effect in the reduction of uric acid synthesis?
A. Allopurinol
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Colchicine
D. Indomethacin
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

232. The prophylactic agent of choice for treatment of asthma is?

A. Cromulyn acetate
B. Prednisone
C. Ipratropium
D. Salbutamol
233. Bronchodilators which are first line agents in COPD are?
A. Ipratropium
B. Prednisone
C. Salmeterol
D. Ephedrine
234. Most effective at inhibiting nocturnal acid secretion
A. Antacids
B. H-2 blockers
C. Proton pump inhibitors
D. H-1 blockers
235. An advantage of Rofecoxib over most other NSAIDs is:
A. Weak inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis
B. Causes minimal gastric irritation
C. Highly selective and specific COX-2 inhibitor
D. Greater degree of efficacy
236. Unwanted effects of the use of glucocorticoids
A. Suppression of response to infection
B. Suppression of endogenous glucocorticoids synthesis
C. Metabolic actions
D. Osteoporosis
E. All
237. A commonly used drug as a nonprescription remedy for the treatment of
intermittent heartburn and dyspepsia
A. Antacids
B. H-2 blockers
C. Proton pump inhibitors
D. H1 blockers
238. Drugs which produce reversible loss of all sensation and consciousness
A. General anesthetics
B. Local anesthetics
C. Analgesics
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. All
239. Which of the following drug is local anesthetic?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Ketamine
D. Lidocaine
240. Which one of the following express PH of parenteral Iv solutions?
A. PH of less than 7
B. PH value more than 7
C. PH with neutral value
D. PH value greater than 7 or less than 7
241. To do quantification in a given facility it needs an annual exercise that ends
when the final quantities and costs of the commodities have been determined,
there are also different methods of quantification, of the following one is an
important requirement to do quantification using consumption method?
A. Drug supply at facility has been consistent
B. The health facility or services concerned are not expanding or contracting rapidly
C. Prescribing patterns are not cost effective
D. Mortality data in the facility recorded appropriately
242. Which of the following is the appropriate classification of wastes like
cytotoxic drugs and radioactive compounds?
A. General waste
B. Hazardous waste
C. Medical waste
D. None
243. A man is taking a regimen consisting with ZDV, 3TC, NVP for the treatment
of HIV infection and ibuprofen as anti-pain. He is coming with a complain of skin
rash, Steven-Johnson-Syndrome and hepatotoxicity. Which of the following drug
is known to cause this side effect?
A. ZDV
B. 3TC
C. NVP
D. Ibuprofen
244. Which one of the following ingredients stabilizes a solution against
degradation?
A. Solutes
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Tonicity modifiers
C. Buffering agents
D. Antioxidants
245. A client having a cough for more than 2 weeks come to a clinic, the clinician
diagnoses with laboratory and x-ray found the client has Tuberculosis, and then he
decided that the client should start treatment with, which of the following drugs
are recommended for the first two months?
A. RHZE
B. RH
C. RHZ
D. RHE
246. Which of the following favors a pull system in pharmaceutical distribution?
A. Limited amount of products
B. Availability of large range of products
C. Staffs are not competent to prepare consumption
D. Occurrence of emergency
247. Newly established health facility wants to quantify pharmaceuticals for an
annual procurement. The institution uses consumption data from the nearby health
facility for quantification. Which method of quantification is the health facility
used?
A. Morbidity method
B. Consumption method
C. Projection method
D. Adjusted consumption method
248. Which one of the following refers the first in the packaging process of sterile
products?
A. Filling and assembling
B. Sterilization in the final container
C. Placing labels on the container
D. Storage at the manufacturing and shipping sites
249. A health institution called X faces challenge to give a quality service. The
institution managers need to apply a continuous improvement system (kaizen).
Which of the following actions will create options for continuous improvement?
A. Encourage, test and recognized new ideas and entrepreneurial behavior
B. Discourage failure of an idea during trailing
C. Failure to take risk management and cost benefit analyses
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Disprove innovations in the organization

250. Which one of the following word/phrase refers to innovative work skill?
A. Work priorities
B. Organizational restructures
C. Introduction of new technology
D. Interpretation
251. If a pharmacy professional who is involved in medium business operations
lacks time management strategies. Which one of the following be your advice to
him
A. Grouping large tasks into one
B. To have short term and long term planning and scheduling
C. To create a positive and organized work environment
D. To prioritize tasks
252. Which one of the following drug excipient enhances the effectiveness of
antioxidants?
A. Solublizers
B. Tonicity agents
C. C helating agents
D. Emulsifiers
253. Plastic polymers used as sterile preparation containers and have one of the
following advantages.
A. Permeation of vapors and other molecules in either direction through the
container
B. Leaching of the constituents from the plastic into the preparation
C. Sorption of drug molecules onto the plastic
D. Flexible in structure and light in weight
254. If a pharmacy needs to store X drug in a freezer to maintain its integrity,
which one of the following temperature range you will recommend to store the
medicament?
A. Store between 2 and 8◦C
B. Store bellow 8◦C
C. Store between -5 ◦C and -20◦C
D. Store bellow -18◦C
255. Which one of the following raw materials of sterile product is not correctly
matched with its use?
A. Benzalkonium chloride-----------------------emulsifier
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Chelating agent --------------------------------sodium edentate

C. Solublizer ---------------------------------------polyethylene glycol (PEG)
D. Tonicity agent --------------------------------sodium chloride
256. Which one of the following pharmaceutical preparation needs sterile
procedure?
A. Preparation of capsule shells
B. Preparations of oral solutions
C. Preparation of powder of tablets
D. Filling unit dose syringes
257. Which of the following the preferred order of control measures for OHS risks?
A. Elimination -------Engineering ------------Administration----------Substitution
B. Elimination ------- Substitution ---------------Engineering --------------
Administration
C. Substitution ---------Elimination -----------Engineering---------------Administration
D. Administration --------Elimination ------- Substitution -----------Engineering
258. Which one of the following is the final stage in completing sterile production
process?
A. Place product in quarantine area
B. Cleaning machinery and manufacturing area
C. Machinery and equipment records
D. Documentation, reporting, and clearance
259. If the month of stock is 0.5months and the average calculated monthly
consumption in the reporting period is 50 units, what is the stock on hand?
A. 100 units
B. 50.5 units
C. 25 units
D. 10 units
260. Which one of the following items is not correctly matched to their storage
area/site?
A. Vaccines -----------Cold storage
B. Narcotics ----------Locked/secure room
C. Heavy products -------Top of the shelf
D. Flammables ------------Separate building
261. A 36 years old woman is admitted and receiving chemotherapy for her breast
cancer. She is unable to take oral nutrition or fluid for the last three days. Which
one of the following IV fluid recommended for this patient?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Normal saline
B. Ringer lactate
C. Dextrose in normal saline
D. Mannitol
262. An eight years old boy is diagnosed with fluid loss. He has received an IV
fluid for hours. After administration IV fluid a blood test shows his RBC is
damaged due to swelling/turbidity. What would be the tonicity of the fluid he is
taking?
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. Isosmotic
263. An admitted patient was on normal saline fluid treatment and the patient
develops high fever. His physician changes the fluid to dextrose in normal saline.
The patient develops sever fever. What would be the possible cause of fever?
A. Pyrogen in the DNS
B. Hypertonicity of DNS
C. Acidity of DNS
D. Hypotonicity of DNS
264. A drug store manager has received a pharmaceutical product with a
manufacturing date of January, 2013 and a shelf-life of 20 months to this date.
When will be the pharmaceutical product expires?
A. September 2015
B. August 2014
C. December 2014
D. February 2015
265. The label on pharmaceutical product by the manufacturer instructs to store in
a cold storage. Which one of the following is the appropriate storage condition?
A. 2-8◦C
B. 8-15◦C
C. 15-25◦C
D. 20-30◦C
266. A 27 years old woman was on first line antiTB drugs for the last 40 days. She
is taking oral contraceptives for birth control. Yesterday she come to MCH class
with a compliant of nausea, vomiting, amenorrhea. A pregnancy test shows she is
pregnant. Which one of the anti-TB drug caused failure of her contraceptive?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethambutol
267. All of the following information are parts of master worksheet in the
preparation of extemporaneous product except:
A. Patient history
B. Storage and stability data
C. Preparation instruction
D. List of raw materials
268. One of the following is not true about labeling of pharmaceutical products?
A. It should be written clearly
B. It should contain ambiguous directions
C. It should include other hazard warnings
D. It should follow legislative requirements
269. Part of the label that measures efficacy of a preparation is:
A. Batch No
B. Expiry date
C. Quantity
D. Name of the preparation
270. Which type of bases can absorb water to become W/O emulsion?
A. Hydrocarbon bases
B. Emulsion bases
C. Absorption bases
D. Water soluble bases
271. During dispensing extemporaneous preparations, if you encounter one missing
ingredient in your stock, how do you communicate to solve the problem?
A. Communicate with the prescriber to manage the problem
B. Replace the missing ingredient without consulting the prescriber
C. Perform the compounding with the remaining ingredients
D. Reject to perform the compounding
272. One is correct about manufacturing and extemporaneous compounding?
A. Manufacturing refers to small scale production of pharmaceuticals
B. Manufacturing refers to large scale production of pharmaceuticals at laboratory
level
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Extemporaneous preparation refers to large scale compounding of

pharmaceuticals
D. Extemporaneous preparation refers to small scale production of pharmaceuticals
at laboratory level
273. Chelation of Ca, Al, Fe, Mg ions with tetracycline affects:
A. Absorption of tetracycline
B. Distribution of tetracycline
C. Metabolism of tetracycline
D. Excretion of tetracycline
274. Generally, one of the following is wrong about excipients?
A. Excipients should be compatible with the active ingredients
B. Excipients have impact on efficacy
C. The cost of excipients for formulation should be considered
D. Excipients are biologically active
275. Based on physical state of dosage form, which one is different from the
others?
A. Lotions
B. Suspensions
C. Suppositories
D. Creams
276. A clear, pleasantly flavored, sweetened hydro-alcoholic liquid intended for
oral administration is:
A. Elixir
B. Emulsion
C. Syrup
D. Suspension
277. For the same drug product, which dosage form is easily vulnerable to early
expire?
A. Capsule
B. Powder
C. Injectable
D. Tablet
278. The fraction of the intact/unchanged drug absorbed into the systemic
circulation and rich at the site of action
A. Half-life
B. Bioavailability
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Absorption
D. Biotransformation
279. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Flocculation --------------co-agulation
B. Deflocculation-----------co-agulation
C. Creaming -----------------instability of emulsion
D. Cake formation ---------problem of suspension
280. The imbalance between O2 supply and O2 demand is
A. Hypertension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Heart failure
D. Arrhythmia
281. Hyperkalemia is the adverse effect of
A. K+-sparing diuretics
B. Osmotic diuretics
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Loop diuretics
282. One of the following is incorrect?
A. Hard paraffin ---------------stiffen ointment base
B. Liquid paraffin -------------require antioxidants
C. Soft paraffin ---------------non-greasy
D. Soft paraffin --------------greasy
283. Identify the drug that relief pain and suppressed inflammation with gout
arthritis
A. Colchicine
B. Allopurinol
C. Probenecid
D. Sulfinpyrazole
284. Cake formation is the problem of
A. Emulsion
B. Suspension
C. Solution
D. Ointment
285. Cracking formation is the problem of
A. Emulsion
B. Suspension
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Solution
D. Cream
286. One of the following is not symptom of poor quantification
A. Chronic and widespread shortage of commonly used drugs
B. Surplus of commonly used drugs
C. Inequity of supplies between the different health facilities
D. Cost- effectiveness of resources
287. During receiving of known drugs from supplier, all of the following should be
checked except:
A. Type of product
B. Quantity of product
C. Indication of product
D. Batch no of product
288. The first class of anti-HIV drugs was
A. NRTI
B. NNRTI
C. PI
D. Fusion inhibitors
289. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (also called NRTI or nuke)
A. Raltegravir (RAL)
B. Saquinavir (SQV)
C. Emetricitabine (FTC)
D. Enfuvirtide (ENF)
290. Non- nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor ( non-nuke or NNRTI)
A. Emetricitabine (FTC)
B. Saquinavir (SQV)
C. Raltegravir (RAL)
D. Delaviridine (DLV)
291. Protease inhibitor (PI)
A. Emetricitabine (FTC)
B. Saquinavir (SQV)
C. Raltegravir (RAL)
D. Delaviridine (DLV)
292. Entry inhibitor
A. Emetricitabine (FTC)
B. Enfuvirtide (T-20)
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Raltegravir (RAL)
D. Delaviridine (DLV)
293. HIV integrase inhibitor
A. Emetricitabine (FTC)
B. Enfuvirtide (T-20)
C. Raltegravir (RAL)
D. Delaviridine (DLV)
294. Which causes appetite loss?
A. Abacavior (ABC)
B. Efavirenz (EFV)
C. Emetricitabine (FTC)
D. Saquinavir (SQV)
295. Mood changes, depression, and anxiety
A. Abacavior (ABC)
B. Efavirenz (EFV)
C. Emetricitabine (FTC)
D. Saquinavir (SQV)
296. Which one of the following statement is true about formulary and non-
formulary drugs?
A. Non- formulary drugs are used in large amounts
B. Every prescriber should access non-formulary drugs
C. No need of management to limit the number of non-formulary drugs
D. Open formulary system allows introduction of non-formulary drugs
297. One of the following is not the function of drug and therapeutics committee
(DTC) in a hospital?
A. Drug selection
B. Purchasing medicines for the hospital
C. Preparing hospital formulary
D. Identifying drug use problems
298. One is not good dispensing practice in hospital pharmacy
A. Referring standard treatment guidelines
B. Switching brand to generic
C. Wearing a freshly laundered gown
D. Reading the prescription carefully
299. Which one is more common source of drugs?
A. Genetic engineering
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Animal
C. Plant
D. Synthetic
300. “what the drug dose the body refers” to
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Toxicology
D. Teratogenic
301. In which route of drug administration is bioavailability?
A. Sc B. IV C. IM D. PO
302. An act of breaking or failing to observe a law, promise standard procedures or
code of conduct regarding to the health service delivery system is
A. Breach
B. Work
C. Injury
D. Communication barrier

312. Which one of the following is best describes ethics?

A. Governmental rules and regulations related to morality

B. A system of state specific regulations requiring good conduct

C. A system of moral principles and values including good and decent conduct

D. A system for regulating the health care profession

313. Which one of the following activities or practices dose not describes a malpractice
issue?

A. Unethical conduct

B. Unreasonable lack of skill (incompetence)

C. Making an error while charting, then drawing a line through it, and charting
the correction

D. Evil practice including euthanasia

314. Which part of the prescription is considered as main body of the prescription?

A. Subscription
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Inscription

C. Superscription

D. Signature

315. During receiving of pharmaceuticals:

A. Expiry date may not be checked

B. The quantity of the products should be reconciled with the delivery documents

C. Counterfeit products may be accepted

D. Non-formulary drugs of the hospital must be accepted

316. Factor that is not considered in laboratory reagent selection.

A. Shelf-life of the reagent

B. Compatibility of the reagent with existing instruments

C. Selecting technically complicating reagents

D. Sensitivity

317. Stock on hand means:

A. Quantity of products in the store

B. Quantity of usable products

C. Quantity of damaged or expired products

D .Quantity of products transfer to other community pharmacy

318. Which of the following cannot be regarded as drug quality problem?

A. The availability of suspended particles in a solution

B. Color change

C. Melted suppository at room temperature

D. Cost of the drug

319. Which drug must available in a hospital/health center throughout the year?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

A. Multivitamin

B. Simvastatin

C. ORS

D. Sildenafil citrate

320. Which name is different?

A. Traditional medicine

B. Alternative medicine

C. Indigenous medicine

D. Western medicine

321. Lead time is the time between:

A. Imitation of requisition and receiving the drugs

B. Receiving and stock out time

C. Ordering and stock out time

D. Minimum stock level and maximum stock level

322. A science that deals with dosage form design is:

A. Pharmacology

B. Pharmaceutics

C. Pharmacognosy

D. Organic chemistry

323. An excipient that is added to a pharmaceutical formulation to mask bad odor.

A. Active ingredient

B. Coloring agent

C. Flavoring agent
D. Preservative
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

324. --------------refers to a continuous process of receiving, storing, and moving drugs

safely to different points in healthcare system in which the drug is dispensed to patients.

A. Drug procurement

B. Drug distribution

C. Drug donation

D. Drug dispensing

325. Cake formation is a formulation problem that can be observed:

A. Suspension

B. Syrup

C. Emulsion

D. Ointment

326. The correct sequence of pharmacokinetics:

A. Absorption-metabolism-distribution-excretion

B. Absorption-excretion-metabolism-distribution

C. Absorption-distribution-metabolism-excretion

D. Absorption-distribution-excretion-metabolism

327. Which one of the following preparations contains high concentration of sugar?

A. Syrup

B. Tincture

C. Elixir

D. Suspension

328. While we are compounding pharmaceutical products at small level, all are mandatory
except?

A. placing preparations in cold containers without removing previous label

 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Selecting the right container

C. Labeling appropriately

D. Following the correct procedure of compounding

329. A prescription called for procaine penicillin 400,000 IU BID for 07 days. How many
vials of 4,000,000 IU should be dispensed?

A. 1 vial

B. 3 vials

C. 2 vials

D. 4 vials

330. What do you mean by otic dosage form?

A. Dosage form of the drugs administered through the ears

B. Dosage form of the drugs administered through the eye

C. Dosage form of the drugs administered through the nose

D. Both for the eyes and the nose

331. What is the dosage form of the drug to be administered under the skin?

A. Subcutaneous

B. Transdermal

C. Topical

D. Rectal

332. --------------is a broad spectrum antihelmenthic.

A. Albendazole

B. Niclosamide

C. Piperazine

D. Metronidazole
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

333. ----------------is used in the treatment of herpes zoster viral infection.

A. Acyclovir

B. Indinavir

C. Tenofovir

D. Abacavir

334. The safest and most acceptable method dispensing medications to hospitalized patient
is

A. Bulk distribution system

B. Daily dose dispensing system

C. Full dose/individual patient distribution system

D. Unit dose dispensing system

335. Universal antidote

A. Ipecacuanha

B. Naloxone

C. Activated charcoal
D. Atropine

336. Antidote of organophosphate poisoning

A. Ipecacuanha

B. Naloxone

C. Activated charcoal

D. Atropine

337. Antidote of morphine poisoning

A. Ipecacuanha

B. Naloxone
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

C. Activated charcoal

D. Atropine

338. Primary source information

A. Scientific journals

B. Dictionaries

C. Pharmaceutical abstract

D. Encyclopedia

339. Which TB drug has side effect of urine color change?

A. INH

B. Rifampicin

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

340. Vitamin B-6 may be given with one of the following TB drug to prevent peripheral
neuropathy?

A. Streptomycin

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Kanamycin

D. Isoniazide

341. It is generally agreed that pharmaceutical products should be prepared with a low
percentage of error. The official compendium allows a:

A. Pulse or minus 2% error

B. Pulse or minus 3% error

C. Pulse or minus 4% error

D. Pulse or minus 5% error

 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

342. One of the following “graduates” which one is the most accurate?

A. The conical graduate

B. The cylindrical graduate

C. The Erlenmeyer graduate

D. The mortar graduate

343. Which type of mortar and pestle is preferred for mixing liquids and semisoft dosage
form?

A. Porcelain

B. Wedgwood

C. Marble

D. Glass

344. Suspending agents are used as a thickening agent that gives some structure to a
suspension and allows easy dispersion of particles. Of the following, which one is a
suspending agent?

A. Alcohol

B. Tragacanth

C. Mineral oil

D. Heavy water

345. The importance of geometric dilution cannot be overstated. Of the following recipe’s ,
which one would involve geometric dilution?

A. Making of suspension to ensure dispersion of particles

B. Making of ointment to ensure a homogenous mixture

C. Making of an elixir to ensure the incorporation of alcohol

D. Making of syrup to ensure the incorporation of sugar

346. In the following formula you are compounding, how much Talk is needed to fill
120gms?
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

Nupercainal ointment -----------4%

Zinc oxide --------------------------20%

Talk ----------------------------------2%
A. 1.2gm
B. 1.5gm
C. 2.0gm
D. 2.4gm

347. Sufonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicetrus , because they?

A. Diminish the production of plasma albumin

B. Increase the turnover of red blood cells

C. Inhibit the metabolism of bilirubin

D. Compete for bilirubin binding sites on plasma albumin

E. Depress the bone marrow

348. The addition of glucuronic acid to a drug:

A. Decrease its water solubility

B. Usually leads to inactivation of the drug

C. Is an example of a phase I reaction?

D. occurs at the same rate in adults and newborns

E. Involves cytochrome p450

349. A hospital pharmacy assistant is going to prepare a suspension. But, one of the
ingredients is Indifusble solid which is insoluble in water and does not uniformly distribute
throughout the vehicle. Which one of the following additive should be used to overcome
this problem?

A. Chalk powder

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Light kaolin
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

D. Tragacanth

Which one of the following statement is true about ABC analysis of drugs in a given health
facility

A. Class B-items are fewer than class A-items

B. Class A items are more likely to be stocked than class B items

C. Class C items account more expenditure than class A items

D. Class C items should be stocked all items

303. A patient with a gunshot would be the abdomen, which has resulted in
spoilage of intestinal contents, is brought to the emergency room. Which
antibiotic would you select to effectively treat an infection due to bacteroides
fragilis?
A. Aztreonam
B. Clindamycin
C. Gentamycin
D. Azithromycin
304. Which one of the following beta blocker reduces Glomerular filtration rate?
A. Atenolol
B. Esmolol
C. Propranolol
D. Betaxolol
305. Used for management of Brady-arrhythmia.
A. Digoxin
B. Adenosine
C. Verapamil
D. Atropine
306. Class III ant arrhythmic drug
A. Procainamide
B. Atenolol
C. Amiodarone
D. Flecainide
307. True statement about resins.
A. Decrease LDL receptors in liver
 Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor

B. Allow entrohepatic cycle of bile acid

C. Decrease bile acid synthesis
D. Do not used in patients with elevated VLDL
308. Which one of the following statement is false about beta blockers?
A. They are first line drugs along with diuretics and ACEIs
B. Preferred in young non-obese hypertensive patients
C. They are contraindicated for post myocardial infarction patients
D. Cardio-selective drugs can be used for hypertension for patients with asthma
309. Which one is the correct order of steps of waste management?
A. Transportation---collection---segregation---disposal
B. Segregation--- collection--- Transportation--- disposal
C. Transportation----disposal---collection---segregation
D. Segregation---transportation----disposal---collection
Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor
Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor
Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor